PHYSICS

MODULE

1. Kinematics 04 – 28
2. Work Power Energy 29 – 41
3. Newton's Law of Motion 42 – 59
4. Circular Motion 60 – 70
5. Rotational Motion 71 – 88
6. Center Of Mass And Collision 89 – 100
7. Matter Waves 101 – 104
8. Nuclei 105 – 109
9. Photoelectric Effect 110 – 113
10. Radioactivity 114 – 119
11. X-Rays 120 – 126
12. Modern Physics-I 127 – 134
13. Modern Physics-II 135 – 141
14. Modern Physics-III 142 – 145
15. Basic Mathematics 146 – 156
16. Gravitation 157 – 172
17. Oscillation SHM 173 – 187

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 PHYSICS

MODULE

18. Electrostatics 188 – 208

19. Magnetic Effect Of 209 – 236
Current And Magnetism
20. Ray Optics 237 – 254
21. Thermodynamics 255 – 295
22. Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect 296 – 304
23. Wave Optics 305 – 320
24. Current Electricity 321 – 344
25. Capacitor 345 – 360
26. Electromagnetic Induction 361 – 375
27. Alternating Current 376 – 389
28. Electromagnetic Waves 390 – 394
29. Semiconductor 395 – 416
30. Unit And Dimension 417 – 425
31. Properties of Matter and 426 – 443
Fluid Mechanics

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3
 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.1 The speed of a swimmer in still Q.5 If the velocity of a particle is v

water is 20 m/s. The speed of river = At + Bt2, where A and B are
water is 10 m/s and is flowing due constants, then the distance
east. If he is standing on the south travelled by it between 1s and 2s is
bank and wishes to cross the river
along the shortest path, the angle (1) 3/2A + 4B
at which he should make his (2) 3A + 7B
strokes w.r.t. north is given by – (3) 3/2A + 7/3B
(4) A/2 + B/3
(1) 300 west (2) 00
(3) 600 west (4) 400 west Q.6 Two cars P and Q start from a
point at the same time in a straight
Q.2 When an object is shot from the line and their positions are
bottom of a long smooth inclined represented by xP (t) = at +b t2 and
plane kept at an angle 600 with xQ (t) = ft – t2. At what time do the
horizontal, it can travel a distance cars have the same velocity ?
x, along the plane. But when the
inclination is decreased to 300 and (1) a+f/2(1+b)
the same object the shot with the (2) f–a/2(1+b)
same velocity, it can travel x2 (3) a–f/1+b
distance. Then x1 : x2 will be – (4) a+f/(2b–1)

(1) 1:2 (2) 2 : 1 Q.7 A ship A is moving Westwards

(3) 1: 3 (4) 1 : 2 3 with a speed of 10 km/h and a ship
B 100 km South of A, is moving
Q.3 The x and y coordinates of the Northwards with a speed of 10
particle at any time are x = 5t - 2t² km/h. The time after which the
and y = 10t respectively, where x distance between them becomes
and y are in meters and t in shortest, is :–
seconds. The acceleration of the
particle at t = 2s is – (1) 5 h (2) 5√2h
(3) 10√2h (4) 0 h
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) – 4 m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) 0
Q.8 Two particles A and 
B, move

with constant velocities v1 and v2 .
Q.4 Preeti reached the metro station
and found that the escalator was not At the initial moment
 
their position
working. She walked up the vectors are r1 and r2 respectively.
stationary escalator in time t1. On The condition for particle A and B
other days, if she remains stationary for their collision is :–
on the moving escalator, then the    
escalator takes her up in time t2. The (1) r1 _ r2 = v1 _ v2
time taken by her to walk up on the    
moving escalator will. r1 _ r2 v2 _ r1
(2)   =  
r _r
1 2 v _r
2 1
t1t2 t1t2
(1) (2)    
t _t
1 2 t1 + t2 (3) r1.v1 = r2.v2
t + t2    
(3) t1 – t2 (4) 1 (4) r1 × v2 = r1 × v2
2
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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.9 A particle of unit mass Q.13 A stone is dropped from a

undergoes one-dimensional motion height h. It hits the ground with a
such that its velocity varies certain momentum P. If the same
2
according to v(x) = x n where  stone is dropped from a height
and n are constants and x is the 100% more than the previous
position of the particle. The height, the momentum when it hits
acceleration of the particle as a the ground will change by –
function of x, is given by :–
(1) 200 % (2) 100 %
2 –4n–1
(1) –2n x (3) 68% (4) 41%
(2) –2n2x–2n+1
(3) –2n2e–4n+1 Q.14 A particle has initial velocity
(4) –2n2e–4n+1 (2î+3ĵ) and acceleration
(0.3î+0.2ĵ). The magnitude of
Q.10 A particle is moving such that velocity after 10seconds will be :–
its position coordinates (x, y)
are(2m, 3m) at time t = 0(6m, 7m) (1) 5 units (2) 9 units
at time t = 2 s and (13m, 14m) at (3) 92 units (4) 52 units
time

t = 5s.Average velocity vector
( Vav ) from t = 0 tot = 5 s is :– Q.15 The motion of a particle along
a straight line is described by
(1) 1/5(13î+14 ĵ) equation x = 8 + 12t – t3 where x is
(2) 7/3(î + ĵ) in metres and t in seconds. The
(3) 2(î + ĵ) retardation of the particle when its
(4) 11/5(î + ĵ) velocity becomes zero is :-

Q.11 A stone falls freely under (1) 6 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2

gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 (3) 24 m/ s2 (4) Zero
and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the
next 5 seconds and the next 5 Q.16 The horizontal range and the
seconds respectively. The relation maximum height of a projectile are
between h1, h2 and h3 is :– equal. The angle of projection of
the projectile is :–
(1) h1 = h2 = h3
(1)  = tan–1 (2)
(2) h1 = 2h2 3h3 (2)  = 45°
(3) h1 = h2/5 = h3/5 (3)  = tan–1 (1/4)
(4)  = tan–1 (4)
(4) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2
Q.17 A projectile is fired at an angle
Q.12 The velocity of a projectile at of 450 with the horizontal. Elevation
the initial point A is (2î + 3 ĵ) m/s. angle of the projectile at its highest
Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is :– point as seen from the point of
projection, is :–
(1) 2î + 3ĵ
(2) –2î – 3ĵ (1) 450
(2) 600
(3) –2î + 3ĵ (3) tan–1 1/2
-1
(4) 2î – 3ĵ (4) tan (3/2)
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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.18 A boy standing at the top of a Q.23 A particle has initial velocity
tower of 20 m height drops a stone. (3î+4ĵ) and has acceleration (0.4î +
Assuming g = 10 m/s2, the velocity 0.3ĵ). Its speed after 10s is :-
with which it hits the ground is :-
(1) 10 units
(1) 10.0 m/s (2) 7 units
(2) 20.0 m/s (3) 7 2 units
(3) 40.0 m/s (4) 8.5 units
(4) 5.0 m/s
Q.24 The speed of a projectile at its
Q.19 A missile is fired for maximum maximum height is half of its initial
range with an initial velocity of 20 speed. The angle of projection is :-
m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of
the missile is :- (1) 150 (2) 300
(3) 450 (4) 600
(1) 40 m (2) 50 m
(3) 60 m (4) 20 m Q.25 A bus is moving with a speed
of 10 m/s on a straight road. A
Q.20 A body is moving with velocity scooterist wishes to overtake the
30 m/s towards east. After 10 bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a
seconds its velocity becomes 40 distance of 1 km from the
m/s towards north. The average scooterist, with what speed should
acceleration of the body is :- the scooterist chase the bus –

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 7 m/s2 (1) 10 m/s

(2) 20 m/s
(3) 7 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2 (3) 40 m/s
(4) 25 m/s
Q.21 A ball is dropped from a high
rise platform at t = 0 starting from Q.26 A body starting from rest is
rest. After 6 seconds another ball is moving under a constant
thrown downwards from the same acceleration up to 20 sec. If it
platform with a speed v. The two moves S1, distance in first 10 sec.,
balls meet at t 18s. What is the and S2, distance in next 10 sec.
value of v ? (take g = 10 m/s2) then S2 will be equal to –
(1) 60 m/s (2) 75 m/s (1) S1 (2) 2S1
(3) 55 m/s (4) 40m/s (3) 3S1 (4) 4S1

Q.22 A particle moves a distance x Q.27 A particle of mass m is

in time t according to equation x = projected with velocity v making an
(t + 5)–1. The acceleration of angle of 450 with the horizontal.
particle is proportional to :- When the particle lands on the
ground level, the magnitude of the
(1) (velocity)2/3 change in its momentum will be :-
(2) (velocity)3/2
(3) (distance)2 (1) mv 2 (2) Zero
(4) (distance)–2 (3) 2mv (4) mv/ 2

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.28 A particle moves in a straight Q.33 The distance travelled by a

line with a constant acceleration. It particle starting from rest and
changes its velocity from 10 m/s to moving with an acceleration 4/3
20 m/s while passing through a m/s2, in the third second is :-
distance of 135 m in t seconds. The
value of t is :- (1) 10/3 m (2) 19/3 m
(3) 6m (4) 4m
(1) 12 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 1.8
Q.34 For angles of projection of a
Q.29 A particle shows distance- projectile (450 – 0) and (450 + 0),
time curve as given in this figure. the horizontal ranges described by
The maximum instantaneous the projectile are in the ratio of :-
velocity of the particle is around
the point :- (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(1) D (2) A
(3) B (4) C Q.35 A car runs at a constant speed
on a circular track or radius 100 m,
Q.30 A particle moving along x-axis taking 62.8 seconds for every
has acceleration f, at time t, given circular lap. The average velocity
by f = f0 (1-t/T), where f0 and T are and average speed for each circular
constants. The particle at t = 0 has lap respectively is :-
zero velocity. At the instant when f
= 0, the particle's velocity is – (1) 0, 0
(2) 0, 10 m/s
(1) 1/2 f0 T (2) F0 T
(3) 10 m/s, 10 m/s
(3) 1/2 f0 T2 (4) f0 T2
(4) 10 m/s, 0
Q.31 The position x of a particle
with respect to time t along x-axis Q.36 Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg)
is given by x = 9t2 – t2 where x is in and B (of mass 3 kg), are dropped
metres and t in seconds. What will from height of 16 m and 25 m
be the position of this particle when respectively. The ratio of the time
it achieves maximum speed along taken by them to reach the ground
the + x direction ? is –

(1) 24 m (2) 32 m (1) 5/4 (2) 12/5

(3) 54 m (4) 81 m (3) 5/12 (4) 4/5
Q.32 A car moves from X to Y with
Q.37 The magnitude of average
a uniform speed vu and returns to X
velocity is equal to the average
with a uniform speed vd. The
speed when a particle moves :-
average speed for this round trip is.

v + vd 2vdvu (1) On a curved path

(1) u (2) (2) In the same direction
2 vd + vu
vdvu (3) With constant acceleration
(3) vdvu (4) (4) With constant retardation
vd + vu
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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.38 A body covers one-third of the Q.43 The numerical ratio of

distance with a velocity V3 the displacement to the distance
second one-third of the distance covered is always :-
with a velocity V2 and the last one-
third of the distance with a velocity (1) Less than one
V3 The average velocity is :- (2) Equal to one
(3) Equal to or less than one
(1) (V1+ V2+ V3)/3
(2) (3V1V2V3)/(V1V2+V2V3+V3V1) (4) Equal to or greater than one
(3) (V1V2+V2V3+V3V1)/3
(4) (V1V2V3)/3 Q.44 A particle moves in a straight
line for 20 seconds with velocity 3
Q.39 A car travels a distance d on a m/s and then moves with velocity 4
straight road in two hours and then m/s for another 20 seconds and
returns to the straight point in next finally moves with velocity 5 m/s
three hours. Its average speed is :- for next 20 seconds. What is the
average velocity of the particle ?
(1) d/5
(2) 2d/5 (1) 3 m/s
(3) d/2 + d/3 (2) 4 m/s
(4) None of these (3) 5 m/s
Q.40 A train covers the first half of (4) Zero
the distance between two stations
with a speed of 40 km/h and the Q.45 An object travels 10 km at a
other half with 60 km/h. Then its speed of 100 m/s and another 10
average speed is :- km at 50 m/s. The average speed
over the whole distance :-
(1) 50 km/h (2) 48 km/h
(3) 52 km/h (4) 100 km/h (1) 75 m/s
(2) 55 m/s
Q.41 A car moving on a straight
(3) 66.7 m/s
road covers third of a certain one
third distance with 20 km/h and (4) 33.3 m/s
the rest with 60 km/h. The average
speed is Q.46 A point object traverses half
the distance with velocity V0. The
(1) 40 km/h remaining part of the distance is
(2) 5 km/h covered with velocity V1 for the half
(3) (46)2/3 km/h time and with velocity V2 for the
(4) 36 km/h rest half. The average velocity of
the object for the whole journey is
Q.42 A particle moves in the east
direction with 15 m/sec for 2 sec (1) 2V1 (V0 + V2)/(V0 + 2V1 + 2V2)
then northwards with 5 m/s for 8 (2) 2V (V0 + V1)/(V0 + V1 + V2)
sec. Average speed of the particle
(3) 2V0 (V1 + V2)/
is :-
(V1 + V2 + 2V0)
(1) 1 m/s (2) 5 m/s (4) 2V2 (V0 + V1)/
(3) 7m/s (4) 10 m/s (V1 + 2V2 + V0)
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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.47 Select the incorrect Q.52 The displacement of a particle

statements from the following. starting from rest (at t = 0) is
S1 : Average velocity is path length given by s = 6t2 – t3 . The time
divided by time interval. when the particle will attain zero
S2 : In general, average speed is velocity again, is :-
greater than the magnitude of the
average velocity. (1) 4s (2) 8s
S3 : A particle moving in a given (3) 12s (4) 16s
direction with a non-zero velocity
can have zero speed. Q.53 The velocity of a body
S4 : The magnitude of average depends on time according to the
velocity is the average speed. equation v = 20 + 0.1 t2. The body
has :-
(1) S2 and S3 (2) S1 and S4
(3) S1, S3 and S4 (1) Uniform acceleration
(4) All four statements (2) Uniform retardation
(3) Non-uniform acceleration
Q.48 If x denotes displacement in
(4) Zero acceleration
time t and x = a cost, then
acceleration is :-
Q.54 The displacement of a particle
(1) a cos t (2) –a cos t is given by y = a + bt + ct2 – d t4 .
(3) a sin t (4) –a sin t The initial velocity and acceleration
are respectively :-
Q.49 The velocity-time relation of
an electron starting from rest is (1) b, – 4d (2) –b, 2c
given by u = kt, where k = 2 m/s2 (3) b, 2c (4) 2c, –4d
The distance traversed in 3 sec is :-
Q.55 The initial velocity of a
(1) 9m (2) 16m particle is u (at t = 0) and the
acceleration is given by f = at.
(3) 27m (4) 36m
What at. What of the following
Q.50 The position x of a particle relations is valid ?
varies with time (t) as x = at2 –bt3.
The acceleration at time t of the (1) v = u + at2
particle will be equal to zero, where (2) v = u + (at2/2)
t is equal to :- (3) v = u + at
(4) v = u
(1) 2a/3b (2) a/b
(3) a/3b (4) Zero Q.56 A particle located at x = 0 at
time t = 0, start moving along the
Q.51 A particle moves along a position x - direction with a velocity
straight line such that its 'v' which varies as v = x, the
displacement at any time t is given velocity of particle varies with time
by s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 metres. The as : ( is a constant)
velocity when the acceleration is
zero is :- (1) v t
(2) v  t2
(1) 3 m/s (2) –12 m/s (3) v  t
(3) 42 m/s (4) –9 m/s (4) v = constant

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.57 The relation t = x+3 Q.61 The motion of a particle is

describes the position of a particle described by the equation x = a +
bt2 where a = 15 cm and b = 3
where x is in meters and it is in
cm/sec2. Its instantaneous velocity
seconds. The position, when at time 3 sec will be :-
velocity is zero, is :-
(1) 36 cm/sec
(1) 2 m (2) 18 cm/sec
(2) 4 m (3) 16 cm/sec
(3) 5 m (4) 32 cm/sec
(4) Zero
Q.62 Starting from rest, the
Q.58 The displacement of a particle acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t-
1). The velocity of the particle at t
is represented by the following
= 5 s is :-
equation : s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8
Where s is in metres and t in (1) 15 m/s
seconds. The acceleration of the (2) 25 m/s
particle at t = 1s is :-
(3) 5 m/s
(1) 14 m/s2 (4) None of these
(2) 18 m/s2
Q.63 Which of the following
2
(3) 32 m/s equation represents the motion of a
body moving with constant finite
(4) Zero
acceleration ? in these equations, y
denotes the displacement in time t
Q.59 If for a particle position x  t2
and p, q and r are arbitary constant
then –
(1) y = (p + qt)2 (r + pt)
(1) Velocity is constant
(2) y = p + tqr
(2) Acceleration is constant
(3) y = (p + t) (q + t) (r + 1)
(3) Acceleration is variable
(4) y = (p + qt)r
(4) None of these

Q.60 A body is moving according to Q.64 Which of the following

relations representing
the equation x = at + bt2 – c t3.
displacement x of a particle
Then its instantaneous speed is describes motion with constant
given by :- acceleration ?

(1) a + 2b + 3ct (1) x = 6 – 7 t–2

(2) a + 2bt – 3ct2 (2) x = 3t2 + 5t3 + 7
(3) 2b – 6ct (3) x = 9t2 + 8
(4) None of these (4) x = 4t–2 + 3t–1

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.65 Equation of a particle moving Q.69 A body at rest is imparted

along the x axis is x = u (t – 2) + a motion to move in a straight line. It
(t – 2)2 – is then obstructed by an opposite
force, then :-
(1) The initial velocity of the particle is
(2) The acceleration of the particle is a (1) The body may necessarily
(3) The acceleration of change direction
the particle is 2a (2) The body is sure to slow down
(4) At t = 2 particle (3) The body will necessarily
is not at origin continue to move in the same
direction at the same speed
Q.66 The velocity of a particle (4) None of the above
moving with constant acceleration
at an instant t0 is 10m/s. After 5 Q.70 If a car at rest acceleration
seconds of that instant the velocity uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h
of the particle is 20m/s. The in 20 seconds, it covers a distance
velocity at 3 second before t0 is :- of :-

(1) 8 m/s (1) 20 m (2) 400m

(2) 4 m/s (3) 1440 m (4) 2980 m
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 7 m/s Q.71 A body start from rest and
with a uniform acceleration of 10
Q.67 The velocity acquired by a ms–b for 5 seconds. During the
body moving with uniform next 10 seconds it moves with
acceleration is 30 m/s in 2 seconds uniform velocity. The total distance
and 60 m/s in 4 seconds. The initial travelled by the body is :-
velocity is
(1) 100 m (2) 125 m
(1) Zero (3) 500 m (4) 625 m
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 4 m/s Q.72 Initially a body is rest. If its
(4) 10 m/s acceleration in 5ms–2 then the
distance travelled in the 18th
Q.68 If a body starts from rest, the second is :-
time in which it covers a particular
displacement with uniform (1) 86.6 m (2) 87.5 m
acceleration is :- (3) 88 m (4) 89 m

(1) Inversely proportional to the Q.73 If a train travelling at 72

square root of the displacement km/h is to be brought to rest in a
(2) Inversely proportional distance of 200 m, then its
to the displacement retardation should be :-
(3) Directly proportional
to the displacement (1) 20 m/s2
(4) Directly proportional to (2) 2 m/s2
the square root of (3) 10 m/s2
the displacement (4) 1 m/s2

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.74 If a body start from rest and Q.79 A rocket is fired vertically
travels 120m in the 8th second, from the ground. It moves upwards
then acceleration is :- with a constant acceleration of 10
m/s2. After 30 seconds the fuel is
(1) 16 m/s2 finished. After what time from the
(2) 10 m/s2 instant of firing the rocket will it
(3) 0.227 m/s2 attain the maximum height ? g = 10
(4) 0.03 m/s2 m/s2 –

Q.75 A car moving with a speed of (1) 30 s (2) 45 s

40 km/h can be stepped by (3) 60 s (4) 75 s
applying brakes after at least 2m. If
the same car is moving with a Q.80 A stone is dropped into a well
speed of 80 km/h, what is the in which the level of water is h
minimum stopping distance ? below the top of the well. If u is
velocity of sound, the time T after
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m which the splash is heard is given
(3) 6 m (4) 8 m by –

Q.76 A car moving with a velocity 2h 2h h

(1) T = (2) T = +
of 10 m/s can be stopped by the v v v
application of a constant force F in
2h h
a distance of 20m. If the velocity of (3) T = +
the car is 30 m/s. It can be stopped v g
by this force in :- h 2h
(4) T = +
2g v
(1) 20/3 m (2) 20 m
(3) 60 m (4) 180 m Q.81 A body is released from the
top of a tower of height H metres.
Q.77 If a car rest acceleration It takes t time to reach the ground.
uniformly and attains a speed of 72 Where is the body t/2 time after
km/s in 10s, then it covers a the release :-
distance of :-
(1) At H/2 metres from ground
(1) 50 m (2) 100 m (2) At H/4 metres from ground
(3) 200 m (4) 400 m (3) At 3H/2 metres from ground
(4) At H/6 metres from ground
Q.78 A stone thrown upwards with
a speed ‘u’ from the top of the Q.82 A body dropped from the top
tower reaches the ground with a of a tower covers a distance 7x in
velocity ‘3u’. The height of the the last second of its journey,
tower is :- where x is the distance covered in
first second. How much time does it
(1) 3u2 /g take to reach the ground ?
(2) 4u2 /g
(1) 3s (2) 4s
(3) 6u2 /g
(4) 9u2 /g (3) 5s (4) 6s

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Q.83 A body falling from height ‘h’ Q.87 If a ball is thrown vertically
taken t1 time to reach the ground. upwards with 40 m/s. Its velocity
The time taken to cover the first after two second will be :-
half of the height is :-
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
t1 t2 (3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
(1) t2 = (2) t1 =
2 2
Q.88 Water drops fall at regular
(3) t2 = 3t1
intervals from a tap 5 m above the
(4) None of these ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop
Q.84 If an iron ball and a wooden touches the ground. How far above
ball of same radii are released from the ground is the second drop at
a height h in vacuum then time that instant ?
taken by both of them to reach
ground will be :- (1) 1.25 m (2) 2.50 m
(3) 3.75 m (4) 4.00 m
(1) Unequal
(2) exactly equal Q.89 A stone is dropped from a
(3) Roughly equal certain height which can reach the
(4) Zero ground in 5 seconds. It is stopped
after 3 seconds of its fall and is
Q.85 Two balls are dropped from again released. The total time taken
different height at different by the stone to reach the ground
instants. Second balls is dropped 2 will be :-
seconds after the first ball. If both
balls reach the ground (1) 6 s (2) 6.5 s
simultaneously after 5 seconds of (3) 7 s (4) 7.5 s
dropping the first ball, then the
difference between the initial Q.90 With what speed should a
height of the two balls will be :- (g body be thrown upwards so that the
= 9.8m/s2) – distance traversed in 5th second and
6th second are equal ?
(1) 58.8 m (2) 78.4 m
(3) 98.0 m (4) 117.6 m (1) 58.4 m/s (2) 49 m/s
(3) 98 m/s (4) 98 m/s
Q.86 Drops of water fall from the
roof a building 18m high at regular Q.91 Which of the following four
intervals of time. When the first statements is false ?
drop reaches the ground, at the
same instant fourth drop begins to (1) A body can have zero
fall. What are the distances of the velocity and still acceleration
second and third drops from the (2) A body can have a constant velocity
roof – and still have a varying velocity
(3) A body can have a constant speed
(1) 6 m and 2 m and still have a varying velocity
(2) 6 m and 3 m (4) The direction of the velocity
(3) 8 m and 2 m of a body can change when its
(4) 4 m and 2 m acceleration is constant.

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Q.92 A body dropped from a tower Q.98 A body starts from rest. What
reaches the ground in 4s. The height is the ratio of the distance travelled
of the tower is about :- by the body during the 4th and 3rd
second ?
(1) 80 m (2) 20 m
(3) 160 m (4) 40 m (1) 7/5
(2) 5/7
Q.93 A ball is thrown upward with a
velocity of 100 m/s. It will reach (3) 7/3
the ground after :- (4) 3/7

(1) 10 s (2) 20 s Q.99 The ratio of the distance

(3) 5 s (4) 40 s traversed, in successive intervals of
time by a body falling from rest, are
Q.94 A particle is thrown vertically
upward. Its velocity at half of the (1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : …….
maximum height is 10 m/s. The (2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 : ……….
maximum height attained by it is (g
= 10 ms–2) :- (3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13 : ……..
(4) None of these
(1) 8m (2) 20m
(3) 10m (4) 16m Q.100 A particle is thrown up
vertically with a speed ‘V1’, in air. It
Q.95 A stone falls freely such that takes time t1 in upward journey and
the distance covered by it in the last t2 (> t1) in the downward journey
second of its motion is equal to the and returns to the starting point
distance covered by it in the first 5 with a speed v2. Then :-
seconds. It remained in air for :-
(1) V1 = V2
(1) 12 s (2) 13 s (2) V1 < V2
(3) 25s (4) 26 s
(3) V1 > V2
Q.96 When a ball is thrown (4) Data is insufficient
vertically up with velocity v0, it
reaches a maximum height ‘h’. If Q.101 A particle is dropped from a
one wishes to triple the maximum certain height. The time taken by it
height then the ball should be to fall through successive distances
thrown with velocity – of 1 km each will be :-

(1) 3 v0 (2) 3 v0 (1) All equal, being

(3) 9 v0 (4) 3/2 v0 equal to 2/g second.
(2) In the ratio of the square
Q.97 An object is dropped vertically roots of the integers 1 :2 :3
down on earth. The change in its (3) In the ratio of the difference in the
speed after falling through a square roots of the integers i.e., 1, (2
distance d from its height point is – – 1), (3 – 2), (4 – 3)………….
(4) In the ratio of the reciprocals
(1) mgd (2) 2gd of the square roots of the
(3) 2g/d (4) 2mg/d integers, ie., 1/2,1/2,1,2.…….

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Q.102 Graph between the square of Q.105 From the following velocity
the velocity (v) of a particle and the time graph of a body the distance
distance (s) moved is shown in travelled by the body and its
figure. The acceleration of the displacement during 5 seconds in
particle in kilometer per hour metres will be :-

square is :-
(1) 75, 75

(1) 2250 (2) 110, 70

(2) 3084 (3) 110, 110
(3) –2250
(4) 110, 40
(4) –3084
Q.106 For the motion of a particle
Q.103 The fig. shows the position acceleration-time graph is shown in
time graph of a particle moving on figure. The velocity time curve for
a straight line path. What is the the duration of 0 – 4 seconds is :-
magnitude of average velocity of
the particle over 10 seconds –

(1) 2 m/s

(2) 4 m/s

(3) 6 m/s

(4) 8 m/s

Q.104 A person walks along an (1) (2)

east-west street and a graph of his
displacement from home is show in
figure. His average velocity for the
whole time interval is –

(3)

(1) 0

(2) 23 m/s
(4)
(3) 8.4 m/s

(4) None of above

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Q.107 A ball is dropped from the Q.110 In above question the

certain height on the surface of retardation of rocket is :-
glass. It collides elastically and
comes back to its initial position. If
this process it repeated then the
velocity time graph is :-
(take downward direction as
positive)
(1) 50 m/s2 (2) 100 m/s2
(3) 500 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
(1) (2)
Q.111 A body released from a
height falls freely towards earth.
Another body is released from the
same point exactly one seconds
(3)
later. The separation between them
two seconds after the release of the
second body is :-

(1) 9.8 m
(4) (2) 49 m
(3) 24.5 m
(4) 19.6 m

Q.108 In above question, height Q.112 Velocity-time curve for a

covered by the rocket before body projected vertically upwards
retardation is :- is a/an :

(1) Parabola
(2) Ellipse
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Straight line

(1) 1 km (2) 10 km Q.113 Fig. show the displacement

of a particle moving along x-axis as
(3) 20 km (4) 60 km a function of time. The acceleration
of the particle is zero in the region -
Q.109 In above question mean (a) AB (b) BC
velocity of rocket during the time it (c) CD (d) DE
took to attain the maximum height. Select correct alternative –

(1) 100 m/s (2) 50 m/s (1) a, b (2) a, c

(3) 500 m/s (4) 25/3 m/s (3) b, d (4) c, d

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Q.114 A car start from rest and Q.117 A body is projected vertically
accelerates uniformly by for 4 up at t = 0 with a velocity of 98
seconds and them m/s. Another body is projected
moves with uniform velocity which from the same point with same
of the x-t graph represent the velocity after 4 seconds. Both
motion of the car – bodies will meet at t =

(1) 6 s (2) 8 s
(3) 10 s (4) 12 s
(1) (2)
Q.118 A car acceleration from rest
at a constant rate of 2 m/s2 for
some time. Then, it retards at a
constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes
to rest. If it remains in motion for 3
(3) (4) seconds, then the maximum speed
attained by the car is :-

(1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s

Q.115 A body is projected vertically
(3) 4 m/s (4) 6 m/s
upward from the surface of the
earth, its velocity-time graph is :-
Q.119 Three projectiles A, B and C
are thrown from the same point in
the same plane. Their trajectories
are shown in the figure. Which of
(1) (2)
the following statement is true ?

(1) The time of flight is

the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is
(3) (4) largest for particle C
(3) The horizontal
velocity component
Q.116 A rocket is launched upward is largest for particle C
from the earth is surface whose (4) All of the above
velocity time graphs shown in
figure. Then maximum height Q.120 The variation of velocity of a
attained by the rocket is :- particle moving along a straight
line is illustrated in the figure. The
distance transvered by the particle
in 4 second is –

(1) 60 m

(1) 1 km (2) 25 m
(2) 10 km (3) 55 m
(3) 100 km
(4) 60 km (4) 30 m

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Q.121 Velocity-time (v – t) graph Q.125 The speed of a projectile at is

for a moving object is shown in the maximum height is. 3/2 time of its
figure. Total displacement of the initial speed 'u' of projection. Its
object during the time interval range of the horizontal plane is :-
when there is non-zero acceleration
and retardation ? (1) 3u2/2g (2) u2/2g
(3) 3u2/2g (4) 3u2/g
(1) 60 m
Q.126 A particle starts from rest and
(2) 50 m
move with constant acceleration. Its
(3) 30 m velocity displacement curve is :-
(4) 40 m

Q.122 A student is able to throw a

ball vertically to a maximum height (1) (2)
of 40 m. The maximum distance to
which he can throw the ball in the
horizontal direction is :-

(1) 40 (2) 1/2 m (3) (4)

(2) 20 (2)1/2 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 80 m
Q.127 A projectile is thrown with an
initial velocity of v = aî + bĵ. If range
Q.123 Which of the following
of the projectile is double the
velocity-time graphs shown a
maximum height attained by it them
realistic situation for a body in
motion ?
(1) a = 2 b (2) b = a
(3) b = 2a (4) b = 4a

(1) (2) Q.128 The range of a projectile when

fired at 750 to the horizontal is 0.5
km. What will be its range when
fired at 450 with the same speed ?

(1) 0.5 km (2) 1.0 km

(3) (4) (3) 1.5 km (4) 2.0 km

Q.129 A shell is fired vertically

Q.124 A particle is projectile with a upwards with a velocity v1 from the
velocity u making an angle  with deck of a ship moving with a speed
the horizontal. At any instant, its v2. A person on the shore observes
velocity v is at right angle to its the motion of the shell as a parabola.
initial velocity u; then v is – Its horizontal range is given by –

(1) u cos  (2) u tan  (1) 2v12v2 / g (2) 2v1v22 / g

(3) u cot  (4) u sec  (3) 2v1v2/g (4) 2v12v22 / g

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Q.130 Acceleration-time graph of a Q.133 The velocity-time graph of an

body is shown. Then corresponding object shown. The displacement
during the interval 0 to t4 is :-
velocity-time graph is :-

(1) Area A + Area B + Area

C + Area D + Area E
(2) Area A + Area + Area
(1) (2) C – Area B Area D
(3) Area A + Area B + Area
C + Area D
(4) Area A + Area C + Area
E – Area B + Area D

(3) (4) Q.134 In the graph shown in fig.

time is plotted along x-axis. Which
quantity associated with a
projectile motion is plotted along
the y – axis ?
Q.131 In case of a projectile fired
at an angle equally inclined to the
(1) Kinetic energy
horizontal and vertical with velocity
u, the horizontal range is :- (2) Momentum

(3) Horizontal velocity

(1) u2/g
(2) u2/2g (4) None of the above
(3) 2u2/g
Q.135 In above question the rocket
2 2
(4) u /g goes up and comes down on the
following parts respectively :-
Q.132 The displacement-time graph
of a moving particle is shown. The
instantaneous velocity of the
particle in negative at the point :-

(1) D

(2) F (1) OA and AB

(2) AB and BC
(3) C
(3) OA and ABC
(4) E (4) OAB and BC

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Q.136 Which of the following Q.140 Figure below

velocity-time graphs represent shown the velocity-
uniform motion ? time graph of a one
dimensional
motion. Which of
the following
(1) (2) characteristics of the particle is
represented by the shaded area ?

(1) Speed
(2) Displacement
(3) Acceleration
(3) (4) (4) Momentum

Q.141 A ball is thrown at an angle 

to the horizontal and the range is
Q.137 A particle start from rest. Its
maximum. The value of tan  is :-
acceleration at time t = 0 is 5 m/s1
which varies with time as shown in (1) 1
the figure. The maximum speed of (2) √3
the particle will be :- (3) 1/√3
(4) 2
(1) 7.5 m/s
(2) 15 m/s Q.142 The equation of a projectile
is y = √3x-gx2/2 The angle of
(3) 30 m/s projection is :-
(4) 37.5 m/s
(1) 300 (2) 600
Q.138 If a projectile is fired at an (3) 450 (4) None
angle  to the vertical with velocity
u, then maximum height attained is Q.143 The equation of a projectile
given by :- is y = 16x-x2/4 The horizontal
range is :-
(1) u2 cos/2g
(2) u2 sin2/2g (1) 16m (2) 8m
(3) u2 sin2/g
(4) u2 cos2/2g (3) 64m (4) 12.8m

Q.139 In above question the Q.144 A particle is projected at an

acceleration of rocket is :- angle of 450, 8m away from the
foot of a wall, just touches the top
of the wall and falls on the ground
(1) 50 m/ s2 on the opposite side at a distance
4m from it. The height if wall is :-
(2) 100 m/ s2
(1) 2/3m
2
(3) 10 m/ s (2) 4/3m
(3) 8/3m
(4) 1000 m/ s2 (4) 3/4m

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Q.145 The maximum horizontal Q.149 A ball whose kinetic energy

range of a gun is 16 km. If g = 10 is E, is thrown at an angle of 450 to
m/s2, the muzzle velocity of the the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at
shell must be the height point of its flight will be :

(1) 1600 m/s (1) E

(2) 400 m/s (2) E/2
(3) 2002m/s (3) E/2
(4) 16010ms (4) Zero

Q.146 A body is thrown with a Q.150 A body is projected at such

velocity of 9.8 m/s making an angle an angle that the horizontal ranges
of 300 with the horizontal. It will hit is three times the greatest height.
the ground after a time :- The angle of projection is :-

(1) 3s (1) 250

(2) 2s (2) 330
(3) 1.5 s
(3) 420
(4) 1s
(4) 530
Q.147 Three particles A, B and C
Q.151 Two stones are projected
are projected from the same point
with the same initial speeds making with the same speed but making
different angles with the horizontal.
angles 300, 450 and 600
respectively with the horizontal. Their ranges are equal. If the angle
of projection of one is /3 and its
Which of the following statements
are correct ? maximum height is y1, then the
maximum height of the other will
(1) A, B and C have unequal ranges be :-
(2) Ranges of A and C are
(1) 3y1
equal and less than that of B
(3) Ranges of A and C are equal (2) 2y1
and greater than that of B (3) y1/2
(4) A, B and C have equal ranges (4) y1/3

Q.148 A ball is thrown vertically Q.152 A projectile is thrown into

upwards. Assuming the air space so as to have the maximum
resistance to be constant and possible horizontal range equal to
considerable :- 400 m. Taking the point of
projection as the origin, the
(1) The time of ascent  coordinates of the point where the
the time of descent velocity of the projectile is
(2) The time of ascent < minimum are :-
the time of descent
(1) (400, 100) m
(3) The time of ascent >
the time of descent (2) (200, 100) m
(4) The time of ascent = (3) (400, 200) m
the time of descent (4) (200, 200) m

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Q.153 Two balls A and B are thrown Q.157 A ball is thrown at different
with speeds u and u/2 respectively. angles with the same speed u and
Both the balls cover the same from the same point; it has the
horizontal distance before returning same range in both the case. If y1,
to the plane of projection. If the and y2 be the heights attained in
angle of projection of ball B is 150 the two cases, then y1 + y2 =
with the horizontal, then the angle ……..... :-
of projection of A is :–
(1) u2/g (2) 2u2/g
–1
(1) sin (1/8) (3) u2/2g (4) u2/4g
(2) 1/2 sin–1 (1/8)
Q.158 A projectile is thrown from a
(3) 1/3 sin–1 (1/8)
point in a horizontal plane such
(4) 1/4 sin–1 (1/8) that its horizontal and vertical
velocity components are 9.8 m/s
Q.154 A projectile can have the and 19.5 m/s respectively. Its
same range R for two angles time horizontal range is :-
of flight in the of projection. If t1
and t2 be the two cases, then :- (1) 4.9 m (2) 9.8 m
(3) 19.6 m (4) 39.2 m
(1) t1 t2  R2
(2) t1 t2  R Q.159 A body is thrown with some
(3) t1 t2  1/R velocity from the ground. Maximum
(4) t1 t2  1/R2 height attained when it is thrown at
600 to the horizontal is 90 m. What
is the height attained when it is
Q.155 The angle which the velocity
thrown at 300 to the horizontal ?
vector of a projectile, will make
with the horizontal after time t of
(1) 90 m (2) 45 m
its being thrown with a velocity v at
an angle  to the horizontal, is :- (3) 30 m (4) 15 m

(1)  Q.160 If R is the maximum

(2) tan–1 (/t) horizontal range of a particle, then
(3) tan–1 (v cos/v sin-gt) the greatest height attained by it is.
(4) tan–1 (v sin-gt/v cos) (1) R (2) 2R

Q.156 An arrow is shot into the air. (3) R/2 (4) R/4
Its range is 200 metres and its time
of flight is 5 s. If the value of g is Q.161 A particle is fired with
assumed to be 10 m/s2, then the velocity u making  angle with the
horizontal component of the velocity horizontal. What is the change in
of arrow is :- velocity when it is at the highest
point ?
(1) 25 m/s
(2) 40 m/s (1) u cos
(2) u
(3) 31.25 m/s (3) u sin
(4) 12.5 m/s (4) (u cos–u)

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Q.162 A projectile is projected with Q.167 In the above question what

initial velocity (6î + 8ĵ )m/s. If g = will be the displacement of the
10 ms–2, then horizontal range is :- particle in x-direction when its
velocity makes 600 angle with the
(1) 4.8 metre initial velocity –
(2) 9.6 metre
(3) 19.2 metre (1) 20/√3m (2) 40/√3m
(4) 14.0 metre (3) 50/√3 (4) 10/√3

Q.163 At what angle to the Q.168 A boy wants to jump from

horizontal should a ball be thrown building A to building B. height of
so that its range R is related to the building A is 25 m and that of
time of flight T as R = 5T2 ? Take g building B is 5m. Distance between
= 10 ms–2 :- building is 4m. Assume that the boy
jumps horizontally, then calculate
(1) 300 minimum velocity with which he has
(2) 450 to jump to land safely on building B –
(3) 600
(4) 900 (1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
Q.164 If the range of a gun which
fires a shell with muzzle speed v, is (3) 4 m/s
R, then the angle of elevation of the
(4) 2 m/s
gun is :-
Q.169 A train moves in north
(1) cos–1 (v2/Rg)
distance with a speed of 54 km/h A
(2) cos–1 (Rg/v2)
monkey is running on the roof of
(3) 1/2 sin–1 (v2/Rg)
the train, against its motion with a
(4) 1/2 sin–1 (Rg/v2)
velocity of 18 km/h. With respect
to train. The velocity of monkey as
Q.165 The maximum range of a
observed by a man standing on the
projectile fired with some initial
ground is :-
velocity if found to be 1000 m. the
maximum height (H) reached by
(1) 5 m/s due south
this projectile is :-
(2) 25 m/s due south
(3) 10 m/s due south
(1) 250 metre
(4) 10 m/s due north
(2) 500 metre
(3) 1000 metre
Q.170 From the top of a tower 19.6
(4) 2000 metre
m high, a ball is thrown horizontally.
If the line joining the point of
Q.166 At the uppermost point of a
projection to the point where it is
projectile its velocity and
hits the ground makes an angle of
acceleration are at an angle of :-
45o with the horizontal, then the
initial velocity of the ball is :-
(1) 1800
(2) 900
(1) 9.8 m/s (2) 4.9 m/s
(3) 600
(4) 450 (3) 14.7 m/s (4) 2.8m/s

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Q.171 A bomber is flying Q.175 A boat takes 2 hours to go 8

horizontally with a constant speed km and come back in still water
of 150 m/s at a height of 78.4 m. lake. The time taken for going 8 km
The pilot has to drop a bomb at the upstream and coming back with
enemy target. At what horizontal water velocity of 4 km/h is –
distance from the target should he
release the bomb ? (1) 140 min (2) 150 min
(3) 160 min (4) 170 min
(1) 0m (2) 300m
(3) 600m (4) 1000m Q.176 Two trains each 50m long, are
travelling in opposite directions with
Q.172 A particle is projected respective velocities 10m/s and
horizontally with a speed of 15m/s. The time if crossing is :-
20/√3m/s from same height at t =
0. At what time will its velocity (1) 2s (2) 4s
make 600 angle with the initial (3) 2√3s (4) 4√3s
velocity –
Q.177 A parson walks up a stalled
(1) 1 sec escalator in 90 sec. He is carried in
60s, when standing on the same
(2) 2 sec
escalator which is now moving. The
(3) 1.5 sec time he would take to walk up the
moving escalator will be :-
(4) 2.5 sec
(1) 27 s (2) 72 s
Q.173 A train is moving towards
(3) 18 s (4) 36 s
East with a speed 20m/s. A person
is running on the roof of the train
Q.178 Four persons
with a speed 3m/s against the
P, Q, R and S of
motion of train. Velocity of the
same mass travel
person as seen by an observer on
with same speed u
ground will be :-
along a square of
side 'd' such that each one always
(1) 23m/s towards East
faces the other. After what time
(2) 17m/s towards East will they meet each other ?
(3) 23m/s towards East
(4) 17m/s towards East (1) d/u (2) 2d/3u
(3) 2d/u (4) d√3u
Q.174 A motorcycle is moving with
a velocity of 80km/h ahead of a car Q.179 Two cars are moving in the
moving with a velocity of 65km/h same direction with the same speed
in the same direction. What is the of 30km/h. They are separated by
relative velocity of the motorcycle 5km. What is the speed of a car
with respect to the car ? moving in the opposite direction if
it meets the two cars at an interval
(1) 15km/h of 4 minute ?
(2) 20km/h
(3) 25km/h (1) 45km/h (2) 60km/h
(4) 145km/h (3) 105km/h (4) None

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Q.180 A stone is thrown upwards Q.184 A train of 150 m length is

and it rises to a height of 200m. running towards north at a speed of
The relative velocity of the stone 10 m/s. A parrot flies at a speed of
with respect to the earth will be 5 m/s towards south parallel to the
maximum at :- railway track. The time taken by
the parrot to cross the train is
(1) Height of 100m equal to :-
(2) Height of 150m
(3) Highest point (1) 12 s (2) 8 s
(4) The ground (3) 15 s (4) 10 s

Q.181 Six persons of same mass Q.185 A jet air plane travelling with
travel with same speed u along a a speed of 500 km/h ejects its
regular hexagon of side 'd' such products of combustion with a
that each one always faces the speed of 1500 km/h relative to the
other. After how what will they jet plane. The speed of the latter
meet each other ? with respect to an observed on the
ground is :-
(1) d/u
(1) 1500 km/h
(2) 2d/3u (2) 2000 km/h
(3) 2d/u (3) 1000 km/h
(4) 500 km/h
(4) d√3u
Q.186 A 210 metres long train is
Q.182 An elevator is accelerating moving due north with a speed of
upward at a rate of 6ft/sec2 when a 25m/s. A small bird is flying due
bolt from its ceiling falls to the floor south a little above the train with
of the lift (Distance = 9.5 feet). The 5m/s speed the time taken by the
time (in seconds) taken by the bird to cross the train is :-
falling bolt to hit the floor is (take g
= 32 ft/sec2) (1) 6s (2) 7s
(3) 9s (4) 10s
(1) √2
(2) 1/√2 Q.187 Two balls are thrown
(3) 2√2 simultaneously, (A) vertically
(4) 1/2√2 upwards with a speed of 20m/s
from the ground and (B) vertically
Q.183 A bus starts from rest downwards from a height of 40m
moving with and acceleration of with the same speed and along the
2m/s2. A cyclist, 96 m behind the same line of motion. At which point
bus starts simultaneously towards will the balls collide ?
the bus at 20m/s. After what time
will be able to overtake the bus :- (1) 15m above from the ground
(2) 15m below from
(1) 8s the top of the tower
(2) 10s (3) 20m above from the ground
(3) 12s (4) 20m below from
(4) 1s the top of the tower

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.188 A man is walking on a road Q.192 A river is flowing at the rate

with a velocity of 3km/h when of 6km/hr. A swimmer swims
suddenly, it starts raining velocity across the river with a velocity of
of rain is 10km/h in vertically 9km.h w.r.t. water. The resultant
downward direction, relative velocity of the man will be in
velocity of the rain with respect to (km/h) :-
man is :-
(1) √117 (2) √340
(1) √13 km/hr (2) √7 km/hr
(3) √17 (4) 3√40
(3) √109 km/hr (4) 13 km/h
Q.193 A man wishes to swim across
Q.189 Two particles are separated a river 0.5km wide. If he can swim
by a horizontal distance x as shown at the rate of 2 km/h in still water
in figure. They are projected as and the river flows at the rate of
shown in figure with different 1km/h. The angle made by the
initial speeds. The time after which direction (w.r.t. the flow of the
the horizontal distance between river) along which he should swim
them becomes zero is :- so as to reach a point exactly
opposite his starting point, should
(1) x/u be :-
(2) u/x
(1) 600 (2) 1200
(3) 2u/x
(3) 1450 (4) 900
(4) None of these
Q.194 A bird is flying with a speed
Q.190 A river 4.0 miles wide is of 40 km/h in h north direction. A
flowing at the rate of 2 miles/hr. train is moving with a speed of 40
The minimum time taken by a boat km/h in the west direction. A
to cross the river with a speed v = passenger sitting in the train will
4 miles/hr (in still water) is see the bird moving with velocity :-
approximately –
(1) 40 km/h in N-E direction
(1) 1 hr and 0 minute
(2) 40√2 km/h in N-E direction
(2) 2 hr and 7 minutes
(3) 1 hr and 12 minutes (3) 40 km/h in N-W direction
(4) 2 hr and 25 minutes (4) 40√2 km/h in N-W direction
 
Q.191 Let r1 (t) = 3tî+4t2Ĵ and r2 (t) Q.195 A particle is moving with a
= 4t2î+3tĴ represent the positions of velocity of 10m/s towards east.
particles 1 and 2,  respectively After 10s its velocity changes to
 as 10m/s towards north. Its average
functions of time t; r1 (t) and r2 (t)
acceleration is :-
are in metres and t is in seconds. The
relative speed of the two particles at (1) Zero
the instant t = 1 s, will be :-
(2) √2 m/s2 towards N-W
(1) 1 m/s (2) 3√2 m/s (3) 1/√2 m/s2 towards N-E
(3) 5√2 m/s (4) 7√2 m/s (4) 1/√2 m/s2 towards N-W

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.196 A boat-man can row a boat Q.200 A river 2 km wide is flows at

to make it move with a speed of 10 the rate of 2km/h. A boatman who
km/h in still water. River flows can row a boat at a speed of 4
steadily at the rate of 5 km/h. and km/h in still water, goes a distance
the width of the river is 2 km. If the of 2 km upstream and then comes
boat man cross the river along the back. The time taken by him to
minimum distance of approach then complete his journey is :-
time elapsed in rowing the boat will
be :- (1) 60 min
(2) 70min
(1) 23/5h (3) 80 min
(2) 2/53h (4) 90min
(3) 32/5h
(4) 52/3h Q.201 A bird is flying towards south
with a velocity 40 km/h and a train
Q.197 A river flows from east to is moving with a velocity 40 km/h
west with a speed of 5m/min. A towards east. What is the velocity
man on south bank of river, capable of the bird w.r.t. an observer in the
of swimming at the rate of train ?
10m/min in still water, wants to
swim across the river in shortest (1) 402km/h. N-E
time ; he should swim :- (2) 402km/h. S-E
(3) 402km/h. S-W
(1) Due north (4) 402km/h. N-W
(2) Due north-east
(3) Due north-east with Q.202 Two cars A and B start
double the speed of river moving from the same point with
(4) None of the above same speed v = 5 km/minute. Car
A moves towards North and car B is
Q.198 A boat is sailing with a moving towards East. What is the
velocity (3î + 4ĵ) with respect to relative velocity of B with respect
ground and water in river is flowing to A
with a velocity (–3î –4ĵ). Relative
velocity of the boat with respect to (1) 52 km/min towards South-East
water is :- (2) 52 km/min towards North-West
(3) 52 km/min
(1) 8 ĵ (2) 52 towards South-West
(4) 52 km/min
(3) 6î+8ĵ (4) –6î –8ĵ
towards North-East
Q.199 A body A is thrown up
Q.203 A 100m long train crosses a
vertically from the ground with
man travelling at 5km/h, in
velocity v0 and another body B is
opposite direction in 7.2 seconds,
simultaneously dropped from a
then the velocity of train is :-
height H. They meet at a height
H/2 if v0 is equal to :-
(1) 40km/h
(2) 25km/h
(1) 2gH (2) gH
(3) 20km/h
(3) 1/2gH (4) 2g/H (4) 45km/h

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 Kinematics Question Bank

Q.204 A boy is running on a levelled

road with velocity (v) with a long
hollow tube in his hand. Water is
falling vertically downwards with
velocity (u). At what angle to the
vertical, should he incline the tube
so that the water drope enters
without touching its side :-

(1) tan–1 (v/u)

(2) Sin–1 (v/u)
(3) tan–1 (u/v)
(4) Cos–1 (v/u)

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.1 A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a Q.4 A body of mass 1 kg begins to

particle in y-direction where F is in move under the action of a time
newton and y in meter. Work done dependent force F = (2tî + 3t2ĵ) N,
by this force to move the particle where î and ĵ are unit vectors
from y = 0 to y = 1 m is :- along x and y axis. What power will
be developed by the force at the
(1) 30 J time t ?
(2) 5 J
(1) (2t2 + 3t3)W
(3) 25 J (2) (2t2 + 4t4)W
(4) 20 J (3) (2t3 + 3t4)W
(4) (2t3 + 3t5)W
Q.2 An object of mass 500g, initially
at rest acted upon by a variable Q.5 A particle moves from a
force, whose X component varies  ) when
point (–2î + 5ĵ) to (4ĵ + 5 k
with x in the manner shown. The
a force of (4î + 3ĵ) N is applied.
velocities of the object at point X =
How much work has been done by
8 m and X = 12 m, would be the
the force ?
respective values of (nearly).
(1) 5 J (2) 2 J
(3) 8 J (4) 11 J

Q.6 A block of mass 10 kg, moving

in x direction with a constant speed
of 10 m/s, is subjected to a
retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during
its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m.
(1) 18 m/s and 24.4 m/s Its final KE will be :-
(2) 23 m/s and 24.4 m/s
(1) 450 J
(3) 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s (2) 275 J
(3) 250 J
(4) 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s
(4) 475 J
Q.3 Consider a drop of rain water
having mass 1 g falling from a Q.7 A particle of mass m is driven
height of 1 km. It hits the ground by a machine that delivers a
with a speed of 50 m/s. Take 'g' constant power k watts. If the
constant with a value 10 m/s2. The particle starts from rest the force
work done by the – on the particle at time t is :-
(i) gravitational force and the _1/2
(ii) resistive force of air is :- (1) mkt
_1/2
(2) 2mkt
(1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) – 8.25 J
1 _
(2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J (3) mkt 1/2
2
(3) (i) 10 J (ii) – 8.75 J
mk _1/2
(4) (i) –10 J (ii) – 8.25 J (4) t
2
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 Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.8 A uniform force of (3î + ĵ) Q.12 Force F on a particle moving in

newton acts on a particle of mass a straight line varies with distance
2kg. Hence the particle is displaced d as shown in the figure. The work
from position (2î + k  ) meter to done on the particle during its
 ) meter. The displacement of 12 m is :-
position (4î + 3ĵ – k
work done by the force on the
(1) 18 J
particle is :-
(2) 21 J
(1) 15 J (2) 9 J
(3) 26 J
(3) 6 J (4) 13 J
(4) 13 J
Q.9 A car of mass m starts from
Q.13 The potential energy of a
rest and accelerates so that the
particle in a force field is : U =A/r2–
instantaneous power delivered to
B/r where A and B are positive
the car has a constant magnitude
constants and r is the distance of
P0. The instantaneous velocity of
particle from the centre of the field.
this car is proportional to :-
For stable equilibrium, the distance
of the particle is :-
(1) t–1/2 (2) t/m
(3) t2P0 (4) t1/2 (1) A/B (2) B/A
(3) B/2A (4) 2A/B
Q.10 The potential energy of a
system increases if work is done :-
Q.14 An engine pumps water
through a hose pipe. Water passes
(1) Upon the system by
through the pipe and leaves it with
a non conservative force
a velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per
(2) By the system against
unit length of the water in the pipe
a conservative force is 10 kg/m. What is the power of
(3) By the system against the engine ?
a non conservative force
(4) Upon the system (1) 800 W (2) 400 W
by a conservative force
(3) 200 W (4) 100 W
Q.11 A body projected vertically
from the earth reaches a height Q.15 A block of mass M is attached
equal to earth's radius before to the lower end of a vertical
returning to the earth. The power spring. The spring is hung from a
exerted by the gravitational force is ceiling and has force constant value
greatest k. The mass is released from rest
with the spring initially unstretched.
(1) At the highest position of the body The maximum extension produced
(2) At the instant just before in the length of the spring will be :-
the body hits the earth
(3) It remains constant (1) Mg/2k
all through (2) Mg/k
(4) At the instant just after (3) 2 Mg/k
the Body is projected (4) 4 Mg/k

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.16 An engine pumps water Q.21 A body of mass m is

continuously through a hose. Water displaced from point A (3, 1, 2)
leaves the hose with a velocity v to point B (4.3. 3) under
   the

and m is the mass per unit length effect of a force F = (3i + 2j + 4k)
of the water jet. What is the rate at
N, calculate W.D. by the force.
which kinetic energy is imparted to
water :-
(1) 57 J (2) 11 J
1 2 2 1 (3) 0 (4) 22 J
(1) mv (2) mv3
2 2
1 
(3) mv 3
(4) mv2 Q.22 A force F = (3x²+2x–7) N
2 acts on a 2 kg body as a result of
which the body gets displaced
Q.17 A body of mass 1 kg thrown
from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work
upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It
done by the force will be :-
momentarily comes to rest after
attaining a height of 18 m. How
much energy is lost due to air (1) 70 J (2) 35 J
friction ? (g 10 m/s2) :- (3) 115 J (4) 270 J
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J
Q.23 A person of mass m is
(3) 30 J (4) 40 J
standing on one end of a plank of
Q.18 300 J of work is done in mass M and length L and floating in
sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined water. The person moves from one
plane of height 10m. The work end to another and stops. Work
done against friction is :- done by normal force is :-
(take g = 10 m/s²)
(1) mgL (2) MgL
(1) Zero (2) 100 J mMgL
(3) 200 J (4) 300 J (3) 0 (4)
M+m
Q.19 A body of mass 3 kg is under
a constant force which causes a Q.24 A 2 kg mass lying on a table is
displacement in metres in it, given displaced in the horizontal direction
by the relation s = 1/3t2 where t is through 50 cm. The work done by
in seconds. Work done by the force the normal reaction will be –
in 2 seconds is –
(1) 100 erg (2) 100 joule
5 3
(1) J (2) J (3) 10 joule (4) 0
19 8
8 19 Q.25 A body of mass M tied to a
(3) J (4) J
3 5 string is lowered at a constant
    acceleration of (g/4) through a
Q.20 A force F = (2i _ j + 4k) N vertical distance h. The work done
displaces
   _a
 particle Up to by the string will be.......... .
d = (3i + 2j k) m, calculate work
done (1) 3/4 Mgh
(2) 1/4 Mgh
(1) Zero (2) 8 J (3) –3/4 Mgh
(3) 4 J (4) 12 J (4) –1/4 Mgh
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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.26 Find work done by friction for Q.31 A force acts F = (5i + 4j)
 N on a
displacement 'S' ? body and produced a displacement

S = (6i _ 4j + 3k)
 m. The work done
will be :-

(1) 30 J
(2) 40 J
(1) mk (mg + Fsin).S (3) 20 J
(2) –mk (mg + Fsin).S (4) 10 J
(3) mk (mg – Fsin).S
(4) –mk (mg – Fsin).S Q.32 A force F acting on an object
varies with distance x as shown
Q.27 A force F = Kx2 acts on a here.
particle at an angle of 60o with the The work done by the force in
x-axis. the work done in displacing moving the object from x = 0 to x =
the particle from x1 to x2 will be :- 6m is :-

kx2 k 2 _ 2 (1) 18.0 J

(1) (2) (x2 x1 )
2 2
k k (2) 13.5 J
(3) (x32 _ x13 ) (4) (x32 _ x13 )
6 3 (3) 9.0 J
(4) 4.5 J
Q.28 The work done against
gravity in taking 10 kg. mass at 1 m
Q.33 A stone of mass m is tied to a
height in 1 s will be :-
string of length  at one end and by
holding second end it is whirled
(1) 49 J (2) 98 J
into a horizontal circle, then work
(3) 196 J
done will be :-
(4) None of these
 mv2 
Q.29 A force of 10N displaces an (1) 0 (2)   2
object by 10m. If work done is 50J   
then direction of force make an  mv2 
angle with direction of (3) (mg). 2  (4)   2
  
displacement
Q.34 A particle is moved from a
(1) 120° (2) 90° 
(3) 60° position r1 = (3i + 2j _ 6k)
 metre to

(4) None of these a position r = (14i + 13j _ 6k)
2
 metre
under the action of a force
Q.30 A body of mass 6 kg under a 
force which causes displacement in F = (4i + j + 3k)
 N. The work done is
it given 'S = t²/4, metres where ‘t’ equal to :-
is time. The work done by the force
in 2 seconds is :- (1) 32 J
(2) 96 J
(1) 12J (2) 9J (3) 64 J
(3) 6J (4) 3J (4) 46 J

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.35 Figure gives the acceleration Q.38 If the momentum of a body is

of a 2.0 kg body as it moves from increased n times, its kinetic
rest along x axis while a variable energy increases –
force acts on it from x = 0m to x =
9m. The work done by the force on (1) n times
the body when it reaches – (2) 2n times
(3) n times
(i) x = 4m and (4) n2 times
(ii) x 7 m shall be as given below
Q.39 A spring of force constant 800
N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The
work done in extending it from 5
cm to 15 cm is :-

(1) 16 J
(2) 8J
(3) 32 J
(1) 21 J and 33J respectively
(4) 24 J
(2) 21 J and 15J respectively
(3) 42 J and 60J respectively Q.40 Which of the following
(4) 42 J and 30J respectively statements is true for work done by
conservative forces :-
Q.36 A force acts on a 30 g particle
in such a way that the position of (1) It does not depend on path
the particle as a function of time is (2) It is equal to the difference
given by x = 3t – 4t² + t³, where x of initial and final potential
is in metres and t is in seconds. The energy function
work done during the first 4 second (3) It can be recovered
is :-
completely
(1) 5.28 J (4) All of the above
(2) 450 J
Q.41 Which of the following
(3) 490 J statement is incorrect for a
(4) 530 mJ conservative field ?

Q.37 A constant force F is applied (1) Work done in going from initial to
to a body of mass m moving with final position is equal to change in
initial velocity u. If after the body kinetic energy of the particle.
undergoes a displacement S, its
(2) Work done depends on path but
velocity becomes v, then the total
work done is :- not on initial and final positions.
(3) Work done does not depend
(1) m[v2 + u2] on path but depends only
(2) m/2[u + v2] on initial and final positions
(4) Work done on a
(3) m/2[v2 + u2] particle in the field
(4) m[v2 – u2] for a round trip is zero.

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.42 As shown in Q.46 A particle moves in a potential

the diagram a region given by U = 8x² – 4x + 400
particle is to be J. Its state of equilibrium will be :-
carried from point
A to C via paths (1) x = 25 m
(I), (II) and (III) (2) x = 0.25 m
in gravitational (3) x = 0.025 m
field, then which of the following (4) x = 2.5 m
statements is correct.
Q.47 For the path PQR in a
(1) Work done is same for all the paths conservative force field the amounts
(2) Work done is minimum work done in carrying a body from P
for path (II) to Q and from Q to R are 5 Joule and 2
(3) Work done is Joule respectively. The work done in
maximum for path (I) carrying the body from P to R will be.
(4) None of the above
(1) 7 J
Q.43 The relation between
conservative force and potential (2) 3 J
energy U is given by :- (3) 21 J
 dU  (4) Zero
(1) F = (2) F =  Udx
dx
 dU dU Q.48 The mass of a bucket full of
(3) F = _ (4) F = water is 15 kg. It is being pulled up
dx dx
from a 15m deep well. Due to a
Q.44 Which of the following is a hole in the bucket 6 kg water flows
non conservative force :- out of the bucket. The work done in
drawing the bucket out of the well
(1) Electric force will be –
(g = 10m/s²) –
(2) Gravitational force
(3) Spring force
(1) 900 J
(4) Viscous force (2) 1500 J
(3) 1800 J
Q.45 The graph between potential
(4) 2100 J
energy U and displacement X in the
state of stable equilibrium will be :-
Q.49 A uniform chain of length L
and mass M is lying on a smooth
table and 2/3 of its length is
(1) (2) hanging down over the edge of the
table. If g is the acceleration due to
gravity, the work done to pull the
hanging part on the table is :-

MgL
(1) MgL (2)
(3) (4) 3
MgL 2MgL
(3) (4)
9 9
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Q.50 A 10 kg satellite completes Q.55 If the potential energy of two

one revolution around the earth at A B
molecules is give by, U = 12 _ 6
a height of 100 km in 108 minutes. r r
The work done by the gravitational then at equilibrium position, its
force of earth will be :- potential energy is equal to :-

(1) 108 × 100 × 10 J A2 B2

108 × 10 (1) (2) _
(2) J 4B 4A
100 2B
108 × 10 (3) (4) 3A
(3) 0 J (4) J A
108
Q.56 A 2 g ball of glass is released
Q.51 A particle is
from the edge of a hemispherical
moved from (0, 0)
cup whose radius is 20 cm. How
to (a, a) under a
 much work is done on the ball by
force F = (3i + 4j)

the gravitational force during the
from two paths. ball's motion to the bottom of the
Path 1 is OP and cup ?
path 2 is OQP. Let W1, and W2 be
the work done by this force in these (1) 1.96 mJ
two paths. Then :- (2) 3.92 mJ
(3) 4.90 mJ
(1) W1 = W2 (2) W1 = 2W2 (4) 5.88 mJ
(3) W2 = 2W1 (4) W2 = 4W1
Q.57 4 J of work is required to
Q.52 If a spring extends by x on stretch a spring through 10 cm
loading then energy stored by the beyond its unstretched length. The
spring is :- (T is tension in the extra work required to stretch it
spring, K = spring const.) through additional 10 cm shall be –
T2 T2
(1) (2) (1) 4 J (2) 8 J
2x 2k (3) 12 J (4) 16 J
2k 2T 2
(3) 2 (4)
T k Q.58 A particle in a certain
conservative force field has
Q.53 A body of mass 2 kg falls from 20xy
U= . A potential energy given
a height of 20 m. What is the loss in Z
potential energy :- by. The force exerted on it is :-
(1) 400 J (2) 300 J
 20y   20x    20xy  
(3) 200 J (1) 100 J (1)  i +   j + 2 k
 z   z   z 
Q.54 In stretching a spring by 2 cm  20y  _  20x    20xy  
(2) _  i   j + 2 k
energy stored is given by U, then  z   z   z 
stretching by 10 cm energy stored  20y  _  20x   _  20xy  
will be :- (3) _  i   j  2 k
 z   z   z 
(1) U (2) 5U  20y   20x   _  20xy  
(4)  i +   j  2 k
(3) U/25 (4) 25U  z   z   z 

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Q.59 A body is dropped from a Q.64 A projectile is fired at 30°

height h. When loss in its potential with momentum p, neglecting
energy is U then its velocity is v. friction, the change in kinetic
The mass of the body is :- energy, when it returns back to the
ground, will be :-
U2 2v
(1) (2)
2v U (1) Zero (2) 30 %
2v 2U (3) 60 % (4) 100 %
(3) 2 (4) 2
U v
Q.65 The mass of a bucket full of
Q.60 A ball of mass 1 kg is released water is 15 kg. It is being pulled up
from the tower of Pisa. The kinetic from a 15m deep well. Due to a
energy generated in it after falling hole in the bucket 6 kg water flows
through 10m will be :- out of the bucket. The work done in
drawing the bucket out of the well
(1) 10 J (2) 9.8 J will be – (g = 10m/s²)
(3) 0.98 J (4) 98 J

Q.61 A stone is projected vertically (1) 900 J (2) 1800 J

up to reach maximum height 'h'. (3) 1500 J (4) 2100 J
The ratio of its kinetic energy to
potential energy, at a height 4h/5 Q.66 A body of mass 6 kg under a
will be :- force which causes displacement in
it given 'S = t²/4, metres where 't'
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 4 : 5 is time. The work done by the force
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 in 2 seconds is :

Q.62 A block of mass 16 kg is (1) 12J (2) 9J

moving on a frictionless horizontal (3) 6J (4) 3J
surface with velocity 4m/s and
comes to rest after pressing a Q.67 A particle moves in a potential
spring. If the force constant of the region given by U = 8x² – 4x + 400
spring is 100 N/m then the J. Its state of equilibrium will be :-
compression in the spring will be :-
(1) x = 25 m
(1) 3.2 m (2) 1.6 m (2) x = 0.25 m
(3) 0.6 m (4) 6.1 m (3) x = 2.5 m
(4) x = 0.025 m
Q.63 A mass
of 0.5 kg Q.68 A 2 g ball of glass is released
moving with a from the edge of a hemispherical
speed of 1.5 cup whose radius is 20 cm. How
m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, much work is done on the ball by
collides with a nearly weightless the gravitational force during the
spring of force constant k = 50N/m. ball's motion to the of the cup ?
The maximum compression of the
spring would be – (1) 1,96 mJ
(2) 3.92 mJ
(1) 0.12 m (2) 1.5 m (3) 4.90 mJ
(3) 0.5 m (4) 0.15 m (4) 5.88 mJ

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.69 A body of mass M tied to a Q.73 A car is moving with a speed

string is lowered at a constant of 40 Km/hr. If the car engine
acceleration of (g/4) through a generates 7 kilowatt power, then
vertical distance h. The work done the resistance in the path of motion
by the string will be........... . of the car will be :-

(1) 3/4Mgh
(1) 360 newton
(2) 1/4Mgh
(3) –3/4Mgh (2) 630 newton
(4) –1/4Mgh
(3) Zero
Q.70 Find work done by friction for (4) 280 newton
displacement 'S' ?
Q.74 Calculate power generated by
tension in the string in first 2
seconds of motion :-

(1) 250 W
(1) mk (mg + F sin).S
(2) –mk (mg – F sin).S (2) 500 W
(3) mk (mg + F sin).S
(4) –mk (mg – F sin).S (3) 750 W

Q.71 A stone is projected vertically (4) 1000 W

up to reach maximum height 'h'.
The ratio of its kinetic energy to Q.75 If the force applied is F and
potential energy, at a height 4h/5 the velocity gained is v, then the
will be :- average power developed is :-

(1) 5 : 4 (1) F/v

(2) 4 : 5
(3) 4 : 1 (2) v/F
(4) 1 : 4 (3) Fv/2
Q.72 A mass of 0.5 kg moving with (4) Fv2
a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal
smooth surface, collides with a Q.76 A 2 g ball of glass is released
nearly weightless spring of force from the edge of a hemispherical
constant k = 50N/m. The maximum cup whose radius is 20 cm. How
compression of the spring would be much work is done on the ball by
the gravitational force during the
ball's motion to the of the cup ?

(1) 1,96 mJ
(1) 0.12 m (2) 3.92 mJ
(2) 1.5 m (3) 4.90 mJ
(3) 0.5 m
(4) 0.15 m (4) 5.88 mJ

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.77 An electric motor produces a Q.82 The graph between Ek and
tension of 4500N in a load lifting 1/p is (Ek = kinetic energy and p =
cable and rolls it at the rate of 2 momentum) -
m/s. The power of the motor is :-

(1) 9 kW
(2) 15 kW (1) (2)
(3) 225 kW
(4) 9 x 10³ hp

Q.78 A motor of 100 hp is moving a

car with a constant velocity of 72
km/hour. The forward force exerted (3) (4)
by the engine on the car is :-

(1) 3.73 x 10³ N

1 Q.83 If the kinetic energy is
(2) 3.73 x 10 N increased by 300%, the momentum
2
(3) 3.73 x 10 N will increase by :-
(4) None of the above
(1) 100%
Q.79 A force acts on a 30 g particle (2) 200%
in such a way that the position of
(3) 150%
the particle as a function of time is
given by x = 3t – 4t² + t³, where x (4) 300%
is in metres and t is in seconds. The
work done during the first 4 second Q.84 A constant force F is applied
is :- to a body of mass m moving with
initial velocity u. If after the body
(1) 5.28 J (2) 450 J undergoes a displacement S, its
(3) 490 J (4) 530 mJ velocity becomes v, then the total
work done is :-
Q.80 If the kinetic energy of a body
is double of its initial kinetic (1) m[v2 + u2]
energy, then the momentum of the m 2
(2) u + v2 
body will be :- 2
m 2 _ v2
(1) 22 time (2) 2 time (3) u
2 
1
(3) times (4) m[v2 – u2]
2
(4) None of these Q.85 If the momentum of a body is
increased n times, its kinetic
Q.81 If the kinetic energy of a body energy increases.
increases by 4% the momentum :-
(1) n times
(1) increases by 2%
(2) 2n times
(2) increases by 8%
(3) increases by 4% (3) n times
(4) increases by 16% (4) n2 times

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.86 A crane lifts 300 kg weight Q.92 Velocity-time graph of a

from earth's surface up to a height of particle of mass 2 kg moving in a
2m in 3 seconds. The average power straight line is as shown in figure.
generated by it will be :- Work done by all the forces on the
particle is :-
(1) 1960 W (2) 2205 W
(3) 4410 W (4) 0 W (1) 400 J
(2) –400 J
Q.87 If K.E. increases by 3%. Then
momentum will increase by – (3) –200 J
(4) 200 J
(1) 1.5% (2) 9%
(3) 3% (4) 2% Q.93 The kinetic energy of a body
becomes four times of its initial
Q.88 Two men with weights in the value. The new linear momentum
ratio 5: 3 run up a staircase in times will be :-
in the ratio 11: 9. The ratio of power
of first to that of second is – (1) Four times the initial value
(2) Thrice the initial value
(1) 15/11 (2) 11/15 (3) Twice the initial value
(3) 11/9 (4) 9/11 (4) Same as the initial value

Q.89 If K.E. body is increased by Q.94 A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with

100%. Then % change in 'P'. an initial speed 14 m/s and reaches
a maximum height of 8.0 m. How
(1) 50% (2) 41.4% much energy is dissipated by air
drag acting on the ball during the
(3) 10% (4) 20% ascent ?

Q.90 2 particles of mass 1 Kg and 5 (1) 19.6 J (2) 4.9 J

kg have same momentum, calculate (3) 10 J (4) 9.8 J
ratio of their K.E.
Q.95 A ball of mass 2 kg and
(1) 5 : 1 (3) 25 : 1 another of mass 4 kg are dropped
(2) 1 : 1 (4) 10 : 1 together from a 60 feet tall
building. After a fall of 30 feet each
Q.91 The graph between kinetic towards earth, their respective
energy Ek, and velocity V is - kinetic energies will be in the ratio
of :-

(1) (2) (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

Q.96 Two bodies of mass 1kg and

4kg have equal K.E. then the ratio
of their momentum is :-
(3) (4)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.97 A body of mass m starting Q.102 A pump is used to deliver

from rest from origin moves along water at a certain rate from a given
x-axis with constant power (P). pipe. To obtain n times water from
Calculate relation between the same pipe in the same time, by
velocity/distance :- what factor, the force of the motor
should be increased ?
(1) x  v1/2 (2) x  v2
(3) x  v (4) x  v3 (1) n times
(2) n² times
Q.98 A body of mass 4 kg is moving
up an inclined plane rising 1 in 40 (3) n³ times
with velocity 40 m/sec if efficiency (4) 1/n times
is 50% the calculate power
required. Q.103 A body of mass 10 kg is
displaced from point A (2, 1, 3) to
(1) 38.4 W (2) 55 W point B (3, 3, 4) under the effect of
(3) 78.4 W (4) 108 W a force of magnitude 20 N in the
direction of 6î + 8ĵ Calculate W.D.
Q.99 A 1.0 hp motor pumps out by the force :-
water from a well of depth 20 m
and fills a water tank of volume (1) 22 J
2238 liters at a height of 10 m from (2) 20 6J
the ground. The running time of the
(3) 44 J
motor to fill the empty water tank
is (g = 10m/s2). (4) Zero

(1) 5 minutes (2) 10 minutes Q.104 Work done in time t on a body

(3) 15 minutes (4) 20 minutes of mass m which is accelerated from
rest to a speed v in time t1, as a
Q.100 Water is falling on the blades function of time t is given by :-
of a turbine at a rate of 100 kg/s
from a certain spring. If the height 1 v 2 v 2
(1) m t (2) m t
of the spring be 100 metres, the 2 t1 t1
power transferred to the turbine 2
will be :- 1  mv  2 1 v2 2
(3)  t t (4) m t
2  t1  2 t12
(1) 100 kW (2) 10 kW
(3) 1 kW (4) 1000 kW Q.105 A particle moves on a rough
 horizontal ground with some initial
Q.101 A constant force F is acting velocity say v0. If 3/4 of its kinetic
on a body of mass m with constant energy is lost due to friction in time

velocity v as shown in the figure. t0 then coefficient of friction
The power P exerted is – between the particle and the
ground is :-
(1) Fv cos
(2) F cos/mg v0 v0
(1) (2)
2gt0 4gt0
(3) Fmg cos/v
3v0 v0
(4) Fmg sin/F (3) (4)
4gt0 gt 0
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Work Power Energy Question Bank

Q.106 The only force Fx acting on a Q.108 A particle moves on a rough

2.0 kg body as it moves along the horizontal ground with some initial
x-axis varies as shown in the velocity say v0. If 3/4 of its kinetic
figure. The velocity of the body energy is lost due to friction in time
along positive x axis at 0 = x is 4 t0 then coefficient of friction
m/s. The kinetic energy of the body between the particle and the
at x = 3.0 m is :- ground is :-

v0 v0
(1) (2)
2gt0 4gt0
3v0 v
(3) (4) 0
(1) 4J
4gt0 gt 0
(2) 8J
(3) 12 J Q.109 A machine which is 75%
(4) 16 J efficient, uses 12 J of energy in
lifting 1 kg mass through a certain
Q.107 A variable force, given by the distance. The mass is then allowed
2-dimensional vector F = (3x2î + to fall through the same distance,
4ĵ), acts on a particle. The force the velocity at the end of its fall is –
is in newton and x is in metre.
What is the change in the kinetic (1) 12 m / s (2) 18 m / s
energy of the particle as it (3) 24 m / s (4) 32 m / s
moves from the point with
coordinates (2, 3) to (3, 0) ? Q.110 A body of mass m
(The coordinates are in meters). accelerates uniformly from rest to
v1 in time t1. The instantaneous
(1) –7 J power delivered to the body as a
(2) Zero function of time t is :-
(3) +7 J
(4) +19 J mv1t mv12t
(1) (2)
t1 t12
mv1t2 mv12t
(3) (4)
t1 t1

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 Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.1 A truck is stationary and has a Q.4 A block of mass

bob suspended by a light string, in m is placed on a
a frame attached to the truck. The smooth inclined
truck, suddenly moves to the right wedge ABC of
with an acceleration of a. The inclination  as
pendulum will tilt – shown in the figure.
The wedge is given an acceleration
(1) To the left and angle of 'a' towards the right. The relation
inclination of the pendulum between a and  for the block to
With the vertical is sin–1 (g/a) remain stationary on the wedge is :
(2) To the left and angle of
inclination of the pendulum (1) a = g/cosec
With the vertical is tan–1 (a/g) (2) a = g/sin
(3) To the left and angle of (3) a = g cos
inclination of the pendulum With the (4) a = g tan
vertical is sin–1 (a/g)
(4) To the left and angle of
inclination of the pendulum Q.5 Two blocks A
With the vertical is tan–1 (g/a) and B of masses 3
m and m
Q.2 A body of mass m is kept on a respectively are
rough horizontal surface (coefficient connected by a
of friction = ) A horizontal force is massless and
applied on the body, but it does not inextensible string.
move. The resultant of normal The whole system is
reaction and the frictional force suspended by a
acting on the object is given by F, massless spring as shown in figure.
where F is :- The magnitudes of acceleration of A
 and B immediately after the string
(1) |F| = mg + mg is cut, are respectively :-

(2) |F| = mg
 (1) g/3,g
(3) |F|  mg 1 + 2 (2) g, g

(4) |F| = mg (3) g/3, g/3
(4) g, g/3
Q.3 Which one of the following
statements is incorrect ? Q.6 A rigid ball of mass m strikes a
rigid wall at 600 and gets reflected
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than without loss of speed as shown in
sliding friction the figure below. The value of
impulse imparted by the on the ball
(2) Limiting value of static friction is
will be :-
directly proportional to normal
reactions
(1) mV/2
(3) Frictional force opposes the
relative motion (2) mV/3
(4) Coefficient of sliding
(3) mV
friction has dimensions
of length (4) 2 mV

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.7 A block A of mass m1 rests on a Q.10 A system

horizontal table. A light string consists of
connected to it passes over a three masses
frictionless pulley at the edge of m1, m2 and m3
table and from its other end connected by a
another block B of mass m2 is string passing
suspended. The coefficient of over a pulley P.
kinetic friction between the block The mass m1,
and the table is k. When the block hangs freely m2 and m2 are on a
A is sliding on the table, the tension rough horizontal table (the
in the string is :– coefficient of friction = ). The
pulley is frictionless and is of
(1) (m2–km1)g/(m1+m2) negligible mass. The downward
(2) m1m2(1+k)g/(m1+m2) acceleration of mass m1is :
(3) m1m2(1-k)g/(m1+m2) (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m):–
(4) (m2+km1)g/(m1+m2)
(1) g(1–2)/6
Q.8 Three blocks A, B and C of (2) 2g/3
masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg
(3) g(1–2)/3
respectively, are in contact on a
frictionless surface, as shown. If a (4) g(1–2)/2
force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg
block, then the contact force Q.11 The force
between A and B is :- 'F' acting on a
particle of
mass 'm' is
indicated by
the force-time
graph shown below. The change in
(1) 6 N (2) 8 N momentum of the particle over the
(3) 2 N (4) 18 N time interval from zero to 8 s is :-

Q.9 A plank with a (1) 24 Ns (2) 12 Ns

box on it at one
end is gradually (3) 20 Ns (4) 6 Ns
raised about the
other end. As the Q.12 A balloon with mass 'm' is
angle of inclination descending down with an
with the horizontal acceleration 'a' (where a <g). How
reaches 300, the box starts to slip much mass should be removed
and slides 4.0 m down the plank in from it so that it starts moving up
4.0s. The coefficients of static and with an acceleration 'a' ?
kinetic friction between the box (Assume that it's volume does not
and the plank will be, respectively : change)

(1) 0.4 and 0.3 (1) 2ma/g+a

(2) 0.6 and 0.6 (2) 2ma/g–a
(3) 0.6 and 0.5 (3) ma/g+a
(4) 0.5 and 0.6 (4) ma/g–a

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.13 Three blocks Q.17 A body, under the action of a


with masses m, 2m  acquires an
force F = 6î – 8ĵ+ 10 k,
and 3m are connected acceleration of 1m/s2. The mass of
by strings, as shown this body must be :-
in the figure. After an
upward force F is (1) 102 kg (2) 210 kg
applied on block m,
the masse move (3) 10 kg (4) 20 kg
upward at constant speed v. What
is the net force on the block of Q.18 A 0.5 kg ball
mass 2m ? (g is the acceleration moving with a speed
due to gravity) of 12 m/s strikes a
hard wall at an angle
(1) 6 mg (2) Zero of 300 with the wall.
(3) 2 mg (4) 3 mg It is reflected with
the same speed and
Q.14 A person of mass 60 kg is inside at the same angle. If
a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the the ball is in contact with the wall
button on control panel. Then lift for 0.25 seconds. the average force
starts moving upwards with an acting on the wall is :-
acceleration 1.0m/s2. If g = 10
m/s2, the tension in the supporting (1) 48 N (2) 24 N
cable is – (3) 12 N (4) 96 N
(1) 8600 N (2) 11000 N Q.19 A stone is dropped from a
(3) 9680 N (4) 1200 N height h. Another stone is thrown
up simultaneously from the ground
Q.15 A body of mass M hits which reaches a height 4h. The two
normally a rigid wall with velocity V stones will cross each other after
and bounces back with the same time :-
speed. The impulse experienced by
the body is :-
h
(1) (2) 8gh
(1) MV (2) 1.5 MV 8g
(3) 2 MV (4) Zero h
(3) 2gh (4)
2g
Q.16 A block of
mass m is in
Q.20 A balloon of mass M is
contact with the
descending with a constant
cart C as shown
accelerations g/3. When a mass m
in the figure. The
is released from the balloon it
coefficient of
starts rising with the same
static friction between the block
acceleration g/3. the value of m is
and the cart is . The acceleration 
(Assuming that its volume does not
H. of the cart that will prevent the
change) :-
block from falling statisfies –
(1) M/2 (2) M/4
(1) < g/ (2) > mg/
(3) > g/m (4)   g/ (3) 4M (4) 2M

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.21 An object with a mass 10 kg Q.26 Weight is defined as :-

moves at a constant velocity of 10
m/s. A constant force then acts for (1) Force of attraction
4 seconds on the object giving it a exerted by the earth
speed of 2 m/s in opposite (2) Mass of a body
direction. The acceleration (3) Nature of a body
produced is :- (4) None of these

(1) 3 m/s2 (2) –3 m/s2 Q.27 Position of a particle moving

(3) 0.3 m/s2 (4) –0.3 m/s2 along x-axis is given by x = 2 + 8t –
4t2. The distance travelled by the
Q.22 A ship of mass 3 × 107 kg particle from t = 0 to t = 2 is :-
initially at rest is pulled by a force
of 5 × 104 N through a distance of (1) 0 (2) 8
3m. Neglecting friction, the speed
(3) 12 (4) 16
of the ship at this moment is :-
Q.28 A man is at rest in the middle
(1) 3.0 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s
of a pond on perfectly smooth ice.
(3) 0.1 m/s (4) 2 m/s He can get himself to the shore by
making use of Newton's :-
Q.23 Two bodies of masses 4 kg
and 5 kg are acted upon by the (1) First law
same force. If the acceleration of (2) Second law
lighter body is 2 m/s2, then the (3) Third law
acceleration of the heavier body is : (4) Law of gravitation

(1) 4.2 m/s2 (2) 3.6 m/s2 Q.29 If the force of gravity
(3) 2.4 m/s2 (4) 1.6 m/s2 suddenly disappears :-

Q.24 The velocity acquired by a (1) The mass of all bodies will
mass m in travelling a certain become zero
distance d starting from rest under (2) The weight of all bodies will
the action of a constant force is become zero
directly proportional to :- (3) Both mass and weight of all
bodies will become zero
(1) m (2) m0 (4) Neither mass nor weight
(3) 1/m (4) m of all bodies will become
zero
Q.25 A ball weighing 10 g hits a
hard surface vertically with a speed Q.30 Gravel is dropped onto a
of 5 m/s and rebounds with the conveyer belt at a rate of 0.5 kg/s.
same speed. The ball remains in The extra force required in newton
contact with the surface for (0.01) to keep belt moving at 2 m/s is :-
s. The average force exerted by the
surface on the ball is :- (1) 1N
(2) 2N
(1) 100 N (2) 10 N (3) 4N
(3) 1 N (4) 0.1 N (4) 0.5 N

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 Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.31 A metal sphere Q.35 A force of 10 N acts on a body

is hung by a string of mass 20 kg for 10 seconds. The
fixed to a wall. The change in its momentum is :-
forces acting on the
sphere are shown (1) 50 kg–m/s
in figure Which (2) 100 kg–m/s
of the following
statements is correct ? (3) 300 kg–m/s
(4) 1000 kg–m/s
  
(A) R + T + W = 0
(B) T2 = R2 + W2 Q.36 A 150 g tennis ball coming at
(C) T = R + W a speed of 40 m/s is hit straight
(D) R = W tan  back by a bat to speed of 60 m/s.
The magnitude of the average force
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d F on the ball, when it is in contact
(3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d for 5 ms with the bat is :-

Q.32 A 5 kg mass is accelerated (1) 2500 N

from rest to 60 m/s in 1 s. What (2) 3500 N
force acts on it :- (3) 3000 N
(4) 4000 N
(1) 5 × 60 N
(2) (5/60) × 981 N
Q.37 Find the tension T2, for the
(3) 602 × 52 N
system shown in fig.
(4) (5/2) × 602 × 981 N
(1) 1g N
Q.33 In the
figure given (2) 2g N
below, the
position-time (3) 5g N
graph of a
(4) 6g N
particle of mass
0.1 kg is shown.
Q.38 Three blocks of masses m1, m2
The impulse at t = 2 sec is :–
and m3 are connected by mass less
strings as shown in the figure on a
(1) 0–2 kg–m/s
frictionless table. They are pulled
(2) –0.2 kg–m/s
with a force of 40 N. If m₁ = 10 kg,
(3) 0.1 kg–m/s
(4) –0.4 kg–m/s m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg, then
tension T2 will be :-
Q.34 A satellite in force free space
sweeps stationary interplanetary
dust at a rate (dM/dt) =+  v. Here
v is the velocity. The acceleration of
satellite of mass  backward M is :- (1) 10 N
(2) 20
(1) – 2 v2/M (2) – 3 v2/M
(3) 32 N
2 2
(3) – v /M (4) – v (4) 40 N

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.39 A mass of 6 Q.43 A material body A of mass m1,

kg is suspended exerts a force on another material
by a rope of body B of mass m2. If the
length 2m from a acceleration of B be a2, the
ceiling. A force magnitude of the acceleration of A is
of 50 N is
applied in horizontal direction at (1) Zero
the midpoint of the rope. What is (2) m2 a2/m1
the angle between the rope and the (3) m1 a2/m2 (4) a2
vertical in equilibrium :–

(1) tan–1(4/5) (2) tan–1(5/4) Q.44 A disc of

(3) tan–1(5/6) (4) None mass 1.0 kg is
kept floating
Q.40 The figure horizontally in air
shows a horizontal by firing bullets of
force F acting on a mass 0.05 kg each
block of mass M on vertically at it, at
an inclined plane the rate of 10 per
(angle ). What is second. If the bullets rebound with
the normal reaction on the block ? the same speed, the speed with
which these are fired will be :-
(1) Mgsin + Fcos
(2) Mgsin + Fcos (1) 0.098 m/s (2) 0.98 m/s
(3) Mgcos – Fsin
(4) Mgcos + Fsin (3) 9.8 m/s (4) 98.0 m/s

Q.41 A man, of mass 60 kg, is Q.45 If force F = 500 – 100t, then

riding in a lift. The weights of the impulse as a function of time will
man, when the lift is accelerating be :–
upwards and downwards at 2 m/s2
are respectively :- (Taking g = 10 (1) 500t – 50t2 (2) 50t – 10
m/s2)
(3) 50-t2 (4) 100t2
(1) 720 N and 480 N
(2) 600 N and 600 N Q.46 A cork of mass 10 g is floating
(3) 480 N and 720 N on water. Net force on the cork is :-
(4) None of these
(1) 10 N (2) 10–3 N
Q.42 Two particles of masses m and
M (M > m) are connected by a cord (3) 10–2N (4) Zero
that passes over a massless and
frictionless pulley. The tension T in Q.47 Find the tension T2, for the
the string and the acceleration a of system shown in fig.
the particles is :-
(1) 1g N
(1) T = 2mM/(M-m) g;a=(Mm/M+m)g
(2) T = 2mM/(M+m)g;a= (M- m/M+m)g (2) 2g N
(3) T = (M-m/M+m)
g;a = (2mM/M+m)g (3) 5g N
(4) T = (Mm/M+m)
g;a = (2mM/M+m)g (4) 6g N

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.48 Three masses M1, M2 and M3 Q.51 Two bodies

are lying on a frictionless table. A and B of
The masses are connected by masses 10 kg
mass less threads as shown. The and 15 kg
mass M3 is pulled by a constant respectively kept
force F as shown. The tension in on a smooth,
the thread between masses M2 horizontal
and M3 is :- surface are tied to the ends of a
light string. If T represents the
tension in the string when a
horizontal force F = 500 N is
applied to A (as shown in figure 1)
and T’ be the tension when it is
applied to B (figure 2), then which
(1) (M1+M2/M1+M2+M3)F of the following is true ?
(2) (M2+M3/M1+M2+M3)F
(1) T = T’ = 500 N
(3) (M1+M3/M1+M2+M3)F (2) T = T’ = 250 N
(3) T = 200 N, T’ = 300 N
(4) (M1-M2/M1+M2+M3)F (4) T = 300 N, T’ = 200 N

Q.49 The pulleys and strings Q.52 Two blocks of masses 5 kg

shown in the figure are smooth and 10 kg are connected to a pulley
and are of negligible mass. For as shown. What will be their
the system to remain in acceleration if the pulley is set
equilibrium, the angle should be. free? (g = acceleration due to
gravity)
(1) 00
(1) g
0
(2) 30 (2) g/2
(3) g/3
(3) 450
(4) g/4
(4) 60
Q.53 Two masses of 10 kg and 20
Q.50 A man weighs 80 kg. He kg respectively are connected by a
stands on a weighing scale in a lift massless spring as shown in the
which is moving upwards with a figure. A force of 200 N acts on the
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. 20 kg mass. At the instant shown
the 10 kg mass has an acceleration
What would be the reading scale ?
4 m/s2 rightwards. What is the
(g = 10 m/s2)
acceleration of 20 kg mass ?

