Grade 11 & 12 | NEET

Full Test-1
Test Date – 1 April 2024
Important Instructions :
1. Fill in the particulars on OMR provided carefully with blue/black ball-point pen only.
2. The test is of 3.20 hours in duration and Test Booklet contains 200 Multiple Choice questions (four options with
a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. 50 Questions in Physics and Biology are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per the details given below:
No. Subject(s) Section(s) Number of Marks (Each Question Type of
Question(s) carries 4 Marks) Question

1 Physics Section A 35 140 MCQ

(Multiple Choice
2 Physics Section B 15 40 Questions)

3 Chemistry Section A 35 140

4 Chemistry Section B 15 40

5 Biology I Section A 35 140

6 Biology I Section B 15 40

7 Biology II Section A 35 140

8 Biology II Section B 15 40

Note : Correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Unattempted / Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.
3. Section A: It will have 35 questions in each Subject. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and the
Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Section B: Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting them. In the event of a candidate attempting more than 10 questions, then the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and the
Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
4. Use a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
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10. Use of an Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
 NEET - Full Test 1
PHYSICS 7. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -
SECTION - A 13.6 eV. The energy required to ionize
1. A train is moving towards East and a car is hydrogen atom from second excited state is
moving Northwards, both with the same (a) 13.6 eV (b) 3.4 eV
speed. The observed direction of car for the (c) 1.51 eV (d) 0.85 eV
passenger in the train is 8. If the frequency of incident radiation on metal
(a) East-North direction plate is  (   0 ) then speed of emitted
(b) North-West direction photoelectron is v. If frequency of radiation is
(c) South-East direction made twice, then the correct option is ( 0 is
(d) None of the above threshold frequency of metal plate)
2. Two inductor coils L1 = 18 mH and L2 = 2 mH (a) Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron
are perfectly coupled. Find the coefficient of becomes twice
mutual inductance? (b) Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron
(a) 6 mH (b) 36 mH becomes greater than twice
(c) 9 mH (d) 81 mH (c) Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron is
3. If binding energy of hypothetical nuclei P, Q, less than twice
R are 112 MeV, 106 MeV and 230 MeV (d) Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons
respectively then energy absorbed in the remains same
reaction R → P + Q is
9. When A.B = − A B , then
(a) 2 MeV (b) 12 MeV
(c) 241 MeV (d) 22 MeV (a) A and B are perpendicular to each other
4. Which one of the following happens when (b) A and B act in the same direction
light ray enters from air to a glass slab? (c) A and B act in the opposite directions
(a) Wavelength increases
(d) A and B can act in any direction
(b) Wavelength decreases
10. An uncharged soap bubble is given some
(c) Frequency increases
positive charge, then its radius
(d) Frequency decreases
(a) Decreases
5. If an electric current i as a function of time t is
(b) Increases
given as i = t2 (for 0  t  T ), then RMS value
(c) Remains unchanged
of the current for time 0 to T is (d) May increase or decrease
T2 11. Assuming Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom,
(a) T2 (b)
2 the wavelength of α-line of Balmer series is λ.
T2 T2 The wavelength of α-line of Lyman series is
(c) (d)
2 5 27 5
(a)  (b)
6. A cylinder of height 3.2 m is completely filled 128 27
with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in 27 5
(c)  (d)
ms–1) through a small hole on the side wall of 32 36
the cylinder near the bottom is (take
g = 10ms −2 )
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 4.8

2
12. A body of mass m starts from rest and moves 17. A ball is thrown vertically up from the ground
with a velocity v = a x . Then the work done with a speed of 35 m/s at t = 0. Find the time
by all the forces on the body in time t is (x is instant at which it crosses the height of 60 m
distance travelled) for the first time after it was thrown. (g = 10
1 1 m/s2)
(a) ma 2 t 2 (b) ma 4 t 2 (a) t = 3 sec (b) t = 4 sec
4 8
(c) t = 7 sec (d) t = 1 sec
1 1
(c) ma 4 t 2 (d) ma 2 t 2 18. When a ferromagnetic material is placed in a
4 8
magnetizing field, then intensity of
13. The potential difference between points x and y
magnetization is 5000 times the magnetizing
in the circuit shown in figure is
field intensity. Then relative permeability of
material is
(a) 5 × 104 (b) 5 × 105
(c) 4999 (d) 5001
19. In the circuit shown in figure diodes D1 and D2
are ideal. The effective resistance between A
and B is
(a) 8 V (b) 10 V
(c) 20 V (d) 40 V
14. A rectangular coil of metallic wire is placed in
a uniform field 30 mT with its plane
perpendicular to the field. If the area of the
loop is shrinking at a constant rate of 0.4 m2s-1,
the induced emf in the coil is: (a) 60 Ω (b) 80 Ω
(a) 20 mV (b) 18 mV (c) 120 Ω (d) 30 Ω
(c) 10 mV (d) 12 mV 20. Depletion layer in a junction diode consists of
15. The objective lens of a compound microscope (a) electrons
produces magnification of 10. In order to get (b) protons
an overall magnification of 100 when image is (c) mobile charge carriers
formed at 25 cm from the eye, the focal length (d) immobile charge carriers
of the eye lens should be 21. Two particles P and Q simultaneously start
(a) 4 cm (b) 10 cm moving from point A with velocities 15 ms-1
25 and 20 ms-1 respectively. The two particles
(c) cm (d) 9 cm
9 move with accelerations equal in magnitude
16. In the circuit shown, the power consumed by but opposite in direction. When P's velocity is
the bulb B1 long time after the key K is closed 30m/s then the velocity of Q at the same time
is (inductor is ideal) will be:
(a) 30 ms–1 (b) 5 ms–1
–1
(c) 20 ms (d) 15 ms–1
22. A body of mass m is taken from earth surface
to the height h equal to radius of earth (R), the
increase in potential energy will be
1
(a) mgR (b) mgR
(a) 5 W (b) 10 W 2
(c) 20 W (d) 40 W 1
(c) 2 mgR (d) mgR
4
3
23. Which of the following statements are true for 27. Originally the Young’s double slit experiment
wave motion? was performed with white light, in which
(a) Sound waves are transverse waves central maxima for all colours in the fringe
(b) Sound waves can travel in vacuum pattern overlap each other at centre. Assume
(c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves that wavelength of blue light is 520 nm and
(d) String waves are electromagnetic waves that of red light is 780 nm. The value of x for
24. In a new system the unit of mass is  which xth bright red band coincides with (x +
Kilograms, unit of length is  meters and 1)th blue band is
unit of time is  seconds. The value of 1 J in (a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2
this new system is
28. A block is placed on a rough horizontal
2 
(a) (b) 2 surface. A time dependent force F = Kt2 is
 2  applied horizontally on the block. Here K is a
 2 positive constant. Then acceleration time
(c)  (d)
2 graph of block is best represented by
25. Two point charges q A = 3 C and qB = −3C
are located 20cm apart in vacuum. What is the
electric field at the mid-point O of the line AB
joining the two charges?
(a) (b)