(1) Zero
(2) 800 N
(3) 400 N
(1) Zero (2) 4 m/s2
(4)1200 N (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.54 Two blocks of masses 2 kg Q.58 A 2 kg block (A) is placed on 8

and 1 kg are in contact with each kg block (B) which rests on a table.
other on a frictionless table. When Coefficient of friction between (A)
a horizontal force of 3.0 N is and (B) is 0.2 and between (B) and
applied to the block of mass 2 kg table is 0.5. A 25 N horizontal force
the value of the force of contact is applied on the block (B), then the
between the two blocks is :- friction force between the blocks
(A) and (B) is :-
(1) 4 N (2) 3 N
(3) 5 N (4) 1 N (1) Zero
(2) 5N
Q.55 Three blocks are connected as (3) 3.9 N
shown in fig. On a horizontal (4) 49 N
frictionless table if m1 = 1 Kg, m2 =
8 kg, m3 = 27 kg and T3 = 36N, T2 Q.59 In the
will be :- fig. given
below
masses m
and m' are
tied with a
(1) 18 N (2) 9 N thread passing over a pulley, m is
(3) 3.375 N (4) 1.75 N on a frictionless horizontal surface.
If acceleration due to gravity is g,
Q.56 Two masses of the acceleration of m' in this
10 kg and 5 kg are arrangement will be :-
suspended from a
fixed support as (1) g
shown in figure. The (2) m’ g/(m + m’)
system is pulled
(3) mg/m’
down with a force of
150 N attached to the lower mass. (4) mg/(m - m')
The string attached to the support
breaks and the system accelerates Q.60 Two
downwards. If the downward force bodies of
continues to act, what is the masses 5
acceleration of the system ? kg and 4
kg are
(1) 20 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2 arranged
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) zero in two
different ways as shown in fig. (A)
Q.57 In the and (B). If the pulleys and the table
fig. mass M are perfectly smooth, the
= 10 g. is acceleration of the 5 kg body in
placed on an case (A) and (B) are respectively –
inclined plane. In order to keep it at
rest, the value of mass m will be :- (1) g and (5/9)g
(2) (4/9)g and (1/9)g
(1) 5 g (2) 10 3 g (3) g/5 and g/5
(3) 0.10 g (4) 3 g (4) (5/9)g and (1/9)g

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.61 Three equal Q.65 The pulley

weights each of arrangements
mass 4 kg are shown in the
hanging on a string figure are
passing over a fixed identical, the
pulley as shown in mass of the rope
fig. What is the being negligible. In case (a) mass m
tension in the string is lifted by attaching a mass of 2m to
connecting weights B and C. the other end of the rope. In case (b)
the mass m is lifted by pulling the
(1) Zero (2) 13.3 N other end of the rope with a constant
(3) 26.6 N (4) 19.6 N down ward force F = 2mg, where g is
the acceleration due to gravity. The
Q.62 Two acceleration of mass m in case (a) is.
blocks each
of mass M (1) Zero
are resting (2) More than that in case (b)
on a (3) Less than that in case (b)
frictionless inclined planes as (4) Equal to that in case (b)
shown in fig. then :-
Q.66 Three
(1) The block A moves down the plane masses of 1 kg,
(2) The block B moves down the plane 6 kg and 3 kg
(3) Both the blocks are connected
remain at rest to each other
(4) Both the blocks with threads
move down the plane. and are placed on a table as shown
in figure. What is the acceleration
Q.63 Two blocks each having a with which the system is moving ?
mass M are placed as shown in the (Take g 10 m/s2)
figure. The acceleration of the
(1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2
system is :-
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2

Q.67 Two
blocks of
masses 6 kg
and 4 kg
(1) 0 (2) g sin/2 connected by a rope of mass 2 kg
(3) g sin (4) 2g sin are resting on a frictionless floor as
shown in the following figure. If a
Q.64 If a parrot starts flying constant force of 60 N is applied to
upwards with an acceleration in an 6 kg block, then the tension in the
air tight cage, then the boy will feel rope at points A, B and C are
the weight of the cage :- respectively given by :-

(1) Unchanged (1) 60 N, 60 N, 60 N

(2) Reduced (2) 30 N, 25 N, 20 N
(3) Increased (3) 20 N, 25 N, 30 N
(4) Nothing can be said (4) 20 N, 20 N, 20 N

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.68 What is the mechanical Q.73 A block of mass 2 kg is placed

advantage of single fixed pulley ? on the floor. The coefficient of
static friction is 0.4. Force of 2.8 N
(1) 1 is applied on the block. The force of
friction between the block and the
(2) 0.5
floor is :-
(3) 2
(1) 2.8 N
(4) 4
(2) 8.0 N
Q.69 A block of mass M is pulled (3) 2.0 N
along a horizontal frictionless (4) Zero
surface by a rope of mass m. If a
force F is applied at one end of the Q.74 The frictional force of the air
rope, the force which the rope on a body of mass 0.25 kg, falling
exerts on the block is :- with an acceleration of 9.2 m/s2,
will be :-
(1) F/(M + m) (2) F
(3) FM/(m + M) (4) Zero (1) 1.0 N
(2) 0.55 N
Q.70 The mechanical advantage of (3) 0.25 N
a wheel axle is 5. What will be the (4) 0.15 N
force required to lift a 200 kg wt ?
Q.75 A block of mass 15 kg is
(1) 10 kg wt. placed on a long trolley. The
(2) 2 kg wt. coefficient of friction between the
(3) 20 kg wt. block and trolley is 0.18. The trolley
(4) 40 kg wt. accelerates from rest with 0.5 m/s2
for 20 s. then what is the friction
Q.71 Two bodies A (30 kg) and B force ?
(50 kg) tied with a light string are
placed on a frictionless table. A (1) 3.5 N
force F acting at B pulls this system (2) 133.3 N
with an acceleration of 2ms2. The
(3) 7.5 N
tension in the string is :-
(4) N.O.T.
(1) 60 N (2) 35 N
Q.76 A rope lies on a table such
(3) 100 N (4) 140 N
that a part of it hangs down the
table. When the length of hanging
Q.72 A string of length L and mass
part is 1/3 of entire length the rope
M is lying on a horizontal table. A
just begins to slide. The coefficient
force F is applied at one of its ends.
of friction between the rope and
Tension in the string at a distance x
the table is :-
from the end at which force is
applied is :-
(1) 2/3
(1) Zero (2) F (2) 1/3
(3) F(L-x)/L (3) 1/2
(4) F(L - x)/M (4) 1/6

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Q.77 Two Q.81 N bullet strike per second

blocks (A) elastically on a wall and rebound.
2 kg and What will be the force exerted on
(B) 5 kg the wall by bullets if mass of each
rest one bullet is m :-
over the other on a smooth
horizontal plane. The coefficient of (1) Mnv (2) 4mnv
static and dynamic friction between
(3) 2 mnv (4) mnv/2
(A) and (B) is the same and equal
to 0.60. The maximum horizontal
Q.82 For a Rocket propulsion
force F that can be applied to (B) in
velocity of exhaust gases relative
order that both (A) and (B) do not
to rocket is 2 km/s. If mass of
have any relative motion is :-
rocket system is 1000 kg, then the
rate of fuel consumption for a
(1) 42 N (2) 42 kgf
rocket to rise up with an
(3) 5.4 kgf (4) 1.2 N acceleration 4.9 m/s2 will be –

Q.78 A block (1) 12.25 kg/s (2) 17.5kg/s

is dragged on
(3) 7.35 kg/s (4) 5.2kg/s
a smooth
plane with
Q.83 Ten one-rupee coins are put
the help of a
on top of each other on a table.
rope which
Each coin has a mass m. Which of
moves with a
the following statements is not true?
velocity v as shown in figure. The
(counted from the bottom)
horizontal velocity of the block is :-
(1) The force on the 6th
(1) v (2) v/sin
coin due to all the on top is
(3) v sin (4) v/cos equal to 4mg (downwards).
(2) The force on the 6th coin due to
Q.79 If the force on a rocket the 7th coin is 4mg (downwards)
moving in force free space with an (3) The reaction of the 6th coin on
exhaust velocity of gases 300 the 7th coin is 4mg (upwards).
m/sec is 210 N, then the rate of
(4) The total force on the
combustion of the fuel, is :-
10thcoin is 9mg (downwards)
(1) 0.7 kg/s (2) 1.4 kg/s
Q.84 A 140 g ball, in horizontal
(3) 2.7 kg/s (4) 10.7 kg/s
flight with a speed of 39.0 m/s, is
struck by a bat. After leaving the
Q.80 A rocket of mass 120 kg. is
bat, the ball travels in the opposite
fired in a gravity free space is
direction with speed v2 = 39.0 m/s.
ejecting gases with velocity 600
If the impact time t for the ball-
m/s at the rate of 1 kg/s. What will
bat collision is 1.20 ms, what
be the initial acceleration of the
average force acts on the ball ?
rocket ?
(1) 1308 N (2) 9100 N
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 15 m/s (3) 1090 N (4) 980 N
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Q.85 A boy sitting on the upper Q.89 A person is standing in an

berth in the compartment of a elevator. In which situation he
train, which is about to stop at a finds his weight less ?
railway station, drops an apple
aiming at the open hand of his (1) When the elevator moves
brother vertically below his hands upward with constant acceleration
at a distance of about 2 m. The (2) When the elevator moves
apple will fall :- Downward with constant acceleration
(3) When the elevator moves
(1) In the hand of his brother upward with uniform velocity
(2) Slightly away from the (4) When the elevator
hands of his brother in the moves downward with
direction of motion of the train uniform velocity
(3) Slightly away from the hands
of his brother in the direction Q.90 A block of mass m is placed on
opposite to the direction a smooth wedge inclination . The
of motion of the train whole system is accelerated
(4) None of the above horizontally so that the block does
not slip on the wedge. The force
Q.86 The ratio of weights of a man exerted by the wedge on the block
in a stationary lift and in a lift (is acceleration due to gravity) will
accelerating downwards with a be :-
uniform acceleration is 3 : 2. The
acceleration of the lift is :- (1) mg sin  (2) mg
(3) mg/cos  (4) mg cos 
(1) g/3 (2) g/2
(3) g (4) 4/3g
Q.91 A small sphere is suspended
Q.87 The elevator shown in figure by a string from the ceiling of a car.
is descending, with an acceleration If the car begins to move with a
of 2 m/s2. The mass of the block A constant acceleration g/2, the
is 0.5 kg. The force exerted by the inclination of the string with the
block A on the block B is :- vertical is :–

(1) 2 N (1) tan–1 (1/2) in the direction of motion

(2) 4 N (2) tan–1 (1/2) opposite to the
(3) 6 N direction of motion
(4) 8 N (3) tan–1 (2) in the
direction of motion
Q.88 A monkey of mass 20 kg is (4) tan–1 (2) opposite to
holding a vertical rope. The rope will the direction of motion
not break when a mass of 25 kg is
suspended from it but will break if Q.92 A boy of mass 40 kg is
the mass exceeds 25 kg what is the hanging from a horizontal branch of
maximum acceleration with which a tree. The tension in his arms is
the monkey can climb up along the minimum when the angle between
rope ? (g = 10 m/s2) the arms is :-

(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2 (1) 00 (2) 900

(3) 25 m/s2 (4) 2.5 m/s2 (3) 1200 (4) 1800

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Q.93 A man is standing at a spring Q.97 A block of mass 4 kg is

platform. Reading of spring balance suspended through two light spring
is 60 kg-wt. If the man jumps off balances A and B in series. Then A
from the platform, then reading of and B will read respectively.
spring balance :-
(1) 4 kg and zero kg
(1) First increases then (2) zero kg and 4 kg
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg
decreases to zero
(4) 2 kg and 2 kg
(2) Decreases
(3) Increases Q.98 A frame will be inertial, if it
(4) Remains same moves with respect to another
inertial frame with a constant :-
Q.94 A rocket of mass 1000 kg is to
be projected vertically upwards. (1) Linear velocity
The gases are exhausted vertically (2) Angular velocity
downwards with velocity 100 m/s (3) Linear acceleration
with respect to the rocket. What is (4) All of the above
the minimum rate of burning fuel,
Q.99 In the fig.,
so as to just lift the rocket upwards
the ends P and Q
against the gravitational attraction?
of an unstrechable
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
string move down
ward with uniform
(1) 50 kg/s (2) 200 kg/s
speed v. Mass M
(3) 100 kg/s (4) 400 kg/s moves upwards with speed.

Q.95 Two persons hold a rope of (1) v cos (2) v/cos

negligible weight tightly at its ends (3) 2v cos (4) 2/v cos
so that it is horizontal. A 15 kg
mass is attached to the rope at the Q.100 Drums of oil are carried in a
midpoint which is now no longer truck. If the truck accelerates at a
remains horizontal. The minimum constant rate, the surface of the oil
tension required to completely in the drum will –
straighten the rope is :-
(1) Remain unaffected
(1) 15 kg (2) Rise in the forward dire.
(3) Rise in the backward dire
(2) 5 kg
(4) Nothing is certain
(3) 15/2 kg
(4) Infinitely large Q.101 A body kept on a smooth
inclined plane of inclination 1 in x
Q.96 Ten one rupees coins are put will remain stationary relative to
on top of each other on a table. the inclined plane if the plane is
Each coin has a mass 'm' kg., then given a horizontal acceleration
the force on the 7th coin (counted equal to :-
from the bottom) due to all the
coins on its top :- x2 _ 1
(1) x _ 1g
2
(2) g
x
(1) 3 mg (2) 2 mg gx g
(3) (4)
(3) 7 mg (4) 5 mg x2 _ 1 x2 _ 1
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Q.102 A person travelling in a Q.107 A body of mass 2 kg moving

straight line moves with a constant on a horizontal surface with an
velocity v1 for certain distance 'x' initial velocity of 4 m/s comes to
and with a constant velocity v2 for rest after 2 s. If one wants to keep
next equal distance. The average this body moving on the same
velocity v is given by the relation :- surface with a velocity of 4 m/s,
the force required is :-
(1) 1/v = 1/v1 + 1/v1
(2) 2/v = 1/v1 + 1/v2 (1) 8N
(3) v/2 = v1 + v2/2 (2) 4N
(4) v = v1v2 (3) Zero
(4) 2N
Q.103 A body is projected upwards
with a velocity u. It passes through Q.108 The distance x covered in
a certain point above the ground time t by a body having initial
after t1 second. The time after velocity v0 and having a constant
which the body passes through the acceleration a is given by x = v0t +
same point during the return (1/2)at2. This result follows from :-
journey is –
(1) Newton's first law
(1) (u / g _ t12 ) (2) (u/g – t1)
(2) Newton's second law
(3) 3(u2/g-t1) (4) 3(u2/g2 – t1) (3) Newton's third law
(4) None of these
Q.104 A particle is in a straight line
motion with uniform velocity. A
Q.109 A car is moving along a
force is not required :-
straight horizontal road with a
speed vo. If the coefficient of
(1) To increase the speed
friction between tyres and the road
(2) To decrease the speed
is . The shortest distance in which
(3) To maintain the same speed
the car can be stopped is :-
(4) To change the direction

Q.105 A 5 kg mass is accelerated (1) v20 / 2 g

from rest to 60 m/s in 1 s. What (2) v20 / 2 g2
force acts on it :- (3) (v0/g)
(4) 2v2/ g
(1) 5 × 60 N
(2) (5/60) × 981 N
Q.110 The force required to just
(3) 602 × 52 N
move a body up an inclined plane is
(4) (5/2) × 602 × 981 N
double the force required to just
prevent the body from sliding down
Q.106 A body of mass 40 g is
the plane. The coefficient of friction
moving with a constant velocity of
is . The inclination q of the plane is
2 cm/s on a horizontal frictionless
table. The force on the body (in
(1) tan–1 ()
dynes) is :-
(2) tan1 ( /2)
(1) Zero (2) 39200 (3) tan–1 (2m)
(3) 160 (4) 80 (4) tan–1 (3m)

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Q.111 A block of Q.115 The system

mass 0.1 kg. is shown in the figure
pressed against is in equilibrium.
a wall with a The maximum value
horizontal force of W, so that the
of 5N as shown maximum value of
in the figure. If static frictional force on 100 kg
the coefficient of friction between body is 450 N, will be :-
the wall and the block is 0.5 then
the frictional force acting on the (1) 100 N (2) 250 N
block will be (g = 9.8 m/s2) :- (3) 450 N (4)1000 N

(1) 9.8 N (2) 2.5 N Q.116 In the arrangement

coefficient of friction between the
(3) 0.98 N (4) 0.49 N
two blocks is  = 1/2. The force of
friction acting between the two
Q.112 A block slides with constant
blocks is :-
velocity on a plane inclined at an
angle . The same block is pushed
(1) 8N
up the plane with an initial velocity
(2) 6N
v0. The distance covered by the
(3) 10 N
block before coming to rest is :-
(4) 12 N
(1) v20 / 2gsin
Q.117 A block has been placed on
(2) v0/2gsin2 an inclined plane with the slope
(3) v20 / sin2 / 2g angle , the block slides down the
(4) v20 / sin2 / 4g plane at constant speed. The
coefficient of kinetic friction is
Q.113 A block of mass m is lying on equal to :-
an inclined plane. The coefficient of
friction between the plane and the (1) sin (2) cos
block is. The force (F1) required to (3) g (4) tan
move the block up the inclined
plane will be :– Q.118 The
coefficient
(1) mg sin + mg cos of static
friction, s,
(2) mg cos – mg sin
between
(3) mg sin – mg cos
block A of
(4) mg cos + mg sin mass 2 kg and the table as shown
in the figure is 0.2. What would be
Q.114 When a constant force is the maximum mass value of block B
applied to a body, it moves with so that the two blocks do not
uniform :- move? The string and the pulley are
assumed to be smooth and
(1) Acceleration massless. (g = 10 m/s ) 2
(2) Velocity
(3) Speed (1) 4.0 kg (2) 0.2 kg
(4) Momentum (3) 0.4 kg (4) 2.0 kg

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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.119 A horizontal Q.123A given object takes n times

force of 10 N is as much time to slide down a 450
necessary to just rough incline as it takes to slide
hold a block down a perfectly smooth 450
stationary against a incline. The coefficient of kinetic
wall. The Coefficient friction between the object and the
of friction between the block and incline is given by :-
wall is 0.2 . The weight of the block
is – (1) (1–1/n2) (2) (1/1–n2)
(3) (1–1/n2) (4) (1/1–n2)
(1) 20 N (2) 50 N
(3) 100 N (4) 2 N Q.124 Three forces P, Q & R are
acting at a point in a plane. The
Q.120 A block angle between P and Q, Q and R are
of mass m lying 1500 and 1200 respectively. Then
on a rough for equilibrium, forces P, Q & R are
horizontal plane in the ratio :–
is acted upon by
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
a horizontal
(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 31/2 : 2 : 1
force P and another force Q inclined
at an angle 0 to the vertical. The Q.125 A sphere of
block will remain in equilibrium if mass m is kept in
the coefficient of friction between it equilibrium with
and the surface is :- the help of several
springs as shown
(1) P + Q sin/mg + Q cos in the figure.
(2) P cos + Q/mg – Q sin Measurements show that one of the
(3) P + Q cos/mg + Q sin springs applies a force F on the
(4) P sin + Q/mg – Q cos sphere. With what acceleration the
sphere will move immediately after
Q.121 A body is sliding down an this particular spring is cut ?
inclined plane (angle of inclination

450). If the coefficient of friction is (1) Zero (2) F / m
0.5 and g = 9.8 m/s2. then the 
downward acceleration of the body (3) _ F / m
in m/s2 is :– (4) Insufficient information

Q.126 In the set-

(1) 4.9 2 (2) 4.9 2
up shown, a 200 N
(3) 19.6 2 (4) 4.9
block is supported
in equilibrium with
Q.122 A body of mass 100 g is
the help of strings
sliding on a inclined plane with an
and a spring. All
inclination of 600. What is the
knotted at point O. Extension in the
frictional force experienced, if
spring is 4 cm. Force constant of
coefficient of friction is 1.7 (Take g
the spring is closest to [g 10 m/s2].
= 10 m/s2)
(1) 30 N/m (2) 3000 N/m
(1) 0.85 N (2) 0.95 N
(3) 1.05 N (4) 1.145 N (3) 2500 N/m (4) 4000 N/m

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Q.127 A lift of Q.130 As shown in

mass 100 kg figure a monkey of 20
starts moving kg mass is holding a
from rests in light rope that passes
the upward over a frictionless
direction. Fig pulley. A bunch of
shows the variation if speed of the bananas of the same
lift, T1, T2 and T3 stand for tension mass 20 kg is tied to
in the rope form zero to two the other end of the rope. In order
seconds, two to six seconds, six to to get access to the bananas the
seven seconds respectively then :- monkey starts climbing the rope.
The distance between the monkey
(1) T1 : T2 : T3 : 1 : 1 : 1 and the bananas :–
(2) T1 : T2 : T3 : 6 : 5 : 3
(3) T1 : T2 : T3 : 3 : 5 : 6 (1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) T1 : T2 : T3 : 6 : 5 : 6
(4) Nothing can be stated
Q.128 All surfaces Q.131 Same spring is attached with
are assumed to 2 kg, 3 kg and 1 kg blocks in three
be frictionless. different cases as shown in figure.
Calculate the If x1, x2 and x3 be the respective
horizontal force F extensions in the spring in these
that must be three cases, then :-
applied so that
m1, and m2 do not move relative to
m3is :–

(1) (m1 + m2+m3)m2g/m1

(2) (m1 + m2)m2g/m1
(3) (m2 + m3)m1g/m2
(4) (m1 + m3)m1g/m2 (1) x1 = 0, x3 > x2
(2) x2 > x1 > x3
Q.129 Two masses of 1 (3) x3 > x1 > x2
kg and 2 kg are attached (4) x1 > x2 > x3
to the ends of a massless 
string passing over a Q.132 Two forces F1
pulley of negligible = (3N)î –(4N)ĵ and

weight. The pulley itself F2 = –(1N)î –(2N)ĵ
is attached to a light act on a point
spring balance as shown object. In the given
in figure. The masses start moving; figure which of the eight vectors
during this interval the reading of  
spring balance will be :– represents F1 and F2 ? What is the
magnitude of the net forces ?
(1) More than 3 kg.
(1) 4 and 8 ;19 N
(2) Less than 3 kg. (2) 3 and 6 ; 5N
(3) Equal to 3 kg. (3) 5 and 7 ;40 N
(4) None of the above (4) 2 and 6 ;7N
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Newton's Law of Motion Questions Bank

Q.133 Two weights w1, and w2 are Q.136 Three blocks of masses m,
connected by a light thread which 3m and 5m are connected by
passes over a light smooth pulley. massless strings and pulled by a
If the pulley is raised upwards with force F on a frictionless surface as
an acceleration equal to g, then the shown in the figure below. The
tension in the thread will be :– tension P in the first string is 16N.

(1) 2w1w2/w1 + w2
(2) w1w2/w1 + w2
If the point of application of F is
(3) 4w1w2/w1 + w2 changed as given below, the values
of P' and Q' shall be :–
(4) 4w1w2/w1 – w2

Q.134 A pulley is attached to the

ceiling of a lift moving upwards.
(1) 16N, 10N
Two particles are attached to the
(2) 8 N, 2N
two ends of a string passing over
(3) 10N, 16N
the pulley. The masses of the
(4) None of these
particles are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
acceleration of the particles Q.137 In the figure given, the
relative to the lift is g/2, then the system is in equilibrium. What is
acceleration of the lift will be :– the maximum value W can have if
the friction force on the 40 N block
(1) g cannot exceed 12.0 N ?
(2) g/2
(3) g/3 (1) 3.45 N
(2) 10.35 N
(4) g/4
(3) 6.92 N
(4) 12.32 N
Q.135 Two blocks of masses M1 = 4
kg and M2 = 6 kg are connected by Q.138 Three blocks,
a string of negligible mass passing of masses m1, = 2.0,
over a frictionless pulley as shown m2 = 4.0 and m3 =
in the figure below. The coefficient 6.0 kg are connected
of friction between the block M1 by strings on a
and the horizontal surface is 0.4. frictionless inclined
When the system is released, the plane of 600, as shown in the figure.
masses M1 and M2 start A force F = 120 N is applied upwards
accelerating. What additional mass along the incline to the upper most
m should be placed over M1, so that block, causing an upward movement
the masses (M1 + m) slide with a of the blocks. The connecting cords
uniform speed ? are light. The values of tensions T1
and T2 in the cords are –
(1) 12 kg
(2) 10 kg (1) T1 = 20 N, T2 = 60 N
(2) T1 = 60 N, T2 = 60 N
(3) 11 kg (3) T1 = 30 N, T2 = 50 N
(4) 9 kg (4) T1 = 20 N, T2 = 100 N

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.1 A block of mass 10 kg is in Q.5 One end of string of length 1

contact against the inner wall of a is connected to a particle of mass
hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 'm' and the other end is connected
m. The coefficient of friction to a small peg on a smooth
between the block and the inner horizontal table. If the particle
wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The moves in circle with speed 'v' the
minimum angular velocity needed net force on the particle (directed
for the cylinder to keep the block towards centre) will be (T
stationary when the cylinder is represents the tension in the
vertical and rotating about its axis, string) :-
will be :- (g = 10 m/s²)
mv2
10 (1) T +
(1) 10 rad/s (2) rad /s 1
2 2
(3) 10 rad/s (4) 10 rad/s _ mv
(2) T
1
Q.2 A mass m is attached to a thin (3) Zero
wire and whirled in a vertical circle.
The wire is most likely to break (4) T
when
Q.6 A body
(1) The mass is at the highest point initially at rest
(2) The wire is horizontal and sliding along
(3) The mass is at the lowest a frictionless
point from a height h
(4) Inclined at an angle of 60° (as shown in the
from vertical figure) just completes a vertical
circle of diameter AB = D. The
Q.3 Two particles A and B are
height h is equal to :-
moving in uniform circular motion
in concentric circles of radius rA and
3
rB with speed VA A and B (1) D (2) D
respectively. The time period of 2
rotation is the same. The ratio of 7 5
(3) D (4) D
angular speed of A to that of B will 5 4
be :-
Q.7 A particle of mass 10 g moves
(1) rA : rB (2) A : B along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with
(3) rB : rA (4) 1 : 1 a constant tangential acceleration.
Q.4 A particle starting from rest, What is the magnitude of this
moves in a circle of radius 'r'. It acceleration if the kinetic energy of
attains a velocity of V0 m/s in the the particle becomes equal to 8 x
nth round. Its angular acceleration 10
–4
J by the end of the second
will be :- revolution after the beginning of
V0 V02 the motion ?
(1) rad / s2 (2) rad / s2
n 2nr2
(1) 0.1 m/ s²
V02
(3) 2
rad / s2 (2) 0.15 m/s²
4nr
V02 (3) 0.18 m/s²
(4) rad / s2 (4) 0.2 m/s²
4nr

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.8 A car is negotiating a curved Q.11 In the given figure, a = 15

road of radius R. The road is m/s2 represents the total
banked at an angle . the acceleration of a particle moving in
coefficient of friction between the the clockwise direction in a circle of
tyres of the car and the road is s. radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant
The maximum safe velocity on this of time. The speed of the particle is.
road is –
(1) 5.7 m/s
s + tan (2) 6.2 m/s
(1) gR 2
1 _ stan (3) 4.5 m/s
s + tan (4) 5.0 m/s
(2) gR
1 _ stan
Q.12 The position vector of a
g s + tan particle as a function of time is
(3)
R 1 _ stan

given by. R = 4sin 2t  i + 4cos 2t  j
g s + tan Where R is in meters, t is in
(4)
R 2 1 _ stan seconds and i and j denote unit
vectors along x and y-directions,
Q.9 A particle moves so that its respectively. Which one of the
position vector is given by following statements wrong for the
 motion of particle ?
r = costx + sinty. Where t is a
constant. Which of the following is
(1) Path of the particle is a circle of
true ?
radius 4 meter

(1) Velocity and acceleration
 (2) Acceleration vectors is along _ R
both are perpendicular to r (3) Magnitude of acceleration
(2) Velocity and acceleration V2
 Vector is  where v is the
both are parallel to r R

(3) Velocity is perpendicular to r velocity of particle.
And acceleration is directed
(4) Magnitude of the velocity
towards the origin
 of particle is 8 meter/second
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r
and acceleration is directed
Q.13 If the equation for the
away from the origin
displacement of a particle moving
on a circular path is given by () =
Q.10 What is the minimum velocity
2t³+0.5, where  is in radians and t
with which a body of mass m must
in seconds, then the angular
enter a vertical loop of radius R so
velocity of the particle after 2 s
that it can complete the loop ?
from its start is :

(1) gR (1) 8 rad/s

(2) 2gR (2) 12 rad/s
(3) 3gR (3) 24 rad/s
(4) 5gR (4) 36 rad/s

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.14 A body moves with constant Q.18 An insect trapped in a circular

angular velocity on a circle. groove of radius 12 cm moves
Magnitude of angular acceleration : along the groove steadily and
completes 7 revolutions in 100 s.
(1) r2 What is the linear speed of the
(2) Constant motion :-
(3) Zero (1) 2.3 cm/s
(4) None of the above
(2) 5.3 cm/s
Q.15 A particle of mass 'm' (3) 0.44 cm/s
describes a circle of radius (r). The (4) None of these
centripetal acceleration of the
particle is 4/r2 the momentum of
the particle :- Q.19 A particle moves in a circle of
the radius 25 cm at two revolutions
(1) 2m/r per second. The acceleration of the
particle in m/sec2 is :-
(2) 2m/r
(3) 4m/r (1) 2
(4) 4m/r (2) 82

Q.16 A particle is moving around a (3) 42

circular path with uniform angular (4) 22
speed (). The radius of the circular
path is (r). The acceleration of the Q.20 A particle moves in a circle
particle is :- describing equal angle in equal
times, its velocity vector :-
2
(1)  /r
(2) /r (1) remains constant

(3) v (2) change in magnitude

(4) vr (3) change in direction
(4) changes in magnitude
Q.17 A car moves on a circular And direction
road, describing equal angles about
the centre in equal intervals of
Q.21 A mass of 2 kg is whirled in a
times. Which of the statements
horizontal circle by means of a
about the velocity of car is true :-
string at an initial speed of 5 r.p.m.
(1) Velocity is constant Keeping the radius constant the
tension in the string is doubled. The
(2) Magnitude of velocity is constant new speed is nearly :-
but the direction of velocity change
(3) Both magnitude and (1) 7 r.p.m.
direction of velocity change (2) 14 r.p.m.
(4) Velocity is directed (3) 10 r.p.m.
towards the centre of circle (4) 20 r.p.m.

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.22 A particle is acted upon by a Q.26 The angular velocity of a

force of constant magnitude which particle rotating in a circular orbit
is always perpendicular to the 100 times per minute is :-
velocity of the particle. The motion
of the particle takes place in a (1) 1.66 rad/s
plane. It follows, that :- (2) 10.47 rad/s
(3) 10.47 degree/s
(1) Its velocity is constant (4) 60 degree/s
(2) It's K.E. is constant
(3) Its acceleration is constant Q.27 Two particles having mass 'M'
(4) It moves in a straight line and 'm' are moving in a circular
path having radius R and r. If their
Q.23 A particle of mass (m) time period are same then the ratio
revolving in horizontal circle of of angular velocity will be :-
radius (R) with uniform speed v.
When particle goes from one end to (1) r/R (2) R/r
other end of diameter, then :- R
(3) 1 (4)
r
(1) K.E. changes by 1/2 = mv²
(2) K.E. change by mv² Q.28 Angular velocity of minute
(3) no change in momentum hand of a clock is :-
(4) change in momentum is 2 mv

Q.24 A stone is tied to one end of (1) rad / s
30
string 50 cm long and is whirled in
(2) 8 rad/s
a horizontal circle with constant 2
speed. If the stone makes 10 (3) rad / s
1800
revolutions in 20 s, then what is the

magnitude of acceleration of the (4) rad / s
stone :- 1800

(1) 493 cm/s² Q.29 A car moving with speed 30

(2) 720 cm/s² m/s on a circular path of radius
500 m. Its speed is increasing at
(3) 860 cm/s²
the rate of 2m/s2. The acceleration
(4) 990 cm/s
of the car is –
Q.25 For a particle in a non-uniform
accelerated circular motion – (1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) 1.8 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) 2.7 m/s2
(1) Velocity is radial and
acceleration is tangential only Q.30 If a particle is rotating
(2) Velocity is tangential and uniformly in a horizontal circle,
acceleration is radial only then :
(3) Velocity is radial and
acceleration has both radial (1) No force is acting on particle
and tangential components (2) Velocity of particle is constant
(4) Velocity is tangential and (3) Particle has
acceleration has both radial no acceleration
and tangential components (4) No work is done

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.31 A body of mass 1 kg tied to Q.35 The linear and angular

one end of string is revolved in a acceleration of a particle are 10
horizontal circle of radius 0.1 m m/s² and 5 rad/s² respectively. It
with a speed of 3 revolution/sec, will be at a distance from the axis
assuming the effect of gravity is of rotation –
negligible, then linear velocity,
acceleration and tension in the (1) 50 m (2) 1/2 m
string will be
(3) 1 m (4) 2 m
(1) 1.88 m/s, 35.5 m/s², 35.5 N
(2) 2.88 m/s, 45.5 m/s², 45.5 N Q.36 A sphere of mass m is tied to
(3) 3.88 m/s, 55.5 m/s², 55.5 N end of string of length  and
(4) None of these rotated through the other end
along a horizontal circular path
Q.32 The angular velocity of a with speed v. The work done in full
wheel is 70 rad/s. If the radius of horizontal circle is :-
the wheel is 0.5 m, then linear
velocity of the wheel is :-  mv2 
(1) 0 (2)   .2
(1) 70 m/s (2) 35 m/s   

(3) 30 m/s (4) 20 m/s  mv2 

(3) mg.2 (4)   .2
  
Q.33 A stone tied to the end of a
string of 1m long is whirled in a Q.37 A particle is moving in a
horizontal circle with a constant vertical circle the tension in the
speed. If the stone makes 22 string when passing through two
revolution in 44 seconds, what is position at angle 30° and 60° from
the magnitude and direction of vertical from lowest position are T1,
acceleration of the stone :- and T2 respectively then :-

(1) ² m/s² and direction along (1) T1 = T2

the tangent to the circle. (2) T1 > T2
(2) ² m/s² and direction along
(3) T1 < T2
the radius towards the centre.
(3) ²/4 m/s² and (4) T1  T2
direction along the radius
Q.38 A wheel has a constant
towards the centre.
angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s²,
(4) ² m/s² and
During a certain 4.0 s interval, it
direction along the radius
turns through an angle of 120 rad.
away from the centre
Assuming that at t = 0, angular
speed 0 = 3 rad/s how long, is
Q.34 A fly wheel rotating at 600
motion at the start of this 4.0
rev/min is brought under uniform
second interval ?
deceleration and stopped after 2
minutes, then what is angular
(1) 7 sec.
deceleration in rad/sec² ?
(2) 9 sec.
(1) /6 (2) 10  (3) 4 sec.
(3) 1/12 (4) 300 (4) 10 sec.

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.39 Keeping the banking angle of Q.42 A stone is tied to a string of

the road constant, the maximum length  and is whirled in a vertical
safe speed of passing vehicles is to circle with the other end of the
be increased by 10%. The radius of string as the centre. At a certain
curvature of the road will have to instant of time, the stone is at its
be changed from 20 m to :- lowest position and has a speed 'u'.
The magnitude of the change in
(1) 16 m velocity as it reaches a position
where the string is horizontal (g
(2) 18 m
being acceleration due to gravity)
(3) 24.20 m is :-
(4) 30.5 m
(1) u2 _ g
Q.40 Three identical particles are
joined together by a thread as (2) u2 _ u2 _ 2g
shown in figure. All the three
particles are moving in a horizontal (3) 2g
plane. If the velocity of the
outermost particle is v0, then the (4) 2(u2 _ g)
ratio of tensions in the three
sections of the string is :- Q.43 A car moving on a horizontal
road may be thrown out of the road
in taking a turn :-

(1) By the gravitational force

(2) Due to lack of proper
(1) 3 : 5 : 7
centripetal force
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) Due to rolling friction between
(3) 7 : 11 : 6
the tires and the Road
(4) 3 : 5 : 6
(4) Due to reacti
Q.41 A mass m is attached to the on of the road
end of a rod of length . The mass
goes around a verticle circular path Q.44 Radius of the curved road on
with the other end hinged at the national highway is R. Width of the
centre. What should be the road is b. The outer edge of the
minimum velocity of mass at the road is raised by h with respect to
bottom of the circle so that the inner edge so that a car with
mass completes the circle ? velocity v can pass safely over it.
The value of h is :-
(1) 4g

(2) 3g v2b v

(1) (2)
Rg Rgb
(3) 5g
v2R v2b
(4) g (3) (4)
bg R

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.45 A boy holds a pendulum in his Q.48 The mass of

hand while standing at the edge of the bob of a simple
pendulum of length
a circular platform of radius r
L is m. If the bob is
rotating at an angular speed . The left from its
pendulum will hang at an angle  horizontal position then the speed
with the vertical so that :- of the bob and the tension in the
thread in the lowest position of the
(Neglect length of pendulum)
bob will be respectively :-
(1) tan = 0
(1) 2gL and 3 mg
2r2
(2) tan = (2) 3 mg and 2gL
g
(3) 2 mg and 3gL
2
r (4) 2 gL and 3 mg
(3) tan =
g
Q.49 A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to
g the end of a string of 1 m length. It
(4) tan = 2
r is whirled in a vertical circle. If the
velocity of the stone at the top be 4
Q.46 Let '' denote the angular m/s. What is the tension in the
displacement of a simple pendulum string (at that instant) ?
oscillating in a vertical plane. If the
(1) 6 N (2) 16 N
mass of the bob is (m), then the
(3) 5 N (4) 10 N
tension in string is mg cos -
Q.50 In a vertical circle of radius
(1) Always (r), at what point in its path a
particle may have tension equal to
(2) Never
zero :-
(3) At the extreme positions
(1) Highest point
(4) At the mean position
(2) Lowest point
(3) At any point
Q.47 A pendulum bob has a speed 3
(4) At a point horizontal
m/s while passing through its from the centre of radius
lowest position, length of the
pendulum is 0.5 m then its speed Q.51 A stone attached to one end of
a string is whirled in a vertical
when it makes an angle of 60° with
circle. The tension in the string is
the vertical is :- maximum when :-
(g = 10 m/s²)
(1) The string is horizontal
(1) 2 m/s (2) The string is vertical with the
stone at highest position
(2) 1 m/s (3) The string is vertical with the
(3) 4 m/s stone at the lowest position
(4) The string makes an angle
(4) 3 m/s of 45° with the vertical
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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.52 A weightless thread can Q.56 A mass tied to a string moves

withstand tension upto 30 N. A in a vertical circle with a uniform
stone of mass 0.5 kg is tied to it speed of 5 m/s as shown. At the
and is revolved in a circular path of point P the string breaks. The mass
radius 2m in a vertical plane. If g = will reach a height above P of
10 m/s², then the maximum nearly (g = 10 m/s²) :-
angular velocity of the stone can be
(1) 1m
(1) 5 rad/s (2) 30 rad / s (2) 0.5 m
(3) 60 rad / s (4) 10 rad/s (3) 1.75 m
(4) 1.25 m
Q.53 A body tied to a string of length
L is revolved in a vertical circle with Q.57 If the over bridge is concave
minimum velocity, when the body instead of being convex, then the
reaches the upper most point the thrust on the road at the lowest
string breaks and the body moves position will be :-
under the influence of the
gravitational field of earth along a mv2 _ mv
2

parabolic path. The horizontal range (1) mg + (2) mg

r r
AC of the body will be :- 2 2
mvg v2 g
(3) (4)
r r

Q.58 A
frictionless
track ABCDE
(1) x = L (2) x = 2L ends in a
circular loop
(3) x = 2 2L (4) x = 2L
of radius R. A body slides down the
track from point A which is at a
Q.54 A body crosses the topmost height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of
point of a vertical circle with critical R for the body to successfully
speed. What will be its centripetal complete the loop is :-
acceleration when the string is
horizontal :- (1) 5 cm. (2) 2 cm.
(3) 10/3 cm. (4) 15/4 cm.
(1) G (2) 2g
(3) 3g (4) 6g Q.59 A particle of mass m is
performing vertical circular motion
Q.55 Stone tied at one end of light (see figure). If the average speed
string is whirled round a vertical of the particle is increased, then at
circle. If the difference between the which point maximum breaking
maximum and minimum tension possibility of the string :-
experienced by the string wire is 2
kg wt, then the mass of the stone (1) A
must be :-
(2) B
(1) 1 kg (2) 6 kg (3) C
(3) 1/3 kg (4) 2 kg (4) D

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.60 A fighter plane is moving in a Q.64 If the speed and radius both
vertical circle of radius 'r'. Its are tripled for a body moving on a
minimum velocity at the highest circular path, then the new
point of the circle will be :- centripetal force will be :-

(1) 3gr (1) Doubled of previous value

(2) 2gr (2) Equal to previous value

(3) Triple of previous value
(3) gr
(4) One third of previous value
gr
(4)
2 Q.65 When a body moves with a
constant speed along a circle :-
Q.61 A stone of mass 0.2 kg is tied
to one end of a thread of length 0.1 (1) No acceleration is
m whirled in a vertical circle. When present in the body
the stone is at the lowest point of
(2) No force acts on the body
circle, tension in thread is 52N,
then velocity of the stone will be :- (3) Its velocity
remains constant
(1) 4 m/s (4) No work gets done on it
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 6 m/s Q.66 A pendulum is suspended
from the roof of a rail road car.
(4) 7 m/s
When the car is moving on a
circular track the pendulum inclines
Q.62 A suspended simple pendulum
of length  is making an angle 
(1) Forward
with the vertical. On releasing, its
velocity at lowest point will be – (2) Backward
(3) Towards the
(1) 2g(1 + cos) centre of the path
(2) 2g sin (4) Away from the
centre of the path
(3) 2g(1 _ cos)

(4) 2g Q.67 A string of length 0.1 m

cannot bear a tension more than
Q.63 The angular acceleration of 100N. It is tied to a body of mass
100g and rotated in a horizontal
particle moving along a circular
circle. The maximum angular
path with uniform speed :-
velocity can be :-
(1) uniform but non zero
(1) 100 rad/s
(2) zero
(2) 1000 rad/s
(3) variable
(4) as can not be predicted (3) 10000 rad/s
from given information (4) 0.1 rad/s

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Circular Motion Question Bank

Q.68 The radius of the circular path Q.72 In uniform circular motion,
of a particle is doubled but its the velocity vector and acceleration
frequency of rotation is kept vector are :-
constant. If the initial centripetal
force be F, then the final value of (1) Perpendicular to each other
centripetal force will be (2) Same direction
(3) Opposite direction
(1) F (4) Not related to each other
(2) F/2
(3) 4F Q.73 A string of length 10 cm
(4) 2F breaks if its tension exceeds 10
newton. A stone of mass 250 g tied
Q.69 A 0.5 kg ball moves in a circle to this string, is rotated in a
of radius 0.4 m at a speed of 4 m/s. horizontal circle. The maximum
The centripetal force on the ball is : angular velocity of rotation can be :

(1) 10N (1) 20 rad/s

(2) 20N (2) 40 rad/s
(3) 40N (3) 100 rad/s
(4) 80N (4) 200 rad/s

Q.70 A body is revolving with a Q.74 The earth (Me = 6 × 1024 kg)
constant speed along a circle. If its is revolving round the sun in an
direction of motion is reversed but orbit of radius (1.5 × 108) km with
the speed remains the same then :- angular velocity of (2 × 10-7) rad/s.
(a) The centripetal force will not The force (in newton) exerted on
suffer any change in magnitude the earth by the sun will be
(b) The centripetal force will have
its direction reversed (1) 36 × 1021
(c) The centripetal force will not (2) 16 × 1024
suffer any change in direction (3) 25 × 1016
(d) The centripetal force is doubled (4) Zero

(1) a, b Q.75 A 500 kg car takes a round

(2) b, c turn of radius 50 m with a velocity
(3) c, d of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force
is :-
(4) a, c
(1) 250 N (2) 1000 N
Q.71 ar and at represent radial and
tangential acceleration. The motion (3) 750 N (4) 1200 N
of a particle will be uniform circular
motion, if :- Q.76 A motor cycle driver doubles
its velocity when he is taking a
(1) ar = 0 and at = 0 turn. The force exerted towards the
centre will become :-
(2) ar = 0 but at  0
(3) ar  0 but at = 0 (1) Double (2) Half
(4) ar  0 and at  0 (3) 4 times (4) 1/4 times

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Q.77 The force required to keep a Q.79 A particle moves along a circle
body in uniform circular motion is :- of radius (20/) m with constant
tangential acceleration. If the
(1) Centripetal force velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at
(2) Centrifugal force the end of the second revolution
(3) Resistance after motion has begun, the
(4) None of the above tangential acceleration is :-

Q.78 A particle moving along a (1) 40 m/s2

circular path. The angular velocity, (2) 640  m/s2
linear velocity, angular acceleration (3) 160  m/s2
and centripetal acceleration of the (4) 40  m/s2
particle at any instant respectively
   
are , v, , ac . Which of the
following relation is/are correct –
   
(a) v (b) 
   
(c) vac (d) ac

(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.1 A disc of radius 2m and mass Q.5 The moment of the force, F =
100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. 4î +5ĵ –6k at (2, 0, –3), about the
Its centre of mass has speed of 20 point (2, –2, –2), is given by :-
cm/s. How much work is needed to
stop it ? (1) –8î –4ĵ –7k
(2) –4î –ĵ –8k
(1) 3 J (2) 30 kJ
(3) –7î –8ĵ –4k
(3) 2 J (4) 1 J
(4) –7î –4ĵ –8k
Q.2 A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg
and radius 4 cm is rotating about Q.6 A solid sphere is in rolling
its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The motion. In rolling motion a body
torque required to stop after 2 possesses translational kinetic
revolutions is :– energy (Kt) as well as rotational
kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously.
(1) 2 × 10–6 N m The ratio Kt (Kt + Kr) for the sphere
(2) 2 × 10–3 N m is :-
(3) 12 × 10–4 Nm
(4) 2 × 106 N m (1) 7 : 10
(2) 5 : 7
Q.3 A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg (3) 10 : 7
and radius 50 cm rolls up an
(4) 2 : 5
inclined plane of angle inclination
300. The centre of mass of cylinder
Q.7 A solid sphere is rotating freely
has speed of 4 m/s. The distance
about its symmetry axis in free
travelled by the cylinder on the
space. The radius of the sphere is
incline surface will be :-
increased keeping its mass same.
(Take g 10 m/s2) =
Which of the following physical
quantities would remain constant
(1) 2.2 m
for the sphere ?
(2) 1.6 m
(3) 1.2 m (1) Angular velocity
(4) 2.4 m
(2) Moment of inertia
Q.4 Three objects, A: (a solid (3) Rotational kinetic energy
sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) (4) Angular momentum
and C = (a circular ring), each have
the same mass M and radius R. Q.8 A rope is wound around a
They all spin with the same angular hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and
speed  about their own symmetry radius 40 cm. What is the angular
axes. The amounts of work (W) acceleration of the cylinder if the
required to bring them to rest, rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ?
would satisfy the relation :-
(1) 0.25 rad/s2
(1) WC > WB > WA
(2) 25 rad/s2
(2) WA > WB > WC
(3) WB > WA > WC (3) 5 m/s2
(4) WA > WC > WB (4) 25 m/s2

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Q.9 Two discs of same moment of Q.12 A uniform circular disc of

inertia rotating about their regular radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn
axis passing through centre and about an axis which is perpendicular
perpendicular to the plane of disc to its plane and passes through its
with angular velocities 1 and 2. centre. It is subjected to a torque
They are brought into contact face which produces a constant angular
to face coinciding the axis of acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2. Its net
rotation. The expression for loss of acceleration in m/s2 at the end of
energy during this process is :- 2.0 s is approximately –

1 (1) 8.0 (2) 7.0

(1) I(1 _ 2 )2 (2) I (1 – 2)2
4 (3) 6.0 (4) 3.0
1
(3) I(1 _ 2 )2 Q.13 A disk and a sphere of same
8
1 radius but different masses roll off
(4) I(1 + 2 )2 on two inclined planes of the same
2
altitude and length. Which one of
the two objects gets to the bottom
Q.10 Which of the following
of the plane first ?
statements are correct ?
(a) Centre of mass of a body always
(1) Disk
coincides with the centre of gravity
(2) Sphere
of the body
(3) Both reach at the same time
(b) Central of mass of a body is the
(4) Depends on their masses
point at which the total
gravitational torque on the body is
Q.14 Two rotating bodies A and B of
zero
masses m and 2m with moments of
(c) A couple on a body produce
inertia IA and IB (IA > IB) have
both translational and rotation
equal kinetic energy of rotation. If
motion in a body
LA and LB be their angular momenta
(d) Mechanical advantage greater
respectively, then :-
than one means that small effort
can be used to lift a large load
(1) LB > LA (2) LA > LB
(3) LA = LB/2 (4) LA = 2LB
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
Q.15 A solid sphere of mass m and
(3) (c) and (d)
radius R is rotating about its
(4) (b) and (d)
diameter. A solid cylinder of the
same mass and same radius is also
Q.11 From a disc of radius R and
rotating about its geometrical axis
mass M, a circular hole of diameter
with an angular speed twice that of
R, whose rim passes through the
the sphere. The ratio of their
centre is cut. What is the moment
kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere /
of inertia of the remaining part of
Ecylinder) will be :-
the disc about a perpendicular axis,
passing through the centre ?
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 3 : 1
(1) 15 MR2/32 (2) 13 MR2/32
(3) 2 : 3
(3) 11 MR2/32 (4) 9 MR2/32 (4) 1 : 5

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Q.16 A light rod of length l has two Q.19 Three identical

masses m1 and m2 attached to its spherical shells, each
two ends. The moment of inertia of of mass m and radius
the system about an axis r are placed as shown
perpendicular to the rod and in figure. Consider an
passing through the centre of mass axis XX' which is
is :- touching to two shells and passing
through diameter of third shell.
(1) (m1 + m2)l2 Moment of inertia of the system
(2)m1m2l2 consisting of these three spherical
shells about XX' axis is –
m1m2 2
(3) l
m1 + m2 (1) 3 mr2 (2) 16/5mr2
(3) 4 mr2 (4) 11/5mr2
m1 + m2 2
(4) l
m1m2 Q.20 An automobile moves on a
road with a speed of 54 km/h. The
Q.17 A mass m moves in a circle on radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and
a smooth horizontal plane with the moment of inertia of the wheel
velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass about its axis of rotation is 3 kg-m2.
is attached to a string which passes If the vehicle is brought to rest in
through a smooth hole in the plane 15s, the magnitude of average
as shown. The tension in the string torque transmitted by its brakes to
is increased gradually and finally m wheel is :-
moves in a circle of radius R0/2.
The final value of the kinetic energy (1) 2.86 kg-m2/s2
is :- (2) 6.66 kg-m2/s2
(3) 8.58 kg-m2/s2
1 (4) 10.86 kg-m2/s2
(1) mv20
4
Q.21 Point masses m1 and m2 are
(2) 2mv20 placed at the opposite ends of a
1 rigid rod of length L, and negligible
(3) mv20
2 mass. The rod is to be set rotating
(4) mv20 about an axis perpendicular to it.
The position of point P on this rod
Q.18 A rod of weight W is through which the axis should pass
supported by two parallel knife so that the work required to set the
edges A and B and is in equilibrium rod rotating with angular velocity
in a horizontal position. The knives 0 is minimum, is given by :-
are at a distance d from each other. m2L
The centre of mass of the rod is at (1) x =
m1 + m2
distance x from A. The normal
m1L
reaction on A is :- (2) x =
m1 + m2
Wd W(d _ x) m
(1) (2) (3) x = 1 L
x x m2
W(d _ x) Wx m
(3) (4) (4) x = 2 L
d d m1
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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.22 A force F = î + 3ĵ + 6k is Q.26 When a mass is rotating in a
acting at a point r = 2î - 6ĵ - 12k. plane about a fixed point, its
The value of  for which angular angular momentum is directed
momentum about origin is along :-
conserved is :-
(1) The radius
(1) 1 (2) –1 (2) The tangent to the orbit
(3) A line perpendicular to
(3) 2 (4) Zero the plane of rotation
(4) The line making an angle
Q.23 A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg of 450 to the plane of rotation.
and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate
about the horizontal axis. A Q.27 A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg
massless string is wound round the is rolling on a horizontal surface
cylinder with one end attached to it with velocity 4 m/s. It collides with
and other hanging freely. Tension a horizontal spring of force
in the string required to produce an constant 200 N/m. The maximum
angular acceleration of 2 compression produced in the spring
revolutions/s2 is :- will be :-

(1) 25 N (1) 0.7 m (2) 0.2 m

(2) 50 N
(3) 78.5 N (3) 0.5m (4) 0.6 m
(4) 157 N
Q.28 The moment
Q.24 The ratio of the accelerations of inertia of a
for a solid sphere (mass 'm' and uniform circular
radius 'R') rolling down an incline disc is maximum
of angle ‘' without slipping and about an axis
slipping down the incline without perpendicular to
rolling is :- the disc and passing through :-

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 2 : 3 (1) D (2) A

(3) 2 : 5 (4) 7 : 5 (3) B (4) C

Q.25 ABC is an equilateral triangle Q.29 A circular platform is mounted

   on a frictionless vertical axle. Its
with O as its centre. F1 , F2 And F3
radius R = 2m and its moment of
represent three forces acting along inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2.
the sides AB, BC and AC It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man
respectively. If the total torque stands on the edge of the platform
about
 O is zero then the magnitude and begins to walk along the edge
of F3 is :- at the speed of 1 m/s relative to
the ground. Time taken by the man
F1 + F2 to complete one revolution is :-
(1)
2
(2) 2(F1 + F2) (1) 2s (2) /2s
(3) F1 + F2 (3) s
(4) F1 – F2 (4) 3/2s

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.30 The instantaneous angular Q.34 If F is the force acting on a
position of a point on a rotating particle having position vector r

wheel is given by the equation  (t) and  be the torque of this force
= 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel about the origin, then :-
becomes zero at :-
   
(1) r ×  = 0 and F × 1 0
(1) t = 1s (2) t = 0.5s    
(3) t = 0.25s (4) t = 2s (2) r × ¹ 0 and F ×  = 0
   
(3) r ×  > 0 and F ×  < 0
   
Q.31 The moment of inertia of a (4) r ×  = 0 and F ×  = 0
thin uniform rod of mass M and
length L about an axis passing Q.35 A thin circular ring of mass M
through its midpoint and and radius R is rotating in a
perpendicular to its length is l0. Its horizontal plane about an axis
moment of inertia about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant
passing through one of its ends and angular velocity . If two objects
perpendicular to its length is :- each of mass m be attached gently
to the opposite ends of a diameter
(1) I0 + ML2/2 (2) I0 + ML2/4 of the ring, the ring will then rotate
(3) I0 + 2ML2 (4) I0 + ML2 with an angular velocity :-

Q.32 A small M (M _ 2m)

(1) (2)
mass attached M+m M + 2m
to a string
M (M + 2m)
rotates on a (3) (4)
frictionless M + 2m M
table top as
Q.36 A uniform
shown. If the tension in the string
rod AB of length
is increased by pulling the string
l and mass m is
causing the radius of the circular
free to rotate
motion to decrease by a factor of 2,
about A. The rod is released from
the kinetic energy of the mass will :
rest in the horizontal position. Given
that the moment of inertia of the rod
(1) Decrease by a factor of 2
about A is ml2/3, the initial angular
(2) Remain constant
acceleration of the rod will be –
(3) Increase by a factor of 2
(4) Increase by a factor of 4 (1) 3g/2l (2) 2g/3l
Q.33 Four identical thin rods each l 3
(3) mg (4) gl
of mass M and length l, form a 2 2
square frame. Moment of inertia of
this frame about an axis through Q.37 Which of the following pairs
the centre of the square and do not match :-
perpendicular to its plane is :-
(1) Rotational power – Joule/sec
1 2 4 2 (2) Torque – newton meter
(1) Ml (2) Ml (3) Angular displacement
3 3
4 2 13 2 – radian
(3) Ml (4) Ml (4) Angular acceleration – radian/sec
3 3
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Q.38 All the particles of a rigid Q.43 The wheels of moving vehicles
rotating body move a circular path are made hollow in the middle and
when the axis of rotation :- thick at the periphery, because :-

(1) Passes through any (1) It gives minimum moment

point in the body of inertia to the tire
(2) Is situated outside the body (2) Its shape is a strong one
(3) Situated any where (3) This increases the speed
(4) Passes through the centre of mass (4) It increases moment
of inertia of tire
Q.39 The quantity not involved
directly in rotational motion of the Q.44 Four similar
body is :- point masses (each of
mass m) are placed
(1) Moment of inertia (2) Torque on the circumference
(3) Angular velocity (4) Mass of a disc of mass M
and radius R. The M.I.
Q.40 The moment of inertia of a of the system about the normal axis
body about a given axis of rotation through the centre O will be –
depends upon :-
(1) MR2 + 4mR2
(2) 1/2 MR2 + 4mR2
(1) The distribution of mass
(3) MR2 + 8/5 mR2
(2) Distance of particle of body
(4) None of these
from the axis of rotation
(3) Shape of the body Q.45 By the theorem of
(4) All of the above perpendicular axes, if a body be in
X-Z-plane then –
Q.41 A fly wheel is so constructed
that almost whole of its mass is (1) Ix – Iy = Iz (2) Ix + Iz = Iy
concentrated at its rim, because :- (3) Ix + Iy = Iz (4) Iy + Iz = Ix

(1) It increases the moment of Q.46 The theorem of perpendicular

inertia of the fly-wheel axes is not applicable for
(2) It decreases the moment of determination of moment of inertia
inertia of the fly-wheel along the diameter, for which of the
(3) It increases the following body :-
speed of the fly-wheel
(1) Sphere (2) Disc
(4) It increases the (3) Ring (4) Blade
power of the fly-wheel
Q.47 The axis X and Z in the plane
Q.42 The moment of inertia of a of a disc are mutually perpendicular
solid cylinder about its own axis is and Y-axis is perpendicular to the
the same as its moment of inertia plane of the disc. If the moment of
about an axis passing through its inertia of the body about X and Y
centre of gravity and perpendicular axes is respectively 30 kg m2 and
to its length. The relation between 40 kg m2 then M.I. about Z-axis in
its length L and radius R is – kg m2 will be –

(1) L = 2R (2) L = 3R (1) 70 (2) 50

(3) L = 3R (4) L = R (3) 10 (4) Zero
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Q.48 On account of the earth Q.52 The curve for the moment of
rotating about its axis :- inertia of a sphere of constant mass
M versus distance of axis from its
(1) The linear velocity of objects at centre ?
equator is greater than at other places.
(2) The angular velocity of objects
at equator is more than (1) (2)
that of objects at poles.
(3) The linear velocity of objects at
all places at the earth is equal, but
angular velocity is different.
(4) At all places the angular (3) (4)
velocity and linear velocity
are uniform.
Q.53 The moment of inertia of a
Q.49 A solid sphere and a hollow ring of mass M and radius R about
sphere of the same mass have the PQ axis will be :-
same M.I. about their respective
diameters. The ratio of their radii (1) MR2
will be :-
(2) MR2/2
(1) 1: 2 (3) 3/2 MR2
(2) 3 : 5
(4) 2MR2
(3) 5 : 3
(4) 5: 4 Q.54 Four Point masses (each of
mass m) are arranged it the X-Y
Q.50 The moment of inertia of a plane the moment of inertia of this
square lamina about the array of masses about Y-axis is.
perpendicular axis through its
centre of mass is 20 kg-m2. Then, (1) ma2
its moment of inertia about an axis
touching its side and in the plane of (2) 2ma2
the lamina will be :- (3) 4ma2
(1) 10 kg-m2 (4) 6ma2
(2) 30 kg-m2
(3) 40 kg-m2 Q.55 Which of the following has the
(4) 25 kg-m2 highest moment of inertia when
each of them has the same mass
Q.51 The M.I. of a thin rod of length and the same radius ?
l about the perpendicular axis
through its centre is I. The M.I. of (1) A hollow sphere about
the square structure made by four one of its diameters
such rods about a perpendicular (2) A solid sphere about
axis to the plane and through the one of its diameters
centre will be :- (3) A disc about its central axis
perpendicular to the plane of the disc
(1) 4I (2) 8I (4) A ring about its central axis
(3) 12I (4) 16I perpendicular to the plane of the ring.

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Q.56 If the radius of gyration of a Q.61 A circular disc is to be made

solid disc of mass 10 kg about an by using iron and aluminium so that
axis is 0.40 m, then the moment of it acquired maximum moment of
inertia of the disc about that axis is inertia about geometrical axis. It is
possible with :-
(1) 1.6 kg m2
(2) 3.2 kg m2 (1) Aluminium at interior
(3) 6.4 kg m2 and iron surrounded to it.
(4) 9.5 kg m2 (2) Iron at interior and
aluminium surrounded to it.
Q.57 If I1, I2 and I3 are moments of (3) Using iron and aluminium
inertia of solid sphere, hollow layers in alternate order.
sphere and a ring of same mass and (4) Sheet of iron is used at
radius about geometrical axis, both external surface and
which of the following statement aluminium sheet as internal layer.
holds good –
Q.62 The moment of inertia in
(1) I1 > I2 > I3 (2) I3 > I2 > I1 rotational motion is equivalent to.
(3) I2 > I1 > I3 (4) I2 > I3 > I1
(1) Angular velocity
Q.58 Three thin uniform rods each of linear motion
of mass M and length L are placed (2) Mass of linear motion
along the three axis of a cartesian (3) Frequency of linear motion
coordinate system with one end of (4) Current
each rod at the origin. The M. I. of
the system about z-axis is – Q.63 Two rods each of mass m and
length l are joined at the centre to
(1) ML2/3 (2) 2ML2/3 form a cross. The moment of inertia
(3) ML2/6 (4) ML2 of this cross about an axis passing
through the common centre of the
Q.59 Four particles each of mass m rods and perpendicular to the plane
are placed at the corners of a formed by them, is :-
square of side length l. The radius
of gyration of the system about an (1) ml2/12
axis perpendicular to the square (2) ml2/6
and passing through centre is :- (3) ml2/3
(4) ml2/2
(1) l/2 (2) l/2
(3) l (4) l2 Q.64 The ratio of the radii of
gyration of a circular disc about a
Q.60 The moment of inertia of a rod tangential axis in the plane of the
of mass M and length L about an disc and of a circular ring of the
axis passing through one edge and same radius about a tangential axis
perpendicular to its length will be :- in the plane of the ring is :-

(1) ML2/12 (1) 2: 1

(2) 2ML2/6 (2) 5 : 6
(3) ML2/3 (3) 2: 3
(4) ML2 (4) 1: 2

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Q.65 Three particles, Q.70 In the rectangular lamina

each of mass m are shown in the figure, AB = BC/2.
situated at the The moment of inertia of the lamina
vertices of an is minimum along the axis passing
equilateral triangle through :-
ABC of side  (as
shown in the figure).The moment (1) AB
of inertia of the system about a line (2) BC
AX perpendicular to AB and in the (3) EG
plane of ABC, will be :- (4) FH

5 Q.71 Which of the following bodies

(1) 2 ml2 (2) ml2
4 of same mass and same radius has
3 3 minimum moment of inertia ?
(3) ml2 (4) ml2
2 4
(1) Ring (2) Disc
Q.66 A solid cylinder of mass 20kg (3) Hollow sphere
has length 1 m and radius 0.2 m. (4) Solid sphere
Then its moment of inertia (in kg-
m2) about its geometrical axis is :- Q.72 A ring and a solid sphere of
same mass and radius are rotating
(1) 0.8 kg–m–2 with the same angular velocity
(2) 0.4 kg–m–2 about their diametric axes then :-
(3) 0.2 kg–m–2
(4) 20.2 kg–m–2 (1) It is easier to stop the ring
(2) It is easier to stop the solid sphere
Q.67 Moment of inertia :- (3) It is equally difficult
to stop both of them
(1) Is a vector quantity (4) It is not possible to
(2) Is a scalar quantity stop a rotating body
(3) Is a tensor quantity
(4) Can not be calculate Q.73 For rotational motion, the
Newton's second law of motion is
Q.68 The moment of inertia of a indicated by :-
circular ring (radius R, mass M) 
 dp
about an axis which passes through 2 2
(1) 2 = 1 + 2 (2) F =
tangentially and perpendicular to  dt
its plane will be :-  dL  
(3) T = (4) F12 = F21
dt
(1) MR2/2 (2) MR2
(3) 3/2 MR2 (4) 2MR2 Q.74 A particle of mass m and
radius of gyration K is rotating with
Q.69 What is the moment of inertia an angular acceleration . torque
of ring about its diameter ? acting on the particle is.
(1) MR2 1
(2) MR2/2 (1) mK2 (2) mK2
2
(3) 3/4 MR2 1
(4) 5/4 MR2 (3) mK2/ (4) mK22
4
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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.75 The grinding stone of a flour Q.80 The torque of force F = 2î – 3ĵ

mill is rotating at 600 rad/sec. for + 4k newton acting at a point r =
this power of 1.2 k watt is used. the 3î + 2ĵ + 3k metre about origin is :-
effective torque on stone in N-m
will be :- (1) 6î – 6ĵ + 12k N – m
(2) –6î + 6ĵ – 12k N – m
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 17î – 6ĵ – 13k N – m
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) –17î + 6ĵ + 13k N – m
Q.76 A rigid body is rotating about
Q.81 When constant torque is
an axis. To stop the rotation, we
acting on a body then :-
have to apply :-
(1) Body maintain its state or moves
(1) Pressure
in straight line with same velocity
(2) Force
(2) Acquire linear acceleration
(3) Momentum
(3) Acquire angular acceleration
(4) Torque
(4) Rotates with a constant
angular velocity
Q.77 A wheel has moment of inertia
5 × 10–3 kg m2 and is making 20
Q.82 If torque on a body is zero,
rev/sec. The torque needed to stop
then which is conserved :-
in 10 sec is ............ × 10–2 N–m :-

(1) Force
(1) 2
(2) Linear momentum
(2) 2.5
(3) Angular momentum
(3) 4
(4) Angular impulse
(4) 4.5
Q.83 If I = 50 kg-m2, then how
Q.78 A wheel having moment of
much torque will be applied to stop
inertia 2 kg–m2 about its vertical
it in 10 sec. Its initial angular speed
axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
is 20 rad/sec. :-
about the axis. The torque which
can stop the wheel's rotation in one
minute would be :- (1) 100 N-m
(2) 150 N-m
  (3) 200 N-m
(1) N_m (2) N_m (4) 250 N-m
12 15
 2 _ 
(3) N_m (4) N m Q.84 A force F = 2î – 3k acts on a
18 15 
particle at r = 0.5ĵ – 2k. The torque

Q.79 A constant torque acting on a  acting on the particle relative to a
uniform circular wheel changes its point with co-ordinates (2.0 m, 0, –
angular momentum from A0 to 4 A0 3.0 m) is.
in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this
torque is :- (1) (–3.0î – 4.5ĵ –k) N – m
(2) (3î + 6ĵ – k) N – m
(1) 3A0/4 (2) A0 (3) (–20î + 4.0ĵ + k) N – m
(3) 4A0 (4) 12A0 (4) (–1.5î – 4.0ĵ – k) N – m

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.85 If a ladder is not in balance Q.88 A fan of moment of inertia 0.6

against a smooth vertical wall, then kgm2 is to run upto a working
it can be made in balance by :- speed of 0.5 revolution per second.
Indicate the correct value of the
(1) Decreasing the angular momentum of the fan.
length of ladder
(2) Increasing the metre2
(1) 0.6 kg ×
length of ladder sec
metre2
(3) Increasing the (2) 6 kg ×
sec
angle of indination
metre2
(4) Decreasing the (3) 3 kg ×
sec
angle of inclination
 metre2
(4) kg ×
Q.86 In the fig. (a) half of the 6 sec
meter scale is made of wood while
the other half of steel. The wooden Q.89 A body of mass m is moving
part is pivoted at O. A force F is with constant velocity parallel to x-
applied at the end of steel part. In axis. The angular momentum with
figure (b) the steel part is pivoted respect to origin :-
at ‘O’ and the same force is applied
at the wooden end (In horizontal (1) Increases with time
plane) (2) Decreases with time
(3) Does not change
(4) None of above

Q.90 Two bodies have their

(1) More angular acceleration moments of inertia I and 2I
respectively about their axis of
will be produced in (a)
rotation. If their kinetic energies of
(2) More angular acceleration rotation are equal, their angular
will be produced in (b) momentum will be in the ratio :-
(3) Same angular acceleration
will be produced (1) 1: 2
in both conditions (2) 2 :1
(4) Information is incomplete (3) 1: 2
(4) 2: 1
Q.87 The rotational kinetic energy
of two bodies of moments of Q.91 The rotational kinetic energy
ineritia 9 kg-m2 and 1 kg-m2 are of a body is Krot and its moment of
same. The ratio of their angular inertia is I. The angular momentum
momentum is :- of body is.

(1) 3 : 1 (1) IKrot

(2) 1 : 3 (2) 2IKrot
(3) 9 : 1 (3) 2IKrot
(4) 1 : 9 (4) 2IKrot

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.92 A body of mass 10 kg and Q.96 A ring of mass 10 kg and

radius of gyration 0.1 m is rotating diameter 0.4 meter is rotating
about an axis. If angular speed is about its geometrical axis at 1200
10 rad/s, then angular momentum rotations per minute. Its moment
will be :- of inertia and angular momentum
will be respectively :-
(1) 1 kg m2/s
(1) 0.4 kg-m2 and 50.28 J-s
(2) 0.1 kg m2/s
(2) 0.4 kg-m2 and 0.4 J-s
(3) 100 kg m2/s (3) 50.28 kg-m2 and 0.4 J-s
(4) 10 kg m2/s (4) 0.4 kg-m2 and zero

Q.93 A particle of mass 1.0 kg is Q.97 In an orbital motion, the

rotating on a circular path of angular momentum vector is :-
diameter 2.0 m at the rate of 10 (1) Along the radius vector
rotations in 31.4s. The angular (2) Parallel to the linear momentum
momentum of the body, (in (3) In the orbital plane
kgm2/s) is :- (4) Perpendicular to
the orbital plane
(1) 1.0
(2) 1.5 Q.98 A particle of mass m is
(3) 2.0 rotating in a plane in a circular path
(4) 4.0 of radius r. Its angular momentum
is L. The centripetal force acting on
Q.94 The graph between the the particle is.
angular momentum J and angular (1) L2/mr (2) L2m/r
velocity  for a body will be :- (3) L2/mr2 (4) L2/mr3

Q.99 A stone attached to one end of

string is revolved around a stick so
(1) (2)
that the string winds upon the stick
and gets shortened. What is
conserved ?

(1) Angular momentum

(3) (4) (2) Linear momentum
(3) Kinetic energy
(4) None of the above
Q.95 When a mass is rotating in a Q.100 A rotating table completes
plane about a fixed point, its one rotation in 10 sec. and its
angular momentum is directed moment of inertia is 100 kg–m2. A
along. person of 50 kg. mass stands at the
centre of the rotating table. If the
(1) The radius person moves 2m from the centre,
(2) The tangent to orbit the angular velocity of the rotating
(3) Line at an angle of 45° table (in rad/sec). will be –
to the plane of rotation (1) 2/30 (2) 20/30
(4) The axis of rotation (3) 2/3 (4) 2
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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.101 On melting of ice on the pole Q.106 A person is standing on the

of the earth, its moment of inertia edge of a circular platform, which is
will :- moving with constant angular
speed about an axis passing
(1) Increase through its centre and
(2) Decrease perpendicular to the plane of
(3) Remain unchanged platform. If person is moving along
(4) None of these any radius towards axis of rotation
then the angular velocity will :-
Q.102 If the earth loses its
atmosphere suddenly, then the (1) Decrease
duration of day will :- (2) Remain unchanged
(3) Increase
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease (4) Data is insufficient
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Nothing can be definitely said Q.107 A thin circular ring of mass M
and radius 'r' is rotating about its
Q.103 A wheel is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
axis at a constant angular velocity. velocity . Four objects each of
If suddenly an object sticks to it on mass m, are kept gently to the
the rim, then its M.I. will :- opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The angular
(1) Increase velocity of the ring will be –
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unchanged M M
(1) (2)
(4) Nothing can be said 4m M + 4m
(M + 4m)
(3)
Q.104 An ant is sitting at the edge M
of a rotating disc. If the ant reaches (M + 4m)
(4)
the other end, after moving along M + 4m
the diameter, the angular velocity
of the disc will :- Q.108 A round disc of moment of
inertia I2 about its axis
(1) Remain constant perpendicular to its plane and
(2) First decreases and then increases passing through its centre is placed
(3) First increases, over another disc of moment of
then decrease inertia I1 rotating with an angular
(4) Increase continuously velocity  about the same axis. The
final angular velocity of the
Q.105 The angular momentum of combination of discs is –
body remains conserve if :-
I1
(1) Applied force on body is zero. (1)  (2)
I1 + I2
(2) Applied torque on body is zero.
(I1 + I2 )
(3) Applied force on (3)
body is constant. I1
(4) Applied torque on I2
(4)
body is constant. I1 + I2
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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.109 Rate of change of angular Q.114 The rotational kinetic energy

momentum with respect to time is of a body is E. In the absence of
proportional to :- external torque, if mass of the body
is halved and radius of gyration
(1) Angular velocity doubled, then its rotational kinetic
(3) Moment of inertia energy will be :-
(2) Angular acceleration
(4) Torque (1) 0.5E (2) 0.25E
(3) E (4) 2E
Q.110 A small steel sphere of mass
m is tied to a string of length r and Q.115 A particle of mass m is
is whirled in a horizontal circle with describing a circular path of radius
a uniform angular velocity 2. The r with uniform speed. If L is the
string is suddenly pulled, so that angular momentum of the particle
radius of the circle is halved. The (about the axis of the circle), then
new angular velocity will be – the kinetic energy of the particle is.

(1) 2  (2) 4  (1) L2/mr2 (2) mr2L

(3) 6  (4) 8 
(3) L2/2mr2 (4) L2r2/m
Q.111 If the earth were to suddenly
Q.116 A particle performs uniform
contract to half its present size,
circular motion with an angular
without any change in its mass, the
momentum L. If the frequency of
duration of the new day will be –
particle's motion is doubled and its
kinetic energy halved, the angular
(1) 18 hours (2) 30 hours
momentum becomes –
(3) 6 hours (4) 12 hours
(1) 2L (2) 4L
Q.112 A stone is attached to the
(3) L/2 (4) L/4
end of a string and whirled in
horizontal circle, then :-
Q.117 A flywheel is making 3000/
revolutions per minute about its
(1) Its linear and angular
axis. If the moment of inertia of the
momentum are constant
flywheel about that axis is 400
(2) Only linear momentum is constant
kgm2, its rotational kinetic energy
(3) Its angular momentum
is :-
is constant but linear
momentum is variable
(1) 2 × 106 J
(4) Both are variable
(2) 3 × 103 J
(3) 5002 J
Q.113 A thin rod of length L is
(4) 12 × 103 J
suspended from one end and
rotated with n rotations per second.
Q.118 A ring is rolling without
The rotational kinetic energy of the
slipping. Its energy of translation is
rod will be :-
E. Its total kinetic energy will be :-
(1) 2mL22n2 (2) 1/2mL22n2
(1) E (2) 2E
(3) 2/3mL22n2
(4) 1/6mL22n2 (3) 3E (4) 4E

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.119 A thin hollow cylinder open Q.124 A ball rolls without slipping.
at both ends slides without rotating The radius of gyration of the ball
and then rolls without slipping with about an axis passing through its
the same speed. The ratio of the centre of mass is K. If radius of the
kinetic energies in the two cases is. ball be R, then the fraction of total
energy associated with its
(1) 1:1 rotational energy will be :-
(2) 1:2
(3) 21 K2 + R 2 K2
(4) 1:4 (1) (2)
R2 R2
K2 R2
Q.120 A solid sphere of mass M and (3) 2 (4) 2
K + R2 K + R2
radius R rolls on a horizontal
surface without slipping. The ratio
Q.125 If the angular velocity of a
of rotational K.E. to total K.E. is :-
body rotating about an axis is
doubled and its moment of inertia
(1) 1/2
halved, the rotational kinetic
(2) 3/7
energy will changed by a factor of –
(3) 2/7
(4) 2/10
(1) 4
(2) 2
Q.121 A disc is rolling on an
(3) 1
inclined plane without slipping then
(4) 1/2
what fraction of its total energy will
be in form of rotational kinetic
Q.126 If a sphere is rolling, the
energy :-
ratio of its rotational energy to the
total kinetic energy is given by –
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 7 (4) 2 : 5
(1) 7: 10
Q.122 A wheel is rolling along the (2) 2:5
ground with a speed of 2 m/s. The (3) 10 : 5
magnitude of the linear velocity of (4) 2:7
the points at the extremities of the
horizontal diameter of the wheel is Q.127 A person, with outstretched
equal to – arms, is spinning on a rotating
stool. He suddenly brings his arms
(1) 210m/s (2) 23 m/s down to his sides. Which of the
(3) 22 m/s (4) 2 m/s following is true about system
kinetic energy K and angular
momentum L ?
Q.123 If rotational kinetic energy is
50% of total kinetic energy then
(1) Both K and L increase.
the body will be :-
(2) Both K and L remain unchanged.
(1) Ring (3) K remains constant,
(2) Cylinder L increases.
(3) Hollow sphere (4) K increases but L
(4) Solid sphere remains constant.

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.128 A uniform thin ring of mass Q.133 Calculate the ratio of the
0.4 kg rolls without slipping on a times taken by a uniform solid
horizontal surface with a linear sphere and a disc of the same mass
velocity of 10 cm/s. The kinetic and the same diameter to roll down
energy of the ring is :- through the same distance from
rest on a inclined plane.
(1) 4 × 10–3 J (2) 4 × 10–2 J
(3) 2 × 10–3 J (4) 2 × 10–2 J (1) 15 : 14 (2) 15 : 14
(3) 152 : 142 (4) 14 : 15
Q.129 A body is rotating with
angular momentum L. If I is its Q.134 A ring takes time t1 and t2 for
moment of inertia about the axis of sliding down and rolling down an
rotation, its kinetic energy of inclined plane of length L
rotation is :- respectively for reaching the
bottom. The ratio of t1 and t2 is :-
(1) ½IL2 (2) ½IL
(3) ½(I2/L) (4) L2/2I (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
Q.130 A disc rolls down a plane of
length L and inclined at angle ,
Q.135 A body of mass m slides
without slipping. Its velocity on
down an incline and reaches the
reaching the bottom will be :-
bottom with a velocity v. If the
same mass were in the form of a
4gL sin 2gLsin
(1) (2) ring which rolls down this incline,
3 3 the velocity of the ring at the
10gL sin bottom would have been.
(3) (4) 4gLsin
7
(1) v (2) v2
Q.131 A spherical shell and a solid  2
cylinder of same radius rolls down (3) v/2 (4)   v
an inclined plane. The ratio of their  5
accelerations will be :-
Q.136 When a sphere of moment of
(1) 15 : 14 (2) 9 : 10 inertia I rolls down on an inclined
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 5 plane the percentage of total
energy which is rotational, is
Q.132 A solid sphere is rolling down approximately –
on inclined plane from rest and a
rectangular block of same mass is (1) 28 % (2) 72 %
also slipping down simultaneously (3) 100 % (4) None of these
from rest on a similar smooth
inclined plane. Q.137 When a body starts to roll on
an inclined plane, its potential
(1) Both of them will reach energy is converted into.
the bottom simultaneously
(2) The sphere will (1) Translational kinetic energy only
reach the bottom first (2) Translational and
(3) The rectangular block rotational kinetic energy
will reach the bottom first. (3) Rotational energy only
(4) Depends on density of material (4) None
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Q.138 A solid cylinder of mass M Q.142 A string is wound round the

and radius R rolls without slipping rim of a mounted fly wheel disc of
down an inclined plane of length L mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A
and height h. What is the speed of steady pull of 25 N is applied on the
its centre of mass when the cord. Neglecting friction and mass
cylinder reaches its bottom :- of the string, the angular
acceleration of the wheel is :-
3
(1) 2gh (2) gh (1) 50 rad/s2
4
4 (2) 25 rad/s2
(3) gh (4) 4gh (3) 12.5 rad/s2
3
(4) 6.25 rad/s2
Q.139 Which of the following is true
about the angular momentum of a Q.143 The
cylinder rolling down a slope figure shows a
without slipping ? horizontal block
of mass M
(1) Its magnitude changes but suspended by
the direction remains same two wires A and
(2) Both magnitude B. The centre of mass of the block
and direction change is closer to B than A. (i) Is the
(3) Only the direction change magnitude of the torque due to
(4) Neither change wire A is greater, less or equal to
that due to B w.r.t. centre of mass ?
Q.140 A sphere and a disc of same (ii) Which wire A or B exerts more
radii and mass are rolling on an force on the block ?
inclined plane without slipping. as &
ad are acceleration and g is (1) (i) greater (ii) B
acceleration due to gravity. Then (2) (i) equal (ii) B
which statement is correct ? (3) (i) less (ii) A
(4) (i) greater (ii) A
(1) as > ad > g
(2) g > as > ad Q.144 The moment
(3) as > g> ad of inertia of a thin
(4) ad > as > g square plate ABCD
(shown in figure
Q.141 A ladder rests against a below) of uniform
frictionless vertical wall, with its thickness about an
upper end 6m above the ground axis passing through the centre O
and the lower end 4m away from and perpendicular to the plane of
the wall. The weight of the ladder is the plate is.
500 N and its centre of gravity at (AB = BC = CD =DA)
(1/3)rd distance from the lower
end. Wall's reaction will be, in N :- (1) I1 + I2
(2) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
(1) 111 (2) 333 (3) I1 – I3
(3) 222 (4) 129 (4) I2 – I4

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Rotational Motion Question Bank

Q.145 In an equilateral triangle Q.147 A disc of

ABC, F1, F2 and F3 are three forces mass M and
acting along the sides AB, BC and radius R rolls on
AC as shown in the given figure. a horizontal
What should be the magnitude of F3 surface and then
so that the total torque about O is rolls up an
zero :- inclined plane as shown in the
figure. If the velocity of the disc is
(1) 2 N v, the height to which the disc will
rise will be –
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N (1) 3v2/2g
(2) 3v2/4g
(4) 8 N
(3) v2/4g
(4) v2/2g
Q.146 A particle of mass m is
projected with a velocity v making
an angle 450 with the horizontal.
The magnitude of the angular
momentum of the projectile about
the point of projection when the
particle is at its maximum height h,
is –

mv3
(1) Zero (2)
4 2g
mv3
(3) (4) m2 2gh3
2g

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.1 Body A of mass 4m moving Q.5 A bullet of mass 10g moving

with speed u collides with another horizontally with a velocity of 400
body B of mass 2m, at rest. The m/s strikes a wooden block of
collision is head on and elastic in mass 2 kg which is suspended by a
nature. After the collision the light inextensible string of length 5
fraction of energy lost by the m. As a result, the centre of gravity
colliding body A is :- of the block is found to rise a
vertical distance of 10 cm. The
(1) 1/9 (2) 8/9 speed of the bullet after it emerges
(3) 4/9 (4) 5/9 out horizontally from the block will
be :-
Q.2 An object flying in air with
velocity (20î + 25ĵ – 12k) suddenly (1) 120 m/s
breaks in two pieces whose masses (2) 160 m/s
are in the ratio 1 : 5. The smaller
(3) 100 m/s
mass flies off with a velocity (100î
+ 35ĵ +8k). The velocity of the (4) 80 m/s
larger piece will be :-
Q.6 Two identical balls A and B
(1) 4î + 23ĵ – 16k having velocities of 0.5 m/s and –
(2) –100î – 35ĵ – 8k 0.3 m/s respectively collide
(3) 20î + 15ĵ – 80k elastically in one dimension. The
(4) –20î – 15ĵ – 80k velocities of B and A after the
collision respectively will be :-
Q.3 A particle of mass 5 m at rest
suddenly breaks on its own into (1) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
three fragments. Two fragments of (2) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
mass m each move along mutually
(3) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
direction with speed v each. The
(4) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s
energy released during the process
is :-
Q.7 Two particles of masses m1, m2
3 5 move with initial velocities u1 and
(1) mv2 (2) mv2 u2. On collision, one of the particles
5 3
get excited to higher level, after
3 4
(3) mv2 (4) mv2 absorbing energy . If final
2 3 velocities of particles be v1 and v2
then we must have :-
Q.4 A moving block having mass m,
collides with another stationary
block having mass 4m. The lighter 1 1 1 1
(1) m1u12 + m2u22 = m1v12 + m2v22 - 
block comes to rest after collision. 2 2 2 2
When the initial velocity of the 1 1 1 1
(2) m1u12 + m2u22 -  = m1v12 + m2v22
lighter block is v, then the value of 2 2 2 2
coefficient of resistitution (e) will 1 1
(3) m12u12 + m22u22 + 
be :- 2 2
1 1
= m12v12 + m22v22
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 2 2
(4) m12u1 + m22u2 – 
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.4 = m12v1 + m22v2

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.8 Two spherical bodies of mass M Q.12 Two spheres A and B of

and 5M and radii R and 2R are masses m1 and m2 respectively
released in free space with initial collide. A is at rest initially and B is
separation between their centre’s moving with velocity v along x-axis.
equal to 12R. If they attract each After collision B has a velocity V/2
other due to gravitational force in a direction perpendicular to the
only, then the distance covered by original direction. The mass A
the smaller body before collision is. moves after collision in the
direction.
(1) 4.5R (2) 7.5R
(3) 1.5R (4) 2.5R (1)  tan–1 (1/2) to the x-axis
(2)  = tan–1 (–1/2) to the x
Q.9 On a frictionless surface, a (3) same as that of B
block of mass. M moving at speed v (4) opposite to that of B
collides elastically with another
block of same mass M which is Q.13 A ball moving with velocity 2
initially at rest. After collision the m/s collides head on with another
first block moves at an angle  to stationary ball of double the mass.
its initial direction and has a speed If the coefficient of restitution is
v/3. The second block's speed after 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s)
the collision is after collision will be :-

3 2 2 (1) 0, 2 (2) 0, 1
(1) v (2) v
2 3 (3) 1, 1 (4) 1, 0.5
3 3
(3) v (4) v
4 2 Q.14 Two particles which are
initially at rest, move towards each
Q.10 A ball is thrown vertically other under the action of their
downwards from a height of 20 m internal attraction. If their speeds
with an initial velocity vo. It are v and 2v at any instant, then
collides with the ground, loses 50% the speed of centre of mass of the
of its energy in collision and system will be :-
rebounds to the same height. The
initial velocity v0 is :- (1) v (2) 2v
(Take g 10 m/s2) (3) Zero (4) 1.5v

(1) 10 m/s (2) 14 m/s Q.15 A man of 50 kg mass is

(3) 20 m/s (4) 28 m/s standing in a gravity free space at a
height of 10 m above the floor. He
Q.11 Two persons of masses 55 kg
throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass
and 65 kg respectively, are at the
downwards with a speed 2 m/s.
opposite ends of a boat. The length
When the stone reaches the floor,
of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs 100
the distance of the man above the
kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the
floor will be :-
65 kg man and sits with him. If the
boat is in still water the centre of
mass of the system shifts by (1) 20 m
(2) 9.9 m
(1) Zero (2) 0.75 m (3) 10.1 m
(3) 3.0 m (4) 2.3 m (4) 10 m
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 Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.16 Two bodies of mass 1 kg and Q.20 The centre of mass of a

3kg have position vectors î + 2ĵ + k  system of particles does not
k and –3î –2ĵ + k , respectively. The depend on :-
centre of mass of this system has a
position vector :- (1) Masses of the particles
(2) Internal forces on the
(1) – i+ j+ k 
 2k
(2) –2i+ particles
(3) Position of the particles
(3) – 2i – j+ k (4) 2i – j – k (4) Relative distance between
the particles
Q.17 An explosion blows a rock into
three parts. Two parts go off at Q.21 The centre of mass of a
right angles to each other. These system of two particles divides the
two are, 1 kg first part moving with distance between them.
a velocity of 12 m/s and 2 kg
second part moving with a velocity
(1) In inverse ratio of square of masses
of 8 m/s. If the third part flies off
of particles
with a velocity of 4 m/s, its mass
(2) In direct ratio of square of masses
would be :-
of particles
(3) In inverse ratio of masses
(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg
of particles
(3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg
(4) In direct ratio of masses
of particles
Q.18 Three identical spheres, each
of mass 1 kg are placed touching
Q.22 The centre of mass of a body :
each other with their centre’s on a
straight line. Their centre are
marked P, Q and R respectively. (1) Lies always outside the body
The distance of centre of mass of (2) May lie within, outside of the
the system from P is :- surface of the body
(3) Lies always inside the body
(1) PQ+PR+QR/3 (2) PQ+PQ/3 (4) Lies always on the surface
(3) PQ+QR/3 (4) PR+QR/2 of the body

Q.19 The coordinate of the centre Q.23 Three identical metal balls,
of mass of a system as shown in each of radius r, are placed
figure :- touching each other on a horizontal
surface such that an equilateral
triangle is formed when the
centre’s of the three balls are
joined. The centre of mass of the
system is located at :-

(1) Horizontal surface

(2) Centre of one of the balls
(3) Line joining centre’s of
any two balls
(1) (a/3, 0) (2) (a/2, a/2) (4) Point of intersection of
(3) (a/3, a/3) (4) (0, a/3) their medians

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.24 A system consists of mass M Q.28 Bullets of mass 40 g each are

and m (<< M). The centre of mass fired from a machine gun with a
of the system is velocity of 103 m/s. If the person
firing the bullets experience an
(1) At the middle average force of 200N, then the
(2) Nearer to M number of bullets fired per minute
(3) Nearer to m will be :-
(4) At the position of
larger mass (1) 300 (2) 600
(3) 150 (4) 75
Q.25 The centre of mass of a
system of three particles of masses
1g, 2g and 3g is taken as the origin Q.29 If the system is released, then
of a coordinate system. The the acceleration of the centre of
position vector of a fourth particle mass of the system :-
of mass 4g such that the centre of
mass of the four particle system (1) g/4
lies at the point (1, 2, 3,) is  (î + 2ĵ
+ 3k), where  is a constant. The (2) g/2
value of  is :-
(3) g
(1) 10/3
(2) 5/2 (4) 2g
(3) 1/2
(4) 2/5
Q.30 Initially two stable particles x
Q.26 A uniform metal disc of radius and y start moving towards each
R is taken and out of it a disc of other under mutual attraction. If at
diameter R/2 is cut off from the one time the velocities of x and y
end. The centre of mass of the are V and 2V respectively, what will
remaining part will be :- be the velocity of centre of mass of
the system ?
(1) R/10 from the centre
(2) R/15 from the centre (1) V (2) Zero
(3) R/5 from the centre (3) V/3 (4) V/5
(4) R/20 from the centre
Q.31 A 2 kg body and a 3 kg body
Q.27 A person of mass m is are moving along the x-axis. At a
standing on one end of a plank of particular instant the 2 kg body has
mass M and length L and floating in a velocity of 3 m/s and the 3 kg
water. The person moves from one body has the velocity of 2 m/s. The
end to another and stops. The velocity of the centre of mass at
displacement of the plank is – that instant is –

(1) Lm/(m+M) (1) 5 m/s

(2) Lm/(M+m) (2) 1 m/s
(3) (M+m)/Lm (3) 0
(4) LM/(m+M) (4) 12/5 m/s

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.32 Two objects of masses 200 Q.36 A bomb of mass m = 1 kg

gram and 500 gram possess thrown vertically upwards with a
velocities 10î m/s and 3î + 5ĵ m/s speed u = 100 m/s explodes into
respectively. The velocity of their two parts after t = 5s. A fragment
centre of mass in m/s is :- of mass m1 = 400 g moves
downwards with a speed v1 = 25
(1) 5 î – 25 ĵ m/s, then speed v2 and direction of
(2) 5/7 î – 25 ĵ another mass m2 will be :-
(3) 5 î + 25/7 ĵ
(1) 40 m/s downwards
(4) 25 î – 5/7 ĵ
(2) 40 m/s upwards
(3) 60 m/s upwards
Q.33 A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes
(4) 100 m/s upwards
into two pieces of 3kg and 6 kg.
The velocity of 3 kg piece is 16 Q.37 A 1 kg stationary bomb is
m/s. The kinetic energy of 6 kg exploded in three parts having mass
piece is :- ratio 1:1:3. Parts having same mass
move in perpendicular directions
(1) 768 J (2) 786 J with velocity 30 m/s, then the
(3) 192 J (4) 687 J velocity of bigger part will be :-

10
Q.34 A bomb initially at rest (1) 10 2 m / s (2) m/s
explodes by it self into three equal 2
mass fragments. The velocities of 15
(3) 15 2 m / s (4) m/s
two fragments are (3î + 2ĵ) m/s 2
and (– î – 4ĵ) m/s. The velocity of
the third fragment is (in m/s) :- Q.38 A heavy nucleus at rest breaks
into two fragments which fly off
with velocities 8 : 1. The ratio of
(1) 2î + 2ĵ
radii of the fragments is :-
(2) 2î – 2ĵ
(3) –2î + 2ĵ (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(4) –2î – 2ĵ (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

Q.35 A metal ball does not rebound Q.39 A bomb of 50 Kg is fired from
when struck on a wall, whereas a a cannon with a velocity 600 m/s.
rubber ball of same mass when If the mass of the cannon is 103 kg,
thrown with the same velocity on then its velocity will be :-
the wall rebounds. From this it is
(1) 30 m/s (2) –30 m/s
inferred that :-
(3) 0.30 m/s (4) –0.30 m/s
(1) Change in momentum Q.40 A stationary particle explodes
is same in both into two particles of masses m1 and
(2) Change in momentum m2 which move in opposite
in rubber ball is more directions with velocities v1 and v2.
(3) Change in momentum The ratio of their kinetic masses m
in metal ball is more energies E1/E2 is :-
(4) Initial momentum of
metal ball is more than (1) m2/m1 (2) m1/m2
that of rubber ball (3) 1 (4) m1v2/m2v1

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.41 A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest Q.45 Identify the wrong statement.

explodes into two pieces of masses
18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 (1) A body can have momentum
kg mass is 6 m/s. The kinetic without mechanical energy
energy of the other mass is :- (2) A body can have energy
without momentum
(1) 524 J
(2) 256 J (3) The momentum is conserved
(3) 486 J in an elastic collision only.
(4) 324 J (4) Kinetic energy is
not conserved in an
Q.42 A bomb of mass 3.0 kg inelastic collision
explodes in air into two pieces of
masses 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg. The Q.46 A ball strikes the floor and
smaller mass goes at a speed of 80 after collision rebounds back. In
m/s. The total energy imparted to this state :-
the two fragments is –
(1) Momentum of the ball is conserved
(1) 1.07 kJ (2) Mechanical energy
(2) 2.14 kJ
of the ball is conserved
(3) 2.4 kJ
(4) 4.8 kJ (3) Momentum of ball-earth
system is conserved
Q.43 A body of mass 4 m at rest (4) The kinetic energy of
explodes into three pieces. Two of ball-earth system is conserved
the pieces each of mass m move
with a speed v each in mutually Q.47 A bullet of mass P is fired with
perpendicular directions. The total velocity Q in a large body of mass
kinetic energy released is :- R. The final velocity of the system
will be :-
1
(1) mv2 (2) mv2
2 R PQ
(1) (2)
3 5 P+R P+R
(3) mv2 (4) mv2
2 2 (P + Q) (P + R)
(3) (4) Q
R P
Q.44 A bullet of mass m is fired
from a gun of mass M. The recoiling Q.48 A sphere of mass m moving
gun compresses a spring of force with a constant velocity collides
constant k by a distance d. Then with another stationary sphere of
the velocity of the bullet is :- same mass. The ratio of velocities
of two spheres after collision will
(1) kd M / m be, if the co-efficient of restitution
d is –
(2) km
M
d 1_e e _1
(3) kM (1) (2)
m 1+ e e +1
kM 1+ e e +1
(4) d (3) _ (4) _
m 1 e e 1
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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.49 Two elastic bodies P and Q Q.54 A bullet of

having equal masses are moving mass m moving
along the same line with velocities with a speed v
of 16 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. strikes a
Their velocities after the elastic wooden block of
collision will be in m/s :- mass M and
gets embedded
(1) 0 and 25 into the block. The final speed is :-
(2) 5 and 20
(3) 10 and 16 M m
(4) 20 and 5 (1) v (2) v
M+m M+m
m v
Q.50 The unit of the coefficient of (3) v (4)
restitution is – M+m 2

(1) m/s (2) s/m Q.55 A ball is dropped from height

(3) m xs h on the ground level. If the
(4) None of the above coefficient of restitution is e then
the height up to which the ball will
Q.51 Two solid balls of rubber A go after nth jump will be :-
and B whose masses are 200 gm
and 400 gm respectively, are h e2n
(1) 2n (2)
moving in mutually opposite e h
directions. If the velocity of ball A (3) hen (4) he2n
is 0.3 m/s and both the balls come
to rest after collision, then the Q.56 Two bodies of same mass are
velocity of ball B is :- moving with same speed V in
mutually opposite directions. They
(1) 0.15 m/s collide and stick together. The
(2) –0.15 m/s resultant velocity of the system will
(3) 1.5 m/s be :-
(4) None of the above
(1) Zero
Q.52 A1 Kg ball falls from a height (2) V/2
of 25 cm and rebounds up to a (3) V
height of 9 cm. The co-efficient of (4) From Zero to 
restitution is –
Q.57 The bob (mass m) of a simple
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.32 pendulum of length L is held
(3) 0.40 (4) 0.56 horizontal and then released. It
collides elastically with a block of
Q.53 A 50 gm bullet moving with a equal mass lying on a frictionless
velocity of 10 m/s gets embedded table. The kinetic energy of the
into a 950 gm stationary body. The block will be :-
loss in kinetic energy of the system
will be :- (1) Zero
(2) mgL
(1) 5% (2) 50% (3) 2mgL
(3) 100% (4) 95% (4) mgL/2

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.58 Two particles each of mass m Q.63 A heavy body moving with a
travelling with velocities u1 and u2 velocity 20 m/s and another small
collide perfectly in elastically. The object at rest undergo an elastic
loss of kinetic energy will be :- collision. The latter will move with
a velocity of :-
1 1
(1) m(u1 _ u2 )2 (2) m(u1 _ u2 )2 (1) 20 m/s. (2) 40 m/s.
2 2
(3) 60 m/s. (4) Zero
(3) m(u1 – u2) 2 (4) 2m(u1 – u2)2
Q.64 A 5gm lump of clay, moving
Q.59 A ball moving with velocity of with a velocity of 10 cm/s towards
9m/s collides with another similar east, collides head-on with another
stationary ball. After the collision 2gm lump of clay moving with 15
both the balls move in directions cm/s towards west. After collision,
making an angle of 30o with the the two lumps stick together. The
initial direction. After the collision velocity of the compound lump will
their speed will be :- be :-

(1) 2.6 m/s (2) 5.2 m/s (1) 5 cm/s towards east
(3) 0.52 m/s (4) 52 m/s (2) 5 cm/s towards west
(3) 2.88 cm/s towards east
Q.60 A solid sphere is moving and it (4) 2.5 cm/s towards west
makes an elastic collision with
Q.65 In an inelastic collision
another stationary sphere of half of
between two bodies, the physical
its own radius. After collision it
quantity that is conserved :-
comes to rest. The ratio of the
densities of materials of second (1) Kinetic energy
sphere and first sphere is :- (2) Momentum
(3) Potential energy
(1) 2 (2) 4 (4) Kinetic energy and momentum
(3) 8 (4) 16
Q.66 A mass of 20 kg moving with a
Q.61 A 5 kg body collides with speed of 10 m/s collides with
another stationary body. After the another stationary mass of 5 kg. As
collision, the bodies move in the a result of the collision, the two
same direction with one-third of masses stick together. The kinetic
the velocity of the first body. The energy of the composite mass will
mass of the second body will be :- be :-

(1) 600 J (2) 800 J

(1) 5 kg (2) 10 kg
(3) 1000 J (4) 1200 J
(3) 15 kg (4) 20 kg
Q.67 A body of mass m having an
Q.62 A 10 g bullet, moving with a initial velocity v makes head on
velocity of 500 m/s. enters a elastic collision with a stationary
stationary piece of ice of mass 10 body of mass M. After the collision,
kg and stops. If the piece of ice is the body of mass m comes to rest
lying on a frictionless plane, then and only the body having mass M
its velocity will be :- moves. This will happen only when.

(1) 5 cm/s (2) 5 m/s (1) m >> M (2) m << M

(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 0.5 cm/s (3) m = M (4) m = M/2

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 Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.68 A body A experiences Q.72 In the diagrams given below

perfectly elastic collision with a the horizontal line represents the
stationary body B. If after collision path of a ball coming from left and
the bodies fly apart in the opposite hitting another ball which is
direction with equal speeds, the initially at rest. The other two lines
mass ratio of A and B is :- represents the paths of the two
balls after the collision. Which of
(1) 1/2 the diagram shows a physically
(2) 1/3 impossible situation ?
(3) 1/4
(4)1/5
(1) (2)
Q.69 A collision is said to be
perfectly inelastic when :-

(1) Coefficient of restitution 0 (3) (4)

(2) Coefficient of restitution =1
(3) Coefficient of restitution =
(4) Coefficient of restitution <1 Q.73 Two identical balls, one moves
with 12 m/s and second is at rest,
Q.70 A particle falls from a height collides elastically. After collision
'h' upon a fixed horizontal plane velocity of second and first ball will
and rebounds. If 'e' is the be :-
coefficient of restitution the total
distance travelled before (1) 6 m/s, 6 m/s
rebounding has stopped is :- (2) 12 m/s, 12 m/s
(3) 12 m/s, 0 m/s
 1 + e2  (4) 0 m/s, 12 m/s
(1) h  _ 2 
1 e 
Q.74 A sphere P of mass m and
 1 _ e2  
velocity V1 undergoes an oblique
(2) h  2 
1+ e  and perfectly elastic collision with
h  1 _ e2  an identical sphere Q initially at
(3)   rest. The angle  between the
2  1 + e2 
velocities of the spheres after the
h  1 + e2  collision shall be :-
(4)  _ 2 
2 1 e 
(1) 0 (2) 450
Q.71 Two particles of mass MA and (3) 900 (4) 1800
MB and there velocities are VA and
VB respectively collides. After Q.75 A ball is dropped from a
collision they inter changes their height of 10 m. If 40% of its
velocities then ratio MA/MB of is – energy is lost on collision with the
earth then after collision the ball
VA VB will rebound to a height of :-
(1) (2)
VB VA
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m
(VA + VB )
(3) (4) 1
(VB _ VA ) (3) 4 m (4) 6 m

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.76 If two masses m1 and m2 Q.80 Two ice skaters A and B

collide, the ratio of the changes in approach each other at right
their respective velocities is angles. Skater A has a mass 30 kg
proportional to :- and velocity 1 m/s and skater B has
a mass 20 kg and velocity 2 m/s.
m1 m1 They meet and cling together. Their
(1) (2) final velocity of the couple is –
m2 m2
m1 m2 (1) 2 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s
(3) (4)
m2 m1 (3) 1 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s

Q.77 A rubber ball is dropped from Q.81 A shell is fired from a canon
a height of 5m on a plane, where with velocity V m/s at an angle 
the acceleration due to gravity is with the horizontal direction. At the
not shown. On bouncing it rises to highest point in its path with same
1.8 m. The ball loses its velocity on speed it explodes into two pieces of
bouncing by a factor of :- equal masses. One of the pieces
retraces its path to the cannon. The
(1) 16/25 speed in m/s of the other piece
immediately after the explosion is :
(2) 2/5
(3) 3/5 (1) (3/2)Vcos (2) 3Vcos
(4) 9/25 (3) 2Vcos (4) (3/2)Vcos

Q.78 A big ball of mass M, moving Q.82 After falling from a height of
with velocity u strikes a small ball 5m a ball strikes the roof of a lift. If
of mass m, which is at rest. Finally at the time of collision, lift is
small ball attains velocity u and big moving in the upward direction
ball v. What is the value of v :- with a velocity of 1m/s, then the
velocity with which the ball
M_m m rebounds after collision will be - (e
(1) u (2) u
M M+m = 1)
2m M
(3) (4) v (1) 11m/s downwards
M+m M+m
(2) 12m/s upwards
(3) 13m/s upwards
Q.79 A particle of mass m moving
(4) 12m/s downwards
with speed v towards east strikes
another particle of same mass
Q.83 A frictionless steel ball of
moving with same speed v towards
radius 2cm, moving on a horizontal
north. After striking, the two
plane with a velocity of 5cm/s.
particles fuse together. With what
collides head-on with another
speed this new particle of mass 2 m
stationary steel ball of radius 3cm.
will move in north-east direction ?
The velocities of two bodies after
collision will respectively be (in
v
(1) v (2) cm/s) (e = 1) :-
2
v (1) 2.7, 2.3 (2) –2.7, 2.3
(3) (4) v 2
2 (3) 2.7, –2.3 (4) –2.7, –2.3

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.84 A nucleus of mass number A Q.88 Two masses m1 = 2kg and m2

originally at rest, emits alpha = 5kg are moving on a frictionless
particle with speed v. The recoil surface with velocities 10m/s and 3
speed of the daughter nucleus is :- m/s respectively. m2 is ahead of
m1. An ideal spring of spring
4v 4v constant k = 1120 N/m is attached
(1) (2)
A_4 A+4 on the back side of m2. The
v v maximum compression of the
(3) (4) spring will be :-
A_4 A+4

Q.85 A man m = 80 kg is standing

on a trolley of mass 320 kg on a
smooth surface. If man starts
walking on trolley along rails at a
speed of 1 m/s, then after 4 sec,
his displacement relative to ground
(1) 0.51 m
is :-
(2) 0.062 m
(3) 0.25 m
(1) 4 m (2) 4.8 m
(4) 0.72 m
(3) 3.2 m (4) 6 m
Q.89 In the HCI molecule. the
Q.86 A neutron makes a head on
separation between the nuclei of
elastic collision with a stationary
the two atoms is about 1.27 Å (1Å
deuteron. The fractional energy
10–10 m). The approximate location
loss of the neutron in the collision
of the centre of mass of the
is :-
molecule from hydrogen atom,
assuming the chlorine atom to be
(1) 16/82 (2) 8/9
about 35.5 times massive as
(3) 8/27 (4) 2/3
hydrogen is –
Q.87 A cricket bat is cut at the
(1) 1Å
location of its centre of mass as
(2) 2.5 Å
shown. Then :-
(3) 1.24 Å
(4) 1.5 Å

Q.90 A circular plate

of uniform thickness
has a diameter 56
cm. A circular
(1) The two pieces will portion of diameter
have the same mass 42 cm is removed
(2) The bottom piece from one edge as
will have larger mass shown in the figure. The centre of
(3) The handle piece mass of the remaining portion from
will have larger mass the centre of plate will be –
(4) Mass of handle
piece is double the (1) 5 cm (2) 7 cm
mass of bottom piece (3) 9 cm (4) 11 cm

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Center of mass and collision Question Bank

Q.91 A uniform rod of length 1.0 Q.93 A body of mass 2.0 kg makes
metre is bent at its midpoint to an elastic collision with another
make 900 angle. The distance of the body at rest and continues to move
centre of mass from the centre of in the original direction but with
the rod is :- one-fourth of its original speed v.
What is the mass of other body and
(1) 35.3 cm the speed of the center of mass of
(2) 25.2 cm two bodies ?
(3) 17.7 cm
(4) Zero (1) 1.0kg and 2/3v
(2) 1.2kg and 5/8v
Q.92 If linear density of a rod of (3) 1.4kg and 10/17v
length 3 m varies as  = 2 + x, (4) 1.5kg and 4/7v
then the position of the centre of
gravity of the rod is :- Q.94 A sphere of diameter r is cut
from a solid sphere of radius r such
(1) 7/3m that the centre of mass of
(2) 12/7m remaining part be at maximum
(3) 10/7m distance from original centre. then
(4) 9/7m this distance is –

(1) r/2
(2) r/3
(3) r/14
(4) None of these

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Matter Waves Question Bank

Q.1 If E and P are the energy and Q.6 A proton and an -particle
the momentum of a photon accelerated through same voltage.
respectively then on reducing the The ratio of their De-broglie
wavelength of photon:- wavelength will be :-

(1) P and E both will decrease (1) 1 : 2 (2) 22

(2) P and E both will increase
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
(3) P will increase and
E will decrease Q.7 The De-Broglie wavelength
(4) P will decrease and associated with electrons revolving
E will increase round the nucleus in a hydrogen
atom in ground state, will be :-
Q.2 Electron has energy of 100 eV
what will be its wavelength (1) 0.3 Å (2) 3.3 Å
(3) 6.62 Å (4) 10 Å
(1) 1.2 Å (2) 10 Å
(3) 100 Å (4) 1 Å Q.8 Which experiment explains the
wave nature of electron :-
Q.3 An electron is accelerated from
rest, between two points A and B at (1) Michelson's experiment
which the potentials are 20V and (2) Davisson Germer experiment
40 V respectively. The De Broglie (3) Roentgen experiment
wavelength associated with the (4) Rutherford experiment
electron at B will be :-
Q.9 The correct curve between
(1) 0.75 Å (2) 7.5 Å intensity of scattering (I) and the
(3) 2.75 Å (4) 2.75 m angle of diffraction  in Davison -
Germer experiment :-
Q.4 The energy that should be
added to an electron to reduce its
De broglie wavelength from 10–10
m to 0.5 × 10–10 m will be :– (1) (2)

(1) Four times the initial energy

(2) Equal to initial energy
(3) Twice the initial energy
(4) Thrice the initial energy (3) (4)

Q.5 The accelerating voltage of an

electron gun is 50,000 volt. De-
Broglie wavelength of the electron Q.10 The diffracted waves in the
will be :- Davisson - Germer experiment are :

(1) 0.55 A (1) Electrons

(2) 0.055 Å (2) X-Rays
(3) 0.077Å (3) Photons
(4) 0.095 Å (4) Protons
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Matter Waves Question Bank

Q.11 If the mass of a microscopic Q.16 According to De Broglie,

particle as well as its speed are wavelength of electron in second
halved, the de Broglie wavelength orbit is 10–9 metre. Then the
associated with the particle will :- circumference of orbit is :-

(1) Increased by a factor more than 2 (1) 10–9 m

(2) Increase by a factor of 2 (2) 2 × 10–9 m
(3) Decrease by a factor of 2 (3) 3 × 10–9 m
(4) Decrease by a (4) 4 × 10–9 m
factor more than 2
Q.17 An electron, proton and alpha
Q.12 What will happen to De particle have same kinetic energy.
Broglie's wavelength if the velocity The corresponding de-Broglie
of electron is increased :- wavelength would have the
following relationship :-
(1) It will increase
(2) It will decrease (1) e > p > 
(3) It will remain same (2)  > e > 
(4) It will become twice (3)  > e > p
(4)  > p > e
Q.13 Which of the following is true
for photon :- Q.18 If p and  be the
wavelengths of protons and -
hc 1 particles of equal kinetic energies,
(1) E = (2) E = mv2
 2 then.
E 1
(3) P = (4) E = mc2 (1) p = /4
2v 2
(2) p = /2
Q.14 The De Broglie wavelength of (3) p = 
an electron in the first bohr orbit is (4) p = 2

(1) Equal to the circumference Q.19 If the kinetic energy of a

of the first orbit moving particle is E, then the De
(2) Equal to twice the Broglie wavelength is :-
circumference of the first orbit
(3) Equal to half the 2mE
(1) h 2mE (2)
circumference of the first orbit h
(4) Equal to one fourth the h hE
circumference of first orbit (3) (4)
2mE 2mE
Q.15 A proton is about 1840 times
Q.20 The ratio of wavelength of
heavier than an electron. When it is
deutron and proton accelerated
accelerated by a potential difference
through the same potential
of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be :-
difference will be :-
(1) 1840 keV.
(2) 1/1840 keV. 1 2
(1) (2)
(3) 1 keV. 2 1
(4) 920 keV. (3) 1/2 (4) 2/1

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Matter Waves Question Bank

Q.21 An electron is moving with Q.26 In davisson - Germer

velocity 6.6 × 103 m/s. The De- experiment, the filament emits :-
Broglie wavelength associated with
electron is. (mass of electron 9 × (1) Photons
10–31 Kg, Plank's Constant = 6.62 × (2) Protons
10–34 J–S) (3) X-rays
(4) Electrons
(1) 1 × 10–19 m (2) 1 × 10–5 m
(3) 1 × 10–7 m (4) 1 × 10–10 m Q.27 In Davisson - Germer
Q.22 The magnitude of De broglie experiment, Nickel crystalacts as :-
wavelength () of electron (e),
proton (p), neutron (n) and  - (1) Perfect reflector
particle () all having the same (2) Three dimensional diffraction
kinetic energy of 1MeV, in the grating
increasing order will follow the (3) Ideal absorber
sequence :- (4) Two dimensional
diffraction grating
(1)  e, p , n, 
(2)  e, n, p ,  Q.28 An electron and a proton have
(3) , n, p ,  e the same De Broglie wavelength.
(4)  p,  e, , n Then the kinetic energy of the
electron is :-
Q.23 If the mass of neutron = 1.7 ×
10–27 kg. then the De broglie
(1) Zero
wavelength of neutron of energy
(2) Infinity
3eV is :-
(3) Equal to kinetic
(1) 1.6 × 10–10 m energy of proton
(2) 1.6 × 10–11 m (4) Greater than the kinetic
(3) 1.4 × 10–10 m energy of proton
(4) 1.4 × 10–11 m
Q.29 De Broglie equation for an
Q.24 The De Broglie wavelength of electron shows is :-
an atom at absolute temperature T
K will be :- (1) Particle nature
(2) Wave nature
h h (3) Dual nature
(1) (2)
mKT 3mKT (4) None of these
3mKT
(3) (4) 3mKT Q.30 A photon of wavelength
h
4400Å is passing through vaccum.
Q.25 The wavelength of very fast The effective mass and momentum
moving electron (v ≈ c) is :- of the photon are respectively:-

h h (1) 5 × 10–36 kg, 1.5 × 10–27 kg – m/s

(1) = (2) = (2) 5 10–35 kg, 1.5 × 10–26 kg – m/s
m0v 2mE
(3) Zero, 1.5 × 10–26
v2 kg – m/s
h 1_
h2 c2 (4) 5 10–36 kg, 1.67 × 10–43
(3) 2 = (4) =
2mE m0v kg – m/s

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 Matter Waves Question Bank

Q.31 For a moving particle having Q.34 An electron and proton are
kinetic energy E, the correct de accelerated through same
Broglie wavelength is:- potential, then e/p will be:-

(1) It is not applicable for a particle (1) 1

h (2) me/mp
(2)
2mE (3) mp/me
h (4) mp / me
(3) E
2m
h Q.35 What is the de Broglie
(4) wavelength of an electron with a
2mE
kinetic energy of 120 eV ?
Q.32 If given particles are moving (Given: h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, m2 =
with same velocity, then maximum 9.11 × 10–31 kg and e = 1.6 × 10–19
de-Broglie wavelength for :- coulomb).

(1) Proton (2)  - particle (1) 725 pm

(3) Neutron (4)  - particle (2) 500 pm
(3) 322 pm
Q.33 If an electron and a photon (4) 112 pm
propagate with same wavelength, it
implies that they can have the
same

(1) Energy
(2) Momentum
(3) Velocity
(4) Angular momentum

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Nuclei Question Bank

Q.1 Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the Q.7 For the given reaction, the
nuclear force between proton- particle X is –
11 11
proton, proton-neutron and 6C 5B + ++ X
neutron-neutron pair respectively.
When separation is 1 fm :- (1) Neutron
(2) Anti neutrino
(1) Fpp<Fpn = Fnn (3) Neutrino
(2) Fpp>Fpn = Fnn
(3) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (4) Proton
(4) Fpp<Fpn<Fnn
Q.8 Boron used in Atomic Reactor
Q.2 How much energy will be for :-
released when 10 kg of U235 is
completely converts into energy :- (1) Absorbption of neutrons
(2) Absorption of
(1) 5 × 1027 MeV  -particles
(2) 5 × 1024 MeV (3) Speed up the reaction
(3) 9 × 1017 J (4) All of these
(4) Change the reaction
Q.3 As the mass number increases,
Q.9 Mn and Mp represent the mass
binding energy per nucleon :- of neutron and proton respectively.
An element having nuclear mass M
(1) Increases
has N neutrons and Z-protons, then
(2) Decreases
the correct relation will be :-
(3) Remains same
(4) May increase or may decrease
(1) M < {N.M2 + Z.Mp)
Q.4 The energy radiated by a red (2) M > {N.Mn + Z.Mp}
giant star produces by :- (3) M = {N.Mn + Z.Mp}
(4) M = N {Mn + Mp}
(1) Fission process
(2) Fusion process Q.10 Energy in an atom bomb is
(3) Chemical burning produced by the process of :-
of hydrogen
(4) Gravitational contraction (1) Nuclear fusion
(2) Nuclear fission
Q.5 Which of the following nucleus (3) Combination of
is fissionable by slow neutrons :-
hydrogen atoms
(1) 238
(2)93Np239 (4) Combination of
92U
235 electrons and protons
(3) 92U (4) 2He4
Q.11 1 a.m.u. (1.66 × 10–27 kg) is
Q.6 Electron - positron pair can be
equal to.
created by  - rays. In this process
the minimum energy of  - rays
(1) 139 MeV/c2
should be –
(2) 39 MeV/c2
(1) 5.0 MeV (2) 4.02 MeV (3) 93 MeV/c2
(3) 15.0 MeV (4) 1.02 MeV (4) 931 MeV/c2
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Nuclei Question Bank

Q.12 The mass number of a nucleus Q.16 In any fission process the
is – Mass of fission products
ratio is :-
Mass of parent nucleus
(1) Always less than its atomic number
(2) Always more than its atomic number (1) Greater then 1
(2) Depends on the mass
(3) May equal to its atomic number of the parent nucleus
(4) Sometimes less than (3) Equal to 1
(4) Less than 1
and sometimes more
than its atomic number Q.17 The main function of
moderators in nuclear reactors is to
Q.13 Nuclear fusion is possible :-
(1) Decrease the energy of neutrons
(1) Only between light nuclei. (2) Absorb the extra neutrons
(3) Provide shield from
(2) Only between heavy nuclei. nuclearradiations
(3) Between both light (4) Provide cooling

and heavy nuclei. Q.18 Which of the following are

(4) Only between suitable for the fusion process :-

nuclei which are (1) Light nuclei

stable against -decay. (2) heavy nuclei
(3) Element must be lying in
Q.14 Mp denotes the mass of a the middle of the periodic table
proton and Mn that of a neutron. A (4) Middle elements, which are
given nucleus, of binding energy B, lying on binding energy curve
contains Z protons and N neutrons.
The mass M (N, Z) of the nucleus is Q.19 Which of the following is
given by – (c is velocity of light). weakest force :-

(1) Gravitational force

(1) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
(2) Electric force
(2) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2 (3) Magnetic force
(4) Nuclear force
(3) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp+ B/c2
(4) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 Q.20 The mass of proton is 1.0073
u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u
Q.15 Which one of the following is = atomic mass unit). The binding
a possible nuclear reaction :- energy of 24 He is :-

10
(1) 5 B + 24He  13
7 N + 11H (1) 0.0305 J
23
(2) 0.0305 erg
(2) 11 Na + 11H  22
10 Ne + 24He (3) 28.4 MeV
(4) 0.061 u
(3) 239
93 Np  93Pu + - + v
239

(Given :- mass of helium

(4) 11
7N + 11H  6C + - + v
12
nucleus ≈ 4.0015 u)

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Nuclei Question Bank

Q.21 A nucleus represented by the Q.26 Possible forces on a proton by

symbol ZA X has :- a proton in a nucleus is/are

(1) Z protons and A – Z neutrons (1) Coulomb force

(2) Nuclear force
(2) Z protons and A neutrons
(3) Gravitational force
(3) A protons and Z – A neutrons (4) All of these
(4) Z neutrons and A – Z protons
Q.27 In the process of atomic
Q.22 Force acting on proton-proton explosion, the most of fission
inside a nucleus is :- energy is released in the form of :-

(1) Nuclear force > Electric force (1)  - rays

(2) Electric force > Nuclear force (2) Kinetic energy of
products
(3) Gravitational force
(3) Infra red rays
> Nuclear force (4) Visible light
(4) None of these
Q.28 The example of nuclear fusion
Q.23 Which one of the following is –
pairs of nuclei are isotones :-
(1) Formation of barium
74 71
(1) 34Se , 31Ga and krypton from uranium
(2) 84
38Sr , 38Sr
86 (2) Formation of helium from hydrogen
92 92 (3) Formation of plutonium
(3) 42Mo , 40Zr
40 32
– 235 from uranium – 235
(4) 20Ca , 16S (4) Formation of water
from hydrogen and oxygen
Q.24 A nuclear fission is given
below A240  B100 + C140 + Q.29 For nuclear reaction :-
Q(energy) Let binding energy per 235
92U + 0n156Ba144 + ………+ 3 0n1
nucleon of nucleus A, B and C is 7.6
MeV, 8.1 MeV and 8.1 MeV 89 89
respectively. Value of Q is :- (1) 26Kr (2) 36Kr

(Approximately) (3) 26Sr

90
(4) 38Sr
89

(1) 20 MeV Q.30 In a breeder reactor, useful

(2) 220 MeV fuel obtained from U238 is :-
(3) 120 MeV
(1) Ac233 (2) Th238
(4) 240 MeV
(3) U235 (4) Pu239
Q.25 How much energy is released
Q.31 Which one is best neutron
when 2 mole of U235 is fissioned :-
moderator in all respects :-
(1) 1024 MeV
(1) Barium oxide
(2) 24 × 1025 MeV (2) Water
(3) 1024 J (3) Graphite
(4) 1024 kWh (4) Heavy water

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Nuclei Question Bank

Q.32 Energy is released in nuclear Q.37 One milligram of matter

fission is due to. (a) Few mass is converted into energy will give.
converted into energy (b) Total
binding energy of fragments is (1) 9 J (2) 9 × 1013 J
more than the B.E. of parental
(3) 9 × 105J (4) 9 × 1010 J
element (c) Total B.E. of fragments
is less than the B.E. of parental
Q.38 In the reaction
element (d) Total B.E. of fragments 2 3 4 1
H + H  He + n. If the binding
is equals to the B.E. of parental 1 1 2 0
2 3 4
element is – energies of 1 H, 1H and 2He are
respectively a, b and c (in MeV),
(1) a, c (2) a, b then the energy (in MeV) released
(3) a, d (4) All in this reaction is :-

Q.33 Assuming that 200 MeV of (1) a + b + c (2) c + a – b

energy is released per fission of (3) c – a – b (4) c + a + b
235
92U atom. Find the number of
fission per second required to Q.39 Fission of nuclei is possible
release 1 kW power :- because the binding energy per
nucleon in them :-
(1) 3.125 × 1013
(1) Decreases with mass
(2) 3.125 × 1014
number at low mass numbers.
(3) 3.125 × 1015
(2) Increases with mass
(4) 3.125 × 1016
number at low numbers.
(3) Decreases with mass
Q.34 In nuclear fission the
number at high numbers.
percentage of mass converted into
(4) Increases with mass
energy is about :-
number at high numbers.
(1) 0.1%
Q.40 X (n, ) 73 Li, then the element
(2) 1%
X will be :-
(3) 10%
(4) 0.01% (1) 10
B (2) 59 B
5
11
Q.35 In the following reaction X is - (3) 4 B (4) 24 He
40
20Ca + X 21Sc43 + 1H1
Q.41 Which one of the following
(1) Electron particle is unstable ?
(2) Positron
(3) Alphaparticle (1) -particle (2) Electron
(4) Proton (3) Proton (4) Neutron

Q.36The order of nuclear density is. Q.42 The volume occupied by an

atom is greater than the volume of
(1) 1013 kg/m3 the nucleus by a factor of about :-
(2) 1015 kg/m3
(1) 101 (2) 105
(3) 1017 kg/m3
(4) 1019 kg/m3 (3) 1010 (4) 1015

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Nuclei Question Bank

Q.43 Two light nuclei of masses m1 Q.45 The dependence of binding

and m2 are fused to form a more energy per nucleon (BN) on the
stable nucleus of mass m3then :- mass number (A), is represented by.

(1) m3 = |m1 – m2|

(2) m3 < (m1 + m2)
(3) m3 > (m1 + m2) (1)
(4) m3 = m1 + m2

Q.44 Mass equivalent to energy 931

MeV is :–
(2)
(1) 6.02 × 10–27 kg
(2) 1.66 × 10–27 kg
(3) 16.66 × 10–26 kg
(4) 6.02 × 10–26 kg
(3)

(4)

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Photoelectric effect Question Bank

Q.1 Surface of sodium is illuminated Q.6 The value of Planck’s constant

by a light of 6000 A wavelength. is :-
Work function of sodium is 1.6 eV.
(1) 6.63 × 10–34 J/s
Then minimum K.E. of emitted
(2) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2/s
electrons is :-
(3) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2
(1) 0 eV (2) 1.53 eV (4) 6.63 × 10–34 J–s–1
(3) 3.46 eV (4) 4.14 eV
Q.7 When a point source of
Q.2 Photon of energy 6 eV is monochromatic light is at a
incident on a metal surface distance of 0.2 m from a
Maximum KE of emitted of work photoelectric cell, the cut-off
function 4 eV. photo electrons will voltage and the saturation current
be :- are 0.6 volt and 18 mA respectively.
If the same source is placed 0.6 m
(1) 0 eV (2) 1 eV away from the photoelectric cell,
(3) 2 eV (4) 10 eV then :-

Q.3 What is the momentum of a (1) The stopping potential will be 0.2V
photon having frequency 1.5 × 1013 (2) The stopping potential will be 0.2V
Hz :– (3) The saturation
current will be 6mA
(1) 3.3 × 10–29 kg m/s (4) The saturation current
(2) 3.3 × 10–34 kg m/s will be 180020mA
(3) 6.6 × 10–34 kg m/s
(4) 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s Q.8 The stopping
potential as a
function of
Q.4 When light falls on a frequency of
photosensitive surface, electrons incident radiation
are emitted from the surface. The is plotted for two
kinetic energy of these electrons different surfaces
does not depend on the :- A and B. The graphs show that the
work function of A is.
(1) Wavelength of light (1) Greater than that of B
(2) Frequency of light (2) Smaller than that of B
(3) Type of material used for (3) Same as that of B
the surface (4) No comparison can be
(4) Intensity of light done from given graphs
Q.5 Photoelectric effect takes place Q.9 A photo-cell is illuminated by a
in element A. Its work function is source of light, which is placed at a
2.5 eV and threshold wavelength is distance d from the cell, If the
. Another element B is having distance become d/2, then number
of electrons emitted per second will
work function of 5 eV. Then find out be :-
the maximum wavelength that can
produce photoelectric effect in B :- (1) Remain same
(2) Two times
(1) /2 (2) 2 (3) Four times
(3)  (4) 3 (4) One-fourth

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Photoelectric effect Question Bank

Q.10 The work function of a photo Q.13 The graphs

electric material is 3.3 eV. Its show the
threshold frequency will be:- variation of
current I (y-axis)
(1) 4 × 1023 Hz in two photocell
A & B as a
(2) 8 × 1012 Hz
function of the applied voltage V(x-
(3) 4 × 1011 Hz axis) when light of same frequency
is incident on the cell. Which of the
(4) 8 × 1014 Hz
following is the correct conclusion
drawn from the data ?
Q.11 A photoelectric cell is
illuminated by a point source of
(1) Cathodes of the two cells are
light 1 m away. When the source is
made from the same substance, the
shifted to 2m then.
intensity of light used are different
(2) Cathodes are made from
(1) Each emitted electron carries one
different substances and the
quarter of the initial energy intensity of light is the same
(2) Number of electrons emitted is (3) Cathode substances
as well as intensity of
half the initial number
light are different
(3) Each emitted electron carries half (4) No conclusion can be drawn
the initial energy
Q.14 Surface of sodium is
(4) Number of electrons
illuminated by a light of 6000 A
emitted is a quarter of wavelength. Work function of
the initial number sodium is 1.6 eV. Then minimum
K.E. of emitted electrons is :-
Q.12 According to Einstein's
photoelectric equation, the plot of (1) 0 eV
the kinetic energy of the emitted (2) 1.53 eV
photoelectrons from a metal v/s (3) 3.46 eV
the frequency of the incident (4) 4.14 eV
radiation gives a straight line
whose slope :- Q.15 Which one among shows
particle nature of light.
(1) Depends on the intensity of the
radiation (1) P.E.E.
(2) Depends of the nature of the (2) Refraction
(3) Interference
metal used
(4) Polarization
(3) depends both on the intensity
of the radiation and the metal used Q.16 The energy of photon of
(4) Is the same for all visible light with maximum
wavelength in eV is:-
metals and independent
of the intensity of the (1) 1 (2) 1.6
radiation (3) 3.2 (4) 7

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Photoelectric effect Question Bank

Q.17 When light is incident on Q.22 The slope of graph drawn

surface, photo electrons are between stopping potential and
emitted. For photoelectrons. frequency of incident light for a
given surface will be:-
(1) The value of kinetic
energy is same for all (1) h (2) h/e
(2) Maximum kinetic energy do (3) eh (4) e
not depend on the wave length
of incident light Q.23 Graph is
(3) The value of kinetic energy plotted between
is equal to or less than a maximum kinetic
maximum kinetic energy energy of electron
(4) None of the above with frequency of
incident photon in
Q.18 The work-function of a Photo electric
substance is 4.0 eV. The longest effect. The slope of curve will be :-
wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this (1) Charge of electron
substance is approximately – (2) Work function of metal
(3) Planck's constant
(1) 540 nm (2) 310 nm (4) Ratio of Planck constant
(3) 400 nm (4) 220 nm and charge of electron

Q.19 When light of wavelength Q.24 When ultraviolet rays incident

lesser than 6000 Å is incident on a on metal plate then photoelectric
metal, electrons are emitted. The effect does not occur, it occurs by
approximate work-function of the incidence of :-
metal is:-
(1) Infrared rays
(1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV
(2) X-rays
(3) 4 eV (4) 6 eV
(3) Radio wave
(4) Light wave
Q.20 The maximum kinetic energy
of photoelectrons emitted from a
Q.25 According to Einstein's
surface when photons of energy 6
photoelectric equation, the graph
eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping
between the kinetic energy of
potential in volt is :-
photoelectrons ejected and the
(1) 4 (2) 6 frequency of incident radiation is :-
(3) 8 (4) 10

Q.21 The maximum wavelength of (1) (2)

light for photoelectric effect from a
metal is 200 nm. The maximum
kinetic energy of electron which is
emitted by the radiation of wave
length 100 nm will be :- (3) (4)

(1) 12.4 eV (2) 6.2 eV

(3) 100 eV (4) 200 eV
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Photoelectric effect Question Bank

Q.26 A photon of energy 4 eV is Q.27 Light of frequency v is

incident on a metal surface whose incident on a metal of threshold
work function is 2eV. The minimum frequency v0. Then work function of
reverse potential to be applied for metal will be –
stopping the current is :-
(1) hv (2) hv0
(1) 2V (2) 4V (3) h(v – v0) (4) h (v + v0)
(3) 6V (4) 8V

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Radioactivity Question Bank

Q.1 The amount of U235 to be Q.6 Probability of survival of a

fissioned, to operate 10 kW nuclear radioactive nucleus in one mean life
reactor is (Approximately) is:-

(1) 1.2 × 10–5 g/s (1) 1/2

(2) 1.2 × 10–7 g/s (2) 1/e
(3) 1.2 × 10–9 g/s (3) 1/4
(4) 1.2 × 10–13 g/s (4) 1/5

Q.2 A nucleus of mass number 220, Q.7 Atomic weight of a radioactive

initially rest, emits an -particle. If element is M= gram. Radioactivity
the Q value of the reaction is 5.5 of m gram. of its mass is :- (NA =
MeV, the energy of the emitted a- Avogadro number,  = decay
particle will be. constant)

(1) 4.8 MeV  NA 

(1) NA (2)  m 
(2) 5.4 MeV  MW 
(3) 7.5 MeV  NA  N 
(4) 6.8 MeV (3)   (4)  A MW  
m m 

Q.3 The half life of a radioactive

Q.8 Which statement about
material is T. after T/2 time, the
radioactive radiations is true.
material left is:-
(1) Speed of -particles is a
(1) 1/2 (2) 3/4
(3) 1/2 (4) (2-1)/2 characteristic property.
(2) Speed of -particles is a
Q.4 There are two radio nuclei A characteristic property.
and B. A is an alpha emitter and B (3) Speed of -photon is a
is a beta emitter. Their characteristic property.
disintegration constants are in the (4) All of these.
ratio of 1 : 2. What should be the
ratio of number of atom of A and B Q.9 If a nucleus is emitting e–
at any time t so that probabilities of particle, its neutron to proton ratio
getting alpha and beta particles are (n/p) will
same at that instant.
(1) Increase
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (2) Decrease
(3) e (4) e–1 (3) Remain unchanged
(4) Can't be determind
Q.5 What is energy released in the
-decay of 32P 32S ? (Given: atomic Q.10 The rate of disintegration of a
masses : 31.97391 u for 32P and radioactive sample can be
31.97207 u for 32S) increased by :-

(1) –1.2 MeV (1) Increasing the temperature

(2) +1.7 MeV (2) Increasing the pressure
(3) +2.1 MeV (3) Chemical reaction
(4) –0.9 MeV (4) It is not possible

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 Radioactivity Question Bank

Q.11 At some instant two Q.16 A sample of radioactive

16
radioactive substance are having element containing 4 × 10 active
amount in ratio of 2 : 1. Their half nuclei. Half life of element is 10
lives are 12 hrs and 16 hrs then days, then number of decayed
after two days the ratio of their nuclei after 30 days:-
quantities is.
(1) 0.5 × 1016
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (2) 2 × 1016
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 3.5 × 1016
(4) 1 × 1016
Q.12 The relation between  and
T1/2 as :- (T1/2  half life,   decay Q.17 The decay constant of a
constant) radioactive sample is . The
respective values of its half life and
ln2 mean life are :-
(1) T1/2 =

(2) T1/2ln2 =  1
(1) and loge 2
1 
(3) T1/2 =
 loge 2 1
ln2 (2) and
(4)   + T1/2  =  
2 1
(3)  loge 2 and

Q.13 The half life of a radioactive (4) 2/and 1/
material is 5 years. The probability
of disintegration for a nucleus in 10 Q.18 Activity of a radioactive
years is :- element is 103 dps. Its half life is 1
second. After 3 seconds, its activity
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.25 will be (dps = decay per second) :-
(3) 0.60 (4) 0.75
(1) 1000 dps
Q.14 A radioactive reaction is 92U238 (2) 250 dps
 82Pb206. How many  and  (3) 125 dps
particles are emitted ? (4) None of these

(1) 10, 6 Q.19 A nuclear reaction given by

(2) 4 proton, 8 neutron A A 0
ZX  Z+1Y + –1e + v represents.
(3) 6 electron, 8 proton
(4) 6, 8 (1) -decay
(2) -decay
Q.15 Half life of radioactive (3) Fusion
element is 12.5 Hour and its (4) fission
quantity is 256 gram. After how
much time its quantity will remain Q.20 The active amount of
1 gram :- radioactive substance left after one
hour whose half life is 20 minutes
(1) 50 Hrs is :-
(2) 100 Hrs
(3) 150 Hrs (1) 1/8 (2) 1/32
(4) 200 Hrs (3) 1/16 (4) 1/9

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Q.21 Plutonium - decays with a half Q.26 The isotope used for curing
life of 24000 years. If plutonium is the cancer is:-
stored for 72000 years, then the
fraction of plutonium that remains, (1) K (40)
is. (2) Co (60)
(3) Sr (90)
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (4) I (131)
(3) 1/3 (4) 1/2
Q.27 A nuclear fusion reaction is
Q.22 Fraction of tritium left after given below:
125 years (half life of tritium is 1H2 + 1H2  2He3 + n + 3.2 MeV
12.5 years) is. How much energy will be generated
when 2 kg of deuterons are fused :
(1) 1/1024 (2) 1/2048 (approx)
(3) 1/4096 (4) 1/8192
(1) 1030 eV
Q.23 A sample of radioactive (2) 5 × 1023 MeV
element has a mass of 10 gram at (3) 1022 MeV
an instant t = 0. The approximate (4) 1093 eV
mass of this element in the sample
after two mean lives is :- Q.28 A radioactive sample
disintegrates by 10% during one
(1) 1.35 gram month. How much fraction will
(2) 2.50 gram disintegrate in four months:-
(3) 3.70 gram
(1) 34.39%
(4) 6.30 gram
(2) 40%
(3) 38%
Q.24 A radioactive nucleus decay as
(4) 50%
follows :-
  X 
  X 
X   X
  X 
1 2 3 4 Q.29 The activity of a sample of a
if the atomic number and the mass radioactive material is A1, at time
number of X are 72 and 180 then t1, and A2 at time t2, (t2 > t1). If its
the mass number and atomic mean life is T, then :–
number of X4 are : -
(1) A1t1 = A2t2
(1) 172, 70 (2) 171, 69 (2) A2 = A1e(t1, – t2)/T
(3) 172, 69 (4) 172, 68 (3) A1 – A2 = t2 – t1
(4) A2 = A1e(t1,/t2)T
Q.25 A radioactive
source is kept in Q.30 238
92 U emits 8  - particle and 6
an uniform electric b-particles. The neutron/proton
field , and  - ratio in the product nucleus is:-
particle are
emitting. ,,  (1) 60/41
are respectively :-
(2) 61/40
(1) A, B, C (2) A, C, B (3) 62/41
(3) C, A, B (4) C, B, A (4) 61/42

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Radioactivity Question Bank

Q.31 Two radioactive materials X1 Q.36 In a radioactive decay, neither

and X2 decay constants 6 and 3 the atomic number nor the mass
respectively. If initially they have number changes. Which of the
the same number of nuclei, then following would be emitted in the
the ratio of the number of nuclei of decay process.
X1 to that of X2 will be 1/e after a
time. (1) Proton
(2) Neutron
(1) 1/6 (2) 1/3 (3) Electron
(3) 3/6 (4) 6/9
(4) Photon
Q.32 Ratio of initial active nuclei in
Q.37 'Rn' decays into 'Po' by
two different samples is 2 : 3. Their
emitting -particle with half life of
half lives are one hour and two
4 days. A sample contains 6.4 ×
hours respectively. Ratio of active
1010 atoms of Rn. After 12 days, the
nuclei at the end of 6 hours will be :
number of atoms of 'Rn' left in the
sample will be –
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 12
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
(1) 3.2 × 1010
Q.33 Which spectrum is continuous. (2) 0.53 × 1010
(3) 2.1 × 1010
(1) -rays (4) 0.8 × 1010
(2) -rays
(3)-rays Q.38 A radioactive element 90X238
(4) All of these decays in to 3Y222. The number of -
particles emitted is:-
Q.34 Which one moves with
greatest speed :- (1) 2 (2) 4

(1) -rays (3) 6 (4) 1

(2)-rays
(3) -rays Q.39 10.24 g radioactive substance
(4) cathode rays has half life 3.8 days. After 19 days,
its remaining quantity is:-
Q.35 For a radioactive sample, at
given instant, number of active (1) 0.151 g
nuclei is N and its decay constant is (2) 0.32 g
 then the incorrect relation is :- (3) 1.51 g
(4) 0.16 g
(1) N = activity at given instant.
(2)  = decay probability per unit Q.40 Which rays contain (+Ve)
time for a nucleus charged particle :-
(3) After the next 1/ time
interval, active nuclei in the (1) -rays
 1
sample will be N  _  (2) -rays
 e
(3) -rays
l2n
(4) The half life of the sample = (4) X-rays

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Radioactivity Question Bank

Q.41 The number of Q.45 If half-life of a radioactive

undecayed nuclei N substance is 60 minutes then the
in a sample of percentage decay in 4 hours is :-
radioactive material
as a function of (1) 50% (2) 71%
time is shown in the (3) 85% (4) 93.7%
graph. Which of the
following graph correctly shows the Q.46 Initial decay rate of a
relationship between N and the substance is 800 disintegration/
activity A ? sec. If half life of substance is 1
sec. then after three second the
decay rate will be :-

(1) (2) (1) 800 disintegration/sec.

(2) 400 disintegration/sec.
(3) 200 disintegration/sec.
(4) 100 disintegration/sec.

(3) (4) Q.47 Which of the following

radiations gets deflected by a
magnetic field?

Q.42 When 90Th238 changes into (1) X-rays

83Bi
222
, then the number of emitted (2) -rays
 and -particles are:- (3) -rays
(4) radio waves
(1) 8, 7
(2) 4, 7 Q.48 If half life period of radium is
(3) 4, 4 1600 years then its average life is
(4) 4, 1 (approx) –

Q.43 In a mean life of a radioactive (1) 4200 years

sample:- (2) 3530 years
(3) 2300 years
(1) About 1/3 of substance disintegrate (4) 2800 years
(2) About 2/3 of substance disintegrate
(3) About 90% of the Q.49 Which of the following ray are
substance disintegrate not electromagnetic waves:-
(4) Almost all the
substance disintegrates (1) X-rays (2) -rays
(3) -rays (4) Heat rays
Q.44 A radioactive substance
th
decays to 1/16 of its initial Q.50 -Particles can be detected
activity in 40 days. The half-life using:-
of the radioactive substance
expressed in days is:- (1) Thin aluminium sheet
(2) Barium sulphate
(1) 2.5 (2) 5 (3) Zinc sulphide screen
(3) 10 (4) 20 (4) Gold foil

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Radioactivity Question Bank

Q.51 Neutrino is a particle, which is

(1) Charged like an electron

and has no Spin
(2) Chargeless and has spin
(3) Chargeless and has no spin
(4) Charged like an
electron and has spin

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X-Rays Question Bank

Q.1 If the K radiation of Mo has a Q.6 X-rays obtained by coolidge

wavelength of 0.71 Å. The tube are
wavelength of the corresponding
radiation of Cu :- [ZMO = 42, ZCu = (1) Mono-chromatic
29]. (2) Of all wave lengths below
a maximum wavelength
(1) 0.52 Å (3) Of all wave length above
(2) 1.52 Å a minimum wave length
(3) 2.52 Å (4) Of all wave length
(4) 3.52 Å between a maximum and
a minimum wave length
Q.2 If the X-ray tube is working at
25 kV then the minimum Q.7 Characteristic X-rays are not
wavelength of X-rays will be :- obtained in the spectrum of H-atom
because :-
(1) 0.49 Å
(2) 0.29 Å (1) Hydrogen is a gas
(3) 0.19 Å (2) Hydrogen is very light
(4) 0.39 Å (3) Energy difference in energy
levels of hydrogen is much less
Q.3 The structure of solids is (4) Energy difference in energy
studied by :- levels of hydrogen is much high

(1) X-rays Q.8 Penetration power of X-rays

(2) -rays depend on :-
(3) Cosmic rays
(4) Infrared rays (1) Current flowing in filament
(2) Applied potential difference
Q.4 When 50 keV electrons are (3) Nature of target
made incident on a target material, (4) All of the above
the wavelength of K X-ray line was
found to be 0.5Å. When the Q.9 The energy of characteristic X-
accelerating potential is increased rays photon obtained from coolidge
to 100 kV, then the wavelength of tube comes from :-
K - line from the same target will
be :- (1) Kinetic energy of incident electron.
(2) Kinetic energy of free
(1) 0.25 Å electrons of target material
(2) 0.5 Å (3) Kinetic energy of
(3) 0.75 Å ions of target material
(4) 1.0 Å (4) Electron transition in target material

Q.5 Which of the following is not Q.10 In X-ray spectrum wave

affected by electro-magnetic fields length of line K depends on
atomic number Z as :-
(1) -rays
(2) -rays (1)  Z2 (2)  (Z–1)2
(3) X-rays 1 1
(3)  (4) 
(4) Cathode-rays (Z _ 1) _
(Z 1)2

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X-Rays Question Bank

Q.11 The minimum wavelength of Q.16 For harder X-rays :-

X-rays produced by electrons
accelerated by a potential (1) The wavelength is higher
difference of V volts is equal to. (2) The intensity is higher
(3) The frequency is higher
(1) eV/hc (4) The photon energy is lower
(2) eV/cV
(3) hc/eV Q.17 Penetrating power of X-rays
(4) h/V can be increased by.

Q.12 If V be the accelerating (1) Increasing the potential difference

voltage, then the maximum between anode and cathode
frequency of continuous X-rays is (2) Decreasing the potential difference
given by :- between anode and cathode
(3) Increasing the cathode
(1) eh/V filament current
(2) hV/e (4) Decreasing the cathode
(3) eV/h filament current
(4) h/eV
Q.18 The production of
Q.13 In an X-ray tube, the intensity characteristic X-rays is due to :-
of the emitted X-ray beam is
increased by (1) Transfer of momentum in collision of
electrons with the target atom
(1) Increasing the filament current (2) Transfer of energy in collision of
(2) Decreasing the filament current electrons with the target atom
(3) Increasing the (3) The transition of electrons
target potential in heavy target atoms from
(4) Decreasing the high to low energy level
target potential (4) None of these

Q.14 The momentum of a photon in Q.19 The ratio of the energy of an

an X-ray beam of 10–10 metre X-ray photon of wavelength 1 Å to
wavelength is :– that of visible light of wavelength
5000 Å is :-
(1) 1.5 × 10–23 kg–m/sec
(2) 6.6 × 10–24 kg–m/sec (1) 1 : 5000 (2) 5000 : 1
(3) 1 : 25 × 106 (4) 25 × 106
(3) 6.6 × 10–44 kg–m/sec
(4) 2.2 × 10–52 kg–m/sec Q.20 For the structural analysis of
crystals, X-rays are used because :-
Q.15 The kinetic energy of an
electron which is accelerated (1) X-rays have wavelength of the
through a potential of 100 volts is : order of interatomic spacing
(2) X-rays are highly
(1) 1.602 × 10–17 joules penetrating radiations
(2) 418.6 calories (3) Wavelength of X-rays is
(3) 1.16 × 104 eV of the order of nuclear size
(4) 6.626 × 10–34 watt-second (4) X-rays are coherent radiations

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X-Rays Question Bank

Q.21 The most penetrating Q.27 20 kV potential is applied

radiation out of the following is :- across X-ray tube, the minimum
wavelength of X-ray emitted will be
(1) X-rays (2) -rays
(3) -particles (4) -rays (1) 0.62 Å (2) 0.37 Å
(3) 1.62 Å (4) 1.31 Å
Q.22 For production of
characteristics K X-ray, the
electron transition will be. Q.28 To increase the hardness of X-
rays in coolidge tube we should :-
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 3 to n = 2 (1) Increase filament current
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (2) Increase filament voltage
(4) n = 4 to n = 2 (3) Increase the voltage
applied between cathode
Q.23 Which of the following and anticathode
wavelength is not possible for an X- (4) None of these
ray tube which is operated at 40 kV
Q.29 Voltage applied across the X-
(1) 0.25 Å (2) 0.5 Å ray tube is :-
(3) 0.52 Å (4) 0.34 Å
(1) 1000 V (2) 100 V
Q.24 When X-rays are projected in (3) 10 V (4) 106 V
strong magnetic field it will :-
Q.30 Lattice constant of a crystal is
(1) Deflect right. 3 × 10–8 cm and glance angle of X-
(2) Deflect left. ray is 300 for first order diffraction,
(3) Move in opposite then the value of  will be :-
direction to magnetic field
(4) Not deflect (1) 6 × 10–8 cm
(2) 3 × 10–8 cm
Q.25 If minimum wavelength (3) 1.5 × 10–8 cm
obtained in a X-ray tube is 2.5 × (4) 10–8 cm
10–10 m. For this minimum
wavelength the minimum operating Q.31 The order of energy of X-ray
voltage of the tube should be – photon is :-

(1) 2 kV (2) 3 kV (1) MeV (2) kev

(3) 4 kV (4) 5 kV (3) eV (4) GeV

Q.26 5000V is applied on an Q.32 When electron is incident on

electronic X-ray tube. Then molyblednum then by changing
minimum wavelength of X-ray will energy of electron :-
be :-
(1) min changes
–11
(1) 1.24 × 10 m (2) min remains constant
(2) 2.48 × 10–10 m (3) K, K changes
(3) 3.72 × 10–11 m (4) min, K and K
(4) 4.96 × 10–11 m all changes

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Q.33 In an X-ray tube accelerating Q.38 In coolidge tube the potential

potential is 60 kV. What is the difference between cathode and
maximum frequency of emitted X- anticathode is 120 kV. The
ray ? maximum energy of emitted X-rays
will be :-
(1) 1.45 × 1019 Hz
(2) 1.45 × 1015 Hz (1) 1.2 × 105 eV (2) 1010 ev
(3) 1.25 × 1015 Hz (3) 1015 eV (4) 1020 ev
(4) 1.25 × 1013 Hz Q.39 The distance between
interatomic lattice planes is 10Å.
Q.34 What is the ratio of the The maximum wavelength of X-rays
shortest wavelength of the Balmer which are diffracted by this crystal
series to the shortest wavelength will be :-
of the Lyman series ?
(1) 10 Å (2) 20 Å
(1) 4 : 1 (3) 30 Å (4) 40 Å
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 9 Q.40 50% of X-rays obtained from
(4) 5 : 9 a Coolidge tube pass through 0.3
mm. thick aluminium foil. If the
Q.35 According to Bohr Model for potential difference between the
Hydrogen, energy is proportional to target and the cathode is increased,
then the fraction of X-rays passing
(1) –Z2/n through the same foil will be :-
(2) –n/Z2
(1) 50%
(3) –Z2/n
(2) > 50%
(4) –n2/Z
(3) < 50%
Q.36 If ionization potential of (4) 0%
Hydrozen atom is 13.6 V then what
is ionization potential of He atom ? Q.41 On increasing the filament
current in X-ray tube :-
(1) 27.6 V
(2) 13.6 V (1) Wavelength of X-rays increases
(3) 54.2 V (2) Penetration power
of X-ray increases
(4) None of these
(3) Intensity of X-rays decreases
(4) Intensity of X-rays increases
Q.37 According to the Bohr theory
of Hydrogen atom, the speed of the
Q.42 Minimum wavelength of X-ray
electron, its energy and the radius
is 2 Å, then potential difference
of its orbit varies with the principal
between anode and cathode is :-
quantum number n, respectively, as.

1 1 1 1 (1) 62 kV
(1) , 2 , n2 (2) , n2 , 2 (2) 6.2 kV
n n n n
1 1 1 (3) 24.8 kV
(3) n2 , 2 , n2 (4) n, 2 , 2 (4) 2.48 kV
n n n
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Q.43 X-ray is an electromagnetic Q.49 The shortest wave length

radiation, so X-ray photons carry :- emitted from an X-ray tube
depends upon :-
(1) An electric charge
(2) A magnetic moment (1) The voltage applied to the tube
(3) Both the electric charge (2) The nature of the gas in the tube
and magnetic moment (3) The current in the tube
(4) Neither electric charge (4) The nature of
nor magnetic moment
target material
Q.44 Which of the following is
related with characteristic emission Q.50 In an X-ray tube, electrons
of X-ray :- accelerated through a potential
difference of 15000 V strike a
(1) -particle emission copper target. The speed of the
(2) Electron emission emitted X-rays from the tube is :-
(3) Positron emission [e-charge on electron, m-mass of
(4) K-electron capturing electron, Z-atomic number of
target]
Q.45 Which of the following have
velocity equal to light. 2x2e × 1500
(1)
m
(1) Cathode rays
2xe × 1500
(2) Anode rays (2)
(3) X-rays m
(4) Positive rays 2Ze × 1500
(3)
m
Q.46 Absorption of X-ray is (4) 3 × 108 m/s
maximum in which of the following
sheets :- Q.51 The energy of a photon of
light with wavelength 5000Å is
(1) Copper (2) Gold approximately x eV. This way the
(3) Beryllium (4) Lead energy of an X-ray photon with
wavelength 1Å would be :-
Q.47 If potential difference applied
to an X-ray tube is V volt, then
(1) x/5000 ev
minimum wavelength of X-rays
(2) x/(5000)2 ev
produced is about (in Å) :-
(3) x × 5000 eV
(1) 1240/V (2) 12400/V (4) x × (5000)2 eV
(3) 24000/V (4) 12.27/V
Q.52 The wavelength of the most
Q.48 In E.M. waves spectrum X- energetic X-ray emitted when a
rays region lies between. metal target is bombarded by
electrons having kinetic energy 100
(1) Short radio waves and visible region keV is approximately :-
(2) Visible and ultraviolet region
(3) Mamma rays and (1) 12 Å
ultra-violet region (2) 4Å
(4) Short radio waves (3) 0.31 Å
and long radio waves (4) 0.124 Å

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X-Rays Question Bank

Q.53 When cathode rays strike a Q.58 On increasing the number of

metal target of high melting point electrons striking the anode of an
with very high velocity, then :- X-ray tube, which one of the
following parameters of the
(1) X-rays are produced resulting X-rays would increase.
(2) -rays are produced
(3) -rays are produced (1) Penetration power
(4) Ultrasonic waves are produced (2) Frequency
(3) Wavelength
Q.54 K characteristic X-ray refers (4) Intensity
to the transition :-
Q.59 If X-rays is passed through
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 from strong magnetic field, then X-
(2) n = 3 to n = 2 rays :-
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 4 to n = 2 (1) Will deviate maximum
(2) Will deviate minimum
Q.55 X-rays are produced in X-ray (3) Undeviated
tube operating at a given (4) None of these
accelerating voltage. The
wavelength of the continuous X- Q.60 If the operating voltage of X-
rays has values from :- ray tube is 50 kv then velocity of X-
ray :-
(1) 0 to 
(2) min to , where min > 0 (1) 4 × 104 m/sec
(3) 0 to max, where  <  (2) 3 × 108 m/sec
(4) min to max, (3) 108 m/sec (4) 3 m/sec
where 0 < min < max <
Q.61 If voltage of X-ray tube is
Q.56 According to Mosley's law, the doubled then intensity of X-rays
frequency of a characteristic will :-
spectral line in X-ray spectrum
varies as :- (1) Halved
(2) Remains constant
(1) Atomic number of the element (3) Doubled (4) Quadrupled
(2) Square of the atomic
number of the element Q.62 In X-ray tube, wavelength of
(3) Square root of the atomic X-ray is the characteristic of :-
number of the element
(4) Fourth power of the atomic (1) Tube voltage
number of the element (2) Target material
(3) Filament current
Q.57 What determines the hardness (4) None of these
of the X-rays obtained from the
Coolidge tube :- Q.63 Pressure inside the X-ray tube
is :-
(1) Current in the filament
(2) Pressure of air in the tube (1) Equal to 740 mm of Hg
(3) Nature of target (2) Equal to 76 mm of Hg
(4) Potential difference between (3) Equal to 10–5 mm of Hg
cathode and target (4) Equal to 10–7 mm of Hg
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X-Rays Question Bank

Q.64 What is the minimum Q.70 What is the wavelength of the

wavelength of X-rays :- least energetic photon emitted in
the Lyman series of the hydrogen
(1) eV/hc atom spectrum ?
(2) hc/eV
(3) hc/e (1) 150 nm
(4) hc/V (2) 122 nm
(3) 102 nm
Q.65 For X-ray diffraction, order of
size of obstacle is :- (4) 82 nm

(1) 1 Å (2) 10 Å Q.71 Kinetic energy for Hydrogen

atom in first Bohr's orbit is :-
(3) 20 Å (4) 30 Å
(1) –13.6 eV
Q.66 Which of the following is the (2) 13.6 eV
wave length of X-ray :-
(3) –27.2 eV
(1) 10,000 Å (4) –6.5 eV
(2) 1000 Å
(3) 1Å Q.72 According to Bohr Model for
(4) 10–4 Å Hydrogen, radius is related as :-

Q.67 min of X-rays depends on :- (1) n2/Z

(2) n/Z
(1) Atomic number of target (3) n/Z2
(2) Energy of electron (4) n2/Z2
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these Q.73 Which of the following
statements is correct ?
Q.68 If vacuum tube is operated at
6.4 kV, what is the wavelength of (1) Lyman series is continuous
X-ray produced :- (2) Balmer series lies
in ultraviolet region
(1) 1.93Å
(3) Paschen series
(2) 1.53Å
lies in infrared region
(3) 2.67Å
(4) Brackett series lies
(4) 0.78Å
in visible region
Q.69 In Coolige tube the relation
Q.74 If the ionization potential of
between used voltage V and
minimum wavelength min is :- hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, its
energy in the n = 3 is
approximately.
(1) min  V
(2) min  V
1 (1) – 1.14 eV
(3) min  (2) – 1.51 eV
V
1 (3) – 3.4 eV
(4) min  (4) – 4.53 eV
V
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Modern Physics-I Question Bank

Q.1 An electron is accelerated Q.6 The de-Broglie wavelength of a

through a potential difference of neutron in thermal equilibrium with
10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength heavy water at a temperature T
is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31kg) (Kelvin) and mass m, is :-

(1) 12.2 × 10–13 m h 2h

(2) 12.2 × 10–12 m (1) (2)
3mkT 3mkT
(3) 12.2 × 10–14 m
2h h
(4) 12.2 nm (3) (4)
mkT mkT
Q.2 The work function of a
photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. Q.7 The photoelectric threshold
The longest wavelength of light that wavelength of silver is 3250 × 10–10
can cause photon emission from the m. The velocity of the electron
substance is (approximately). ejected from a silver surface by
ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536
(1) 3100 nm (2) 966 nm
× 10–10 m is :-
(3) 31 nm (4) 310 nm
(Given h = 4.14 x 10–15 eVs and c =
Q.3 A proton and an -particle are 3 × 108 ms–1)
accelerated from rest to the same
energy. The de Broglie wavelengths (1) ≈ 0.6 × 104 ms–1
p and  are in the ratio – (2) ≈ 61 × 103 ms–1
(3) ≈ 0.3 × 106 ms–1
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (4) ≈6 × 105 ms–1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
Q.8 An electron of mass m and a
Q.4 An electron of mass m with an
photon have same energy E. The
initial velocity V = V0î (V0 > 0) ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
enters an electric field E = –E0î (E0 associated with them is :-
constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its de-
Broglie wavelength initially, then its 1 1

de-Broglie wavelength at time t is :- 1 E  2  E  2

(1) (2) 
c  2m  
 2m 
0  eE0  1
(1) (2) 0  1 + t 1
1  2m  2
 eE0   mV0  (3) c(2mE) 2
(4)
1 + t
mV0  xc  E 

(3) 0 t (4) 0
Q.9 When a metallic surface is
Q.5 When the light of frequency 2v0 illuminated with radiation of
(where v0 is threshold frequency), wavelength , the stopping
is incident on a metal plate, the potential is V. If the same surface
maximum velocity of electrons is illuminated with radiation of
emitted is v1. When the frequency of wavelength 2, the stopping
the incident radiation is increased to potential is V/4. The threshold
5v0, the maximum velocity of wavelength for the metallic surface
electrons emitted from the same plate is :-
is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is –
(1) 4   (2) 5 
(1) 1:2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 (3) 5/2  (4) 3 

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Q.10 Photons with energy 5 eV are Q.14 Light of wavelength 500 nm is

incident on a cathode C in a incident on a metal with work
photoelectric cell. The maximum function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie
energy of emitted photoelectrons is wavelength of the emitted electron
2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV is –
are incident on C, no
photoelectrons will reach the anode (1) ≤ 2.8 × 10–12m
A, if the stopping potential of A (2) < 2.8 × 10–10m
relative to C is :- (3) < 2.8 × 10–9m
(1) – 1 V (2) – 3 V (4) ≥ 2.8 × 10–9m
(3) + 3 V (4) + 4
Q.15 A photoelectric surface is
Q.11 A certain metallic surface is
illuminated successively by
illuminated with monochromatic
monochromatic light of wavelength
light of wavelength, . The stopping
 and /2. If the maximum kinetic
potential for photo-electric current
energy of the emitted
for this light is 3V0. if the same
surface is illuminated with light of photoelectrons in the second case
wavelength 2, the stopping is 3 times that in the first case, the
potential is V0. The threshold work function of the surface of the
wavelength for this surface for material is :–
photoelectric effect is – (h = Plank's constant, c = speed of
light)
(1) 4 (2) /4
(3) /6 (4) 6 (1) hc/3 (2) hc/2
Q.12 A radiation of energy 'E' falls (3)hc/ (4) 2hc/
normally on a perfectly reflecting
surface. The momentum transferred Q.16 Light with an energy flux of 25
to the surface is (C = Velocity of × 104 Wm–2 falls on a perfectly
light) reflecting surface at normal
incidence. If the surface area is 15
2E 2E
(1) (2) cm2, the average force exerted on
C C2 the surface is :–
E E
(3) (4)
C2 C (1) 1.25 × 10–6 N
(2) 2.50 × 10–6 N
Q.13 Which of the following figures
(3) 1.20 × 10–6 N
represent the variation of particle
momentum and the associated de- (4) 3.0 × 10–6 N
Broglie wavelength ?
Q.17 When the energy of the
incident radiation is increased by
(1) (2) 20%, the kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons emitted from a
metal surface increased from 0.5
eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of
the metal is –

(3) (4) (1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.0 eV

(3) 1.3 eV (4) 1.5 eV

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Q.18 If the kinetic energy of the Q.23 An –particle moves in a

particle is increased to 16 times its circular path of radius 0.83 cm in
previous value, the percentage the presence of a magnetic field of
change in the de-Broglie wavelength 0.25 Wb/m2. The de Broglie
of the particle is :- wavelength associated with the
particle will be :–
(1) 25 (2) 75
(3) 60 (4) 50 (1) 10Å (2) 0.1Å
(3) 1Å (4) 0.01Å
Q.19 For photoelectric emission
from certain metal the cutoff
frequency is v. If radiation of Q.24 An electron of stationary
frequency 2v impinges on the metal hydrogen atom passes from the
plate, the maximum possible fifth energy level to the ground
velocity of the emitted electron will level. The velocity that the atom
be (m is the electron mass) – acquired a result of photon
emission will be –
(1) 2hv/m (2) hv/(2m)
(3) hv/m (4) 2hv/m (1) 25m/24hR (2) 24m/25hR
(3) 24hR/25m (4) 25hR/24m
Q.20 The wavelength e of an (m is the mass of the atom,
electron and P of a photon of same R, Rydberg constant and h Planck's
energy E are related by :- constant)
1 Q.25 If the momentum of an
(1) p  (2) p  2e
e electron is changed by P, then the
(3) P P (4) P e de Broglie wavelength associated
with it changes by 0.5%. The initial
Q.21 Monochromatic radiation momentum of electron will be –
emitted when electron on hydrogen
atom jumps from first excited to (1) P/200 (2) 100 P
the grounds state irradiates a (3) 200 P (4) 400 P
photosensitive material. The
stopping potential is measured to
Q.26 Photoelectric emission occurs
be 3.57V. The threshold frequency
only when the incident light has
of the material is :-
more than a certain minimum –
(1) 1.6 × 1015 Hz
(2) 2.5 × 1015 Hz (1) Power (2) Wavelength
(3) 4 × 1015 Hz (3) Intensity (4) Frequency
(4) 5 × 1015 Hz
Q.27 Light of two different
Q.22 A 200W sodium street lamp frequencies whose photons have
emits yellow light of wavelength energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
0.6 m. Assuming it to be 25% respectively illuminate a metallic
efficient converting electrical surface whose work function is 0.5
energy to light, the number of eV successively. Ratio of maximum
photons of yellow light it emits per speed of emitted electrons will be :-
second is :-
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 62 × 1020 (2) 3 × 1019
(3) 1.5 × 1020 (4) 6 × 1018 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
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Q.28 In photoelectric emission Q.33 An electron in the hydrogen

process from a metal of work atom jumps from excited state n to
function 1.8eV, the kinetic energy the ground state. The wavelength
of most energetic electrons is 0.5 so emitted illuminates a
eV. The corresponding stopping photosensitive material having
potential is :– work function 2.75 eV. If the
stopping potential of the
(1) 1.8 V (2) 1.3 V photoelectron is 10 V, then the
(3) 0.5 V (4) 2.3 V value of n is :-
Q.29 A radioactive nucleus of mass
M emits a photon of frequency v (1) 2 (2) 3
and the nucleus recoils. The recoil (3) 4 (4) 5
energy will be :-
Q.34 A source S1 is producing, 1015
2 2 2 2
(1) Mc – hv (2) h v / 2Mc photons per second of wavelength
(3) Zero (4) hv 5000 Å. Another source S2 is
producing 1.02 × 1015 photons per
Q.30 In the Davisson and Germer
second of wavelength 5100 Å.
experiment, the velocity of
Then, (power of, S2)/(power of S1)
electrons emitted from the electron
is equal to.
gun can be increased by.

(1) Increasing the potential difference (1) 0.98 (2) 1.00

between the anode and filament (3) 1.02 (4) 1.04
(2) Increasing the filament current
(3) Decreasing the filament current Q.35 The potential difference that
(4) Decreasing the potential must be applied to stop the fastest
difference between the anode photo electrons emitted by a nickel
and filament surface, having work function 5.01
eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm
Q.31 Electrons used in an electron falls on it, must be :-
microscope are accelerated by a
voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is (1) 1.2 V (2) 2.4 V
increased to 100 kV then the de-
Broglie wavelength associated with (3) –1. 2 V (4) –2.4 V
the electrons would :–
Q.36 The electron in the hydrogen
(1) Increase by 2 times atom jumps from excited state (n =
(2) Decrease by 2 times 3) to its ground state (n = 1 ) and
(3) Decrease by 4 times the photons thus emitted irradiate
(4) Increase by 4 times a photosensitive material. If the
work function of the material is 5.1
Q.32 The threshold frequency for a eV, the stopping potential is
photosensitive metal is 3.3 × 1014 estimated to be (the energy of the
Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × electron in nth state
1014Hz is incident on this metal, the 13.6
cut-off voltage for the photoelectric En = _ eV) : -
n2
emission is nearly :-

(1) 1V (2) 2 V (1) 12.1 V (2) 17.2 V

(3) 3 V (4) 5 V (3) 7 V (4) 5.1 V

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Q.37 The number of photo electrons Q.40 The work function of a surface
emitted for light of a frequency v of a photosensitive material is 6.2
(higher than the threshold eV. The wavelength of the incident
frequency v0) is proportional to :- radiation for which the stopping
potential is 5V lies in the :-
(1) Frequency of light (v)
(2) v – v0 (1) Infrared region
(2) X-ray region
(3) Threshold frequency (v0) (3) Ultraviolet region
(4) Intensity of light (4) Visible region

Q.38 Monochromatic light of Q.41 A 5 watt source emits

wavelength 667 nm is produced by monochromatic light of wavelength
a helium neon laser. The power 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it
emitted is 9 mW. The number of liberates photoelectrons from a
photons arriving per sec. on the photosensitive metallic surface.
average at a target irradiated by When the source is moved to a
this beam is :- distance of 1.0 m, the number of
photo electrons liberated will :-
(1) 3 × 1019
(2) 9 × 1017 (1) Be reduced by a factor of 2
(2) Be reduced by a factor of 4
(3) 3 × 1016
(3) Bereducedbyafactorof8
(4) 9 × 1015 (4) Be reduced by a factor of 16

Q.39 The figure Q.42 Monochromatic light of

shows a plot of 14
frequency 6.0 × 10 Hz is produced
photo current by a laser. The power emitted is 2
versus anode × 10–3 W. The number of photons
potential for a emitted, on the average, by the
photo sensitive source per second is :-
surface for
three different radiations. Which (1) 5 × 1014 (2) 5 × 1015
one of the following is a correct (3) 5 × 1016 (4) 5 × 1017
statement ?
Q.43 A photo–cell employs
(1) Curves (b) and (c)represent photoelectric effect to convert :–
incident radiations of same
frequency having same intensity (1) Change in the frequency of light
(2) Curves (a) and (b) Represent into a change in electric voltage
incident Radiations Of Different (2) Change in the intensity
frequencies and different intensities of illumination into a change
(3) Curves (a) and (b) represent in photoelectric current
incident radiations of same (3) Change in the intensity of
frequency but of different intensities illumination into a change in the work
(4) Curves (b) and (c) function of the photocathode
represent incident radiations (4) Change in the frequency
of different frequencies and of light into a change in
different intensities the electric current

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Q.44 When photons of energy hv Q.49 The kinetic energy of most

fall on an aluminium plate (of work energetic electrons emitted from a
function E0), photoelectrons on metallic surface is doubled when
maximum kinetic energy K are the wavelength of the incident
ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is changed from 400 nm
radiation is doubled, the maximum to 310 nm the work-function of the
kinetic energy of the ejected metal is :–
photoelectrons will be :-
(1) 0.9 eV (2) 1.7 eV
(1) K + E0 (2) 2K
(3) 2.2 eV (4) 3.1 eV
(3) K (4) K + hv

Q.45 The momentum of a photon of Q.50 If the light of wavelength  is

energy 1MeV in kg m/s, will be – incident on metal surface, the
ejected fastest electron has speed
(1) 0.33 × 106 (2) 7 × 10–24 v. If the wavelength is changed to
(3) 10–22 (4) 5 × 10–22 3/4, the speed of fastest emitted
electron will be :–
Q.46 A laser beam ( = 633 nm)
has an power of 3 mW. What will (1) Smaller than 4/3 v
be the pressure exerted on a (2) Greater than 4/3 v
surface by this beam if the cross (3) 2v (4) Zero
sectional area is 3 mm2. (Assume
perfect reflection and normal Q.51 When a certain metallic
incidence). surface is illuminated with mono-
chromatic light of wave length ,
(1) 6.6 × 10–3 N/m2 the stopping potential for photo
(2) 6.6 × 10–6 N/m2 electric current is 6V0. When the
(3) 6.6 × 10–9 N/m2 same surface is illuminated with
(4) 6.6 N/m2 light of wave length 2, the
stopping potential is 2V0. The
Q.47 The frequency of the incident threshold wavelength of this
light falling on a photosensitive surface for photoelectric effect is :-
metal plate is doubled, the kinetic
energy of the emitted (1) 6 (2) 4/3
photoelectrons is – (3) 4 (4) 8
(1) Double of the earlier value
(2) Unchanged Q.52 Two separate monochromatic
(3) More than double light beams A and B of the same
(4) Less than double intensity are falling normally on a
unit area of a metallic surface.
Q.48 The threshold wavelength of Their wavelength are A and B
tungsten is 2300 Å. If ultra violet respectively. Assuming that all the
light of wavelength 1800 Å is incident light is used in ejecting the
incident on it, then the maximum photoelectrons, the ratio of the
kinetic energy of photoelectrons number of photoelectrons from the
would be – beam A to that from B is :-

(1) 1.5 eV (2) 2.2 eV (1) (A/B)2 (2) A/B

(3) 3.0 eV (4) 5.0 eV (3) B/A (4) 1
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Q.53 Threshold wavelength for Q.57 In a photoelectric experiment

photoelectric emission from a metal the graph of frequency  of incident
surface is 5200 Å. Photoelectrons light (in Hz) and stopping potential
will be emitted when this surface is V (in volt) is shown below. From
illuminated with monochromatic figure the value of the Planck's
radiation from. constant is (e is the elementary
charge)
(1) 1 W IR lamp
(2) 50 W UV lamp ab
(1) e
(3) 50 W IR lamp cb
(4) 10 W IR lamp cb
(2) e
ab
Q.54 The work functions for metals ac
(3) e
A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, bc
2.0 eV and 5eV. According to ac
Einstein's equation, the metals (4) e
ab
which will emit photo electrons for
a radiation of wavelength 4100Å Q.58 Light of frequency 1015 Hz
is/are :– falls on a metal surface of work
function 2.5 eV. The stopping
(1) None (2) A only potential of photoelectrons in volts
(3) A and B only is :-
(4) All the three metals
(1) 1.6 (2) 2.5
Q.55 A photosensitive metallic (3) 4.1 (4) 6.6
surface has work function, hv0. If
photons of energy 2hv0 fall on this Q.59 Work function of potassium
surface, the electrons come out metal is 2.30 eV. When light of
with a maximum velocity of 4 ×106 14
frequency 8 × 10 Hz is incident on
m/s. When the photon energy is the metal surface, photoemission of
increased to 5hv0, then maximum electrons occurs. The stopping
velocity of photo electrons will be. potential of the electrons will be
equal to :-
(1) 2 × 107 m/s (2) 2 × 106m/s
(3) 8 × 105 m/s (1) 0.1 V (2) 1.0 V
(4) 48 × 106 m/s (3) 2.3 V (4) 3.3 V

Q.56 A 500 watt bulb is placed at Q.60 The threshold frequency for a
the centre of a perfectly black certain photosensitive metal is 0.
sphere of radius R = 1 metre. The When it is illuminated by light of
approximate pressure experienced frequency  = 2 0, the maximum
by the walls of the sphere as it velocity of photoelectrons is v0.
absorbs all the photon emited by What will be the maximum velocity
the bulb is (take 4 = 12.6) of the photoelectrons when the
same metal is illuminated by light
(1) 1.3 × 10–7 N/m2 of frequency  = 50 ?
(2) 2.5 × 10–7 N/m2
(3) 6.3 × 10–7 N/m2 (1) 2v0 (2) 2v0
(4) 3.14 × 10–7 N/m2 (3) 22v0 (4) 4v0

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Q.61 proton moves on a circular Q.63 An electron with (rest mass

path of radius 6.6 × 10–3 m in a m0) moves with a speed of 0.8C. Its
perpendicular magnetic field of mass when it moves with this
0.625 tesla. The De broglie speed is :-
wavelength associated with the
proton will be :- (1) m0
(2) m0/6
(1) 1Å (3) 5m0/3
(2) 0.1Å (4) 3m0/5
(3) 0.01Å
(4) 0.001Å Q.64 We wish to see inside an
atom. Assuming the atom to have a
Q.62 The velocity at which the diameter of 10 pm, this means that
mass of a particle becomes twice of one If an must be able to resolve a
its rest mass, will be – width of say 10 pm. electron
microscope is used, the minimum
(1) 2c/3 electron energy required is about :-
(2) c/2
(3) c3/2 (1) 15 kev
(4) 3c/4 (2) 1.5 kev
(3) 150 keV
(4) 1.5 Mev

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Q.1 -particle consists of :- 27

Q.6 If radius of the 13 AI nucleus is
taken to be RAI then the radius of
(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only 125
53 Te nucleus is nearly :-
(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons
and 2 neutrons
5 3
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only (1) R AI (2) R AI
(4) 2 protons only 3 5
1/3 1/3
 13   53 
(3)   R AI (4)   R AI
Q.2 The rate of radioactive  53   13 
disintegration at an instant for a
radioactive sample of half life 2.2 × Q.7 A nucleus of uranium decays at
109 s is 1010 s–1. The number of rest into nuclei of Thorium and
radioactive atoms in that sample at Helium. Then :-
that instant is.
(1) The Helium nucleus has less kinetic
(1) 3.17 × 1020 energy than the Thorium nucleus
(2) 3.17 × 1017 (2) The Helium has more kinetic
(3) 3.17 × 1018 energy than the Thorium nucleus.
(4) 3.17 × 1019 (3) The Helium nucleus
has less momentum
Q.3 For a radioactive material, half- than the Thorium nucleus.
life is 10 minutes. If initially there (4) The Helium nucleus
are 600 number of nuclei, the time has more momentum
taken (in minutes) for the than the Thorium nucleus.
disintegration of 450 nuclei is –
Q.8 A certain mass of Hydrogen is
(1) 20 (2) 10 changed to Helium by the process
(3) 30 (4) 15 of fusion. The mass defect in fusion
reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy
Q.4 Radioactive material 'A' has liberated per u is : (given 1u = 931
decay constant '8' and material 'B' MeV).
has decay constant ''. Initially they
(1) 13.35 MeV
have same number of nuclei. After
(2) 2.67 MeV
what time, the ratio of number of
(3) 26.7 MeV
nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will
(4) 6.675 MeV
be e ?
Q.9 The half life of a radioactive
(1) 1/7 (2) 1/8
isotope 'X' is 20 years. It decays to
(3) 1/9 (4) 1/
another element 'Y' which is stable.
The two elements 'X' and 'Y' were
Q.5 The half-life of a radioactive
found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a
substance is 30 minutes. The time
sample of a given rock. The age of
(in minutes) taken between 40%
the rock is estimated to be :-
decay and 85% decay of the same
radioactive substance is :-
(1) 100 years
(2) 40 years
(1) 45 (2) 60
(3) 60 years
(3) 15 (4) 30 (4) 80 years

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Q.10 If the nuclear radius of 27Al is Q.15 A nucleus m n X emits one 

3.6 Fermi, the approximate nuclear particle and two – particles. The
radius of 64Cu in Fermi is :- resulting nucleus is :–
m_6 m_6
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.6 (1) n_4 Z (2) n Z
m_4 m_4
(3) 2.4 (4) 1.2 (3) n X (4) n_2 Y

Q.11 A mixture consists of two Q.16 Two radioactive nuclei P and

radioactive materials A1 and A2 Q in a given sample decay into a
with half lives of 20 s and 10 s stable nucleus R. At time t = 0,
respectively. Initially the mixture number of P species are 4 N0 and
has 40 g of A1 and 160g of A2. The that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for
active amount of the two in the conversion to R) is 1 minute where
mixture will becomes equal after :- as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
there are no nuclei of R present in
(1) 20s (2) 40s the sample. When number of nuclei
of P and Q are equal, the number of
(3) 60s (4) 80s nuclei of R present in the sample
would be :-
Q.12 The half life of a radioactive
nucleus is 50 days. The time (1) 2N0 (2) 3N0
interval (t2 – t1) between the time (3) 9N0/2 (4) 5N0/2
t2 when 2/3 of it has decayed and
the time t1 when 1/3 of it had Q.17 The mass of a 73 Li nucleus is
0.042 u less than the sum of the
decayed is :-
masses of all its nucleons. The
binding energy per nucleon 73 Li of
(1) 60 days (2) 15 days
nucleus is nearly :-
(3) 30 days (4) 50 days
(1) 23 MeV (2) 46 MeV
Q.13 The power obtained in a (3) 5.6 MeV (4) 3.9 MeV
reactor using U235 disintegration is
1000 kW. The mass decay of U235 Q.18 The activity of a radioactive
per hour is :- sample is measured N0 counts per
minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per
(1) 10 microgram minute at t = 5 minutes. The time
(2) 20 microgram (in minutes) at which the activity
(3) 40 microgram reduces to half its value is :-
(4) 1 microgram (1) 5 loge 2 (2) loge 2/5
(3) 5/loge2 (4) 5 log10 2
Q.14 The half life of a radioactive
isotope 'X' is 50 years. It decays to Q.19 The binding energy per
another element 'Y' which is stable. nucleon in deuterium and helium
The two elements 'X' and 'Y' were nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV,
found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in respectively. When two deuterium
a sample of a given rock. The age of nuclei fuse to form a helium
the rock was estimated to be :- nucleus the energy released in the
fusion is :-
(1) 150 years (2) 200 years
(1) 2.2 MeV (2) 28.0 MeV
(3) 250 years (4) 100 years (3) 30.2 MeV (4) 23.6 MeV

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Q.20 The decay constant of a radio Q.25 The binding energy of deutron
isotope is . If A1 and A2 are its is 2.2 MeV and that of 24 He is 28
activities at times t1 and t2
MeV. If two deutrons are fused to
respectively, the number of nuclei
form one 24 He then the energy
which have decayed during the
time (t1 – t2) :- released is :-

(1) A1 – A2 (2) (A1 – A2)/ (1) 25.8 MeV

(3) (A1 – A2) (4) A1t1 – A2t2 (2) 23.6 MeV
(3) 19.2 MeV
Q.21 The number of beta particles
emitted by a radioactive substance (4) 30.2 MeV
is twice the number of alpha
particles emitted by it. The Q.26 The radius of Germanium (Ge)
resulting daughter is an – nuclide is measured to be twice the
radius of 94 Be. The number of
(1) Isotope of parent nucleons in Ge are –
(2) Isobar of parent
(3) Isomer of parent (1) 73 (2) 74
(4) Isotone of parent (3) 75 (4) 72
Q.22 In the nuclear decay given
Q.27 In a radioactive material the
below :-
A A A_4 A_4 activity at time t1 is R1 and at a
Z X  Z + 1Y  Z _ 1 B*  Z _ 1 B, the
later time t2, it is R2. If the decay
particles emitted in the sequence constant of the material is , then :
are :-
(1) R1 = R2 e–(t1–t2)
(1) , ,  (2) , , 
(2) R1 = R2e(t1–t2)
(3) ,  ,  (4) , , 
(3) R1 = R2 (t2/t1)
Q.23 If the nucleus 13 27
A has a (4) R1 = R2
nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, the
125 Q.28 The amount of U235 to be
52 Te would have its radius
fissioned, to operate 10 kW nuclear
approximately as :- reactor is (Approximately)
(1) 4.8 fm (2) 6.0 fm
(1) 1.2 × 10–5 g/s
(3) 9.6 fm (4)12.0 fm
(2) 1.2 × 10–7 g/s
Q.24 In radioactive decay process, (3) 1.2 × 10–9 g/s
the negatively charged emitted - (4) 1.2 × 10–13 g/s
particles are :-
Q.29 A source of energy of 100 W is
(1) The electrons orbiting producing energy by fission of 1 kg
around the nucleus U235. How long it can kept
(2) The electrons
generation of energy :- (approx)
present inside the nucleus
(3) The electrons producedasa
(1) 2.5 × 104yr
result of the decay of neutrons
inside the nucleus (2) 106 s
(4) The electrons produced as a (3) 8.6 × 107yr
result of collisions between toms (4) 100 yr

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Q.30 A nuclear fusion reaction is Q.35 We are given the following

given below : 1H2 + 1H2  2He3 + n atomic masses –
238
+ 3.2MeV. U = 238.05079 u 234Th =
How much energy will be generated 234.04363 u 4He = 4.00260 u.
when 2 kg of deuterons are fused : The energy released during the
(approx) alpha decay of 238U is :-

(1) 1030 eV (1) 6.00 Mev (2) 4.25 Mev

(2) 5 × 1023 MeV (3) 3.75 Mev (4) 5.03 Mev
(3) 1022 MeV
(4) 1033 eV Q.36 Fission of one nucleus 92U235
releases 250 Mev of energy. The
Q.31 Energy released by 1 kg. U235, number of fissions per second
when it is fissoned. required to produce 1 MW power is.