(a) 0
(b) 2.7  106 N / C along OB
(c) (d)
(c) 3.6  106 N / C along OA
29. An electron and a proton are in a uniform
(d) 5.4  106 N / C along OB electric field, the ratio of the acceleration of
26. A ray of light falls on a solid transparent sphere electron to that of proton will be
as shown in figure. The ray emerges from the (a) Zero
sphere parallel to AB. The refractive index of (b) Unity
material of sphere is (c) The ratio of the mass of proton to that of
electron
(d) The ratio of the mass of electron to that of
proton
30. A block of mass m = 2 kg is placed in
equilibrium on a moving plank accelerating
with acceleration a = 4m / s 2 . If coefficient of
3
(a) (b) 2 friction between plank and block is  = 0.2 ,
2
then the frictional force acting on the block is:
(c) 3 (d) 2
(a) 8 N (b) 6 N
(c) zero (d) 4 N

4
31. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about SECTION - B
an axis passing through the centre of gravity is
2 36. A particle starts from rest at origin. If
MR 2 , then its radius of gyration about a
5 acceleration (a) varies with time (t) as shown in
parallel axis at a distance 2R from first axis is figure, then the velocity of the particle at t = 1
22 second is:
(a) 5R (b) R
5
5 12
(c) R (d) R
2 5
32. A magnet when placed perpendicular to a
uniform field of strength 10−4 Wb / m2
experiences a maximum torque of
4  10−5 N / m . What is its magnetic moment? (a) 5 m/s (b) 10 m/s
(a) 0.4A  m 2
(b) 0.2A  m 2 (c) 2.5 m/s (d) – 10 m/s
(c) 0.16A  m2 (d) 0.04A  m2 37. A particle is thrown with speed u at an angle
33. The area of cross-section of the wider tube of 45 from the horizontal on a plane ground.
shown in figure is 800 cm2. If a mass of 12 kg Find the magnitude of change in velocity,
is placed on the massless piston, the difference between the initial instant (t = 0) and the final
in height i.e h in the level of water in the two  2u 
instant  t =  . (Take g = 10 m/s2)
tubes is:  10 
(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3) and (g = 10
(a) u 2
m/s2)
(b) Zero
u
(c)
2
(d) u
(a) 10 cm (b) 6 cm 38. Consider an electron in the nth orbit of a
(c) 15 cm (d) 2 cm hydrogen atom in the Bohr model. The
34. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie circumference of the orbit can be expressed in
wavelength  fall on the target in an X-ray terms of de-Broglie wavelength λ of that
tube. The cutoff wavelengths ( 0 ) of the electron as
emitted X - ray is (a) 0.529n
2h 2m2 c 2  3 (b) n
(a) 0 = (b) 0 = (c) 13.6n
mc h2
2mc 2 (d) n
(c) 0 =  (d) 0 =
h 39. If the angular momentum of a rotating body
35. The wavelength  of a photon and the de- about a fixed axis is increased by 10%, then its
Broglie wavelength of an electron has the kinetic energy will be increased by
same value. Find the ratio of energy of photon (a) 11% (b) 25%
to the kinetic energy of electron in terms of (c) 20% (d) 5%
mass m, speed of light c and Plank’s constant
(h).
(a)  mc / h (b) hmc / 
(c) 2hmc /  (d) 2 mc / h
5
40. A triangular loop PQR, carrying current i, is 43. Let E = E0 sin 106 x − t  be the electric field
placed in uniform magnetic field B as shown in
of plane electromagnetic wave travelling in
figure. The length of side PQ is L. Then correct
vacuum, the value of  is
option regarding magnetic force is
(a) 0.3  10−14 rad s −1 (b) 3  10−14 rad s −1
(c) 3  1015 rad s −1 (d) 3  1014 rad s −1
44. 10 gm of ice at – 20°C is dropped into a
calorimeter containing 10 gm of water at
10°C, the specific heat of water is twice that of
ice. When equilibrium is reached, the
calorimeter will contain (specific heat of water
(a) The force on side PQ is (iBL) and directed
= 1 cal/gm)
into the page.
(a) 20 gm of water
(b) The force on side PQ is (iBL) and directed
(b) 20 gm of ice
out side the page
(c) 10 gm ice and 10 gm water
(c) The force on side PR is (iBL) and directed
(d) 5 gm ice and 15 gm water
into the page.
45. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to force
3
(d) The force on side PR is iBL and F which varies with distance x as shown in
2 figure. If it starts journey from rest at x = 0, then
directed into the page. the work done by force F upto x = 6 is:
41. A projectile is thrown up with initial speed u at
angle  with the horizontal. It just crosses a
tower horizontally. The tower is 100 m high
and the foot of the tower is at 200 m from the
point of projection. The angle of projection 
(a) 80 J (b) 40 J
is
(c) 20 J (d) 100 J
(a) 30º (b) 45º
46. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s
(c) 60º (d) 70º
making an angle of 45° with horizontal. The
42. A mass m is released from a distance 2R from
center on the axis of a fixed ring of mass M equation for trajectory is y = Ax − Bx 2 , where
and radius R. Speed of mass m at distance R y is height and x is the horizontal distance. A
from center of ring is and B are constants. The ratio A : B (in m) is
(Take, g = 10 m/s2)
GM 2  2
(a) v = 1 −  (a) 1 : 5 (b) 5 : 1
R  5 
(c) 1 : 40 (d) 40 : 1
2GM  2 47. Two identical piano wires, kept under the
(b) v = 1 − 
5 
same tension T, have a fundamental frequency
R  of 600Hz. The fractional increase in the
GM  2 tension of one the wires will lead to
(c) v =  1 − 
2R  5  occurrence of 6 beats s −1 when both the wires
oscillate together would be :
GM  2 (a) 0.01 (b) 0.02
(d) v =  1 − 
R  5  (c) 0.03 (d) 0.04