(1) 8 × 1010 KWH (1) 9.2 × 1017

(2) 5 × 1030 eV (2) 6.3 × 1023
(3) 1010 Joule (3) 1.6 × 1019
(4) 5 × 1026 MeV
(4) 2.5 × 1016
Q.32 A  ray photon produces an
Q.37 A 6C12 nucleus is to divided
electron positron pair, If the rest
into 3 alpha particles. The amount
mass energy of electron is 0.51 Mev
of energy required to achieve this
and the total kinetic energy of
(mass of an alpha particle =
electron positron pair is 0.78 MeV
4.00388 u) is –
then the energy of  ray - photon in
Mev is :-
(1) 0.405 MeV
(1) 0.78 (2) 1.8 (2) 10.837 MeV
(3) 1.28 (4) 0.28 (3) 8.133 MeV
(4) 12.573 MeV
Q.33 The total energy of an
electron is 3.555 MeV, then its Q.38 The radius of a spherical
Kinetic energy is :– nucleus as measured by electron
scattering is 3.6 fm. What is the
(1) 3.545 MeV likely mass number of the nucleus ?
(2) 3.045 MeV
(3) 3.5 MeV (1) 27 (2) 40
(4) None (3) 56 (4) 120

Q.34 Radius of nucleus varies as R Q.39 A nucleus of mass number

= R0(A)1/3, where R = 1.3 fermi. 220, initially at rest, emits an –
What is the volume of Be8 nucleus particle. If the Q value of the
(approx) [A = atomic mass] reaction is 5.5 MeV, the energy of
the emitted -particle will be –
(1) 7 × 10–38 cc
(2) 7 × 10–29 cc
(1) 4.8 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
(3) 7 × 10–45 cc
(4) None of the above (3) 7.5 MeV (4) 6.8 MeV

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Q.40 The binding energy of Q.45 7/8 fraction of a sample

2
deuteron (1 H) is 1.15 MeV per disintegrates in t time. How much
nucleon and an alpha particle (24 H) time it will take to disintegrate
15/16 fraction :-
has binding energy of 7.1 MeV per
nucleon. Then in the reaction
3 2 4
(1) t (2) 4/3 t
1 H + 1H  2He + Q the energy Q Is :– (3) 5/3 t (4) 2t

(1) 33.0 Mev (2) 28.4 Mev Q.46 A radioactive material decays
(3) 23.8 Mev (4) 4.6 Mev by simultaneous emission of two
particles with respective half-lives
Q.41 A radioactive nucleus ZXA 1620 and 810 years. The time (in
emite 3 -particles and 5 - years) after which one-fourth of
particles. The ratio of number of the material remains is :-
neutrons to that of protons in the
product nucleus will be – (1) 1080 (2) 2430
(3) 3240 (4) 4860
(1) A-Z-12/Z-6
(2) A-Z/Z-1 Q.47 If Nt= N0e–t then number of
(3) A-Z-11/Z-6 disintegrated atoms between t1 to
(4) A-Z-11/Z-1 t2 (t2> t1) will be :–

Q.42 The activity of a radioactive (1) N0 [et2– et1]

sample is 9750 carts/min at t = 0 (2) N0 [e–t2– e–t1]
and 975 counts/minute at t = 5 (3) N0 [e–t1– e–t2]
minute. The decay constant is (4) None
approx :–
Q.48 The half life of a radioactive
(1) 0.922 min–1 material is T. After T/2 time, the
(2) 0.691 min–1 material left is :-
(3) 0.461 min–1
(4) 0.230 min–1 (1) 1/2 (2) 3/4
(3) 1/2 (4) (2-1)/2
Q.43 Initial ratio of active nuclei in
two different samples is 2 : 3. Their Q.49 The half life of a radioactive
half lives are 2hr and 3hr element is 30 days, in 90 days the
respectively. Ratio of their activities percentage of disintegrated part is.
at the end of 12hr is –
(1) 13.5% (2) 46.5%
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 6 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 (3) 87.5% (4) 90.15%

Q.44 A radioactive sample Q.50 The half life of a radioactive

disintegrates by 10% during one element is 10 days. If the mass of
month. How much fraction will the specimen reduces to (1/10)th
disintegrate in four months – then the time taken is –

(1) 34.39% (2) 40% (1) 100 days (2) 50 days

(3) 38% (4) 50% (3) 33 days (4) 16 days

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Q.51 N atoms of a radioactive Q.56 The activity of a sample of a

element emits n alpha particles per redioactive material is A1, at time
second. The half life of the element t1, and A2, at time t2, (t2 >t1). If its
is – mean life is T, then :–

(1) n/N seconds (1) A1t1 = A2t2

(2) N/n seconds (2) A2 = A1e(t1–t2)/T
(3) 0.693 N/n seconds (3) A1 – A2 = t2 – t1
(4) 0.693 n/N seconds (4) A2=A1e(t1–t2)T

Q.52 Binding energy of deuterium Q.57 The half life of a radioactive

is 2.23 Mev, then its mass defect in substance against  decay is 1.2 ×
a.m.u. is :- 107s. What is the decay rate for 4.0
× 1015 atoms of the substance ?
(1) –0.0024 (2) –0.0012
(3) 0.0012 (4) 0.0024 (1) 4.6 × 1012 atoms/s
(2) 2.3 × 1011 atoms/s
Q.53 200 MeV of energy can be (3) 4.6 × 1010 atoms/s
obtained by per fission. In a reactor (4) 2.3 × 108 atoms/s
generating 1000 kW find the
number of nuclei under going the Q.58 There are two radio nuclei A
fission per second :- and B. A is an alpha emitter and B
is a beta emitter. Their
(1) 1000 (2) 2 × 108 disintegration constants are in the
(3) 3.125 × 1016 (4) 931 ratio of 1 : 2. What should be the
ratio of number of atom of A and B
Q.54 Conside the following reaction. at any time t so that probabilities of
1 3 2 2
1H + 1H  1H + 1H. getting alpha and beta particles are
The atomic masses are given as – same at that instant –
m (11H) = 1.007825 u
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
m (12 H) = 2.014102 u
(3) e (4) e–1
m (13H) = 3.016049 u
The Q – value of the above reaction Q.59 What is energy released in the
will be – -decay of 32p 32S ? (Given :
atomic masses : 31.97391 u for 32P
(1) –4.03 MeV and 31.97207 u for 32S)
(2) –2.01 MeV
(3) 2.01 MeV (1) –1.2 Mev (2) +1.7 Mev
(4) 4.03 MeV (3) +2.1 Mev (4) –0.9 Mev

Q.55 10 gram of radioactive Q.60 The radioactive decay

90 –10 –1
material of half-life 15 years is kept constant of 38 Sr is 7.88 × 10 s .
in a box for 20 years. The The activity of 15 mg of this isotope
disintegrated material is :- will be –

(1) 10.2 g (2) 6.03 g (1) 1.5 Ci (2) 2.13 Ci

(3) 4.03 g (4) 12.6 (3) 7.88 Ci (4) 8.76 Ci
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Q.61 A radioactive substance emits Q.63 238

92 U
emits 8 -particle and 6
n beta particles in the first 2 -particles. The neutron/proton
seconds and 0.5 n beta particles in ratio in the product nucleus is :-
the next 2 seconds. Then mean life
of the sample is ? (1) 60/41
(2) 61/40
(1) 4s (3) 62/41
(2) 2s (4) 61/42
(3) 2/(IN2) s
(4) 2(In2)s

Q.62 Two radioactive materials X1

and X2 decay constants 6 and 3
respectively. If initially they have
the same number of nuclei, then
the ratio of the number of nuclei of
X1 to that of X2 will be 1/e after a
time –

(1) 1/6  (2) 1/3 

(3) 3/6  (4) 6/9 

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Q.1 The total energy of an electron Q.6 Electrons of mass m with de-
in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its Broglie wavelength  fall on the
kinetic and potential energies are, target in an X-ray tube. The cut off
respectively. wavelength (0) of the emitted X-
ray is :-
(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV 2m 2c 22
(1) 0 = (2) 0 = 
(3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV h2
(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV 2mc 2 2h
(3) 0 = (4) 0 =
h mc
Q.2 The radius of the first
permitted Bohr orbit for the Q.7 If an electron in a hydrogen
electron, in a hydrogen atom equals atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to
0.51 Å and its ground state energy the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of
equals –13.6 eV. If the electron in wavelength . When it jumps from
the hyrogen atom is replaced by the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the
muon (–) [charge same as electron corresponding wavelength of the
photon will be :-
and mass 207 me], the first Bohr
radius and ground state energy will 20 20
be :– (1)  (2) 
7 13
16 9
(1) 0.53 × 10–13 m, –3.6 eV (3)  (4) 
(2) 25.6 × 10–13 m, –2.8 eV 25 16
(3) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –2.8 keV Q.8 Consider 3rd orbit of He+
(4) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –13.6 eV (Helium), using non-relativistic
approach, the speed of electron in
Q.3 The ratio of kinetic energy to this orbit will be. [given K 9 × 109
the total energy of an electron in a constant, Z = 2 and h (Planck's
Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is. Constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1 (1) 1.46 × 106 m/s

(3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –2 (2) 0.73 × 106 m/s
(3) 3.0 × 108m/s
Q.4 The ratio of wavelengths of the (4) 2.92 × 106 m/s
last line of Balmer series and the Q.9 In the spectrum of hydrogen,
last line of Lyman series is – the ratio of the longest wavelength
in the Lyman series to the longest
(1) 1 (2) 4
wavelength in the Balmer series is :
(3) 0.5 (4) 2
(1) 5/27 (2) 4/9
Q.5 Given the value of Rydberg (3) 9/4 (4) 27/5
constant is 107 m–1, the wave
number of the last line of the Q.10 Hydrogen atom is ground
Balmer series in hydrogen state is excited by a monochromatic
spectrum will be :- radiation of  = 975 Å. Number of
spectral lines in the resulting
(1) 0.025 × 104 m–1 spectrum emitted will be –
(2) 0.5 × 107 m–1
(3) 0.25 × 107 m–1 (1) 3 (2) 2
(4) 2.5 × 107 m–1 (3) 6 (4) 10

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Q.11 Ratio of longest wavelengths Q.16 The ionization energy of the

corresponding to Lyman and electron in the hydrogen atom in its
Balmer series in hydrogen ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms
spectrum is :- are excited to higher energy levels
to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths.
(1) 9/31 (2) 5/27 Maximum wavelength of emitted
(3) 3/23 (4) 7/29 radiation corresponds to the
transition between :-
Q.12 The transition from the state n
= 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like (1) n = 4 to n = 3 states
atom results in ultraviolet (2) n = 3 to n = 2 states
radiation. Infrared radiation will be (3) n = 3 to n = 1 states
obtained in the transition from :- (4) n = 2 to n = 1 states

Q.17 The ground state energy of

(1) 4  2
hydrogen atom is –13.6eV. When
(2) 4  3
its electron is in the first excited
(3) 2  1
state, its excitation energy is –
(4) 3  2
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 0
Q.13 The wavelength of the first (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 e
line of Lyman series for hydrogen
atom is equal to that of the second Q.18 The energy of a K- electron in
line of Balmer series for a hydrogen tungsten is –20 keV and of an L-
like ion. The atomic number Z of electrons is –2 keV. The wave
hydrogen like ion is :- length of X-rays emitted when
there is electron jump from L to K
(1) 3 (2) 4 shell :-
(3) 1 (4) 2
(1) 0.3443 Å (2) 0.6887 Å
Q.14 Out of the following which one (3) 1.3982 Å (4) 2.78 Å
is not a possible energy for a
photon to be emitted by hydrogen Q.19 An X-ray tube when operated
atom according to Bohr's atomic at 60 kV, then reading of tube
model ? current is 50 mA. Assuming that
the total energy of electron is
(1) 0.65 eV converted into heat, the rate of
(2) 1.9 eV heat produced at the anode in
(3) 11.1 eV calories/sec is about :-
(4) 13.6 eV
(1) 100 (2) 300
(3) 500 (4) 714
Q.15 The energy of a hydrogen
atom in the ground state is –13.6 Q.20 The wavelength of K– line
eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the characteristic X-rays emitted by an
first excited state will be. element is 0.32Å. The wavelength
of K– line emitted by the same
(1) –6.8 eV element will be :–
(2) –13.6eV
(3) –27.2 eV (1) 0.27Å (2) 0.32Å
(4) –54.4 eV (3) 0.39Å (4) 0.2Å
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Q.21 The ionisation energies of K- Q.24 In producing X-rays a beam of

shell for cobalt, copper, and electrons accelerated by a potential
molebdenum are 7.8, 9.0 and 20.1 difference V is made to strike a
keV respectively. If any metal out metal target. For what value of V of
of these is used as target in an X- the following X-rays have the
ray tube operated at 15KV, then :- lowest wavelength :-

(1) The K-series of characteristic X-ray (1) 10 kV (2) 20 kV

will be emitted by Co only (3) 30 kV (4) 40 kV
(2) The K-series of characteristic X-rays
will be emitted by Cu and Co only Q.25 The wavelength of K X-rays
(3) The K-series of characteristic X-rays produced by an X-ray tube is 0.76
will be emitted by Cu, Co and Mo Å. The atomic number of the anode
(4) The minimum wavelength material of the tube is :-
ofcontinuous X-rays emitted by
(1) 20 (2) 60
the three metals will
(3) 41 (4) 80
not be same
Q.26 Energy levels A,B and C of a
Q.22 The intensity of light pulse certain atom correspond to
travelling in an optical fibre increasing values of energy i.e. EA <
decrease according to the relation I EB < EC. If 1, 2 and 3 are wave
= I0e–x The intensity of light is lengths of radiations corresponding
reduced to 20 % of its initial value to transitions C to B, B to A and C to
after a distance x equal to. A respectively, which of the
following relations is correct :-
(1) log(1/)
(1) 3 = 1 + 2
(2) log

(2) 3 = 1 2
(3) (log5)/ 1 + 2
(4) log(5/) (3) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0
(4) 23 = 12 + 22

Q.23 The potential difference Q.27 What is the approximate ratio

applied to an X-ray tube is
of wavelength of radiation K1 and
increased. As a result, in the
K2 when atomic number of first
emitted radiation :-
target is Z1 target = 64 and atomic
(a) He intensity increases
number of second is Z2 = 80 –
(b) The minimum wavelength
Increases (1) 1/4 (2) 1/16
(c) The intensity remains (3) 2/5 (4) 25/16
unchanged
(d) The minimum wavelength Q.28 The ionization potential of the
decreases hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. The
energy needed to ionize a hydrogen
(1) a, b atom which is in its first excited
(2) c, d state is about.
(3) a, d (1) 13.6 eV (2) 10.2 eV
(4) b, c (3) 3.4 eV (4) 1.5 eV

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Q.29 Ionization potential of Q.31 The electron of a hydrogen

hydrogen is 13.6 volt. If it is atom revolves round the proton in a
excited by a photon of energy 12.1 circular nth orbit of radius
eV, then the number of lines in the 2 2
 nh e2
emission spectrum will be – rn = 0 with a speed υ 0 =
(me2 ) 0nh
The current due to the circulating
(1) 2 (2) 3
charge is proportional to –
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) e2 (2) e3
Q.30 If electron in a hydrogen atom
(3) e5 (4) e6
has moved from n = 1 to n = 10
orbit, the potential energy of the
system has.

(1) Increased
(2) Decreased
(3) Remained unchanged
(4) Become zero

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   
Q.1 A particle Q.5 If A×B = 3A.B, then the value
moving

the velocity
 
V is Acted by three of A+B is :
forces shown by the
vector triangle PQR.
The velocity of the (1) (A2 + B2 + AB/3)1/2
particle will :- (2) A+B
(3) (A2 + B2 + 3 AB)1/2
(1) Increase (4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
(2) Decrease
 
(3) Remain constant Q.6 The vectors A and B are such
   
(4) Change according that A +B = A _ B . The angle
to the smallest force  
between vectors A and B is –
Q.2 If the magnitude of sum of two
vectors is equal to the magnitude of (1) 90o (2) 60o
difference of the two vectors, the (3) 75o (4) 45o
angle between these vectors is :-
Q.7 As  increases from 00 to 900,
(1) 00 (2) 900 the value of cos  :-
(3) 450 (4) 1800 (1) Increases
(2) Decreases

Q.3 If vectors A = cos tî + sintĵ (3) Remains constant
 (4) First decreases then increases.
and B = cos(t/2)î + sin(t/2)ĵ are
functions of time, then the value of
t at which they are orthogonal to Q.8 The greatest value of the
each other is function -5 sin  + 12 cos  is –

(1) t = 0 (2) t = /4 (1) 12 (2) 13

(3) t = /2 (4) t = / (3) 7 (4) 17

  Q.9 The coordinate of a particle

Q.4 Six vectors, a through f have
moving in XY-plane vary with time
the magnitudes and directions
as X = 4t2 ; 2t. The locus of the
indicated in the figure. Which of the
particle is a :-
following statements is true ?
(1) Straight line (2) circle
(3) Parabola (4) ellipse

Q.10 A particle moves along the

straight line Y = 3X + 5. Which
coordinate changes at a faster
rate?
  
(1) b+e=f
   (1) X - coordinate
(2) b+c= f (2) Y - coordinate
  
(3) d+c= f (3) Both X and Y coordinate
  
(4) d+e=f (4) Data insufficient.

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Q.11 The slope of Q.16 The side of a square is

graph as shown in increases at the rate of 0.2 cm/s.
figure at points 1, 2 The rate of increases of perimeter
and 3 is m1, m2 and w.r.t. time is –
m3 respectively then.
(1) 0.2 cm/s
(1) m1 > m2 > m3 (2) 0.4 cm/s
(2) m1 < m2 < m3 (3) 0.6 cm/s
(3) m1 = m2 = m3 (4) 0.8 cm/s
(4) m1 = m2 > m3
Q.17 Frequency f of a simple
Q.12 Magnitude of slope of the pendulum depends on its
shown graph – length  and acceleration g due to
gravity according to the following
1 g
equation f = . Graph between
(1) First increases 2 
then decreases which of the following quantities is
(2) First decreases a straight line ?
then increases then
(3) Increases (1) F on the ordinate
(4) Decreases and  on the abscissa
(2) F on the ordinate
Q.13 The equation of a curve is
and  on the abscissa
given as Y = X2 + 2 – 3X. The curve
(3) F2 on the ordinate
intersects the X-axis at
and  on the abscissa
(1) 1, 0 (2) 2, 0 (4) F2 on the ordinate
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) No where and 1/ on the abscissa

Q.14 Two particle A and B are Q.18 The sum of the series
moving in XY-plane. Their positions 1 1 1
1+ + + +........ is –
vary with time t according to 4 16 64
relation
XA (t) = 3t, XB (t) = 6 (1) 8/7
YA (t) = T, YB (t) = 2 + 3t2 (2) 6/5
Distance between two particles at t (3) 5/4
= 1 is :– (4) 4/3

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2 Q.19 Which of the following

statements is false :-
Q.15 A particular straight line
passes through origin and a point
(1) Mass, speed and energy are scalars
whose abscissa is double of
(2) Momentum, force
ordinate of the point. The equation
and torque are vectors
of such straight line is :–
(3) Distance is a scalar while
X displacement is a vector
(1) Y = (2) Y = 2X (4) A vector has only magnitude
2
X whereas as a scalar has both
(3) Y = – 4X (4) Y = _ magnitude and direction
2
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Q.20 A physical quantity which has Q.25 If n  is a unit vector in the

a direction :- 
direction of the vector A then :-
(1) Must be a vector 
A  
(2) My be a vector 
(1) n=   AA
(2) n=
(3) Must be a scalar A
(4) None of the above 
A
 
(3) n= (4) None of the above
Q.21 Which of the following A
physical quantities is an axial  
vector Q.26 Two vectors A and B lie in a

plane, another vector C lies outside
(1) Displacement (2) Force this plane, then the resultant
(3) Velocity (4) torque   of
these three vector i.e. A + B + C :
Q.22 The forces, which meet at one
(1) Can be zero
point but their lines of action do not
(2) Cannot be zero
lie in one plane, are called :-
(3) Lies in the plane
 
(1) Non – coplanar and containing A & B
 
non – concurrent forces (4) Lies in the plane containing B& C
(2) Coplanar and
non – concurrent forces Q.27 In vector diagram shown in

(3) Non – coplanar and
concurrent forces
 
figure where R is the resultant of
 
(4) Coplanar and concurrent forces  
A vectors B and  
(1) If R = B/2 , then value of
Q.23 The direction of the angular
angle  is –
velocity vector is along :-

(1) Along the tangent of circular path

(2) Along the direction of radius vector
(3) Opposite to the
direction of radius vector
(4) Along the axis of rotation

Q.24 In the given figure, each box (1) 300 (2) 450
represents a function machine. A (3) 600 (4) 750
function machine illustrates what it
 
does with the input – Q.28 Two vector A and B are
  2 2
such that A + B = C and A + B =
C2. Which of the following
statements, is correct ?
Which of the following statements
is correct ?  
(1) A is parallel to B
 
(1) z = 2x+3 (2) z=2(x+3) (2) A is anti-parallel to B
 
(3) z = 2(x)+3 (3) A is perpendicular to B
 
(4) z = 2(x+3) (4) A and B are equal in magnitude

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 
Q.29 The minimum number of Q.36 If vector A and B are such
     
vector of equal magnitude required that, A + B = A + B , then A _ B
to produce a zero resultant is –
may be equated to –
(1) 2 (2) 3  
(3) 4 (4) More then 4 (1) 3/2 A (2) A
 
Q.30 How many minimum number (3) 2 A (4) 3 A
of vectors in different planes can be
added to give zero resultant ? Q.37 What is the maximum number
of components into which a vector
(1) 2 (2) 3 can be split ?
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 2 (2) 3
Q.31 Vector sum of two forces of (3) 4 (4) Infinite
10N and 6N cannot be :-
  
(1) 4N (2) 8N Q.38 If A + B = C and A + B = C,
 
(3) 12N (4) 2N then the angle between A and B is.

Q.32 How many minimum number (1) 0 (2) /4

of coplanar vectors having different (3) /2 (4) 
magnitudes can be added to give
zero resultant ?   
Q.39 The resultant of A & B is R1

(1) 2 (2) 3 On reversing the vector B, the

(3) 4 (4) 5 resultant become R 2 What is the
 
value of R12 + R22 ?
Q.33 What is the maximum number
of rectangular components into
which a vector can be split in its (1) A2 + B2 (2) A2 – B2
own plane ? (3) 2(A2 + B2) (4) 2(A2 – B2)
   
(1) 2 (2) 3 s Q.40 Given that P + Q = P _ Q. This
(3) 4 (4) Infinite can be true when :-
   
Q.34 Which of the following pair of (1) P = Q (2) Q = 0
forces will never give a resultant  
(3) Neither P nor Q
force of 2 N ?
is a null vector 
(1) 2 N and 2 N (2) 1 N and 1 N (4) P is perpendicular to Q
(3) 1 N and 3 N (4) 1 N and 4 N
 
Q.41 The resultant of A and B
Q.35 Which of the following sets of
makes an angle  with A and  with
concurrent of forces may be in 
equilibrium ? B , then :-

(1) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 1N (1)  < 

(2) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 9N (2)  <  if A < B
(3) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 6N (3)  <  if A > B
(4) F1 = 3N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 15N (4)  <  if A = B

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Q.42 What is the maximum number Q.48 The unit vector along î + ĵ is :
of rectangular components into
which a vector can be split in 
(1) k (2) î + ĵ
space?
(3) î + ĵ/2 (4) î + ĵ/2
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) Infinite Q.49 The unit vector parallel to the
resultant
   of   the _ vectors
Q.43 What happens, when be A = 4i + 3j + 6k, B = i + 3j 8k is :-
multiply a vector by (–2) ?
 _ 2k
(1) 1 / 7 3i+ 6j 
(1) Direction reverses and unit changes 
(2) Direction reverses and (2) 1 / 7 3i+ 6j
 + 2k


magnitude is doubled
(3) Direction remains (3) 1 / 49 3i+ 6j
 + 2k


uncharged and unit changes  _ 2k
(4) 1 / 49 3i+ 6j 

(4) None of these

Q.44 Two vector of equal Q.50 Forces 3N, 4N and 12N act at
magnitude have a resultant equal a point in mutually perpendicular
to either of them in magnitude. The direction. The magnitude of the
angle between them is :- resultant force is :-

(1) 600 (2) 900 (1) 19 N (2) 13 N

(3) 11 N (4) 5 N
(3) 1050 (4) 1200

Q.51 What is the angle between A

Q.45 If the sum of two unit vectors 
and the resultant of (A + B) and
is a unit vector, then the magnitude 
(A _ B)
 ?
of their difference is :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 00

(3) 1/2 (4) 5 (2) tan–1(A/B)
(3) tan–1(B/A)
Q.46 If a unit vector is represented (4) tan–1(A–B/A+B)
 , then the value
by 0.5î – 0.8 ĵ + c k
 = aî + bĵ is perpendicular
Q.52 If n
of ‘c’ is :-
to the vector (î + ĵ), then the value
of a and b may be :–
(1) 1 (2) 0.11
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.39 (1) 1, 0 (2) –2, 0
(3) 3, 0 (4) 1/2, –1/2
Q.47 The direction cosines of value
 are :-
of a vector î + ĵ + 2k Q.53 Given that A = B. What
 is the
angle between (A + B) and (A B) ?_
(1) 1/2, 1/2, 1
(2) 1/2, 1/2, 1/2
(1) 30o (2) 60o
(3) 1/2, 1/2, 1/2
(4) 1/2, 1/2, 1/2 (3) 90o (4) 180o

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Q.54 The vector sum of two forces Q.60 The angle that the vector
is perpendicular to their vector  = 2i+ 3j
A  makes with y-axis is :-
difference. In that case, the force :-
(1) tan–1(3/2) (2) tan–1(2/3)
(1) Are equal to each other
(3) sin–1(2/3) (4) cos–1(3/2)
(2) Are equal to each
other in magnitude 
(3) Are not equal to Q.61 Vector P makes angles ,  & 
each other in magnitude with the X, Y and Z axes
(4) Cannot be predicted respectively, then sin2  + sin2  +
sin2  =

Q.55 The
 magnitudes of vectors A , (1) 0 (2) 1

B and C are respectively 12, 5 and (3) 2 (4) 3
  
13 units and A + B = C , then the
 
angle between A and B is :- Q.62 A vector perpendicular to (4î–
3ĵ) may be –
(1) 0 (2) /3 
(3) /2 (4) /4 (1) 4î + 3 j 
(2) 7 k
(3) 6î (4) 3i – 4ĵ
Q.56 A vector perpendicular to (4î–
 
3ĵ) may be :- Q.63 The resultant of A and B is
 perpendicular to
 A 
. What is the
(1) 4î+3 j 
(2) 7 k angle between A and B ?
(3) 6î (4) 3i-4ĵ
(1) Cos–1(A/B) (2) Cos–1(-A/B)
Q.57 A force (3î+2ĵ) N displaces an (3) Sin–1(A/B) (4) Sin–1(-A/B)
object through a distance
 (2î -3ĵ)
m. The work (W =F.S) done is :- Q.64 What is the component of (3î
+ 4ĵ) along (î + ĵ) ?
(1) zero (2) 12 J
(3) 5 J (4) 13 J 1 3
(1) (ĵ + î) (2) (ĵ + î)
2 2
  5 7
Q.58 If
P.Q = PQ, then angle (3) (ĵ + î) (4) (ĵ + î)
  2 2
between P and Q is :-

 _ Sk
Q.65 The vector B = 5i+ 2j  is
(1) 0o (2) 30o
(3) 45o (4) 60o perpendicular to the vector if

   A = 3i+ j + 2k
 S=
Q.59 If vectors P , Q and R have
magnitudes 5, 12 and 13 units (1) 1 (2) 4.7
    and (3) 6.3 (4) 8.5
P + Q = R, the angle between Q and

R is :- 
Q.66 What is the projection of A
(1) Cos–1(5/12) and B ?
(2) Cos–1(5/13)   
(1) A.B (2) A.B
(3) Cos–1(12/13)  
(4) Cos–1(2/13) (3) B.A 
(4) A.B

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Q.67 The angle between vectors (î Q.73 If a vector (2i+ 3j  + 8k)

 is
 ) is :-
+ ĵ) and (ĵ + K perpendicular to the vector
 _  
(4j 4i + k), then the value of  is.
(1) 90o (2) 180o
(3) 0o (4) 60o
(1) –1 (2) 1/2
Q.68 The angle between the two (3) –1/2 (4) 1

vectors A = 3i+ 4j
 + 5k
 and  
 Q.74 If A = 3i + 4j and B = 6i + 8j
 _ 5k
B = 3i+ 4j  will be :-
andA and B are the magnitudes
of A and B , then which of the
(1) Zero (2) 180o
following is not true ?
(3) 90o (4) 45o
  
 (1) A × B = 0
Q.69 Let A = i Acos + j Asin, be
 A 1
any vector. Another vector B which (2) =

is normal A to is :-   2
B
(3) A.B = 48
(4) A = 5
(1) i Bcos + j Bsin
(2) i Bsin + j Bcos  are unit vectors
Q.75 If î, ĵ and k
(3) i Bsin _ j Bcos along X, Y & Z axis respectively,
then tick the wrong statement :-
(4) i Acos _ j Asin
 (1) î.î = 1
Q.70 The vector P = ai+ aj
 + 3k
 and
(2) î×ĵ = k 

Q = ai _ 2j
_k
 are perpendicular to (3) î.ĵ = 0
(4) î× k  = –î
each other. The positive value of a
is :-
Q.76 The magnitude of the

vector

(1) 3 (2) 2 product of two vectors A and B
(3) 1 (4) zero may not be :-

Q.71 A force F = (3i + 4j)
 N acts on a (1) Greater than AB
(2) Less than AB
body and displaces it by

  (3) Equal to AB
S = (3i + 4j). The work done (4) Equal to zero

(W = F.S) by the force is :-
 
Q.77 Two vectors P and Q are
(1) 10 J (2) 12 J inclined to each other at angle .
(3) 19 J (4) 25 J Which of the following is the unit

vector perpendicular to P and Q ?
Q.72 What is the projection of
 
3i+ 4k
 on the y-axis ? P×Q ×Q
P 
(1) (2)
P.Q sin
(1) 3 (2) 4 
×Q
P  ×Q
P
(3) 5 (4) Zero (3) (4)
PQsin PQsin
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
Q.78 A vector A is along the Q.84 For a body, angular velocity

positive X-axis. If its vector
 product  =i _ 2j  + 3k
 and radius vector
with another vector F2 is zero the r =i + j + k,
 then its velocity
   
F2 my be :- ( =  × r) is :-

(2) _(i+ j) _  

(1) 4ĵ (1) 5i + 2j + 3k
(3) (i+ k)
 _  _ 3k
(4) –4î (2) 5i+ 2j 
_ _ 
   (3) 5i 2j 
+ 3k
Q.79 If P × Q = R, then which of the _ _ _ 
(4) 5i 2j 3k
following statements is not true ?
  Q.85
  The angle
  between vectors
 
(1) R  P (2) R  Q
(A × B) and (B × A) is :-
     
(3) R  (P + Q) (4) R  (P × Q)
(1)  rad (2) /2 rad
Q.80 Which of the following vector (3) /4 rad (4) Zero
identities is false ?    
Q.86 If A × B = A.B , then the angle
     
(1) P + Q = Q + P between A and B will be :-
   
(2) P + Q = Q × P
   
(3) P.Q = Q.P (1) 30o (2) 45o
    (3) 60o (4) 75o
(4) P × Q  Q × P
 
Q.87 Two vectors A
   _  and B are such
Q.81
  What
  is the value of
that A + B = A B. Then select
(A + B)•(A × B) ?
incorrect alternative –

(1) 0      
(1) A.B = 0 (2) A × B = 0
(2) A2 – B2    
(3) A2 + B2 + 2AB (3) A = 0 (4) B = 0
(4) none of these 
Q.88 A vector A points vertically
     
Q.82 If A × B = 0 and B × C = 0, then upward and B points  towards
  north. The vector product A × B is.
the angle between A and C may be
(1) Zero
(1) Zero (2) /4
(2) Along West
(3) /2 (4) None (3) Along East
(4) Vertically Downward
Q.83 If the vectors (i+ j + k)
 and 3î
Q.89 If there vectors
  satisfy the
form two sides of a triangle, then   
area of the triangle is :- relation A.B = 0 and A.C = 0, then A
can be parallel to –
(1) 3 unit  
(2) 23 unit (1) C (2) B
   
(3) 3/2 unit (4) 32 unit (3) B × C (4) B.C

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   
Q.90 If velocity of a particle is Q.94 Given that A + B + C = 0 Out of
given by v = (2t + 3) m/s, then these three vectors two are equal
average velocity in interval 0  t   in magnitude and magnitude of the
1s is :- third vector is 2 times that of
either of the two having equal
(1) (7/2)m/s magnitude. Then the angles
(2) (9/2) m/s between vectors are :-
(3) 4 m/s
(1) 30o, 60o, 90o
(4) 5 m/s
(2) 45o, 45o, 90o
Q.91 The moon’s distance from the (3) 45o, 60o, 90o
earth is 360000 km and its (4) 90o, 135o, 135o
diameter subtends an angle of 42
at the eye of the observer. The Q.95 Given that P = Q = R. If
   
diameter of the moon is P + Q = R then the angle between P
    
(1) 4400 km & R is 1. If P + Q + R = 0 then the
 
(2) 1000 km angle between P & R is 2. What is
the relation between 1 and 2
(3) 3600 km
(4) 8800 km (1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 = 2/2
Q.92 The sum of magnitudes of two (3) 1 = 2 2
forces acting at a point is 16N. If
(4) None of the above
the resultant force is 8N and its
direction is perpendicular to
Q.96 Square of the resultant of two
smaller force, then the forces are :-
forces of equal magnitude is equal
to three times the product of their
(1) 6N & 10N
magnitude. The angle between
(2) 8N & 8N them is :-
(3) 4N & 12N
(4) 2N & 14N (1) 00
(2) 450
Q.93 At what angle must the two (3) 600
forces (x + y) and (x - y) act so that (4) 900
the resultant may be (x2 + y2 ) ?
Q.97 A unit radial vector r makes
_ 2
_  (x + y ) 
2 angles of  = 30o relative to the x-
(1) cos 1  2 2  axis,  = 60o relative to the y-axis,
 2(x + y ) 
_ 2 _
and   = 90o relative to the z-axis.
_  2(x y2 ) 
(2) cos 1  2 2  The vector r can be written as :-
 x +y 
_ 
_ (x + y ) 
2 2
(1) (1/2)î + (3/2)ĵ
(3) cos 1  2 _ 2 
 x y  (2) (3/2)î + (1/2)ĵ
 (x2 + y2 ) 
_1 (3) (2/3)î + (1/3)ĵ
(4) cos  2 2 
 x +y  (4) None of these

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Q.98 A man walks 30 m towards Q.103 The location of a particle is

north, then 20 m towards east and changed. What can we say about
in the last 30 2 m towards south - the displacement and distance
west. The displacement from origin covered by the particle :-
is –
(1) Both cannot be zero
(1) 10 m towards west (2) One of the two may be zero
(2) 10 m towards east (3) Both must be zero
(3) 60 2 m towards north west (4) If one is positive, the other
(4) 60 2 m towards east north is negative and vice-versa

Q.99 The resultant
 of two vectors P Q.104 An athlete completes one
 
and Q is R if Q is doubled round of a circular track of radius R
then the new resultant vector is in 20 seconds. What will be his
 displacement at the end of 2
perpendicular to 'P'. Then R is
equal to :- minutes 20 seconds ?

(1) (P2–Q2/2PQ) (2) Q (1) Zero

(3) P/Q (4) P+Q/P–Q (2) 2R
(3) 2R
Q.100 A body moves along the (4) 7R
curved path of a quarter circle.
Calculate the ratio of distance to Q.105 A man walks for some time
displacement :- 't' with velocity (v) due east. Then
he walks for same time 't' with
(1) 11 : 7 (2) 7 : 11 velocity (v) due north. The average
(3) 11 : 2x7 (4) 7 : 11 2 velocity of the man is :-

Q.101 Three particles (1) 2V

P, Q and R are (2) 2 V
situated at point A on
(3) V
the circular path of
(4) V/2
radius 10 m. All
three particles move
Q.106 A drunkard is walking along
along different paths
a straight road. He takes 5 steps
and reach point B as shown in
forward and 3 steps backward,
figure. Then the ratio of distance
followed by 5 steps forward and 3
traversed by particles P and Q is :-
steps backward and so on. Each
step is one meter along and takes
(1) 3/4 (2) 1/3
one second. There is a pit on the
(3) 3 /4 (4) /3
road 11 meters away from the
Q.102 If displacement of a particle straight point. The drunkard will
is zero, the distance covered :- fall into the pit after :-

(1) Must be zero (1) 29 s

(2) May or many not be zero (2) 21 s
(3) Cannot be zero (3) 37 s
(4) Depends upon the particle (4) 31 s

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Q.107 A car runs at constant speed Q.108 A particle moving in a

on a circular track of radius 10m straight line covers half the
taking 6.28s on each lap (i.e. distance with speed of 12 m/s. The
round). The average speed and other half of the distance is covered
average velocity for each complete in two equal time intervals with
lap is :- speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s
respectively. The average speed of
(1) Velocity 10 m/s, speed 10 m/s the particle during this motion is :-
(2) Velocity zero, speed 10 m/s
(3) Velocity zero, speed zero (1) 8.0 m/s
(4) Velocity 10 m/s speed zero (2) 12.0 m/s
(3) 10.0 m/s
(4) 9.8 m/s

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Q.1 A body weighs 200 N on the Q.5 If the mass of the Sun were ten
surface of the earth. How much will times smaller and the universal
it weigh half way down to the gravitational constant were ten
centre of the earth ? time larger in magnitude, which of
the following is not correct ?
(1) 150 N
(2) 200 N (1) Raindrops will fall faster
(3) 250 (2) Walking on the ground
would become more difficult
(4) 100 N (3) Time period of a
simple pendulum on
Q.2 The work done to raise a mass the Earth would decrease
m from the surface of the earth to a (4) 'g' on the Earth will not change
height h, which is equal to the
radius of the earth, is Q.6 The kinetic
energies of a
(1) mgR
planet in an
(2) 2 mgR elliptical orbit
(3) 1/2 mgR about the Sun,
(4) 3/2 mgR at positions A, B and C are KA, KB
and KC respectively. AC is the major
Q.3 The time period of a axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
geostationary satellite is 24 h, at a at the position of the Sun S as
height 6RE (RE is radius of earth) shown in the figure. Then
from surface of earth. The time
period of another satellite whose (1) KA < KB < KC
height is 2.5 RE from surface will be (2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KB < KA < KC
(1) 62 h (4) KB > KA > KC
(2) 122 h
Q.7 The acceleration due to gravity
(3) 24/2.5 h
at a height 1 km above the earth is
(4) 12/2.5 h the same as at a depth d below the
surface of earth. Then :-
Q.4 Assuming that the gravitational
potential energy of an object at (1) d = 1 km (2) d = 3/2 km
infinity is zero, the change in
potential energy (final – initial) of (3) d = 2 km (4) d = 1/2 km
an object of mass m, when taken to
a height h from the surface of earth Q.8 Two astronauts are floating in
(of radius R), is given by – gravitational free space after
having lost contact with their
GMm spaceship. The two will
(1) _
R +h
GMmh (1) Move towards each other.
(2) (2) Move away from each other.
R(R + h)
(3) Will become stationary
(3) mgh
GMm (4) Keep floating at the
(4) same distance between them.
R +h
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Q.9 At what height from the surface Q.13 Kepler's third law states that
of earth the gravitation potential square of period of revolution (T)
and the value of g are –5.4 × 107 of a planet around the sun, is
J/kg and 6.0 m/s2 respectively ? proportional to third power of
Take the radius of earth as 6400 average distance r between sun
km :- and planet i.e. T2 = Kr3 here K is
constant . If the masses of sun and
(1) 2600 km planet are M and m respectively
(2) 1600 km then as per Newton's law of
(3) 1400 km gravitation force of attraction
(4) 2000 km between them is F = GMm/r2, here
G is gravitational constant . The
Q.10 The ratio of escape velocity at relation between G and K is
earth (ve) to the escape velocity at described as :-
a planet (vp) whose radius and
mean density are twice as that of (1) GMK = 42 (2) K = G
earth is
(3) K =1/G (4) GK = 42
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2√2
Q.14 A satellite S is moving in an
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : √2
elliptical orbit around the earth.
The mass of the satellite is very
Q.11 Starting from the centre of the
small compared to the mass of the
earth having radius R, the variation
earth. Then –
of g (acceleration due to gravity) is
shown by :-
(1) The acceleration of S is always
directed towards the centre of the earth
(2) The angular momentum of S about
the centre of the earth changes
(1) (2)
in direction, but its magnitude
remains constant.
(3) The total mechanical
energy of S varies
periodically with time.
(4) The linear momentum of
(3) (4)
S remains constant magnitude.

Q.15 A remote-sensing satellite of

Q.12 A satellite of mass m is earth revolves in a circular orbit at
orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a a height of 0.25 × 106 m above the
height h from its surface. The total surface of earth. If earth's radius is
energy of the satellite in terms of 6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 m/s2,
g0, the value of acceleration due to then the orbital speed of the
gravity at the earth's surface, is :- satellite is :-

2mg0R 2 2mg0R 2
(1) 6.67 km/s
(1) (2) _
R +h R +h (2) 7.76 km/s
mg0R 2 mg0R 2 (3) 8.56 km/s
(3) (4) _
2(R + h) 2(R + h) (4) 9.13 km/s

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Q.16 A black hole is an object Q.20 The height at which the

whose gravitational field is so weight of a body becomes 1/16th,
strong that even light cannot its weight on the surface of earth
escape from it. To what (radius R), is :-
approximate radius would earth
(mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be (1) 3R (2) 4R
compressed to be a black hole ? (3) 5R (4) 15R

(1) 10–9 m (2) 10–6 m Q.21 Which one of the following

plots represents the variation of
(3) 10–2 m (4) 100 m
gravitational field on a particle with
distance r due to a thin spherical
Q.17 Dependence of intensity of
shell of radius R ? (r is measured
gravitational field (E) of earth with
from the centre of the spherical
distance (r) from centre of earth is
shell)
correctly represented by :-

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

Q.22 If ve is escape velocity and v0

Q.18 A spherical planet has a mass
is orbital velocity of a satellite for
Mp, and diameter Dp A particle of
orbit close to the earth's surface,
mass m falling freely near the
then these are related by :-
surface of this planet will
experience an acceleration due to
gravity, equal to – (1) ve = 2v0
(2) ve = 2v0
(1) GMp/Dp2
(3) v0 = 2ve
(2) 4GMpm/Dp2
(3) 4GMp/Dp2 (4) v0 = ve
(4) GMpm/Dp2
Q.23 A planet moving along an
Q.19 A geostationary satellite is elliptical orbit is closest to the sun
orbiting the earth at a height of 5R at a distance r1 and farthest away
above that surface of the earth, R at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are
being the radius of the earth. The the linear velocities at these points
time period of another satellite in respectively, then the ratio v1/v2 is.
hours at a height of 2R from the
surface of the earth is :- (1) (r1/r2)2
(2) r2/r1
(1) 6√2 (2) 6/√2 (3) (r2/r1)2
(3) 5 (4) 10 (4) r1 /r2
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Q.24 The radii of circular orbits of Q.28 The figure shows elliptical
two satellites A and B of the earth, orbit of a planet m about the sun S.
are 4R and R, respectively. If the The shaded area SCD is twice the
speed of satellite A is 3V, then the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time
speed of satellite B will be :- for the planet to move from C to D
and t2 is the time to move from A to
(1) 3V/2 (2) 3V/4 B then :
(3) 6V (4) 12V
(1) t1 = t2
Q.25 A particle of mass M is
(2) t1 < t2
situated at the centre of a spherical (3) t1 = 4t2
shell of same mass and radius a.
(4) t1 = 2t2
The gravitational potential at a
point situated at a/2 distance from
Q.29 Two satellites of earth, S1 and
the centre, will be :- S2, are moving in the same orbit.
(1) –4GM / a (2) –3GM / a The mass of S1 is four times the
(3) –2GM / a (4) –GM / a mass of S2. Which one of the
following statements is true ?
Q.26 The dependence of
acceleration due to gravity 'g' on (1) The kinetic energies of the
the distance 'r' from the centre of two satellites are equal
the earth, assumed to be a sphere (2) The time period of S1 is
of radius R of uniform density, is as four times that of S2
shown in figure below :- (3) The potential energies of
earth and satellite in the two
cases are equal
(4) S1 and S2 are moving
(1) (2) with the same speed

Q.30 Newton's law of gravitation :-

(1) Is not applicable out

(3) (4)
side the solar system
(2) Is used to govern the
motion of satellites only
Q.27 The additional kinetic energy (3) Control the rotational
to be provided to a satellite of mass motion of satellites and planets
m revolving around a planet of (4) Control the rotational
mass M, to transfer it from a motion of electrons in atoms
circular orbit of radius R1 to another
of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is :- Q.31 Mass particles of 1 kg each
are placed along x-axis at x = 1, 2,
 1 _ 1   1 _ 1  4, 8, ......... Then gravitational
(1) GmM   (2) 2GmM  
 R1 R2   R1 R2  force on a mass of 3kg placed at
1  1 _ 1  origin is (G = universal
(3) GmM   gravitational constant) :-
2  R1 R2 
 1 1  (1) 4G (2) 4G/3
(4) GmM  2 _ 2 
 R1 R2  (3) 2G (4) 

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Q.32 Gravitational force between Q.36 The tidal waves in the seas
two masses at a distance 'd' apart are primarily due to :-
is 6N. If these masses are taken to
moon and kept at same separation, (1) The gravitational effect
then the force between them will of the sun on the earth
become – (2) The gravitational effect
of the moon on the earth
(1) 1N (3) The rotation of the earth
(2) 1/6 N (4) The atmospheric effect
(3) 36 N of the earth it self
(4) 6N
Q.37 During the journey of space
Q.33 The value of universal ship from earth to moon and back,
gravitational constant G depends the maximum fuel is consumed :-
upon :-
(1) Against the gravitation
(1) Nature of material of two bodies of earth in return journey
(2) Heat constant of two bodies (2) Against the gravitation
(3) Acceleration of two bodies of earth in onward journey
(4) None of these (3) Against the gravitation of
moon while reaching the moon
Q.34 Three identical bodies (each (4) None of the above
mass M) are placed at vertices of
an equilateral triangle of arm L, Q.38 If the distance between the
keeping the triangle as such by centers of earth and moon is D and
which angular speed the bodies mass of earth is 81 times that of
should be rotated in their moon. At what distance from the
gravitational fields so that the centre of earth gravitational field
triangle moves along circumference will be zero
of circular orbit :-
(1) D/2
3GM GM (2) 2D/3
(1) (2)
L3 L3 (3) 4D/5
GM GM (4) 9D/10
(3) (4) 3
3L3 L3
Q.39 An earth's satellite is moving
Q.35 Four particles of masses m, in a circular orbit with a uniform
2m, 3m and 4m are kept in speed v. If the gravitational force
sequence at the corners of a square of the earth suddenly disappears,
of side a. The magnitude of the satellite will :-
gravitational force acting on a
particle of mass m placed at the (1) Vanish into outer space
centre of the square will be :- (2) Continue to move with
velocity v in original orbit
(1) 24m2G/a2 (3) Fall down with
(2) 6Gm2/a2 increasing velocity
(3) 42Gm2/a2 (4) Fly off tangentially from
(4) Zero the orbit with velocity v

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Q.40 Following curve shows the Q.43 Mars has a diameter of

variation of intensity of approximately 0.5 of that of earth,
gravitational field with distance and mass of 0.1 of that of earth.
from the centre of solid sphere (r) : The surface gravitational field
strength on mars as compared to
that on earth is a factor of –

(1) (2) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2

(3) 2.0 (4) 0.4

Q.44 Three equal masses of 1 kg

each are placed at the vertices of
(3) (4) an equilateral triangle PQR and a
mass of 2 kg is placed at the
centroid O of the triangle which is
at a distance of 2 m from each of
Q.41 Suppose the the vertices of the triangle. The
acceleration due force, in newton, acting on the
to gravity at the mass of 2 kg is :-
earth's surface is
10m/s2 and at (1) 2 (2) 2
the surface of (3) 1 (4) Zero
mars it is 4.0
m/s2. A 60kg passenger goes from Q.45 One can easily "weigh the
the earth to the mars in a spaceship earth" by calculating the mass of
moving with a constant velocity. earth using the formula (in usual
Neglect all other objects in the sky. notation)
Which part of figure best represent
the weight (Net gravitational force) G 2 g 2
of the passenger as a function of (1) R (2) R
g E G E
time :-
g G
(3) R E (4) R E3
(1) A (2) B G g
(3) C (4) D
Q.46 Acceleration due to gravity at
Q.42 Assume that a tunnel is dug the centre of the earth is :-
through earth from North pole to
south pole and that the earth is a (1) g (2) g/2
non-rotating, uniform sphere of (3) Zero (4) Infinite
density . The gravitational force on
a particle of mass m dropped into Q.47 The value of 'g' on earth
the tunnel when it reaches a surface depends :-
distance r from the centre of earth
is – (1) Only an earth's structure
(2) Only an earth's
(1) (3/4mG)r rotational motion
(2) (4/3mG)r (3) On above both
(3) (4/3mG)r2 (4) On none these
(4) (4/3m2G)r2 and is same

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Q.48 The value of 'g' reduces to half Q.53 The acceleration due to
of its value at surface of earth at a gravity g and mean density of earth
height 'h', then :-  are related by which of the
following relations ? [G =
(1) h = R (2) h = 2R gravitational constant and R =
(3) h =(2+1)R radius of earth ] :-
(4) h =(2 – 1)R
4gR 2 4gR 3
Q.49 At some planet 'g' is 1.96 (1) = (2) =
3G 3G
m/sec2. If it is safe to jump from a 3g 3g
height of 2m on earth, then what (3) = (4) =
4GR 4GR3
should be corresponding safe
height for jumping on that planet :- Q.54 More amount of sugar is
obtained in 1kg weight :-
(1) 5m (2) 2m
(3) 10m (4) 20m (1) At North pole
(2) At equator
Q.50 If the earth stops rotating (3) Between pole and equator
suddenly, the value of g at a place (4) At South pole
other than poles would :-
Q.55 When you move from equator
(1) Decrease to pole, the value of acceleration
(2) Remain constant due to gravity (g) :-
(3) Increase
(4) Increase or decrease (1) Increases
depending on The position of (2) Decreases
earth in the orbit round the sun (3) Remains the same
(4) First increases then decreases
Q.51 Diameter and mass of a planet
is double that earth. Then time Q.56 When the radius of earth is
period of a pendulum at surface of reduced by 1% without changing
planet is how much times of time the mass, then the acceleration due
period at earth surface :- to gravity will.

(1) 1/2 times (2) 2 times (1) Increase by 2%

(3) Equal (2) Decrease by 1.5%
(4) None of these (3) Increase by 1%
(4) Decrease by 1%
Q.52 Gravitation on moon is 1/6th
of that on earth. When a balloon Q.57 Weight of a body of mass m
filled with hydrogen is released on decreases by 1% when it is raised
moon then, this to height h above the earth's
surface. If the body is taken to a
(1) Will rise with an acceleration depth h in a mine, then in its
less then (g/6) weight will –
(2) Will rise with acceleration (g/6)
(3) Will fall down with an (1) Decrease by 0.5%
acceleration less than (5g/6) (2) Decrease by 2%
(4) Will fall down with (3) Increase by 0.5%
acceleration (g/6) (4) Increase by 1%

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Q.58 Acceleration due to gravity at Q.63 A body weighs W newton at

earth's surface is 'g' m/s2. Find the the surface of the earth. Its weight
effective value of acceleration due at a height equal to half the radius
to gravity at a height of 32 km from of the earth will be :-
sea level : (Re = 6400 Km)
(1) W/2 (2) 2W/3
2
(1) 0.5g m/s
(3) 4W/9 (4) W/4
(2) 0.99g m/s2
(3) 1.01g m/s2
Q.64 The imaginary angular velocity
(4) 0.90g m/s2
of the earth for which the effective
acceleration due to gravity at the
Q.59 The mass of the moon is 1%
equator shall be zero is equal to –
of mass of the earth. The ratio of
gravitational pull of earth on moon
(1) 1.25 × 10–3 rad/s
to that of moon on earth will be :-
(2) 2.50 × 10–3 rad/s
(3) 3.75 × 10–3 rad/s
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 10
(4) 5.0 × 10–3 rad/s
(3) 1 : 100
(4) 2 : 1
[Take g = 10m/s2 for the
acceleration due to gravity if the
Q.60 Imagine a new planet having
earth were at rest and radius of
the same density as that of earth
earth equal to 6400 km.]
but its radius is 3 times bigger than
the earth in size. If the acceleration
Q.65 Two different masses are
due to gravity on the surface of
dropped from same heights. When
earth is g and that on the surface of
these just strike the ground, the
the new planet is g', then :-
following is same :-
(1) g' = 3g (2) g' = g/9
(1) Kinetic energy
(3) g' = 9g (4) g'= 27 g
(2) Potential energy
(3) Linear momentum
Q.61 The change in the value of 'g'
(4) Acceleration
at a height 'h' above the surface of
the earth is same as at a depth 'd'.
Q.66 Which of the following curve
If 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than
expresses the variation of
the radius of earth, then which one
gravitational potential with distance
of the following is correct ?
for a hollow sphere of radius R :-
(1) d = h (2) d = 2h
(3) d = 3h/2 (4) d = h/2
(1) (2)
Q.62 If the rotational speed of
earth is increased then weight of a
body at the equator.

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases (3) (4)
(3) Becomes double
(4) Does not changes

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Q.67 Gravitational potential Q.71 A body attains a height equal

difference between surface of a to the radius of the earth when
planet and a point situated at a projected from earth’ surface. The
height of 20 m above its surface is velocity of the body with which it
2 J/kg. If gravitational field is was projected is :-
uniform, then the work done in
taking a 5 kg body up to height 4 (1) GM (2) 2GM
meter above surface will be – R R
(3) 5GM (4) 3GM
(1) 2 J (2) 20 J 4 R R
(3) 40 J (4) 10 J Q.72 The gravitational potential
energy of a body at a distance r
Q.68 If Me is the mass of earth and from the center of the earth is U.
Mm is the mass of moon (Me = 81 The force at that point is :-
Mm). The potential energy of an
object of mass m situated at a (1) U/r2 (2) U/r
distance R from the centre of earth (3) Ur (4) Ur2
and r from the centre of moon, will
be :- Q.73 A particle falls from infinity to
the earth. Its velocity on reaching
(1) _ GmM R + r  R

 the earth surface is :-
81
m 


R
2

 81 1  (1) 2Rg (2) Rg

(2) _ GmMe  + 
 R R (3) Rg (4) 2Rg
 81 1 
(3) _ GmMm  +  Q.74 A projectile of mass m is
 R 1
thrown vertically up with an initial
 81 _ 1  velocity  from the surface of earth
(4) GmMm 
 R r  (mass of earth = M). If it comes to
rest at a height h, the change in its
Q.69 The gravitational potential potential energy is
energy is maximum at :-
(1) GMmh/R(R + h)
(1) Infinity (2) GMmh2/R(R + h)2
(2) The earth’s surface (3) GMmhR/R(R + h)
(3) The centre of the earth (4) GMm/hR(R + h)
(4) Twice the radius of the earth
Q.75 Two small and heavy spheres,
Q.70 A missile is launched with a each of mass M, are placed a
velocity less the escape velocity. distance r apart on a horizontal
Sum of its kinetic energy and surface. The gravitational potential
potential energy is :- at the mid-point on the line joining
the centre of the spheres is :-
(1) Positive
GM
(2) Negative (1) Zero (2) _
(3) May be negative or positive r
depending upon its initial velocity 2GM 4GM
(3) _ (4) _
(4) Zero r r
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Q.76 An artificial satellite moving in Q.81 Escape velocity of a body from

a circular orbit around the earth earth is 11.2 km/s. Escape velocity,
has a total (kinetic + potential) when thrown at an angle of 450
energy E0. Its potential energy is :- from horizontal will be :-

(1) – E0 (2) E0 (1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s

(3) – 2E0 (4) 2E0 (3) 11.2/ 2 km/s
(4) 11.2 2 km/s
Q.77 A particle of mass m is moving
in a horizontal circle of radius R Q.82 The escape velocity from the
under a centripetal force equal to – earth is 11.2 km/s the mass of
A/r2 (A = constant). The total another planet is 100 times of mass
energy of the particle is :- of earth and its radius is 4 times
(Potential energy at very large the radius of earth. The escape
distance is zero) velocity for the planet is :-

A A (1) 56.0 km/s (2) 280 km/s

(1) (2) _
R R (3) 112 km/s (4) 11.2 km/s
A A
(3) (4) _ Q.83 Body is projected vertically
2R 2R
upward from the surface of the
Q.78 Potential energy of a 3kg body earth with a velocity equal to half
at the surface planet is – 54J, then the escape velocity. If R is radius of
escape velocity will be :- the earth, the maximum height
attained by the body is :-
(1) 18 m/s
(2) 162 m/s (1) R/6 (2) R/3
(3) 36 m/s (3) 2/3R (4) R
(4) 6 m/s
Q.84 Binding energy of moon and
Q.79 Escape velocity of a 1 kg body earth is :-
on a planet is 100 m/s. Potential
energy of body at that planet is :- GMeMm GMeMm
(1) (2)
rem 2rem
(1) – 5000 J GMeMm GMeMm
(2) – 1000 J (3) _ (4) _
rem 2rem
(3) – 2400 J
(4) – 10000 J
Q.85 Two artificial satellites A and
B are at a distance rA and rB above
Q.80 The ratio of radii of two
the earth’s surface. If the radius of
satellites is p and the ratio of their
earth is R. then the ratio of their
acceleration due to gravity is q. The
speed will be :-
ratio of their escape velocities will
be :- 1/2 2
r +R  r +R 
(1)  B  (2)  B 
 rA + R   rA + R 
1/2 1/2
 q p
(1)   (2)   2 1/2
p  q r  r 
(3)  B  (4)  B 
(3) pq (4) pq  rA   rA 
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Q.86 The average radii of orbits of Q.91 In adjoining figure earth goes
mercury and earth around the sun around the sun in elliptical orbit on
are 6 × 107 km and 1.5 × 108 km which point the orbital speed is
respectively. The ratio of their maximum –
orbital’s speeds will be :-
(1) On A
(1) √5 : √2 (2) √2 : √5 (2) On B
(3) 2.5 : 1 (4) 1 : 25
(3) On C
Q.87 A body is dropped by a (4) On D
satellite in its geo-stationary orbit :
Q.92 Potential
(1) It will burn on entering energy and
in to the atmosphere kinetic energy
(2) It will remain in the same of a two particle
place with respect to the earth system under
(3) It will reach the earth is 24 hours imaginary force
(4) It will perform uncertain motion field are shown by curves KE and
PE. respectively in figure. This
Q.88 Two ordinary satellites are system is bound at :-
revolving round the earth in same
elliptical orbit, then which of the (1) Only Point A
following quantities is conserved :- (2) Only Point D
(3) Only Point A, B And C
(1) Velocity (4) All Points A, B, C And D
(2) Angular velocity
(3) Angular momentum Q.93 A satellite of earth of mass ‘m’
(4) None of above is taken from orbital radius 2R to
3R, then minimum work done is :-
Q.89 Kepler’s second law is a
consequence of :- GMm
(1)
6R
(1) Conservation of kinetic energy GMm
(2)
(2) Conservation of linear momentum 12R
(3) Conservation of GMm
(3)
angular momentum 24R
(4) Conservation of speed GMm
(4)
3R
Q.90 One projectile after deviating
from its path starts moving round Q.94 If a graph is plotted
the earth in a circular path of between T2 and r3 for a planet
radius equal to nine times the then its slope will be :-
radius of earth R. Its time period
will be :- 42
(1)
GM
R R GM
(1) 2 (2) 27 × 2 (2)
g g 42
R R (3) 4 GM
(3)  (4) 0.8 × 3
g g (4) Zero

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Q.95 A planet is revolving round Q.99 If the length of the day is T,

the sun. Its distance from the sun the height of that TV satellite above
at Apogee is rA and that at Perigee the earth’s surface which always
is rP. The mass of planet and sun is appears stationary from earth, will
m and M respectively, vA and vP is be :-
the velocity of planet at. Apogee
and Perigee respectively and T is
1

 42GM 
3

the time period of revolution of (1) h =  2 

planet round the sun.  T 
1

2  42GM  _
2

(A) T2 = (rA + rP )2 (2) h =  2  R

2Gm  T 
2 1

 GMT 2  _
3
(B) T2 = (rA + rP )3
2GM (3) h =  2 
R
(C) vArA = vPrP  4 
1

(D) vA < vP, rA > rP  GMT 2 

3

(4) h =  2  +R
  
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
(3) b, d, d (4) All
Q.100 If two bodies of mass M and
m are revolving around the centre
Q.96 A satellite launching station
of mass of the system in circular
should be :-
orbit of radii R and r respectively
due to mutual interaction.
(1) Near the equatorial region
Which of the following formula is
(2) Near the polar region
applicable :-
(3) On the polar axis
(4) All locations are equally good
GMm
(1) 2
= m2r
Q.97 A space shuttle is launched in (R + r)
a circular orbit near the earth’s GMm
(2) = m2r
surface. The additional velocity be R2
given to the space–shuttle to get GMm
(3) = m2R
free from the influence of r 2

gravitational force will be :- GMm

(4) 2 2
= m2r
R +r
(1) 1.52 km/s
(2) 2.75 km/s Q.101 Two satellites of same mass
(3) 3.28 km/s m are revolving round of earth
(4) 5.18 km/s (mass M) in the same orbit of
radius r. Rotational directions of
Q.98 A satellite is moving in a the two are opposite therefore,
circular orbit around earth with a they can collide. Total mechanical
speed v. If its mass is m, then its energy of the system (both
total energy will be :- satellites and earths) is (m < < M) :

(1) 3/4mv2 GMm 2GMm

(1) _ (2) _
(2) mv2 r r
(3) 1/2mv2 GMm
(3) _ (4) Zero
(4) –1/2mv2 2r

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Q.102 A planet of mass m is moving Q.106 The gravitational force

in an elliptical orbit about the sun between two bodies is 1 directly
(mass of sun = M). The maximum proportional to 1/R(not 1/R2),
and minimum distances of the where 'R' is the distance between
planet from the sun are r1 and r2 the bodies. Then the orbital speed
respectively. The period of for this force in circular orbit is
revolution of the planet will be proportional to :-
proportional to :–
(1) 1/R2 (2) Rº
(1) r1 (2) r2
3 3
2 2
(3) R (4) 1/R
(3) (r1 – r2) 3/2 (4) (r1 + r2)3/2
Q.107 What will be velocity of a
Q.103 The relay satellite transmits satellite revolving around the earth
the television programmed at a height h above surface of earth
continuously from one part of the if radius of earth is R :-
world to another because its :-
g g
(1) Period is greater than the period of (1) R 2 (2) R
R +h (R + h)2
rotation of the earth about its axis
(2) Period is less than the period of g R +h
(3) R (4) R
rotation of the earth about its axis R +h g
(3) Period is equal to the
period of rotation of the Q.108 Two artificial satellites of
earth about its axis masses m1 and m2 moving with
(4) Mass is less than the mass of earth speeds v1 and v2 in orbits of radii r1
and r2 respectively. If r1 > r2 then
Q.104 If the satellite is stopped which of the following statements
suddenly in its orbit which is at a in true :-
distance radius of earth from
earth's surface and allowed to fall (1) v1 = v2 (2) v1 > v2
freely into the earth. The speed (3) v1 < v2 (4) v1/r1 = v2/r2
with which it hits the surface of
earth will be :- Q.109 Orbital radius of a satellite S
of earth is four times that of a
(1) 7.919 m/s (2) 7.919 km/s
communication satellite C. Period
(3) 11.2 m/s (4) 11.2 km/s
of revolution of S is :-
Q.105 A planet is moving in an
elliptical orbit. If T, U, E and L are (1) 4 days (2) 8 days
its kinetic energy, potential energy, (3) 16 days (4) 32 days
total energy and magnitude of
angular momentum respectively, Q.110 If a satellite is revolving very
then which of the following close to the surface of earth, then
statement is true – its orbital velocity does not depend
upon :-
(1) T is conserved
(2) U is always positive (1) Mass of satellite
(3) E is always negative (2) Mass of earth
(4) L is conserved but the direction (3) Radius of earth
of vector I will continuously change (4) Orbital radius

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Q.111 Two identical satellites are at Q.115 A satellite of mass m goes

the heights R and 7R from the round the earth along a circular
earth's surface. Then which of the path of radius r. Let mE be the mass
following statement is incorrect :- of the earth and RE its radius then
(R = Radius of earth) the linear speed of the satellite
depends on.
(1) Ratio of total
energy of both is 5 (1) m, mE and r (2) m, RE and r
(2) Ratio of kinetic (3) mE only (4) mE and r
energy of both is 4
(3) Ratio of potential Q.116 Near the earth's surface time
energy of both 4 period of a satellite is 1.4 hrs. Find
(4) Ratio of total its time period if it is at the
energy of both is 4 distance 4R' from the centre of
earth :-
Q.112 The minimum projection
(1) 32 hrs. (2) 1/ 8√2 hrs.
velocity of a body from the earth's
(3) 8√2 hrs. (4) 16 hrs
surface so that it becomes the
satellite of the earth (Re = 6.4 ×
Q.117 A communication satellite of
106 m).
earth which takes 24 hrs. to
complete one circular orbit
(1) 11 × 103 m/s
eventually has to be replaced by
(2) 8 × 103 m/s
another satellite of double mass. If
(3) 6.4 × 103 m/s
the new satellites also has an
(4) 4 × 103 m/s
orbital time period of 24 hrs, then
what is the ratio of the radius of
Q.113 Geostationary satellite :-
the new orbit to the original orbit ?
(1) Is situated at a great height
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
above the surface of earth
(3) √2 :1 (4) 1 : 2
(2) Moves in equatorial plane
(3) Have time period
Q.118 Escape velocity for a
of 24 hours
projectile at earth's surface is Ve. A
(4) Have time period
body is projected form earth's
of 24 hours and moves
surface with velocity 2 Ve. The
in equatorial plane
velocity of the body when it is at
infinite distance from the centre of
Q.114 The maximum and minimum the earth is :-
distances of a comet from the sun
are 8 × 1012 m and 1.6 × 1012 m (1) Ve (2) 2 Ve
respecting. If its velocity when it is (3) √2 Ve (4) √3 Ve
nearest to the sun is 60 m/s then
what will be its velocity in m/s Q.119 For a satellite moving in an
when it is farthest ? orbit around the earth, the ratio of
kinetic energy to potential energy
(1) 12 is :-
(2) 60
(3) 112 (1) 2 (2) 1/2
(4) 6 (3) 1/√2 (4) √2

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Q.120 The orbital velocity of an Q.124 The mean distance of mars

artificial satellite circular orbit just from sun is 1.5 times that of earth
above the earth's surface is V0 The from sun. What is approximately
orbital velocity of satellite orbiting the number of years required by
at an altitude of half of the radius is mars to make one revolution about
sun ?
(1) 3/2 v0
(2) 2/3 v0 (1) 2.35 years (2) 1.85 years
2 (3) 3.65 years (4) 2.75 years
(3) v0
3
Q.125 Masses and radii of earth and
3 moon are M1, M2 and R1, R2
(4) v0
2 respectively. The distance between
their centre is 'd'. The minimum
Q.121 The earth revolves around velocity given to mass 'M' from the
the sun in one year. If distance midpoint of line joining their centre
between them becomes double, the so that it will escape :-
new time period of revolution will
be – 4G(M1 + M2 ) 4G M1M2
(1) (2)
d d (M1 + M2 )
(1) 4√2 years (2) 2√2 years
(3) 4 years (4) 8 years 2G  M1 + M2 
(3)  
d  M1M2 
Q.122 A satellite of mass m
2G
revolves in a circular orbit of a (4) M1 + M2 
radius R a round a planet of mass d
M. Its total energy E is :-
Q.126 If R is the average radius of
GMm GMm earth,  is its angular velocity
(1) _ (2) + about its axis and g is the
2R 3R
gravitational acceleration on the
GMm GMm
(3) _ (4) + surface of earth then the cube of
R R
the radius of orbit of a
geostationary satellite will be equal
Q.123 A satellite to :-
is orbiting earth
at a distance r. (1) R2g / (2) R22 /g
Variations of its (3) Rg /2 (4) R2g /2
kinetic energy,
potential energy Q.127 A geostationary satellite is
and total energy, orbiting the earth at a height of 6R
is shown in the figure. Of the three from the earth's surface (R is the
curves shown in figure, identify the earth's radius). What is the period
type of mechanical energy they of rotation of another satellite at a
represent. height of 2.5 R from the earth
surface ?
(1) 1 Potential, 2 Kinetic, 3 Total
(2) 1 Total, 2 Kinetic, 3 Potential (1) 6√2 hours (2) 10 hours
(3) 1 Kinetic, 2 Total, 3 Potential (3) 5√5 /√3 hours
(4) 1 Potential, 2 Total, 3 Kinetic (4) None of the above

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Q.128 A planet revolves around the Q.131 A small planet is revolving

sun in an elliptical orbit. If vP and va around a very massive star in a
are the velocities of the planet at circular orbit of radius R with a
the perigee and apogee period of revolution T. If the
respectively, then the eccentricity gravitational force between the
of the elliptical orbit is given by :- planet and the star were
–5/2
proportional to R , then T would
vp va _ vp be proportional to –
(1) (2)
va va + vp
(1) R3/2
vp + va v _v
(3) (4)
p a
(2) R3/5
v _v vp + va
p a
(3) R7/2
(4) R7/4
Q.129 Two solid spherical planets
of equal radii R having masses 4M
Q.132 Consider a
and 9M their centre are separated
satellite orbiting
by a distance 6R. A projectile of
the earth as
mass m is sent from the planet of
shown in the
mass 4M towards the heavier
figure below. Let
planet. What is the distance r of the
La and LP
point from the lighter planet where
represent the
the gravitational force on the
angular momentum of the satellite
projectile is zero ?
about the earth when at aphelion
and perihelion respectively.
(1) 1.4 R (2) 1.8 R
Consider
 the following relations.
(3) 1.5 R (4) 2.4 R (i) La = Lp
 
(ii) La = _ Lp
Q.130 Read the following    
statements :- (iii) ra × La = rp × Lp
S1 : An object shall weigh more at Which of the above relations
pole than at equator when weighed is/are true ?
by using a physical balance.
S2 : It shall weigh the same at pole (1) (i) only
and equator when weighed by
(2) (ii) only
using a physical balance .
S3 : It shall weigh the same at pole (3) (iii) only
and equator when weighed by (4) (i) and (iii)
using a spring balance .
S4 : It shall weigh more at the pole Q.133 A particle falls on earth :-
than at equator when weighed (i) from infinity, (ii) from a height
using a spring balance . 10 times the radius of earth. The
Which of the above statements ratio of the velocities gained on
is/are correct ? reaching at the earth's surface is :-

(1) S1 and S2 (1) √11 : √10

(2) S1 and S4 (2) √10 : √11
(3) S2 and S3 (3) 10 : 11
(4) S2 and S4 (4) 11 : 10

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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.1 The displacement of a particle Q.5 A mass falls a height ‘h’ and its
executing simple harmonic motion time to fall ‘t’ is recorded in terms
is given by y = A0 + A sin t + B of time period T of a simple
cos t Then the amplitude of its pendulum. On the surface of earth
oscillation is given by :- it is found that t = 2T. The entire
set up is taken on the surface of
(1) A0 + A2 + B2 another planet whose mass is half
of that of earth and radius the
(2) A2 + B2 same. Same experiment is repeated
(3) A20 + (A + B)2 and corresponding times noted as t'
and T', the –
(4) A+B
(1) t' = 2T‘ (2) t' > 2T'
Q.2 Average velocity of a particle
(3) t' < 2T' (4) t' = 2T'
executing SHM in one complete
vibration is :-
Q.6 A pendulum is hung from the
(1) A/2 roof of a sufficiently high building
and is moving freely to and fro like
(2) A a simple harmonic oscillator. The
(3) A2/2 acceleration of the bob of the
(4) Zero pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance
of 5 m from the mean position. The
Q.3 The radius of time period of oscillation is :-
circle the period of
revolution indicated (1) 2 s (2)  s
position and sense (3) 2 s (4) 1 s
of revolution are
inclined in the Q.7 A spring of force constant k is
figure y-projection cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3.
of the radius vector of rotating They are connected in series and
particle P is :- the new force constant is k'. Then
they are connected in parallel and
(1) y(t) = – 3cos2t, where y in m force constant is k'' . Then k' : k'' is.
(2) y(t) = 4sin(t/2), where y in m
(3) y(t) = 3cos(3t/2), (1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 11
where y in m (3) 1 : 14 (4) 1 : 16
(4) y(t) = 3cos(t/2),
where y in m Q.8 A particle executes linear
simple harmonic motion with an
Q.4 The distance covered by a amplitude of 3 cm. When the
particle undergoing SHM in one particle is at 2 cm from the mean
time period is (amplitude = A) :- position, the magnitude of its
velocity is equal to that of its
(1) Zero acceleration. Then its time period in
seconds is :-
(2) A
(3) 2A (1) 5/2 (2) 4/5
(4) 4A (3) 2/3 (4) 5/

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Q.9 A body of mass m is attached to Q.12 Two similar springs P and Q

the lower end of a spring whose have spring constants KP and KQ,
upper end is fixed. The spring has such that KP > KQ. The are
negligible mass. When the mass m stretched, first by the same amount
is slightly pulled down and (case a,) then by the same force
released, it oscillates with a time (case b). The work done by the
period of 3s. When the mass m is springs WP and WQ are related as,
increased by 1 kg, the time period in case (a) and case (b),
of oscillations becomes 5 s. The respectively :-
value of m in kg is :-
(1) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ
(1) 16/9 (2) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
(3) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP
(2) 9/16
(4) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
(3) 3/4
(4) 4/3 Q.13 A particle is executing a
simple harmonic motion. Its
Q.10 When two displacements maximum acceleration is  and
represented by y1 = a sin(t) and y2 maximum velocity is . Then its
= b cos(t) are superimposed the time period of vibration will be :-
motion is :-
(1) 2/ (2) 2/2
(3) / (4) 2/
(1) simple harmonic with
amplitude a/b Q.14 The oscillation of a body on a
(2) simple harmonic with smooth horizontal surface is
amplitude a2 + b2 represented by the equation, X = A
(3) simple harmonic with cos(t) where X = displacement at
amplitude (a + b)/2 time t  = frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs
(4) not a simple harmonic
shows correctly the variation 'a'
with 't' ?
Q.11 A particle is executing SHM
along a straight line. Its velocities
at distances x1 and x2 from the (1)
mean position are V1 and V2,
respectively. Its time period is :-

x22 _ x12 (2)

(1) 2 2 _ 2
V1 V2
V12 + V22
(2) 2 2 (3)
x1 + x22
V12 _ V22
(3) 2 2 _ 2
x1 x2
(4)
x12 + x22
(4) 2 2
V1 + V22

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Q.15 Out of the following functions Q.19 Which one of the following
representing motion of a particle equations of motion represents
which represents SHM :- simple harmonic motion :-
(A) y = sint – cos t
(B) y = sin3t (1) Acceleration = kx
(C) y = 5cos(3/4–3t) (2) Acceleration = –k0x + k1x2
(D) y = 1 + t + 2t2 (3) Acceleration = –k(x + a)
(4) Acceleration = k(x + a)
(1) Only (A) Where k,k0, k1 and a are all positive
(2) Only (D) does
not represent SHM Q.20 Two simple Harmonic Motions
(3) Only (A) and (C) of angular frequency 100 and 1000
(4) Only (A) and (B) rad s–1 have the same displacement
amplitude. The ratio of their
Q.16 Two particles are oscillating maximum accelerations is :–
along two close parallel straight
lines side by side, with the same (1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104
frequency and amplitudes. They (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102
pass each other, moving in opposite
directions when their displacement Q.21 A point performs simple
is half of the amplitude. The phase harmonic oscillation of period T and
difference is :- the equation of motion is given by x
= a sin (t + /6). After the elapse
(1) /6 of what fraction of the time period
(2) 0 the velocity of the point will be
(3) 2/3 equal to half of its maximum
(4)  velocity

Q.17 The period of oscillation of a (1) T/3 (2) T/12

mass M suspended from a spring of (3) T/8 (4) T/6
negligible mass is T. If along with it
another mass M is also suspended, Q.22 The phase difference between
the period of oscillation will now be the instantaneous velocity and
acceleration of a particle executing
(1) 2T simple harmonic motion is –
(2) T
(3) T/2 (1) Zero (2) 0.5 
(4) 2T (3)  (4) 0.707 

Q.18 A simple pendulum performs Q.23 The particle executing simple

simple harmonic motion about x = harmonic motion has a kinetic
0 with an amplitude a and time energy Ko cos2 t. The maximum
period T. The speed of the values of the potential energy and
pendulum at x = a/2 will be :- the total energy are respectively :-

a 3 a 3 (1) Ko and Ko
(1) (2) (2) 0 and 2Ko
T 2T
(3) Ko/2 and Ko
a 32a
(3) (4) (4) Ko and 2Ko
T T
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Q.24 A particle executes simple Q.29 Which of the following

harmonic oscillation with an equation does not represent a
amplitude a. The period of simple harmonic motion :-
oscillation is T. The minimum time
taken by the particle to travel half (1) y = asint
of the amplitude from the (2) y = bcost
equilibrium position is :- (3) y = asint + bcost
(4) y = atant
(1) T/2 (2) T/4
(3) T/8 (4) T/12 Q.30 The displacement of a particle
in S.H.M. is indicated by equation y
Q.25 The potential energy of a long = 10 sin(20t + /3) where y is in
spring when stretched by 2cm is U. metres. The value of time period of
If the spring is stretched by 8 cm vibration will be (in seconds) :-
the potential energy stored in it is :
(1) 10/ (2) /10
(1) 4 U (2) 8 U
(3) 2/10 (4) 10/2
(3) 16 U (4) U/4
Q.31 The value of phase at
Q.26 A particle of mass m is
maximum displacement from the
executing S.H.M. If amplitude is a
mean position of a particle in
and frequency n, the value of its
S.H.M. is :-
force constant will be :-
(1) /2 (2) 
(1) mn2 (2) 4mn2a2
(3) ma2 (4) 42mn2 (3) Zero (4) 2

Q.27 The equation of motion of a Q.32 The equation of a simple

particle executing S.H.M. where harmonic motion is x =
letters have usual meaning is :- 0.34cos(3000t + 0.74). Where x
and t are in mm and sec.
d2x _ k d2x respectively. The frequency of the
(1) = x (2) = + 2x motion is
dt2 m dt 2

d2x _
(3) = 2x2 (1) 3000
dt2 (2) 3000/2
d2x _ (3) 0.74/2
(4) = kmx
dt2 (4) 3000/

Q.28 The equation of motion of a Q.33 The acceleration of a particle

particle executing SHM is executing S.H.M. is :-
d x
2

 2  + kx = 0 The time period of (1) Always directed towards

 dt 
the equilibrium position
the particle will be :-
(2) Always towards the one end
(3) Continuously changing
2
(1) (2) 2p/k in direction
k (4) Maximum at
(3) 2pk (4) 2 k the mean position

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Q.34 The distance covered by a Q.39 Two particles executive S.H.M.

particle executing SHM, in one time along the same line at the same
period is equal to :- frequency. They move in opposite
direction at the mean position. The
(1) Four times the amplitude phase difference will be :-
(2) Two times the amplitude
(3) One times the amplitude (1) 2 (2) 2/3
(4) Eight times the amplitude (3)  (4) /2

Q.35 The phase of a particle in Q.40 The displacement from mean

S.H.M. is /2, then :- position of a particle in SHM at 3
seconds is 3 /2 of the amplitude.
(1) Its velocity will be maximum. Its time period will be :-
(2) Its acceleration will be minimum.
(3) Restoring force on (1) 18 sec. (2) 6 3 sec.
it will be minimum.
(4) Its displacement (3) 9 sec. (4) 3 3 sec.
will be maximum.
Q.41 A particle executes SHM of
Q.36 The displacement of a particle type x = a sint. It takes time t1
in S.H.M. is indicated by equation y from x = 0 to x = a/2 and t2 from x
= 10 sin(20t + /3) where y is in = a/2 to x = a. The ratio of t1 : t2
metres. The value of maximum will be :-
velocity of the particle will be :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 100 m/sec. (2) 150 m/sec. (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 1
(3) 200 m/sec. (4) 400 m/sec.
Q.42 The time taken by a particle in
Q.37 The displacement of a particle SHM for maximum displacement is :
in S.H.M. is indicated by equation y
= 10 sin(20t + /3) where y is in (1) T/8 (2) T/6
metres, the value of phase constant (3) T/2 (4) T/4
will be :-
Q.43 A particle executes SHM with
o
(1) Zero (2) 45 periodic time of 6 seconds. The
(3) 60o (4) 30o time taken for traversing a distance
of half the amplitude from mean
Q.38 The phase of a particle in SHM position is :-
at time t is /6. The following
inference is drawn from this :- (1) 3 sec. (2) 2 sec.
(3) 1 sec. (4) 1/2 sec.
(1) The particle is at x = a/2 and
moving in + X-direction Q.44 The phase difference between
(2) The particle is at x = a/2 and the displacement and acceleration
moving in – X-direction of particle executing S.H.M. in
(3) The particle is at x = –a/2 radian is :-
and moving in + X-direction
(4) The particle is at x = –a/2 (1) /4 (2) /2
and moving in – X-direction (3)  (4) 2

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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.45 The phase difference in Q.51 If the displacement, velocity

radians between displacement and and acceleration of a particle in
velocity in S.H.M. is :- SHM are 1 cm, 1 cm/sec, 1 cm/sec2
respectively its time period will be
(1) /4 (2) /2 (in second) :-
(3)  (4) 2
(1)  (2) 0.5
Q.46 If the maximum velocity of a
particle in SHM is v0. Then its (3) 2 (4) 1.5
velocity at half the amplitude from
position of rest will be :- Q.52 The particle is executing
S.H.M. on a line 4 cms long. If its
(1) v0/2 (2) v0 velocity at mean position is 12
(3) v0 3 / 2 (4) v03/2 cm/sec, its frequency in Hertz will
be :-
Q.47 At a particular position the
velocity of a particle in SHM with 2 3
(1) (2)
amplitude a is 3/2 that at its mean 3 2
position. In this position, its  3
(3) (4)
displacement is :- 3 

(1) a/2 (2) 3 a/2 Q.53 Which of the following

(3) a2 (4) 2a statement is incorrect for an object
executing S.H.M. :-
Q.48 The acceleration of a particle
in SHM at 5 cm from its mean (1) The value of acceleration is
position is 20 cm/sec2. The value of maximum at the extreme points
angular frequency in radians/sec (2) The total work done for
will be :- completing one oscillation is zero.
(3) The energy changes
(1) 2 (2) 4 from one form to another
(3) 10 (4) 14 (4) The velocity at the
mean position is zero
Q.49 The amplitude of a particle in
SHM is 5 cms and its time period is Q.54 The variation of acceleration
p. At a displacement of 3 cms from (a) and displacement (x) of the
its mean position the velocity in
particle executing SHM is indicated
cms/sec will be :- by the following curve :-
(1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 2 (4) 16
(1) (2)
Q.50 The maximum velocity and
acceleration of a particle in S.H.M.
are 100 cms/sec and 157 cm/sec2
respectively. The time period in
seconds will be :-
(3) (4)
(1) 4 (2) 1.57
(3) 0.25 (4) 1

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Q.55 The time period of an Q.60 For a particle executing simple

oscillating body executing SHM is harmonic motion which of the
0.05 sec and its amplitude is 40 cm. following statement is not correct :-
The maximum velocity of particle is
(1) The total energy of particle
(1) 16 ms –1
(2) 2 ms–1 always remains the same
(3) 3.1 ms–1 (4) 4 ms (2) The restoring force is always
directed towards a fix point.
Q.56 A body of mass 5 gm is (3) The restoring force is maximum
executing S.H.M. about a point with at the extreme positions.
amplitude 10 cm. Its maximum (4) The acceleration of particle
velocity is 100 cm/sec. Its velocity is maximum at the
will be 50 cm/sec at a distance equilibrium positions.
from mean position :-
Q.61 In SHM velocity is maximum :-
(1) 5 cm (2) 5 2 cm
(1) At extreme position
(3) 5 3 cm (4) 10 2 cm (2) When displacement is
half of amplitude
Q.57 The (3) At the central position
velocity-time (4) When displacement
diagram of a 1
is of amplitude
harmonic 2
oscillator is
shown in the adjoining figure. The Q.62 A body oscillates with SHM
frequency of oscillation is :- according to the equation x = 5.0
cos(2t + ). At time t = 1.5 s,
(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz its displacement, speed and
(3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz acceleration respectively is :–
Q.58 If amplitude of the particle (1) 0, –10, + 202
which is executing S.H.M. is (2) 5, 0, –202
doubled, then which quantity will (3) 2.5, +20, 0
become double ? (4) –5.0, +5, –102

(1) Frequency (2) Time period Q.63 The maximum velocity

(3) Energy of simple harmonic motion
(4) Maximum velocity represented by y = 3sin (100+/6)
is given by –
Q.59 Which one of the following
statements is true for the speed ‘v’ (1) 300 (2) 3/6
and the acceleration ‘a’ of a particle (3) 100 (4) /6
executing simple harmonic motion.
Q.64 The maximum velocity of a
(1) Value of ‘a’ is zero, whatever particle, executing simple harmonic
may be the value of ‘v’ motion with an amplitude 7 mm is
(2) When ‘v’ is zero, ‘a’ is zero 4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is
(3) When ‘v’ is maximum,
‘a’ is zero (1) 100 s (2) 0.01 s
(4) When ‘v’ is maximum, ‘a’ is maximum (3) 10 s (4) 0.1 s
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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.65 Average velocity of a particle Q.71 The displacement of a particle

performing SHM in one time period in S.H.M. is x = a sin t, Which of
is :- the graph between velocity and
time is correct ?
(1) Zero (2) A/2
(3) A/2 (4) 2A/
(1) A
Q.66 A particle is executing S.H.M. (2) B
with amplitude A and Time period
(3) C
T. Time taken by the particle to
reach from extreme position to A/2 (4) D

(1) T/6 (2) T/12

Q.72 The displacement of a particle
(3) T/3 (4) T/4
in S.H.M. is x = a sin t, Which of
the graph between kinetic energy
Q.67 Total work done on a simple
and time is correct ?
pendulum in one complete
oscillation will be :-
(1) A
(1) 1/2 kx2 (2) 2/1kA2
(2) B
(3) kA2 (4) Zero
(3) E
Q.68 In S.H.M. Which one of the
(4) F
following quantities has constant
ratio with acceleration :-
Q.73 The displacement of a particle
(1) Time (2) Displacement in S.H.M. is x = a sin t, Which of
(3) Velocity (4) Mass the graph between potential energy
and time is correct ?
Q.69 The displacement y of a
particle varies with time t, in
(1) A
seconds, as y = 2 cos (t + /6).
The time period of the oscillations (2) B
is –
(3) E
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s (4) F
(3) 1 s (4) 0.5 s
Q.74 The displacement of a particle
Q.70 The displacement of a particle
in S.H.M. is x = a sin t ,Which of
in S.H.M. is x = a sin t. Which of
the graph between acceleration and
the following graph between
time is correct ?
displacement and time is correct –

(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) C (3) C
(4) D (4) D

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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.75 If the displacement of a Q.79 If the displacement of a

particle executing SHM is x = a cos particle executing SHM is x = a cos
t, which of the graph between t, which of the graph between P.E.
displacement and time is correct – and time is correct ?

(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) C (3) E
(4) D (4) F

Q.76 If the displacement of a Q.80 The total energy of a particle

particle executing SHM is x = a cos executing SHM is directly
t, Which of the graph between proportional to the square of the
velocity and time is correct ? following quantity :-

(1) Acceleration
(1) A
(2) Amplitude
(2) B (3) Time period
(4) Mass
(3) C
(4) D Q.81 The total energy of a vibrating
particle in SHM is E. If its amplitude
and time period are doubled, its
Q.77 If the displacement of a
total energy will be :-
particle executing SHM is x = a cos
t, which of the graph between
(1) 16E (2) 8E
acceleration and time is correct ?
(3) 4E (4) E
(1) A
Q.82 The total vibrational energy of
(2) B a particle in S.H.M. is E. Its kinetic
energy at half the amplitude from
(3) C
mean position will be :-
(4) D
(1) E/2
(2) E/3
Q.78 If the displacement of a
particle executing SHM is x = a cos (3) E/4
t, which of the graph between K.E. (4) 3E/4
and time is correct ?
Q.83 If total energy of a particle in
SHM is E, then the potential energy
(1) A of the particle at half the amplitude
(2) B will be :-

(3) E (1) E/2 (2) E/4

(4) F (3) 3E/4 (4) E/8

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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.84 A particle executes SHM on a Q.90 A particle is describing SHM

line 8 cm long. Its K.E. and P.E. will with amplitude 'a'. When the
be equal when its distance from the potential energy of particle is one
mean position is :- fourth of the maximum energy
during oscillation, then its
(1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm displacement from mean position
(3) 22 cm (4) 2 cm will be :-

Q.85 The average P.E. of a body (1) a/4

executing S.H.M. is :- (2) a/3
(3) a/2
(1) (1/2)ka2 (4) 2a/3
(2) (1/4)ka2
(3) ka2 Q.91 The ratio of K.E. of the particle
(4) Zero at mean position to the point when
distance is half of amplitude will be
Q.86 The value of total mechanical
energy of a particle in S.H.M. is :- (1) 1/3
(2) 2/3
(1) Always constant (3) 4/3
(2) Depend on time (4) 3/2
(3) (1/2)kA2 cos2 (t + )
(4) (1/2)mA2 cos2 (t + ) Q.92 A particle is executing S.H.M.,
If its P.E. & K.E. is equal then the
Q.87 The maximum K.E. of a ratio of displacement & amplitude
oscillating spring is 5 joules and its will be :-
amplitude 10 cm. The force
constant of the spring is :- (1) 1/2 (2) 2
(3) 1/2 (4) 3/2
(1) 100 Newton/m.
(2) 1000 Newton-m Q.93 Which of the following is
(3) 1000 Newton/m. constant during SHM :-
(4) 1000 watts
(1) Velocity
Q.88 The force acting on a 4gm (2) Acceleration
mass in the energy region U = 8x2 (3) Total energy
at x = –2cm is :– (4) Phase

(1) 8 dyne (2) 4 dyne Q.94 If <E> and <V> denotes the
average kinetic and average
(3) 16 dyne (4) 32 dyne
potential energies respectively of
mass describing a simple harmonic
Q.89 Displacement between max.
motion over one period then the
P.E. position and max. K.E. position
correct relation is :-
for a particle executing simple
harmonic motion is –
(1) <E> = <V>
(2) <E> = 2<V>
(1) ± a/2 (2) + a
(3) <E> = –2<V>
(3) ± a (4) – 1 (4) <E> = – <V>

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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.95 The elongation of spring is 1 Q.100 As shown

cm and its potential energy is U. If in the figure,
the spring is elongated by 3cm then two light
potential energy will be :- springs of force
constant K1 and
(1) 3U (2) U/3 K2 oscillate a block of mass M. Its
(3) 9U (4) U/9 effective force constant will be :-

Q.96 The potential energy of a (1) K1K2 (2) K1 + K2

spring when stretched by a distance
(3) 1/K1+1/K2 (4) K1K2/K1+K2
x is E. The energy of the spring
when stretched by x/2 is –
Q.101 The spring constants of two
springs of same length are K1 and
(1) E (2) E/2
K2 as shown in figure. If an object
(3) E/4 (4) E/6
of mass M is suspended and set
vibration, the time period will be :-
Q.97 On
suspending
a mass M MK1
(1) 2
from a K2
spring of M
force (2) 2
K1K2
constant K, frequency of vibration f
is obtained. If a second spring as M
(3) 2 (4) 2 M / K1 + K2 
shown in the figure, is arranged K1 _ K2
then the frequency will be –
Q.102 A spring is made to oscillate
(1) f 2 (2) f/2 after suspending a mass m from
(3) 2f (4) f one of its ends. The time period
obtained is 2 seconds. On
Q.98 In the increasing the mass by 2 kg, the
adjoining period of oscillation is increased by
figure the 1 second. The initial mass m will be
frequency of
oscillation for (1) 2 kg (2) 1 kg
a mass M will be proportional to :-
(3) 0.5 kg (4) 1.6 kg
(1) K1K2 (2) K1 + K2
Q.103 The total spring constant of
(3) K1 + K2 (4) 1 / K1 + K2 the system as shown in the figure
will be :-
Q.99 An object of mass m is
suspended from a spring and it K1
(1) + K2
executes S.H.M. with frequency . If 2
_1
the mass is increased 4 times, the  1 1
new frequency will be :- (2)  + 
 2K1 K2 
_1
(1) 2 (2) /2 1 1  2 1
(3) + (4)  + 
(3)  (4) /4 2K1 K2  2K1 K2 
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Q.104 The time period of a spring Q.109 The spring constant of two
pendulum on earth is T. If it is springs are K1 and K2 respectively
taken on the moon, and made to springs are stretch up to that limit
oscillate, the period of vibration when potential energy of both
will be :- becomes equal. The ratio of applied
force (F1 and F2) on them will be :-
(1) Less than T
(2) Equal to T (1) K1 : K2
(3) More than T (2) K2 : K1
(4) None of these (3) K1 : K2
(4) K2 : K1
Q.105 On loading a spring with bob,
its period of oscillation in a vertical Q.110 Force constant of a spring is
plane is T. If this spring pendulum K. If one fourth part is detach then
is tied with one end to the a friction force constant of remaining spring
less table and made to oscillate in a will be –
horizontal plane, its period of
oscillation will be :- (1) (3/4)K (2) (4/3)K
(3) K (4) 4K
(1) T
(2) 2T Q.111 The spring constant of a
(3) T/2 spring is K. When it is divided into n
(4) will not execute S.H.M. equal parts, then what is the spring
constant of one part :-
Q.106 In a winding (spring) watch,
the energy is stored in the form of : (1) nK
(2) K/n
(1) Kinetic energy (3) nK/(n + 1)
(2) Potential energy (4) (n + 1)K/n
(3) Electrical energy
(4) None of these Q.112 A mass of 10g is connected
to a massless spring then time
Q.107 In an artificial satellite, the period of small oscillation is 10
object used is :- second. If 10 g mass is replaced by
40 g mass in same spring, then its
(1) Spring watch time period will be :-
(2) Pendulum watch
(3) Watches of both (1) 5s (2) 10s
spring and pendulum (3) 20s (4) 40s
(4) None of these
Q.113 The mass of a bob,
Q.108 Mass .m. is suspended from a suspended in a simple pendulum, is
spring of force constant K. Spring is halved from the initial mass, its
cut into two equal parts and same time period will :-
mass is suspended from it, then
new frequency will be :- (1) Be less
(2) Be more
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) Remain unchanged
(3)  (4) /2 (4) None of these

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Q.114 If the amplitude of a simple Q.120 An oscillating pendulum

pendulum is doubled, how many stops, because its energy –
times will the value of its maximum
velocity be that of the maximum (1) Changes into kinetic energy
velocity in initial case :- (2) Change into potential energy
(3) Change into heat energy
(1) 1/2 (2) 2 (4) Is destroyed
(3) 4 (4) 1/4
Q.121 Simple pendulum of large
Q.115 The length of a simple length is made equal to the radius
pendulum is 39.2/2 m. If g = 9.8 of the earth. Its period of
m/sec2, the value of time period is : oscillation will be :-

(1) 4 s (2) 8 s (1) 84.6 min.

(3) 2 s (4) 3 s (2) 59.8 min.
(3) 42.3 min.
Q.116 The length of a simple (4) 21.15 min.
pendulum is increased four times of
its initial value, its time period with Q.122 The maximum time period of
respect to its previous value will :- oscillation of a simple pendulum of
large length is :-
(1) Become twice
(2) Not be different (1) Infinity
(3) Be halved (2) 24 hours
(4) Be 2 times (3) 12 hours
(4) 1½ hours
Q.117 The time taken for a second
pendulum from one extreme point Q.123 In a simple oscillating
to another is :- pendulum, the work done by the
string in one oscillation will be :-
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 1/2 s (4) 4 s (1) Equal to the total
energy of the pendulum
Q.118 The length of a seconds (2) Equal to the K.E.
pendulum is (approximately) :- of the pendulum
(3) Equal to the P.E.
(1) 1 m (2) 1 cm of the pendulum
(3) 2 m (4) 2 cm (4) Zero

Q.119 The acceleration due to Q.124 A lift is ascending with

gravity at height R above the acceleration g/3. What will be the
surface of the earth is g/4. The time period of a simple pendulum
periodic time of a simple pendulum suspended from its ceiling if its
in an artificial satellite at this time period in stationary lift is T ?
height will be :-
(1) T/2
(1) T = 22l/g (2) 3T/2
(2) T = 22l/2g (3) 3T/4
(3) Zero (4) Infinity (4) T/4

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Q.125 A child swinging on a swing Q.130 When a tuning fork is

in sitting position, stands up, then vibrated, another in the
the period of the swing will be :- neighborhood begins to vibrate.
This is due to the phenomenon of :-
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease (1) Gravitation
(3) Remain same (2) Newton's III Law
(4) Increase if child is long (3) Resonance (4) None
and decrease if child is short
Q.131 The amplitude of a SHM
Q.126 A simple pendulum is reduces to 1/3 in first 20 second
suspended from the ceiling of a then in first 40 second its
vehicle, its time period is T. Vehicle amplitude becomes :-
is moving with constant velocity,
then time period of simple (1) 1/3 (2) 1/9
pendulum will be :- (3) 1/27 (4) 1/3

(1) Less than T (2) Equal to T Q.132 Amplitude of vibrations

(3) More than T remains constant in case of
(4) Cannot predict (i) Free Vibrations
(ii) Damped Vibrations
Q.127 The vibrations taking place (iii) Maintained Vibrations
in the diaphragm of a microphone (iv) Forced Vibrations
will be –
(1) i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii
(1) Free Vibrations (3) i, ii, iii (4) ii, iv
(2) Damped Vibrations
(3) Forced Vibrations Q.133 Two
(4) Electrically Maintained Vibrations bodies
performing
Q.128 In the case of sustained S.H.M. have
forced oscillations the amplitude of same
oscillations :- amplitude
and frequency. Their phases at a
(1) Decreases Linearly certain instant are as shown in the
(2) Decreases Sinusoidally figure. The phase difference
(3) Decreases Exponentially between them is –
(4) Always Remains Constant
(1) (11/6) (2) 
Q.129 Two sources of sound are in (3) /3 (4) (3/5)
resonance when :-
Q.134 The period of a particle is 8s.
(1) they look alike At t = 0 it is at the mean position.
(2) they are situated at a particular The ratio of distance covered by the
distance from each other particle in first second and second
(3) they produce the will be :-
sound of same intensity
(4) they are excited by (1) 2–1/2 (2) 1/2
the same exciting device (3) 1/2–1 (4) 2–1

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Oscillation SHM Question Bank

Q.135 A man of mass 60 kg Q.140 Two particles A and B of

standing on a platform executing equal masses are suspended from
S.H.M. in the vertical plane. The two massless springs of spring
displacement from the mean constants k1 and k2, respectively. If
position varies as y = 0.5 sin (2 the maximum velocities during
ft). The minimum value of f, for oscillations are equal, the ratio of
which the man will feel amplitudes of A and B is –
weightlessness at the highest point
is (y is in metres) (1) K1/K2 (2) k1/k2
(3) K2/K1 (4) k2/k1
(1) g/4 (2) 4g
(3) 2g/2 (4) 22g Q.141 A simple pendulum has time
period T1. The point of suspension
Q.136 Two simple harmonic is now moved upward according to
motions are represented by the the relation y = Kt2, (K = 1 m/s2)
equations y1 = 0.1 sin (100t+/3) where y is the vertical
and y2 = 0.1 cos100t. The phase displacement. The time period now
difference of the velocity of particle becomes T2.
1, with respect to the velocity of T12
particle 2 is – The ratio of 2 is : (g = 10 m/s2)
T2
(1) –/6 (2) /3
(1) 6/5 (2) 5/6
(3) –/3 (4) /6
(3) 1 (4) 4/5
Q.137 A point mass oscillates along
Q.142 A particle describes SHM in a
the x-axis according to the law x =
straight line about O. If the time
x0 cos(t – /4). If the acceleration
period of the motion is T then its
of the particle is written as a = A
kinetic energy at P be half of its
cos (t + ), then –
peak value at O, if the time taken
(1) A = x0,  = –/4 by the particle to travel from O to P
(2) A = x02,  = /4 is –
(3) A = x02,  = –/4
(1) (1/2)T (2) (1/4)T
(4) A = x02,  = 3/4
(3) (1/22)T (4) (1/8)T
Q.138 The potential energy of a
Q.143 An oscillator consists of a
simple harmonic oscillator at mean
block attached to spring (k = 400
position is 3 joules. If its mean K.E.
N/m), At some time t, the position
is 4 joules, its total energy will be :-
(measured from the system's
(1) 7J (2) 8J equilibrium location), velocity and
(3) 10J (4) 11J acceleration of the block are x =
0.100m, v = –15.0 m/s, and a =
Q.139 The total energy of a –90 m/s2. The amplitude of the
harmonic oscillator of mass 2kg is 9 motion and the mass of the block
joules. If its potential energy at are –
mean position is 5 joules, its K.E. at
the mean position will be :- (1) 0.2 m, 0.84 kg
(2) 0.3 m, 0.76 kg
(1) 9J (2) 14J (3) 0.4 m, 0.54 kg
(3) 4J (4) 11J (4) 0.5 m, 0.44 kg
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Electrostatics Question Bank

Q.1 Two parallel infinite line Q.5 An electron falls from rest
charges with linear charge through a vertical distance h in a
densities + C/m and – C/m are uniform and vertically upward
placed at a distance of 2R in free directed electric field E. The
space. What is the electric field direction of electrical field is now
mid-way between the two line reversed, keeping its magnitude
charges ? the same. A proton is allowed to
fall from rest in through the same
2 vertical distance h. The time of fall
(1) Zero (2) N/C
 0 R of the electron, in comparison to
  the time of fall of the proton is :-
(3) N/C (4) N/C
 0 R 2 0 R
(1) Smaller
(2) 5 times greater
Q.2 A hollow metal sphere of (3) 10 times greater (4) Equal
radius R is uniformly charged. The
electric field due to the sphere at a Q.6 The diagrams below show
distance r from the centre :– regions of equi-potentials :-
A positive charge is moved from A
(1) Increases as r increases to B in each diagram.
for r < R and for r > R
(2) Zero as r increases for r < R,
decreases as r increases for r > R
(3) Zero as r increases
for r < R, increases as
r increases for r > R
(4) Decreases as r increases
for r < R and for r > R (1) In all the four cases the
work done is the same
Q.3 A sphere encloses an electric (2) Minimum work is required
dipole with charge  ± 3 × 10–6 C. to move q in figure (a)
What is the total electric flux across (3) Maximum work is required
the sphere ? to move q in figure (b)
(4) Maximum work is required
(1) −3 × 10–6 Nm2/C to move q in figure (c)
(2) Zero
(3) 3 × 10–6 Nm2/C Q.7 Suppose the charge of a proton
(4) 6 × 10–6 Nm2/C and an electron differ slightly. One
of them is – e, the other is (e + 
Q.4 Two point charges A and B, e). If the net of electrostatic force
having charges +Q and –Q and gravitational force between
respectively, are placed at certain two hydrogen atoms placed at a
distance apart and force acting distance d (much greater than
between them is F. If 25% charge atomic size) apart is zero, then e
of A is transferred to B, then force is of the order of [Given mass of
between the charges becomes :– hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg]

(1) F (2) F9/16 (1) 10–23 C (2) 10–37 C

(3) 16F/9 (4) 4F/3 (3) 10–47 C (4) 10–20 C

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Q.8 An electric dipole is placed at Q.12 A, B and C are three points in

an angle of 300 with an electric a uniform electric field. The electric
field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It potential is :–
experiences a torque equal to 4
Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the
dipole length is 2 cm, is :–

(1) Same at all the

(1) 5 mC (2) 7 mC three points A, B and C
(3) 8 mC (4) 2 mC (2) Maximum at A
(3) Maximum at B
(4) Maximum at C
Q.9 The electric field in a certain
region is acting radically outward Q.13 In a region, the potential is
and is given by E = Ar. The charge represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x–8xy
contained in a sphere of radius 'a' – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and
centered at the origin of the field, x, y, z are in metres. The electric
will be given by :- force experienced by a charge of 2
coulombs situated at the point
(1) A 0 a2 (2) 40 Aa3 (1, 1, 1) is :–
(3) 0 Aa3 (4) 40 Aa2
(1) 65 N (2) 30 N
Q.10 If potential (in volts) in a (3) 24 N (4) 435 N
region is expressed as V (x, y, z)
6xy – y + 2yz, the electric field (in Q.14 An electrical dipole of moment
N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is :– 'p' is placed in an electric field of
intensity 'E'. The dipole acquires a
(1) –(6î +9ĵ + k ) position such that the axis of the
dipole makes an angle  with the
(2) –(3î +5ĵ +3 k ) direction of the field. Assuming that
(3) –(6î +5ĵ +2 k ) the potential energy of the dipole is
zero when  = 900, the torque and
(4) –2î +3ĵ + k ) the potential energy of the dipole
will be respectively :–
Q.11 A conducting sphere of radius
R is given a charge Q. The electric (1) p E sin, 2p E cos
potential and the electric field at (2) p E cos, –p E sin
the centre of the sphere are (3) p E sin, –p E cos
respectively:- (4) p E sin, –2p E cos
Q
(1) Zero and Q.15 Two metallic spheres of radii 1
4  0 R 2 cm and 3 cm are given charges of –
Q 1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C
(2) and zero respectively. If these are connected
4  0 R
by a conducting wire, the final
Q Q charge on the bigger sphere is –
(3) and
4  0 R 4  0 R 2
(1) 4  10–2 C (2) 1  10–2 C
(4) Both of zero (3) 2  10–2 C (4) 3  10–2 C

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Q.16 Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q Q.20 What is the flux through a
and 2Q are placed, at different cube of side 'a' if a point charge q is
corners of a square. The relation at one of its corner ?
between Q and q for which the
potential at the centre of the q q
(1) (2) 6a2
square is zero is – 0 2 0
1 2q q
(1) Q = q (2) Q = (3) (4)
q 0 8 0
1
(3) Q = –q (4) Q = _ Q.21 The electric potential V at any
q
point (x, y, z). (all in metres) in
Q.17 Four electric charges + q, +q, space is given by V = 4x2 volts. The
–q and –q are placed at the corners electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in
of a square of side 2L(see figure). volt/meter, is :–
The electric potential at point A,
midway between the two charges (1) 8 along negative X-axis
+q and +q, is :– (2) 8 along positive X-axis
(3) 16 along negative X-axis
(4) 16 along positive X-axis
(1)
1 2q
4 0 L

1+ 5 
Q.22 Two positive ions, each
1 2q  1
(2) 1+ carrying a charge q, are separated
4 0 L  
5 by a distance d. If F is the force of
1 2q  _ 1 repulsion between the ions, then
(3) 1 (4) Zero
4 0 L  
5 the number of electrons missing
from each ion will be (e being the
Q.18 A charge Q is enclosed by a charge on an electron) :-
Gaussian spherical surface of radius
R. If the radius is doubled, then the 4 0 Fd2
(1)
outward electric flux will :- q2
(1) Increase four times 4 0 Fd2
(2)
(2) Be reduced to half e2
(3) Remain the same (4) Be doubled 4 0 Fe2
(3)
Q.19 Three charges d2
each +q are placed at 4 0 Fd2
(4)
the three corners of e2
an isosceles triangle
ABC with sides BC and Q.23 The electric field at a distance
AC each equal to 2a. D and E are 3R/2 from the centre of a charged
the mid points of BC and CA conducting spherical shell of radius
respectively. The work done in R is E. The electric field at a
taking a charge Q from D to E is :– distance R/2 from the centre of the
3qQ 3qQ sphere is :-
(1) (2)
4 0 a 8 0 a
(1) E (2) E/2
qQ
(3) (4) Zero (3) E/3 (4) Zero
4 0 a
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Q.24 A square surface Q.28 A hollow cylinder has a

of side L meters in charge q coulombs located within it
the plane of the symmetrically. If  is the electric
paper is placed in a flux in units of volt-meter
uniform electric field associated with the curved surface
E (volts/m) acting B, the flux linked with the plane
along the same plane at an angle  surface A in units of volt-meters
with the horizontal side of the will be :–
square as shown in figure. The
electric flux linked to the surface, in q _
(1) 
units of volt-m, is :- 0

(1) Zero (2) EL2 1 q _ 

(2)  
(3) EL2cos (4) EL2sin 2 0 
Q.25 The electric potential at a q 
(3) (4)
point (x, y, z) is given by :- 2 0 3
V = –x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field

E at that point is –
Q.29 Three point charges +q, –2q
 and +q are placed at points (x = 0,
(1) E = î (2xy – z3) + ĵ xy2 + k 3 z2x
 y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0)
(2) E = î (2xy + z3) + ĵ xy2 + k 3xz2 and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0)

(3) E = î 2xy + ĵ(x2 + y2) + respectively. The magnitude and
k (3xz – y2) direction of the electric dipole

(4) E = î z3 + ĵ xyz + k z3 moment vector of this charge
assembly are –
Q.26 The electric potential at a
point in free space due to a charge (1) 2 qa anlog + x direction
Q coulombs is Q × 1011 volts. The (2) 2 qa anlog + x direction
electric field at that point is :- (3) 2 qa anlog the line joining
points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0)
(1) 40Q × 1020 volts/m (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(2) 120Q × 1022 volts/m (4) qa anlog the line joining points
(3) 40Q × 1020 volts/m (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(4) 120Q × 1020 volts/m
Q.30 A square
Q.27 Charges +q surface of side L
and –q are placed at metres is in the
points A and B plane of the paper.
respectively which A uniform electric

are a distance 2L field E (volt/m), also in the plane
apart, C is the midpoint of A and B. of the paper, is limited only to the
The work done in moving a charge lower half of the square surface
+Q along the semicircle CRD is – (see figure). The electric flux in SI
units associated with the surface is.
qQ qQ
(1) _ (2)
6 0 L 4 0 L (1) Zero (2) EL2
qQ qQ EL2 EL2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 0 L 6 0 L 2 0 2
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Q.31 An electric dipole of dipole Q.36 Two


moment P is lying along a uniform charges are
 placed as
electric field E. The work done in
rotating the dipole by 900 is :- shown in figure
Where should a third charge be
(1) 2pE (2) pE placed so that it remains at rest ?

(3) 2pE (4) pE/2 (1) 30 cm from 9e

(2) 40 cm from 16e
Q.32 Which of the following (3) 40 cm from 9e (4) (1) or (2)
charges cannot be present on an oil
drop in Millikan's experiment :- Q.37 Two point charges +9q and +q
are kept 16 cm apart. Where should
(1) 4.0 × 10–19 C a third charge Q be placed between
(2) 6.0 × 10–19 C them so that the system remains in
(3) 10.0 × 10–19 C equilibrium ?
(4) All of them
(1) 24 cm from +9q
Q.33 In nature, the electric charge (2) 12 cm from + 9q
of any system is always equal to :- (3) 24 cm from +q
(4) 12 cm from +q
(1) Half integral multiple of
Q.38 Two balls carrying charges +7
the least amount of charge
C and –5 C attract each other
(2) Zero
with a force F. If a charge –2 C is
(3) Square of the least
added to both, the force between
amount of charge them will be –
(4) Integral multiple of the
least amount of charge (1) F (2) F/2
(3) 2F (4) Zero
Q.34 Force between two identical
spheres charged with same charge Q.39 Two equal and like charges
is F. If 50% charge of one sphere is when placed 5 cm apart experience
transferred to the other sphere a repulsive force of 0.144 newton’s.
then the new force will be :- The magnitude of the charge in
micro-coulomb will be –
(1) 3/4 F
(2) 3/8 F (1) 0.2 (2) 2
(3) 3/2 F (3) 20 (4) 12
(4) None of these
Q.40 Two point charges of + 2 C
Q.35 Two point charges placed at a and + 6 C repel each other with a
distance 'r' in air exert a force 'F'. force of 12 N. If each is given an
The distance at which they exert additional charge of –4 C, then
same force when placed in a certain force will become :-
medium (dielectric constant K) is –
(1) 4 N (attractive)
(2) 60 N (attractive)
(1) rK (2) r/K
(3) 4 N (repulsive)
(3) r/K (4) rK (4) 12 N (attractive)

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Q.41 What equal charges should to Q.45 Two charges 4q and q are
be placed on earth and moon to placed at a distance  apart. A third
neutralize their gravitational charged particle Q is placed at the
attraction ? (mass of earth = 1025 middle of them. If resultant force
kg, mass of moon = 1023 kg) on q is zero then the value of Q is :-

(1) 8.6 × 1013 C (1) q (2) – q

(2) 6.8 × 1026 C (3) 2q (4) – 2q
(3) 8.6 × 103 C
Q.46 Two similar spheres having +q
(4) 9 × 106 C
and –q charges are kept at a certain
separation. F force acts between
Q.42 A point charge q1 exerts a
them. If another similar sphere
force F upon another point charge
having +q charge is kept in the
q2. If a third charge q3 be placed
middle of them, it experiences a
quite close to the charge q2 then
force in magnitude and direction as -
the force that charge q1 exerts on
the charge q2 will be :- (1) Zero having no direction
(2) 8F towards +q charge
(1) F (3) 8F towards –q charge
(2) >F (4) 4F towards +q charge
(3) <F
Q.47 Four charges are placed at the
(4) Zero
circumference of the dial of a clock
as shown in figure. If the clock has
Q.43 A charge Q is divided in two
only hour hand, then the resultant
parts Q1 and Q2 and these charges
force on a positive charge q0 placed
are placed at a distance R. There
at the centre, points in the direction
will be maximum repulsion
which shows the time as –
between them when :-
(1) 1 : 30
(1) Q1 = Q – q; Q2 = 9 (2) 7 : 30
(2) Q1 = 2Q/3, Q2 = Q/3 (3) 4 : 30
(3) Q1 = 3/Q4, Q2 = Q/4 (4) (4) 10 : 30
(4) Q1 = Q2 = Q/2
Q.48 Two small spheres each
Q.44 The force of repulsion having a charge +Q are suspended
between two point charges is F, by insulating threads of length L
when these are 1 m apart. Now the from a hook. This arrangement is
point charges are replaced by taken to a space where there is no
conducting spheres of radii 5 cm gravitational effect, then the angle
having the charge same as that of between the two threads and the
point charges. The distance tension in each will be :-
between their centres is 1 m, then
1 Q2 1 Q2
the force of repulsion will :- (1) 1800 , (2) 900 ,
40 (2L)2 40 L2
(1) Increase 1 Q2
(3) 1800 ,
(2) Decrease 40 2L2
(3) Remain same 1 Q2
(4) Become 10F/9 (4) 1800 ,
40 L2
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Q.49 In the fig. force on charge at A Q.53 The electric field in a certain
in the direction. normal to BC will be.   K 
region is given by E =  3  i.
x 
kq
(1) _ 2 The dimensions of K are :-
a
kq2 (1) MLT–3A–1
(2) _
2a2 (2) ML–2T–3A–1
kq2 3kq2 (3) ML4T–3A–1
(3) (4)
2a2 a2 (4) M°L°T°A°
Q.50 Two charges 9e and 3e are Q.54 Figure below shows regular
placed at a separation r. The hexagon, with different charges
distance of the point where the placed at the vertices. In which of
electric field intensity will be zero, is the following cases is the electric
field at the centre zero ?
r
(1) from 9e charge
(1 + 3)
3r (1) IV
(2) from 9e charge
3+1
(2) III
3r
(3) from 9e charge
3 +1 (3) I
3r
(4) _ from 3e charge (4) II
(1 3)
Q.55 Electric field at the centre 'O'
Q.51 A ring of radius R is charged of a semicircle of radius 'a' having
uniformly with a charge + Q. The linear charge density  is given as :
electric field at a point on its axis at
a distance r from any point on the 2 
ring will be :- (1) (2)
0 a 0 a
KQ KQ 
(1) (2) (3)
(r _ R 2 )
2
r2 2 0 a
KQ KQr 
(3) 3 (r2 _ R2 )1/2 (4) (4)
r R3  0 a

Q.52 Two positive charges of 1 C Q.56 A semicircular ring of radius

and 2 C are placed 1 metre apart. 0.5 m is uniformly charged with a
The value of electric field in N/C at total charge of 1.4 × 10–9 C. The
the midpoint of the two charges electric field in intensity at the
will be :- centre of this ring is :-

(1) 10.8 × 104 (1) Zero

(2) 3.6 × 104 (2) 320 V/m.
(3) 1.8 × 104 (3) 64 V/m.
(4) 5.4 × 104 (4) 32 V/m.

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Q.57 For the given figure the Q.61 Choose the correct statement
direction of electric field at A will regarding electric lines of force :-
be :-
(1) They emerge from negative charge
(1) Towards AL and terminate at positive charge
(2) Towards AY (2) The electric field in that
region is weak where the density
(3) Towards AX of electric lines of force are more
(4) Towards AZ (3) They are in radial
directions for a point charge
Q.58 –1 × 10–6 C charge is on a (4) They have a physical existence
drop of water having mass 10–6 kg.
What electric field should be Q.62 Which one of the following
applied on the drop so that it is in pattern of electrostatic lines of
the balanced condition with its force is not possible ?
weight –

(1) 10 V/m upward

(1) (2)
(2) 10 V/m downward
(3) 0.1 V/m downward
(4) 0.1 V/m upward

Q.59 Two small identical spheres,

each of mass 1 g and carrying same (3) (4)
charge 10–9 C are suspended by
threads of equal lengths. If the
distance between the centres of the Q.63 A solid sphere of radius R, is
spheres is 0.3 cm in equilibrium charged uniformly with a total
then the inclination of the thread charge Q. Then the correct
with the vertical will be – expression for electric field is (r =
distance from centre) :-
(1) tan–1 (0.1)
(2) tan–1 (2) KQr
(1) , Where r < R
(3) tan–1 (1.5) R3
KQ
(4) tan–1 (0.6) (2) 2 , Where r3 R
r
Q.60 Two infinitely long parallel (3) It is zero, at all points
wires having linear charge (4) (1) and (2) both
densities, 1 and 2 respectively
are placed at a distance R. The Q.64 A sphere of radius R and
force per unit length on either wire charge Q is placed inside a
will be :- concentric imaginary sphere of
radius 2R. The flux associated with
k212 k212 the imaginary sphere is :-
(1) (2)
R2 R
(1) Q/0 (2) Q/20
k12 k12
(3) (4) (3) 4Q/0 (4) 2Q/0
R2 R
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Q.65 A nonconducting solid sphere Q.69 Gaus's law is given by

 
of radius R is charged uniformly.
The magnitude of the electric field
 E.ds = q, if net charge enclosed
0 
s
due to the sphere at a distance r by a Gaussian surface is zero then –
from its centre :-
(a) Increases as r increases, for r < R (1) E must be zero on the surface
(b) Decreases as r increases, (2) Number of incoming and
for 0 < r <  outgoing electric lines are equal
(c) Decreases as r increases, (3) There is a net
for R < r <  incoming of electric lines
(d) Is discontinuous at r = R (4) None

(1) a, c (2) c, d Q.70 The electric field is 100 V/m,

(3) a, b (4) b, d at a distance of 20 cm from the
centre of a dielectric sphere of
Q.66 20 C charge is placed inside a radius 10 cm. Then E at 3 cm
closed surface; then flux linked distance from the centre of sphere is
with the surface is . If 80 C
charge is put inside the surface (1) 100 V/m (2) 125 V/m
then change in flux is :- (3) 120 V/m (4) Zero

(1) 4 (2) 5 Q.71 If the electric flux entering

(3)  (4) 8 and leaving a closed surface is f1
and f2 respectively then electric
Q.67 In a region of space the charge inside the surface will be :-

electric field is given by E = 8î + 4ĵ
 (1) (1 + 2)0 (2) (2 – 1)0
+ 3 k. The electric flux through a
 + 2  _ 1
surface of area of 100 units in the (3) 1 (4) 2
x-y plane is – ε0 ε0

(1) 800 units (2) 300 units Q.72 The electric field in a region
(3) 400 units (4) 1500 units of space is given by E = (5î + 2 ĵ)
N/C. The electric flux through an
Q.68 Electric charge is area of 2 m2 lying in the YZ plane,
uniformly distributed in S.I. units is :-
over a long straight wire
(1) 10 (2) 20
of radius 1 mm. The
(3) 102 (4) 229
charge per cm length of
the wire is Q coulombs.
Q.73 The total flux
A cylindrical surface of
associated with the
radius 50 cm and length 1m
given cube will be –
encloses the wire symmetrically as
where 'a' is side of
shown in fig. The total flux passing
the cube :-
through the cylindrical surface is :-
(1/0 = 4 × 9 × 109 SI units)
Q 100Q (1) 162 × 10–3 Nm2/C
(1) (2)
0 0 (2) 162 × 103 Nm2/C
10Q 100Q (3) 162 × 10–6 Nm2/C
(3) (4)
 0  0 (4) 162 × 106 Nm2/C

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Q.74 A point charge is placed at a Q.78 Certain positive charge is

distance a/2 perpendicular to the given to a conductor. Then its
plane and above the centre of a potential :-
square of side a. The electric flux
through the square is :– (1) Is maximum at the surface
(2) Is maximum at the centre
q q (3) Remains same
(1) (2)
0  0 throughout the conductor
q q (4) Is maximum somewhere
(3) (4) between the surface and the centre
4 0 6 0

Q.79 Potential inside a charged

Q.75 As shown in the fig. charges +
spherical shell is :-
q and –q are placed at the vertices
B and C of an isosceles triangle.
(1) Uniform
The potential at the vertex A is :–
(2) Proportional to the
distance from the centre
1 . 2q (3) Inversely proportional
(1)
4 0 a2 + b2 to the distance
(4) Inversely proportional to
(2) Zero square of distance from the centre
1 . q
(3)
4 0 a2 + b2 Q.80 A solid conducting sphere
1 . _q having a charge Q is surrounded by
(4) an uncharged concentric
4 0 a2 + b2
conducting spherical shell. Let the
potential difference between the
Q.76 At any point on the surface of the solid sphere and the
perpendicular bisector of the line outer surface of the shell be V. If
joining two equal and opposite the shell is now given a charge –3Q
charges :– the new potential difference
between the same two surfaces is :
(1) The electric field is zero
(2) The electric potential is zero (1) V
(3) The electric potential decreases with (2) 2V
increasing distance from their mid point (3) 4V
(4) The electric field is (4) –2V
perpendicular to the line
joining the charges Q.81 Four charges 2C, –3C, –4C and
5C respectively are placed at the
Q.77 What is the electric potential four comers of a square. Which of
at a distance 'x' from the centre, the following statements is true for
inside a conducting sphere having a the point of intersection of the
charge Q and radius R ? diagonals ?
1 Q 1 Q
(1) (2) (1) E = 0, V = 0
4 0 R 4 0 X (2) E  0, V = 0
1 QX (3) E = 0, V  0
(3) (4) Zero
4 0 R2 (4) E  0, V  0

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Q.82 A non conducting ring is of Q.86 Electric field at a distance x

radius 0.5 m. 1.11 × 10–10 coulombs from the origin is given as E =
charge is non-uniformly distributed 100N- m2 / C
over the circumference of ring . Then potential
x2
which produces electric field E difference between the points
around itself. lf l = 0 is the centre situated at x = 10 m and x = 20 m is :
of the ring, then the value of –
 =0 (1) 5 V (2) 10 V
 – E . d  is :–
 = (3) 15 V (4) 4 V

Q.87 A circle of radius R is drawn in

(1) 2 V (2) –2 V
a uniform electric field E as shown
(3) –1 V (4) zero
in the fig. VA, VB, VC and VD are
respectively the potentials of points
Q.83 A hollow metal sphere of
A, B, C and D on the circle then :–
radius 5 cm is charged such that
the potential on its surface is 10
(1) VA>VC,VB=VD
volts. The electric field at the
(2) VA<VC,VB=VD
centre of the sphere will be :-
(3) VA = VC, VB<VD
(4) VA=VC,VB>VD
(1) 50 volt/meter
(2) 10 volt/meter Q.88 A uniform electric field pointing
(3) 5 volt/meter in positive x-direction exists in a
(4) Zero region. Let A be the origin, B be the
point on the x-axis at x = +1 cm and
Q.84 The potential at a distance C be the point on the y-axis at y = +1
R/2 from the centre of a conducting cm. Then the potentials at the points
sphere of radius R containing A, B and C satisfy –
charge Q will be –
(1) VA < VB (2) VA > VB
(1) 0 (3) VA < VC (4) VA > VC
Q
(2) Q.89 The electric potential V is
8 0 R
given as a function of distance x
Q
(3) (metre) by V = (5 × 2 –10 × –9)
4 0 R volts. The value of electric field at x
Q = 1 m is :–
(4)
2 0 R
(1) 20 V/m (2) 6 V/m
Q.85 Four charges +Q. –Q. +Q and (3) 11 V/m (4) Zero
–Q are situated at the comers of a
square; in a sequence then at the Q.90 The electric potential and
centre of the square – electric field at a point due to a point
charge are 600 V and 200 N/C
(1) E = 0, V = 0 respectively. Then magnitude of the
(2) E = 0, V  0 point charge should be :-
(3) E  0, V = 0
(1) 3 C (2) 30 C
(4) E = 0, V  0
(3) 0.2 C (4) 0.5 C

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Q.91 Two concentric spheres of Q.95 Two conducting spheres of

radii R and r have similar charges radii r1 and r2 have same electric
with equal surface charge densities field near their surfaces. The ratio
(). What is the electric potential at of their electric potentials is –
their common centre ?
(1) r12 / r12 (2) r22 / r12

(1) /0 (2) (R _ r) (3) r1 / r2 (4) r2 / r2
0
 Q.96 A charged hollow metal
(3) (R + r) (4) None of these
0 sphere has a radius r. if the
potential difference between its
Q.92 Three charges 2q, –q, –q are surface and a point at distance 3r
located at the vertices of an from the centre is V, the electric
equilateral triangle. At the centre of intensity at a distance 3r from the
the triangle :– centre is :-

(1) The field is zero but V V

(1) (2)
potential is non-zero 6r 4r
(2) The field is non-zero V V
(3) (4)
but potential is zero 3r 2r
(3) Both field and potential are zero
(4) Both field and potential are non-zero Q.97 The variation
 of potential with
Q.93 The electric field E is constant distance x from a
in both magnitude and direction. fixed point is
Consider a path of length d at an shown in figure.
angle   = 600 with respect to field The electric field
lines as shown in figure. The at x = 13 m is –
potential difference between points
1 and 2 is :- (1) 7.5 volt/meter
(2) –7.5 volt/meter
E
(1) (3) 5 volt/meter
d sin 600
(4) –5 volt/meter
(2) Ed cos 600
Ed
(3) Q.98 In the electric field of charge
cos 600 Q, another charge is carried from A
E to B, A to C, A to D and A to E, then
(4) sin 600
d work done will be :–

Q.94 The electric potential in a (1) Minimum along

certain region is expressed by V = the path AB
6x – 8xy2 – 8y + 6yz – 4z2 volts. (2) Minimum along
The magnitude of the force acting
the path AD
on a charge of 2 C situated at the
(3) Minimum along
origin will be –
the path AE
(1) 2 N (2) 6 N (4) Zero along
(3) 8 N (4) 20 N each path
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Q.99 Choose the incorrect Q.103 A 5 C charge experiences a

statement :- force of 2000 N when moved
between two points along the field
(1) The potential energy per separated by a distance of 2 cm in a
unit positive charge in an electric uniform electric field. The potential
field at some point is called the difference between the two points
electric potential. is :-
(2) The work required to be done
to move a point charge from one (1) 8 volts
point to another in an electric field
(2) 80 volts
depends on the position of the points
(3) The potential energy of the system (3) 800 volts
will increase If a positive charge is
(4) 8000 volts
moved against the Coulomblan force
(4) The value of fundamental
charge is not equivalent Q.104 When the separation
between two charges is increased,
to the electronic charge.
the electric potential energy of the
system of charges :-
Q.100 A charge of 10 esu is placed
at a distance of 2 cm from a charge
of 40 esu and 4 cm from another (1) Increases
charge of –20 esu. The potential (2) Decreases
energy of the charge 10 esu is :-
(in ergs) – (3) Remains the same
(4) May increase
(1) 87.5 (2) 112.5
(3) 150 (4) Zero or decrease

Q.101 As shown in Q.105 An electron and a proton are

figure, on bringing a set free in a uniform electric field.
charge Q from point A The ratio of their accelerations is :-
to B and from B to C,
the work done are 2 (1) Unity
joules and –3 joules (2) Zero
respectively. The work done in
bringing the charge from C to A will (3) mP/me
be – (4) me/mP

(1) –1 joule (2) 1 joule Q.106 A particle of mass m and

(3) 2 joules (4) 5 joules charge q is released from rest in an
electric field E. Then the K.E. after
Q.102 15 joule of work has to be time t will be :-
done against an existing electric
field to take a charge of 0.01 C from
(1) 2E2t2/mq
A to B. Then the potential
difference (VB – VA) is :- (2) E2q2t2/2m
(3) Eq2m/2t2
(1) 1500 volts (2) –1500 volts
(3) 0.15 volts (4) None of these (4) Eqm/2t
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Q.107 List I gives certain situations Q.109 An electron enters an electric

in which electric field is field with its velocity in the
represented by electric lines of direction of the electric field lines
forces in x-y plane. List II gives then :-
corresponding representation of
equipotential lines in x-y plane. (1) The path of the
Match the figures in List I with the electron will be a circle
figures in List II and indicate your (2) The path of the electron
answer. will be a parabola
(3) The velocity of the electron
will decrease just after the entry
(4) The velocity of the electron
will increase just after the entry

Q.110 The figure below shows the

path of a positively charged particle
1 through a rectangular region of
uniform electric field as shown in
the figure. What are the direction
movement of particles 2, 3 and 4

(1) Down, top, down

Codes P Q R S
(1) 1 2 3 4 (2) Down, down, top
(2) 4 3 2 1 (3) Top, top, down
(3) 3 4 2 1 (4) Top, Down, down
(4) 2 1 3 4
Q.111 For a dipole, the value of
Q.108 Which statement is true ? each charge is 10–10 stat coulomb
(i) A ring of radius R carries a and their separation is 1Å, then its
uniformly distributed charge +Q. A dipole moment is :–
point charge –q is placed on the
axis of the ring at a distance 2R (1) One debye
from its centre and released. The (2) 2 debye
particle executes simple harmonic
(3) 10–3 debye
motion along the axis of the ring.
(ii) Electrons move from a region of (4) 3 × 10–20 debye
higher potential to that of lower
potential – Q.112 The electric potential and
field at a point due to an electric
(1) Only (i) dipole are proportional to :-
(2) Only (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) (1) r, r–1 (2) r–1, r–2
(4) None of these (3) r–2, r–3 (4) r–2, r–2

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
Q.113 When an electric dipole P is Q.117 The force on a charge
 situated on the axis of a dipole is F;
kept in a uniform electric field E
then for what value of angle if the charge is shifted to double
  the distance, the force acting will
between P and E, will the torque be :-
be maximum ?
(1) Zero
(1) 900
(2) F/2
(2) 00
(3) 1800 (3) F/4
(4) 450 (4) F/8

Q.114 What will be the ratio of Q.118 The electric potential at a

electric field at a point on the axis point due to an electric dipole will
and an equidistant point on the be :-
equatorial line of a dipole :–    
p .r p .r
(1) k 3 (2) k 2
(1) 1 : 2 r r
   
(2) 2 : 1 p ×r p ×r
(3) 4 : 1 (3) k 3 (4) k 2
r r
(4) 1 : 4
Q.119 A small electric dipole is of
Q.115 For a dipole q = 2 × 10–6 C ; d dipole moment p. The electric
= 0.01m; find the maximum torque potential at a distance 'r' from its
on the dipole if E = 5 × 105 N/C :– centre and making an angle  from
the axis of dipole will be :-
(1) 1 × 10–3 Nm–1
(2) 10 × 10–3 Nm–1 kp sin
(3) 10 × 10–3 Nm (1)
r2
(4) 1 × 10–4 Nm kpcos 
(2)
r2
Q.116 Two particles each of mass M
kp
is attached to the two ends of a (3) 3 1 + 3cos2 
massless rigid non-conducting rod r
of length L. The two particles carry kp
(4) 3 1 + 3sin2 
charges +q and –q respectively. r
This arrangement is held in a
region of uniform electric field E Q.120 If an electric dipole is placed
such that the rod makes a small in an electric field generated by a
angle  (<50) with the field point charge then :-
direction. The time period of rod is
(rod oscillates about its centre of (1) The net electric force
mass) :- on the dipole must be zero
(2) The net electric force
ML ML on the dipole may be zero
(1) 2 (2)  (3) The torque on the dipole
2qE 2qE
due to the field must be zero
 ML ML (4) The torque on the dipole
(3) (4) 4
2 2qE 2qE due to the field may be zero

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Q.121 Two conductors are of same Q.125 An uncharged sphere of

shape and size. One of copper and metal is placed in between two
the other of aluminium (less charged plates as shown. The lines
conducting) are placed in an of force appear as :-
uniform electric field. The charge
induced in aluminium :-

(1) Will be less than that in copper

(2) Will be more than that in copper (1) (2)
(3) Will be equal
to that in copper
(4) Cannot be compared
with that of copper
(3) (4)
Q.122 A big hollow metal sphere A
is charged to 100 volts and another
smaller hollow sphere B is charged Q.126 Consider a conducting
to 50 volts. If B is put inside A and spherical shell of radius R with its
joined with a metallic wire, then centre at the origin, carrying
the direction of charge flow :- uniform positive surface charge
density. The variation of the
(1) Is from A to B
magnitude of the electric field
(2) Is from B to A
|E(r)| and the electric potential
(3) No charge flows
V(r) with the distance r from the
(4) Depends on
centre. is best represented by the
the radii of spheres
graph (Here dotted line represents
Q.123 Two concentric potential curve and bold line
conducting spheres represents electric field curve) :-
are of radii r1 and r2.
The outer sphere is
given a charge q. The
charge q' on the inner sphere will (1) (2)
be (inner sphere is grounded) :-

(1) q (2) –q
r
(3) _ q 1 (4) Zero
r2 (3) (4)

Q.124 A charge given to any

conductor resides on its outer Q.127 Three charges –q1 + q2 and –
surface, because :- q3 are placed as shown in the
figure. The x–component of the
(1) The free charge tends to be in its force on –q1 is proportional to :–
minimum potential energy state.
(2) The free charge tends to be in its q2 _ q3
minimum kinetic energy state. (1) sin
b2 a2
(3) The free charge tends to be in its
q2 q
maximum potential energy state. (2) 2 _ 23 cos 
(4) The free charge tends b a
2
to be in its maximum q q q q
(3) 2 + 23 sin  (4) 22 + 23 cos 
kinetic energy state. b a b a
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Q.128 An electron is moving round Q.132 A solid metallic sphere has a

the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a charge + 3Q. Concentric with this
circular orbit  of radius r. The sphere is a conducting spherical
Coulomb force F on the electron is. shell having charge –Q. The radius
of the sphere is 'a' and that of the
e2  e 2
spherical shell is 'b' (b > a). What
(1) K r (2) _ K 3 r
r2 r is the electric field at a distance R
e2 e2  (a < R < b) from the centre ?
(3) K 3 r (4) _ K 3 r
r r
4Q 3Q
(1) (2)
Q.129 A charge q is placed in the 20R 2 40R 2
middle of two equal and like point
3Q Q
charges Q. For this system to remain (3) (4)
in equilibrium the value of q is :- 20R 2 20R 2

Q Q Q.133 A metal sphere A of radius r1

(1) _ (2) _
3 4 charged to a potential 1 is
Q Q enveloped by a thin walled
(3) (4) _ conducting spherical shell B of
2 2
radius r2. Then potential 2 of the
Q.130 Two positive charges each of sphere A after it is connected to the
equal magnitude q are placed at a shell B by a thin conducting wire
separation 2a perpendicular to X- will be :-
axis. Another negative charge of
mass m, is placed midway between r1
(1) 1
the two charges on X-axis. If this r2
charge is displaced from
r 
equilibrium state to a distance x (x (2) 1  2 
<< a), then the particle :-  r1 
 r 
(1) Will execute simple harmonic (3) 1 1 _ 2 
 r1 
motion about its its equilibrium position
(2) Will oscillate about its  rr 
(4) 1  1 2 
equilibrium position but will not  r1 + r2 
execute simple harmonic motion
(3) Will not return back to
Q.134 A circular wire loop of radius
the equilibrium position
'r' carries a total charge 'Q'
(4) Will stop at equilibrium position
distributed uniformly over its
Q.131 Two equal negative charges length. A small length dl of the wire
each –q, are placed at points (0, a) is cut off. The electric field at the
and (0, –a) on Y-axis, A positive centre due to the remaining wire :-
charge q is released from point (2a,
0). This charge will be :– Qdl
(1)
82 0 r3
(1) Execute S.H.M. about the origin. Qdl
(2) Oscillate but not execute S.H.M. (2)
22 0 r3
(3) Move towards origin and
Qdl Qdl
will become stationary. (3) (4)
(4) Execute S.H.M. along Y-axis. 8 0 r3 42 0 r3

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Q.135 A thin glass rod is Q.139 Three charges Q, +q and +q

bent into a semicircle of are placed at the vertices of a right-
radius r. A charge +q is angled isosceles triangle as shown
uniformly distributed in figure. The net electrostatic
along the upper half and energy of the configuration is zero.
a charge –q is uniformly Q is equal to –
distributed along the
lower half, as shown in the figure. –q
The magnitude and direction of the (1)
1+ 2
electric field E produced at P, the
centre of the circle, will be :– – 2q
(2)
2+ 2
(1) 0 (3) –2q
(2) q/02r2 perpendicular to the (4) +q
line OP and directed downward
(3) q/0r2 Perpendicular to the Q.140 A ball of mass 1g and charge
line OP and directed downward 10–8 C moves from a point A (VA =
(4) q/0r2 along the axis OP 600 V) to a point B whose potential
Q.136 A sphere of 4 cm radius is is zero. Velocity of the ball at point
suspended within a hollow sphere of B is 20 cms–1. Velocity of the ball at
6 cm radius. The inner sphere is point A is :–
charged to a potential 3 e.s.u. When
the outer sphere is earthed, the (1) 16.7 ms–1
charge on the inner sphere is – (2) 16.7 cms–1
(3) 2.8 ms–1
(1) 54 e.s.u (2) 1/4 e.s.u (4) 2.8 cms–1
(3) 30 e.s.u (4) 36 e.s.u
Q.141 If a charged spherical
Q.137 A point charge conductor of radius 10 cm has
q moves from point P potential V at a point distant 5 cm
to point S along the from its centre, then the potential
path PQRS (figure) in at a point 15 cm away from the
a uniform electric field centre will be :–
E pointing parallel to
the positive direction (1) 3V
of the X-axis. The co-ordinates of (2) 3/2 V
the points P,Q,R and S are (a, b, 0), (3) 2/3 V
(2a, 0, 0), (a, –b, 0) and (0, 0, 0) (4) 1/3 V
respectively. The work done by the
field in the above process is – Q.142 Identical charges (–q) are
(1) qEa (2) –qEa placed at each corners of a cube of
(3) qEa2 (4) qE[(2a)2 + b2] side 'b' then E.P.E. of a charge (+
q) placed at the centre of the cube
Q.138 Two positive point charges of will be :–
12 mC and 8 mC are 10 cm apart.
The work done in bringing them 4 – 4 2q2 – 8 2q2
cm closer is :- (1) (2)
3 0 b 3 0 b
(1) 1.3 eV (2) 13 J – 4q2 8 2q2
(3) (4)
(3) 5.8 J (4) 5.8 eV 3 0 b 40 b
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Q.143 A spherical conducting shell Q.146 Figure shows

of radius R has a charge q. A point a family of parallel
charge Q is placed at its centre. The equi-potential
electrostatic potential at a point P a surfaces and four
distant R/2 from the centre of the paths along which
shell is :– an electron is made
to move from one
(q + Q) 2 surface to another as shown.
(1)
4 0 R (A) What is the direction of the
2Q electric field ?
(2) (B) Rank the paths according to
4 0R
work done, greatest first.
2Q _ 2q
(3)
4 0R 4 0R (1) Rightward ; 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
2Q q (2) Leftward ; 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(4) +
4 0R 4 0R
(3) Rightward ; 3 = 4 > 2 = 1
(4) Leftward ; 1 > 2 > 3 = 4
Q.144 Figure given shows four
arrangement of charged particles,
Q.147 A charge q = 10–6 C of mass
all at the same distance from the
2 g (fig.) is free to move when
origin. Rank the situations
released at a distance 'a' from the
according to the net electric
fixed charge Q. Calculate its speed,
potentials (V1, V2, V3, V4) at the
when it recedes to a distance b :-
origin, most positive first :–
[Assume a = 1m,b = 10m,Q 10–3 C]

(1) 90 m/s.
(2) 9 m/s.
(1) V1 > V2 > V3 > V4 (3) 900 m/s.
(2) V2 > V1 > V3 > V4
(4) None of these
(3) V2 > V1 > V4 > V3
(4) V4 > V1 > V3 > V2
Q.148 A point charge q of mass m is
located at the centre of a ring
Q.145 Four points a,
having radius R and charge Q with
b, c and d are set at
its axis oriented along X-axis. When
equal distance from
the point charge is displaced
the centre of a dipole
slightly, it accelerates along the X-
as shown in the figure.
axis to infinity; the ultimate speed
The electrostatic
of the point charge (consider no
potentials Va, Vb, Vc and Vd would
energy loss in radiation) is :-
satisfy the following relation :-

(1) Va > Vb > Vc > Vd 2kQq kQq

(1) (2)
(2) Va > Vb = Vd > Vc mR mR
(3) Va = Vc > Vb = Vd kQq
(4) Vb = Vd > Va > Vc (3) (4) Zero
2mR
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Q.149 An electron of mass me Q.153 Consider the following

initially at rest moves through a statements about electric dipole
certain distance in a uniform and select the correct ones :-
electric field in time t1. A proton of S1 : Electric dipole moment vector

mass mP also initially at rest takes P is directed from negative charge
time t2 to move through an equal to positive charge.
distance in this uniform electric S2 : The electric field of a dipole at
field. Neglecting the effect of a point with position vector r

gravity, the ratio of t2/t1 is nearly depends on  r  as well as the
 
equal to :- angle between r and P.
S3 : The electric dipole potential
(1) 1 (2) (mp/me)1/2 falls off as 1/r2 and not as 1/r.
(3) (me/mp)1/2 (4) 1836 S4 : In a uniform electric field, the
electric dipole experiences no net
Q.150 There is a uniform electric 
forces but a torque   = P × E.
field of strength 103 V/m along y-
axis. A body of mass 1 g and charge
(1) S2, S3 and S4
10–6 C is projected into the field
(2) S3 and S4
from origin along the positive x-
(3) S2 and S3
axis with a velocity 10 m/s. Its
(4) All four
speed in m/s after 10 s is :-
(neglect gravitation) –
Q.154 A hollow spherical conducting
shell of inner radius r1 and outer
(1) 10 (2) 52
radius r2 has a charge Q. A charge – q
(3) 102 (4) 20
is placed at the centre of the sphere.
The surface charge densities on the
Q.151 An elementary particle of
inner and outer surfaces of the
mass m and charge +e is projected
sphere will be respectively :–
with velocity v towards a much
more massive particle of charge Ze, q q
where Z > 0. What is the closest (1) 2
and
4r1 4r22
possible distance of approach of
_q Q+q
the incident particle ? (2) and
2
4r1 4r22
Ze2 Ze q Q_q
(1) (2) (3) and
20mv2 20mv2 4r12 4r22
Ze2 Ze Q_q
(3) (4) (4) 0 and
80mv2 80mv2 4r22

Q.152 An electric dipole is placed in Q.155 An electron travels a

a non uniform electric field, then it distance of 0.10 m perpendicular to
experiences :- an electric field of intensity 3200
V/m, entering with a velocity 4 ×
(1) A force which must be zero 107 m/s. What is the deviation in
(2) A torque which must be non zero its path ?
(3) A force which must be non zero
(4) Both a force and a torque (1) 1.76 mm. (2) 17.6 mm.
which may be non zero (3) 176 mm. (4) 0.176 mm.

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Q.156 Two point charges a & b

whose magnitudes are same are
positioned at a certain distance
from each other ; a is at origin.
Graph is drawn between electric
field strength E and distance x from
a. E is taken positive if it is along
the line joining from a to b –

(1) a is positive, b is negative

(2) a & b both are positive
(3) a & b both are negative
(4) a is negative, b is positive

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Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.1 Under the influence of a Q.5 The magnetic force acting on a

uniform magnetic field charged charged particle of charge –2μC in
particle is moving in a circle of a magnetic field of 2T acting in y
radius R with constant speed v. The direction, when the particle velocity
time period of motion :- is (2i + 3j) × 106 ms–1 is :–

(1) Depends on R and not on v (1) 8N in z-direction

(2) Depends on v and not on R (2) 8N in -z direction
(3) Depends on both R and v
(4) Is independent of both R and v (3) 4N in z-direction
(4) 8N in y-direction
Q.2 A beam of electrons passes
undeflected through mutually Q.6 A thin ring of radius R meter
perpendicular electric and magnetic has charge q coulomb uniformly
fields. If the electric field is spread on it. The ring rotates about
switched off, and the same its axis with a constant frequency
magnetic field is maintained, the of f revolutions/s. The value of
electrons move :- magnetic induction in Wb/m2 at the
centre of the ring is :-
(1) Along a straight line
(2) In an elliptical orbit 0qf 0qf
(1) (2)
(3) In a circular orbit 2R 2 R
(4) Along a parabolic path q q
(3) 0 (4) 0
2 fR 2fR
Q.3 When a charged particle

moving with velocity v is subjected
 Q.7 Electromagnets are made of
to a magnetic field of induction B, soft iron because soft iron has :-
the force on it is non-zero. This
implies the – (1) High retentively and
  low coercive force
(1) Angle between v and B (2) Low retentively and
is necessary 90° high coercive force
 
(2) Angle between v and B can (3) High retentively and
have at value other than 90° high coercive force
  (4) Low retentively and
(3) Angle between v and B
low coercive force
can have at value other
than zero and 180°
  Q.8 A current loop consists of two
(4) Angle between v and B identical semicircular parts each of
is either zero or 180° radius R, one lying in the x-y plane
and the other in x-z plane. If the
Q.4 A particle of mass m, charge Q
current in the loop is i. The
and kinetic energy T enters a
resultant magnetic field due to the
transverse uniform magnetic field of
 two semicircular parts at their
induction B. After 3 seconds the common centre is :-
kinetic energy of the particle will be.
(1) 0i/2R (2) 0i/4R
(1) T (2) 4 T
(3) 3T (4) 2T (3) 0i/√2 R (4) 0i/2√2 R

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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.9 The magnetic moment of a Q.12 A proton carrying 1 MeV

diamagnetic atom is :- kinetic energy is moving in a
circular path of radius R in uniform
(1) 1 magnetic field. What should be the
energy of an a-particle to describe
(2) Between zero and one
a circle of same radius in the same
(3) Equal to zero field ?
(4) Much greater than one (1) 0.5 MeV (2) 4 Mev
(3) 2 MeV (4) 1 MeV
Q.10 A uniform electric field and a
uniform magnetic field are acting Q.13 When a proton is released
along the same direction in a from rest in a room, it starts with
certain region. If an electron is an initial acceleration a0 towards
projected in the region such that its west. When it is projected towards
velocity is pointed along the north with a speed v0 it moves with
direction of fields, then the an initial acceleration 3a0, towards
electrons :- west. The electric and magnetic
fields in the room are –
(1) Will turn towards right
(1) (ma0/e)east, (3ma0/ev0)down
of direction of motion (2) (ma0/e)west, (2ma0/ev0)up
(2) Speed will decrease (3) (ma0/e)west, (2ma0/ev0)down
(4) (ma0/e)east, (2ma0/ev0)up
(3) Speed will increase
Q.14 An electron moving in a
(4) Will turn towards left
circular radius r makes n rotations
of direction of motion per second. The magnetic field
produced at the centre has
Q.11 A square magnitude :-
loop, carrying a
steady current 0n2e
(1) Zero (2)
I, is placed in a r
horizontal plane 0ne  ne
(3) (4) 0
near a long 2r 2 r
straight conductor carrying a
steady current I, at a distance d Q.15 Two identical long conducting
from the conductor as shown in wires AOB and COD are placed at
figure. The loop will experience :- right angle to each other, with one
above other such that 'O' is their
common point for the two. The wires
(1) A net attractive force
carry I1 and I2 currents respectively.
towards the conductor
Point 'P' is lying at distance 'd' from
(2) A net repulsive force
'O' along a direction perpendicular to
away from the conductor
the plane containing the wires. The
(3) A net torque acting magnetic field at the point 'P' will be.
upward perpendicular to
the horizontal plane 0 0
(4) A net torque acting (1) (I1 / I2 ) (2) (I1 + I2 )
2d 2d
downward normal to  0 2
the horizontal plane (3) 0 (I12 _ I22 ) (4) (I1 + I2 )1/2
2d 2d 2

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Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.16 A rectangular coil of length Q.20 If 1 and 2 be the apparent

0.12m and width 0.1m having 50 angles of dip observed in two
turns of wire is suspended vertical planes at right angles to
vertically in a uniform magnetic each other, then the true angle of
field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. The dip is given by :–
coil carries a current of 2 A. If the
plane of the coil is inclined at an (1) tan2 = tan21 + tan22
angle of 30° with the direction of
(2) cot2 = cot21 – cot22
the field, the torque required to
keep the coil in stable equilibrium (3) tan2 = tan21 – tan22
will be – (4) cot2 = cot21 + cot22

(1) 0.12 Nm
(2) 0.15 Nm Q.21 A thin diamagnetic rod is
(3) 0.20 Nm placed vertically between the poles
(4) 0.24 Nm of an electromagnet. When the
current in the electromagnet is
Q.17 The magnetic susceptibility is switched on, then the diamagnetic
negative for – rod is pushed up, out of the
horizontal magnetic field. Hence
(1) Diamagnetic material only the rod gains gravitational potential
(2) Paramagnetic material only energy. The work required to do
(3) Ferromagnetic material only this comes from.
(4) Paramagnetic and
ferromagnetic materials (1) The current source
(2) The magnetic field
Q.18 A long wire carrying a steady (3) The lattice structure of
current is bent into a circular loop the material of the rod
of one turn. The magnetic field at (4) The induced electric field due
the centre of the loop is B. It is to the changing magnetic field
then bent into a circular coil of n
turns. The magnetic field at the Q.22 A cylindrical conductor of
centre of this coil of n turns will be. radius R is carrying a constant
current. The plot of the magnitude
(1) 2nB (2) 2n2B of the magnetic field, B with the
distance d, from the centre of the
(3) nB (4) n2B conductor, is correctly represented
by the figure :-
Q.19 An electron is moving in a
circular path under the influence of
a transverse magnetic field of 3.57
× 10–2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 (1) (2)
× 1011 C/kg, the frequency of
revolution of the electron is :-

(1) 62.8 MHz

(2) 6.28 MHz (3) (4)
(3) 1 GHz
(4) 100 MHz

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Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.23 Two to roids 1 and 2 have Q.27 A closed loop

total number of turns 200 and 100 PQRS carrying a
respectively with average radii 40 current is placed
cm and 20 cm respectively. If they in a uniform
carry same current i, then the ratio magnetic field. If
of the magnetic fields along the two the magnetic
is :- forces on segments PS, SR and RQ
are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and
(1) 1 : 1 are in the plane of the paper and
(2) 4 : 1 along the directions shown, the
(3) 2 : 1 force on the segment QP is :–
(4) 1 : 2
(1) (F3 _ F1 )2 _ F22
Q.24 A charged particle (q) is
moving in a circle of radius R with (2) F3 – F1 – F2
uniform speed v. The associated (3) F3 – F1 + F2
magnetic moment  is given by :- (4) (F _ F )2 + F2
3 1 2

(1) qvR
Q.28 A square current carrying loop
(2) qvR/2
is suspended in a uniform magnetic
(3) qvR2
field acting in the plane of the loop.
(4) qvR2/2
If the
 force on one arm of the loop
is F, the net force on the remaining
Q.25 In a mass spectrometer used
for measuring the masses of ions, three arms of the loop is :-
the ions are initially accelerated by 
an electric potential V and then (1) F

made to describe semicircular (2) 3F
paths of radius R using a magnetic _
(3) F
field B. If V and B are kept _ 
constant, the ratio [Charge on the (4) 3F
ion / mass of the ion] will be
proportional to :- Q.29 A closely wound solenoid of
2000 turns and area of cross-
(1) R (2) 1/R section 1.5 × 104 m2 carries a
current of 2.0A. It is suspended
(3) 1/R2 (4) R2 through its centre and
perpendicular to its length,
Q.26 Nickel shows ferromagnetic allowing it to turn in a horizontal
property at room temperature. If plane in a uniform magnetic field 5
the temperature is increased × 10–2 Tesla making an angle of
beyond Curie temperature then it 30° with the axis of the solenoid.
will show :- The torque on the solenoid will be –

(1) Diamagnetism (1) 1.5 × 10–3 N.m

(2) Paramagnetism (2) 1.5 × 10–2 N.m
(3) Anti ferromagnetism (3) 3 × 10–2 N.m
(4) No magnetic property (4) 3 × 10–3 N.m

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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.30 A particle having a mass of Q.32 A current carrying closed loop

10–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10–8 in the form of a right angle isosceles
C The particle is given an initial triangle ABC is placed in a uniform
horizontal velocity of 105 ms–1 in magnetic field acting along AB. If

the presence of electric field E and the
 magnetic force on the arm BC is

magnetic field B. To keep the F, the force on the arm AC is :-
particle moving in a horizontal 
direction, it is necessary that – (1) _ 2F

 (2) _ F
(a) B should be perpendicular 
(3) F
to the direction of velocity 

and E should be along the (4) 2F
direction of
 velocity
 Q.33 There are four light-weight
(b) Both B and E should be
rod samples A, B, C separately
along thedirection of velocity
 suspended by threads. A bar
(c) Both B and E are mutually magnet slowly brought near each
perpendicular and perpendicular sample and the following
to the direction of velocity observations are noted :-

(d) B should be along the (i) A is feebly repelled
direction of velocity and E (ii) B is feebly attracted Which
should be perpendicular one of the following is true ?
to the direction velocity (iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
(1) (c) and (d)
(1) B is of a paramagnetic material
(2) (b) and (c) (2) C is of a diamagnetic material
(3) (b) and (d) (3) D is of a ferromagnetic
material
(4) (a) and (c) (4) A is of a non-magnetic
material
Q.31 A vibration magnetometer
placed in magnetic meridian has a Q.34 An alternating electric field,
small bar magnet. The magnet of frequency v, is applied across the
executes oscillations with a time deeps (radius = R) of a cyclotron
period of 2 sec in earth's horizontal that is being used to accelerate
magnetic field of 24 microtesla. protons (mass= m). The operating
When a horizontal field of 18 magnetic field (B) used in the
microtesla is produced opposite to cyclotron and the kinetic energy
the earth's field by placing a (K) of the proton beam, produced
current carrying wire, the new time by it, are given by :-
period of magnet will be :-
(1) B = 2mv/e and K = 2m2v2R2
(1) 4s (2) B = mv/e and K = m2vR2
(2) 1s (3) B = mv/e and
K = 2m2v2R2
(3) 2s (4) B = 2mv/e and
(4) 3s K = 2m2vR2

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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.35 A current loop in a magnetic Q.38 A proton and an alpha particle

field :- both enter a region of uniform
magnetic field, B, moving at right
(1) Can be in equilibrium in angles to the field B. If the radius
two orientations, one stable of circular orbits for both the
while the other is unstable. particles is equal and the kinetic
(2) Experiences a torque energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV,
whether the field is uniform the energy acquired by the alpha
or non uniform in all orientations particle will be :-
(3) Can be in equilibrium
in one orientation (1) 1 MeV (2) 4 Mev
(4) Can be in equilibrium in (3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV
two orientations, both the
Q.39 A square
equilibrium states are unstable
loop A, B, C, D
carrying a current
Q.36 A bar magnet of length 'e' and
i, is placed near
magnetic dipole moment 'M' is bent
and coplanar with
in the form of an arc as shown in
a long straight
figure. The new magnetic dipole
conductor XY carrying a current I,
moment will be :-
the net force on the loop will be :-
(1) M/2 20Ii 0Ii
(2) M (1) (2)
3 2
3 20IiL  IiL
(3) M
 (3) (4) 0
3 2
2
(4) M
 Q.40 A long straight wire of radius a
carries a steady current I. The
Q.37 A wire current is uniformly distributed over
carrying current I its cross-section. The ratio of the
has the shape as magnetic fields B and B', at radial
shown in distances a/2 and 2a respectively,
adjoining figure. from the axis of the wire is –
Linear parts of
the wire are very (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
long and parallel to X-axis while (3) 1 (4) 4
semicircular portion of radius R is
Q.41 A bar magnet is hung by a thin
lying in Y - Z plane. Magnetic field
cotton thread in a uniform
at point O is :-
horizontal magnetic field and is in
 equilibrium state. The energy
 I
(1) B = _ 0 (i _ 2k)
 0
required to rotate it by 60 is W.
4 R Now the torque required to keep
  I
(2) B = _ 0 (i + 2k)
 the magnet in this new position is :
4 R
  I 3W 2W
(3) B = 0 (i _ 2k)
 (1) (2)
4 R 2 3
  I W
(4) B = 0 (i + 2k)
 (3) (4) 3W
4 R 3
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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.42 A 250-Turn rectangular coil of Q.46 A straight

length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm conductor
carries a current of 85 A and carrying current
subjected to magnetic field of i splits into two
strength 0.85 T. Work done for parts as shown
rotating the coil by 1800 against the in the figure.
torque is :- The radius of the circular loop is R.
The total magnetic field at the
(1) 4.55  J (2) 2.3  J centre P of the loop is :-
(3) 1.15J (4) 9.1  J
(1) Zero
Q.43 An arrangement of three (2) 3m0i/32 R, outward
parallel straight wires placed (3) 3m0i/32R, inward
perpendicular to plane of paper (4) m0i/2R, inward
carrying same current 'I' along the
same direction is shown in fig. Q.47 A stationary magnet does not
Magnitude of force per unit length interact with :-
on the middle wire 'B' is given by :-
(1) Iron rod
2
20i2
20i (2) Moving charge
(1) (2)
d d (3) Moving magnet
0i2  i2 (4) Stationary charge
(3) (4) 0
2d 2d
Q.48 Following is
square shape loop,
Q.44 At a point A on the earth's whose one arm BC
surface the angle of dip,  = + 250. produces magnetic
At a point B on the earth's surface field B at the centre
the angle of dip,  = –250. We can of coil. The resultant magnetic field
interpret that :- due to all the arms will be :-
(1) A and B are both located
(1) 4B (2) B/2
in the northern hemisphere.
(2) A is located in the southern (3) B (4) 2B
hemisphere and B is located
in the northern hemisphere. Q.49 A wire is
(3) A is located in the northern parallel to one
hemisphere and B is located in arm of a square
the southern hemisphere. current carrying
(4) A and B are both located loop, which also
in the southern hemisphere carries current.
Now at any point A within the coil
Q.45 Ionized hydrogen atoms and - the magnetic field will be :-
particles with same momenta enters
perpendicular to a constant (1) Less than the magnetic field
magnetic field B. The ratio of their produced due to loop only.
radii of their paths rH:r will be. (2) More than the magnetic field
produced due to loop only.
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) Equal to the earlier.
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (4) Zero
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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.50 A current of 100 A is Q.55 For the given current

established in a long wire along distribution the magnetic field at
positive z-direction. The magnetic point, ‘P’ is :-
field B at the point (1m, 0, 0) is :-
0
(1) 1 T along the –y direction (1) 
4
(2) 2 T along the +y direction

(3) 1 T along the –x direction (2) 0 
(4) 2 T along the +x direction 
 0
(3) 0  (4) 
Q.51 Radius of current carrying coil 2 2
is ‘R’. Then ratio of magnetic fields
at the centre of the coil to the axial Q.56 1A current flows through an
point, which is R3 distance away infinitely long straight wire. The
from the centre of the coil :- magnetic filed produced at a point
1m. away from it is :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 8 : 1 (1) 2 × 10–3 T
Q.52 A coil of one loop is made by a (2) 2/10 T
wire of length L and there after a
coil of two loops is made by same (3) 2 × 10–7 T
wire. The ratio of magnetic field at (4) 2 × 10–6 T
the centre of coils respectively :-
Q.57 Two infinite long parallel wires
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 carry equal currents in same
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 4 : 1 direction. The magnetic field at a
mid point in between the two wire is.
Q.53 A and B are two concentric
circular loop carrying current I1 and (1) Twice the magnetic field
I2 as shown in figure. If ratio of produced due to each of the wires
their radii is 1 : 2 and ratio of the (2) Half of the magnetic field
flux densities at the centre O due to produced due to each of the wires
A and B is 1 : 3 then the value of (3) Square of the magnetic field
I1/I2 will be :- produced due to each of the wire
(4) Zero
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/3 Q.58 A closely wound flat circular
(3) 1/4 coil of 25 turns of wire has
(4) 1/6 diameter of 10cm and carries a
current of 4 ampere. Determine the
Q.54 Magnetic field at point O will magnetic flux density at the centre
be :- of the coil :-
0I
(1)  (1) 1.679 × 10–5 T
2R
I (2) 2.028 × 10–4 T
(2) 0 
2R (3) 1.257 × 10–3 T
I 1 I  1
(3) 0 1 _   (4) 0 1 +    (4) 1.512 × 10–6 T
2R   2R  
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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.59 Radius of a current carrying Q.63 Two concentric circular loops

coil is ‘R’. The ratio of magnetic of radii 008m and 01m carries
field at a axial point which is R current such that magnetic field at
distance away from the centre of the centre is zero. If the current in
the coil to the magnetic field at the the outer loop is 8A clockwise,
centre of the coil :- current in the inner loop is :-

1/2 (1) 6.4 A anticlockwise

1 1
(1)   (2) (2) 6.4 A clockwise
2 2 (3) 8A anticlockwise
3/2 (4) 3.2 A clockwise
1 1
(3)   (4)
2 4 Q.64 In the shown figure magnetic
field at point A will be :-
Q.60 When the current flowing in a
circular coil is doubled and the
number of turns of the coil in it is
halved, the magnetic field at its
centre will become :-  0I  0I
(1) (2)
4 4R
(1) Same I
(3) 0 (4) Zero
(2) Four times 4R
(3) Half Q.65 If radius of coil becomes two
(4) Double times and current becomes half
then magnetic field at centre of the
Q.61 Which of the following coil will be :-
statement is not true magnetic field
(1) Two times (2) Four times
at the centre of current carrying
(3) Half (4) One fourth
loop :-
Q.66 2 A current is flowing in a
(1) Proportional to current circular loop of radius 1m.
(2) Inversely proportional to radius Magnitude of magnetic field at the
(3) Proportional to centre of circular loop will be :-
number of turns
(4) None 0
(1) (2) 20
2
Q.62 A circular coil of radius R 0
(3) 0 (4)
carries an electric current. The 2
magnetic field due the coil at a
point on the axis of the coil located Q.67 A horizontal overhead power
at a distance r from the center of line is at a height of 4m from the
the coil, such that r > > R varies as. ground and carries a current of 100
A from east to west. The magnetic
(1) 1/r field directly below it on the ground is.

(2) 1/r3/2 (1) 2.5 × 10–7 T, southward

(2) 2.5 × 10–6 T, northward
(3) 1/r2
(3) 5 × 10–6 T, southward
(4) 1/r3 (4) 2.5 × 10–7 T, northward
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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.68 In a current carrying long Q.72 A current of 1/4 ampere is

solenoid the field produced does flowing through a toroid. It has
not depend on :- 1000 number of turn per meter
then value of magnetic field (in
(1) Number of turns per unit length Wb/m2) along its axis is :-
(2) Current is solenoid
(3) Radius of cross (1) 10–2 (2) 10–3
section of the solenoid (3) 10–4 (4) 10–7
(4) All of the above Q.73 Mean radius of a toroid is 10
cm and number of turns are 500. If
Q.69 If length and number of turns current flowing through it is 0.1
becomes half for a solenoid then ampere then value of magnetic field
value of magnetic field becomes :- (in tesla) for toroid :-

(1) Twice (2) Same (1) 10–2 (2) 10–5

(3) Half (4) One fourth (3) 10–3 (4) 10–4

Q.74 A long solenoid has length L,

Q.70 The wire average diameter D and n layer of
in the figure turns. Each layer contains N turns.
carries a If current flowing through the
current I and solenoid is i the value of magnetic
constant of a field at the centre :-
circular arc of
radius R and central angle /2 rad, (1) Proportional to D
and two straight sections whose (2) Inversely proportional to D

extensions intersect the B centre C (3) Does not depend on D
of the arc. The magnetic field that (4) Proportional to L
the current produces at C is :-
Q.75 A long solenoid carrying a
 current produces a magnetic field B
i
(1) B = 0 into the plane of the figure along its axis. If the current is
8R doubled and the number of turns
 i
(2) B = 0 out of the per cm is halved, the new value of
8R the magnetic field is :-
plane of the figure
 i (1) B/2 (2) B
(3) B = 0 into the plane of the figure (3) 2B (4) 4B
8R
 i Q.76 A long solenoid having 200
(4) B = 0 out of
8R turns/cm and carries current i.
the plane of the figure Magnetic field at its axis is 6.28 ×
10–2 wb/m2. An another solenoid
Q.71 If number of turns and current having 100 turns/cm and carries
become double for any solenoid, 1/3 current, then magnetic field at
then value of magnetic field its axis will be :-
becomes :-
(1) 1.05 × 10–4 Wb/m2
(2) 1.05 × 10–2 Wb/m2
(1) Twice (2) Same (3) 1.05 × 10–5 Wb/m2
(3) Half (4) Four times (4) 1.05 × 10–3 Wb/m2

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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.77 Following charge has Q.81 Two identically charged

maximum frequency of rotation in particles A and B initially at rest,
uniform transverse magnetic field – are accelerated by a common
potential difference V. They enters
(1) A proton into a uniform transverse magnetic
(2) An alpha particle field B and describe a circular path
(3) An electron of radii r1 and r2 respectively then
their mass ratio is :-
(4) A neutron
2 2
Q.78 Which of the following particle r  r 
(1)  1  (2)  2 
will experiences maximum  r2   r1 
magnetic force, when projected
with the same velocity r  r 
(3)  1  (4)  2 
perpendicular to a magnetic field :-  r2   r1 

(1) Electron Q.82 An -particle experiences a

(2) Proton force of 3.84 × 10–14 N when its
(3) He+ moves perpendicular to magnetic
(4) Li++ field of 0.2 Wb/m2 then speed of
the -particle is :-
Q.79 A proton and an alpha particle
are separately projected in a region (1) 6.0 × 105 m/sec
where a uniform magnetic field (2) 5.0 × 105 m/sec
exists. The initial velocities are (3) 1.2 × 106 m/sec
perpendicular to the direction of (4) 3.8 × 106 m/sec
magnetic field. If both the particles
move along circles of equal radii, Q.83 If an electron enters a
the ratio of momentum of proton to magnetic field with its velocity
alpha particle (P/P) is :- pointing in the same direction as
the magnetic field then –
(1) 1
(2) 1/2 (1) the electron will turn towards right
(2) the electron will turn towards left
(3) 2
(3) the velocity of the
(4) 1/4 electron will increase
(4) the velocity of the electron
Q.80 When  and  rays are will remain unchanged
subjected to a magnetic field which
is perpendicular to the direction of Q.84 A charge having q/m equal to
their motion, with their same 108 C/kg and with velocity 3 × 105
speed. The curvature of path of m/s enters into a uniform magnetic
both the particles are :- field B = 0.3 tesla at an angle 30°
with direction of field. Then radius
(1) Equal will be :-
(2) More for  particles
(3) More for  particles (1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.5 cm
(4) None (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm

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Q.85 When a charged particle Q.90 An electron of kinetic energy

enters in a uniform magnetic field of 7.2 × 10–18 J is revolving on
its kinetic energy :- circular path in magnetic field 9 ×
10–5 Wb/m2 then radius of its
(1) Remains constant circular path is :-
(2) Increases
(3) Decreases (4) Becomes zero (1) 1.25 cm. (2) 2.5 m.
(3) 2.5 cm. (4) 25.0 cm.
Q.86 Two particles x and y have
equal charges and possessing equal Q.91 An electron moves with
kinetic energy enter in a uniform velocity v in uniform transverse
magnetic field and describe circular magnetic field B on circular path of
path of radius of curvature r1 and r2 radius 'r', then e/m for it is :-
respectively. The ratio of their
masses is :- (1) v/Br (2) B/rv
(3) Bvr (4) vr/B
(1) (r1/r2) (2) (r1/r2)1/2
(3) (r1/r2)2 (4) (r2/r1) Q.92 A proton, deutron and an -
particle are accelerated by same
Q.87 An electron having mass 'm' potential, enter in uniform magnetic
and kinetic energy E enter in field perpendicularly. Ratio of radii
uniform magnetic field B of circular path respectively :-
perpendicularly, then its frequency
of uniform circular motion will be :- (1) 1 : 2 :  2 (2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
(1) eE/qVB (2) 2m/eB Q.93 A charged particle moves
(3) eB/2m (4) 2m/eBE througha magnetic fieldin a direction
perpendicular to it. Then the :-
Q.88 In a mass spectrograph an ion
A of mass number 24 and charge (1) speed of the particle
+e and an ion B of mass number 22 remains unchanged
and charge +2e are entered in (2) direction of motion of
transverse magnetic field with particle remains unchanged
same velocity. The ratio of radii of (3) acceleration of particle
their paths respectively :- remains unchanged
(4) velocity of particle
(1) 11/24 (2) 12/11 remains unchanged
(3) 11/22 (4) 24/11
Q.94 A magnetic field :-
Q.89 A charge particle is moving in
the direction of a magnetic field. (1) Always exerts a
The magnetic force acting on the force on charged particle
particle :- (2) Never exerts a
force on charged particle
(1) is in the direction of its velocity (3) Exert a force, if the
(2) is in the direction charged particle is moving
opposite to its velocity across the magnetic field line
(3) is perpendicular (4) Exerts a force, if the
to its velocity charged particle is moving
(4) is zero along the magnetic field line
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Q.95 A proton and an -particle Q.100 An electric field E and a

moving with the same velocity and magnetic field B applied on a
enter into a uniform magnetic field proton which moves with velocity
which is acting normal to the plane v, it goes undeflected through the
of their motion. The ratio of the region if :-
radii of the circular paths described
by the proton and a-particle (1) E  B
respectively :- (2) E is parallel to v
and perpendicular to B
(1) 1:2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) E, B and v all three
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 4 : 1 mutually perpendicular
to each other and v = E/B
Q.96 A very long (4) E and B both are parallel
straight wire but perpendicular to v
carries a current
I. At the instant Q.101 In a region constant uniform
when a charge electric and magnetic field is
+Q at point P has present. Both field are parallel. In
velocity v, as shown, the magnetic this region a charge released from
force on the charge is :- rest, then path of particle is :-

(1) along ox (2) opposite to oy (1) Circle (2) Helical

(3) along oy (4) opposite to ox
(3) Straight line (4) Ellipse
Q.97 In Thomson mass
  Q.102 A wire PQ
spectrograph EB then the carries a current
velocity of undeflected electron 'i' is placed
beam will be :- perpendicular to
 a long wire XY
E   carrying a
(1)  (2) B × E current I. The
B
 direction of force on PQ will be :-
B E2
(3)  (4) (1) Towards right
E B2
(2) Towards left
(3) Upwards
Q.98 Cyclotron is used to accelerate (4) Downwards
(1) electrons (2) neutrons Q.103 A current carrying wire AC is
(3) positive ion (4) negative ions placed in uniform transverse
magnetic field then the force on
Q.99 A charge 'q' moves in a region wire AC –
where electric field and magnetic
field both exist, then force on it :- (1) 3N
     (2) 4.2N
(1) q(v × B) (2) qE + q(v × B)
  
(3) qE + q(B × v) (3) 6N
  
(4) qB + q(E × v) (4) 4N

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Q.104 Force exist on a current Q.109 A

carrying wire which is placed in rectangular loop
external magnetic field, due to :- carrying a current
i1 is situated near
(1) free electrons in wire a long straight
(2) free positive ions in wire wire carrying a
(3) (1) & (2) both steady current i2.
(4) None The wire is parallel to one of the
sides of the loop and is in the plane
Q.105 P, Q and R of the loop as shown in the figure.
long parallel straight Then the current loop will :-
wires in air, carrying
currents as shown. (1) move away from the wire
The direction of (2) move towards the wire.
resultant force on R is :- (3) remain stationary.
(4) rotate about an
(1) towards left axis parallel to the wire.
(2) towards right
(3) the same as that Q.110 A current carrying wire is
of current in Q arranged at any angle in an uniform
(4) Perpendicular to plane of paper magnetic field, then –

Q.106 Two parallel wires in free (1) only force acts on wire
space are 10 cm apart and each
(1) only torque acts on wire
carries a current of 10 A in the
same direction. The magnetic force (3) Both
per unit length of each wire is :- (4) none

(1) 2 × 10–4 N, attractive Q.111 Two parallel bears of

(2) 2 × 10–4 N, repulsive positrons moving in the same
(3) 2 × 10–7 N, attractive direction will :-
(4) 2 × 10–7 N, repulsive
(1) Repel to each other
Q.107 Wire in the form of a right (2) Will not interact with each other
angle ABC, with AB=3cm and BC = (3) Attract to each other
4cm, carries a current of 10A. There (4) Be deflected normal to the
is a uniform magnetic field of 5T
plane containing the two beams
perpendicular to the plane of the
wire. The force on the wire will be –
Q.112 Due to the flow of current in
a circular loop of radius R, the
(1) 1.5N (2) 2.0N
magnetic field produced at the
(3) 2.5N (4) 3.5N centre of the loop is B. The
magnetic moment of the loop is :-
Q.108 When direct current passed
through a spring then it :- (1) BR3/2μ0
(2) 2 BR3/μ0
(1) Contracts (2) Expands
(3) BR2/2μ0
(3) Vibrate (4) Unchanged (4) 2 BR2/μ0
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Q.113 A circular loop has a radius Q.118 The unit of magnetic moment
of 5 cm. and it is carrying a current will be :-
of 0.1 A. its magnetic moment is :-
(1) A/m (2) A-m2
(1) 1.32 × 10–4 amp-m2 (3) T-m/A (4) T-m/A2
(2) 2.62 × 10–4 amp-m2
Q.119 A current carrying coil
(3) 5.25 × 10–4 amp-m2
behave like tiny magnet. If area of
(4) 7.85 × 10–4 amp-m2 coil is A and magnetic moment is
'M' then current through the coil is :
Q.114 An electron is moving in a
circle of radius 5.1 × 10–11 m. at a (1) M/A (2) A/M
frequency of 6.8 × 1015 (3) MA (4) A2/M
revolution/sec. The equivalent
current is approximately :- Q.120 An electron revolves with
frequency 6.6 × 1015 r.p.s. around
(1) 5.1 × 10–3 A nucleus in circular orbit of radius
(2) 6.8 × 10–3 A 0.53 Å of hydrogen atom, then
(3) 1.1 × 10–3 A magnetic field produced at centre
(4) 2.2 × 10–3 A of orbit is :-

Q.115 If number of turn, area and (1) 0.125 T (2) 1.25 T

current through the coil is given by (3) 12.5 T (4) 125 T
n, A and i respectively then its
Q.121 A current loop of area
magnetic moment will be :-
0.01m2 and carrying a current of
10A is held perpendicular to a
(1) niA (2) n2iA
magnetic field of 0.1T, the torque in
(3) niA2 (4) ni/√A N-m acting on the loop is :-

Q.116 An electron is moving around (1) 0 (2) 0.001

a proton in an orbit of radius 1Å (3) 0.01 (4) 1.1
and produces 16 Wb/m2 of magnetic
field at the centre, then find the Q.122 The magnetic moment (μ) of
angular velocity of electron – a revolving electron around the
nucleus varies with principal
(1) 20 × 1016 rad/sec quantum number n as :-
(2) 10 × 1016 rad/sec
(1) μ  η (2) μ  1/n
(3) 5/2 × 1016 rad/sec
(3) μ  n2 (4) μ  1/n2
(4) 5/4 × 1016 rad/sec
Q.123 The work done in rotating a
Q.117 Current I is flowing in a magnet of magnetic moment M by
conducting circular loop of radius an angle of 90° from the external
R. It is kept in a magnetic field B magnetic field direction is 'n' times
which is perpendicular to the plane the corresponding work done to
of circular loop, the magnetic force turn it through an angle of 60°.
acting on the loop is :- Where 'n' gives by :-
(1) IRB (2) 2IRB (1) 1/2 (2) 2
(3) Zero (4) IRB (3) 1/4 (4) 1
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Q.124 Magnetic field lines produced Q.128 A magnet makes 40

by a bar magnet, cuts each other :- oscillations per minute at a place
having magnetic field of 0.1 × 10–5
(1) At neutral points T. At another place, it takes 2.5 sec
(2) Near the poles of the magnets to complete one vibration. The
(3) At equatorial axis value of earth's horizontal field at
(4) Never intersects that place is :-
to each other
(1) 0.25 × 10–6 T
Q.125 If the angle of dip at two (2) 0.36 × 10–6 T
places are 30° and 45° (3) 0.66 × 10–8 T
respectively, then the ratio of (4) 1.2 × 10–6 T
horizontal component of earth's
magnetic field at two places Q.129 The magnetic needle of a
assuming magnitude of total tangent galvanometer is deflected
magnetic field of earth is same, will at an angle 30°. The horizontal
be :- component of earth's magnetic
field 0.34 × 10–4 T is along the
(1) √3 : √2 plane of the coil. The magnetic field
(2) 1: √2 of coil :-
(3) 1: √3
(4) 1: 2 (1) 1.96 × 104 T
(2) 1.96 × 10–5 T
Q.126 Two bar magnets having (3) 1.96 × 104 T
same geometry with magnetic (4) 1.96 × 105 T
moments M and 2M, are firstly
placed in such a way that their Q.130 For protecting a magnetic
similar poles are same side then its needle it should be placed :-
time period of oscillation is T1. Now
(1) in an iron box
the polarity of one of the magnet is
(2) in wooden box
reversed then time period of
(3) in metallic box
oscillation is T2, then :-
(4) none of these
(1) T1 < T2
Q.131 Which of the following
(2) T1 = T2
materials is repelled by an external
(3) T1 > T2
magnetic field :-
(4) T2 = 
(1) Iron (2) Cobalt
Q.127 Magnetic field of earth is 0.3 (3) Steel (4) Copper
gauss. A magnet oscillating with
rate of 5 oscillation/min. How Q.132 If a diamagnetic material is
much the magnetic field of earth is placed in a magnetic field, the flux
increased, so the number of density inside the material
oscillations become 10 per min :- compared to that outside will be :-

(1) 0.3G (1) Slightly less

(2) 0.6G (2) Slightly more
(3) 0.9G (3) Very much more
(4) 1.2G (4) Same

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Q.133 To protect a sensitive Q.138 The magnetic moment of

instrument from external magnetic paramagnetic materials is :-
jerks, it should be placed in a
container made of :- (1) Infinity
(2) Zero
(1) Non magnetic substance (3) Constant but low
(2) Diamagnetic substance (4) None of above
(3) Paramagnetic substance
Q.139 The cause of paramagnetism
(4) Ferromagnetic substance is :-
Q.134 Substances in which the (1) Unparied electrons
magnetic moment of a single atom (2) Electron excess and
is not zero, are known as :- spin motion of electrons
(3) Paired electrons and
(1) Diamagnetic orbital motion of electrons
(2) Ferromagnetic (4) Electrons and orbital
(3) Paramagnetic motion of electrons
(4) (2) and (3) both
Q.140 The cause of diamagnetism
Q.135 Susceptibility of a magnetic is :-
substance is found to depend on
temperature and the strength of (1) Orbital motion of electrons
the magnetising field. The material (2) Spin motion of electrons
is a – (3) Paired electrons
(4) None of the above
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Ferromagnetic Q.141 The magnetic moment of
diamagnetic materials is :–
(3) Paramagnetic
(4) Superconductor (1) Infinity (2) Zero
2
(3) 100 amp–m
Q.136 Property possessed by only (4) None of the above
ferromagnetic substance is :-
Q.142 Which of the following
(1) Attracting magnetic substance statements is correct for
(2) Hysteresis diamagnetic material is –
(3) Susceptibility independent
of temperature (1) µ, < 1
(4) Directional property (2)  is negative and low
(3)  does not depend on temperature
Q.137 The hard ferromagnetic (4) All of the above
material is characterized by :-
Q.143 The area of B-H loop for soft
(1) Narrow hysteresis loop iron, as compared to that for steel is.
(2) Broad hysteresis loop
(3) High mechanically (1) More (2) Less
hardness, all over (3) Equal
(4) Mechanically hard surface (4) None of the above

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Q.144 Powerful permanent Q.149 The correct measure of

magnets are made of :- magnetic hardness of a material is.

(1) Cobalt (1) Remnant magnetism

(2) Aluminum (2) Hysteresis loss
(3) Tin-coal (3) Coercivity
(4) Cobalt-steel (4) Curic temperature

Q.145 The liquid Q.150 If the relative permeability

in the watch glass of a material is 0.9999 then its
in the following nature will be :-
figure is :-
(1) Paramagnetic
(2) Diamagnetic
(1) Ferromagneticis
(3) Ferromagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(4) Non-magnetic
(3) Diamagnetic
(4) Nonmagnetic Q.151 The magnetic susceptibility
of a paramagnetic material at
Q.146 Which of the following –730C is 0.0075 then its value at
statements is correct for –1730C will be :-
ferromagnetic material :-
(1) 0.0045 (2) 0.0030
(1) These become diamagnetic (3) 0.015 (4) 0.0075
at Curie temperature
(2) These become paramagnetic Q.152 When a magnetic substance
at Curie temperature is heated, then it :-
(3) Their magnetic susceptibility
becomes zero at (1) Becomes a strong magnet
Curie temperature (2) Losses its magnetism
(4) Its magnetic properties (3) Does not effect
are explained on the basis the magnetism
of electron principle (4) Either (1) or (3)

Q.147 A material rod, when placed Q.153 Diamagnetic substance are :-

in a strong magnetic field, aligns
(1) Feebly attracted by magnets
itself at right angles to the
(2) Strongly attracted by magnets
magnetic field. The nature of
(3) Feebly repelled by magnets
material is :-
(4) Strongly repelled by magnets
(1) Diamagnetic Q.154 If a diamagnetic solution is
(2) Paramagnetic poured into a U-tube and one arm
(3) Ferromagnetic of this U-tube placed between the
(4) Low ferromagnetic poles of a strong magnet with the
meniscus in a line with the field,
Q.148 The relative permeability of then the level of the solution will :-
air is :-
(1) V Rise (2) Fall
(1) Zero (2) 21.04 (3) Oscillate slowly
(3) Infinity (4) 1 (4) Remain as such
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Q.155 Magnetic permeability is Q.161 Magnetic suceptibility of a

maximum for :- diamagnetic substance varies with
absolute temperature as :-
(1) Diamagnetic substance
(2) Paramagnetic substance (1) Directly proportional to T
(3) Ferromagnetic substance (2) Inversely proportional to T
(4) All of these (3) Remains unchanged with T
(4) Exponential decrease with T
Q.156 Which one of the following is
ferro-magnetic :- Q.162 The material of permanent
magnet has –
(1) Co (2) Zn
(3) Hg (4) Pt (1) High relentivity, low coercivity
(2) Low retentivity, high coercivity
Q.157 For paramagnetic materials (3) Low relentivity,
magnetic susceptibility is related low coercivity
with temperature as :- (4) High retentivity,
high coercivity
(1) T2 (2) Τ1
(3) T–1 (4) T–2
Q.163 Hysteresis property is shown
by :-
Q.158 According to Curie's law, the
magnetic susceptibility of a
(1) Paramagnetic and diamagnetic
substance at an absolute
(2) Diamagnetic
temperature T is proportional to :-
(3) Paramagnetic
(4) Ferromagnetic
(1) 1/T (2) T
(3) 1/T2 (4) T2
Q.164 Magnetic susceptibility of the
following is :-
Q.159 A diamagnetic material in a
magnetic field moves –
(1) Negative for diamagnetic
(1) From stronger to the (2) Positive for diamagnetic
weaker parts of the field and paramagnetic
(2) From weaker to the (3) Negative for diamagnetic
stronger parts of the field and zero for paramagnetic
(3) Perpendicular to the field (4) Zero for paramagnetic
(4) In none of the above directions and positive for ferromagnetic

Q.160 Diamagnetic substances Q.165 Which statement is true :-

characterise by –
(1) Atomic magnetic dipole
(1) Low and negative moment of diamagnet is zero
magnetic suceptibility (2) Atomic magnetic dipole
(2) Low and positive moment of paramagnet is zero
magnetic suceptibility (3) Atomic magnetic dipole
(3) High and negative moment of ferromagnet is zero
magnetic suceptibility (4) Ferromagnet is
(4) High and positive demagnetised rapidly after
magnetic suceptibility moving in magnetising field.

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Q.166 Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by Q.171 Magnetic field at point 'P'

iron at a temperature ....... due to finite length wire LN, (where
I in ampere and a in meter) is :-
(1) Below Curie temperature
70I
(2) Above Curie temperature (1)
10a
(3) At Curie temperature only 140I
(2)
(4) At all temperatures 5a
70I 700I
Q.167 Ferromagnetic substance (3) (4)
20a 2a
contain :-
Q.172 Magnetic field at point 'P'
(1) Empty subshell partially due to given current distribution is.
(2) Empty subshell
0I 2
(3) Full fill subshell (1) 2
r – a2
r
(4) None of these 0Ia
(2)
r2
Q.168 Soft iron is used to make the
core of transformer, because of its : 0I 0Ia
(3) 2
r2 – a2 (4)
2r 2r2
(1) Low coercivity and low retentivity
(2) Low coercivity and high retentivity Q.173 A long horizontal wire 'A' is
rigidly fixed and an another wire 'B'
(3) High coercivity
which is placed directly below and
and high retentivity parallel to wire 'A'. Wire 'B' remains
(4) High coercivity suspended in air due to magnetic
and low retentivity attraction. If direction of current is
reversed in any one wire then due
Q.169 Above curie temperature to gravity instantaneous
ferromagnetic substance converts acceleration of free wire 'B' (where
into :- g is acceleration due to gravity).