6
48. A body is rotating with angular velocity 52. The increasing order of nitration of the
( )
 = 3iˆ − 4 ˆj + kˆ . The linear velocity of a point following compounds is :

(
having position vector r = 5iˆ − 6 ˆj + 6kˆ is: )
(a) 6iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3kˆ (b) 18iˆ + 13 ˆj − 2kˆ
(c) −18iˆ − 13 ˆj + 2kˆ (d) 6iˆ − 2 ˆj + 8kˆ
(a) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
49. Moment of inertia of a uniform annular disc of
(b) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
internal radius r and external radius R and
(c) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
mass M about an axis through its centre and
(d) (a) < (b) < (d) < (c)
perpendicular to its plane is:

(a) M ( R 2 − r 2 ) (b) M ( R 2 + r 2 )
1 1
2 2
53.
M ( R4 + r 4 ) 1 M (R + r )
2 4
Compound X is
(c) (d)
2( R + r
2 2
) 2 (R 2
−r 2
)
50. Assertion: Two circular discs of equal mass
and thickness made of different materials, will (a) (b)
have same moment of inertia about their central
axes of rotation.
Reason: Moment of inertia depends upon the
(c) (d)
distribution of mass in the body
54. The emf of the cell;
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Zn|Zn2+ (0.001 M)||Fe2+ (0.01 M)|Fe at 298K is
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
0.3495 V. the value of equilibrium constant for
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
the cell reaction is
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(a) exp (0.32/0.0295) (b) exp (0.3495/0.0295)
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(c) 10(0.32/0.0295) (d) 10(-0.32/0.0295)
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
55. The ionization constant of HCN at 298 K is
4.8 10−9 . The ionization constant of its
CHEMISTRY conjugate base is
(a) 4.8 10−9 (b) 2.08 10−5
SECTION - A (c) 2.08 10−6 (d) 6
56. Assuming that, water vapour is an ideal gas,
51. Which of the following statements is not true
the internal energy change (∆U), when 1 mol
about sucrose?
of water is vapourized at 1 bar pressure &
(a) It is a reducing sugar.
100°C, (given: molar enthalpy of
(b) The glycosidic linkage is present between
vapourization of water at 1 bar & 373 K = 41
C1 of  -glucose and C2 of  - fructose.
kJmol–1 & R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1) will be:
(c) It is also named as invert sugar. (a) 41.00 kJmol–1 (b) 3.7904 kJmol–1
(d) On hydrolysis, it produces glucose and (c) 4.100 kJmol–1 (d) 37.898 kJmol–1
fructose. 57. Increasing value of magnetic moments of
(I) [Fe(CN)6]4– (II) [Fe(CN)6]3–, (III)
[Cr(NH3)6]3+, (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+ is
(a) I < II < III < IV (b) IV < III < II < I
(c) II < III < I < IV (d) I < II < IV < III
7
58. The major product (70% to 80%) of the 63. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant
reaction between m-dinitrobenzene with (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The
(NH4)2S is plot that follows Arrhenius equation is

(a) (b)
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)
64. The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution
59. Which one is most reactive towards SN1
assuming NaCl to be 100% dissociated in
reaction?
water is(Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol1-)
(a) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(a) –1.86°C (b) –3.72°C
(b) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(c) +1.86°C (d) +3.72°C
(c) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
65. The incorrect statement among the following
(d) C6H5CH2Br
is
60. Which of the following compounds undergoes
(a) bonding molecular orbitals possess less
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
energy than combining atomic orbitals
(b) bonding molecular orbitals are denoted by
 *, *
(a) (b) (c) every electron in bonding molecular
orbitals contributes to attraction between
atoms
(d) bonding molecular orbital contributes
towards the stability of molecule
(c) (d) 66. The brown ring test for NO2− and NO3− is due
61. Which of the following is the strongest base in to the formation of complex ion with formula
water? 2+
(a)  Fe ( H 2O )6 
2+
(b)  Fe ( NO )( CN )5 
(a) (b) 2+
(c)  Fe ( H 2O )5 NO 
2+
(d)  Fe ( H 2O )( NO )5 

(c) (d)
62. Equivalent mass of chlorine molecule in the 67. Which pair from the following will not form
equation an ideal solution?
3Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O (a) CCl4 + SiCl4
(a) 42.6 (b) 35.5 (b) H2O + C2H5OH
(c) 59.1 (d) 71 (c) C2H5Br + C2H5I
(d) C6H14 + C7H16

8
68. Benzaldehyde on reaction with acetophenone 74. In the reaction sequence:
in the presence of sodium hydroxide solution CHCl3 ⎯⎯⎯
Air/ hv
→ X  ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
C6 H 6 /Anhydrous AlCl3
excess
→Y ;
gives (after heating)
'Y' will be
(a) C6 H 5CH = CHCOC6 H 5
(b) C6 H 5COCH 2C6 H 5
(c) C6 H 5CH = CHC6 H 5
(a)
(d) C6 H 5CH ( OH ) COC6 H 5
69. Bond angle decreases except when
(a) NH 4+ is converted to NH3 (b)
(b) − NH 2 is converted to − N 3
(c) SO3 is converted to SO2
(d) CO2 is converted to CO3−2 (c)
70. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, if (d) H 5C6 − CHO
d  NH 3  d H2  75. Which of the following compounds will most
= 2  10−4 Ms −1 , the value of -
dt dt easily produce a precipitate with AgNO3 ?
would be
(a) 4 × 10-4 mol/L/s (b) 6 × 10-4 mol/L/s
(c) 1 × 10-4 mol/L/s (d) 3 × 10-4 mol/L/s
The graph between 
2
71. and r (radial distance)
(a) (b)
is shown below. This represents:

(c) (d)
76. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by
(a) 3s orbital (b) 2s orbital CoBr2Cl.4NH3 ?
(c) 1s orbital (d) 2p orbital (a) Geometrical and ionization
72. If 0.5 mol of BaCI2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of (b) Geometrical & optical
Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of (c) Optical and ionization
Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is (d) Geometrical only
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.5 77. Acetamide reacts with P2O5 to give
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.10 (a) Methyl cyanide (b) Methyl cyanate
73. Which have maximum pKa in following? (c) Ethyl cyanide (d) None of these
(a) CH3 – COOH 78. Which of the following amine will not react
with nitrous acid to give nitrogen

(b) (a) CH3NH2 (b)

(c) (d)
(c)
(d) CHCl2 – COOH
9
79. Which of the following reactions can produce
R-CO-Ar ? SECTION – B
(a) ArCOCl + H − Ar ⎯⎯⎯
→ AlCl3 86. Which of the following is true for the species
(b) RCOCl + RMgX → 3d4 configuration?
(c) RH + CrO3 → (a) Cr2+ is reducing in nature
(b) Mn3+ is oxidising in nature
(d) RCOCl + H − Ar ⎯⎯⎯
AlCl3
→
(c) Both (A) and (B)
80.
(d) None of these
87. Which one of the following orbitals does not
What is ‘‘X’’ in the above sequence of have electron density along the axes?
reactions (a) 3px (b) 3dxy
(a) prop-1-en-2-ol (b) prop-2-en-1-ol (c) 3s (d) d x2 − y2
(c) ethanol (d) prop-1-en-1-ol 88. The amount of dibasic acid present in 100 mL
81. The following compounds can be distinguished of an aqueous solution to give 0.1 N strength
by is [mol. wt. = 200]
(a) 0.5 g (b) 1 g
(c) 1.5 g (d) 2 g
(a) Neutral FeCl3 (b) Ammonical AgNO3 89. If solubility product of HgSO4 is 6.4 10−5 ,
(c) 2, 4-DNP (d) NaHCO3 solution then its solubility is
82. Which of the following order is INCORRECT (a) 8 10−3 mole / litre
for ionic radius of lanthanides? (b) 6.4  10−5 mole / litre
(a) Eu ( 63)  Gd ( 64 ) (c) 6.4  10−3 mole / litre
(d) Yb3+ ( 70 )  Lu 3+ ( 71) (d) 2.8  10−6 mole / litre
(c) Am3+ ( 95 )  U 3+ ( 61) 90. From compounds given below which do not
undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction ?
(d) Ce3+ ( 58 )  Pm3+ ( 61)
83. Consider the reaction 2A + B Products, when
conc. of B alone was doubled, half-life did not
changed, when conc. of A alone was doubled,
The rate increased by two times the unit of rate
(a) Only I (b) Only II
constant for this reaction is
(c) I and III (d) II and III
(a) s–1 (b) L. mol-1.s-1
91. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol
(c) no unit (d) mol.L-1 .s-1
84. Reasons of lanthanoid contraction is:
( CH 3OH ) is supplied. What is the mole
(a) Decreasing nuclear charge fraction of methyl alcohol in the solution?
(b) Decreasing screening effect (a) 0.100 (b) 0.190
(c) Negligible screening effect of ‘f’ orbitals (c) 0.085 (d) 0.050
(d) Increasing nuclear charge 92. The oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(C6H6)2] is
85. Which of the following amines does not react (a) +2 (b) +6
with Hinsberg’s reagent? (c) +3 (d) 0
(a) CH3CH2 – NH2 (b) CH3 – NH – CH3
(c) (CH3CH2)3N (d) All of these

10
93. If the equivalent conductivities of Fe3+ and 99. The shape of (CH3)3N is pyramidal because
SO 2−
ions is 68Scm eq 2 −1
and 80 Scm eq 2 −1 (a) nitrogen forms three sp3 hybridised sigma
4
bonds with carbon atoms of methyl groups and
respectively. The molar conductance of
there is one non-bonding electron pair
Fe2 ( SO4 )3 is
(b) nitrogen forms three sp2 hybridised sigma
(a) 148 Scm 2 mol −1 (b) 444 Scm2 mol −1 bonds with carbon atoms of methyl groups and
(c) 888 Scm 2 mol −1 (d) 592 Scm2 mol −1 fourth orbital forms pi bond
(c) nitrogen has five valencies which are
94. CH 3 Br + Nu − → CH 3 − Nu + Br − arranged in pyramidal shape.
The decreasing order of the rate of the above (d) the unpaired electron present on nitrogen is
reaction with nucleophiles ( Nu − ) A to D is delocalized.
100. Which of the following is not correctly matched
A) PhO − B) AcO− C) OH − D) CH 3O −
with the given example?
(a) D>C>A>B (b) D>C>B>A (a) An element of first transition series which
(c) A>B>C>D (d) B>D>C>A has highest second ionization enthalpy – Cu
95. The gas phase reaction 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) is (b) An element of first transition series with
an exothermic reaction. The decomposition of highest third ionization enthalpy – Zn
N2O4, in equilibrium mixture of NO2(g) and (c) An element of 3d series with the lowest
N2O4(g), can be increased by: enthalpy of atomization – Zn
(a) addition of an inert gas at constant (d) Last element of third transition series-Cd.
pressure.
(b) lowering the temperature
BIOLOGY – I
(c) increasing the pressure
SECTION - A
(d) addition of an inert gas at constant volume.
101. Which of the following taxonomic categories
96. Given that at 25°C,
are correctly matched to their standard
Cr 3+ ( aq ) + e − → Cr 2+ ( aq ) , E  = −0.424V
termination of names with respect to the
Cr 2 + ( aq ) + 2e − → Cr ( s ) , E  = −0.900V biological classification of plants?
Calculate the following: I. Division – phyta
E° at 25°C for Cr 3+ ( aq ) + 3e − → Cr ( s ) II. Class – opsida
III. Order – ales
(a) – 0.74 V (b) + 0.74 V
IV. Family – idea
(c) -1.324 V (d) – 0.476 V
(a) I, II, IV (b) I, II, III
97. Potassium dichromate is prepared from:
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II, III, IV
(a) chromate obtained by the fusion of
102. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the
chromite ore with sodium carbonate in free
family
access of air
(a) Liliaceae (b) Solanaceae
(b) pyrolusite which is fused with potassium
(c) Brassicaceae (d) Fabaceae
hydroxide in the presence of air
103. During formation of leaves and elongation of
(c) iron pyrites by the fusion with potassium
stem, some cells ‘left behind’ from the shoot
carbonate in presence of moisture
apical meristem, constitute ____
(d) chromite ore by the fusion with potassium
(a) Lateral meristem
carbonate in presence of moisture
(b) Axillary bud
98. The general electronic configuration of d-
(c) Cork cambium
block element is:
(d) Fascicular cambium
(a) ns2 (n-1)d0 to 10 (b) ns1 to 2 (n-1)d1 to 10
(c) ns1 to 2 (n -1)d0 to 10 (d) ns1 to 2 nd1 to 10