(1) g, in downward direction

(1) Paramagnetic
(2) g, in upward direction
(2) diamagnetic (3) 2g, in downward direction
(4) 2g, in upward direction
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) non magnetic Q.174 A dip circle is taken to
geomagnetic equator. The needle is
Q.170 Relation between μ, and x allowed to move in a vertical plane
will be :- perpendicular to the magnetic
meridian. The needle will stay :-
(1) r = 1 + 
(1) In horizontal direction only
(2)  = r + 1 (2) In vertical direction only
(3) 0/μ (3) In any direction except
vertical and horizontal
(4) 0  (4) In any direction it is released
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Q.175 Magnetic field at point 'P' Q.179 The equation of line on which
due to given current distribution. magnetic field is zero due to
system of two perpendicular
0I infinitely long current carrying
(1) 
4a straight wires, is :-
I
(2) 0 
2a (1) x = y
I (2) x = 2y
(3) 0  (4) Zero
a (3) x = 3y
Q.176 At very close point on the axis (4) 3x = y
of a current carrying circular coil
(x<<<R) of radius 'R', the value of Q.180 In
magnetic field decreases by a the given
fraction of 5% with respect to centre figure
value. The position of the point from magnetic
the centre of the coil is :- field at the
R R
centre of ring (o) is 8√2 T. Now it is
(1) (2) turned through 90° about XX' axis,
10 30 so that two semicircular parts are
R R mutually perpendicular. Then find
(3) (4)
50 150 the value of magnetic field (in
Tesla) at centre :-
Q.177 A circular
conducting loop is (1) 8 (2) 8√2
connected by a (3) 4 (4) 8/√2
battery according
to figure. The Q.181 Two long parallel wires are
length of ABC and ADC is  1 and  2 at a distance 2d apart. They carry
respectively then which is correct :- steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper, as shown
21 22 in figure. The variation of the
(1) i1/  1 = i2/  2 (2) 2 = 2
r1 r2 magnetic field B along the line XX'
(3) i1  1 = i2  2 (4) i1i2 =  1  2 is given by :-

Q.178 Two
thick wires
and two thin (1) (2)
wires, all of
the same
materials and same length form a
square in the three different ways P,
Q and R as shown in figure with (3)
current connection shown. The
magnetic field at the centre of the
square is zero in cases :-

(1) In P only (2) In P and Q only (4)

(3) In Q and R only
(4) P and R only
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Q.182 A current i flows along the Q.185 H+, He+ and O++ all having
length of an infinite long, straight, the same kinetic energy pass
thin walled pipe, then :- through a region with is a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to
(1) The magnetic field at all points their velocity. The masses of H+,
inside the pipe is same but not zero. He+ and O++ are 1 amu, 4 amu and
16 amu respectively then :-
(2) The magnetic field at any point (a) H+ will be deflected most
inside the pipe is zero. (b) O++ will be deflected most
(3) The magnetic field is zero (c) He+ and O+ will
be deflected equally
only on the axis of the pipe.
(d) All will be deflected most
(4) The magnetic field is different
at different points inside the pipe. (1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
Q.183 A steady (3) only a
electric current is (4) a, c
flowing through a
cylindrical wire : Q.186 A particle of mass 0.5 gm
(a) the electric and charge 2.5 × 10–8°C is moving
field at with velocity 6 × 104 m/s. What
the axis of wire is zero should be the minimum value of
(b) the magnetic field at magnetic field acting on it, so that
the axis of wire is zero the particle is able to move in a
(c) the electric field in straight line ? (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
the vicinity of wire is Zero.
(d) the magnetic field in (1) 0.327 Weber/m2
the vicinity of wire is Zero. (2) 3.27 Weber/m2
(3) 32.7 Weber/m2
(1) a, b, c (4) None of these
(2) b, c
Q.187 A particle of charge q and
(3) only c mass m is moving along the x-axis
(4) only b with a velocity v and enters a
region of electric field E and
Q.184 The charges 1, 2, 3 are magnetic field B as shown in figure
moving in uniform transverse below. For which figure the net
magnetic field then :- force on the charge may be zero :-

(1) particle '1' positive and

particle 3 negative
(1) (2)
(2) particle 1 negative and
particle 3 positive
(3) particle 1 negative and
particle 2 neutral
(3) (4)
(4) particle 1 and 3 are
positive and particle 2 neutral
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Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.188 In a mass spectrograph, mass Q.192 A solenoid of length 0.4 m,

number and charge of ion A are 24 having 500 turns and 3A current
and +2e respectively. Mass number flows through it. A coil of radius
and charge of ion B are 22 and +e. If 0.01 m and have 10 turns and
both ions have same speed and the carries current of 0.4 A has to
radius of path traced by ion A is 24 placed such that its axis is
cm then radius of path traced by ion perpendicular to the axis of
B will be :- solenoid, then torque on coil will be
(1) 55 cm (2) 11 cm
(1) 5.92 × 10–6 N.m
(3) 44 cm (4) 24cm
(2) 5.92 × 10–5 N.m
Q.189 A charged particle moves (3) 5.92 × 10–4 N.m
through a magnetic field (4) 0.592 × 10–3 N.m
perpendicular to its direction, then.
Q.193 The value of magnetic
(1) Both momentum and kinetic energy susceptibility for superconductors is
of the particle are not constant
(2) Both momentum and kinetic energy (1) Zero (2) Infinity
of the particle are constant (3) +1 (4) –1
(3) Kinetic energy changes but
the momentum is constant Q.194 In accordance with Ampere's
(4) The momentum changes but law of force the direction of force
 
the kinetic energy is constant F, magnetic induction B and

Q.190 A beam of electrons moving current element I d L are best
along +y direction enters in a region represented by :-
of uniform electric and magnetic
fields. If the beam goes undeflected
through this region then field (B) and
(E) are directed respectively :- (1) (2)

(1) –x axis and +z axis

(2) +z axis and –x axis
(3) +x axis and –z axis
(4) –x axis and –y axis
(3) (4)
Q.191 A coil in the shape of
equilateral triangle of side 0.02 m is
suspended from the vertex such that
it is hanging in a vertical plane Q.195 The correct I-H curve for
between the pole-pieces of a paramagnetic materials is :-
permanent magnet producing a
horizontal magnetic field of 5 × 10–2
T. When a current of 0.1 A passes
through it and the magnetic field is (1) (2)
parallel to its plane then couple
acting on the coil is :-
(1) 8.65 × 10–7 N-m
(2) 6.65 × 10–7 N-m (3) (4)
(3) 3.35 × 10–7 N-m
(4) 3.91 × 10–7 N-m
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Q.196 The magnetic susceptibility Q.201 A and B

of a paramagnetic substance is 3 × are two wires
10–4. It is placed in a magnetising carrying a current
field of 4 × 104 A/m. The intensity I in the same
of magnetization will be :- direction. x and y
are two electron
(1) 3 × 108 A/m beams moving in the same
(2) 12 × 108 A/m direction. There will be :-
(3) 12 A/m
(4) 24 A/m (1) Attraction between A and B,
repulsion between x and y
Q.197 The volume susceptibility of (2) Repulsion between A and B,
a magnetic material is 30 × 10–4.
attraction between x and y
Its relative permeability will be :-
(3) Attraction between
(1) 31 × 10–4 (2) 1.003 A and B & x and y
(3) 1.0003 (4) 29 × 10–4 (4) Repulsion between A and B & x and y

Q.198 The magnetic moment of a Q.202 In a mass spectrograph O++,

magnet of mass 75 gm is 9 × 10–7 C+, He++ and H+ are projected on a
A-m2. If the density of the material photographic plate with same
of magnet is 7.5 × 102 kg/m3 then velocity in uniform magnetic field
intensity of magnetization will be :- then which will strike the plate
farthest :-
(1) 0.9 A/m (2) 0.09 A/m
(3) 9 A/m (4) 90 A/m (1) O++
(2) C+
Q.199 The area of hysteresis loop (3) He++
of a material is equivalent to 250 (4) H+
Joule/m3. When 10 kg material is
magnetised by an alternating field Q.203 An ionised gas contains both
of 50Hz then energy lost in one positive and negative ions. If it is
hour will be if the density of subjected simultaneously to an
material is 7.5 gm/cm3. electric field along the + x direction
and a magnetic field along the + z
(1) 6 × 104 Joule direction then :-
(2) 6 × 104 Erg
(3) 3 × 102 Joule (1) Positive ions deflect
(4) 3 × 102 Erg towards +y direction
and negative ions
Q.200 The coercivity of a bar towards - y direction
magnet is 100A/m. It is to be (2) All ions deflect
demagnetised by placing it inside a towards + y direction
solenoid of length 100 cm and (3) All ions deflect
number of turns 50. The current towards - y direction
flowing the solenoid will be :- (4) Positive ions deflect
towards - y direction
(1) 4A (2) 2A and negative ions
(3) 1A (4) Zero towards +y direction

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Q.204 An elastic Q.208 Two concentric coils each of

circular wire of radius equal to 2 cm. are placed at
length  carries a right angles to each other. The
current I0. It is currents 3 A and 4 A are flowing in
placed in a uniform each coil respectively. The
 2
magnetic field B magnetic induction in weber/m at
(out of paper) such that its plane is the centre of the coils will be :-

perpendicular to the direction of B.
The wire will experiences :- (1) 7 × 10–5 (2) 5 × 10–5
(3) 10–5 (4) 12 × 10–5
(1) No force
(2) A stretching force Q.209 An electron moves in a
(3) A compressive force circular orbit with a uniform speed
(4) A torque v. It produces a magnetic field B at
the centre of the circle. The radius
Q.205 Which of the following of the circle is proportional to :-
conclusions can be drawn from the
 
result ? SB.dA = 0
v
(1) (2) v/B
(1) Magnetic field is zero everywhere B
(2) Magnetic monopole cannot exist B
(3) Magnetic lines of forces (3) B/v (4)
v
do not intersect each
(4) A current produces
Q.210 A loop in the shape of an
magnetic field
equilateral triangle of side  is
suspended between the pole pieces
Q.206 A proton of mass 1.67 × 
10–27 kg and charge 1.6 × 10–19 oC of a permanent magnet such that B
is projected with a speed of 2 × 106 is in plane of the loop. If due to a
ms–1 at an angle of 60° to the X- current i in the triangle a torque 
axis. If a uniform magnetic field of acts on it, the side  of the triangle is
0.104 tesla is applied along Y-axis,
the path of proton is :- 2   1  
(1)   (2)  
3  Bi  3  Bi 
(1) A circle of radius = 0.2 m 1/2 1/2
and time period = 2 × 10–7s    2  
(3) 2   (4)  
(2) A circle of radius = 0.1 m  3Bi  3  Bi 
and time period = 2 × 10–7s
(3) A helix of radius = 0.1 m Q.211 Two circular loop 1 and 2 are
and time period = 2 × 10–7s made by the same copper wire but
(4) A helix of radius = 0.2 m the radius of the 1st loop is twice
and time period = 2 × 10–7s that of the 2nd loop, what is ratio of
potential difference applied across
Q.207 The cyclotron frequency of the loops. If the magnetic field
an electron gyrating in a magnetic produced at their centres is equal :-
field of 1T is approximately :-
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 28 Hz (2) 280 MHz
(3) 2.8 GHz (4) 28 GHz (3) 6 (4) 2
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Q.212 A current I flows along the Q.216 Consider

length of an infinitely long, the inferences
straight, thin walled pipe, then – given below in
respect of the
(1) The magnetic field is different at following
different points inside the pipe current loop of
(2) The magnetic field at any wire kept in a magnetic field B.
point inside the pipe is zero A. The magnitude and direction of
(3) The magnetic field at force on the element AC of the wire
all points inside the pipe is 3√2 ILB directed into the page
is the same, but not zero B. The magnitude and direction of
(4) The magnetic field is zero force on the element AB of the wire
only on the axis of the pipe is 3√2 ILB directed into the page
C. The total force on the loop ABCA
Q.213 A closely wound solenoid 80 is zero
cm long has 5 layers of winding of Which of the above is/are not true ?
400 turns each. The diameter of the
solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current (1) A and B (2) B only
carried is 8.0 A, the magnitude of (3) A and C only (4) B and C
inside the solenoid near its centre
will be – Q.217 A planar coil having 12 turns
carries 15 A current. The coil is
(1) 8 × 10–3 T (2) 6 × 10–3 T oriented with respect to the
(3) 4 × 10–3 T (4) 3 × 10–3 T 
uniform magnetic field B = 0.2 îT
Q.214 The magnetic field in a such that its directed area is A = -
certain region of space is given by 0.04 îm2. The potential energy of
B = 8.35 × 10–2 î T. A proton is the coil in the given orientation is –
shot into the field with velocity =
5 5
(2 × 10 î + 4 × 10 ĵ) m/s. The (1) 0 (2) + 0.72
proton follows a helical path in the (3) +1.44 J (4) –1.44 J
field. The distance moved by proton
in the x-direction during the period Q.218 Which of the following is true
of one revolution in the y z-plane
will be – (1) Diamagnetism is
temperature dependent
(1) 0.053 m (2) 0.136 m (2) Paramagnetism is
(3) 0.157 m (4) 0.236 m temperature dependent
(Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg) (3) Paramagnetism is
temperature independent
Q.215 A circular coil placed in a (4) None of these
uniform magnetic field. If
alternating current flows through Q.219 A superconductor exhibits
this coil then :- perfect :-

(1) Net force will act on coil (1) Ferrimagnetism

(2) Coil will be stationary (2) Antierromagnetism
(3) Coil will be rotated (3) Paramagnetism
(4) Coil will move on straight line (4) Diamagnetism

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Q.220 Which of the following Q.224 If the magnetic dipole

statements is incorrect about moment of an atom of diamagnetic
hysteresis :- material, paramagnetic material
and ferromagnetic material are
(1) This effect is common to all denoted by d, p and f
ferromagnetic substances respectively, then :-
(2) The hysteresis loop area is
proportional to the thermal (1) p = 0 and f  0
energy developed per unit (2) d  0 and p = 0
volume of the material
(3) d  0 and f  0
(3) The hysteresis loop area is
independent of the thermal (4) d = 0 and p  0
energy developed per unit
volume of the material Q.225 Among the following
(4) The shape of the hysteresis loop properties describing diamagnetism
is characteristic of the material identify the property that is
wrongly stated :-
Q.221 A frog can be levitated in a
magnetic field produced by a (1) Diamagnetic material do not
current in a vertical solenoid placed have permanent magnetic moment
below the frog. This is possible (2) Diamagnetism is explained
because the body of the frog by orbital motion of electron
behaves as :- (3) Diamagnetic materials have
a small positive susceptibility
(1) Paramagnetic (4) The magnetic moment
of individual electrons
(2) Diamagnetic
neutralize each other
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Antiferromagnetic Q.226 Correct relation between
magnetic field B. Magnetic intensity
Q.222 Liquid oxygen remains H and magnetism M is :-
suspended between two pole faces
of a magnet because it is :- (1) B = 0 (H + M)
(2) M = 0 (B + H)
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic (3) H = 0 (B + M)
(3) Ferromagnetic (4) B = 2H (1+M)
(4) Antiferromagnetic
Q.227 Relative permittivity and
Q.223 When a piece of a permeability of a material are r,
ferromagnetic substance is put in a and μr, respectively. Which of the
uniform magnetic field. Flux density following values of these quantities
inside it is four times the flux are allowed for a diamagnetic
density away from the piece. The material :-
magnetic permeability of the
material is :- (1) r, = 0.5, μr = 1.5
(2) r, = 1.5, μr = 0.5
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) r, = 0.5, μr = 0.5
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) r, = 1.5, μr = 1.5

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 Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism Question Bank

Q.228 The vector form of Biota Q.232 A current carrying coil is

savant law for a current carrying placed in a constant uniform
element is :- magnetic field B. Torque is maximum
on this coil when plane of coil is :-
  id sin 
(1) dB = 0 (1) Perpendicular to B
4 r2 (2) parallel to B

  id × r (3) at 45° to B (4) at 60° to B
(2) dB = 0
4 r2
   Q.233 Magnetic field lines produced
  id × r   id × r
(3) dB = 0
(4) dB = 0
by a bar magnet, cuts each other :-
4 r3 4 r2
(1) At neutral points
Q.229  ampere current is flowing (2) Near the poles of the magnets
through a long straight wire. Due to (3) At equatorial axis
this a field of 5 × 10–5 T produced, (4) Never intersects
then distance of the point from the to each other
axis of the wire is :-
Q.234 If the magnetic susceptibility
of a magnetic material is –
(1) 104 0 m
0.004 then its nature will be :-
(2) 105 0 m
(3) 106 0 m (1) Diamagnetic (2) Paramagnetic
(4) 108 0 m (3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Non magnetic
Q.230 For the hollow thin
cylindrical current carrying pipe Q.235 A straight wire carries a
which statement is correct :- current vertically upwards. A point P
lies to the east of it at a small
(1) Magnetic field inside distance and another point Q lies to
the pipe is not zero the west at the same distance. The
(2) Magnetic field outside magnetic field at P is (consider earth
the pipe is zero field).
(3) Electric field outside (1) Greater than at Q
the pipe is zero (2) Same as at Q
(4) Electric field on the (3) Less than at Q
surface of pipe is zero (4) Greater or less than at Q, depending
upon the strength of current
Q.231 Cathode rays are
moving between the Q.236 Two particles each of mass m
poles of a magnet. Due to and charge q, are attached to the
the effect of magnetic two ends of a light rigid rod of length
field of magnet :- 2 I. The rod is rotated at constant
angular speed about a perpendicular
(1) Velocity of rays increasing axis passing through its centre. The
(2) Velocity of rays decreases ratio of the magnitudes of the
(3) Rays deflected magnetic moment of the system and
towards south pole its angular momentum about the
centre of the rod is :-
(4) Rays deflected in upward
direction and perpendicular to (1) q/m (2) q/m
the plane of the paper (3) 2q/m (4) q/2m
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Ray Optics Question Bank

Q.1 Which colour of the light has Q.6 Pick the wrong answer in the
the longest wavelength ? context with rainbow.

(1) Red (2) Blue (1) When the light rays undergo two
(3) Green (4) Violet internal reflections in a water drop, a
secondary rainbow is formed.
Q.2 Two similar thin equi-convex (2) The order of colours is reversed
lenses, of focal length f each, are in the secondary rainbow.
kept coaxially in contact with each (3) An observer can see a rainbow when
other such that the focal length of his front is towards the sun.
the combination is F1. When the (4) Rainbow is a combined
space between the two lenses is effect of dispersion refraction
filled with glycerin (which has the and reflection sunlight.
same refractive index ( = 1.5) as
that of glass) then the equivalent Q.7 An object is placed at a distance
focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 of 40 cm from a concave mirror of
will be :- focal length 15 cm. If the object is
displaced through a distance of 20
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 cm towards the mirror, the
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 displacement of the image will be :-
Q.3 In total internal reflection when (1) 30 cm away from the mirror
the angle of incidence is equal to (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
the critical angle for the pair of (3) 30 cm towards the mirror
media in contact, what will be (4) 36 cm towards the mirror
angle of refraction –
Q.8 The refractive index of the
(1) 1800
material of a prism is 2 and the
(2) 00
angle of the prism is 300. One of the
(3) Equal to angle of incidence
two refracting surfaces of the prism
(4) 900 is made a mirror inwards, by silver
coating. A beam of monochromatic
Q.4 A double convex lens has focal
light entering the prism from the
length 25 cm. The radius of
other face will retrace its path (after
curvature of one of the surfaces is
reflection from the silvered surface)
double of the other. Find the radii if
if its angle of incidence on the prism is
the refractive index of the material
of the lens is 1.5 :-
(1) 600 (2) 450
(1) 100 cm, 50 cm (3) 300 (4) Zero
(2) 25 cm, 50 cm
(3) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm Q.9 A thin prism having refracting
(4) 50 cm, 100 cm angle 100 is made of glass of
refractive index 1.42. This prism is
Q.5 An equiconvex lens has power combined with another thin prism of
P. It is cut into two symmetrical glass of refractive index 1.7. This
halves by a plane containing the combination produces dispersion
principal axis. The power of one without deviation. The refracting
part will be :- angle of second prism should be

(1) 0 (2) P/2 (1) 60 (2) 80

(3) P/4 (4) P (3) 100 (4) 40
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Q.10 A beam of light from a source Q.13 Two identical glass (g = 3/2)
L is incident normally on a plane equiconvex lenses of focal length f
mirror fixed at a certain distance x each are kept in contact. The space
from the source. The beam is between the two lenses is filled
reflected back as a spot on a scale with water (W 4/3). The focal
placed just above the source L. length of the combination is :-
When the mirror is rotated through
a small angle , the spot of the light (1) 4f/3
is found to move through a distance (2) 3f/4
y on the scale. The angle  is given (3) f/3
by :- (4) f

(1) y/x (2) x/2y Q.14 An air bubble in a glass slab

(3) x/y (4) y/2x with refractive index 1.5 (near
normal incidence) is 5 cm deep
Q.11 The angle of incidence for a when viewed from one surface and
ray of light at a refracting surface 3 cm deep when viewed from the
of a prism is 450. The angle of opposite face. The thickness (in
prism is 600. If the ray suffers cm) of the slab is :-
minimum deviation through the
prism, the angle of minimum (1) 12 (2) 16
deviation and refractive index of (3) 8 (4) 10
the material of the prism
respectively, are :- Q.15 A person can see clearly
objects only when they lie between
(1) 450, 1/2 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In
(2) 300, 2 order to increase the maximum
(3) 450, 2 distance of distinct vision to
(4) 300, 1/2 infinity, the type and power of the
correcting lens, the person has to
Q.12 Match the corresponding use, will be :-
entries of column-1 with coloumn-2
(Where m is the magnification (1) Concave, – 0.2 diopter
produced by the mirror) :- (2) Convex, + 0.15 diopter
Column-1 Column-2 (3) Convex, + 2.25 diopter
(A) m = –2 (a) m = Convex (4) Concave, – 0.25 diopter
mirror
(B) m = – 1/2 (b) Concave mirror Q.16 An astronomical telescope has
(C) m = +2 (c) Real image objective and eyepiece of focal
(D) m = + 1/2 (d) Virtual image lengths 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200
(1) A  b and c, B  b and cm away from the objective, the
c, C  b and d, D  a and d lenses must be separated by a
(2) A  a and c, B  a and distance :-
d, C  a and b, D  c and d
(3) A  a and d, B  b and (1) 37.3 cm
c, C  b and d, D  b and c (2) 46.0 cm
(4) A  c and d, B  b and (3) 50.0 cm
d, C  b and c, D  a and d (4) 54.0 cm

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Ray Optics Question Bank

Q.17 The refracting angle of a Q.20 If the focal length of

prism is A, and refractive index of objective lens is increased then
the material of the prism is magnifying power of :-
cot(A/2). The angle of minimum
deviation is :- (1) Microscope will increase but
that of telescope decrease.
(1) 1800 – 2A
(2) Microscope and telescope
(2) 900 – A
both will increase.
(3) 1800 + 2A
(4) 1800 – 3A (3) Microscope and telescope
both will decrease
Q.18 Two identical thin plano- (4) Microscope will decrease
convex glass lenses (refractive but that of telescope increase.
index 1.5) each having radius of
curvature of 20 cm are placed with Q.21 The angle of a prism is 'A'.
their convex surfaces in contact at One of its refracting surfaces is
the centre. The intervening space is silvered. Light rays falling at an
filled with oil of refractive index angle of incidence 2A on the first
1.7. The focal length of the surface returns back through the
combination is :- same path after suffering reflection
at the silvered surface.
(1) –25 cm The refractive index , of the prism
(2) –50 cm is :-
(3) 50 cm
(4) –20 cm (1) 2sin A
(2) 2cos A
Q.19 A beam of light consisting of
(3) 1/2 cos A
red, green and blue colours is
incident on a right angled prism. (4) tan A
The refractive index of the material
of the prism for the above red, Q.22 A plano convex lens fits
green and blue wavelengths are exactly into a plano concave lens.
1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively. Their plane surfaces are parallel
The prism will :- to each other. If lenses are made
of different materials of refractive
indices 1 and 2 and R is the
radius of curvature of the curved
surface of the lenses, then the
focal length of combination is.

(1) Separate the red colour part 2R

(1)
from the green and blue colours (2 _ 1 )
(2) Separate the blue colour part R
(2)
from the red and green colours 2(1 + 2 )
(3) Separate all the three R
(3)
colours from one another 2(1 _ 2 )
(4) Not separate the R
(4)
three colours at all (1 _ 2 )

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Q.23 For a normal eye, the cornea Q.27 When a biconvex lens of glass
of eye provides a converging power having refractive index 1.47 is
dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
of 40 D and the least converging
sheet of glass. This implies that the
power of the eye lens behind the liquid must have refractive index.
cornea is 20 D. Using this
information, the distance between (1) Greater than that of glass
the retina and the cornea eye lens (2) Less than that of glass
(3) Equal to that of glass
can be estimated to be –
(4) Less than one

(1) 1.5 cm (2) 5 cm Q.28 A rod of length 10 cm lies along

(3) 2.5 cm (4) 1.67 cm the principal axis of a concave mirror
of focal length 10 cm in such a way
Q.24 The magnifying power of a that its end closer to the pole is 20
telescope is 9. When it is adjusted cm away from the mirror. The length
for parallel rays, the distance of the image is :-
between the objective and eyepiece
is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses (1) 2.5 cm (2) 5 cm
are :- (3) 10 cm (4) 15 cm

(1) 18 cm, 2 cm Q.29 For the angle of minimum

(2) 11 cm, 9 cm deviation of a prism to be equal to its
refracting angle the prism must be
(3) 10 cm, 10 cm
made of a material whose refractive
(4) 15 cm, 5 cm
index :-
Q.25 A ray of light is incident at an (1) Is less than 1
angle of incidence, i, on one face of (2) Is greater than 2
a prism of angle A (assumed to be (3) Lies between 2 and 1
small) and emerges normally from (4) Lies between 2 and 2
the opposite face. If the refractive
index of the prism is , the angle of Q.30 Which of the following is not
incidence i, is nearly equal to :- due to total internal reflection ?

(1) A/ (2) A/2 (1) Working of optical fibre

(3) Α (4) A/2 (2) Difference between apparent
and real depth of a pond
Q.26 A concave mirror of focal (3) Mirage on hot summer days
length 'f1' is placed at a distance of (4) Brilliance of diamond
'd' from a convex lens of focal
Q.31 A biconvex lens has a radius of
length 'f2'. A beam of light coming
curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which
from infinity and falling on this
one of the following options describe
convex lens-concave mirror
best the image formed of an object of
combination returns to infinity. The height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the
distance 'd' must equal :- lens ? ( = 1.5)

(1) 2f1 + f2 (1) Virtual, upright, height = 1cm

(2) –2f1 + f2 (2) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5cm
(3) f1 + f2 (3) Real, inverted, height = 4cm
(4) –f1 + f2 (4) Real, inverted, height = 1cm
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Q.32 A thin prism of angle 150 Q.36 A ray of light is incident on a

made of glass of refractive index 1 600 prism at the minimum deviation
= 1.5 is combined with another position. The angle of refraction at
prism of glass of refractive index 2 the first face (i.e., incident face) of
= 1.75. The combination of the the prism is :-
prisms produces dispersion without
deviation. The angle of the second (1) 300
prism should be :- (2) 450
(3) 600
(1) 50 (2) 70 (4) Zero
(3) 100 (4) 120
Q.37 Two thin lenses of focal
lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and
Q.33 A lens having focal length f
coaxial. The power of the
and aperture of diameter d forms
combination.
an image of intensity I. Aperture of
diameter d/2 in central region of
f1 + f2 f1 + f2
lens is covered by a black paper. (1) (2)
Focal length of lens and intensity of 2 f1f2
image now will be respectively :- f1 f2
(3) (4)
f2 f1
(1) f/2 and I/2 (2) f and I/4
(3) 3f/4 and I/2 (4) f and 3I/4 Q.38 The frequency of a light wave
in a material is 2 × 1014 Hz and
Q.34 A ray of light travelling in a wavelength is 5000 Å. The
transparent medium of refractive refractive index of material will be
index , falls on a surface
separating the medium from air at (1) 1.33
an angle of incidence of 450. For (2) 1.40
which of the following value of  (3) 1.50
the ray can undergo total internal (4) 3.00
reflection –
Q.39 A small
(1)  = 1.25 (2)  = : 1.33 coin is resting
(3)  =1.40 (4)  = 1.50 on the bottom
of a beaker
Q.35 The speed of light in media M1 filled with a
and M2 is 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × liquid. A ray
108 m/s respectively. A ray of light of light from the coin travels up to
enters from medium M1 to M2 at an the surface of the liquid and moves
incidence angle i. If the ray suffers along its surface (see figure). How
total internal reflection, the value fast is the light travelling in the
of i is :- liquid ?

(1) Equal to or less than sin–1 (3/5)

(2) Equal to or greater (1) 1.2 × 108 m/s
than sin–1 (3/4) (2) 1.8 × 108 m/s
(3) Less than sin–1 (2/3) (3) 2.4 × 108 m/s
(4) Equal to sin–1 (2/3) (4) 3.0 × 108 m/s

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Q.40 A microscope is focussed on a Q.46 Figure shows two plane

mark on a piece of paper and then a mirrors parallel to each other and
slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and an object O placed between them.
refractive index 1.5 is placed over Then the distance of the first three
the mark. How should the images from the mirror M2 will be :
microscope be moved to get the (in cm)
mark in focus again :-
(1) 5, 10, 15
(1) 1 cm upward
(2) 5, 15, 30
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 5, 25, 35
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 5, 15, 25
(4) 2 cm upward

Q.41 A convex lens and a concave Q.47 A ray gets successively

lens, each having same focal length reflection from two mirrors inclined
of 25 cm, are put in contact to form at an angle of 400. If the angle of
a combination of lenses. The power incidence on the first mirror is 300
in diopters of the combination is :- then the net deviation of this ray
after two reflections.
(1) 25 (2) 50
(3) Infinite (4) Zero (1) 400 (2) 2800
(3) 900 (4) 2400
Q.42 When a ray of light is incident
normally on a plane mirror then the Q.48 A tall man of height 6 feet,
angle of reflection will be – want to see his full image. Then
required minimum length of the
(1) 00 (2) 900
mirror will be :-
(3) 1800 (4) –900

Q.43 A ray is incident at 300 angle (1) 12 feet (2) 3 feet

on plane mirror. What will be (3) 6 feet (4) Any length
deviation after reflection from
mirror. Q.49 A man is 180 cm tall and his
eyes are 10 cm below the top of his
(1) 1200 (2) 600 head. In order to see his entire
(3) 300 (4) 450 height right from toe to head, he
uses a plane mirror kept at a
Q.44 Two plane mirrors are lying distance of 1 m from him. The
perpendicular to each other, there minimum length of the plane mirror
is lamp in between mirrors. Then required is –
number of images lamp will be.
(1) 180 cm (2) 90 cm
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 85 cm (4) 170 cm
(3) 5 (4) 6

Q.45 A man runs towards stationary Q.50 Two plane mirrors are at 450
plane mirror at a speed of 15 m/s. to each other. If an object is placed
What is the speed of his image with between them then the number of
respect to mirror – images will be –

(1) 7.5 m/s (2) 15 m/s (1) 5 (2) 9

(3) 30 m/s (4) 45 m/s (3) 7 (4) 8
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Q.51 The focal length of a concave Q.56 An object of height 1.5 cm is

mirror is 50 cm. where an object be situated at a distance of 15 cm
placed so that its image is two from a concave mirror. The concave
times magnified, real and inverted - mirror forms its real image of
height 3.0 cm. The focal length of
(1) 75 cm (2) 72 cm concave mirror will be –
(3) 63 cm (4) 50 cm
(1) –10 cm (2) –20 cm
(3) 20 cm (4) 30 cm
Q.52 An object of height 7.5 cm is
placed in front of a convex mirror
Q.57 A boy stands straight infront
of radius of curvature 25 cm at a
of a mirror at a distance of 30 cm
distance of 40 cm. The height of the
away from it. He sees his erect
image should be –
image whose height is 1/5th of his
real height. The mirror he is using is.
(1) 2.3 cm (2) 1.78 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 0.8 cm (1) Plane mirror
(2) Convex mirror
Q.53 A square of side 3 cm is (3) Concave mirror
placed at a distance of 25 cm from (4) None
a concave mirror of focal length 10
cm. The centre of the square is at Q.58 A point object is moving on
the axis of the mirror and the plane the principal axis of a concave
is normal to the axis. The area mirror of focal length 24 cm
enclosed by the image of the wire is. towards the mirror. When it is at a
distance of 60 cm from the mirror,
(1) 4 cm2 (2) 6 cm2 its velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the
velocity of the image at that instant
(3) 16 cm2 (4) 36 cm2
(1) 5 cm/sec.
Q.54 The focal length of a concave
(2) 12 cm/sec
mirror is 12 cm. Where should an
(3) 4 cm/sec
object of height 4 cm be placed, so
(4) 9 cm/sec
that a real image of 1 cm height is
formed ?
Q.59 A concave mirror gives an
image three times as large as the
(1) 48 cm (2) 3 cm
object placed at a distance of 20 cm
(3) 60 cm (4) 15 cm from it. For the image to be real,
the focal length should be –
Q.55 An object is lying at a distance
of 90 cm from a concave mirror of (1) –10 cm (2) –15 cm
focal length 30 cm. The position (3) –20 cm (4) –30 cm
and nature of image formed by it
will be – Q.60 The minimum distance
between the object and its real
(1) 45 cm, of the size of object image for concave mirror is –
(2) 90 cm, smaller than object
(3) 30 cm, bigger than object (1) ƒ (2) 2ƒ
(4) – 45 cm smaller than object (3) 4ƒ (4) Zero

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Q.61 A convex mirror has a radius Q.66 The colour are characterized
of curvature of 22 cm. If an object by which of following character of
is placed 14 cm away from the light.
mirror then its image is formed at –
(1) Frequency (2) Amplitude
(1) 6.2 cm on the front (3) Wavelength (4) Velocity
side of the mirror
(2) 6.2 cm on the back Q.67 The wavelength of light in two
side of the mirror liquids 'x' and 'y' is 3500 Å and
(3) 51.3 cm on the 7000Å, then the critical angle will
front of the mirror be.
(4) 51.3 cm on the
back side of the mirror (1) 600 (2) 450
(3) 300 (4) 150
Q.62 The focal length of a spherical
mirror is :- Q.68 A microscope is focused on a
mark, then a glass slab of refractive
(1) Maximum for red light index 1.5 and thickness of 6 cm is
(2) Maximum for blue light placed on the mark to get the mark
(3) Maximum for white light again in focus, the microscope
(4) Same for all lights should be moved.

Q.63 A point object is placed at a (1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm

distance of 10 cm and its real (3) 6 cm (4) 8 cm
image is formed at a distance of 20
cm from a concave mirror. If the Q.69 Velocity of light in glass,
object is moved by 0.1 cm towards whose refractive index w.r.t. air is
the mirror, the image will shift by 1.5, is 2 × 108 m/Sec. In a certain
about. liquid the velocity of light is found
to be 2.5 × 108 m/Sec. The
(1) 0.4 cm away from the mirror refractive index of liquid w.r.t. air is
(2) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(3) 0.8 cm away from the mirror (1) 0.64
(4) 0.8 cm towards the mirror (2) 0.80
(3) 1.20
Q.64 The focal length of a convex (4) 1.44
mirror is 20 cm its radius of
curvature will be – Q.70 A point source of light is place
4 m below the surface of water of
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm refractive index 5/3. The minimum
(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm diameter of a disc which should be
placed over the source on the
Q.65 A diminished virtual image surface of water to cut-off all light
can be formed only in – coming out of water is (  = 5/3).

(1) Plane mirror (1) 2 m

(2) A concave mirror (2) 6 m
(3) A convex mirror (3) 4 m
(4) None (4) 3 m

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Q.71 When a ray of light enters a Q.76 Light travels through a glass
medium of refractive index , it is plate of thickness t and having
observed that the angle of refraction refractive index n. If c is the
is half of the angle of incidence is velocity of light in vacuum. the time
than angle of incidence is – taken by the light to travel this
thickness of glass is –
(1) 2 cos–1(/2) (2) cos–1(/2)
(3) 2 cos–1() (1) t/nc (2) tnc
(4) 2 sin–1(/2) (3) nt/c (4) tc/n

Q.72 White light is Q.77 A ray of light propagates from

incident on the glass (refractive index = 3/2) to
interface of glass and water (refractive index = 4/3). The
air as shown in the value of the critical angle –
figure. If green light is
just totally internally (1) sin–1(1/2) (2) sin–1(8/9)
reflected then the (3) sin–1(8/9) (4) sin–1(5/7)
emerging ray in air contains –
Q.78 Relation between critical
(1) Yellow, orange, red angles of water and glass is –
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours (1) Cw > Cg (2) Cw < Cg
(4) All colours except green (3) Cw = Cg (4) Cw = Cg = 0

Q.73 A plane glass slab is kept over Q.79 Critical angle of light passing
various coloured letters; the letter from glass to air is minimum for.
which appears least raised is –
(1) Red (2) Green
(1) Blue (2) Voilet
(3) Yellow (4) Violet
(3) Green (4) Red
Q.80 Which of the following is used
Q.74 A bubble in glass slab ( =
in optical fibres.
1.5) when viewed from one side
appears at 5 cm and 2cm from
(1) T.I.R. (2) Scattering
other side, then thickness of slab is
(3) Diffraction (4) Reflection
(1) 3.75 cm (2) 3 cm
Q.81 Brilliance of diamond is due to -
(3) 10.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
(1) Shape (2) Cutting
Q.75 A ray of light travelling in air
have wavelength , frequency n, (3) Reflection (4) T.I.R.
velocity V and intensity I. If this
ray enters into water than these Q.82 'Mirage' is a phenomenon due
parameters are ', n', v' and I' to –
respectively. Which relation is
correct from following – (1) Reflection of light
(2) Refraction of light
(1)  = ’ (2) n = n’ (3) T.I.R. of light
(3) v = v’ (4) I – I’ (4) Diffraction of light

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Q.83 An object is immersed in a Q.88 A thin Prism P1 with angle 40

fluid. In order that the object and made from glass of refractive
becomes invisible, it should. index 1.54 is combined with
another thin Prism P2 made from
(1) Behave as a perfect reflector glass of refractive index 1.72 to
(2) Absorb all light falling on it produce dispersion without
(3) Have refractive index one deviation. The angle of Prism P2 is.
(4) Have refractive index
exactly matching with that (1) 5.330
of the surrounding fluid (2) 40
(3) 30
Q.84 The angle of a glass prism is
(4) 2.60
4.50 and its refractive index is 1.52.
The angle of minimum deviation
Q.89 The angle of minimum
will be – deviation measured with a prism is
(1) 1.50 (2) 2.30 300 and the angle of prism is 600.
(3) 4.50 (4) 20 The refractive index of prism
material is –
Q.85 A ray of light passes through
equilateral Prism ( = 1.5) such (1) 2
that angle of incidence is equal to (2) 2
angle of emergence and the later is (3) 3/2
equal to 3/4th of Prism angle. The (4) 4/3
angle of deviation is –
Q.90 Angle of prism is A and its one
0 0
(1) 60 (2) 30 surface is silvered. Light rays
(3) 450 (4) 1200 falling at an angle of incidence 2A
on first surface return back through
Q.86 Prism angle of glass prism is the same path after suffering
100. It's refractive index of red and reflection at second silvered
violet color is 1.51 and 1.52 surface. Refractive index of the
respectively. Then its dispersive material of prism is –
power will be –
(1) 2 sin A
(1) 0.015 (2) 0.020
(2) 2 cos A
(3) 0.011 (4) 0.019 (3) 1/2 cos A
(4) tan A
Q.87 If the refractive indices of
crown glass for red, yellow and
Q.91 A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB
violet colors are 1.5140, 1.5170
= BC) and travels as shown in
and 1.5318 respectively and for
figure. The minimum refractive
flint glass these are 1.6434, 1.6499
index of the prism material should
and 1.6852 respectively, then the
be –
dispersive powers for crown and
flint glass are respectively – (1) 4/3
(1) 0.034 and 0.064 (2) 2
(2) 0.064 and 0.034
(3) 1.5
(3) 1.00 and 0.064
(4) 0.034 and 1.0 (4) 3
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Q.92 For a prism, graph between Q.96 A spherical surface of radius

angle of deviation () and angle of of curvature R separates air
incidence will be – (refractive index 1.0) from glass
(refractive index 1.5). The centre of
curvature is in glass. A point object
P placed in air is found to have a
(1) (2)
real image Q in the glass. The line
PQ cuts the surface at a point O and
PO OQ. The distance PO is equal to.

(1) R (2) 3 R

(3) (4) (3) 2 R (4) 5 R

Q.97 A point
object O is
Q.93 Three prisms 1, 2 and 3 have placed in front
the prism angle A = 600, but their of a glass rod
refractive indices are respectively having spherical
1.4, 1.5 and 1.6. If 1, 2, 3, be their end of radius of curvature 30 cm.
respective angles of deviation then. The image formed would be –

(1) 3 > 2 > 1 (1) 30 cm left (2) Infinity

(2) 1 > 2 > 3 (3) 1 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left
(3) 1 = 2 = 3
(4) 2 > 1 > 3 Q.98 Two convex lens of focal
length 20 cm and 25 cm are placed
Q.94 Rainbow is formed due to :- in contact with each other, then
power of this combination is –
(1) Scattering & reflection
(2) Internal reflection (1) + 1 D (2) + 9 D
& dispersion (3) – 1 D (4) – 9 D
(3) Reflection only Q.99 Two lenses of power +2.50 D
(4) Diffraction and dispersion and –3.75 D are combined to form a
compound lens. Its focal length in
Q.95 The refractive index of the cm will be –
material of a prism is 2 and its
refracting angle is 300. One of the (1) 40 (2) –40
refracting surfaces of the prism is (3) –80 (4) 160
silvered. A beam of monochromatic
light entering the prism from the Q.100 Lenses of powers 3D and –
other face will retrace its path after 5D are combined to form a
reflection from the silvered surface compound lens. An object is placed
if its angle of incidence on the at a distance of 50 cm from this
prism is :- lens. Calculate the position of its
image –
(1) 600 (2) 00
(1) –10 cm (2) +10 cm
0 0
(3) 30 (4) 45 (3) –25 cm (4) + 25 cm

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Q.101 A convex lens of Focal length Q.106 Two thin convex lenses of
of 40cm is in contact with a focal length 10 cm and 15 cm are
concave lens of focal length 25cm. separated by a distance of 10 cm.
The power of the combination is – The focal length of the combination
is :-
(1) –1.5 D
(2) –6.5 D (1) 4.2 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) +6.5 D (3) 10 cm (4) 15 cm
(4) +6.67 D
Q.107 A convex lens of power P is
Q.102 An object is put at a distance immersed in water. how will its
of 5 cm from the first focus of a power change ?
convex lens of focal length 10cm. If
a real image is formed it's distance (1) Increases
from the lens will be :- (2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm (4) Increases for red color
and decreases for blue color
(3) 25 cm (4) 30 cm
Q.108 A convex lens is made up of
Q.103 An equiconvex lens has a
three different materials as shown
power of 5 dioptre. If it is made of
in the figure. For a point object
glass of refractive index 1.5. then
placed on its axis, the number of
radius of curvature of its each
images formed are –
surface will be –
(1) 1
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm (4)  (2) 3
(3) 4
Q.104 An object placed at a
distance of 9cm from first principal (4) 5
focus of convex lens, produces a
real image at a distance of 25cm Q.109 The focal length of a convex
from its second principal focus. lens is 10 cm and its refractive
Then focal length of lens is – index is 1.5. If the radius of
curvature of one surface is 7.5 cm,
(1) 9 cm the radius of curvature of the
(2) 25 cm second surface will be –
(3) 15 cm
(4) 17 cm (1) 7.5 cm (2) 15.0 cm
(3) 75 cm (4) 5.0 cm
Q.105 A glass convex lens (g =
1.5) has a focal length of 8 cm Q.110 A plano convex lens ( = 1.5)
when placed in air. What would be has radius of curvature 10 cm. It is
the focal length of the lens when it silvered on its plane surface. Find
is immersed in water (w = 1.33) focal length after silvering :-

(1) 2 m (2) 4 cm (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm

(3) 16 cm (4) 32 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm

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Q.111 A plano convex lens is Q.115 An

made of refractive index 1.6. The equiconvex lens
radius of curvature of the curved is cut into two
surface is 60 cm. The focal length halves along (i)
of the lens is – XOX' and (ii)
YOY' as shown
(1) 50 cm in the figure.
Let f, f’, f’’, be the focal length of
(2) 100 cm the complete lens, of each half in
(3) 200 cm case (i), and of each half in case
(ii), respectively Choose the correct
(4) 400 cm statement from the following :-

Q.112 If in a plano-convex lens. (1) f' = f, f" = f' = 2f

the radius of curvature of the (2) f' = 2f, f" = f
convex surface is 10 cm and the (3) f' = f, f" = f
focal length of the lens is 30 cm, (4) f' = 2f, f" = 2f,
then the refractive index of the
material of lens will be – Q.116 An object and its real image
are located at distances 25 cm and
(1) 1.5 40 cm respectively from the two
(2) 1.66 principal focii of a convex lens. The
linear magnification of the image is
(3) 1.33
near to –
(4) 3
(1) + 1.3 (2) –1.3
Q.113 If a convex lens of focal
(3) + 1.8 (4) –1.8
length 80 cm and a concave lens
of focal length 50 cm are Q.117 Lenses applied in achromatic
combined together, what will be combination having dispersive
their resulting power. power in ratio of 5 : 3 if focal length
of concave lens is 15 cm, then focal
(1) + 6.5 D length of other lens will be –
(2) – 6.5 D
(1) –9 cm
(3) + 7.5 D (2) +9 cm
(3) –12 cm
(4) –0.75 D
(4) +12 cm
Q.114 A convex lens is dipped in a
Q.118 If the magnitude of
liquid whose refractive index is dispersive powers of two lenses are
equal to the refractive index of 0.024 and 0.036. Then their focal
the lens. Then its focal length will. lengths will be for aberration free
combination.
(1) Become zero
(2) Become infinite (1) 30 cm, –40 cm
(3) Become small, (2) 30 cm, –45 cm
but non-zero (3) 10 cm, 30 cm
(4) Remain unchanged (4) 20 cm, –35 cm

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Q.119 An achromatic convergent Q.124 An astronomical telescope of

doublet of two lenses in contact has magnifying power 8 is made using
a power of + 2D. The convex lens two lenses spaced 45 cm apart. The
has a power + 5D. What is the ratio focal length of the lenses used are.
of the dispersive powers of the
convergent and divergent lenses. (1) f = 40 cm, f = 5 cm
(2) f = 8 cm, f = 5 cm
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 3 : 5 (3) f = 5 cm, f = 47 cm
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 3 (4) f = 20 cm, f = 5 cm

Q.120 The dispersive powers of the Q.125 The magnifying power of the
materials of the two lenses are in objective of a compound
the ratio 4 : 3. If the achromatic microscope is 7 if the magnifying
combination of these two lenses in power of the microscope is 35, then
contact is a convex lens of focal the magnifying power of eyepiece
length 60 cm then the focal lengths will be –
of the component lenses are.

(1) – 20 cm and 25 cm (1) 245 (2) 5

(2) 20 cm and – 25 cm (3) 28 (4) 42
(3) – 15 cm and 40 cm
(4) 15 cm and – 20 cm Q.126 An astronomical telescope
has focal lengths 100 & 10cm of
Q.121 Two lenses of focal length + objective and eyepiece lens
10 cm and – 15 cm when put in respectively when final image is
contact behave like a convex lens. formed at least distance of distinct
They will have zero longitudinal vision, magnification power of
chromatic aberration if their telescope will be :-
dispersive powers are in the ratio.
(1) –10 (2) –11
(1) + 3/2 (2) + 2/3 (3) –14 (4) –15
(3) – 3/2 (4) – 2/3
Q.127 If tube length of
Q.122 Refractive index of violet, astronomical telescope is 105 cm
yellow and Red colour of light for a and magnifying power is 20 for
material of lens are 1.66, 1.64 & normal setting. Calculate the focal
1.62 respectively. If mean focal length of objective.
length of lens is 10cm. Then
chromatic abberation between the (1) 100 cm (2) 10 cm
colour of violet and red will be – (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm
(1) 0.625 cm (2) 0.125 m
Q.128 Least distance of distinct
(3) 02 cm (4) 0 cm
vision is 25 cm, What will be
Q.123 The focal length of convex Magnifying power of simple
lens is 2.5 cm. Its magnifying microscope of focal length 5 cm, if
power for minimum distance of final image is formed at minimum
distinct vision will be – distance of distinct vision –

(1) 25 (2) 52 (1) 1/5 (2) 5

(3) 11 (4) 1.1 (3) 1/6 (4) 6

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Q.129 In a compound microscope, Q.134 A telescope has an objective

the intermediate image, in normal lens of focal length 200 cm and an
use is – eye piece with focal length 2cm. If
this telescope is used to see a 50
(1) Virtual, erect and magnified meter tall building at a distance of
(2) Real, erect and magnified 2km, what is the height of the
(3) Real, inverted and magnified image of the building formed by the
(4) Virtual, inverted and magnified objective lens.

Q.130 The focal lengths of the (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm

objective and eye- piece of a (3) 1cm (4) 2 cm
telescope are respectively 100 cm
and 2 cm. If it The moon subtends Q.135 Minimum and maximum
an angle of 0.50 at the eye. is distance should be for clear vision
looked through the telescope, the of healthy eye.
angle subtended by the moon's
(1) 100 cm & 500 cm
image will be –
(2) Infinite & 25 cm
(3) 25 cm & 100 cm
(1) 1000 (2) 500
(4) 25 cm & infinite
(3) 250 (4) 100
Q.136 A person can see clearly only
Q.131 In a laboratory four convex
upto a distance of 25 cm. He wants
lenses L1, L2, L3, and L4 of focal
to read a book placed at a distance
lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8 cm
of 50 cm. What kind of lens does he
respectively are available. Two of
require for his spectacles and what
these lenses form a telescope of
must be its power ?
length 10 cm and magnifying power
4. The objective and eye lenses are. (1) Concave, – 1.0 D
(2) Convex, + 1.5 D
(1) L2, L3 (2) L1, L4 (3) Concave, – 2.0 D
(3) L3, L2 (4) L4, L1 (4) Convex, + 2.0 D

Q.132 The magnifying power of a Q.137 A person cannot see the

simple microscope is 6. The focal objects beyond 50 cm. The power of
length of its lens in metres will be, a lens to correct this vision will be –
if least distance of distinct vision is
25 cm. (1) +2D (2) –2D
(3) +5D (4) 0.5 D
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.06
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.12 Q.138 A myopic person cannot see
objects lying beyond 2 m. The focal
Q.133 An astronomical telescope length and power of the lens
has a magnifying power 10. The required to remove this defect will
focal length of eyepiece is 20 cm. be –
The focal length of objective is.
(1) 1 m & 0.5 D
(2) –2 m & –0.5 D
(1) 2 cm (2) 200 cm
(3) 0.5 m & 0.5 D
(3) 1/2 cm (4) 1/200 cm (4) –0.5 m & 0.5 D

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Ray Optics Question Bank

Q.139 To remove myopia (short Q.144 A convex mirror of focal

sightedness) a lens of power 0.66D length f produces an image (1/n)th
is required. The distant point of the of the size of the object. The
eye is approximately. distance of the object from the
mirror is –
(1) 100 cm (2) 151.5 cm
(1) nf
(3) 50 cm (4) 25 cm
(2) f/n
(3) (n + 1)f
Q.140 A person cannot see the
(4) (n – 1)f
objects clearly placed at a distance
more than 40 cm. He is advised to
Q.145 A glass
use a lens of power.
prism ( = 1.5) is
dipped in water (
(1) –2.5 D (2) + 2.5 D
= 4/3) as shown
(3) –6.25 D (4) + 1.5 D in figure. A light
ray is incident
Q.141 A man cannot see clearly the normally on the surface AB. It
objects beyond a distance of 20 cm reaches the surface BC after totally
from his eyes. To see distant reflected, if.
objects clearly he must use which
kind of lenses and of what focal (1) sin  > 8/9
length. (2) 2/3 < sin  < 8/9
(3) sin   2/3
(1) 10 cm convex (4) It is not possible
(2) 100 cm concave
(3) 20 cm convex Q.146 A vessel is half filled with a
(4) 20 cm concave liquid of refractive index . The
other half of the vessel is filled with
Q.142 A man moves towards a an immiscible liquid of refractive
plane mirror with a velocity v in a index 1.5. The apparent depth of
direction making an angle  with vessel is 50% of the actual depth.
the normal to the mirror. The The value of  is –
magnitude of velocity of the image
relative to man normal to mirror (1) 1.6 (2) 1.67
will be –
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.4
(1) 2 v (2) 2 v cos
Q.147 A microscope is focussed on
(3) 2 v sin (4) 2v/cos a coin lying at the bottom of a
beaker. The microscope is now
Q.143 A virtual image three times raised up by 1 cm. To what depth
the size of the object is obtained should the water be poured into the
with a concave mirror of radius of beaker so that coin is again in the
curvature 36 cm. The distance of focus (Refractive index of water is
the object from the mirror is – 4/3)

(1) 5 cm (2) 12 cm (1) 1 cm (2) 4/3 cm

(3) 10 cm (4) 20 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm

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Ray Optics Question Bank

Q.148 A clear transparent glass Q.152 A telescope consisting of

sphere ( = 1.5) of radius R is objective of focal length 60cm and
immersed in a liquid of refractive a single lens eye piece of focal
index 1.25. A parallel beam of light length 5cm is focussed at a distant
incident on it will converge to a object in such a way that parallel
point. The distance of this point rays emerge from the eye piece. If
from the centre will be – the object subtends an angle of 2°
at the objective, then angular width
(1) - 3R (2) + 3R of image will be –
(3) - R (4) + R
(1) 10°
(2) 24°
Q.149 A point
(3) 50°
object is placed
(4) 1/60
at a distance of
20 cm from a thin
Q.153 A beam of light composed of
plano-convex
red and green rays is incident
lens of focal
obliquely at a point on the face of a
length 15 cm. If the plane surface
rectangular glass slab. When
is silvered, the image will from at –
coming out on the opposite parallel
face, the red and green rays
(1) 60 cm from left of AB
emerge from :-
(2) 30 cm from left of AB
(3) 12 cm from left of AB
(1) Two points propagating in
(4) 60 cm from right of AB
two different parallel directions
(2) One point propagating
Q.150 A film projector magnifies a
in two different directions
film of area 100 square centimeter
(3) One point propagating
on screen. If linear magnification is
in the same direction
4 then area of magnified image on
(4) Two points propagating
screen will be –
in two different non
parallel directions
(1) 1600 sq.cm
(2) 800 sq.cm
Q.154 A short linear object of length
(3) 400 sq.cm
L lies on the axis of a spherical
(4) 200 sq.cm
mirror of focal length f at a distance
u from the mirror. Its image has an
Q.151 For the given
axial length L' equal to –
incident ray as shown
in figure, the condition 1/2
of total internal  f 
(1) L  _ 
reflection of this ray  (u f ) 
the minimum refractive 1/2
u + f 
index of prism will be – (2) L 
 f 
_ 2
3 +1 2 +1 u f 
(1) (2) (3) L 
2 2  f 
2
3 7  f 
(3) (4) (4) L  _ 
2 6  (u f) 
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Q.155 White light is Q.157 A bulb is located on a wall.

incident on face AB Its image is to be obtained on a
of a glass prism. parallel wall with the help of
The path of the convex lens. If the distance
green component is between parallel walls is 'd' then
shown in the figure. required focal length of lens placed
If the green light is just totally in between the walls is :-
internally reflected at face AC as
shown, the light emerging from (1) Only d/4
face AC will contain – (2) Only d/2
(3) More than d/4
(1) yellow, orange and red colours but less than d/2
(2) violet, indigo (4) Less than or equal to d/4
and blue colours
(3) all colours
(4) all colours except green

Q.156 An object is placed at a

distance of 10 cm from a co-axial
combination of two lenses A and B
in contact. The combination forms a
real image three times the size of
the object. If lens B is concave with
a focal length of 30 cm, the nature
and focal length of lens A is –

(1) convex, 12 cm
(2) concave, 12 cm
(3) convex, 6 cm
(4) convex, 18 cm

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Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.1 In which of the following Q.6 The value of ( = CP/CV). for

processes, heat is neither absorbed hydrogen, helium and another ideal
nor released by a system ? diatomic gas X (whose molecules
are not rigid but have an additional
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic vibrational model are respectively
(3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric equal to :-
Q.2 Increase in temperature of a gas
(1) 7/5, 5/3, 9/7
filled in a container would lead to :-
(2) 5/3, 7/5, 9/7
(1) Increase in its mass (3) 5/3, 7/5, 7/5
(2) Increase in its kinetic energy (4) 7/5, 5/3, 7/5
(3) Decrease in its pressure
Q.7 1g of water, of volume 1 cm3 at
(4) Decrease in intermolecular distance
100°C, is converted into steam at
Q.3 A copper rod of 88 cm and an same temperature under normal
aluminum rod of unknown length atmospheric pressure (= 1 × 105 Pa).
have their increase in length The volume of steam formed equals
independent of increase in 1671 cm3. If the specific latent heat of
temperature. The length of aluminum vaporization of water is 2256 J/g
rod is (cu 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = then the change in internal energy is
2.2 × 10–5 K–1) :–
(1) 2423 J (2) 2089 J
(1) 6.8 cm (2) 113.9 cm (3) 167 J (4) 2256 J
(3) 88 cm (4) 68 cm
Q.8 The unit of thermal conductivity
Q.4 An object kept in a large room is :-
having air temperature of 25°C
takes 12 minutes to cool from 80℃ to (1) J m K–1 (2) J m–1 K–1
70°C. The time taken to cool for the (3) W m K–1 (4) W m–1 K–1
same object from 70°C to 60°C
Q.9 A sample of 0.1 g of water at
would be nearly :-
100°C and normal pressure (1.013
(1) 10 min (2) 12 min × 105 Nm–2) requires 54 cal of heat
(3) 20 min (4) 15 min energy to convert to steam at 100°C.
If the volume of the steam produced
Q.5 A deep rectangular pond of is 167.1 cc, the change in internal
surface area A, containing water energy of the sample, is :-
(density = , specific heat capacity
= s), is located in a region where (1) 104.3 J (2) 208.7 J
the outside air temperature is at a (3) 42.2 J (4) 84.5 J
steady value of –26°C. The thickness
of the frozen ice layer in this pond, at Q.10 The power radiated by a black
a certain instant is x. Taking the body is P and it radiates maximum
thermal conductivity of ice as K, and energy at wavelength 0. If the
specific latent heat of fusion as L, the temperature of the black body is now
rate of increase of the thickness of changed so that it radiates maximum
ice layer, at this instant would be energy at wavelength 3/4 0, the
given by :– power radiated by it becomes n P.
The value of n is :-
(1) 26K/r( L – 4s)
(2) 26K/(x2 – L) (1) 3/4 (2) 4/3
(3) 26K/(xL) (4) 26K/r(L+4s) (3) 256/81 (4) 81/256
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Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.11 The volume Q.15 Thermodynamic processes are

(V) of a indicated in the following diagram :
monatomic Match the following :-
temperature (T), Column-1 Column-2
as shown in the P. Process I a. Adiabatic.
graph. The ratio Q. Process II b. Isobaric
of work done by the gas, to the R. Process III c. Isochoric
heat absorbed by it, when it S. Process IV d. Isothermal
undergoes a change from state A to
state B, is :-

(1) 2/5 (2) 2/3

(3) 1/3 (4) 2/7

Q.12 The efficiency of an ideal heat (1) P → c, Q → a, R → d, S → b

engine working between the (2) P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a
freezing point and boiling point of (3) P → d, Q → b, R → a, S → c
water, is :- (4) P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b

(1) 26.8% (2) 20% Q.16 A spherical black body with a

radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt
(3) 6.25% (4) 12.5% power at 500 K. If the radius were
halved and the temperature
Q.13 At what temperature will the doubled, the power radiated in watt
rms speed of oxygen molecules would be :-
become just sufficient for escaping
from the Earth's atmosphere ? (1) 450 (2) 1000
(Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (3) 1800 (4) 225
(m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg Boltzmann's
constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1) Q.17 A gas mixture consists of 2
moles of O2 and 4 moles of Are at
(1) 2.508 × 104 K temperature T. Neglecting all
(2) 8.360 × 104 K vibrational modes, the total
(3) 5.016 × 104 K internal energy of the system is :-
(4) 1.254 × 104 K
(1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT
Q.14 Two
rods A and B (3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT
of different
materials Q.18 A refrigerator works between
are welded 4°C and 30°C. It is required to
together as remove 600 calories of heat every
shown in figure. Their thermal second in order to keep the
conductivities are K1 and K2. The temperature of the refrigerated
thermal conductivity of the space constant. The power required
composite rod will be :- is :- (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)

(1) 3(K1 + K2)/2 (2) K1 + K2 (1) 2.365 W (2) 23.65 W

(3) 2(K1 + K2) (4) K1 + K2/2 (3) 236.5 W (4) 2365 W
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 Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.19 A black body is at a Q.22 A gas is compressed

temperature of 5760 K. The energy isothermally to half its initial
of radiation emitted by the body at volume. The same gas is
wavelength 250 nm is U1, at compressed separately through an
wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that adiabatic process until its volume is
at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, again reduced to half. Then :-
b = 2.88 × 106 n mK. Which of the
following is correct ? (1) Compressing the gas isothermally
will require more work to be done.
(1) U1 = 0 (2) Compressing the gas
(2) U3 = 0 through adiabatic process will
require more work to be done.
(3) U1 > U2 (3) Compressing the gas
(4) U2 > U1 isothermally or adiabatically will
require the same amount of work.
Q.20 The molecules of a given mass (4) Which of the case (whether
of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 compression through isothermal
m/s at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 N/m2 or through adiabatic process)
pressure. When the temperature requires more work will depend
and pressure of the gas are upon the atomicity of the gas.
respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 105
N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity of its Q.23 A piece of ice falls from a
molecules in m/s is :- height h so that it melts
completely. Only one-quarter of the
(1) 100 2 heat produced is absorbed by the
ice and all energy of ice gets
400 converted into heat during its fall.
(2)
3 The value of h is :-
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg
100 2 and g = 10 N/kg]
(3)
3
100 (1) 34 km (2) 544 km
(4) (3) 136 km (4) 68 km
3

Q.21 Coefficient of linear expansion Q.24 Two identical bodies are made
of brass and steel rods are 1 and of a material for which the heat
2. Lengths of brass and steel rods capacity increases with
are  1 and  2 respectively. If temperature. One of these is at 100
°C, while the other one is at 0°C. If
( 2 _ 1) is maintained same at all
the two bodies are brought into
temperatures, which one of the contact, then, assuming no heat
following relations holds good ? loss, the final common temperature
is :-
(1) 1 2 =21
(1) Less than 50 °C
(2) 122 = 221
but greater than 0 °C
(3) 12 2 = 22 1 (2) 0 °C
(3) 50 °C
(4) 1 1 = 2 2 (4) more than 50 °C

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Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.25 A body cools from a Q.29 One mole of

temperature 3T to 2T in 10 an ideal diatomic
minutes. The room temperature is gas undergoes a
T. Assume that Newton's law of transition from A
cooling is applicable. The to B along a path
temperature of the body at the end AB as shown in
of next 10 minutes will be :- the figure, the
change in internal energy of the
(1) 4/3 T gas during the transition is –
(2) T
(3) 7/4 T (1) –20 kJ (2) 20 J
(4) 3/2 T (3) –12 kJ (4) 20 kJ

Q.30 On observing light from three

Q.26 One mole of an ideal
different stars P, Q and R, it was
monatomic gas undergoes a
found that intensity of violet color
process described by the equation
is maximum in the spectrum of P,
PV3 = constant. The heat capacity
the intensity of green colour is
of the gas during this process is –
maximum in the spectrum of R and
the intensity of red colour is
(1) 2R
maximum in the spectrum of Q. If
(2) R
TP, TQ and TR are the respective
(3) 3/2 R absolute temperatures of P, Q and
(4) 3/2 R R, then it can be concluded from
the above observation that :-
Q.27 The temperature inside a
refrigerator is t2°C and the room (1) TP > TR >TQ
temperature is t1°C. The amount of (2) TP < TR < TQ
heat delivered to the room for each (3) TP < TQ <TR
joule of electrical energy consumed (4) TP > TQ > TR
ideally will be :-
Q.31 A Carnot engine, having an
t2 + 273 t1 + t2 efficiency of  = 1/10 as heat
(1) (2) engine, is used as a refrigerator. If
t1 _ t2 t1 + 273
the work done on the system is 10
t1 t1 + 273 J, the amount of absorbed from the
(3) (4)
t1 _ t2 t1 _ t2 reservoir at lower temperature a
energy is :-
Q.28 A given sample of an ideal gas
occupies a volume V at a pressure P (1) 99 J (2) 90 J
and absolute temperature T. The (3) 1 J (4) 100 J
mass of each molecule of the gas is
m. Which of the following gives the Q.32 The ratio of the specific heats
density of the gas ? CP/CV =  in terms of degrees of
freedom (n) is given by :-
(1) P/(kTV)
 n  2
(2) mkT (1) 1 +  (2) 1 + 
 3  n
(3) P/(kT) n 1
 
(4) Pm/(kT) (3) 1 +  (4) 1 + 
 2  n
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Q.33 Figure Q.37 The coefficient of performance

below shows of a refrigerator is 5. If the
two paths that temperature inside freezer is –20°C,
may be taken the temperature of the surroundings
by a gas to go to which it rejects heat is :-
from a state A
to a state C. In (1) 21°C (2) 31°C
process AB, 400 J of heat is added
(3) 41°C (4) 11°C
to the system and in process BC,
100 J of heat is added to the
Q.38 An ideal gas is compressed to
system. The heat absorbed by the
half its initial volume by means of
system in the process AC will be :-
several processes. Which of the
process results in the maximum
(1) 500 J (2) 460 J
work done on the gas ?
(3) 300 J (4) 380 J
Q.34 The two ends of a metal rod (1) Isothermal
are maintained at temperatures (2) Adiabatic
100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat (3) Isobaric
flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 (4) Isochoric
J/s. If the ends are maintained at
temperatures 200°C and 210°C. the Q.39 The value of coefficient of
rate of heat flow will be :- volume expansion of glycerin is 5 x
10–4 K–1. The fractional change in
(1)16.8 J/s (2) 8.0 J/s
the density of glycerin for a rise of
(3) 4.0 J/s (4) 44.0 J/s 40°C in its temperature, is :-
Q.35 Two vessels separately
contain two ideal gases A and B at (1) 0.010 (2) 0.015
the same temperature, the pressure (3) 0.020 (4) 0.025
of A being twice that of B. Under
such conditions, the density of A is Q.40 Certain quantity of water
found to be 1.5 times the density of cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first
B. The ratio of molecular weight of 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5
A and B is :- minutes. The temperature of the
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 surroundings is :-
(3) 3/4 (4) 2
(1) 45°C (2) 20°C
Q.36 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4
litres at NTP. The specific heat (3) 42°C (4) 10°C
capacity of the gas at constant
volume is 5.0 JK–1 mol–1. If the Q.41 A mono atomic gas at a
speed of sound in this gas at NTP is pressure P, having a volume V
952 ms–1, then the heat capacity at expands isothermally to volume 2V
constant pressure is :– (Take gas and then adiabatically to volume
constant R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) 16V. The final pressure of the gas is
(take  = 5 /3)
(1) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1
(2) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1 (1) 64P (2) 32P
(3) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1
(4) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1 (3) P/64 (4) 16P

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Q.42 A thermodynamic Q.47 The amount of heat energy

system undergoes required to raise the temperature
cyclic process ABCDA of 1 g of Helium at constant
as shown in fig. The volume, from T₁ K to T₂ K is :-
work done by the
system in the cycle is - 3 T 
(1) NaKB  2 
4  T1 
(1) P0V0 (2) 2P0V0
3
(3) P0V0/2 (4) Zero (2) NaKB (T2 _ T1 )
8
3
Q.43 The mean free path of (3) NaKB (T2 _ T1 )
2
molecules of a gas, (radius 'r') is
3
inversely proportional to :- (4) NaKB (T2 _ T1 )
4
(1) r3 (2) r2
(3) R (4) √r Q.48 The molar specific heats of an
ideal gas at constant pressure and
Q.44 Steam at 100°C is passed into volume are denoted by CP and CV
20 g of water at 10°C. When water respectively. If  = CP/CV and R is
acquires a temperature of 80°C, the the universal gas constant, then CV
mass of water present will be :– is equal to :-
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal
g–1 °C–1 and latent heat of steam = 1+ 
(1) R (2)
540 cal g–1] 1_ 

(1) 24 g (2) 31.5 g R  _1

(3) (4)
(3) 42.5 (4) 22.5 g  _1 R

Q.45 A piece of iron is heated in a Q.49 During an adiabatic process,

flame. It first becomes dull red the pressure of a gas is found to be
then becomes reddish yellow and proportional to the cube of its
finally turns to white hot. The temperature. The ratio of CP/CV for
correct explanation for the above the gas is :-
observation is possible by using –
(1) 3/2
(1) Newton's Law of cooling (2) 4/3
(2) Stefan's Law (3) 2
(3) Wein's displacement Law
(4) 5/3
(4) Kirchoff's Law
Q.50 A gas is taken through the
Q.46 In the given (V – T) diagram,
cycle A-B-C-A, as shown, What is
what is the relation between
the net work done by the gas ?
pressure P1 and P2 ?

(1) Cannot (1) –2000 J

be predicted (2) 2000 J
(2) P2 = P1
(3) P2 > P1 (3) 1000 J
(4) P2 < P1 (4) Zero
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Q.51 If the radius of a star is R and Q.54 Liquid oxygen at 50 K is

it acts as a black body, what would heated to 300 K at constant
be the temperature of the star, in pressure of 1 atm. The rate of
which the rate of energy production heating is constant. Which one of
is Q ? the following graphs represents the
variation of temperature with time?
(1) (4R2Q /)1/4
(2) (Q/4R2)1/4
(3) Q/4R2 (1) (2)
(4) (Q/4R2)–1/2
( stands for Stefan's constant.)

Q.52 One mole of an ideal gas goes

(3) (4)
from an initial state A to final state
B via two processes. It firstly
undergoes isothermal expansion
from volume V to 3V and then its Q.55 A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2
volume is reduced from 3V to V at and thickness 0.1 m is exposed on
constant pressure. The correct P-V the lower surface to steam at 100°C.
diagram representing the two A block of ice at 0°C rests on the
processes is :- upper surface of the slab. In one
hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The
thermal conductivity of slab is
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice
(1) (2) 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)
(1) 2.05 J/m/s/°C
(2) 1.02 J/m/s/°C
(3) 1.24 J/m/s/°C
(4) 1.29 J/m/s/°C
(3) (4)
Q.56 An ideal gas
goes from state A
to state B via three
Q.53 A thermodynamic system is different processes
taken through the cycle ABCD as as indicated in the
shown in figure. Heat rejected by P-V diagram. If Q1,
the gas during the cycle is :- Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by
the gas along the three processes
and U1, U2, U3 indicate the
change in internal energy along the
three processes respectively, then :
(1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3
(2) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3
(3) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and
U1 = U2 = U3
(1) 1/2 PV (2) PV
(4) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and
(3) 2PV (4) 4PV U1 = U2 = U3

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Q.57 During an isothermal Q.61 Total radiant energy per unit

expansion, a confined ideal gas area, per unit time normal to the
does +150 J of work against its direction of incidence, received at a
surroundings. This implies that – distance R from the centre of a star
of radius r. whose outer surface
(1) 150 J of heat has been radiates as a black body at a
removed from the gas temperature T Kelvin is given by :-
(2) 300 J of heat has
been added to the gas 4r2 T 4 r2 T 4
(3) No heat is transferred because (1) (2)
R2 R2
the process is isothermal
(4) 150 J of heat has been r2 T 4 r 4 T 4
(3) (4)
added to the gas 4r2 r4

Q.58 When 1kg of ice at 0°C melts Q.62 If U and W represent the
to water at 0°C, the resulting increase in internal energy and
change in its entropy, taking latent work done by the system
heat of ice to be 80 cal/g, is – respectively in a thermodynamic
process, which of the following is
(1) 273 cal/K true ?
(2) 8 × 104 cal/K
(3) 80 cal/K (1) U = – W, in a isothermal process
(4) 293 cal/K (2) U = – W, in a adiabatic process
(3) U = W, in a
Q.59 A mass of diatomic gas ( = isothermal process
1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres (4) U = W, in a
is compressed adiabatically so that adiabatic process
its temperature rises from 27°C to
927°C. The pressure of the gas in Q.63 If cp, and cv, denote the
the final state is :- specific heats (per unit mass) of an
ideal gas of molecular weight M,
(1) 8 atm (2) 28 atm then :-
(3) 68.7 atm (4) 256 atm
(1) CP – CV = R
Q.60 A cylindrical metallic rod in (2) CP – CV = R/M
thermal contact with two reservoirs (3) CP – CV = MR
of heat at its two ends conducts an
(4) CP – CV = R/M2
amount of heat Q in time t. The
metallic rod is melted and the where R is the molar gas constant.
material is formed into a rod of half
the radius of the original rod. What Q.64 A monoatomic gas at pressure
is the amount of heat conducted by P1 and volume V1 is compressed
the new rod, when placed in adiabatically to 1/8th its original
thermal contact with the two volume. What is the final pressure
reservoirs in time t ? of the gas :-

(1) Q/2 (2) Q/4 (1) P1 (2) 16P1

(3) Q/16 (4) 2Q (3) 32 P1 (4) 64 P1

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Q.65 The two ends of a rod of Q.69 A new scale of temperature

length L and a uniform cross (which is linear) called the W scale,
sectional area A are kept at two the freezing and boiling points of
temperatures T1, and T2(T1 > T2). water are 39°W and 239°W
The rate of heat transfer dQ/dt respectively. What will be the
through the rod in a steady state is temperature on the new scale,
given by :- corresponding to a temperature of
39°C on the Celsius scale ?
dQ kA(T1 _ T2 )
(1) = (1) 200° W (2) 139° W
dt L
dQ kL(T1 _ T2 ) (3) 78° W (4) 117° W
(2) =
dt A
Q.70 At 10°C the value of the
dQ k(T1 _ T2 )
(3) = density of a fixed mass of an ideal
dt LA gas divided by its pressure is x. At
dQ
(4) = kLA(T1 _ T2 ) 110°C this ratio is :-
dt
10 283
(1) x (2) x
Q.66 A black body, at a temperature 110 383
of 227°C radiates heat at a rate of 7 383
cal cm–2 s–1. At a temperature of (3) x (4) x
283
727°C, the rate of heat radiated in
the same units will be :– Q.71 If Q, E and W denote the heat
added, change in internal energy
(1) 80 (2) 60 and the work done respectively in a
(3) 50 (4) 112 closed cycle process, then :-

Q.67 In thermodynamic processes (1) E = 0 (2) Q = 0

which of the following statement is (3) W = 0 (4) Q = W = 0
not true :-
Q.72 An ideal
(1) In an adiabatic monoatomic gas is
process PV = constant taken round the
(2) In an adiabatic process the system cycle ABCDA as
is insulated from the surroundings shown in following
(3) In an isochoric process P - V diagram. The
pressure remains constant work done during the cycle is :-
(4) In an Isothermal
process the temperature (1) PV (2) 2 PV
remains constant (3) 4 PV (4) Zero

Q.68 The change in internal energy Q.73 The (W/Q) of a Carnot-engine

in a system that has absorbed 2 K is 1/6, now, the temperature of
calls of heat and 500 J of work sink is reduced by 62oC, then this
done is :- ratio becomes twice, therefore the
initial temperature of the sink and
(1) 7900 J source are respectively :-
(2) 8900 J
(3) 6400 J (1) 33oC, 67oC (2) 37oC, 99oC
(4) 5400 J (3) 67oC, 33oC (4) 97 K, 37 K
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Q.74 A black body emits radiation Q.80 The graph

of maximum intensity at 5000 Å AB shown in
when its temperature is 1227o C. If figure is a plot
its temperature is increased by of temperature
1000o C then the maximum intensity of a body in
of emitted radiation will be at – degree Celsius
and degree
(1) 2754.8 Å (2) 3000 Å Fahrenheit. Then –
(3) 3500 Å (4) 4000 Å
(1) Slope of line AB is 9/5
Q.75 The translational kinetic (2) Slope of line AB is 5/9
energy of molecules of one mole of
(3) Slope of line AB is 1/9
a monoatomic gas is U = 3NkT/2.
The value of molar specific heat of (4) Slope of line AB is 3/9
gas under constant pressure will be
Q.81 Oxygen boils at –183oC. This
(1) 3/2 R (2) 5/2 R temperature is approximately in
(3) 7/2 R (4) 9/2 R Fahrenheit is :-

Q.76 The molar specific heat at (1) –329oF

constant pressure of an ideal gas is (2) –261oF
(7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at
(3) –215oF
constant pressure to that at
constant volume is :- (4) –297oF

(1) 7/5 (2) 8/7 Q.82 Using which of the following

(3) 5/7 (4) 9/7 instrument, the temperature of the
sun can be determined ?
Q.77 At what temperature does the
temperature in Celsius and (1) Platinum thermometer
Fahrenheit equalise. (2) Gas thermometer
(3) Pyrometer
(1) –400 (2) 400 (4) Vapors pressure thermometer
(3) 36.60 (4) 380
Q.83 Two thermometers X and Y
Q.78 A difference of temperature of have ice points marked at 15o and
25oC is equivalent to a difference of 25o and steam points marked as
75o and 125o respectively. When
(1) 45oF (2) 72oF thermometer X measures the
(3) 32oF (4) 25oF temperature of a bath as 60o on it,
what would thermometer Y read
Q.79 Which of the curves in figure when it is used to measure the
represents the relation between temperature of the same bath ?
Celsius and Fahrenheit temperature ?
(1) 60o
(1) Curve a
(2) 75o
(2) Curve b
(3) Curve c (3) 100o
(4) Curve d (4) 90o

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Q.84 The figure below shows four Q.87 Suppose there is a hole in a
isotropic solids having positive copper plate. On heating the plate,
coefficient of thermal expansion. A diameter of hole, would :-
student predicts that on heating
the solid following things can (1) always increase
happen. Mark true (T) of False (F) (2) always decrease
for comments made by the student. (3) always remain the same
(i) The angle  in figure (4) none of these
(1) will not change.
(ii) The length of line in figure Q.88 The table gives the initial
(2) will decrease. length  0 , change in temperature
(iii) The radius of inner T and change in length  of four
hole will decrease. rods. Which rod has greatest
(iv) The distance AB will increase. coefficient of linear expansion –

(1) A1
(2) A2
(3) A3
(1) TFFT (2) FTTF
(3) TTTT (4) FFTF (4) A4

Q.85 At STP a rod Q.89 An iron bar (Young’s modulus

is hung from a = 1011N/m2,  = 10–6/oC) 1 m long
frame as shown in and 10–3 m2 in area is heated from
figure, leaving a 0oC to 100oC without being allowed
small gap between to bend or expand. Find the
the rod and floor. compressive force developed inside
The frame and rod system is heated the bar.
uniformly upto 350 K. Then –
(1) 10,000 N (2) 1000 N
(1) The rod will never (3) 5000 N (4) 105N
touch the floor in any case.
(2) If rod > frame, then Q.90 A rod of length 2m rests on
rod may touch the floor. smooth horizontal floor. If the rod
(3) If rod < frame, then is heated from 0oC to 20oC. Find the
rod may touch the floor. longitudinal strain developed ?
o
(4) None of the above ( = 5 × 10–5/ C)

Q.86 The volume of a metal sphere (1) 10–3 (2) 2 × 10–3

increases by 0.15% when its (3) Zero (4) None
temperature is raised by 24oC. The
coefficient of linear expansion of Q.91 A body of mass 5 kg falls from
metal is :- a height of 30 metre. If its all
mechanical energy is changed into
(1) 2.5 × 10–5/oC heat, then heat produced will be :-
(2) 2.0 × 10–5/oC
(1) 350 cal (2) 150 cal
(3) –1.5 × 10–5/oC
(4) 1.2 × 10–5/oC (3) 60 cal (4) 6 cal

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Q.92 A bullet moving with velocity Q.97 The latent heat for
v collides against wall. vapourisation for 1g water is 536
Consequently half of its kinetic cal. Its value in Joule/kg will be :-
energy is converted into heat. If the
whole heat is acquired by the bullet, (1) 2.25 × 106 (2) 2.25 × 103
the rise in temperature will be – (3) 2.25 (4) None of these

(1) v2/4S (2) 4v2/2S Q.98 If 10 g ice at 0oC is mixed with

10 g water at 20oC, the final
(3) v2/2S (4) v2/S
temperature will be :-
Q.93 The amount of heat required
(1) 50oC (2) 10oC
in converting 1 g ice at –10oC into (3) 0oC (4) 15oC
steam at 100oC will be :-
Q.99 420 joule of energy supplied
(1) 3028 J (2) 6056 J to 10g of water will raise its
(3) 721 J (4) 616 J temperature by nearly :-

Q.94 2 kg ice at –20oC is mixed (1) 1oC (2) 4.2oC

with 5 kg water at 20oC. Then final (3) 10oC (4) 42oC
amount of water in the mixture
would be :- Given specific heat of Q.100 A solid
ice = 0.5 cal/goC, Specific heat of material is
water = 1 cal/goC, Latent heat of supplied with
fusion for ice = 80 cal/g. heat at a
constant rate.
(1) 6 kg (2) 5 kg The temperature
of material is changing with heat
(3) 4 kg (4) 2 kg input as shown in the figure. What
does slope DE represent –
Q.95 Two identical masses of 5 kg
each fall on a wheel from a height (1) Latent heat of liquid
of 10m. The wheel disturbs a mass (2) Latent heat of vapour
of 2 kg water, the rise in (3) Heat capacity of vapour
temperature of water will be :- (4) Inverse of heat capacity of vapour

(1) 2.6oC (2) 1.2oC Q.101 The graph

(3) 0.32oC (4) 0.12oC shown in the
figure represent
Q.96 A block of mass 2.5 kg is change in the
heated to temperature of 500oC and temperature of
placed on a large ice block. What is 5kg of a
the maximum amount of ice that substance as it
can melt (approx.). Specific heat absorbs heat at a constant rate of 42
for the body = 0.1 cal/goC. kJ min–1 the latent heat of
vapourazation of the substance is –
(1) 1 kg (2) 1.5 kg
(1) 630 kJ kg–1 (2) 126 kJ kg–1
(3) 2 kg (4) 2.5 kg (3) 84 kJ kg–1 (4) 12.6 kJ kg–1

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Q.102 A block of ice with mass m Q.106 The ratio of coefficient of

falls into a lake. After impact, a thermal conductivirty of two
mass of ice m/5 melts. Both the different materials is Q 1.
block of ice and the lake have a temperatures of ends of rod are T1
temperature of 0oC. if L represents and T2. if all the linear dimension of
the heat of fusion, the minimum the rod become double and
distance the ice fell before striking temperature difference remains
the surface Is – same, it’s rate of heat flow is Q2,
then :-
L 5L
(1) (2)
5g g (1) Q1 = 2Q2 (2) Q2 = 2Q1
(3) Q2 = 4Q1 (4) Q1 = 4Q2
gL mL
(3) (4)
5m 5g Q.107 Which of the following
cylindrical rods will conduct most
Q.103 The thermal capacity of any heat, when their ends are
body is – maintained at the same steady
temperature –
(1) a measure of its
capacity to absorb heat (1) Length 1 m; radius 1 cm
(2) a measure of its (2) Length 2 m; radius 1 cm
capacity to provide heat (3) Length 2 m; radius 2 cm
(3) the quantity of heat required to (4) Length 1 m; radius 2 cm
raise its temperature by a unit degree
(4) the quantity of heat Q.108 Gravitational force is
required to raise its required for -
temperature of a unit mass
of the body by a unit degree (1) Stirring of liquid
(2) Convection
Q.104 A 2100 w continuous flow (3) Conduction (4) Radiation
geyser (instant geyser) has water
inlet temperature = 10oC while the Q.109 The layers of atmosphere are
water flows out at the rate of 20 heated through –
g/s. the outlet temperature of
water must be about – (1) Conduction (2) Convection
(3) Radiation (4) 2 and 3 both
(1) 20oC (2) 30oC
Q.110 The lengths and radii of two
(3) 35oC (4) 40oC rods made of same material are in
the ratios 1 : 2 and 2 : 3
Q.105 The ratio of coefficient of respectively. If the temperature
thermal conductivirty of two difference between the ends for the
different materials is 5 : 3. if the two rods be the same then in the
thermal resistance of rods of same steady state. The amount of heat
area of these material is same, then flowing per second through them
what is ratio of length of these rods will be in the ratio of –
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 (1) 1 : 3 (2) 4 : 3
(3) 25 : 9 (4) 9 : 25 (3) 8 : 9 (4) 3 : 2

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Q.111 Two metal rods, 1 & 2 of same Q.116 The area of the glass of a
length have same temperature window of a room is 10m2 and
difference between their ends, their thickness 2 mm. The outer and
thermal conductivities are K1, & K2 inner temperature are 40oC and
and cross sectional areas A1, & A2, 20oC respectively. Thermal
respectively. What is required conductivity of glass in MKS system
condition for same rate of heat is 0.2 then heat flowing in the room
conduction in them – per second will be –

(1) K1 K2 (2) K1 A1 = K2 A2 (1) 3 × 104 joules

K K K K (2) 2 × 104 joules
(3) 1 = 2 (4) 21 = 22
A1 A2 1 2 (3) 30 joules (4) 45 joules

Q.112 The temperature of hot and Q.117 The dimensional formula for
cold end of a 20 cm long rod in thermal resistance is –
thermal steady state are at 100oC
and 20oC respectively. Temperature (1) M–1L–2T3 (2) M–1L–2T–3
at the centre of the rod is – (3) ML2T–2 (4) ML2T2–1
(1) 50oC (2) 60oC Q.118 The material used in the
(3) 40oC (4) 30oC manufacture of cooker must have
Q.113 Consider a compound slab (K-coefficient of thermal
consisting of two different materials conductivity, S specific heat of
having equal thicknesses and material used) :-
thermal conductivities K and 2K,
respectively. The equivalent thermal (1) High K and low S
conductivity of the slab is :- (2) Low K and low S
(3) High K and high S
(1) 3K (2) 4/3 K (4) Low K and high S
(3) 2/3 K (4) √2K
Q.119 The cause of air currents
Q.114 Under steady state, the from ocean to ground is example of
temperature of a body –
(1) The specific heat of water
(1) Increases with time is more than that of sand
(2) Decreases with time (2) Convection
(3) Does not change with time and (3) Radiation
is same at all the points of the body (4) Diffraction
(4) Does not change with time but is
different at different points of the body Q.120 The ratio of the diameters of
Q.115 If the coefficient of two metallic rods of the same
conductivity of aluminum is 0.5 material is 2 : 1 and their lengths
cal/cm-sec-oC, then in order to are in the ratio 1 : 4. If the
conduct 10 cal/sec-cm2 in the steady temperature difference between
state, the temperature gradient in them are equal, the rate of flow of
aluminum must be – heat in them will be in the ratio of –

(1) 5oC/cm (2) 10oC/cm (1) 2 :1 (2) 4 : 1

(3) 20oC/cm (4) 10.5oC/cm (3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 :1

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Q.121 Two Q.125 In which of the following

bars of phenomenon convection does not
thermal take place –
conductivities
K and 3K and (1) Land and sea breeze
lengths 1 cm and 2 cm respectively (2) Boiling of water
have equal cross-sectional area. (3) Heating of glass surface
they are joined length wise as shown due to filament of the bulb
in the figure. If the temperature at (4) Air around the furance
the ends of this composite bar is 0oC
and 100oC respectively (see figure), Q.126 Radius of two spheres of
then the temperature of the same material are 1 & 4m
interface () is – respectively and their temperature
are 4 × 103 and 2 × 103 K
(1) 50oC (2) 100/3oC
respectively. Then ratio of emitted
(3) 60oC (4) 200/3oC
energy of spheres per sec. will be –
Q.122 On a cold morning, a person
will feel metal surface colder to (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
touch than a wooden surface (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
because –
Q.127 If temperature of ideal black
(1) Metal has high specific heat
body increased by 10%, then
(2) Metal has high thermal conductivity
percentage increase in quantity of
(3) Metal has low specific heat
radiation emitted from it's surface
(4) Metal has low
will be :-
thermal conductivity

Q.123 Mud houses are cooler in (1) 10% (2) 40%

summer and warmer in winter (3) 46% (4) 100%
because –
Q.128 Cooling rate of a sphere of
(1) Mud is super conductor of heat 600 K at external environment (200
(2) Mud is good conductor of heat K) is R. When the temperature of
(3) Mud is bad conductor of heat sphere is reduced to 400 K then
(4) None of these cooling rate of the sphere becomes.
Q.124 Two walls of thicknesses d1,
(1) 3/16 R
and d2, and thermal conductivity k1,
(2) 16/3 R
and k2, are in contact. In the steady
(3) 9/27 R
state, if the temperatures at the
(4) None
outer surface T1 and T2, the
temperature at the common wall is.
Q.129 A spherical body of area A,
K1T1d2 + K2 T2d1 K1T1 + K2 T2 and emissivity e = 0.6 is kept inside
(1) (2)
K1d2 + K2d1 d1 + d2 a black body. What is the rate at
which energy is radiated per
 K d + K2d2 
(3)  1 1  T1T2 second at temperature T –
 T1 + T2 
 K d T + K2d2 T2  (1) 0.6  AT4 (2) 0.4  AT4
(4)  1 1 1 
 K1d1 + K2d2  (3) 0.8  ΑΤ4 (4) 1.0  AT4

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Q.130 It is hotter at the same Q.134 If a liquid takes 30 s in

distance over the top of a fire than cooling from 95oC to 90oC and 70 s
it is in the side of it, mainly because in cooling from 55oC to 50oC then
temperature of room is –
(1) Air conducts heat upwards
(2) Heat is radiated upwards (1) 16.5oC (2) 22.5oC
(3) Convection takes (3) 28.5oC (4) 32.5oC
more heat upwards
(4) Convection, conduction Q.135 The thermal capacities of
and radiation all contribute two bodies are in the ratio of 1:4. If
significantly transferring heat upward the rate of loss of heat are equal for
the two bodies under identical
Q.131 The rate of emission of conditions of surroundings, then
radiation of a black body at 273oC the ratio of rate of fall of
is E, then the rate of emission of temperature of the two bodies is –
radiation of this body at 0°C will be.
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(1) E/16 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
(2) E/4
(3) E/8 Q.136 Newton's law of cooling is
(4) 0 used in laboratory for the
determination of the –
Q.132 In natural convection, a
heated portion of a liquid moves (1) Specific heat of the gases
because :- (2) The latent heat of gases
(3) Specific heat of liquids
(1) Its molecular motion (4) Latent heat of liquids
becomes aligned
(2) Of molecular collisions within it Q.137 The m – T curve for a perfect
(3) Its density is less than black body is – (m  T frequency
that of the surrounding fluid corresponding to maximum
(4) Of currents of the emission of radiation)
surrounding fluid
(1) A
Q.133 The rectangular surface of
(2) B
area 8cm × 4 cm of a black body at
a temperature of 127oC emits (3) C
energy at the rate of E. If the
(4) D
length and breadth of the surface
are each reduced to half of the
Q.138 Two stars appear to be red
initial value and the temperature is
and blue, what is true about them –
raised to 327oC, the rate of
emission of energy will become –
(1) The red star is nearer
(2) The blue star is nearer
(1) 3/8 E
(3) The temperature
(2) 81/16 E of red star is more
(3) 9/16 E (4) The temperature
(4) 81/64 E of blue star is more

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Q.139 The temperature of a furnace Q.144 The original temperature of a

is 2324ºC and the intensity is black body is 727oC. Calculate
maximum in its radiation spectrum temperature at which total radiant
nearly at 12000 Aº. If the intensity energy from this black body
in the spectrum of a star is becomes double :-
maximum nearly at 4800 Aº, then
the surface temperature of star is – (1) 971 K (2) 1190 K
(3) 2001 K (4) 1458 K
(1) 8400oC (2) 7200oC
(3) 6219.5oC (4) 5900oC Q.145 Ratio of radius of curvature
of cylindrical emitters of same
Q.140 There is a black spot on a material is 1 : 4 and their
body. If the body is heated and temperature are in ratio 2 : 1. Then
carried in a dark room then it glows ratio of amount of heat emitted by
more. This can be explained on the them is - (For Cylinder length =
basis of – radius)

(1) Newton's law of cooling (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1

(2) Wein's law (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(3) Kirchhoff's law
(4) Stefan's law Q.146 The energy emitted per
second by a black body at 27oC is
Q.141 The colour of a star is an 10 J. If temperature of the black
indication of its – body is increased to 327oC, the
energy emitted per second –
(1) Weight (2) Distance
(3) Temperature (4) Size (1) 20 J (2) 40 J
(3) 80 J (4) 160 J
Q.142 If a carved black utensil is
heated to high temperature and Q.147 Energy is being emitted from
then brought in dark then – the surface of black body at 127oC
at the rate of 1.0 × 106 J/s m2. The
(1) Both utensil and its temperature of black body at which
carving will shine the rate of energy is 16.0 × 106 J/s
(2) Only carving will shine m2 will be :-
(3) Only utensil will shine
(4) None of the utensil (1) 754oC (2) 527oC
and carving will shine (3) 254oC (4) 508oC

Q.143 According to Newton's law of Q.148 Solar constant for earth is 2

cooling, the rate of cooling of a cal/min cm2, if distance of mercury
body is proportional to – from sun is 0.4 times than distance
of earth from sun then solar
(1) Temperature of the body constant for mercury will be ?
(2) Temperature of the surrounding
(3) Fourth power of the (1) 12.5 cal/min cm2
temperature of body (2) 25 cal/min cm2
(4) Difference of the temperature (3) 0.32 cal/min cm2
of the body and the surrounding. (4) 2 cal/min cm2

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Q.149 Two spherical bodies A Q.152 A liquid in a beaker has

(radius 6 cm) and B (radius 18 cm) temperature  at time t and 0 is
are at temperature T1 and T2, temperature of surroundings, then
respectively. according to Newton's law of
The maximum intensity in the cooling, correct graph between loge
emission spectrum of A is at 500 ( – 0) and t is :-
nm and in that of B is at 1500 nm.
Considering them to be black
bodies, what will be the ratio of the
rate of total energy radiated by A to (1) (2)
that of B ?

(1) 9
(2) 6
(3) 12 (3) (4)
(4) 3

Q.150 Star S1 emits maximum

Q.153 A bucket full of hot water
radiation of wavelength 420 nm
cools from 75oC to 70oC in time T1,
and the star S2 emits maximum
from 70o to 65oC in time T2 and
radiation of wavelength 560 nm,
from 65oC to 60oC in time T3, then –
what is the ratio of the temperature
of S1 and S2 –
(1) T1 = T2 = T3 (2) T1 > T2 > T3
(3) T1 < T2 < T3 (4) T1 > T2 < T3
(1) 4/3
(2) (4/3)1/4 Q.154 Wein's displacement law
(3) 3/4 express relation between :-
(4) (3/4)1/2
(1) Wavelength corresponding to
maximum energy and temperature.
Q.151 If a piece of metal is heated
(2) Radiation energy and wavelength
to temperature  and then allowed
(3) Temperature
to cool in a room which is at
and wavelength
temperature 0, the graph between
(4) Colour of light
the temperature T of the metal and
and temperature
time t will be closest to –
Q.155 Four identical calorimeters
painted in different colours, are
heated to same temperature and
(1) (2) then allowed to cool in vacuum.
Which will cool fastest ?

(1) One which is painted bright

(2) One which is painted thick white
(3) One which is
(3) (4)
painted thick black
(4) One which is
painted bright white

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Q.156 A body cools from 60oC to Q.161 The ideal black body is :-
50oC in 10 minutes. If the room
temperature is 25oC and assuming (1) Hot coal at high temperature
Newton's cooling law holds good, (2) Surface of glass printed with coaltar
the temperature of the body at the (3) Metal surface
end of next 10 minutes is :- (4) A hollow container
painted with black colour
(1) 45oC (2) 42.85oC
(3) 40oC (4) 38.5oC Q.162 As compared to the person
with white skin, the person with
Q.157 On increasing the black skin will experience –
temperature of a black body.
wavelength for maximum emission. (1) Less heat and more cold
(2) More heat and more cold
(1) Shifts towards smaller wavelength (3) More heat and less cold
(2) Shifts towards greater wavelength (4) Less heat and less cold
(3) Does not shift
(4) Depends on the Q.163 We consider the radiation
emitted by the human body. Which
shape of source.
of the following statements is true ?
Q.158 Two spheres P and Q of same
(1) The radiation is emitted during the
colour having radii 8 cm and 2 cm
summers and during the winters
are maintained at temperatures
(2) The radiation emitted
127oC and 527oC respectively. The
lies in the ultraviolet region
ratio of energy radiated by P and Q
and hence is not visible
is –
(3) The radiation emitted
is in the infra-red region
(1) 0.054 (2) 0.0034
(4) The radiation is emitted
(3) 1 (4) 2 only during the day

Q.159 A cup of tea cools from 80oC Q.164 Shown below are the black
to 60oC in one minute. The ambient body radiation curves at
temperature is 30oC. In cooling from temperatures T1, and T2 (T2 > T1).
60°C to 50oC, it will take :- Which of the following plots is
correct :-
(1) 50 sec. (2) 90 sec
(3) 60 sec. (4) 48 sec.
(1) (2)
Q.160 A liquid takes 5 min. to cool
from 80oC to 50oC. How much time
it will take to cool from 60oC to
30oC. Temperature of surroundings
is 20oC –
(3) (4)
(1) 15 min. (2) 20 min.
(3) 100 min. (4) 9 min.