11
104. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, 109. Select the mismatched pair
electrons are continuously lost from the (a) Amphibians of plant kingdom-Bryophytes
reaction centre of PS II. Which source is used (b) First terrestrial plants to possess vascular
to replace these electrons? tissues-Gymnosperms
(a) Sunlight (b) O2 (c) Water required for transfer of male gametes-
(c) H2O (d) CO2 Pteridophytes
105. Removal of auxin source demonstrates that (d) Seeds enclosed in fruits –Angiosperms
leaf abscission is ______ by auxin, and apical 110. Which of the following is incorrect about the
dominance is ______ by auxin. haplontic life cycle?
(a) promoted, promoted (a) Gametophytes are the dominant phase in
(b) inhibited, inhibited this life cycle
(c) promoted, inhibited (b) Sporophytes are free-living
(d) inhibited, promoted (c) Spores are haploid in nature and form
106. The diagram below shows two plants belonging gametophytes by mitotic division
to the same species. The mechanism that will (d) Zygote acts as sporophyte
induce variation in the progeny is 111. What is false about heartwood?
(a) It conducts water
(b) It gives mechanical support to the stem
(c) It comprises dead elements with highly
lignified walls
(d) It is dark brown due to deposition of organic
compounds
112. Read the following statements carefully
(a) P1 (b) P2 A. The cells of the permanent tissues do not
(c) P3 (d) all of these generally divide further
107. Organisms may avoid stressful conditions by B. Permanent tissues having many different
suspending their activities for sometime. If types of cells are called simple tissues
they do it to avoid high temperature it is called C. Permanent tissues having all cells similar in
_____ and if they do it to avoid low structure and function are called complex
temperature then it is called _____. tissues.
(a) Aestivation, migration Among these statements
(b) Migration, hibernation (a) A and B are correct, but C is incorrect
(c) Aestivation, hibernation (b) B and C are correct but A is incorrect
(d) Hibernation, aestivation (c) A and C are incorrect but B is correct
108. Which of the following statements is correct? (d) B and C are incorrect but A is correct
(i) Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are 113. C3 plants show CO2 saturation at about ___
Ascomycetes. μl/L.
(ii) Mycelium of Phycomycetes is aseptate and (a) 36
coenocytic. (b) 360
(iii) Sexual reproduction in Phycomycetes (c) 450
takes place by zoospores (motile) or by (d) 10
aplanospores (non-motile).
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) None of the above
12
114. Characteristics found in the cells of the 121. In a polluted environment, maximum pollution
meristematic zone is/are: will occur in
(a) The cells of this region are rich in (a) Producers
protoplasm, and possess small inconspicuous (b) Primary consumers
nuclei (c) Secondary consumers
(b) Their cell walls are primary in nature, thin (d) Tertiary consumers
and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal 122. Read the following five statements (i – v) and
connections answer the question.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (i) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is
(d) None of the above retained on the parent sporophyte.
115. Which is used as a weedicide? (ii) In Ginkgo, male gametophytes are not
(a) Indole Acetic acid independent.
(b) Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA) (iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more
(c) Indole Butyric acid (IBA) developed than that in Polytrichum.
(d) 2, 4-D (iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
116. In a human sperm, besides autosomes the isogamous.
chromosome complement contains (v) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls.
(a) X and Y (b) Either X or Y How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) Y only (d) X only (a) Two (b) Three
117. When does the growth rate of a population (c) Four (d) One
following the logistic model equal zero ? The 123. Match the columns I and II, and choose the
logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) correct combination from the options given
(a) When N/K is exactly one Column I Column II
(b) When N nears the carrying capacity of the i. Selaginella a. Psilopsida
habitat ii. Equisetum b. Lycopsida
(c) When N/K equals zero iii. Adiantum and c. Sphenopsida
(d) When death rate is greater than birth rate Pteris
118. Which of the following is not an example of iv. Dryopteris d. Pteropsida
prey-predator relationship? (a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c,
(a) Tiger eating a deer (c) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c (d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-d
(b) Plant Nepenthes trapping an insect 124. Read the given below statements:
(c) Bacteria decomposing organic matter 1. The axillary bud later develops into a branch.
(d) Crocodile killing a man 2. The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf
119. If a colour blind lady marries a normal man, base and may bear two lateral small leaf-like
their children will be structures called stipules.
(a) Normal daughters and normal sons 3. The lamina or the leaf blade is the green
(b) Normal sons and carrier daughters expanded part of the leaf with veins and
(c) Colour blind sons and carrier daughters veinlets.
(d) Colour blind sons and colour blind 4. The shape, margin, apex, surface and extent
daughters of incision of the lamina are the same in
120. The amino acid substituted in sickle cell different leaves.
anaemia is 5. In some leguminous plants, the leaf base may
(a) Glutamic acid for valine in the alpha chain become swollen, which is called the petiole.
(b) Glutamic acid for valine in the beta chain How many of the above statements are true?
(c) Valine for glutamic acid in the alpha chain (a) 2 (b) 3
(d) Valine for glutamic acid in the beta chain (c) 1 (d) 4
13
125. Assertion: In C4 plant photorespiration does 129. The nature and properties of soil in different
not occur. places vary; it is dependent on the i. Climate
Reason: C4 plants have a mechanism that ii. Weathering process
increases the concentration of CO2 at the iii. Whether soil is transported or sedimentary
enzyme site. iv. How soil development occurred
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the (a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv
Reason is the correct explanation of the (c) i, iii and iv (d) i, ii, iii and iv
Assertion. 130. Read the given statements and select the correct
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the option.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Statement 1 : Volvox forms spherical colony.
Assertion. Statement 2 : Volvox colony is made up of non-
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. motile cells.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
126. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is used in converting (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
(a) Glucose to pyruvate incorrect
(b) Pyruvic acid to lactic acid (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
(c) Pyruvate to acetyl CoA correct
(d) Pyruvate to glucose (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
127. The outermost and innermost wall layers of 131. Read the given statements and select the correct
microsporangium in an anther are respectively option.
(a) Endothecium and tapetum Statement 1: In human ABO blood grouping,
(b) Epidermis and endodermis there are 3 different alleles, 3 Genotypes and 4
(c) epidermis and middle layer phenotypes.
(d) Epidermis and tapetum Statement 2: Human ABO blood grouping is
128. Assertion: The period for which pollen grains the result of the presence of protein polymers
remain viable is highly variable and to some on the plasma membrane of red blood cells.
extent depends on the prevailing temperature (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
and humidity. (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
Reason: In some members of Rosaceae, incorrect
Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, pollen grains (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
lose viability within 30 minutes of their release, correct
and in some cereals such as rice and wheat, they (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
maintain viability for months. 132. Read the given statements and select the correct
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the option.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Statement 1: In photosynthesis, during ATP
Assertion. synthesis, protons accumulate in the lumen of
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the thylakoid.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Statement 2: In respiration, during ATP
Assertion. synthesis, protons accumulate in the
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. intermembranal space of mitochondria.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
14
133. Read the given statements and select the correct 137. In Mollusca gills (feather - like) has the
option. functions
Statement 1: BOD refers to the amount of (a) Respiratory and circulatory
oxygen that would be released by the micro- (b) Circulatory and excretory
organisms, if all the organic matter in one litre (c) Excretory and respiratory
of water were oxidised by bacteria. (d) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory
Statement 2: Primary treatment of sewage is a 138. Select the correct statement from the ones
physical process of removal large and small given below with respect to Periplaneta
particles. americana.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct (a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a
incorrect pair of longitudinal connectives
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is (b) Males bear a pair of short thread-like anal
correct styles
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules
134. Which one of the following pair is not a present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
conservation method included under in-situ (d) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
conservation? mouth parts
(a) National park, Sacred grooves 139. Phallic organ in cockroach is related to :
(b) Sanctuary, National parks (a) Male excretory system
(c) Botanical garden, Wildlife safaris (b) Male reproductive system
(d) Biosphere reserve, Sanctuary (c) Female excretory system
135. Which of the following pair of organelles does (d) Female reproductive system
not contain DNA? 140. How many layers are present in the diffusion
(a) Chloroplast and vacuoles membrane of alveoli?
(b) Lysosomes and vacuoles (a) 5 (b) 3
(c) Nuclear envelope and mitochondria (c) 2 (d) 4
(d) Mitochondria and lysosomes 141. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into
SECTION – B the __1____ through ____2__. The __1__
136. Select the correct option matching with leave the testis and open into ___3___.
characteristics of each group. (a) 1.rete testis, 2.vasa efferentia, 3.epididymis
Cyclostom Chondrichthy Osteichthyes (b) 1.vasa efferentia, 2.rete testis, 3.epididymis
es es (c) 1.vasa efferentia,2.epididymis,3.rete testis
i Sucking Ventral mouth Terminal (d) 1.epididymis,2.rete testis,3.vasa efferentia
mouth mouth 142. _________help in collection of the ovum after
ii Scales Placoid scales Cycloid/Cteno
ovulation.
absent id
ii Marine Marine Marine or (a) Fimbriae
i freshwater (b) Infundibulum
i 6-15 pairs 5-7 pairs of 4 pairs of gills (c) Broad ligament of the ovary
v of gills gills without (d) Uterine contractions
without operculum 143. Which one of the following is one of the most
operculum widely accepted methods of contraception in
India?
(a) i, ii and iii are correct
(a) GIFT (b) IUI
(b) i and iv are correct
(c) ZIFT (d) IUDs
(c) All are correct
(d) Only iii is correct
15
144. Which of the following STDs are not
completely curable? 149. In which of the following stages of a cell
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis cycle, the newly formed DNA molecules are
(b) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital warts not distinct but intertwined?
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B (a) S phase of interphase
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B (b) G2 phase of interphase
145. Which of the following groups is formed of (c) Both S and G2 phases of interphase
only the hermaphrodite organisms? (d) G1, S, and G2 phases of interphase
(a) Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog 150. Centrioles undergo duplication during (i) of
(b) Earthworm, tapeworm, sea horse, housefly (ii) and begin to move towards opposite poles
(c) Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm of the cell during (iii) stage of (iv).
(d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge (a) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Prophase,
146. Which one represents the correct number of (iv)-Mitosis
each type of vertebrae? (b) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Anaphase,
(a) Lumbar-4, Coccygeal-1, Thoracic-12, (iv)-Mitosis
Cervical-5 (c) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Metaphase,
(b) Sacral-2, Thoracic-7, Cervical-1, Lumbar-5 (iv)-Mitosis
(c) Cervical-7,Lumbar-5,Thoracic-12, Sacral-5 (d) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Anaphase,
(d) Coccygeal-4, Lumbar-7, Cervical-5, (iv)-Mitosis
Thoracic-12
147. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ BIOLOGY – II
pairs are true ribs. Select the option that SECTION - A
correctly represents values of X and Y and 151. Match Column-I with Column-II:
provides their explanation. Column-I Column-II
(a) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached I. Chromosomes are A. Pachytene
dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally moved to spindle
to the sternum equator
(b) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached II. Centromere splits B. Zygotene
dorsally to the vertebral column and sternum and chromatids apart
at the two ends.
III. Pairing between C. Anaphase
(c) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
homologous
attached to the vertebral column but are free
chromosomes takes
on the ventral side.
place
(d) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
IV. Crossing between D. Metaphase
attached to the vertebral column but are free
homologous
on the ventral side.
chromosomes
148. Select the correct matching of the type of joint
with the example:
(a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(a) Types of Joint-Cartilaginous joint,
(b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
Example- Between frontal and parietal
(c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(b) Types of Joint- Pivot joint, Example-
(d) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(c) Types of Joint- Hinge joint, Example-
Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Types of Joint- Gliding joint, Example-
Between carpals
16
152. In 1953 James Watson and F, Crick Proposed 157. Match the organism with its related
the Double Helix model of DNA and got Nobel contribution in the field of Biotechnology.
Prize their model of DNA was based on: Column-I Column -II
(1) X –ray diffraction of DNA produced by M. 1. Escherichia coli I. Polymerase
Wilkins and R. Franklin used in PCR
(2) Griffith’s experiment 2. Agrobacterium II. pBR322
(3) Hershey – Chase experiment tumefaciens
(4) Chargaff’s rule of base equivalence 3. Thermus III. Ti plasmid
( A+G/T+C=1) aquaticus
(a) 1,4 (b) 1,2,3,4 (a) 1-I, 2 – III, 3 – II (b) 1- II, 2- III, 3- I
(c) 2,3,4 (d) 1,2,3 (c) 1- II, 2 - I,3 – III (d) 1- III, 2- II, 3 – I
153. Which of the following will lead to 158. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
transformation, as shown by the experiments correct answer from the codes given below.
of Avery, MacLeod and McCarty? Column-I Column-II
(a) Protein from heat-killed S-strain A. Biopiracy (i) Effort to fix the
(b) DNA from heat-killed S-strain along with non-functional gene
DNase B. Biopatent (ii) Gene silencing
(c) DNA from heat-killed S-strain C. Gene therapy (iii) illegal transfer
(d) RNA from heat-killed S-strain of biological
154. Transfer of genetic material from one materials
bacterium to another in the transduction D. RNA (iv) Right granted for
process is through biological entities
(a) Conjugation (a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(b) Bacteriophage (b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(c) Another bacterium (c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(d) Physical contact between donor and (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
recipient strain 159. Human insulin is being commercially
155. First experimental proof for semi –conservative produced from a transgenic species of
DNA replication was shown in (a) Mycobacterium (b) Rhizobium
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae (c) Saccharomyces (d) Escherichia
(b) Escherichia coli 160. C-peptide of human insulin is:
(c) Neurospora crassa (a) A part of mature insulin molecule
(d) Rattus rattus (b) Responsible for its biological activity
156. The memory based immunity provide (c) Responsible for formation of disulphide
(a) Innate nonspecific immunity bridges
(b) pathogen specific immunity (d) Removed during maturation of proinsulin to
(c) acquired specific immunity insulin
(d) both (b) and (c) 161. Bt corn has been made resistant to corn borer
disease by the introduction of the gene ____
(a) Cry I Ab (b) Cry II Ab
(c) ampR (d) Trp
162. A bivalent of meiosis I consists of
(a) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(b) Two chromatids and one centromere
(c) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(d) Four chromatids and four centromeres
17
163. Which of the following phenomena was 168. Assertion: Presence of more than one
experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl? recognition site within the vector simplifies
(a) Transformation the process of genetic engineering.
(b) Transduction Reason: In addition to ori, the vector requires
(c) Semi – conservative DNA replication a rop site, which helps in identifying and
(d) Central dogma eliminating non-transformants and selectively
164. According to Lamarckism, long-necked permitting the growth of the transformants.
giraffes evolved because (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
(a) nature selected only long-necked ones the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(b) humans preferred only long-necked ones Assertion.
(c) short necks suddenly changed into long- (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
necks the Reason is not the correct explanation of
(d) of stretching of necks over many the Assertion.
generations by the short-necked ones (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
165. The specific palindromic sequence which is (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
recognized by EcoRI is : 169. How many of the following statements are
(a) 5′-CTTAAG-3′, 3′GAATTC-5′ related to bone ?
(b) 5′-GGATCC-3′, 3′-CCTAGG-5′ A. It is a specialized connective tissue having
(c) 5′-GAATTC-3′, 3′-CTTAAG-5′ hard and pliable ground substance rich in
(d) 5′-GGAACC-3′, 3′-CCTTGG-5′ calcium salts and collagen fibres which give
166. What is the criterion for DNA fragments bone its strength.
movement on agarose gel during gel B. It is the main tissue that provides structural
electrophoresis? frame to the body.
(a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it C. It supports and protects softer tissues and
moves organs.
(b) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it D. The bone cells, osteocytes are present in
moves the spaces called lacunae.
(c) Positively charged fragments move to E. They also interact with smooth muscles
farther end attached to them to bring about movements
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move (a) Two
167. Microinjection is _____. (b) Three
(a) A direct method of gene transfer (c) Four
(b) an indirect method of gene transfer (d) Five
(c) vector-mediated method of gene transfer 170. A centriole-like structure, from which the
(d) a natural method of gene transfer cilium and the flagellum emerge, is the:
(a) Centrosome
(b) Basal body
(c) Axoneme
(d) Vimentin