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Q.165 The radii of two spheres Q.170 Which of the following

made of same metal are r and 2r. statement is correct for ideal black
These are heated to the same body :-
temperature and placed in the
same surrounding. The ratio of (1) This absorbs visible radiation only.
rates of decrease of their (2) This absorbs infrared radiation only
temperature will be – (3) This absorbs half of radiation
only and reflects the half
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (4) This totally absorbs heat
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1 radiation of all the wavelengths

Q.166 If E is the total energy Q.171 Two spheres of radii in the

emitted by a body at a temperature ratio 1 : 2 and densities in the ratio 2
T K and Emax is the maximum : 1 and of same specific heat, are
spectral energy emitted by it at the heated to same temperature and left
same temperature, then – in the same surrounding. Their rate
of falling temperature be in the ratio.
(1) E T4 ; Emax T5
(2) E T4 ; Emax T–5 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) E T–4 ; Emax T4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
(4) E T5 ; Emax T4
Q.172 A solid cube and sphere are
Q.167 If e, and a be the emissive made of same substance and both
power and absorption power have same surface area. If the
respectively of a body and E, be temperature of both bodies 120oC
the emissive power of an ideal then :-
black body, then from Kirchhoff's
laws – (1) Both will loss of Heat by same rate
(2) Rate of loss of Heat of cube will
(1) a = E/e (2) a/e = E be more than that of the sphere
(3) e/a = E (4) e = E/a (3) Rate of loss of Heat of
the sphere will be more
Q.168 If m denotes the wavelength than that of the cube
at which the radiation emission (4) Rate of loss of Heat will
from a black body at a temperature be more for that whose mass is more
T K is maximum then :–
Q.173 The
2
(1) m  Τ (2) m  Τ coefficient
(3) m  Τ–1 (4) m  Τ–2 of thermal
conductvity
Q.169 A body is in thermal of copper is
equillbrium with the surrounding :- nine times
that of steel. In the composite
(1) It will stop emitting heat radiation cylindrical bar shown in the figure
(2) Amount of radiation emitted what will be the temperature at the
and absorbed by it will be equal junction of copper and steel ?
(3) It will emit heat
radiation at faster rate (1) 75oC (2) 67oC
(4) It will emit heat radiation slowly (3) 33oC (4) 25oC

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Q.174 The figure Q.178 2 litre water at 27oC is

shows the face heated by a 1kW heater in an open
and interface container. On an average heat is
temperature of a lost to surroundings at the rate
composite slab 160J/s. The time required for the
containing of temperature to reach 77oC is –
four layers of two materials having
identical thickness. Under steady (1) 8 min 20 sec (2) 10 min
state condition, find the value of (3) 7 min (4) 14 min
temperature .
Q.179 Figure
(1) 5oC (2) 10oC shows the
(3) –15oC (4) 15oC temperature
variation
Q.175 Three rods mads of the same when heat
material and having the same is added
cross-section have been joined as continuously to a specimen of ice
shown in the figure. Each rod is of (10g) at –40oC at constant rate.
the same length. The left and right (Specific heat of ice= 0.53 cal/goC
ends are kept at 0oC and 90oC and Lice = 80 cal/g Lwater = 540
respectively. The temperature of cal/g) –
the junction of the three rods will
be :-

(1) 45oC
(2) 60oC
(3) 30oC
(4) 20oC

Q.176 The coefficient of thermal (1) A  S; B  P; C  Q; D  T

conductivity depends upon – (2) A  P; B  S; C  Q; D  R
(3) A  P; B  S; C  R; D  Q
(1) Temperature difference of two ends (4) A  S; B  P; C  Q; D  R
(2) Area of the plate
(3) Thickness of the plate Q.180 The amount of heat required
to convert 1 g of ice at 0oC into
(4) Material of the plate
steam at 100oC, is –
Q.177 A heat flux of 4000 J/s is to
(1) 716 cal. (2) 500 cal.
be passed through a copper rod of
length 10 cm and area of cross (3) 180 cal. (4) 100 cal.
section 100 cm2. The thermal
conductivity of copper is 400 Q.181 1 kg of ice at – 10oC is mixed
W/moC. The two ends of this rod with 4.4 kg of water 30oC. The final
must be kept at a temperature temperature of mixture is :-
difference of – (specific heat of ice = 2100 J/kg-k)

(1) 1oC (2) 10oC (1) 2.3oC (2) 4.4oC

(3) 100oC (4) 1000oC (3) 5.3oC (4) 8.7oC

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Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.182 10g of ice at 0oC is kept in a Q.188 The spectrum from a black
calorimeter of water equivalent body radiation is a :-
10g. How much heat should be
supplied the apparatus to evaporate (1) Line spectrum
the water thus formed ? (2) Band spectrum
(Neglect loss of heat) (3) Continuous spectrum
(4) Line & band both
(1) 6200 cal (2) 7200 cal
(3) 13600 cal (4) 8200 cal Q.189 Find the approximate
number of molecules contained in a
Q.183 A black body at 200 K is vessel of volume 7 litres at 0oC at
found to emit maximum energy at a 1.3 × 105 pascals –
wavelength 14 m. When its
temperature is raised to 1000 K, (1) 2.4 × 1023 (2) 3 × 1023
then wavelength at which maximum (3) 6 × 1023 (4) 4.8 × 1023
energy emitted is –
Q.190 A real gas behaves like an
(1) 14 m (2) 15 m ideal gas if its –
(3) 2.8 m (4) 28 m
(1) Pressure and
Q.184 A black body radiates energy temperature are both high
at the rate of E watt/m2 at a high (2) Pressure and
temperature T K. When the temperature are both low
temperature is reduced to T/2 K, the (3) Pressure is high
radiant energy will be – and temperature is low
(4) Pressure is low
(1) E/16 (2) E/4
and temperature is high
(3) 4E (4) 16E
Q.191 Two gases of equal molar
Q.185 On reducing temperature of
amount are in thermal gases
surface to one third, amount of
equilibrium. If Pa, Pb and Va, Vb are
radiation becomes :-
their respective pressures and
(1) 1/27 (2) 1/81 volumes, then which relation is true
(3) 1/9 (4) 1/3
(1) Pa ≠ Pb, Va = Vb
Q.186 The temperature of a perfect (2) Va = Vb, Va ≠ Vb
black body is 727oC and its area is (3) Pa/ Vb = Pb/Vb
0.1 m2. If stefan's constant is 5.67 (4) PaVa = PbVb
× 10–8 watt/m2 – K4, then heat
radiated by it in 1 minute is :– Q.192 Equal volume of H2, O2 and
He gases are at same temperature
(1) 8100 cal (2) 81000 cal and pressure. Which of these will
(3) 810 cal (4) 81 cal have large number of molecules :-

Q.187 The absorptive power of a (1) H2

perfectly black body is – (2) O2
(3) He
(1) zero (2) infinity (4) All the gases will have
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.0 same number of molecules

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Q.193 A box contains N molecules Q.197 250 liter of an ideal gas is

of a gas. If the number of heated at constant pressure from
molecules is doubled, then the 27oC such that its volume becomes
pressure will :- 500 liters. The final temperature is.

(1) Decrease (1) 54oC (2) 300oC

(2) Be same
(3) 327oC (4) 600oC
(3) Be doubled
(4) Get tripled
Q.198 A balloon contains 500 m3 of
helium at 27oC and 1 atmosphere
Q.194 An ideal gas mixture filled
pressure. The volume of the helium
inside a balloon expands according
at –3oC temperature and 0.5
to the relation PV2/3 = constant. The
atmosphere pressure will be –
temperature inside the balloon is –
(1) 500 m3 (2) 700 m3
(1) Increasing
(2) Decreasing (3) 900 m3 (4) 1000 m3
(3) Constant
(4) Can't be said Q.199 A vessel has 6g of oxygen at
pressure P and temperature 400 K.
Q.195 During an experiment an A small hole is made in it so that
ideal gas obeys an addition oxygen leaks out. How much
2
equation of state P V = constant. oxygen leaks out if the final
The initial temperature and volume pressure is P/2 and temperature is
of gas are T and V respectively. 300 K ?
When it expands to volume 2V,
then its temperature will be – (1) 3g (2) 2g
(3) 4g (4) 5g
(1) T (2) √2 T
(3) 2T (4) 2√2 T Q.200 Relation PV = RT is given for
following condition for real gas –
Q.196 A cyclic
process ABCA is (1) High temperature and high density
shown in P-T (2) Low temperature and low density
diagram. When (3) High temperature
presented on P- and low density
V, it would – (4) Low temperature
and high density

Q.201 A container of 5 liter has a

(1) (2) gas at pressure of 0.8 m column of
Hg. This is joined to an evacuated
container of 3 liter capacity. The
resulting pressure will be :-
(At constant temp.)
(3) (4)
(1) 4/3 (2) 0.5 m
(3) 2.0 m (4) 3/4 m

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Q.202 At a given temperature, the Q.207 Hydrogen and helium gases

pressure of an ideal gas of density  of volume V at same temperature T
is proportional to – and same pressure P are mixed to
have same volume V. The resulting
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/ pressure of the mixture will be :-
(3) 2 (4) 

Q.203 O2 gas is filled in a cylinder. (1) P/2

When pressure is increased 2 (2) P
times, temperature becomes four (3) 2P
times. then how much times their
density will become :- (4) Depending on the
relative mass of the gases
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 1/4 (4) 1/2 Q.208 The equation of state for 5g
Q.204 The variation of PV graph of oxygen at a pressure P and
with V of a fixed mass of a ideal gas temperature T occupying a volume
at constant temperature is V, will be :-
graphically represented as shown (where R is the gas constant)
in figure –
(1) PV = 5 RT
(2) PV = (5/2) RT

(1) (2) (3) PV = (5/16) RT

(4) PV = (5/32)RT

Q.209 In kinetic theory of gases, it

is assumed that molecules :-
(3) (4)
(1) Have same mass but
can have different volume
(2) Have same volume
Q.205 The number of oxygen
but masses can be different
molecules in a cylinder of volume 1
m3 at a temperature of 27oC and (3) Have both mass
pressure 13.8 Pa is (Boltzmann’s and volume different
constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1) – (4) Have same mass
but negligible volume
(1) 6.23 × 1026 (2) 0.33 × 1028
(3) 3.3 × 1021 Q.210 The volume of an ideal gas is
(4) None of these V at pressure P and temperature T.
Q.206 A cylinder contains 10 kg of The mass of each molecule of the
gas at pressure of 107 N/m2. When gas in m. The density of gas will be.
final pressure is reduce to 2.5 × 106 (K is Boltzmann's constant)
N/m2 then quantity of gas taken
out of the cylinder will be :– (1) mKT
(temperature gas is constant). (2) Pm/KT
(1) 15.2 kg (2) 3.7 kg (3) P/KTV
(3) Zero (4) 7.5 kg (4) P/KT
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Q.211 The thermodynamic variables Q.217 The root mean square

of a jar filled with gas A are P, V and T velocity of hydrogen molecules at
and another jar B filled with another 300 K is 1930 m/s. Then the r.m.s.
gas are 2P, V/4 and 2T, where the velocity of oxygen molecules at
symbols have their usual meaning. 1200 K will be –
The ratio of the number of molecules
of jar A to those of jar B is :- (1) 482.5 m/s

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (2) 965.0 m/s

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 (3) 1930 m/s
Q.212 At N.T.P. volume of a gas is (4) 3860 m/s
changed to one fourth volume, at
constant temperature then the new Q.218 The rms velocity of H2 is 2 ×
pressure will be :- 103 m /s. What will be the rms
velocity of O2 molecules at the
(1) 2 atm. (2) 25/3 atm. same temperature :-
(3) 4 atm. (4) 1 atm.
(1) 103 m/s
Q.213 Find the correct relation in
given P-V diagram :- (2) 500 m/s
(3) 0.5 × 104 m/s
(1) T1 = T2
(2) T1 > T2 (4) 3 × 103 m/s
(3) T1 < T2 Q.219 The root mean square speed
(4) T1  T2 of hydrogen molecules of an ideal
hydrogen gas kept in a gas
Q.214 The root mean square velocity chamber is 3180 m/s. The pressure
of the molecules of an ideal gas is :- of the hydrogen gas is :- (Density
of hydrogen gas = 8.99 × 10–2
(1) √RT/MW (2) √3RT/MW Kg/m3, 1 atmosphere = 1 .01 × 105
(3) √3RTMW (4) √RT/3MW N/m2).
Q.215 At constant pressure hydrogen
(1) 1.0 atmosphere
is having temperature of 327oC. Till
what temperature it is to be cooled so (2) 1.5 atmosphere
that the rms velocity of its molecules
(3) 2.0 atmosphere
becomes half of the earlier value :-
(4) 3.0 atmosphere
(1) –123oC (2) 23oC
(3) –100°C (4) 0oC Q.220 At 0oC temperature root
mean square speed of which of the
Q.216 The r.m.s. speed of a gas following gases will be maximum :-
molecule is 300 m/s. Calculate the
r.m.s. speed if the molecular weight (1) H2
is doubled while the temperature is
halved – (2) N2
(3) O2
(1) 300 m/s (2) 150 m/s
(3) 600 m/s (4) 75 m/s (4) SO2

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Q.221 The root mean square speed Q.226 Two containers of same
of the molecules of a gas is :- volume are filled with atomic
Hydrogen and Helium respectively
(1) Independent of its pressure at 1 and 2 atm pressure. If the
but directly proportional temperature of both specimen are
to its Kelvin temperature same then average speed < CH >
(2) Directly proportional to the for hydrogen atoms will be –
square roots of both its pressure
and its Kelvin temperature (1) <CH> = 2 <Che>
(3) Independent of its pressure but
(2) <CH> = <Che>
directly proportional to the square
root of its Kelvin temperature (3) <CH> = 2 <Che>
(4) Directly proportional (4) <CH> = <Che>/2
to both its pressure and
its Kelvin temperature Q.227 The rms velocity of gas
molecules of a given amount of a
Q.222 The speeds of 5 molecules of gas at 27oC and 1.0 × 105 Nm–2
a gas (in arbitrary units) are as pressure is 200 m sec1. If
follows 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 The root mean temperature and pressure are
square speed for these molecules is respectively 127oC and 0.5 × 105 N
m–2, the rms velocity will be :-
(1) 2.91 (2) 3.52
(3) 4.00 (4) 4.24 (1) 400/ 3 ms–1
(2) 100/ 2 ms–1
Q.223 The reason for the absence
of atmosphere on moon is that the : (3) 100/ 2/3 ms–1
2 _
(1) Value of vrms of the molecules (4) 50 ms 1
3
of gas is more than the
value of escape velocity
Q.228 Simple behavior under all
(2) Value of vrms of gas is
conditions of real gas is governed
less than escape velocity
by the equation :-
(3) Value of vrms is negligible
(4) None of the above
(1) PV = RT
Q.224 If the pressure of a gas is  a 
(2)  P + 2  (V _ b) = RT
doubled at constant temperature then  V 
the mean square velocity will become.
(3) PV = constant
(1) No change (2) Double (4) PV = constant
(3) Four times
(4) None of the above Q.229 The root mean square
velocity of a gas molecule of mass
Q.225 The temperature at which m at a given temperature is
root mean square velocity of proportional to :-
molecules of helium is equal to root
mean square velocity of hydrogen (1) m0
at N.T.P is – (2) m
(1) 273oC (2) 273 K (3) m
(3) 546oC (4) 844 K (4)1/m

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Q.230 Vrms, Vav and Vmp are root Q.235 The root mean square and
mean square, average and most most probable speed of the
probable speeds of molecules of a molecules in a gas are :-
gas obeying Maxwell's velocity
distribution. Which of the following (1) Same (2) Different
statements is correct – (3) Cannot say
(4) Depends on nature of the gas
(1) Vrms < Vav < Vmp
(2) Vrms > Vav > Vmp Q.236 According to Maxwell's law
(3) Vmp < Vrms < Vav of distribution of velocities of
(4) Vmp > Vrms > Vav molecules, the most probable
velocity is :-
Q.231 If the r.m.s. velocity of
(1) Greater than the mean speed
hydrogen becomes equal to the
(2) Equal to the mean speed
escape velocity from the earth
(3) Equal to the root
surface, then the temperature of
mean square speed
hydrogen gas would be –
(4) Less than the root
mean square speed
(1) 1.6 × 105 K (2) 5030 K
(3) 8270 K (4) 104 K
Q.237 A gas mixture consists of 2
moles of oxygen and 4 moles of
Q.232 The pressure exerted by a
argon at temperature T. Neglecting
gas in P0. If the mass of molecules
all vibrational modes, the total
becomes half and their velocities
internal energy of the system is –
become double, then pressure will
become –
(1) 4 RT (2) 15 RT
(3) 9 RT (4) 11 RT
(1) P0/ 2 (2) P0
(3) 2P0 (4) 4P0 Q.238 The average kinetic energy
of a gas molecule at 27°C is 6.21 ×
Q.233 The root mean square (rms)
10–21 J. Its average kinetic energy
speed of oxygen molecules O2 at a
at 227°C will be –
certain temperature T (absolute) is
v. If the temperature is doubled (1) 52.2 × 10–21 J
and oxygen gas dissociates into (2) 5.22 × 10–21 J
atomic oxygen. The rms speed :- (3) 10.14 × 10–21 J
(4) 11.35 × 10–21 J
(1) Becomes v/√2 (2) Remains v
(3) Becomes √2 v Q.239 Two containers A and B
(4) Becomes 2v contain molecular gas at same
temperature with masses of
Q.234 If the root mean square molecules are mA and mB then
speed of hydrogen molecules is relation of momentum PA and PB
equal to root mean square speed of will be –
oxygen molecules at 47oC, the
temperature of hydrogen is – (1) PA = PB
(2) PA =(mA/mB)1/2 PB
(1) 20 K (2) 47 K (3) PA =(mB/mA)1/2 PB
(3) 50 K (4) 94 K (4) PA =(mA/mB) PB

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Q.240 If the total number of H2 Q.245 In a thermodynamic process

molecules is double that of the O2 pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is
molecules then ratio of total kinetic changed in such a manner that the
energies of H2 to that of O2 at 300 K gas releases 20 joules of heat and 8
is :- joules of work was done on the gas.
If the initial internal energy of the
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 gas was 30 joules, then the final
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 16 internal energy will be :-
Q.241 At which of the following
(1) 2 J (2) 42 J
temperature any gas has average
molecular kinetic energy double (3) 18 J (4) 58 J
that of at 20oC –
Q.246 In a process, 500 calories of
o o
(1) 40 C (2) 80 C heat is given to a system and at the
(3) 313oC (4) 586oC same time 100 joules of work is
done on the system. The increase in
Q.242 When temperature is the internal energy of the system is
o o
increased from 0 C to 273 C, what
will be the ratio of final to initial (1) 40 calories
the average kinetic energy of (2) 1993 joules
molecules ?
(3) 2193 joules
(1) 1 (2) 3 (4) 82 calories
(3) 4 (4) 2
Q.247 The first law of
Q.243 As shown thermodynamics is based on :-
in the figure the
amount of heat (1) Law of conservation of energy
absorbed along (2) Law of conservation
the path ABC is of mechanical energy
90J and the
(3) Law of conservation
amount of work done by the system
is 30 J. If the amount of work done of gravitational P.E.
along the path ADC is 20 J then (4) None of the above
amount of heat absorbed will be :-
Q.248 Two moles of monoatomic
(1) 80 J (2) 90 J gas are mixed with 1 mole of a
(3) 110 J (4) 120 J diatomic gas. Then y for the
mixture is :-
Q.244 1 kg of a gas does 20 kJ of
work and receives 16 kJ of heat (1) 1.4 (2) 1.55
when it is expanded between two (3) 1.62 (4) 1.67
states. A second kind of expansion can
be found between the same initial and Q.249 A diatomic molecule has –
final state which requires a heat input
of 9 kJ. The work done by the gas in (1) 1 degree of freedom
the second expansion is :- (2) 3 degree of freedom
(1) 32 kJ (2) 5 kJ (3) 5 degree of freedom
(3) –4 kJ (4) 13 kJ (4) 6 degree of freedom
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Q.250 The average energy of the Q.255 The specific heat of an ideal
molecules of a monoatomic gas at gas depends on temperature is –
temperature T is :-
(K = Boltzmann constant). (1) 1/T (2) T
(3) √T
(1) 1/2 KT (2) kT (4) Does not depends on temperature
(3) 3/2 KT (4) 5/2 kT
Q.256 For a diatomic gas, change in
Q.251 Oxygen and hydrogen gases internal energy for unit change in
are at temperature T Then average temperature at constant pressure
K.E of each molecule of oxygen gas and volume is U 1, and U2
is equal to how many times of respectively then U1 : U2 is :-
average K.E. of each molecule of
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 7 : 5
hydrogen gas :-
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 5 : 7
(1) 16 times Q.257 Gas exerts pressure on the
(2) 8 times walls of container because the
(3) Equal molecules –
(4) 1/16 times
(1) Are loosing their Kinetic energy
o
Q.252 At 27 C temperature, the (2) Are getting stuck to the walls
kinetic energy of an ideal gas is E1. (3) Are transferring their
If the temperature is increased to momentum to walls
327oC, then kinetic energy would (4) Are accelerated
be – towards walls

Q.258 Which of the following

(1) 2 E1 (2) 1/2 E1
statement is true according to
(3) √2 E1 (4) 1/√2 E1 kinetic theory of gases ?

Q.253 22 g of CO2 at 27oC is mixed (1) The collision between two molecules
with 16 g of O2 at 37oC. The is inelastic and the time between
temperature of the mixture is :- two collisions is less than the time
(At room temperature, degrees of taken during the collision.
freedom of CO2=7 and degrees of (2) There is a force of attraction
freedom of O2 = 5). between the molecules
(3) All the molecules of a gas
(1) 31.16oC (2) 27oC move with same velocity
(4) The average of the distances
(3) 37oC (4) 30oC travelled between two successive
collisions is mean free path.
Q.254 The specific heat of a gas :-
Q.259 For a gas R/Cv 0.67. This gas
(1) Has only two value Cp and Cv is made up of molecules which are :
(2) Has a unique value
at a given temperature (1) Diatomic
(3) Can have any value (2) Mixture of diatomic
between 0 and and polyatomic molecules
(4) Depends upon the mass of the gas (3) Monoatomic (4) Polyatomic

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Q.260 Absolute zero temperature is Q.266 Relation between the ratio of

one at which – specific heats (γ) of gas and degree
of freedom ‘f’ will be –
(1) All liquids convert into solid
(2) All gases convert to solid (1) =f+2
(3) All matter is in solid state (2) 1/  = 1/f + 1/2
(4) The K.E. of molecules becomes zero (3) f = 2/( – 1)
(4) f = 2( – 1)
Q.261 On mixing 1 g mole of a
monoatomic with 1 g mole of a Q.267 A cylinder of 200 liter
diatomic gas the specific heat of capacity is containing H2. The total
mixture at constant volume will be. translational kinetic energy of
molecules is 1.52 × 105 J. The
(1) R (2) 3/2R pressure of H2 in the cylinder will
(3) 2R (4) 5/2R be in N m–2 :-
Q.262 Relation between pressure (1) 2 × 105
(P) and energy density (E) of an (2) 3 × 105
ideal gas is – (3) 4 × 105
(4) 5 × 105
(1) P = 2E/3 (2) P = 3E/2
(3) P = 3E/5 (4) P = E
Q.268 For hydrogen gas cP – cv = a
Q.263 Mean kinetic energy (or and for oxygen gas cP – cv = b then
average energy) per gm. molecule the relation between a and b is –
of a monoatomic gas is given by :- (where cP & cv are gram specific
heats).
(1) 3RT/2 (2) kT/2
(3) RT/3 (4) 3kT/2 (1) a = 16 b
(2) b = 16 a
Q.264 The total kinetic energy of 1 (3) a=b
mole of N, at 27oC will be (4) None of these
approximately :-
Q.269 If the rms velocity of
(1) 1500 J (2) 1500 calorie molecules of a gas in a container is
(3) 1500 kilo calorie doubled then the pressure will :-
(4) 1500 erg.
(1) Become four times
Q.265 Two monoatomic ideal gas at (2) Also get doubled
temperature T1 and T2 are mixed. (3) Be same
There is no loss of energy. If the mass (4) Become one half
of molecules of the two gases are m1
and m2 and number of their molecules Q.270 The ratio of average
are n1, and n2 respectively, then translational kinetic energy to
temperature of the mixture will be :- rotational kinetic energy of a
diatomic molecule at temperature T
T1 + T2 T1 T
(1) (2) + 2 is –
n1 + n2 n1 n2
n T + n1T2 n T + n2 T2 (1) 3 (2) 7/5
(3) 2 1 (4) 1 1
n1 + n2 n1 + n2 (3) 5/3 (4) 3/2

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Q.271 Five moles of helium are Q.276 In a cyclic process shown on

mixed with two moles of hydrogen the P-V diagram, the magnitude of
to form a mixture. Take molar mass the work done is –
of helium M1 = 4g and that of
hydrogen M2 = 2g.  V2 _ V1 
2

The equivalent molar mass of the (1)   

 2 
mixture is –
 P2 _ P1 
2

(2)   
(1) 6g (2) 13g/7  2 
(3) 18g/7 (4) 24g/7 
(3) P2 _ P1  V2 _ V1 
4
Q.272 Five moles of helium are (4) (P2V2 – P1V1)
mixed with two moles of hydrogen
to form a mixture. Take molar mass Q.277 When a system changes from
of helium M1 = 4g and that of one to another state the value of
hydrogen M2 = 2g. work done :-
The equivalent value of  in the
above question is – (1) Depends on the force
acting on the system
(1) 1.59 (2) 1.53 (2) Depends on the nature of
(3) 1.56 (4) none material present in a system
(3) Does not depend on the path
Q.273 The kinetic energy (4) Depends on the path
associated with per degree of
freedom of a molecule is :- Q.278 A system
is taken along
(1) 1/2 MC2 rms (3) KT/2 the paths A and
(2) KT (4) 3kT/2 B as shown. If
the amounts of
Q.274 The work by an ideal heat given in
monoatomic gas along the cyclic these processes are QA and QB and
path LMNOL is – change in internal energy are UA
and UB respectively then :-
(1) PV
(1) QA = QB ; UA < UB
(2) 2PV
(2) QA ≥ QB ; UA = UB
(3) 3 PV (3) QA < QB ; UA > UB
(4) 4 PV (3) QA > QB ; UA = UB

Q.275 For a gas Cv = 4.96 cal/mole Q.279 If the heat of 110 J is added
K, the increase in internal energy of to a gaseous system and change in
2 mole gas in heating from 340 K to internal energy is 40 J, then the
342 K will be :- amount of external work done is :-

(1) 27.80 cal (1) 180 J

(2)19.84 cal (2) 70 J
(3) 13.90 cal (3) 110 J
(4) 9.92 cal (4) 30 J
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Q.280 If amount of heat supplied is Q.284 Which of the following

Q, work done is W and change in graphs correctly represents the
internal energy is mCvdT, then variation of  = –(dV / dP) /
relation among them is. (Cv = gram V with P for an ideal gas at
specific heat). constant temperature ?

(1) mCvdT = Q + W
(2) Q = W + mCvdT
(3) Q + mCvdT = W (1) (2)
(4) None of these

Q.281 The work done by a gas

taken through the closed process
ABCA is –
(3) (4)
(1) 6P0V0
(2) 4P0V0
(3) P0V0
(4) Zero Q.285 A given quantity of an ideal
gas is at pressure P and absolute
Q.282 In temperature T. The isothermal bulk
the modulus of the gas is :-
diagrams (i)
to (iv) of (1) 2P/3 (2) P
variation of (3) 3P/2 (4) 2P
volume with
changing Q.286 P-V plots
pressure is for two gases
shown. A during adiabatic
gas is taken processes are
along the shown in the
path ABCDA. The change in internal figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
energy of the gas will be – correspond respectively to –

(1) Positive in all cases (i) to (iv) (1) He and O2 (2) O2 and He
(2) Positive in cases (i), (ii) (3) He and Ar (4) O2 and N2
and (iii) but zero in case (iv)
(3) Negative in cases (i), (ii) Q.287 For an adiabatic expansion of
and (iii) but zero in case (iv) a perfect gas, the value of P/P is
(4) Zero in all the four cases equal to :-

Q.283 The temperature of 5 moles (1) –  V/V (2) – V/V

of a gas which was held at constant (3) –  V/V (4) – 2 V/V
volume was changed from 100oC to
120oC. The change in internal energy Q.288 An ideal gas at 27oC is
was found to be 80 joules. The total compressed adiabatically to 8/27 of
heat capacity of the gas at constant its original volume. If  = 5/3, then
volume will be equal to :- the rise in temperature is –

(1) 8 J/K (2) 0.8 J/K (1) 450 K (2) 375 K

(3) 4.0 J/K (4) 0.4 J/K (3) 675 K (4) 405 K

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Q.289 For monoatomic gas the Q.293 One mole of an ideal gas at
relation between pressure of a gas temperature T1 expands P/V2 =a
and temperature T is given by P  (constant). The work done by the
TC Then value of C will be (For gas till temperature of gas becomes
adiabatic process). T2 is :-

(1) 5/3 (2) 2/5 (1) 1/2 R(T2 – T1)

(3) 3/5 (4) 5/2 (2) 1/3 R(T2 – T1)
(3) 1/4 R(T2 – T1)
Q.290 A gas for which  = 5/3 is (4) 1/5 R(T2 – T1)
heated at constant pressure. The
percentage of total heat given that Q.294 When an ideal diatomic gas
will be used for external work is :- is heated at constant pressure, the
fraction of the heat energy supplied
(1) 40% (2) 30% which increases the internal energy
(3) 60% (4) 20% of the gas is –

Q.291 In which of the figure no (1) 2/5

heat exchange between the gas and (2) 3/5
the surroundings will take place, if
(3) 3/7
the gas is taken along curve :-
(curves are isothermal and (4) 5/7
adiabatic)
Q.295 A gas specimen in one vessel
(1) A is expended isothermally to double
its volume and a similar specimen
(2) B in the second vessel is expanded
(3) C adiabatically the same extent, then.
(4) D
(1) In the second vessel, both
Q.292 Equal volumes of a perfect pressure and work done are more
gas are compressed to half of their (2) In the second vessel, pressure
initial volumes. The first is brought in more, but the work done is less.
about by isothermal process and
(3) In the first vessel, both
the second by adiabatic process
then :- pressure & work done are more.
(4) In the first vessel, pressure
(1) Both temperature and pressure will is more, but work done is less
increase in the isothermal process.
(2) In the isothermal process, the Q.296 If an ideal gas is compressed
temperature will decrease during isothermal process then :-
and pressure will increases
(3) Both temperature and pressure (1) No work is done against gas
will increase in adiabatic process (2) Heat is rejected by gas
(4) In the adiabatic process, the (3) It's internal
temperature will decrease energy will increase
and pressure will increase (4) Pressure does not change

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Q.297 Graphs between P-V diagram Q.302 The process in which the
for isothermal and adiabatic heat given to a system is
processes are drawn the relation completely transformed into work
between their slopes will be :- is for ideal gas –

(1) Slope of adiabatic curve –  (1) Isobaric process

(slope of isothermal curve) (2) Isometric process
(2) Slope of isothermal curve =  (3) Isothermal process
(slope of adiabatic curve) (4) Adiabatic process
(3) Slope of isothermal curve
Q.303 The volume of a poly-atomic
= slope of adiabatic curve
gas ( = 4/3) compressed
(4) Slope of adiabatic curve = 2 th
adiabatically to 1/8 of the original
(slope of isothermal curve) volume. If the original pressure of
the gas is P0 the new pressure will be
Q.298 One mole ideal gas is
compressed adiabatically at 27oC. (1) 8 P0 (2) 16 P0
Its temperature becomes 102oC. (3) 6 P0 (4) 2 P0
The work done in this process will
be :- ( = 1.5) Q.304 During
isothermal,
(1) –625 J (2) 625 J isobaric and
(3) 1245 J (4) –1245 J adiabatic
processes, work
Q.299 An ideal gas is taken round done for same change in volume
the cycle ABCA. In the cycle the will be maximum for :-
amount of work done involved is :-
(1) Isothermal (2) Isobaric
(3) Adiabatic
(1) 12 P1V1
(4) None of the above
(2) 6 P1V1
(3) 3 P1V1 Q.305 In an adiabatic process the
quantity which remains constant is.
(4) P1V1
(1) Temperature (2) Pressure
Q.300 In an isometric change :- (3) Total heat content
of the system
(1) Q = dU (4) Volume
(2) W = dU
Q.306 Graph of isometric process is.
(3) Q + W = dU
(4) None of these

Q.301 The volume of a gas expands (1) (2)

by 0.25 m3 at a constant pressure
of 103 N/m2. The work done is
equal to –

(1) 2.5 erg (2) 250 J (3) (4)

(3) 250 W (4) 250 N

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Q.307 An ideal gas undergoes an Q.311 According to the second law

adiabatic change in volume (V) of thermodynamics :-
with pressure (P). Then :-
(1) Heat energy cannot be
(1) PV = constant completely converted to work
(2) PV  = constant (2) Work cannot be completely
(3) (PV) = constant converted to heat energy
(4) PV = constant (3) For all cyclic processes
we have dQ/T < 0
Q.308 300 calories of heat is (4) The reason all heat engine
supplied to raise the temperature efficiencies are less than 100%
of 50 gm of air from 20oC to 30oC is friction, which is unavoidable
without any change in its volume.
Change in internal energy per gram Q.312 A Carnot engine takes 3 ×
of air is – 106 cal of heat from reservoir at
627oC and gives it to a sink at 27oC.
(1) Zero (2) 0.6 calories Then work done by the engine is –
(3) 1.2 calories (4) 6.0 calories
(1) 4.2 × 106 J (2) 8.4 × 106 J
Q.309 A gas
(3) 16.8 × 106 J (4) Zero
is expanded
from volume
Q.313 A reversible refrigerator
V1 to volume
operates between a low
V2 in three
temperature reservoir at TC and a
processes,
high temperature reservoir at TH.
shown in the figure. If UA, UB, UC
Its coefficient of performance is
and UD represent the internal
given by :-
energies of the gas in state A,B, C
and D respectively, the which of the
(1) (TH – TC)/TC
following is not correct –
(2) TC (TH – TC)
(1) UB – UA > 0 (2) UC – UA = 0 (3) (TH – TC) / TH
(3) UD – UA < 0 (4) UB = UC = UD (4) TH/(TH – TC)

Q.310 A closed Q.314 In the given graph the

container is isothermal curves are :-
fully insulated
from outside. (1) AB and CD
One half of it is (2) AB and AD
filled with an ideal gas X separated (3) AD and BC
by a plate P from the other half Y (4) BC and CD
which contains a vacuum as shown
in figure. When P is removed, X Q.315 A Carnot engine shows
moves into Y. Which of the efficiency of 40% on taking energy
following statements is correct ? at 500 K. To increase the efficiency
to 50%, at what temperature it
(1) No work is done by X should take energy ?
(2) X decreases in temperature
(3) X increases in internal energy (1) 400 K (2) 700 K
(4) X doubles in pressure (3) 600 K (4) 800 K
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Q.316 If the system takes 100 cal. Q.321 "Heat cannot flow by itself
heat, and releases 80 cal to sink, if from a body at lower temperature
source temperature is 127oC find to a body at higher temperature" is
the sink temperature – a statement or consequence of :-

(1) 47oC (2) 127oC (1) Second law of thermodynamics

(2) Conservation of momentum
(3) 67oC (4) 107oC
(3) Conservation of mass
(4) First law of thermodynamics
Q.317 The curve for which the heat
is absorbed from the surroundings
Q.322 Two rods one of aluminium
is –
of length  1 having coefficient of
(1) AB linear expansion a, and other steel
(2) BC of length  2 having coefficient of
(3) CD linear expansion s are joined end
(4) DA to end. The expansion in both the
as rods is same on variation of
Q.318 A Carnot engine working temperature. Then the value
between 300 K and 600 K has work 1
of is –
out put of 800 J per cycle. The 1 +  2
amount of heat energy supplied to
the engine from source per cycle s
will be :- (1)
a + s
s
(1) 800 J (2)
(2) 1600 J a _ s
(3) 1200 J  + s
(3) a
(4) 900 J s
(4) None of these
Q.319 An ideal gas heat engine
operates in carnot cycle between Q.323 A slab consists of two
227oC and 127oC. It absorbs 6 × parallel layers of copper and brass
104 cal of heat at higher of the same thickness and having
temperature. Then amount of heat thermal conductivities in the ratio 1
converted to work is :- : 4. If the free face of brass is at
100oC and that of copper at 0oC, the
(1) 2.4 × 104 cal temperature of interface is –
(2) 6 × 104 cal
(3) 1.2 × 104 cal (1) 80oC (2) 20oC
(4) 4.8 × 104 cal (3) 60oC (4) 40oC

Q.320 A refrigerator works Q.324 An ideal gas is expanding

o
between temperature –10 C and such that PT2 = constant. The
27oC, the coefficient of coefficient of volume expansion of
performance is :- the gas is :-

(1) 7.1 (2) 1 (1) 1/T (2) 2/T

(3) 8.1 (4) 15.47 (3) 3/T (4) 4/T

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Q.325 Steam at 100oC is added Q.329 For a black body at

slowly to 1400 g of water at 16oC temperature 727oC, its radiating
until the temperature of water is power is 60 watt and temperature
raised to 80oC. The mass of steam of surrounding is 227oC. If
required to do this is (Lv = 540 temperature of black body is
cal/g) :- changed to 1227oC then its
radiating power will be :-
(1) 160 g (2) 125 g
(3) 250 g (4) 320 g (1) 304 W
Q.326 Spheres P and Q are (2) 320 W
uniformly constructed from the (3) 240 W
same material which is a good (4) 120 W
conductor of heat and the radius of
Q is thrice of radius of P. The rate Q.330 The spectral emissive power
of fall of temperature of P is x E, for a body at temperature T1, is
times that of Q when both are at plotted against the wavelength and
the same surface temperature. The area under the curve is found to be
value of x is :- A. At a different temperature T2, the
area is found to be 9A. Then 1/2 =
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 3
Q.327 The power radiated by a (2) 1/3
black body is P and it radiates (3) 1/3
maximum energy around the (4) 3
wavelength  0. If the temperature
of the black body is now changed Q.331 Root mean square velocity
so that it radiates maximum energy for a certain di-atomic gas at room
around wavelength 3/40, the temperature 27oC is found to be
power radiated by it will increase 1930 m/sec. The gas is :-
by a factor of –
(1) H2
(1) 4/3 (2) 16/9
(3) 64/27 (4) 256/81 (2) O2
(3) F2
Q.328 A sphere, a cube and a thin (4) Cl2
circular plate all made of same
substance and all have same mass. Q.332 An ideal gas expands in such
These are heated to 200oC and then a way that PV2 = constant
placed in a room, then the :- throughout the process –
(1) Temperature of sphere drops
to room temperature at last. (1) The graph of the process
(2) Temperature of cube drops of T – V diagram is a parabola.
to room temperature at last (2) The graph of the process of
(3) Temperature of thin circular plate T – V diagram is a straight line.
drops to room temperature at last (3) Such an expansion is
(4) Temperature of all the possible only with heating.
three drops to room (4) Such an expansion is
temperature at the same time possible only with cooling.

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Q.333 An ideal gas is taken through Q.337 A gas mixture contain 1 g H2

the cycle A  B  C  A, as shown and 1 g He if temperature of gas
in the figure. If the net heat mixture is increased from 0°C to
supplied to the gas in the cycle is 100oC at isobaric process. Then find
5J, the work done by the gas in the given heat of gas mixture
process C  A is – [He = 5/3, H2 = 7/5, R = 2
cal/mol-K).
(1) –5 J
(2) –10 J (1) 124 cal (2) 327 cal
(3) –15 J (3) 218 cal (4) 475 cal
(4) –20 J
Q.338 The following are the P-V
Q.334 If the ratio of specific heat of diagrams for cyclic processes for a
gas at constant pressure to that at gas. In which of these processes
constant volume is , the change in heat is released by the gas ?
internal energy of a mass of gas,
when the volume changes from V to
2 V at constant pressure P, is :-
(1) (2)
(1) R/( – 1) (2) PV
(3) PV/( – 1) (4) PV/( – 1)

Q.335 The molar specific heat

under constant pressure of oxygen (3) (4)
is CP = 7.03 cal/mol K. The quantity
of heat required to raise the
temperature from 10oC to 20oC of 5
Q.339 N molecules of an ideal gas
moles of oxygen under constant
at temperature T1, and pressure P1
volume will approximately be :-
are contained in a closed box. If the
molecules in the box gets doubled,
(1) 25 cal (2) 50 cal
Keeping total kinetic energy same.
(3) 250 cal (4) 500 cal
If new pressure is p2 and
Q.336 Three temperature is T2, Then –
processes form a
thermodynamic (1) P2 = P1, T2 = T1 m
cycle as shown on (2) P2 = P1, T2 = T1/2
P-V diagram for an (3) P2 = 2P1, T2 = T1
ideal gas. Process (4) P2 = 2P1, T2 = T1/2
1  2 takes place at constant
temperature (300K). Process 2  3 Q.340 A gas has volume V and
takes place at constant volume. pressure P. The total translational
During this process 40J of heat kinetic energy of all the molecules
leaves the system. Process 3  1 is of the gas is :-
adiabatic and temperature T2 is
275K. Work done by the gas during (1) 3/2 PV only if the
the process 3  1 is – gas is monoatomic.
(2) 3/2 PV only if the gas is diatomic.
(1) – 40J (2) – 20J (3) >3/2 PV if the gas is diatomic.
(3) + 40J (4) + 20J (4) 3/2 PV in all cases.
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Q.341 Air is filled at 60oC in a Q.346 Specific heat of a gas

vessel of open mouth. The vessel is undergoing adiabatic change is :-
heated to a temperature T so that
1/4th part of air escapes. The value (1) Zero (2) Infinite
of T is :-
(3) Positive (4) Negative
(1) 80oC (2) 444oC
Q.347 Air is filled in a tube of the
(3) 333oC (4) 171oC
wheel of a car at 27oC and 2 atm
pressure if the tube is suddenly
Q.342 Consider a gas with density p
bursts, the final temperature of air
and c as the root mean square
will be :- ( = 1.5, 21/3 = 1.251)
velocity of its molecules contained
in a volume. If the system moves
(1) – 33oC (2) 0oC
as whole with velocity v, then the
pressure exerted by the gas is – (3) 21.6oC (4) 240oC

1 1 Q.348 When a gas is adiabatically

(1) (C)2 (2) (C + V)2
3 3 compressed then it's temperature
1 1 increase because :-
(3) (C _ V)2 (4) (C 2 _ V)2
_

3 3
(1) Work done is zero
Q.343 Out of the metal balls of (2) Internal energy is increased
same diameter one is solid and (3) Heat is supplied to it
other is hollow. Both are heated to (4) No change in pressure
the same temperature at 300oC and
then allowed to cool in the same Q.349 The specific heat of a gas at
surroundings then rate of loss of constant pressure is more than that
heat will be :- of the same gas at constant volume
because :-
(1) More for hollow sphere
(2) More for solid sphere (1) Work is done in the expansion
(3) Same for both of gas at constant pressure
(4) None of the above (2) Work is done in the expansion
of the gas at constant volume
Q.344 50 g of ice at 0oC is mixed (3) The molecular attraction
with 50 g of water at 100oC. The increase under constant pressure
final temperature of mixture is :- (4) The vibration of molecules
increases under constant pressure
(1) 0oC
(2) Between 0oC to 20oC Q.350 One mole of an ideal
(3) 20oC (4) Above 20oC monoatomic gas is heated at a
constant pressure of one
o o
Q.345 A quantity of air ( = 1.4) at atmosphere from 0 C to 100 C. Then
27°C is compressed suddenly, the the change in the internal energy is
temperature of the air system will :
(1) 20.80 × 102 J
(1) Fall (2) Rise (2) 12.48 × 102 J
(3) Remain unchanged (3) 832 × 102 J
(4) First rise and then fall (4) 6.25 × 102 J

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Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.351 The value of internal energy Q.356 Monoatomic, diatomic and

in an adiabatic process :- triatomic gases whose initial
volume and pressure are same, are
(1) Remains unchanged compressed till their volume
(2) Only increases become half the initial volume.
(3) Only diminishes
(4) May diminish and may also increase (1) If the compression is adiabatic
then monoatomic gas will
Q.352 Pressure – temperature have maximum final pressure.
relationship for an ideal gas (2) If the compression is adiabatic
undergoing adiabatic change is ( = then triatomic gas will have
CP/CV) maximum final pressure.
(3) If the compression is
(1) PT = constant adiabatic then their final
(2) PT–1+ = constant pressure will be same.
(3) PT –1 T = constant (4) If the compression is isothermal
(4) P1– T  = constant pressure will be different. their final

Q.353 A vessel contains an ideal Q.357 On increasing the

monoatomic gas which expands at temperature of a gas filled in a
constant pressure, when heat Q is closed container by 1oC its pressure
given to it. Then the work done in increases by 0.4%, then initial
expansion is :- temperature of the gas is –
(1) Q (2) 3/5 Q
(1) 25oC (2) 250oC
(3) 2/5 Q (4) 2/3 Q
(3) 250 K (4) 2500oC
Q.354 In
the Q.358 A Carnot engine, having an
following efficiency of  = 1/10 as heat
figures, engine, is used as a refrigerator. If
four curves the work done on the system is 10
A, B, C, D J, the amount of absorbed from the
are shown the curves are :- reservoir at lower temperature a
energy is :-
(1) Isothermal for A and B
while adiabatic for C and D (1) 99 J (2) 90 J
(2) Isothermal for A and C
while adiabatic for B and D (3) 1 J (4) 100 J
(3) Isothermal for A and D
(4) Adiabatic for A and C Q.359 Gases obey vander - waal's
while isothermal for B and D equation at :-

Q.355 The adiabatic Bulk modulus (1) Only normal temperature

of a diatomic gas at atmospheric and pressure
pressure is – (2) Only high temperature
and high pressure
(1) 0 Nm–2 (2) 1 Nm–2 (3) Only high temperature
(3) 1.4 × 10 Nm–2 and low pressure
(4) 1.4 × 105 Nm–2 (4) All temperature and pressure

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Thermodynamics Question Bank

Q.360 In solar spectrum

fraunhoffer's lines are presents
because –

(1) Definite absorption takes

place in photosphere of sun.
(2) Definite absorption takes
place in chromospheres of sun
(3) These wave lengths are
not at all emitted by
(4) Nuclear reactions take place in sun.

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Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect Question Bank

Q.1 Water waves are of the nature - Q.6 The equation y = 4 + 2 sin (6t –
3x) represents a wave motion with.
(1) Transverse
(2) Longitudinal (1) amplitude 6 units
(3) Sometimes longitudinal (2) amplitude 4 units
and some times (3) wave speed 2 units
(4) Neither transverse nor longitudinal (4) wave speed 1/2 units

Q.2 Transverse waves can Q.7 The distance between two

propagate – consecutive crests in a wave train
produced in string is 5 m. If two
(1) Only in solids complete waves pass through any
(2) Both in solids and gases point per second, the velocity of
(3) Neither in solids nor in gases wave is –
(4) Only in gases
(1) 2.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
Q.3 A wave of frequency 500 Hz
(3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s
travels between X and Y and travel
a distance of 600 m in 2 sec.
Q.8 In a string the speed of wave is
between X and Y. How many
10 m/s and its frequency is 100 Hz.
wavelength are there in distance
The value of the phase difference at
XY :-
a distance 2.5 cm will be :-
(1) 1000 (2) 300
(1) /2 (2) /8
(3) 180 (4) 2000
(3) 3/2 (4) 2
Q.4 The equation of a progressive
wave for a wire is : Y = 4sin Q.9 The mathematical forms for
  _ x  three sinusoidal travelling waves
 2  8t 8   . If x and y are measured are given by –
  
Wave 1 : y(x, t) = (2cm) sin(3x–6t)
in cm then velocity of wave is :-
Wave 2 : y(x, t) = (3cm) sin(4x–12t)
Wave 3 : y(x, t) = (4cm) sin(5x–11t)
(1) 64 cm/s along – x direction
where x is in meters and t is in
(2) 32 cm/s along – x direction
seconds. Of these waves :-
(3) 32 cm/s along + x direction
(4) 64 cm/s along + x direction
(1) wave 1 has the greatest wave
Q.5 A plane progressive wave is speed and the greatest maximum
represented by the equation y = transverse string speed.
0.25 cos (2t – 2x). The equation (2) wave 2 has the greatest wave
of a wave is with double the speed and wave 1 has the greatest
amplitude and half frequency but maximum transverse string speed.
travelling in the opposite direction (3) wave 3 has the greatest wave
will be – speed and the greatest maximum
transverse string speed.
(1) y = 0.5 cos (t – x) (4) wave 2 has the greatest
(2) y = 0.5 cos (2t + 2x) wave speed and wave 3 has
(3) y = 0.25 cos (t + 2x) the greatest maximum
(4) y = 0.5 cos (t + x) transverse string speed.

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Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect Question Bank

Q.10 Linear density of a string is Q.14 A sound is produced in water

1.3 × 10–4 kg/m and wave and moves towards surface of
equation is y = 0.021sin(x + 30t). water and some sound moves in
Find the tension in the string air, velocity of sound in water is
where x in meter, t in sec. 1450 m/s and that in air is 330
m/s. When sound moves from
(1) 1.17 × 103 N water to air then the effect
(2) 1.17 × 10–1 N frequency f and wave length  will
(3) 1.17 × 10–3 N be :-
(4) None (1) f and  will remain same
(2) f will remain same
Q.11 The waves in which the but  will decrease
particles of the medium vibrate in (3) f will remain same
a direction perpendicular to the but  will decrease
direction of wave motion is known (4) f will increase and  will decrease
as :-
Q.15 Newton’s formula for the
(1) Transverse waves velocity of sound in gases is :-

(2) Propagated waves

2p p
(1) v = (2) v =
(3) Longitudinal waves  
(4) Stationary waves  3 p
(3) v = (4) v =
p 2 
Q.12 A uniform rope of mass 0.1
kg and length 2.5 m hangs from Q.16 If m is the velocity of sound
ceiling. The speed of transverse in moist air and d is the velocity of
wave in the rope at upper end and sound in dry air then :-
at a point 0.5 m distance from
(1) m < d (2) m > d
lower end will be :- (3) d >> m (4) m = d

(1) 5 m/s, 2.24 m/s Q.17 A man standing on a cliff claps

his hand and hears its echo after
(2) 10 m/s, 3.23 m/s
one second. If the sound in
(3) 7.5 m/s, 1.2 m/s reflected from another mountain
then the distance between the man
(4) 2.25 m/s, 5 m/s & reflection points is Vsound = 340
m/sec.
Q.13 The velocity of sound in a
gas depends – (1) 680 m (2) 340 m
(3) 170 m (4) 85 m
(1) only on its wave length
Q.18 The time period of SHM of a
(2) on the density and particle is 12 s. The phase
the elasticity of gas difference between the position at t
(3) on intensity of the sound = 3s and t = 4s will be :-
(4) on the amplitude (1) /4 (2) 3/5
and the frequency (3) /6 (4) /2
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 Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect Question Bank

Q.19 A sings with a frequency (n) Q.24 A source x of unknown

and B sings with a frequency 1/8 frequency produces 8 beats with a
that of A. If the energy remains the source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with
same and the amplitude of A is a, a source of 270 Hz. The frequency
then amplitude of B will be :- of source x is :-

(1) 2a (2) 8a (1) 258 Hz

(3) 4a (4) a (2) 242 Hz
(3) 262 Hz
Q.20 The figure (4) 282 Hz
shows an
instantaneous profile Q.25 Two waves of wave length 2
of a rope carrying a m and 2.02 m respectively moving
progressive wave with the same velocity and
moving from left to right, then – superimpose to produce 2 beats per
(a) The phase at A is greater sec. The velocity of the waves is :-
than the phase at B
(b) The phase at B is greater (1) 400.0 m/s
than the phase at A (2) 402 m/s
(c) A is moving upwards (3) 404 m/s
(d) B is moving upwards (4) 406 m/s

(1) a & c (2) a & d Q.26 What is the path difference for
(3) b & c (4) b & d destructive interference?

Q.21 The energy in the (1) n

superposition of waves – (2) n( + 1)
(n + 1)
(1) Is lost (2) Increase (3)
(3) remain same, only 2
redistribution occurs (2n + 1)
(4)
(4) None of the above 2

Q.22 Two waves whose intensity Q.27 What is the beat frequency
are same (I) move towards a point produced when following two
P in same phase, then the resultant waves are sounded together ?
intensity at point P will be :- x1 = 10 sin (404t-5x),
x2 = 10 sin (400t-5x).
(1) 4 I (2) 2 I
(3) 2 I (4) None (1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 2
Q.23 Two coherent sources of
intensities I1 and I2 produce an Q.28 Two sources have frequency
interference pattern, the maximum 256 Hz and 258 Hz, then time
intensity in the interference pattern difference between two consecutive
will be – maxima is –

(1) I1 + I2 (2) I12 + I22 (1) 1 s (2) 0·5 s

 
2
(3) (I1 + I2)2 (4) I1 + I2 (3) 2 ms (4) None

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Q.29 Two plane progressive waves Q.33 Stationary waves are

shows destructive interference at produced in 10m long streched
point P. Which of the following string. If the string vibrates in 5
statement is true at point P :- segments and wave velocity is
20m/sec, then the frequency is –
(1) Crest of one wave is superimposed
on crest of another wave (1) 10 Hz (2) 5 Hz
(2) Trough of one wave is superimposed (3) 4 Hz (4) 2Hz
on crest of another wave
(3) Intensity of resultant wave Q.34 A uniform string of length L
is equal to the intensity and mass M is fixed at both ends
difference of two waves under tension T, Then it can vibrate
(4) Resultant amplitude is with frequency given by the
equal to the amplitude formula.
sum of two waves
1 T 1 T
(1) f = (2) f =
Q.30 A wave represented by the 2 ML 2L M
equation y = a cos(t – kx) is 1 T 1 M
superposed by another wave to (3) f = (4) f =
2 M 2 LT
form a stationary wave such that
the point x = 0 is a node. The
Q.35 Stationary waves are so called
equation for other wave is –
because in them :-
(1) y = a sin (t + kx) (1) The particles of the medium
(2) y = – a cos (t – kx) are not disturbed at all
(3) y = – a cos (t + kx) (2) The particles of the medium
(4) y = – a sin (t – kx) do not execute S.H. M.
(3) There occur no flow
Q.31 A wave of frequency 100 Hz of energy along the wave
travels along a string towards its (4) The interference effect
fixed end. When this wave travels can't be observed
back, after reflection, a node is
formed at a distance of 10 cm from Q.36 If the tension and diameter of
the fixed end. The speed of the a sonometer wire of fundamental
wave (incident and reflected) is :- frequency (n) is doubled and
density is halved then its
(1) 5 m/s fundamental frequency will become
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (1) n/4 (2) 2n
(4) 40 m/s (3) n (4) n/2

Q.32 If the tension in a monometer Q.37 Fundamental frequency of

wire is increased by a factor of four sonometer wire is n. If the length,
then fundamental frequency of tension and diameter of wire are
vibration changes by a factor of :- tripled, the new fundamental
frequency is :-
(1) 4
(2) (1/4) (1) n/3 (2) n/3
(3) 2 (4) (1/2) (3) n3 (4) n/33
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Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect Question Bank

Q.38 Four wires of identical Q.43 The equation of progressive

lengths, diameters and of the same  t x 
material are stretched on a wave is Y = 4 sin   _  + 
  5 9  9
sonometer wire. The ratio of their
where x and y are in cm. Which of
tension is 1 : 4 : 9 : 16. The ratio of
the following statement is true ?
their fundamental frequencies is –
(1)  = 18 cm
(1) 1:2:3:4
(2) amplitude = 0.04 cm
(2) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
(3) velocity v = 50 cm/s
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(4) frequency f = 20 Hz
(4) 4:3:2:1
Q.44 A plane wave is described by
Q.39 With the increase of
x 
temperature, the frequency of the the equation y = 3cos  _ 10t _  .
organ pipe – 4 2
The maximum velocity of the
(1) Increases particles of the medium due to this
(2) Decreases wave is –
(3) Remains Unchanged
(4) Can Not Say (1) 30
3
(2)
Q.40 A thunder tap is heared 5.5 2
second after the lightening flash. (3) 3/4
The distance of the flash is (4) 40
(velocity of sound in air is 330
m/sec.) :- Q.45 Two wave are represented by
equation y1 = a sin t, y2 = a cos t
(1) 3560 m the first wave –
(2) 300 m
(3) 1780 m (1) Leads the second by 
(4) 1815 m (2) lags the second by 
(3) Leads the second by /2
Q.41 Transverse elastic waves can (4) lags the second by /2
be propagate in –
Q.46 The graph between wave
(1) Both solid & gas number v and angular frequency
(2) In solid but not gas
(w) is :-
(3) Neither solid nor gas
(4) None

Q.42 If at a place the speed of a (1) (2)

sound wave of frequency 300 Hz is
V, the speed of another wave of
frequency 150 Hz at the same place
will be :-
(3) (4)
(1) V (2) V/2
(3) 2V (4) 4V

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Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect Question Bank

Q.47 The equation of a wave on a Q.52 If at some point the amplitude

string of linear density 0.04 kg m–1 of the sound becomes double and
is given by y = 0.02(m)sin the frequency becomes one fourth
  t x  then at that point the intensity of
_
2   . sound will be :-
  0.04(s) 0.50(m) 
The tension in the string is :- (1) Become double
(2) Be half
(1) 6.25 N (2) 4.0 N
(3) Become one fourth
(3) 12.5 N (4) 0.5 N
(4) Remain unchanged
Q.48 The speed of sound in air at
constant temperature – Q.53 When sound wave travels
from air to water, which are of the
(1) is proportional to following remain constant :-
the atmospheric pressure
(2) is proportional to the (1) wavelength
square of atmospheric pressure (2) velocity
(3) is propertional to the square (3) frequency
root of atmospheric pressure (4) intensity
(4) does not depend on
atmospheric pressure Q.54 Intensity level of a sound of
intensity I is 30 dB. The ratio I/I0 is
Q.49 Due to propagation of (I0 is the threshold of hearing)
longitudinal wave in a medium the
following quantities also propagate (1) 1000 (2) 3000
in the same direction :- (3) 300 (4) 30

(1) Energy, Momentum and Mass Q.55 At a particle two simple

(2) Energy harmonic motion are acting along
(3) Energy and Mass the same direction. These are y1 =
(4) Energy and a1 sin t and y2 = a2 sin (t + ).
Linear Momentum The resultant motion is also a
simple harmonic motion whose
Q.50 The waves produced by a amplitude will be :-
motorboat sailing on water are –

(1) Transverse (2) Longitudinal (1) a12 + a22 + 2a1a2Cosj

(3) Longitudinal and Transverse (2) a12 + a22 + 2a1a2Cosj
(4) Stationary
(3) a2 + a2 _ 2a a Cosj
1 2 1 2
Q.51 At the room temperature the (4) a + a _ 2a1a2Cosj
2
1
2
2
velocity of sound in O2 gas is V.
Then in mixture of H2 and O2 gas
Q.56 Velocity of sound in medium is
the speed of sound at same
V. If the density of the medium is
temperature.
doubled, what will be the new
(1) will be less than V velocity of sound ?
(2) will be more than V
(3) will be equal to V (1) 2V (2) V
(4) nothing can be said (3) V / 2 (4) 2V
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Q.57 The velocities of sound at the Q.62 Intensities ratio of two waves
same pressure in two monatomic are 9:1 then the ratio of their
gases of densities 1 and 2 are v1 maximum and minimum intensities
and v2 respectively. will be :-
 v
If 1 = 4, then the value of 1 is :-
2 v2 (1) 10 : 8 (2) 7 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
(3) 2 (4) 4 Q.63 When two tuning forks are
sounded together x beats/sec are
Q.58 A sine wave has an amplitude A heard and frequency of A is n. Now
and wavelength . Let V be wave when one prong of B is loaded with
velocity and v be the maximum a little wax, the number of beats
velocity of a particle in medium then. per second decreases. The
frequency of fork B is –

(1) V = v if A =
2 (1) n + x (2) n – x
(2) V can no be equal to v (3) n – x2 (4) n – 2x
3A
(3) V = v if = Q.64 A tuning fork produces 4
2
(4) V = v = if A = 2  beats/sec. with another tuning fork
B of frequency 288 Hz. If fork is
Q.59 Sound wave are not polarized loaded with little wax no. of beats
because :- per sec decreases. The frequency of
the fork A, before loading is –
(1) Their speed is less
(2) A medium is needed (1) 290 Hz (2) 288 Hz
for their propagation (3) 292 Hz (4) 284 Hz
(3) These are longitudinal
(4) Their speed depends on tempeature Q.65 When beats are produced by
two progressive waves of the same
Q.60 Waves from two sources amplitude and of nearly the same
superimpose on each other at a frequency, the ratio of maximum
particular point. Amplitude and intensity to the intensity of one of
frequency of both the waves are the waves will be n. Where n is –
equal. The ratio of intensities when
both waves reach in the same phase (1) 3 (2) 1
and they reach with the phase (3) 4 (4) 2
difference of 90o will be –
Q.66 Two waves having equation
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 x1 = a sin(t + 1) x2 = a sin(t +2)
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 If in the resultant wave the
frequency and amplitude remains
Q.61 Ratio of amplitudes of two
equals to amplitude of
waves is 3:4. The ratio of maximum
superimposing waves. Then phase
and minimum intensity obtained
diff. between them.
from them will be :-

(1) 7 : 1 (2) 49 : 1 (1) /6 (2) 2/3

(3) 1 : 25 (4) 5 : 1 (3) 3/4 (4) /4

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Wave Motion And Doppler's Effect Question Bank

Q.67 Two vibrating tuning forks Q.72 A standing wave having 3

produce progressive waves given nodes and 2 antinodes is formed
by Y1 = 4 sin 500t and Y2 = 2 sin between 1.21 Å distance then the
506t. Number of beats produced wavelength is :-
per minute is :-
(1) 1.21 Å
(1) 3 (2) 360 (2) 2.42 Å
(3) 180 (4) 60 (3) 0.605 Å
(4) 4.84 Å
Q.68 The speed of transverse
waves in a stretched string is 700 Q.73 If vibrations of a string are to
cm/s. If the string is 2 m long, the be increased to a factor of two,
frequency with which it resonantes then tension in the string must be
in fundamental mode is :- made :-

(1) (7/2) Hz (2) (7/4) Hz (1) half (2) thrice

(3) (14) Hz (4) (2/7) Hz (3) four times (4) eight times

Q.69 A stretched string is vibrating Q.74 In a sonometer wire, the

according to the equation y = tension is maintained by
5sin(x/2)cos4t, where y and a suspending a mass M from free end
are in cm and t is in sec. The of wire. The fundamental frequency
distance between two consecutive of the wire is N Hz. If the
nodes on the strings is :- suspended mass is completely
immerged in water the
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm fundamental frequency will –
(3) 8 cm (4) 16 cm
(1) Increases
Q.70 Stationary wave is (2) constant
represented by Y = A sin (100 t) (3) decrease
cos (0.01 x) where y and A are in (4) can't say
mm, t in sec and x in m. The
velocity of the wave :- Q.75 The tension in a piano wire is
10N. What should be the tension in
(1) 1 m/s (2) 102 m/s the wire to produce a note of
double the frequency ?
(3) 104 m/s (4) zero
(1) 10N (2) 20N
Q.71 A sonometer wire, with a
(3) 40N (4) 80N
suspended mass of M = 1kg., is in
resonance with a given tuning fork.
Q.76 A string in a musical
The apparatus is taken to moon
instrument is 50 cm long and its
where the acceleration due to
fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If
gravity 1/6 that of earth. To obtain
a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be
resonance on the moon, the value
produced, then required length of
of M should be –
string is :-
(1) 1kg (2) 6kg
(1) 62.5 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 6kg (4) 36kg (3) 40 cm (4) 37.5

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Q.77 Given equation is related to Q.78 An empty vessel is partially

 2  filled with water the frequency of
y = cos  x  cos(2t) –
   vibration of air column in the vessel

(1) Transverse progressive (1) Decreases

(2) Longitudinal progressive (2) Increases
(3) Longitudinal stationary wave (3) Depends On The
(4) Transverse stationary wave x Purity Of Water
(4) Remains The Same

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 Wave Optics Question Bank

Q.1 In a double slit experiment, Q.5 In Young's double slit

when light of wavelength 400 nm experiment the separation d
was used, the angular width of the between the slits is 2 mm, the
first minima formed on a screen wavelength of the light used is
placed 1m away, was found to be 5896 Å and distance D between the
0.2°. What will be the angular screen and slits is 100 cm. It is
width of the first minima, if the found that the angular width of the
entire experimental apparatus is fringes is 0.20°. To increase the
immersed in water (water = 4/3) – fringe angular width to 0.21° (with
same  and D) the separation
(1) 0.266° (2) 0.15° between the slits needs to be
(3) 0.05° (4) 0.1° changed to :-
Q.2 In a Young's double slit
(1) 1.8 mm (2) 1.9 mm
experiment if there is no initial phase
difference between the light from the (3) 2.1 mm (4) 1.7 mm
two slits, a point on the screen
corresponding to the fifth minimum Q.6 An astronomical refracting
has path difference. telescope will have large angular
magnification and high angular
    resolution, when it has an objective
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 11
2 2 2 2 lens of :-

Q.3 Angular width of the central (1) Small focal length

maxima in the Fraunhofer diffraction and large diameter
for  = 6000 Å is 0. When the same
(2) Large focal length
slit is illuminated by another
and small diameter
monochromatic light, the angular
(3) Large focal length
width decreases by 30%. The
and large diameter
wavelength of this light is.
(4) Small focal length
(1) 1800 Å (2) 4200 Å and small diameter
(3) 6000 Å (4) 420 Å
Q.7 The ratio of resolving powers of
Q.4 Unpolarised light is incident from an optical microscope for two
air on a plane surface of a material of wavelengths 1 = 4000 Å and 2 =
refractive index ‘'. At a particular 6000 Å is :-
angle of incidence 'i', it is found that
the reflected and refracted rays are (1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
perpendicular to each other. Which (3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27
of the following options is correct for
this situation ?
Q.8 Young's double slit experiment
(1) Reflected light is polarised is first performed in air and then in
with its electric vector parallel a medium other than air. It is found
to the plane of incidence that 8th bright fringe in the
(2) Reflected light is polarised medium lies where 5th dark fringe
with its electric vector lies in air. The refractive index of
perpendicular to the the medium is nearly :-
plane of incidence
_ 1 _ 1 (1) 1.59 (2) 1.69
(3) i = sin 1   (4) i = tan 1   (3) 1.78 (4) 1.25
 
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Q.9 Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are Q.13 A linear aperture whose width
placed with their axis perpendicular is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in
to each other. Unpolarised light l0 is front of a lens of focal length 60
incident on P1. A third Polaroid P3 is cm. The aperture is illuminated
kept in between P1 and P2 such that normally by a parallel beam of
its axis makes an angle 45° with wavelength 5 × 10–5 cm. The
that of P1. The intensity of distance of the first dark band of
transmitted light through P2 is :- the diffraction pattern from the
centre of the screen is :–
(1) I0 /4 (2) I0 /8
(3) I0 /16 (4) I0 /2 (1) 0.20 cm (2) 0.15 cm
(3) 0.10 cm (4) 0.25 cm
Q.10 In a diffraction pattern due to
a single slit of width 'a', the first Q.14 In a double slit experiment,
minimum is observed at an angle the two slits are 1 mm apart and
30° when light of wavelength 5000 the screen is placed 1 m away. A
Å is incident on the slit. The first monochromatic light of wavelength
secondary maximum is observed at 500 nm is used. What will be the
an angle of – width of each slit for obtaining ten
maxima of double slit within the
_ 1 _ 2 central maxima of single slit
(1) sin 1   (2) sin 1  
4 3 pattern ?
_ 1 _ 3
(3) sin 1   (4) sin 1   (1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.5 mm
2 4
(3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.2 mm
Q.11 The intensity at the maximum
Q.15 For a parallel beam of
in a Young's double slit experiment
monochromatic light of wavelength
is l0. Distance between two slits is d
‘', diffraction is produced by a
= 5, where  is the wavelength of
single slit whose width 'a' is of the
light used in the experiment. What
order of the wavelength of the
will be the intensity in front of one
light. If 'D' is the distance of the
of the slits on the screen placed at
screen from the slit, the width of
a distance D = 10 d ?
the central maxima will be –
(1) l0 (2) l0/4
(3) 3/4 l0 (4) l0/2 (1) D/a (2) Da/
(3) 2Da/ (4) 2D/a
Q.12 The interference pattern is
obtained with two coherent light Q.16 At the first minimum adjacent
sources of intensity ratio n. In the to the central maximum of a single-
interference pattern, the ratio slit diffraction pattern the phase
Imax _ Imin difference between the Huygen's
will be :- wavelet from the edge of the slit
Imax + Imin
and the wavelet from the mid point
of the slit is :-
n 2 n
(1) (2)
(n + 1)2 (n + 1)2 (1) (/8)radian
n 2 n (2) (/4)radian
(3) (4) (3) (/2)radian (4)  radian
(n+1) (n + 1)
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Q.17 Two slits in Young's Q.21 A parallel beam of fast moving

experiment have widths in the ratio electrons is incident normally on a
1: 25. The ratio of intensity at the narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is
maxima and minima in the placed at a large distance from the
interference pattern, Imax / Imin is :- slit. If the speed of the electrons is
increased, which of the following
(1) 4/9 statements is correct ?
(2) 9/4
(3) 121/49 (1) The angular width of central
(4) 49/121 maximum will be unaffacted .
(2) Diffraction pattern is not observed
Q.18 In the Young's double-slit on the screen in the case of electrons.
experiment, the intensity of light at (3) The angular width of the
a point on the screen where the central maximum of the
path difference is  is K, ( being diffraction pattern will increase.
the wave length of light used). The (4) The angular width of the
intensity at a point where the path central maximum will decrease.
difference is /4, will be :-
Q.22 Which of the following
(1) K (2) K/4 phenomenon can not be explained
(3) K/2 (4) Zero by the Huygen’s theory –

Q.19 A beam of light of  = 600 nm (1) Refraction (2) Reflection

from a distant source falls on a (3) Diffraction (4) Polarization
single slit 1 mm wide and the
resulting diffraction pattern is Q.23 Huygen’s principle is
observed on a screen 2 m away. applicable to –
The distance between first dark
fringes on either side of the central (1) Only light waves
bright fringe is :- (2) Only sound waves
(3) Only mechanical waves
(1) 1.2 cm (2) 1.2 mm (4) For all the above waves
(3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm
Q.24 According to huygen’s theory
Q.20 In Young's double slit of secondary wavelets, following
experiment, the slits are 2mm apart can be explained –
and are illuminated by photons of
two wavelengths 1 = 12000Å and (1) Propagation of light in medium
2 = 10000Å. At what minimum (2) Reflection of light
distance from the common central (3) Refraction of light
bright fringe on the screen 2m from (4) All of the above
the slit will a bright fringe from one
interference pattern coincide with a Q.25 Huygen’s theory of secondary
bright fringe from the other ? waves can be used to find –

(1) 3 mm (1) Velocity of light

(2) 8 mm (2) The wavelength of light
(3) 6 mm (3) Wave front gemotrically
(4) 4 mm (4) Magnifying power of microscope

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Q.26 The main drawback of Q.31 Which of following nature of

huygen’s theory was – light waves is supported by the
phenomenon of interference :-
(1) Failure in explanation of
rectilinear propagation of light (1) longitudinal (2) transverse
(2) Failure of explain the (3) both transverse
spectrum of white light and longitudinal
(3) Failure to explain the (4) None of the above
formation of newton’s rings
(4) A failure of experimental Q.32 For distinct interference
verification of ether medium pattern to be observed, necessary
condition is that ratio of intensity of
Q.27 Light has a wave nature, light emission by both the sources
because – should be :-

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) The light travel in a straight line
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(2) Light exhibits phenomenon
phenomenon of reflection and refraction Q.33 The phase difference
(3) Light exhibits phenomenon corresponding to path difference of
of interference x is :-
(4) Light exhibits phenomenon
of photo electric effect (1) 2x/ (2) 2/x
(3) x/ (4) /x
Q.28 Wave nature of light is
verified by – Q.34 The coherent source of light
produces constructive interference
(1) Interference when phase difference between
(2) Photo electric effect them is :-
(3) Reflection
(4) Refraction (1)  (2) 1/2
(3) 3/2 (4) 2
Q.29 The energy in the
phenomenon of interference :- Q.35 Phenomenon of interference is
not observed by two sodium lamps
(1) is conserved, gets redistributed of same power. It is because both
(2) is equal at every point waves have :-
(3) is destroyed in
(1) not constant phase difference
regions of dark fringes
(2) zero phase difference
(4) is created at the
(3) different intensity
place of bright fringes
(4) different frequencies
Q.30 The resultant amplitude in Q.36 Coherent sources can be
interference with two coherent obtained :-
sources depends upon :-
(1) only by division of wave front
(1) only amplitude (2) only by division of amplitude
(2) only phase difference (3) both by division of
(3) on both the above amplitude and wave front
(4) none of the above (4) none of the above

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Q.37 In an interference of light Q.42 Ratio of intensity of two

derived from two slit apertures, if waves is 25 : 1. If interference
at some point on the screen, yellow occurs, then ratio of maximum and
light has a path difference of 3/2 , minimum intensity should be :-
then the fringe at that point will be.
(1) 25 : 1
(1) yellow in color (2) 5:1
(2) white in color (3) 9:4
(3) Dark (4) bright (4) 4:9

Q.38 Two beams of light having Q.43 The intensity of two waves is
intensities I and 4I interfere to 2 and 3 unit, then average intensity
produce a fringe pattern on a of light in the overlapping region
screen. The phase difference will have the value :-
between the beam is /2 at point A
and 2 at point B. Then find out the (1) 2.5 (2) 6
difference between the resultant (3) 5 (4) 13
intensities at A and B.
Q.44 The light waves from two
(1) 2I (2) 5I independent monochromatic light
(3) I (4) 4I sources are given by – y1 = 2sin (t
– kx) and y2 = 3sin (t – kx) then
Q.39 Amplitude of waves observed the following statement is correct –
by two light sources of same wave
length are a and 2a and have a (1) Both the waves are coherent
phase difference of  between (2) Both the waves are incoherent
them. Then minimum intensity of (3) Both the waves have
light will be proportional to – different time periods
(4) None of the above
(1) 0 (2) 5a2
(3) a2 (4) 9a2 Q.45 The phenomenon of
interference is shown by :-
Q.40 If the intensity of the waves
observed by two coherent sources (1) Longitudinal mechanical waves only
is I. Then the intensity of resultant (2) Transverse mechanical waves only
wave in constructive interference (3) Electromagnetic
will be :- waves only
(4) All the above
(1) 2I (2) 4I type of waves
(3) I (4) None of the above
Q.46 For the sustained interference
Q.41 If intensity of each of the two of light, the necessary condition is
waves is I and they are having that the two sources should :-
phase difference of 120o, when the
waves are superimposed, then the (1) Have constant
resultant intensity will be :- phase difference
(2) Be narrow
(1) I (2) 2I (3) Be close to each other
(3) I/2 (4) 4I (4) Of same amplitude

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Q.47 If ratio of amplitude of two Q.52 Two coherent sources of

interfering source is 3 : 5. Then different intensities send waves
ratio of intensity of maxima and which interfere. If the ratio of
minima in interference pattern will maximum and minimum intensity in
be :- the interference pattern is 25 then
find ratio of intensities of sources :-
(1) 25 : 16 (2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1 (4) 25 : 9 (1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 25 : 16
Q.48 Two coherent light beams of
intensity I and 4I are superposed. Q.53 What is the path difference of
The maximum and minimum destructive interference :-
possible intensities in the resulting
(1) n (2) n(+ 1)
beam are :- (2n + 1) (n + 1)
(3) (4)
2 2
(1) 5I and 3I
(2) 5I and I Q.54 If an interference pattern
(3) 9I and 3I have maximum and minimum
(4) 9I and I intensities in 36 : 1 ratio then what
will be the ratio of amplitudes :-
Q.49 Two coherent sources of
intensities I1 and I2 produce an (1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 4
interference pattern. The maximum (3) 4 : 7 (4) 7 : 5
intensity in the interference pattern
will be :- Q.55 When a thin transparent plate
of thickness t and refractive index 
(1) I1 + I2 is placed in the path of one of the
(2) I12 + I22 two interfering waves of light, then
the path difference changes by :-
(3) (I2 + I2)2
 
2
(4) I1 + l2 (1) ( + 1) t (2) ( – 1)t
( + 1) ( _ 1)
(3) (4)
t t
Q.50 Two wave are represented by
the equations and y1 = a sin t . Q.56 Due to effect of interference,
The first wave : y2 = a cos t – floating oil layer in water is visible
colored, due to observation of this
(1) Leads the second by  event the thickness of oil layer
(2) Leads the second by  should be –
(3) Leads the second by /2
(4) Lags the second by /2 (1) 10 nm (2) 0.1 m
(3) 1 mm (4) 10 mm
Q.51 The resultant amplitude of a
vibrating particle by the super Q.57 If intensity ratio of two
position of the two waves y1 = a sin interfering waves is 9 : 1 then ratio
(t + /3) and y2 = a sin t is – of maximum to minimum amplitude
of resultant wave is :-
(1) A (2) 2a (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 2a (4) 3a (3) 1 : 3 (4) 5 : 2

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Q.58 For coherent sources which is Q.64 Young's experiment proves

essential :- that which of the following fact –

(1) color same (1)  = constant (1) Light is made up of particles

(3) Frequency different (2) Light is made up of waves
(4) Amplitude same (3) Light is made up of
neither waves nor particles
Q.59 When exposed to sunlight, (4) Fringe width doesn't
thin films of oil on water often depend upon the
exhibit brilliant colors due to the spacing between slits.
phenomenon of –
Q.65 Which of the following
(1) interference (2) diffraction statement is true, in Young's
(3) Dispersion (4) polarization experiment, separation between
the slits is gradually increased :-
I1 9 I
Q.60 If = then max = ?
I2 1 Imin (1) Fringe width increases
and fringes disappear
(1) 100 : 64 (2) 64 : 100 (2) Fringe width decreases
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 and fringes disappear
(3) Fringes become blurred
Q.61 Soap bubble appears colored (4) Fringe width remains
due to the phenomenon of :- constant and fringes
are more bright
(1) Total internal reflection
(2) Interference by division of amplitude Q.66 In Young's double slit
(3) Interference by experiment :-
division of wave front
(4) Diffraction of light
(1) Only interference occurs
(2) Only diffraction occurs
Q.62 Two coherent light sources
(3) Both interference
emit light of the –
and diffraction occurs
(1) same intensity (4) None of the above
(2) different frequency
(3) constant phase difference Q.67 In Young's double slit
but different wavelength experiment, one of the slits is so
(4) same frequency having painted that intensity of light
constant phase difference emitted from it is half of that of the
light emitted from other slit. Then –
Q.63 In Young’s experiment, if the
amplitude of interfering waves are (1) Fringe system will disappear
unequal then the :- (2) Bright fringes will become brighter
and dark fringes will be darker
(1) contrast in the fringes decrease (3) Both bright and dark
(2) contrast in the fringes increase fringes will become darker
(3) number of fringes will increase (4) Dark fringes will become
(4) number of fringes less dark and bright fringes
will decrease will become less bright.

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Q.68 In white light interference, Q.73 In Young's double slit

nearest to the central (bright) experiment, the two slits act as
fringe, will have which of the coherent sources of equal
following colour. amplitude A and wavelength . In
another experiment with the same
(1) Violet (2) Yellow
set up the two slits are sources of
(3) Red (4) Green
equal amplitude A and wavelength
Q.69 In Young's double slit  but are incoherent. The ratio of
experiment, wavelength of light is the intensity of light at the mid-
6000 Å. Then the phase difference point of the screen in the first case
between the light waves reaching to that in the second case is :-
the third bright fringe from the
central fringe will be :- (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) None of the above
(1) Zero (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 Q.74 In Young's double slit
Q.70 If intensity of each wave in experiment, if the width of the slits
the observed interference pattern are in the ratio 4 : 9 the ratio of the
in Young's double slit experiment is intensity of maxima to the intensity
I0. then for some point P where the at minima will be :-
phase difference is , intensity I
(1) 169 : 25 (2) 81 : 16
will be :-
(3) 25 : 1 (4) 9 : 4
(1) I = I0 cos (2) I = I0 cos2
(3) I = I0 (1+cos) Q.75 In an interference
(4) I = 2I0 (1+cos) experiment, the spacing between
successive maxima or minima is :-
Q.71 In Young's double slit
experiment, bright fringes are of :- (1) d/D (2) D/d
(1) Equal widths and unequal intensities (3) dD/ (4) d/4D
(2) Unequal widths and equal intensities
Q.76 Young's experiment is
(3) Equal widths and
performed in air and then
equal intensities
performed in water, the fringe
(4) Unequal widths and
width :-
unequal intensities
Q.72 In Young's experiment, (1) Will remain same
monochromatic light through a (2) Will decrease
single slit S is used to illuminate (3) Will increase
the two slits S1 and S2. Interference (4) Will be infinite
fringes are obtained on a screen.
The fringe width is found to be w. Q.77 In Young's experiment, one
Now a thin sheet of mica (thickness slit is covered with a blue filter and
t and refractive index ) is placed the other with a yellow filter. Then
near and in front of one of the two the interference pattern :-
slits. Now the fringe width is found
to be w', then :- (1) Will be blue
(2) Will be yellow
(1) w’ = w/ (2) w’ = w (3) Will be green
(3) w’ = ( - 1) tw (4) w’ = w (4) Will not be formed

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Q.78 In Young's double slit Q.82 The central fringe of

experiment, a mica sheet of thickness interference pattern produced by
t and refractive index  is introduced light of wavelength 6000Å is found
in the path of ray from the first to shift to the position of 4th bright
source S1. By how much distance the fringe, after a glass plate of  = 1.5
fringe pattern will be displaced :- is introduced. The thickness of the
glass plate is :-
(1) d/D ( – 1)t (2) D/d ( – 1)t
(3) d/( – 1)D (4) D/d ( – 1) (1) 4.8 m
(2) 8.23 m
Q.79 In Young's experiment, light of (3) 14.98 m
wavelength 6000Å is used to produce (4) 3.78 m
fringes of width 0.8 mm at a distance
of 2.5 m. If the whole experiment is Q.83 In a Young's
deep in a liquid of refractive index double slit experiment,
1.6, then fringe width will be :- a slab of thickness 1.2
m and refractive
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 0.6 mm
index 1.5 is placed in
(3) 0.4 mm (4) 0.2 mm front of one slit and
another slab of
Q.80 If a transparent medium of thickness t and refractive index 2.5
refractive index  = 1.5 and is placed in front of the second slit.
thickness t = 2.5 × 10–5 m is inserted If the position of the central fringe
in front of the slits of Young's Double remains unaltered, then the
slit experiment, how much will be thickness t is –
the shift in the interference pattern ?
The distance between the slits is 0.5 (1) 0.4 m (2) 0.8 m
mm and that between slits and
screen is 100 cm :– (3) 1.2 m (4) 7 m

(1) 5 cm (2) 2.5 cm Q.84 In Y.D.S.E. the fringe width is

(3) 0.25 cm (4) 0.1 cm 0.2 mm. If wavelength of light is
increase by 10% and separation
Q.81 In Young's between the slits is increased by
experiment, 10% then fringe width will be :-
monochromatic
light is use to (1) 0.20 mm
illuminate the (2) 0.165 mm
two slits A and B. (3) 0.401 mm
Interference fringes are observed (4) 0.242 mm
on a screen placed in front of the
slits. Now if a thin glass plate is Q.85 A very thin transparent film of
placed normally in the path of the soap solution (thickness   0) is
beam coming from the slit then. seen under reflection of white light.
Then the colour of the film appear
(1) The fringes will disappear to be :-
(2) The fringe width will decrease
(3) The fringe width will increase (1) Blue (2) Black
(4) There will be no
change in the fringe width (3) Red (4) Yellow

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Q.86 In Young's double slit Q.91 A double slit experiment is

experiment, if monochromatic light performed with light of wavelength
is replaced by white light :- 500 nm. A thin film of thickness
2m and refractive index 1.5 is
(1) All bright fringes become white introduced in the path of the upper
(2) All bright fringes have coloures beam. The location of the central
between violet and red maximum will :-
(3) Only the central fringe is white,
all other fringes are coloured (1) Remain unshifted
(4) No fringes are observed (2) Shift downward by
nearly two fringes
Q.87 The fringe width in Young's (3) Shift upward by nearly two fringes
double slit experiment increases (4) Shift downward by 10 fringes
when :-
Q.92 In YDSE experiment, when
(1) Wavelength increases two light waves make third minima,
(2) Distance between the slits increases then they have :-
(3) Distance between the
source and screen decreases (1) Phase difference of 3
(4) Frequency of incident (2) Phase difference of 5/2
light increases (3) Path difference of 3
(4) Path difference of 5/2
Q.88 Young's double slit
experiment is performed with light Q.93 A monochromatic beam of
of wavelength 550 nm. The light is used for the formation of
separation between the slits is 1.10 fringes on the screen by
mm and screen is placed at illuminating the two slits in the
distance of 1m. What is the Young's double slit interference
distance between the consecutive experiment. When a thin film of
bright or dark fringes. mica is interposed in the path of
one of the interfering beams then :-
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 1.0 mm
(3) 0.5 mm (4) None of these (1) The fringe width increases
(2) The fringe width decreases
Q.89 In the Young's double slit (3) The fringe width remains the
experiment, for which colour the same but the pattern shifts
fringe width is least ? (4) The fringe
pattern disappears
(1) Red (2) Green
(3) Blue (4) Yellow Q.94 In an interference experiment,
third bright fringe is obtained at a
Q.90 If the sodium light in Young's point on the screen with a light of
double slit experiment is replaced 700 nm. What should be the
by red light, the fringe width will :- wavelength of the light in order to
obtain 5th bright fringe at the same
(1) Decrease point ?
(2) Increase
(3) Remain unaffected (1) 500 nm (2) 630 nm
(4) First increase, then decrease (3) 750 nm (4) 420 nm

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Q.95 In a double slit experiment if Q.100 Phenomenon of diffraction

light of wavelength 5000 Å is used occurs :-
then fringe width of 1 mm is
obtained. If now light of wavelength (1) Only in case of light
6000 Å is used without altering the and sound waves
system then new fringe width will (2) For all kinds of waves
be :- (3) For electro-magnetic waves
and not for matter waves
(1) 1 mm (2) 0.5 mm (4) For light waves but not
(3) 1.2 mm (4) 1.5 mm is case of X-rays

Q.96 Monochromatic green light Q.101 Which of the following ray

has wavelength 5 × 10–7 m. The gives more distinct diffraction :-
separation between slits is 1 mm.
The fringe width of interference (1) X-ray
pattern obtained on screen at a (2) Light ray
distance of 2 meter is :– (4) -ray
(3) Radio wave
(1) 1 mm (2) 0.5 mm
(3) 2 mm (4) 0.1 mm Q.102 All fringes of diffraction are
of :-
Q.97 In Young's double slit
experiment when wavelength of (1) The same intensity
700 nm is used then fringe width of (2) Unequal width
0.7 mm is obtained. If wavelength (3) The same width
of 500nm is used then what is the (4) Full darkness
fringe width ?
Q.103 What happens, when the
(1) 0.35 mm (2) 0.5 mm width of the slit aperture is
(3) 3.5 mm (4) 5 mm increased in an experiment of
single slit diffraction experiment :-
Q.98 What will be the effect on
fringe width, when distance (1) spread of diffraction
between slits become doubled – region is increased
(2) spread of diffraction
(1) 1/2 times region is decreased
(2) 2 times (3) spread of diffraction region
(3) 1/4 times will be decreased and
(4) Unchanged mid-band becomes narrow
(4) None of the above
Q.99 The conversation going on, in
some room, can be heared by the Q.104 Light waves do not travels
person outside the room. The strictly in straight line, can be best
reason for it is – explained by :-

(1) Interference of sound (1) Particle nature of light

(2) Reflection of sound (2) Diffraction
(3) Diffraction of sound (3) Interference
(4) Refraction of sound (4) Polarisation

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Q.105 In the diffraction pattern of a Q.110 For Fraunhofer single slit

single slit aperture, the width of diffraction :-
the central fringe compared to
widths of the other fringes, is :- (1) Width of central maxima
is proportional to 
(1) Equal (2) On increasing the slit width, the
(2) Less width of central maxima decreases
(3) Little more (3) On making the slit
(4) Double width a = , central fringe
spreads in the range ± 900
Q.106 Diffracted fringes obtained (4) All of the above are correct
from the slit aperture are of :-
Q.111 In a Fraunhofer's diffraction
(1) Same width by a slit, if slit width is a, wave
(2) Different width length , focal length of lens is f,
(3) Uniform intensity linear width of central maxima is :-
(4) Non-uniform width
& non uniform intensity (1) f/a (2) fa/
(3) 2f/a (4) f/2a
Q.107 Central fringe obtained in
diffraction pattern due to a single Q.112 In a Fraunhofer's diffraction
slit :- obtained by a single slit aperture,
the value of path difference for nth
(1) Is of minimum intensity order of minima is :-
(2) Is of maximum intensity
(1) n (2) 2n
(3) Intensity does not
(3) (2n – 1)/2 (4) (2n – 1)
depend upon slit width
(4) None of the above
Q.113 A light source of 5000Å wave
length produces a single slit
Q.108 In a single slit diffraction
diffraction. The first minima in
pattern, if the light source is used
diffraction pattern is seen, at a
of less wave length than previous
distance of 5mm from central
one. Then width of the central
maxima. The distance between
fringe will be :-
screen and slit is 2 metre. The
width of slit in mm will be –
(1) Less
(2) Increase (1) 0.1 (2) 0.4
(3) Unchanged (3) 0.2 (4) 2
(4) None of the above
Q.114 A plane wave front of wave
Q.109 In the laboratory, diffraction length 6000 Å is incident upon a slit
of light by a single slit is being of 0.2mm width, which enables
observed. If slit is made slightly Fraunhofer's diffraction pattern to
narrow, then diffraction pattern will be obtained on a screen 2 metre
away. Width of the central maxima
(1) Be more spreaded than before in mm will be :-
(2) Be less spreaded than before
(3) Be spreaded as before (1) 10 (2) 12
(4) Be disappeared (3) 88 (4) 2

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Q.115 The waves of 600m wave Q.121 Angular width () of central
length are incident normally on a maximum of a diffraction pattern of
slit of 1.2mm width. The value of a single slit does not depend upon :
diffraction angle corresponding to
the first minima will be (in radian) : (1) Distance between slit and source
(2) Wavelength of light used
(1) /2 (2) /6 (3) Width of the slit
(4) Frequency of light used
(3) /3 (4) /4
Q.122 Red light is generally used to
Q.116 In Fraunhoffer diffraction the observe diffraction pattern from
centre of diffraction image is – single slit. If green light is used
instead of red light, then diffraction
(1) Always bright pattern :-
(2) Always dark
(3) Sometimes bright (1) Will be more clear
and sometimes dark (2) Will be contract
(4) Bright for large wavelength and (3) Will be expanded
dark for low wavelength (4) Will not visualize

Q.123 Diffraction of sound waves is

Q.117 A single slit of width d is more evident than light waves in
placed in the path of beam of daily life because :-
wavelength . The angular width of
the principal maximum obtained is : (1) Sound > light (2) Sound = light
(3) Sound < light
(1) d/ (2) /d (4) Sound waves are longitudinal
(3) 2/d (4) 2d/ but light waves are transverse.

Q.124 In single slit Fraunhoffer

Q.118 Bending of light waves at the diffraction which type of wave front
sharp edges of an opaque obstacle is required –
is known as –
(1) Cylindrical (2) Spherical
(1) Refraction (2) Reflection (3) Elliptical (4) Plane
(3) Diffraction (4) Interference
Q.125 If in Fraunhofer diffraction
Q.119 Diffraction and interference due to a single slit, the slit width is
of light refers to :- increased, then the width of the
central maximum will.
(1) Quantum nature of light
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(2) Wave nature of light
(3) Not change
(3) Transverse nature of light
(4) Change depends on
(4) Electromagnetic nature of light
the wavelength of light used
Q.120 The phenomenon of Q.126 A polariser is used to :-
diffraction of light was discovered
by :- (1) Reduce intensity of light
(2) Produce polarised light
(1) Huygens (2) Newton (3) Increase intensity of light
(3) Fresnel (4) Grimaldi (4) Produce unpolarised light

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Q.127 Light waves can be polarised Q.133 A ray of light is incident on

as they are :- the surface of a glass plate at an
angle of incidence equal to
(1) Transverse Brewster's angle . If  represents
(2) Of high frequency the refractive index of glass with
(3) Longitudinal respect to air, then the angle
(4) Reflected between reflected and refracted
rays is –
Q.128 Through which character we
can distinguish the light waves (1) 90 +  (2) sin–1 (cos)
from sound waves :- (3) 900
(4) 900 – sin–1 (sin/)
(1) Interference
(2) Refraction Q.134 Refractive index of material
(3) Polarisation is equal to tangent of polarizing
(4) Reflection angle. It is called.