18
171. Refer the figure given below depicting a cell 177. The female external genitalia include
with various cell organnels in it. (a) Labia majora (b) Cervix
(c) Oviducts (d) All of these
178. Assertion: In eukaryotes, the chromosomal
organisation is much more complex and there
is a set of positively charged, basic proteins
called histones.
Reason: Histones are rich in the basic amino
Identify the cell organelle that performs the
acid residues such as leucine and asparagine.
functions of packaging materials synthesised (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
in cell. the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(a) B (b) C Assertion.
(c) D (d) A (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
172. Some nucleic acids that behave like enzymes the Reason is not the correct explanation of
are called _____ the Assertion.
(a) Lysozyme (b) Ribozyme (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(c) Ligase (d) Deoxyribonuclease (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
173. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis 179. Infection of Entamoeba histolytica can be
without interruption checked by
(a) Once it has entered the S phase (a) preventing food contamination
(b) Once it has entered the G2 phase (b) preventing water contamination
(c) At any time during cell division activity (c) both a and b
(d) None of these (d) drinking unprocessed milk
174. The role of mitosis is not merely to divide a 180. What are symptoms of pneumonia?
cell into two daughter cells but to ensure (a) Cough, fever, and chills
genetic continuity from one cell generation to (b) Rash, painful joints, and itching skin
another cell generation. The mechanism (c) Jaundice and peeling skin
ensuring genetic continuity is (d) All of the above
(a) Formation of cells with new chromosomes 181. Which one of the following is a marine fish?
(b) Formation of two daughter cells (a) Rohu (b) Hilsa
(c) Formation of two cells with an identical (c) Catla (d) Common carp
number of chromosomes 182. Read the given statements and select the
(d) Halving the chromosome number between correct option.
the two new cells. Statement 1: All triploblastic animals are
175. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from eucoelomates.
body tissues into the blood is present as Statement 2: They have a false coelom.
(a) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Free CO2 in blood plasma (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
(c) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as incorrect
bicarbonate (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
(d) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs correct
176. Atherosclerosis is caused by deposition of (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
(a) Calcium
(b) Fat and cholesterol
(c) Deposition of fibrous tissue
(d) All of the above

19
183. Read the given statements and select the SECTION - B
correct option. 186. Read the given statements and select the
Statement 1: In Anaphase I, sister chromatids correct option.
move to the opposite pole by splitting of Statement 1: Intra cytoplasmic sperm
centromere. injection is a specialised procedure to form an
Statement 2: In Metaphase I, the bivalent embryo in vivo.
chromosomes align at the equatorial plate. Statement 2: Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct is a procedure where a woman does not have a
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is suitable environment for fertilisation and
incorrect development and thus require a surrogate
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is mother.
correct (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
184. Read the given statements and select the incorrect
correct option. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
Statement 1: Respiration is most efficient in correct
the insects, among the invertebrates. (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Statement 2: In the insects, air is carried 187. Read the given statements and select the
directly to the cells by tracheoles. correct option.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct Statement 1: More individuals acquiring
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is peripheral character values at both the ends of
incorrect the distribution indicates disruptive natural
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is selection.
correct Statement 2: More individuals acquiring
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect values other than the mean value indicates
185. Read the given statements and select the directional natural selection.
correct option. (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1: Inflammation of a skeletal joint (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
may immobilise the movements of the joint. incorrect
Statement 2: This is caused due to uric acid (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of correct
articular cartilage. (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is
incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is
correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

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188. Read the following statements and select the 191. Given below are statements: one is labelled as
correct ones. Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced Reason R.
when a DNA has been cut by different Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types:
restriction enzymes. cortical and juxtamedullary, based on their
(ii) Exonucleases make cuts at specific relative position in cortex and medulla.
positions within the DNA. Reason R: Juxtamedullary nephrons have
(iii) Hind II was the first-restriction short loop of Henle, whereas cortical nephrons
endonuclease to be isolated. have longer loop of Henle.
(iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to In the light of the above statements. choose the
replicate within bacterial cells by integrating correct answer from the options given below:
its DNA with bacterial DNA. (a) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the
(v) Presence of more than one recognition correct explanation of A
sites within the vector facilitates the gene (b) A is true, but R is false
cloning. (c) A is false, but R is true
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (i) and (iv) (d) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) explanation of A
189. Nowadays it is possible to detect the mutated 192. Match the contraceptive methods given under
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive Column I with their examples given under
probe to hybridize its complementary DNA in Column II and select the correct option from
a clone of cells, followed by its detection the codes given below.
using autoradiography because: Column I Column II
(a) Mutated gene does not appear on a A. Chemical (i) Tubectomy and
Photographic Film as he probe has no vasectomy
complementarity with it B. IUDs (ii) Copper-T and loop
(b) Mutated gene does not appear on C. Barriers (iii) Condom and cervical
Photographic film as the probe has cap
complementarity with it D. (iv) Spermicidal jelly and
(c) Mutated gene does not appear on a Sterlization foam
Photographic film (v) Coitus interruptus and
(d) Mutated gene completely and clearly calendar method
appears on a photographic film
190. Match the following columns and select the (a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
correct options. (b) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iii)
Column I Column II (c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v)
(d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(v), D-(i)
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
193. The diagram given here is the standard ECG
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular
of a normal person. The P-wave represents the
deaminase defence
deficiency
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of
HIV infection
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis (a) Contraction of both the atria
(a) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I (b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (b) initiation of the ventricular contraction
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (d) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (c) Beginning of the systole
(d) End of systole
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194. Match the items given in column I with those (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) only (b) (b) (d) (e) (a) only
in Column II and select the correct option (c) (a) (c) (d) (e) only (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) only
given below. 198. Which of the following is a correct match for
Column I Column II disease and its symptoms?
(a) Tricuspid (i) Between left atrium and (a) Arthritis - Inflamed joints
valve left ventricle (b) Tetany – high Ca+ level causing rapid
(b) Bicuspid (ii) Between right ventricle spasms
valve and pulmonary artery (c) Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder
(c) Semilunar (iii) Between right atrium resulting in weakening and paralysis of
valve and right ventricle
skeletal muscle
(a) (a) → (i); (b) → (iii); (c) → (ii)
(d) Muscular dystrophy - An autoimmune
(b) (a) → (i); (b) → (iii); (c) → (iii)
disorder causing progressive degeneration of
(c) (a) → (iii); (b) → (i); (c) → (ii) skeletal muscle
(d) (a) → (ii); (b) → (i); (c) → (iii) 199. Match the following hormones with the
195. Which of the following statements are correct? respective disease:
A. Basophils are the most abundant cells of Column I Column II
the total WBCS.
A. Insulin (i) Addison’s disease
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and
heparin. B. Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory insipidus
response. C. Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
D. Basophils have kidney-shaped nucleus. E. D. Growth (iv) Goitre
Basophils are agranulocytes. Hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below (v) Diabetes mellitus
(a) C and E only (b) B and C only Select the correct match:
(c) A and B only (d) D and E only (a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
196. Match list I with list II. (b) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
List I List II (c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints (d) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bones 200. Which of the following are not the effects of
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints Parathyroid hormone?
(d) Vertebral (iv) Triangular flat a. Stimulates the process of bone resorption.
column bone b. Decreases Ca2+ level in blood
(a) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i) c. Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
(b) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i) d. Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from
(c) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv) digested food
(d) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) e. Increases metabolism of carbohydrates.
197. During the muscular contraction which of the Choose the most appropriate answer from the
following events occur? options given below
(a) ‘H’ zone disappears (a) (a) and (c) only (b) (b) (d) and (e) only
(b) ‘A’ band widens (c) (a) and (e) only (d) (b) and (c) only
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP releasing the
ADP and Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled
inwards. Choose the correct answer from the
options given below

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