Q.129 Which of following can not (1) Brewster's law

be polarised :- (2) Lambert's law
(3) Malus's law (4) Reflected
(1) Radio waves
(2) Ultraviolet rays Q.135 When unpolarized light beam
(3) Infrared ray is incident from air onto glass (n =
(4) Ultrasonic waves 1.5) at the polarizing angle :–

(1) Reflected beam is 100

Q.130 The transverse nature of
percent polarized
light is shown by.
(2) Reflected and refracted
beams are partially polarized
(1) Interference of light
(3) The reflected and refracted ray
(2) Refraction of light
will not perpendicular to each other
(3) Polarisation of light
(4) All of the above
(4) Dispersion of light
Q.136 When the angle of incidence
Q.131 The angle of polarisation for on a material is 600, the reflected
any medium is 600, what will be light is completely polarized. The
critical angle for this :– velocity of the refracted ray inside
the material is (in ms–1) :–
(1) sin–1 3
(2) tan–1 3 (1) 3 × 108 (2) (3/2) × 108
(3) cos–1 3 (3) 3 × 108 (4) 0.5 × 108
(3) sin–1 1/3
Q.137 A polaroid is placed at 450 to
Q.132 The angle of incidence at an incoming light of intensity I0.
which reflected light is totally Now the intensity of light passing
polarized for reflection from air to through polaroid after polarisation
glass (refractive index n) would be :-

(1) sin–1 (n) (2) sin–1 (1/n) (1) I0 (2) I0/2

(3) tan–1 (1/n) (3) tan–1 (n) (3) I0/4 (4) Zero
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Q.138 Plane polarised light is Q.142 Two coherent sources of

passed through a polaroid. On equal intensities produce a
viewing through the polariod we maximum of 100 units. If the
find that when the polariod is given amplitude of one of the sources is
one complete rotation about the reduced by 20%, then the maximum
direction of the light, one of the intensity produced will be :-
following is observed.
(1) 100 (2) 81
(1) The intensity of light gradually (3) 89 (4) 60
decreases to zero and remains at zero
Q.143 In an interference pattern of
(2) The intensity of light gradually
two waves fringe width is  If the
increases to a maximum and
frequency of source is doubled then
remains at maximum
fringe width will become :-
(3) There is no
change in intensity (1) 1/2  (2) 
(4) The intensity of light is (3) 2  (4) 3/2 
twice maximum and twice zero
Q.144 In an interference pattern
Q.139 Polarised glass is used in sun the (n+4)th blue bright fringe and
glasses because :- nth red bright fringe are formed at
the same spot. If red and blue light
(1) It reduces the light intensity to half have the wavelength of 7800 Å and
on account of polarisation 5200 Å then value of n should be :-
(2) It is fashionable
(3) It has good colour (1) 2 (2) 4
(4) It is cheaper (3) 6 (4) 8

Q.140 When a plane polarised light Q.145 The intensity of the central
is passed through an analyser and fringe obtained in the interference
analyser is rotated from 0 to 900, pattern due to two indentical slit
the intensity of the emerging light : sources is I. When one of the slits
is closed then the intensity at the
(1) Varles between a same point is I0. Then the correct
maximum and minimum relation between I and I0 is –
(2) Becomes zero
(3) Does not vary (1) I = I0 (2) I = 2 I0
(4) Varies between a (3) I = 4 I0 (4) I = I0/4
maximum and zero Q.146 In double slit experiment,
the angular width of the fringes is
Q.141 When an unpolarized light of 0.20o for the sodium light ( =
intensity I0, is incident on a 5890Å). In order to increase the
polarizing sheet, the intensity of angular width of the fringes by
the light which does not get 10%, the necessary change in the
transmitted is :- wavelength is :-
(1) Zero (1) Increase of 589Å
(2) I0 (2) Decrease of 589Å
(3) 1/2 I0 (3) Increase of 6479Å
(4) 1/4 I0 (4) Zero
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Q.147 Direction of the first Q.150 Two waves Y1 = a sin t and

secondary maximum in the Y2 = a sin(t+ ) are producing
Fraunhofer diffraction pattern at a interference, then resultant
single slit is given by (a is the intensity is proportional to :-
width of the slit) :-
(1) acos2/2
 (2) a2cos/2
(1) a sin=
2 (3) a2cos2
3 (4) a2cos2/2
(2) a cos=
2
(3) A sin =  Q.151 Calculate angular width of
3 central maxima if  = 6000 Å, a =
(4) a sin= 18 × 10–5 cm :–
2
 _1  1  o

Q.148 A light has amplitude A and sin  3  = 19.47 

   
angle between analyser and
polariser is 60°. Light is (1) 28.4° (2) 38.94°
transmitted by analyser has (3) 30° (4) 260°
amplitude.
Q.152 In the Young's double slit
A experiment the central maxima is
(1) A 2 (2)
2 observed to be I0. If one of the slits
3A A is covered, then intensity at the
(3) (4) central maxima will become :-
2 2 2
(1) I0/ 2 (2) I0/2
Q.149 Two Nicols are oriented with
their principal planes making an (3) I0/ 4 (4) I0
angle of 60°. The percentage of
incident unpolarized light which Q.153 If diffraction occurs through
passes through the system is :- a single slit then intensity of first
secondary maxima become
(1) 50% ...................... % of central maxima
(2) 100%
(3) 12.5% (1) 4% (2) 25%
(4) 37.5%
(3) 75% (4) 50%

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Current Electricity Question Bank

Q.1 Which of the following acts as a Q.5 The metre bridge shown is in
circuit protection device ? balanced position with P/Q =
1 /  2 . If we now interchange the
(1) Conductor positions of galvanometer and cell,
(2) Inductor will the bridge work ? If yes, what
(3) Switch will be balance condition ?
(4) Fuse

Q.2 Six similar bulbs

are connected as
shown in the figure
with a DC source of
emf E, and zero
internal resistance. P  – 1
The ratio of power (1) Yes, = 2
Q 2 +  1
consumption by the
bulbs when (i) All are glowing and (2) No, no null point
P 
(ii) In the situation when two from (3) Yes, = 2
section A and one from section B Q 1
are glowing, will be :- P 
(4) Yes, = 1
Q 2
(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4 Q.6 A set of 'n' equal resistors, of
(3) 1 : 2 value 'R' each, are connected in
(4) 2 : 1 series to a battery of emf 'E' and
internal resistance 'R'. The current
Q.3 The reading of an ideal drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors
voltmeter in the circuit shown is :- are connected in parallel to the
same battery. Then the current
(1) 1000 drawn from battery becomes 10 I.
The value of 'n' is :-
(2) 300
(3) 180 (1) 10
(2) 11
(4) 2000 (3) 20
(4) 9
Q.4 In the circuits shown below,
the readings of the voltmeters and Q.7 Current sensitivity of a moving
the ammeters will be :- coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and
its voltage sensitivity (angular
deflection per unit voltage applied)
is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is :-

(1) 40 
(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = 12 (2) 25 
(2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
(3) 250 
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
(4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2 (4) 500 
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Q.8 A battery consists of a variable Q.11 A potentiometer is an

number 'n' of identical cells (having accurate and versatile device to
internal resistance 'r' each) which make electrical measurements of
are connected in series. The E.M.F. because the method involves
terminals of the battery are short-
circuited and the current I is (1) Potential gradients
measured. Which of the graphs (2) A condition of no current flow
shows the correct relationship through the galvanometer
between I and n – (3) A combination of cells,
galvanometer and resistances
(4) Cells

(1) (2) Q.12 A potentiometer wire is 100

cm long and a constant potential
difference is maintained across it.
Two cells are connected in series
first to support one another and
then in opposite direction. The
(3) (4)
balance points are obtained at 50
cm and 10 cm from the positive end
of the wire in the two cases. The
ratio of emf's is :-
Q.9 A carbon resistor (47 ± 4.7) k
is to be marked with rings of
(1) 5 : 1 (2) 5 : 4
different colours for its
identification. The colour code (3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
sequence will be :-
Q.13 A filament bulb (500 W, 100
V) is to be used in a 230 V main
(1) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
supply. When a resistance R is
(2) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver connected in series, it works
perfectly and the bulb consumes
(3) Yellow Green
500 W. The value of R is :-
Violet - Gold
(1) 26  (2) 13 
(4) Green - Orange
(3) 230  (4) 46 
- Violet – Gold
Q.14 The potential difference (VA –
Q.10 The resistance of a wire is 'R' VB) between the points A and B in
ohm. If it is melted and stretched the given figure is :–
to 'n' times its original length, its
new resistance will be :-

(1) R/n
(2) n2R (1) +6V
(2) +9V
(3) R/n2
(3) –3V
(4) nR (4) +3V

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Current Electricity Question Bank

Q.15 Two metal wires of identical Q.19 A, B

dimensions are connected in series. and C are
If 1 and 2 are the conductivities of voltmeters
the metal wires respectively, the of resistance
effective conductivity of the R, 1.5 R and
combination is :- 3R respectively as shown in the
figure. When some potential
12 212 difference is applied between X and
(1) (2)
1 + 2 1 + 2 Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB
 + 2  + 2 and VC respectively. Then :-
(3) 1 (4) 1
212 12 (1) VA ≠ VB = VC
(2) VA = VB ≠ VC
Q.16 A potentiometer wire of (3) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
length L and resistance r is (4) VA = VB = VC
connected in series with a battery
of e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An Q.20 A potentiometer wire has
unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length 4 m and resistance 8 . The
length  of the potentiometer wire. resistance that must be connected
The e.m.f. E will be given by :- in series with the wire and an
accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to
LE0 r LE0 r get a potential gradient 1 mV per
(1) (2) cm on the wire is :-
(r + r1 )  r1
E0r  E0  (1) 40  (2) 44 
(3) (4) (3) 48  (4) 32 
(r + r1 ) L L
Q.21 The
Q.17 Across a metallic conductor of resistance in
non-uniform cross section a the two arms
constant potential difference is of a meter
applied. The quantity which bridge are 5 
remains constant along the and R ,
conductor is :- respectively. When the resistance R
is shunted with an equal resistance,
(1) Current the new balance point is at 1.6  1.
(2) Drift velocity
The resistance 'R' is :-
(3) Electric field
(4) Current density (1) 10  (2) 15 
(3) 20  (4) 25 
Q.18 A circuit contains an ammeter,
a battery of 30 V and a resistance Q.22 Two cities are 150 km apart.
40.8 ohm all connected in series. If Electric power is sent from one city
the ammeter has a coil of to another city through copper
resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of wires. The fall of potential per km
20 ohm, the reading in the is 8 volts and the average
ammeter will be :- resistance per km is 0.5 . the
power loss in the wires is :-
(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A
(1) 19.2 W (2) 19.2 kW
(3) 0.25 A (4) 2 A (3) 19.2 J (4) 12.2 kW

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Q.23 In an ammeter 0.2% of main Q.27 The internal resistance of a

current passes through the 2.1 V cell which gives a current of
galvanometer. If resistance of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 
galvanometer is G, then resistance is :-
of ammeter will be :-
(1) 1.0  (2) 0.2 
1 499 (3) 0.5  (4) 0.8 
(1) G (2) G
499 500
1 500 Q.28 In the
(3) G (4) G
500 499 circuit shown
the cells A
Q.24 A potentiometer circuit has and B have
been set up for finding the internal negligible
resistance of a given cell. The main resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500
battery, used across the  and R = 100  the galvanometer
potentiometer wire, has an emf of (G) shows no deflection. The value
2.0 V and a negligible internal of VB is :-
resistance. The potentiometer wire
itself is 4m long, When a resistance (1) 12 V (2) 6 V
R, connected across the given cell, (3) 4 V (4) 2 V
has values of, (i) infinity (ii) 9.5 
The balancing lengths on the Q.29 A ring is made of a wire
potentiometer wire are found to be having a
3 m and 2.85 m respectively. The resistance R0 = 12 . Find the
value of internal resistance of the points A and B as shown in the
cell is :- figure at which a current carrying
conductor should be connected so
(1) 0.25  (2) 0.95  that the resistance R of the sub
(3) 0.5  (4) 0.75  circuit between these points is
equal to 8/3  :-
Q.25 The resistances of the four
arms P,Q, R and S in a Wheatstone 1 3
bridge are 10 ohms, 30 ohms, 30 (1) =
2 8
ohms and 90 ohms, respectively.
The e.m.f. and internal resistance  1
(2) 1 =
of the cell are 7 volts and 5 ohms 2 2
respectively. If the galvanometer  5
(3) 1 =
resistance is 50 ohms, the current 2 8
drawn from the cell will be :-  1
(4) 1 =
2 3
(1) 2.0 A (2) 1.0 A
(3) 0.2 A (4) 0.1 A
Q.30 If voltage across a bulb rated
Q.26 A wire of resistance 4  is 220 volts 100 watts drops by 2.5%
stretched to twice its original of its rated value, the percentage of
length. The resistance of the the rated value by which the power
stretched wire would be :- would decrease is :-

(1) 16  (2) 2  (1) 5% (2) 10%

(3) 4  (4) 8  (3) 20% (4) 2.5%
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Q.31 A milivoltmeter of 25 milivolts Q.35 In the

range is to be converted into an circuit
ammeter of 25 amperes range. The shown in the
value (in ohms) of necessary shunt figure, if the
will be :- potential at
point A is
(1) 1 taken to be
(2) 0.05 zero, the potential at point B is :–
(3) 0.001
(4) 0.01 (1) +1 V
(2) –1 V
Q.32 A cell having an emf e and (3) +2V
internal resistance r is connected (4) –2 V
across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance R is Q.36 If power
increased, the plot of potential dissipated in
difference V across R is given by – the 9 
resistor in the
circuit shown
is 36 Watt, the
(1) (2) potential difference across the 2 
resistor is :-

(1) 4 V (2) 8 V
(3) 10 V (4) 2 V

(3) (4) Q.37 A galvanometer of resistance,

G, is shunted by a resistance S. To
keep the main current in the circuit
Q.33 The power dissipated in the unchanged, the resistance to be put
circuit shown in the figure is 30 in series with the galvanometer is –
watts. The value of R is :-
G S2
(1) (2)
(1) 10  (S + G) (S + G)
(2) 30  SG G2
(3) (4)
(3) 20  (S + G) (S + G)
(4) 15 
Q.38 A galvanometer has a coil of
resistance 100 ohms and gives full
Q.34 A current of 2 A flows through
scale deflection for 30 mA current.
a 2  resistor when connected
If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30
across a battery. The same battery
volt range, the resistance required
supplies a current of 0.5 A when
to be added will be :–
connected across a 9  resistor The
internal resistance of the battery is.
(1) 1000 
(2) 900 
(1) 0.5  (2) 1/3 
(3) 1800 
(3) 1/4  (4) 1  (4) 500 

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Q.39 A Q.42 A wire of

potentiometer resistance 12
circuit is set up as ohms per meter
shown. The is bent to form a
potential complete of circle
gradient, across of radius 10 cm.
the potentiometer The resistance between its two
wire, is k diametrically opposite points, A and
volts/cm and the ammeter, present B as shown in the figure, is –
in the circuit, reads 1.0 A when two
way key is switched off. The (1) 6  (2) 0.6 
balance points, when the key (3) 3  (4) 6 
between the terminals (i) 1 and 2
(ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found Q.43 A galvanometer having a coil
to be at lengths  1 cm and  2 cm resistance of 60  shows full scale
deflection when a current of 1.0 A
respectively. The magnitudes, of passes through it. It can be
the resistors R and X, (in ohms), converted into an ammeter to read
are then, equal to respectively :– currents upto 5.0 A by :-
(1) k  1 and k  2 (1) Putting in parallel a resistance of 15 
(2) k(  2 –  1 ) and k  2 (2) Putting in parallel a
(3) k  1 and k(  2 –  1 ) resistance of 240 
(3) Putting in series a
(4) k(  2 –  1 ) and k  1
resistance of 15 
(4) Putting in series a resistance of 240 
Q.40 Consider the following two
statements :- Q.44 A student measures the
(A) Kirchhoff's junction law follows terminal potential difference (V) of a
from the conservation of charge. cell (of emf  and internal resistance
(B) Kirchhoff's loop law follows r) as a function of the current (I)
from the conservation of energy.
flowing through it. The slope and
Which of the following is correct ?
intercept of the graph between V
and I, then respectively, are –
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(2) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong (1) – and r (2) –r and 
(4) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct (3) – and –r (4) r and –

Q.41 See the Q.45 In the

electrical circuit circuit shown,
shown in this the current
figure. Which of through the 4
the following  resistor is 1
equations is the A when the points P and M are
correct equation for it ? connected to a d.c. voltage source.
The potential difference between
(1) 1 – (i1 + i2) R + i1r1 = 0 the points M and N is :-
(2) 1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1r1 = 0
(3) 2 – i2r2 – 1 – i1r1 = 0 (1) 0.5 volts (2) 3.2 volts
(4) –2 – (i1 + i2) R + i2r2 = 0 (3) 1.5 volts (4) 1.0 volts
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Q.46 A galvanometer of resistance Q.50 Three resistances of values 2

50  is connected to a battery of 3 , 3 and 6 are to be connected to
V along with a resistance of 2950  yield an effective resistance of 4.
in series. A full scale deflection of This can be done by connecting :-
30 divisions is obtained in the
galvanometer. In order to reduce (1) 3  resistance in series with a
this deflection to 20 divisions, the parallel combination of 2 and 6
resistance in series should be – (2) 6  resistance in series with a
parallel combination of 2 and 3
(1) 6050  (3) 2  resistance in series with a
(2) 4450  parallel combination of 3 and 6
(3) 5050  (4) 2  resistance in
(4) 5550  parallel with a parallel
combination of 3 and 6
Q.47 A current of 3 amperes flows
through the 2  resistor shown in Q.51 What will be the equivalent
the circuit. The power dissipated in resistance between the points A
the 5  resistor is :- and D ?

(1) 1 watt (1) 10

(2) 5 watts
(2) 20
(3) 4 watts
(4) 2 watts (3) 30
(4) 40
Q.48 The resistance of an ammeter
is 13  and its scale is graduated
Q.52 In the
for currents upto 100 A. After an
circuit
additional shunt is connected to
shown
this ammeter it becomes possible
here, what
to measure currents upto 750
is the value
amperes by this meter. The value of
of the unknown resistance R so
shunt – resistance is :–
that the total resistance of the
circuit between points 'P' and 'Q' is
(1) 2 k (2) 20 
also equal to R.
(3) 2  (4) 2.0 
(1) 3
Q.49 In the circuit
(2) 39 
shown, if a
(3) 69 
conducting wire is
(4) 10 
connected
between points A
Q.53 The resistance across P and Q
and B. the current
in the given figure is –
in this wire will :–
(1) R/3
(1) Flow from A to B
(2) Flow in the direction which (2) R/2
will be decided by the value of V
(3) 2R
(3) Be zero
(4) Flow from B to A (4) 6R
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Q.54 The resistance of the circuit Q.59 In the arrangement of

between A and B is – resistances shown below, the
effective resistance between points
(1) r A and B is –
(2) 0.5r
(3) 2r (1) 20 
(4) 3r (2) 30 
(3) 90 
Q.55 Thirteen resistances each of (4) 110 
resistance R  are connected in the
circuit as shown in the figure. The Q.60 In the figure
effective resistance between A and the numerical
B is :- values denote
resistances in SI
(1) 4R/3  units. The total
(2) 2R resistance of the
(3) R circuit between a
(4) 2R/3  & b will be :-

Q.56 The total resistance between x (1) 12 ohms (2) 24 ohms

and y in ohms is – (3) 15 ohms (4) 6 ohms

(1) 1 Q.61 Resistors R1 and R2 have an

(2) 4 equivalent resistance of 6 ohms
(3) 4/3  when connected in the circuit
(4) 2/3  shown below. The resistance of R1
could be (in ) :-
Q.57 The resultant resistance of n
wires each of resistance r ohms is (1) 1
R. when they are connected in (2) 5
parallel. When these n resistances (3) 8
are connected in series. the (4) 4
resultant resistance will be –
Q.62 Value of current i in the
2
(1) R/n (2) R/n following circuit is –
(3) nR (4) n2R
(1) 13 A
Q.58 For the (2) 12 A
network of
resistance (3) 9 A
shown in the (4) None of the above
fig. the
equivalent Q.63 The potential difference
resistance of the network between between X and Y in volts is :-
the points A and B is 18 . The
value of unknown resistance R is :- (1) 1
(2) –1
(1) 8  (2) 10  (3) 2
(3) 16  (4) 24  (4) –2
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Q.64 If i = 0.25 A in figure, then Q.68 In the circuit shown in figure,

value of R is – find the current through the branch
BD.
(1) 48 
(1) 1 A
(2) 12 
(2) 5 A
(3) 120  (3) 3 A
(4) 42  (4) 7 A

Q.65 If the ammeter in the given Q.69 If 106 electrons/s are flowing
circuit reads 2 A, the resistance R is through an area of cross section of
10–4 m2 then the current will be :–
(1) 1 ohms
(1) 1.6 × 10–7 A
(2) 2 ohms
(2) 1.6 × 10–13 A
(3) 3 ohms (3) 1 × 10–6 A
(4) 1 × 102 A
(4) 4 ohms
Q.70 The current in a conductor
Q.66 The equivalent resistance and
varies with time t as I = 2t + 3t2 A
potential difference between A and
where I is amperes and t in
B for the circuit are respectively :-
seconds. Electric charge flowing
through a section of the conductor
(1) 4 , 8 V
during t = 2 s to t = 3 s is :-
(2) 8 , 4 V
(1) 10 C (2) 24 C
(3) 2 , 2 V
(3) 33 C (4) 44 C
(4) 16 , 8 V
Q.71 10,000 electrons are passing
Q.67 For
per minute through a tube of radius
the current
1cm. The resulting current is :-
loops
shown in
(1) 10000 A
the figure,
(2) 0.25 × 10–16 A
Kirchhoff's
(3) 10–9 A
loop rule for the loops AHDCBA and
(4) 0.5 × 10–19 A
AHDEFGA yields these equations
respectively.
Q.72 There are 8.4 × 1022 free
electrons per cm3 in copper. The
(1) –30 I1 –41 I3 + 45 = 0
current in the wire is 0.21 A (e =
and –30 I1 + 21 I2 – 80 = 0 1.6 × 10–19 C). Then the drifts
(2) 30 I1 –41 I3 + 45 = 0 velocity of electrons in a copper
and 30 I1 – 21 I2 – 80 = 0 wire of 1 mm2 cross section, will be
(3) 30 I1 –41 I3 – 45 = 0
(1) 2.12 × 10–5 m/s
and –30 I1 + 21 I2 + 80 = 0
(2) 0.78 × 10–5 m/s
(4) –30 I1 –41 I3 – 45 = 0 (3) 1.56 × 10–5 m/s
and –30 I1 + 21 I2 – 80 = 0 (4) None of these
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Q.73 S.I unit of current is :- Q.78 Two wires each of radius of

cross section r but of different
(1) C (2) A materials are connected together
(3) A/s (4) N/s end to end (in series). If the
densities of charge carriers in the
Q.74 When no current flows two wires are in the ratio 1 : 4, the
through a conductor :- drift velocity of electrons in the two
wires will be in the ratio :-
(1) the free electrons do not move
(2) the average speed of a free electron (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
over a large period of time is zero (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(3) the average velocity
of a free electron over a Q.79 A current I flows through a
large period of time is zero uniform wire of diameter d when
(4) the average of square the electron drift velocity is v. The
of velocities of all the free same current will flow through a
electrons at an instant is zero wire of diameter d/2 made of the
same material if the velocity of the
Q.75 There is a current of 40 electrons is –
amperes in a wire of 10–6 m2 area of
cross-section. If the number of free (1) v/4 (2) v/2
electrons per m3 is 1029 , then the (3) 2v (4) 4v
drift velocity will be –
Q.80 A wire has
(1) 1.25 × 103 m/s
a non-uniform
(2) 2.50 × 10–3 m/s
cross-section as
(3) 25.0 × 10–3 m/s
shown in figure.
(4) 25.0 × 10–3 m/s
A steady
current flows through it. The drift
Q.76 The number of free electrons
speed of electrons at points P and Q
per 10 mm of an ordinary copper
is vp and vQ, then :-
wire is about 2 × 1021. The average
drift speed of the electrons is 0.25
(1) Vp = VQ
mm/s The current flowing is :-
(2) Vp < VQ
(1) 0.8 A (2) 8 A (3) Vp > VQ
(3) 80 A (4) 5 A (4) data is insufficient

Q.77 In a Neon discharge tube 2.9 Q.81 The plot

× 1018 Ne+ ions move to the right represents the
each second, while 1.2 × 1018 flow of current
electrons move to the left per through a wire
second; electron charge is 1.6 × for different
10–19 C. The current in the time intervals.
discharge tube is :- The ratio of charges flowing
through the wire corresponding to
(1) A towards right these time intervals is (see figure) :
(2) 0.66 A towards right
(3) 0.66 A towards left (1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 : 3
(4) zero (3) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 : 4

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Q.82 Three copper wires are there Q.86 As the temperature of a

with lengths and cross-sectional metallic resistor is increased, the
 A   product of resistivity and
areas as ( , A) ;  2 ,  and  , 2A 
 2 2  conductivity :-
Resistance.
(1) Increases
(1) minimum for the wire (2) decreases
of cross-sectional are (3) may increase or decrease
(2) minimum for the wire (4) remains constant
of cross-sectional are A
(3) minimum for the wire Q.87 If a wire is stretched, so that
of cross-sectional area 2A its length is 20% more than its
(4) Same for all the three cases. initial length, the percentage
increase in the resistance of the
Q.83 A wire of uniform cross- wire is :-
section A, length l and resistance R
is bent into a complete circle; the (1) 40% (2) 10%
resistance between any two of (3) 44% (4) 25%
diametrically opposite points will
be :- Q.88 The length of a given
cylindrical wire is increased by
(1) R/2 (2) R/4 100%. Due to the consequent
(3) R/8 (4) 4R decrease in diameter the change in
the resistance of the wire will be :-
Q.84 The electric resistance of a
certain wire of iron is R. If its (1) 300% (2) 200%
length and radius both are doubled, (3) 100% (4) 50%
then :-
Q.89 On increasing the
(1) the resistance will be halved temperature, the specific resistance
and the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor
will remain unchanged
(2) the resistance will be (1) both increase
halved and the specific (2) both decrease
resistance will be doubled (3) Increase and decreases respectively
(3) the resistance and the specific (4) decreases and increase respectively
resistance, will both remain unchanged
(4) the resistance will be doubled and Q.90 A
the specific resistance will be halved conductor with
rectangular
Q.85 When a piece of aluminum cross section
wire of finite length is drawn to has dimensions
reduce its diameter to half its (a × 2a × 4a)
original value, its resistance will as shown in figure. Resistance
become :- across AB is x, across CD is y and
across EF is z. Then –
(1) two times (2) four times
(3) eight times (1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z
(4) sixteen times (3) y > x > z (4) x > z > y
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Q.91 Specific resistance of a Q.95 At what temperature will the

conductor increases with :- resistance of a copper wire become
three times its value at 0o C ?
(1) Increase in temperature [Temperature coefficient of
(2) Increase in cross-sectional area resistance for
(3) Increase in cross-sectional copper = 4 × 10–3 per oC] :–
area and decrease in length
(4) Decrease in (1) 400o C (2) 450o C
cross-sectional area (3) 500o C (4) 600o C

Q.92 The temperature coefficient of Q.96 Copper and silicon are cooled
resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per from 300K to 60k; the specific
degree celcius. At 300 K its resistance :-
resistance is 1ohm. The resistance
of the wire will be 2 ohms at a (1) decreases in copper
temperature :- but increase in silicon
(2) increase in copper
(1) 1154 K but decrease in silicon
(2) 1127 K (3) Increase in both
(3) 600 K (4) decreases in both
(4) 1400 K
Q.97 Two resistance R1 and R2 are
Q.93 The current made of different materials. The
voltage graph for temperature coefficient of the
a given metallic material of R1 is  and that of the
conductor at two material of R2 is –. The resistance
different of the series combination of R1 and
temperatures T1 R2 does not change with
and T2 are as temperature, then the ratio of
shown in the figure. Then. resistances of the two wires at 0o C
will be :-
(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 = T2  + 
(1) (2)
(3) nothing can be  _ 
said about T1 and T2 2 + 2 
(4) T1 < T2 (3) (4)
 
Q.94 The effective resistance is
6 Q.98 A metal wire of resistance R is
 , when two wires are joined in cut into three equal pieces which
5
are then connected side by side to
parallel. When one of the wire
form a new wire, the length of
breaks, the effective resistance is 2
which is equal to one third of the
ohms. The resistance if the broken
original length. The resistance of
wire was :-
this new wire is :-
3
(1)  (2) 2 (1) R (2) 3R
5
6 R R
(3)  (4) 3 (3) (4)
5 9 3
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Q.99 If each resistance in the fig. is Q.104 The

of 9  then reading of the ammeter reading of
is :- ammeter is
I1, when only
(1) 5 A S1 is closed
(2) 8 A and I2 when
only S2 is closed. The reading is I3
(3) 2 A when both S1 & S2 are closed
(4) 9 A simultaneously then :-

Q.100 In the circuit shown below, (1) I1 > I2 > I3 (2) I2 > I3 > I1
the reading of the voltmeter V is :- (3) I3 > I2 > I1 (4) I3 > I1 > I2

Q.105 How will the reading of

(1) 12 V
ammeter change if the key k is
(2) 8V closed?
(3) 20 V
(4) 16 V (1) Increase
(2) Decrease
Q.101 Find the potential of J with
respect of G :- (3) Remains same
(4) Information insufficient
(1) 40 V
Q.106 Six resistors each of 10  are
(2) 60 V
connected as shown. The
(3) 20 V equivalent resistance between
points X and Y is :-
(4) 30 V
(1) 20 
Q.102 Find the potential difference
(2) 5
across the 24  :-
(3) 25/3 
(4) 10 
(1) 48 volts

(2) 2 volts Q.107 In a typical

Wheatstone bridge
(3) 4 volts the resistance in
cyclic order are A =
(4) 1 volts 10 , B = 5 , C = 4
 and D = 4 . For
Q.103 In a network as shown in the the bridge to be balanced
figure the potential difference (a) 10  should be connected
across the resistance 2R is (the cell in parallel with A
has an emf E with no internal (b) 10  should be connected
resistance) :- in series with A
(c) 5  should be connected
(1) 2E in series with B
(2) 4E/7 (d) 5  should be connected
in parallel with B
(3) E/7
(4) E (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) All
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Q.108 In the circuit shown the Q.112 In the

equivalent resistance between A arrangement of
and B is – resistances shown
in the circuit, the
potential difference
between points B
and D will be zero,
(1) R (2) 2R/5 when the unknown
(3) R/3 (4) 2R resistance X is :-

(1) 4  (2) 3 
Q.109 Five equal resistances each (3) 2  (4) 1 
of resistance R are connected as
shown in the Figure. A battery of Q.113 The resistance of each arm of
voltage V is connected between A a Wheat stone bridge is 10. A
and B. The current flowing in AFCEB resistance of 10  is connected in
will be – series with the galvanometer then
the equivalent resistance across
(1) V/R the battery will be :-
(2) V/2R (1) 10  (2) 15 
(3) 2V/R (3) 20  (4) 40 

(4) 3V/R Q.114 For the network shown in the

figure the value of the current i is :-
Q.110 Seven resistances are
connected as shown in the figure. (1) 18V/5
The equivalent resistance between (2) 5V/9
A and B is :– (3) 9V/35
(4) 5V/18

Q.115 Two cells X and Y are

connected to a resistance of 10 
as shown in the figure. terminal
voltage of cell Y is :- The

(1) 3  (2) 4  (1) Zero

(3) 4.5  (4) 5  (2) 2V
(3) 4V
Q.111 In the following circult (4) 10 V
diagram the value of resistance X
for the potential difference Q.116 A battery has e.m.f. 4 V and
between B and D to be zero is :- internal resistance 'r'. When this
battery is connected to an external
(1) 4 ohms resistance of 2 ohms, a current of 1 A
flows in the circuit. What current will
(2) 6 ohms flow if the terminals of the battery
are connected directly ?
(3) 8 ohms
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(4) 9 ohms (3) 4 A (4) Infinite
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Q.117 Internal resistance of Q.122 The terminal voltage is E/2

primary cell depends on :- when a current of 2 A is flowing
through 2  resistance; the internal
(1) The nature of electrolyte resistance of the cell is :-
(2) The area of plates
immersed in the electrolyte (1) 1  (2) 2 
(3) The concentration of (3) 3  (4) 4 
electrolyte and distance
between the plates Q.123 When a resistance of 2 ohms
(4) All the above is connected across the terminals
of a cell, the current is 0.5 A. When
Q.118 The potential difference the resistance is increased to 5
between the terminals of a cell is ohms, the current becomes 0.25 A.
found to be 3 volts when it is The e.m.f. of the cell is :-
connected to a resistance of value
equal to its internal resistance. The (1) 1.0 V (2) 1.5 V
e.m.f. of the cell is :- (3) 2.0 V (4) 2.5 V

(1) 3 V (2) 6 V Q.124 A cell

(3) 1.5 V (4) 4.5 V of e.m.f. 2
V and
Q.119 A current of 2 A is flowing negligible
through a cell of e.m.f. 5 V and internal
internal resistance 0.5  from resistance is
negative to positive electrode. If connected to resistors R1 and R2 as
the potential of negative electrode shown in the figure. The resistance
is 10 V, the potential of positive of the voltmeter, R1 and R2 are 8,
electrode will be :- 40  and 80  respectively. The
reading of the voltmeter is :-
(1) 5 V (2) 14 V
(3) 15 V (4) 16 V (1) 1.78 V (2) 1.60 V
(3) 0.80 V (4) 1.33 V
Q.120 In the following circuit if VA
– VB = 4 V, then the value of Q.125 A cell supplies a current of
resistance X in ohms will be :- 0.9 A through a 2  resistor and a
current of 0.3 A through a 7 
(1) 5 resistor. The internal resistance of
the cell is :-
(2) 10
(3) 15 (1) 1.0  (2) 0.5 
(3) 2.0  (4) 1.2 
(4) 20
Q.126 A 10 V battery with internal
Q.121 Electromotive force of a cell resistance 0.5  is connected across
is basically a. a variable resistance R. The value of
R for which the power delivered to it
(1) Force is maximum, is equal to :-
(2) Power
(3) Work (1) 0.5  (2) 1 
(4) Current capacity (3) 1.5  (4) 2 
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Q.127 An electric bulb is designed Q.130 25 W, 200 V and 100 W, 200

to draw a power P0 at voltage V0. If V bulbs are connected in series to a
the voltage is V, it draws a power source of 400 volts. Which bulb will
P, then – fuse ?

V V  (1) 25 W
(1) P =   P0 (2) P =  0  P0 (2) 100 W
 V0  V
(3) Both will fuse at the same time
2 2 (4) None of the bulbs will fuse
V  V
(3) P =  0  P0 (4) P =   P0
V  V0  Q.131 Two electric bulbs of the
same power, but with different
Q.128 Consider the four circuits marked voltages are connected in
shown in the figure below. In which series across a power line. Their
circuit power dissipated maximum brightness will be :-
(Neglect the internal resistance of
the power supply) – (1) Directly proportional to
their marked voltages
(2) Inversely proportional to
their marked voltages
(1) (2) (3) Directly proportional to the
squares of their marked voltages
(4) Inversely proportional to the
squares of their marked voltages

Q.132 Four circuits are shown

(3) (4)
below. All the batteries have the
same voltage V and all resistors
have the same resistance R. In
Q.129 Three resistances of equal which circuit does the battery
value are arranged in different delivers the most power ?
combinations as shown below.
Arrange them in the increasing
order of power dissipation :- (1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q.133 Two cells, each of e.m.f. E

and internal resistance r, are
connected in parallel across a
(1) III < II < IV < I resistor R. The power dissipated in
(2) II < III < IV < I the resistor is maximum if :-
(3) I < IV < III < II (1) R = r (2) R = 2r
(4) I < III < II < IV (3) R = 3r/2 (4) R = r/2
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Q.134 In the circuit shown in Q.139 Resistance in the two gaps of

figure, the power which is a meter bridge are 10 ohms and 30
dissipated as heat in the 6  ohms respectively. If the
resistor is 6 W. What is the value of resistances are interchanged, the
resistance R in the circuit ? balance point shifts by :-

(1) 6 (1) 33.3 cm

(2) 10  (2) 66.67 cm
(3) 13  (3) 25 cm
(4) 24  (4) 50 cm

Q.135 For different values of Q.140 A galvanometer acting as a

resistance, R power consumptions voltmeter will have :-
in R are given. Then which of the
following values are not possible ? (1) A high resistance in
(a) 2 W series with its coil
(b) 5 W (2) A low resistance in
(c) 8 W parallel with its coil
(3) A low resistance in
(d) 4 W series with its coil
(4) A high resistance in
(1) Only c (2) b & c
parallel with its coil
(3) a, b, c (4) All

Q.136 You are provided with 48 Q.141 In the shown arrangement of

cells, each of emf 2 volts and the experiment of a meter bridge if
internal resistance 4 ohms. What AC, corresponding to null deflection
maximum current can flow in the of galvanometer, is x then what
circuit having an external would be its value if the radius of
resistance of 12  ? the wire AB is doubled :-

(1) 1 A (2) 1.2 A (1) x

(3) 0.96 A (4) 1.08 A
(2) x/4
Q.137 A galvanometer of 100  (3) 4x
resistance yields complete
(4) 2x
deflection when 10 mA current
flows. What should be the value of
Q.142 In the following circuit, the
shunt so that it can measure
resistance of the voltmeter is
currents upto 100 mA ?
10,000  and that of the ammeter
(1) 11.11  (2) 9.9  is 20 . If the reading of the
(3) 1.1  (4) 4.4  ammeter is 0.1 A and that of the
voltmeter is 12 V, then the value of
Q.138 In order to change the range R is :-
of a galvanometer of G  resistance
from V volts to nV volts what will (1) 122 
be the value of resistance in 
connected in series with it. (2) 100 
(3) 118 
(1) (n – 1)G (2) G/n
(3) nG (4) G/n – 1 (4) 116 
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Q.143 The resistance of a Q.148 An unknown resistance R1 is

galvanometer is G ohms and the connected in series with a
range is 1 volt. The value of resistance of 10 . This
resistance (in ) used to convert it combination is connected to one
into a voltmeter of range 10 volts is gap of a metre bridge while a
resistance R2 is connected in the
(1) 9 G (2) G other gap. The balance point is at
(3) 1/9 G (4) 10 G 50 cm. Now, when the 10 
resistance is removed the balance
Q.144 A galvanometer has 36  point shifts to 40 cm. The value of
resistance. If a 4  shunt is added R1 is (in ohms).
to this, the fraction of current that
(1) 20 (2) 10
passes through the galvanometer is
(3) 60 (4) 40
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/9 Q.149 A 1  voltmeter has a range
(3) 1/10 (4) 1/40 of 1V. Find the additional resistance
which has to be joined with the
Q.145 A galvanometer of resistance series in voltmeter to increase the
100  gives full defection for a range of voltmeter to 100 V –
current of 10–5 A. The value of
(1) 10  (2) 1/99 
shunt required to convert it into an
(3) 99  (4) 100 
ammeter of range 1 ampere, is :–
Q.150 A galvanometer having a
(1) 1  (2) 10–3 resistance G and current ia flowing
(3) 10–5  in it, produces full scale deflection.
(4) 100  If S1 is the value of shunt which
converts it into an ammeter of
Q.146 There are three voltmeters of range 0 – i and S2 is the value of
the same range but of resistances the shunt for the range 0 – 2i. Then
10000 , 8000  and 4000  the ratio S1/S2 will be :–
respectively. The best voltmeter
(1) 1 (2) 2
among these is the one whose
resistance is – 1  i – ia   2i – ia 
(3)   (4)  
2  2i – ia   i – ia 
(1) 10000 
(2) 8000  Q.151 It is observed in a
(3) 4000  potentiometer experiment that no
(4) All are equally good current passes through the
galvanometer, when the terminals
Q.147 20% of the main current of a cell are connected across a
passes through the galvanometer. certain length of the potentiometer
If the resistance of the wire. On shunting the cell by a 2 
galvanometer is G, then the resistance, the balancing length is
resistance of the shunt will be :- reduced to half. The internal
resistance of the cell is :-
(1) G/50 (2) G/4
(1) 4  (2) 2 
(3) 50G (4) 9G (3) 9  (4) 18 
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Current Electricity Question Bank

Q.152 In the Q.156 Potentiometer is used for

potentiometer measuring :-
circuit shown
in the figure, (1) Potential difference
the balancing (2) Current
length AJ = 60 (3) Internal resistance
cm when switch S is open. When (4) All of these
switch S is closed and the value of
R = 5 , the balancing length AJ' = Q.157 Length of a potentiometer
50 cm. The internal resistance of wire is kept long and uniform to
the cell C' is :- achieve :-

(1) 1.2  (2) 1.0  (1) Uniform and more

(3) 0.8  (4) 0.6  potential gradient
(2) Non-uniform and
Q.153 In a potentiometer more potential gradient
experiment when terminals of the (3) Uniform and less
cell are connected at distance of 52 potential gradient
cm on the wire, then no current (4) Non-uniform and
flows through it. When 5  shunt less potential gradient
resistance is connected across the
cell the balancing length is 40 cm. Q.158 In figure battery E is
The internal resistance of the cell balanced over a 55 cm length of
(in ) is :– potentiometer wire but when a
resistance of 10  is connected in
(1) 5 (2) 200/52 parallel with the battery then it
(3) 52/8 (4) 1.5 balances over a 50 cm length of the
potentiometer wire then internal
Q.154 A potentiometer wire has a resistance r of the battery is :-
resistance 40  and its length is 10
m. It is connected to a resistance of (1) 1 
760  in series. If emf of battery is (2) 3 
2 V then potential gradient is :–
(3) 10 
–6
(1) 0.5 × 10 V/m (4) 5 
(2) 1 × 10–6 V/m
(3) 1 × 10–2 V/m Q.159 The following diagram shows
(4) 2 × 10–6 V/m the circuit for the comparison of
e.m.f. of two cells. The circuit can
Q.155 A 6 volts battery is be corrected by :-
connected to the terminals of a
three metres long wire of uniform (1) Reversing the
thickness and 100 ohm resistance. terminals of E
The potential difference between (2) Reversing the
two points on the wire separated terminals of E1
by a distance of 50 cm will be – (3) Reversing the
terminals of E2
(1) 3 volts (2)1 volt (4) Reversing the
(3) 1.5 volts (4) 2 volts current in Rh
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Q.160 In the following circuit, the Q.164 The sensitivity of a

reading of the voltmeter will be (in potentiometer is increased by –
volts).
(1) Increasing the emf of the cell.
(2) Increasing the length of
(1) 7.2
the potentiometer wire
(2) 4.8
(3) Decreasing the length of
(3) 6
the potentiometer wire
(4) 4
(4) None of the above.
Q.161 In the Q.165 Potentiometer wire length is
following 10 m, having a total resistance of
diagram, the 10 . If a battery of emf 2 volts (of
deflection negligible internal resistance) and
in the a rheostat are connected to it then
galvanometer the potential gradient is 20 mV/m;
in a potentiometer circuit is zero, find the resistance imparted
then through the rheostat :-

(1) E1 > E2 (2) E2 > E1 (1) 90  (2) 990 

(3) E1 = E2 (4) E1 + E2 = E (3) 40  (4) 190 

Q.166 The correct circuit for the

Q.162 A
determination of internal resistance
resistance
of a battery by using potentiometer
of 4  and
is :-
a wire of
length 5 m
and
resistance (1) (2)
5  are joined in series and
connected to a cell of e.m.f. 10 V
and internal resistance 1 . A
Parallel combination of two
identical cells is balanced across (3) (4)
300 cm length of the wire. The
e.m.f. E of each cell is
Q.167 AB is a
(1) 1.5 V (2) 3.0 V potentiometer
(3) 0.67 V (4) 1.33 V wire of length
100 cm and
Q.163 The emf of a standard cell is resistance 10
balanced over a 150 cm length of a ohms. It is connected in series with a
potentiometer wire. When this cell resistance R = 40 ohms and a battery
is shunted by a 2  resistance, the of e.m.f. 2 V and negligible internal
resistance. If a source of unknown
null point is obtained at 100 cm.
e.m.f. E is balanced by 40 cm length
The value of internal resistance of
of the potentiometer wire, the value
the cell is :-
of E is :-

(1) 0.1 ohms (2) 1 ohms (1) 0.8 V (2) 1.6 V

(3) 2 ohms (4) 0.5 ohms (3) 0.08 V (4) 0.16 V
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Q.168 A potential gradient is Q.171 For the circuit shown in

established in the wire by a figure, the potential difference
standard cell for the comparison of between points a and b is :-
emf's of two cells in a
potentiometer experiment. Which
(1) 2.4 V
possibility of the following will lead
to the failure of the experiment ? (2) 2.8 V
(3) 2 V
(1) The emf of the standard cell is
higher than that of the other cells. (4) 3.2 V
(2) The diameter of the wire
is equal along its length Q.172 In the part of a circuit shown
(3) The number of wires is ten. in figure, the potential different (VG
(4) The emf of the standard cell – VH) between points G and H will be.
is less than that of either cells
(1) 0
Q.169 When a potential difference
(2) 15 V
is applied across the ends of a
linear metallic conductor :- (3) 7 V
(4) 3 V
(1) group of free electrons are
accelerated continuously from Q.173 What is the equivalent
the lower potential end to the resistance between A and B ?
higher potential end of the conductor
(2) group of free electrons are
accelerated continuously from the (1) 3R/2
higher potential end to the lower (2) 2R
potential end of the conductor
(3) R
(3) group of free electrons acquire a
constant drift velocity from the (4) R/2
lower potential end to the higher
potential end of the conductor. Q.174 Electric current through the
(4) each free electron is set in battery is :-
motion from their position of rest.
(1) 4 A
Q.170 In the circuit shown in
figure, cells of emf 2, 1, 3 and 1 V, (2) 3 A
respectively having resistances 2 , (3) 2 A
1 , 3  and 1  are their internal
(4) 0 A
resistances respectively. The
potential difference between D and
Q.175 Reading of ammeter for the
B. (in volts).
following circuit is :-

(1) 5/13
(1) 1 A
(2) 2/13 (2) 1/2 A
(3) 10/13 (3) 2/3 A
(4) 7/13 (4) 3 A
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Q.176 100 cells, each of e.m.f. 5 V Q.180 In the circuit shown in

and internal resistance 1 , are to figure, cells of emf 2, 1, 3 and 1 V,
be arranged so as to drive respectively having resistances 2 ,
maximum current in a 25  1 , 3  and 1  are their internal
resistance. Each row is to contain resistances respectively. The
equal number of cells. The number
potential difference between D and
of rows should be :-
B. (in volts)
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 5/13
(3) 5 (4) 10
(2) 2/13
Q.177 Two non ideal batteries are (3) 10/13
connected in parallel ; consider the
following statements :- (4) 7/13
(A) The equivalent emf is smaller
than either of the two emfs. Q.181 n identical cells, each of emf
(B) The equivalent internal E and internal resistance r, are
resistance is smaller than either joined in series to form a closed
of the two internal resistances. circuit. One of the cell A is joined
with reversed polarity. The
(1) Both A and B are correct potential difference across each cell
(2) A is correct but B is wrong except A, is :-
(3) B is correct but A is wrong
(4) Both A and B are wrong 2 n– 1
(1) (2) 
n n
Q.178 The current in 8  resistance n–2 2n
(3)  (4) 
is (as per given circuit). n n–2

(1) 0.69 A Q.182 A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60

(2) 0.92 A W bulbs B2 and B3, are connected to
a 220 V source, as shown in Figure.
(3) 1.30 A Now P1, P2 and P3 are the output
(4) 1.6 A powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3
respectively. Then :-
Q.179 A heater takes 40 minutes to
boil a given amount of water. Its
coil is cut and ¼th of its length is
used in the heater now. How much
time will it take now to boil the
same amount of water using the
same source ?

(1) 10 minutes (1) P1 > P2 = P3

(2) 12 minutes (2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) 15 minutes (3) P1 < P2 = P3
(4) 8 minutes (4) P1 < P2 < P3

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Q.183 A Q.187 n identical cells whether

student joined together in series or in
connects a parallel, give the same current,
voltmeter, when connected to an external
ammeter and resistance 'R'. The internal
resistance resistance of each cell is :-
according to the circuit given. If the
voltmeter reading is 20 V and (1) r = nR
ammeter reading is 4 A, then the (2) r = R
resistance will be :- (3) r = R/n
(4) r = n2R
(1) Equal to 5 
(2) More than 5  Q.188 The
(3) Less than 5  potential
(4) Less or more depending difference
on the material of wire between the
points A and B
Q.184 In the in the following
circuit shown circuit shown in the figure is :-
here, E1 = E2 = E3
= 2 V and R1 = R2 (1) 2/3 volts
= 4 ohms. The (2) 4/5 volts
current flowing (3) 8/9 volts
between points A (4) 2 volts
and B through battery E2 is –
Q.189 The equivalent resistance
(1) Zero across AB is :-
(2) 2 A from A to B
(3) 2 A from B to A (1) 1 
(4) None of the above
(2) 2 
Q.185 If specific resistance of a (3) 3 
potentiometer wire is 10–7  m and
(4) 4 
current flow through it is 0.1 A,
cross-sectional area of wire is 10–6
Q.190 When a voltmeter and an
m2 then potential gradient will be –
ammeter are connected one by one
across the terminals of a cell
(1) 10–2 volt/m (2) 10–4 volt/m
respectively measures 5 V and 10
(3) 10–6 volt/m (4) 10–8 volt/m
A. Now all meters are removed and
only a resistance of 2  is
Q.186 For a cell, the terminal
connected across the terminals of
potential difference is 2.2 V when
the cell. The current flowing
circuit is open which reduces to 1.8
through this resistance is :-
V when it is connected to a
resistance of R = 5 ; then internal
(1) 7.5 A
resistance of the cell is :-
(2) 5.0 A
(1) 10/9  (2) 9/10  (3) 2.5 A
(3) 11/9  (4) 5/9  (4) 2.0 A

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Current Electricity Question Bank

Q.191 The length of a wire of a Q.195 A galvanometer of 50 ohms

potentiometer is 100 cm and the resistance has 25 divisions. A
emf of its standard cell is E volts. It current of 4 × 10–4 amperes gives a
is employed to measure the e.m.f. deflection of one division. To
of a battery whose internal convert this galvanometer into a
resistance is 0.5 . If the balance voltmeter having a range of 25
point is obtained at  = 30 cm from volts, it should be connected with a
the positive end, the e.m.f. of the resistance of :-
battery is :–
(1) 2450  in parallel
(1) 30E/100 (2) 30E/100.5 (2) 2550  in series
(3) 30E/(100 – 0.5) (3) 2450  in series
(4) 30(E – 0.5)/100 (4) 2500  in parallel
Q.192 A group of N
cells each of whose Q.196 Eels are able to generate
current with biological cells called
emf varies directly
electroplaques. The electroplaques in
with the internal
an eel are arranged in 100 rows, each
resistance as per
row stretching horizontally along the
the equation EN = body of the fish containing 5000
1.5 rN are connected electroplaques. The arrangement is
as shown in the figure. The current suggestively shown below. Each
in the circuit is :- electroplaques has an emf of 0.15 V
and internal resistance of 0.25 . The
(1) 5.1 A (2) 0.51 A
water surrounding the eel completes
(3)1.5 A (4) 0.15 A a circuit between its head and its tail.
If the water surrounding it has a
Q.193 Two wires of resistance R1 resistance of 500 , the current an eel
and R2 at 00 C have and temperature can produce in water is about –
coefficients of resistance 1 and 2
respectively. These are joined in
series. The effective temperature
coefficient of resistance is :-

12
(1) (2) 12
2
1R1 + 2R2 R1R 212 (1) 1.5 A (2) 3.0 A
(3) (4) (3) 15 A (4) 30 A
R1R 2 R12 + R 22
Q.197 Two batteries,
Q.194 A battery is charged at a
one of emf 18
potential of 15 V for 8 hours when
volts and internal
the current flowing is 10 A. The
resistance 2  and
battery on discharge supplies a
the other of emf 12
current of 5 A for 15 hours. The
volts and internal resistance 1  ,
mean terminal voltage during the
are connected as shown. The
discharge is 14 V. The "Watt hour"
voltmeter V will record a reading of
efficiency of the battery is –

(1) 80% (2) 90% (1) 18 volts (2) 30 volts

(3) 87.5% (4) 82.5% (3) 14 volts (4) 15 volts

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Capacitor Question Bank

Q.1 Two Q.4 A capacitor is charged by a

identical battery. The battery is removed and
capacitors C1 another identical uncharged
and C2 of equal capacitor is connected in parallel.
capacitance The total electrostatic energy of
are connected resulting system :-
as shown in
the circuit. Terminals a and b of the (1) Decreases by a factor of 2
key k are connected to charge (2) Remains the same
capacitor C1 using battery of emf V (3) Increases by a factor of 2
volt. Now disconnecting a and b the
(4) Increases by a factor
terminals b and c are connected.
Due to this, what will be the
Q.5 A capacitor of 2F is charged as
percentage loss of energy ?
shown in the diagram. When the
switch S is turned to position 2, the
(1) 75% (2) 0%
percentage of its stored energy
(3) 50% (4) 25% dissipated is :-

Q.2 Two metal spheres, one of

radius R and the other of radius 2R
respectively have the same surface
charge density . They are brought
in contact and separated. What will
be the new surface charge densities
on them ?
(1) 0%
5 5 (2) 20%
(1) 1 = , 2 = 
6 2 (3) 75%
5 5 (4) 80%
(2) 1 = , 2 = 
2 6
5 5 Q.6 A parallel plate air capacitor of
(3) 1 = , 2 = 
2 3 capacitance C is connected to a cell
5 5
(4) 1 = , 2 =  of emf V and then disconnected
3 6
from it. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K, which can
Q.3 The electrostatic force between
just fill the air gap of the capacitor,
the metal plates of an isolated
is now inserted in it. Which of the
parallel plate capacitor C having a
following is incorrect ?
charge Q and area A, is :-

(1) independent of the distance (1) The energy stored in the capacitor
between the plates decreases K times.
(2) linearly proportional to the (2) The change in energy
1
stored is 1/2CV2  _1

distance between the plates
(3) proportional to the  K 
square root of the distance (3) The charge on the
between the plates capacitor is not conserved.
(4) inversely proportional (4) The potential difference
to the distance between between the plates decrease K

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Q.7 A parallel plate air capacitor Q.10 A series combination of n1,

has capacity 'C' and separation capacitors, each of value C1, is
between the plates is 'd'. A charged by a source of potential
potential difference 'V' is applied difference 4V. When another
between the plates. Force of parallel combination of n2
attraction between the plates of the capacitors, each of value C2, is
parallel plate air capacitor is : charged by a source of potential
difference V, it has the same (total)
C2 V2 C2 V2 energy stored in it, as the first
(1) (2)
2d2 2d combination has. The value of C2, in
CV2 CV2 terms of C1, is then
(3) (4)
2d d
16C1 2C1
Q.8 Two thin (1) (2)
n1n2 n1n2
dielectric slabs n n
of dielectric (3) 16 2 C1 (4) 2 2 C1
n1 n1
constants K1
and K2 (K1 <
Q.11 Two parallel metal plates
K2) are inserted
having charges +Q and –Q face
between the
each other with a certain
plates of a parallel plate capacitor,
separation between them. If the
as shown in the figure. The
plates are now dipped in kerosene
variation of electric field 'E'
oil tank, the electric field between
between the plates with distance
the plates will :-
'd' as measured from plate P is
correctly shown by :-
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Remain Same
(4) Become Zero
(1) (2)
Q.12 Three capacitors each of
capacitance C and of breakdown
voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage
of the combination will be :-
(3) (4)
(1) 3C, 3V (2) C/3, V/3
(3) 3C, V/3 (4) C/3, 3V
Q.9 A parallel plate condenser has a
uniform electric field E (V/m) in the Q.13 The energy required to charge
space between the plates. If the a parallel plate condenser of plate
distance between the plates is d separation d and plate area of
(m) and area of each plate is A cross-section A such that the
(m²) the energy (joules) stored in uniform electric field between the
the condenser is :- plates is E, is :-

1
(1) E2Ad/0 (2)  E2 (1) 0 E2 Ad
2 0
(2) 1/2 0 E2 Ad
1
(3) 0 EAd (4) 0 E2 Ad (3) 1/2 0 E2/A.d (4) 0 E2/Ad
2
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Q.14 A parallel plate air capacitor is Q.17 The effective capacity of the
charged to a potential difference of network between terminals A and B
V volts. After disconnecting the is :-
charging battery the distance
between the plates of the capacitor
is increased using an insulating
handle. As a result the potential
difference between the plates :-

(1) Decreases (1) 6 F (2) 20 F

(2) Does Not Change (3) 3 F (4) 10 F
(3) Becomes Zero
(4) Increases Q.18 A series combination of two
capacitances of value 0.1 F and 1
Q.15 Two F is connected with a source of
condensers, voltage 500 volts. The potential
one of difference in volts across the
capacity C and capacitor of value 0.1 F will be :-
the other of
capacity C/2, (1) 50 (2) 500
are connected to a V-volt battery, (3) 45.5 (4) 454.5
'as shown. The work done by
battery in charging fully both the Q.19 The value of equivalent
condensers is capacitance of the combination
shown in figure, between the points
1 P and Q is :-
(1) CV2 (2) 2 CV2
2
1 3
(3) CV2 (4) CV2
4 2

Q.16 In an adjoining figure three

capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are joined
to a battery. The correct condition
will be :- (1) 3C (2) 2C
(3) C (4) C/3

Q.20 The equivalent capacitance

between points A and B of the
circuit shown will be :-

(1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V3 = V
(2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3
(3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3
and V = V1 + V2 2 5
(4) Q2 = Q3 and V2 + V3 (1) F (2) F
3 3
(Symbols have their 8 7
(3) mF (4) F
usual meanings) 3 3

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Q.21 The effective capacitance Q.25 In the circuit diagram shown

between the points P and Q of the all the capacitors are in F. The
arrangement shown in the figure is. equivalent capacitance between
points A & B is (in F)

(1) (1/2) F (2) 1 F (1) 14/5 (2) 7.5

(3) 2 F (4) 1.33 F (3) 3/7 (4) None of these

Q.22 Two spheres of radii R1 and R2 Q.26 A circuit has a section AB as

having equal charges are joined shown in the figure with E = 10 V,
together with a copper wire. If V is C1 = 1.0 F, C2 = 2.0 F and the
the potential of each sphere after potential difference VA – VB = 5V.
they are separated from each other, The voltage across C1 is :-
then the initial charge on both
spheres was :-

V V
(1) (R1 + R2 ) (2) (R + R2 )
k 2k 1 (1) Zero (2) 5 V
V V (R1R2 ) (3) 10 V (4) 15 V
(3) (R1 + R2 ) (4)
3k k (R1 + R2 )
Q.27 Two capacitances C1 and C2
Q.23 Half of the space between a are connected in series; assume
parallel plate capacitor is filled with that C1 < C2. The equivalent
a medium of dielectric constant K capacitance of this arrangement is
parallel to the plates. If initially the C, where :-
capacity was C, then the new
capacity will be :- (1) C < C1/2
(2) C1/2 < C < C1
(1) 2KC/(1+K) (2) C (K+1)/2 (3) C1 < C < C 2
(3) CK/(1+K) (4) KC (4) C2 < C < 2C2

Q.24 Two capacitances C1 and C2 in Q.28 The capacitance C of a

a circuit are joined as shown in capacitor is :-
figure. The potential of point A is V1
and that of B is V2. The potential of (1) Independent of the charge and
point D will 1 be :- potential of the capacitor.
(2) Dependent on the charge and
independent of potential.
(3) Independent of the geometrical
configuration of the capacitor.
1 C2 V1 + C1V2 (4) Independent of the
(1) (V + V2 ) (2)
2 1 C1 + C2 dielectric medium between
C V + C2 V2 C V _ C1V2 the two conducting surfaces
(3) 1 1 (4) 2 1 of the capacitor.
C1 + C2 C1 + C2
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Q.29 To increase the charge on the Q.35 When a capacitor of value

plate of a capacitor implies to :- 200F charged to 200V is
discharged separately through
(1) Decrease the potential resistance of 2 ohms and 8 ohms,
difference between the plates. then heat produced in joule will
(2) Decrease the capacitance respectively be :-
of the capacitor.
(3) Increase the capacitance (1) 4 and 16
of the capacitor. (2) 16 and 4
(4) Increase the potential (3) 4 and 8
difference between the plates. (4) 4 and 4

Q.30 The net charge on a capacitor Q.36 The potential to which a

is – conductor is raised, depends on :-

(1) 2q (2) q/2 (1) The amount of charge

(3) 0 (4) Infinity (2) The geometry and size
of the conductor
Q.31 The earth has volume ‘V’ and
surface area ‘A’ then its (3) Both (1) and (2)
capacitance would be :- (4) None of these

A V Q.37 The charge q on a capacitor

(1) 4 0 (2) 4 0 varies with voltage as shown in
V A
V A figure. The area of the triangle AOB
(3) 12 0 (4) 12 0 represents :-
A V

Q.32 Capacitor are used in

electrical circuits where appliances
need rapid :-

(1) Current (2) Voltage

(3) Watt (4) Resistance
(1) Electric field between the plates
Q.33 Which of the following is (2) Electric flux between the plates
called electrical energy tank ? (3) Energy density
(4) Energy stored by
(1) Resistor (2) Inductance
the capacitor.
(3) Capacitor (4) Motor
Q.38 If the maximum circumference
Q.34 The two parallel plates of a
of a sphere is 2m, then its
condenser have been connected to
capacitance in water would be :-
a battery of 300 v and the charge
(Dielectric constant of water = 81)
collected at each plate is 1C. The
energy supplied by the battery is :-
(1) 27.65 pF
(1) 6 × 10–4 J (2) 3 × 10–4 J (2) 2385 pF
(3) 1.5 × 10–4 J (3) 236.5 pF
(4) 4.5 × 10–4 J (4) 2865 pF

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Capacitor Question Bank

Q.39 An uncharged capacitor is Q.43 The distance between the

connected to a battery. On charging plates of a circular parallel plate
the capacitor :- capacitor of diameter 40 mm,
whose capacity is equal to that of a
(1) All the energy supplied metallic sphere of radius 1m will be
is stored in the capacitor.
(2) Half the energy supplied (1) 0.01 mm
is stored in the capacitor. (2) 0.1 mm
(3) The energy stored depends upon (3) 1.0 mm
the capacity of the capacitor only. (4) 10 mm
(4) The energy stored depends
upon the time for which the Q.44 The energy density in a
capacitor is charged. parallel plate capacitor is given as
2.1 × 10–9 J/m3 . The value of the
Q.40 The capacity of parallel plate electric field in the region between
condenser depends on :- the plats is :-

(1) The type of metal used (1) 2.1 NC–1

(2) The thickness of plated (2) 21.6 NC–1
(3) The potential difference (3) 72 NC–1
applied across the plates (4) 8.4 NC–1
(4) The separation between the plates.
Q.45 A charged parallel plate
Q.41 A parallel plate capacitor has capacitor of distance (d) has U0
rectangular plates of 400 cm2 area energy. A slab of dielectric constant
and are separated by a distance of (K) and thickness (d) is then
2 mm with air as the medium. What introduced between the plates of
charge will appear on the plates if a the capacitor. The new energy of
200 volt potential difference is the system is given by :-
applied across the capacitor ?
(1) K U0
–6
(1) 3.54 × 10 C (2) K2 U0
(2) 3.54 × 10–8 C U0
(3) 3.54 × 10–10 C (3)
K
(4) 1770.8 × 10–13 C U
(4) 02
K
Q.42 There are two
metallic plates of a Q.46 The energy and capacity of a
parallel plate charged parallel plate capacitor are
capacitor. One plate U and C respectively. Now a
is given a charge +q dielectric slab of r = 6 is inserted
while the other is in it then energy and capacity
earthed as shown. becomes :- (Assuming charge on
Points P, P1 and P2 are taken as plates remains constant)
shown in adjoining figure. Then the
electric intensity is not zero at – (1) 6U, 6C (2) U, C
(3) U , 6C
(1) P only (2) P1 only 6
(3) P2 only (4) P, P1, and P2 (4) U, 6C

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Q.47 Distance between the plates Q.50 A glass slab is put within the
of a parallel plate capacitor Is ‘d’ plates of a charged parallel plate
and area of each plate is A. when a condenser. Which of the following
slab of dielectric constant K and quantities does not change ?
thickness t is placed between the
plates, its capacity becomes :- (1) Energy of the condenser
(2) Capacity
0 A 0 A (3) Intensity of electric field

   
(1) (2) (4) Charge
 1   1  Q.51 A parallel plate capacitor is
1_
d + t K
 d + t 1+
K
 connected to a battery and a
dielectric slab is inserted between
0 A the plates, then which quantity

 
(3) increase :-
 _ 1 
d t 1+
K
 (1)
(2)
Potential difference
Electric field
(3) Stored energy
0 A

 
(4) E.M.F. of battery
(4)
 _ 1  Q.52 In the circuit
1_
d t K
 shown in figure,
the battery is an
ideal one with emf
Q.48 When a slab of dielectric
V. The capacitor is
medium is placed between the
initially ncharged.
plates of a parallel plate capacitor
Switch S is closed at time t = 0.
which is connected with a battery,
The final charge Q on the capacitor
then the charge on plates in
is :-
comparision with earlier charge :-
(1) CV/2 (2) CV/3
(1) Is less (2) is same
(3) CV (4) CV/6
(3) Is more
(4) depends on the nature Q.53 A bulb, a
of the material inserted capacitor and
a battery are
Q.49 A parallel plate capacitor is
connected
charged by a battery. After
together as
charging the capacitor, battery is
shown here, with switch S initially
disconnected and a dielectric plate
open. When the switch S is closed,
is inserted between the plates.
which one of the following is true ?
Then which of the following
statements is not correct there is (1) The bulb will light up for an instant
a/an ? when the capacitor starts charging.
(2) The bulb will light up when the
(1) Increase in the stored energy
capacitor is fully charged
(2) Decrease in the (3) The bulb will
potential difference not light up at all
(3) Decrease in the electric field (4) The bulb will light up and
(4) Increase in the capacitance go off at regular intervals.

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Q.54 The capacity of a parallel plate Q.57 A capacitor is charged with a

air capacitor is 10 F. As shown in battery and energy stored is U.
the figure this capacitor is divided After disconnecting the battery
into two equal parts; these parts another capacitor of same capacity
are filled by media of dielectric is connected in parallel with it. The
constants K1 = 2 and K2 = 4. energy stored in each capacitor is :-
Capacity of this arrangement will
be :- (1) U/2 (2) U/4
(3) 4 U (4) 2 U

Q.58 Three capacitors of

capacitances 3 F, 10 F and 15 F
are connected in series to a voltage
source of 100 V. The charge on 15
F is :-
(1) 20 F
(2) 30 F (1) 50 C (2) 160 C
(3) 10 F (4) 200 C (3) 280 C
(4) 40 F
Q.59 Two
Q.55 Three capacitors, each of capacitors A and
value 1 F are so combined that the B are connected
resultant capacity is 1.5 F. Then :- in series with a
battery as shown
(1) All three capacitors are in the figure. When the switch S is
connected in parallel. closed and the two capacitors get
(2) All three capacitors are charged fully, then :-
connected in series.
(3) Third capacitor is in series (1) The potential difference across the
with a parallel combination plates of A is 4 V and across the planes
of the other two. of B is 6 V
(4) Third capacitor is in (2) The p.d. across the plates of A is 6
parallel with a series V and across the plates of B is 4 V
combination of the other two. (3) The ratio of electrical energies
stored in A and B is 2 : 3
Q.56 Two conducting spheres of (4) The ratio of charges on
radii R1 and R2 are charged with A and B is 3 : 2
charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. On
bringing them in contact there is :- Q.60 An automobile spring extends
0.2 m for 5000 N load. The ratio of
(1) No change in the energy potential energy stored in this
of the system the system if spring when it has been
(2) An increase in the energy compressed by 0.2 m to the
of Q1R2  Q2R1 potential energy stored in a 10 F
(3) Always a decrease in the capacitor at a potential difference
energy of the system of 10000 V will be :-
(4) A decrease in the
energy of the system (1) 1/4 (2) 1
if Q1R2  Q2R1 (3) 1/2 (4) 2

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Q.61 The charge Q.66 Two spherical conductors A

on each and B of radius a and b (b > a) are
capacitors shown placed in air concentrically. B is
in figure and the given a charge + Q coulombs and A
potential is grounded. The equivalent
difference across capacitance of these is :-
them will be
respectively :- ab
(1) 4 0
(b _ a)
(1) 240 C, 80 C, 160 C (2) 40(a + b)
and 80 V, 40 V, 40 V (3) 40b
(2) 300 C, 75 C, 150 C b2
(4) 4 0
and 40 V, 80 V, 60 V (b _ a)
(3) 220 C, 70 C, 140 C
and 60 V, 50 V, 40 V Q.67 Energy per unit volume for a
(4) None of these capacitor having area A and
separation d kept at potential
Q.62 Three capacitance 2 F, 3 F difference V is given by :-
and 6 F are connected in series
with a 10 volt battery, then charge 1 V2
1 V2
on 3 F capacitor is :- (1)  (2)
2 0 d2 2 0 d2
 V 2 A2 1 V 2 A2
(1) 5 C (2) 10 C (3) 0 2 (4)
2d 2 0d2
(3) 11 C (4) 15 C

Q.63 Two charged spheres having Q.68 A capacitor of capacity C1

radii a and b are joined with a wire charged upto a voltage V and then
then the ratio of electric field Ea/Eb connected to an uncharged
on their respective surfaces is :- capacitor of capacity C2. Then final
potential difference across each
(1) a/b (2) b/a will be :-
(3) a2/b2 (4) b2/a2
C 2V C1V
(1) (2)
Q.64 A solid conducting sphere of C1 + C2 C1 + C2
 C   C 
radius R1 is surrounded by another (3) 1 + 2  V (4) 1 _ 2  V
concentric hollow conducting  C1   C1 
sphere of radius R2. The capacitance
of this assembly is proportional to : Q.69 A conducting sphere of radius
10 cm is charged with 10 C.
R 2 _ R1 R 2 + R1 Another uncharged sphere of radius
(1) (2)
R1R 2 R1R 2 20 cm is allowed to touch it for
R1R 2 R1R 2 some time. After that, if the
(3) (4)
R1 + R 2 R 2 _ R1 spheres are separated, then surface
density of charge on the spheres
Q.65 Time constant of a series R–C will be in the ratio of :-
circuit is :-
(1) 1 : 4
(1) +RC (2) –RC (2) 1 : 3
(3) R/C (4) C/R (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
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Q.70 In the given figure, the Q.74 If potential difference across a

capacitors C1, C3, C4, C5 have a capacitor is changed from 15 V to
capacitance 4 F each. If the 30 V, work done is W. The work
capacitor C2 has a capacitance 10 done when potential difference is
F, then effective capacitance changed from 30 V to 60 V, will be :
between A and B will be :-
(1) W
(1) 2 F (2) 4W
(2) 4 F (3) 3W
(4) 2W
(3) 6 F
(4) 8 F Q.75 Three capacitors each of
capacity 4 F are to be connected in
Q.71 Two capacitors of such a way that the effective
capacitances 3 F and 6 F are capacitance is 6 F. This can be
charged to a potential of 12 V each. done by :-
They are now connected to each
other with the positive plate of one (1) Connecting all of them in series
joined to the negative plate of the (2) Connecting all of them in parallel
other. The potential difference (3) Connecting two in series
across each will be. and one in parallel
(4) Connecting two in
(1) 3 V (2) Zero parallel and one in series
(3) 6 V (4) 4 V
Q.76 A capacitor is connected to a
Q.72 A capacitor of 0.2 F 10 V battery. The charge on plates
capacitance is charged to 600 V. is 40 C when medium between
After removing the battery, it is plates is air. The charge on the
connected with a 1.0 F capacitor in plates become 100 C when the
parallel, then the potential space between the plates is filled
difference across each capacitor with oil. The dielectric constant of
will become :- oil is :-

(1) 300 V (1) 2.5

(2) 600 V (2) 4
(3) 100 V (3) 6.25
(4) 10
(4) 120 V
Q.77 Two capacitor each having a
Q.73 Mean electric energy density
capacitance C and breakdown
between the plates of a charged
voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitor is :-
effective capacitance and maximum
Here q = Charge on capacitor A =
working voltage of the combination
Area of each plate of the capacitor
is :-
(1) q2/(20A2)
(1) 2C, 2V
(2) q/(20A2) (2) C/2, V/2
(3) q2/(20A) (3) 2C, V
(4) None of these (4) C/2, 2V

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Capacitor Question Bank

Q.78 The charge (in C) on any one Q.82 Two metallic spheres of radii
of the 2 F capacitor and 1 F R1 and R2 are connected by a thin
capacitor will be given respectively wire. If + q1 and + q2 are the
as :- charges on the two spheres then :-

q1 R12
(1) =
q2 R22
q R
(2) 1 = 1
q2 R2
q R3
(3) 1 = 13
q2 R2
(1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 1
q (R 2 _ R 22 )
(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2 (4) 1 = 12
q2 (R1 + R 22 )
Q.79 The electric field between the
plates of a parallel plate capacitor Q.83 Two spheres have radii 10 cm
when connected to a certain & 20 cm. One of the sphere is given
battery is E0. If the space between 150 C charge and connected by a
the plates of the capacitor is filled wire. Their common potential will
by introducing a material of be –
dielectric constant K without
disturbing the battery connections; (1) 9 × 106 volts
the field between the plates will be. (2) 4.5 × 106 volts
(3) 1.8 × 106 volts
(1) KE0 (2) E0 (4) 1.35 × 109 volts

(3) E0/K (4) None of these Q.84 Total energy stored in a 900
F capacitor at 100 volts is
Q.80 Two capacitors with capacity transferred into a 100 F capacitor.
C1 and C2, when connected in The potential drop across the new
series, have a capacitance Cs and capacitor is (in volts).
when connected in parallel have a
capacitance Cp. Which of the
(1) 900 (2) 200
following is true ?
(3) 100 (4) 300
(1) C s = C1 + C2
(2) Cp = C1C2/C1 + C2 Q.85 An air capacitor, a capacitor
(3) Cs/Cp = C1/C2 with a dielectric and a capacitor
(4) CsCp = C1C2 with a conducting slab (thickness
one half the separation between
Q.81 A 40 F capacitor in a the plates of parallel plate air
defibrillator is charged to 3000 V. capacitor are introduced in both
The energy stored in the capacitor cases) has capacity C1, C2 and C3
is sent through the patient during a respectively then :-
pulse of duration 2 ms. The power
delivered to the patient is :- (1) C1 > C2 > C3
(2) C2 > C3 > C1
(1) 45 kW (2) 90 kW (3) C3 > C2 > C1
(3) 180 kW (4) 360 kW (4) C3 > C1 > C2

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Q.86 An infinite Q.90 The charge flowing through

number of the cell on closing the key k is
identical equal to :-
capacitors each
of capacitance
1 F are
connected as in the adjoining figure.
Then the equivalent capacitance
between A and B is :-
(1) CV/4 (2) 4CV
(1) 1 F (2) 2 F 4 3
(3) 1/2 F (4)  (3) CV (4) CV
3 4
Q.87 A capacitance of value 4 F Q.91 Figure shows two capacitors
charged to 50 V is connected with connected in series and joined to a
another capacitance of value 2 F battery. The graph shows the
charged to 100 V, in such a way variation in potential as one moves
that plates of similar charges are from left to right along the branch
connected together. The total containing the capacitors. Then :-
energy in multiples of 10–2 J before
joining and after joining will be :–

(1) 1.5 and 1.33 (1) C1 > C2

(2) 1.33 and 1.5 (2) C1 = C2
(3) 3.0 and 2.67 (3) C1 < C2
(4) 2.67 and 3.0 (4) The information is not
sufficient to decide the relation
Q.88 Two parallel plate capacitors between C1 and C2
whose capacitances are C and 2 C
respectively, are joined in parallel. Q.92 An air capacitor of capacity C
These are charged to V potential = 10 F is connected to a constant
difference. If the battery is now voltage battery of 12 V. Now the
removed and a dielectric of dielectric space between the plates is filled
constant K is filled in between the with a liquid of dielectric constant
plates of the capacitor C, then what 5. The additional charge that flows
will be the potential difference now, from the battery to the
across each capacitor ? capacitor is :-
(1) V/K+2 (2) 2V/K+2
(3) 3V/K+2 (4) (2+K)V/3 (1) 120 C
(2) 600 C
Q.89 In the (3) 480 C
given circuit if (4) 24 C
point C is
connected to Q.93 Minimum number of 8 F and
the earth and 250 V capacitors required to make
a potential of + 2000 V is given to a combination of 16 F and 1000 –
point A, then potential at B is.
(1) 32 (2) 16
(1) 1500 V (2) 1000
(3) 8 (4) 4
(3) 500 V (4) 400 V
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Q.94 In a capacitor of capacitance Q.98 The

20 F the distance between the combination of
plates is 2 mm. If a dielectric slab capacitors with
of width 1 mm and dielectric C1 = 3 F, C2 =
constant 2 is inserted between the 4 F and C3 = 2
plates, then the new capacitance F is charged
will be :- by connecting AB to a battery.
(1) 22 F (2) 26.6 F Consider the following statements :
(3) 52.2 F (4) 13 F (1) Energy stored in C1 = Energy
stored in C2 + Energy stored in C3
Q.95 In the given figure the steady (2) Charge on C1 = Charge on
state current I is :- C2 + Charge on C3
(3) Potential drop across
C1 = Potential drop across
(1) Zero C2 = Potential drop across C3
(2) 0.6 A Which of these is are/correct ?
(3) 0.9 A
(4) 1.5 A (1) I and II (2) only II

Q.96 Two (3) I and III (4) only III

capacitors C1 Q.99 If the distance between plates
= 2 F and C2 of a capacitor having capacity C &
= 6 F in charge Q is doubled then the work
series, are done will be :-
connected in
parallel to a third capacitor C3 = 4 (1) Q2/4C (2) Q2/2C
F. This arrangement is then (3) Q2/C (4) 2Q2/C
connected to a battery of e.m.f. = Q.100 A slab of copper of thickness
2 V, as shown in the figure. How d/2 is introduced between the
much energy is given by the battery plates of a parallel plate capacitor
in charging the capacitors ? where d is the separation between
its two plates. If the capacitance of
(1) 22 × 10–6 J (2) 11 × 10–6 J
the capacitor without the copper
(3) (32/3) × 10–6 J
slab is C and with copper slab is C'
(4) (16/3) × 10–6 J then C'/C is :-
Q.97 When the
(1) 2 (2) 2
key is pressed
(3) 1 (4) 1/2
at time t = 0
then which of Q.101 Two parallel plates of the
the following same metal and same area are
statements placed between the plates of a
about the current i in the resistor parallel plate capacitor of capacity
AB of the given circuit is true ? C, If the thickness of each plate is
equal to 1/5th of the distance
(1) at t = 0, i = 2 mA and it reduces
between the plates of the original
to 1 mA at t = 
capacitor then the capacity of the
(2) i oscillates between
new capacitor is :-
1 mA and 2 mA
(3) i = 2 mA at all time (1) 5/3 C (2) 3/5 C
(4) i = 1 mA at all time (3) 3/10 C (4) 10/3 C

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Q.102 A network of Q.105 Two capacitors, 3 F and 4

four capacitors of F, are individually charged across
capacity equal to C1 a 6 V battery. After being
= C, C2 = 2C, C3 = disconnected from the battery, they
3C and C4 = 4C are are connected together with the
connected to a negative plate of one connected to
battery as shown in the positive plate of the other.
the figure. The ratio What is the final total energy
of the charges on C2 and C4 is :- stored ?

(1) 7/4 (2) 22/3 (1) 1.26 × 10–4 J

(2) 2.57 × 10–4 J
(3) 3/22 (4) 4/7
(3) 1.26 × 10–6 J
(4) 2.57 × 10–6 J
Q.103 A 10
volts battery
Q.106 Seven capacitors each of
is connected
capacitance 2F are to be
to three
connected so as to have a total
capacitors; C1
capacity of 10/11 F. Which will
= 2 F, C2 = 3
be the combination shown ?
F and C3 = 5 F, as shown. The
charges on the capacitors C1, C2
and C3 are respectively :-
(1)

(1) 2 C, 3 C, 5 C

(2) 5 C, 10 C, 15 C
(3) 10 C, 15 C, 25 C (2)
(4) 4 C, 6 C, 10 C

Q.104 Two
(3)
materials of
dielectric
constants k1 and
k2 are introduced
(4)
to fill the space
between the two parallel plates
of a capacitor as shown in figure. Q.107 A 3 F capacitor is charged to
The capacity of the capacitor is :- a potential of 300 V and 2 F
capacitor is charged to 200 V. The
A 0 k1 + k2  capacitors are then connected in
(1)
2d parallel with plates of opposite
2A 0  k1k2  polarities joined together. What
(2)  
d  k1 + k2  amount of charge will flow, when
A 0  k1k2  the plates are so connected ?
(3)  
d  k1 + k2 
(1) 1300 C (2) 800 C
A 0  k1 + k2 
(4)  
2d  k1k2  (3) 600 C (4) 300 C

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Q.108 A parallel plate capacitor is Q.111 Can a metal be used as a

charged by a battery. After medium for dielectric
charging the capacitor, battery is
disconnected and distance between (1) Yes
the plates is decreased then which (2) No
of the following statement is (3) Depends on its shape
correct ? (4) Depends on dielectric

(1) Electric field does Q.112 A parallel plate air capacitor

not remain constant has a capacitance C. when it is half
(2) Potential difference filled with a dielectric of dielectric
constant 5, the percentage increase
is increased
in the capacitance will be
(3) The capacitance decreases
(4) The stored energy
decreases (1) 400%
(2) 66.6 %
Q.109 A parallel plate capacitor is
connected with a battery whose (3) 33.3 %
potential difference remains (4) 200 %
constant. If the plates of the
capacitor are shifted apart then the
Q.113 A number of capacitors, each
intensity of electric field :-
of capacitance 1 F and each one of
(1) Decreases and charge which gets punctured if a potential
difference just exceeding 500 volt
on plates also decreases.
is applied, are provided. Then an
(2) Remains constant but
arrangement suitable for giving a
charge on plates decreases. capacitor of capacitance 3 F across
(3) Remains constant but which 2000 volt may be applied
charge on the plates increase. requires at least :-
(4) Increases but charge on
the plates decreases. (1) 4 component capacitors
(2) 12 component capacitors
Q.110 A parallel plate capacitor is (3) 48 component capacitors
charged with a battery and (4) 16 component capacitors
afterwards the battery is removed.
If now, with the help of insulating Q.114 Two spheres of radii 1 cm
handles, the distance between the and 2 cm have been charged with
plates is increased, then 1.5 × 10–8 and 0.3 × 10–7 coulombs
of positive charge. When they are
(1) Charge on capacitor increases connected with a wire, charge :-
and capacity decreases.
(1) Will flow from the first to the second
(2) Potential difference between
(2) Will flow from the second to the first
the plates increases. (3) Will not flow at all
(3) Capacity of capacitor (4) May flow either from first to
increases. second, or from the second
(4) Value of energy stored to first, depending upon the
in capacitor decreases. length of the connecting wire

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Q.115 In the following circuit the Q.118 If potential of A is 10 V, Then

resultant capacitance between A & potential of B is :-
B is 1F. Find the value of C :-
(1) 25/3 V
(1) 23/32 F (2) 50/3 V
(2) 32/23 F (3) 100/3 V
(3) 13/23 F (4) 50 V
(4) 23/13 F
Q.119 Capacitance
Q.116 A capacitor C1 = 2C2 = 2C3 and
of capacitance 5 F potential difference
is connected as across C1, C2 and C3
shown in the are V1, V2 and V3
figure. The internal respectively then :-
resistance of the
(1) V1 = V2 = V3
cell is 0.5. The amount of charge
(2) V1 = 2V2 = 2V3
on the capacitor plate is :-
(3) 2V1 = V2 = V3
(1) 0 (2) 5 C (4) 2V1 = 2V2 = V3

(3) 10 C (4) 25 C Q.120 A parallel plate capacitor is

charged by a battery. After
Q.117 In the given circuit, the charging the capacitor, battery is
potential difference across 3 F disconnected and a dielectric plate
capacitor will be :- is inserted between the plates.
Then which of the following
(1) 16 V statements is not correct there is
(2) 10 V a/an ?
(3) 6V
(1) Increase in the stored energy
(4) 4V
(2) Decrease in the
potential difference
(3) Decrease in the electric field
(4) Increase in the capacitance

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Electromagnetic Induction Question Bank

Q.1 In which of the following Q.5 Figure

devices, the eddy current effect is shows a circuit
not used that contains
three identical
(1) Induction furnace resistors with
(2) Magnetic braking in train resistance R =
9.0  each, two identical inductors
(3) Electromagnet with inductance L = 2.0 mH each,
(4) Electric heater and an ideal battery with emf  =
18 V. The current 'i' through the
Q.2 A 800 tum coil of effective area battery just after the switch closed
0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a is,........ :-
magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When the
plane of the coil is rotated by 900 (1) 0.2 A
around any of its coplanar axis in
(2) 2 A
0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil
will be :– (3) 0 ampere
(4) 2 mA
(1) 2 V
(2) 0.2 V Q.6 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1
m has 2 × 104 turns per meter. At
(3) 2 × 10–3 V the centre of the solenoid, a coil of
(4) 0.02 V 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is
placed with its axis coinciding with
Q.3 A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is the solenoid axis. The current in
rotated with constant angular the solenoid reduces at a constant
velocity of 10 rad/s in a region rate to 0A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the
magnetic field of 0.1 T which is resistance of the coil is 102 . the
perpendicular to the plane of the total charge flowing through the
wheel. The EMF generated between coil during this time is :-
its centre and the rim is –
(1) 16 C
(1) 0.25 V (2) 32 C
(2) 0.125 V (3) 16  C
(3) 0.5 V (4) 32  C
(4) Zero
Q.7 A long solenoid has 1000 turns.
Q.4 The magnetic potential energy When a current of 4A flows through
stored in a certain inductor is 25 it, the magnetic flux linked with
mJ, when the current in the each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10–3
inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is Wb. The self inductance of the
of inductance :- solenoid is :–

(1) 0.138 H (1) 4H

(2) 138.88 H (2) 3H
(3) 1.389 H (3) 2H
(4) 13.89 H (4) 1H

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Q.8 A uniform Q.10 An

magnetic field is electron
restricted within a moves on a
region of radius r. straight line
The magnetic field path XY as
changes with time at shown. The
dB abcd is a coil adjacent to the path
a rate . Loop 1 of of electron. What will be the
dt
radius R > r encloses direction of current, if any, induced
the region r and loop in the coil ?
2 of radius R is outside the region
of magnetic field as shown in the (1) No current induced
figure below. Then the e.m.f. (2) Abcd
generated is :– (3) Adcb
(4) The current will reverse its direction
 as the electron goes past the coil
dB
(1) – R 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt Q.11 A transformer having

dB 2 efficiency of 90% is working on
(2) – r in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt 200V and 3kW power supply. If the
(3) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 current in the secondary coil is 6A,
 the voltage across the secondary
dB 2 coil and the current in the primary
(4) – r in loop 1 and
dt coil respectively are :-

dB 2
– r in loop 2 (1) 300 V, 15A (2) 450V, 15A
dt
(3) 450V, 13.5A (4) 600V, 15A
Q.9 A conducting
square frame of Q.12 A wire loop is rotated in
side 'a' and a magnetic field. The frequency of
long straight wire change of direction of the induced
carrying current I e.m.f. is :-
are located in the
same plane as (1) Six times per revolution
shown in the figure. The frame (2) Once per revolution
moves to the right with a constant (3) Twice per revolution
velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the (4) Four times per revolution
frame will be proportional to :-
Q.13 A coil of resistance 400  is
1 placed in a magnetic field. If the
(1)
(2x – a) 2 magnetic flux  (Wb) linked with
1 the coil varies with time t (sec) as 
(2) = 50t2 + 4.
(2x + a) 2
The current in the coil at t = 2 sec
1 is :-
(3)
(2x – a) (2x + a)
1 (1) 2A (2) 1A
(4)
x2 (3) 0.5ª (4) 0.14

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Q.14 The Q.17 A circular disc of radius 0.2

current (I) in meter is placed in a 1 uniform
the inductance magnetic field of 1/ wb/m2 in
is varying with such way that its axis makes an
time according angle of 600 with B. The magnetic
to the plot flux linked with the disc is :-
shown in figure.
Which one of the following is the (1) 0.08 wb (2) 0.01 wb
correct variation of voltage with (3) 0.02 wb (4) 0.06 wb
time in the coil ?
Q.18 A long solenoid has 500 turns.
When a current of 2 ampere is
passed through it, the resulting
(1) (2)
magneticflux linked with each turn
of the solenoid is 4 × 10–3 wb. The
self-inductance of the solenoid is :–

(1) 1.0 henry

(3) (4) (2) 4.0 henry
(3) 2.5 henry (4) 2.0 henry

Q.19 A rectangular, a square, a

Q.15 In a coil of
circular and an elliptical loop, all in
resistance 10 ,
the (x – y) plane, are moving out of
the induced
a uniform magnetic field with a
current developed
by changing constant velocity, V = vî. The
magnetic flux magnetic field is directed along the
through it, is negative z axis direction. The
shown in figure as a function of induced emf, during the passage of
time. The magnitude of change in these loops, out of the field region,
flux through the coil in Weber is :- will not remain constant for :–

(1) Any of the four loops

(1) 6 (2) 4
(2) The rectangular, circular
(3) 8 (4) 2 and elliptical loops
(3) The circular and
Q.16 A conducting circular loop is the elliptical loops
placed in a uniform magnetic field, (4) Only the elliptical loop
B = .025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the loop. The Q.20 A conducting circular loop is
radius of the loop is made to shrink placed in a uniform magnetic field
at a constant rate of 1 mm s–1. The 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular
induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 to the magnetic field. The radius of
cm, is. the loop starts shrinking at 2
mm/s. The induced emf in the loop
(1) 2 V when the radius is 2 cm is :-
(2) 2 V
(3) V (1) 1.6 V (2) 3.2 V
(4) /2 V (3) 4.8 V (4) 0.8 V
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Q.21 The primary and secondary Q.26 According to Faraday's Laws

coils of a transformer have 50 and of electromagnetic induction
1500 turns respectively. If the
magnetic flux  linked with the (1)The direction of the induced current
primary coil is given by  = 0 + 4t, is such that it opposes it self
where  is in we bers, t is time in (2) The induced emf in the coil is
seconds and  is a constant, the proportional to the rate of change of
output voltage across the magnetic flux associated with it
secondary coil is :- (3) The direction of induced emf
is such that it opposes it self
(1) 30 volts (2) 90 volts (4) None of the above
(3) 120 volts (4) 220 volts
Q.27 A coil having an area of 2 m2
Q.22 A transformer is used to light is placed in a magnetic field which
a 100 W and 110V lamp from a 220 changes from 1 Weber/m2 to 4
V mains. If the main current is 0.5 Weber/m2 in 2 seconds. The e.m.f.
amp, the efficiency of the induced in the coil will be :-
transformer is approximately :-
(1) 4 volt (2) 3 volt
(1) 10% (2) 30% (3) 2 volt (4) 1 volt
(3) 50% (4) 90%
Q.28 Magnetic field through a coil is
Q.23 Two coils of self inductances 2 changed with respect to time then
mH and 8 mH are placed so close emf induced in it then select the
together that the effective flux in incorrect regarding induced emf in
one coil is completely linked with coil :-
the other. The mutual inductance
between these coils is :- (1) Coil may be made up with wood
(2) Coil may be connected
(1) 10 mH (2) 6 mH with an open circuit
(3) 4 mH (4) 16 mH (3) Coil must be of
conducting nature
Q.24 'SI' unit of magnetic flux is :- (4) Induced emf does not
depends upon resistance of the coil
(1) Ampere/meter2
(2) Weber Q.29 The current flows in a circuit
(3) Gauss as shown below. If a second circuit
(4) Orested is brought near the first circuit then
the current in the second circuit
Q.25 A square coil of 0.01 m2 area will be :-
is placed perpendicular to the
uniform magnetic field of 103
weber/metre2. The magnetic flux
linked with the coil is :-

(1) 10 weber (1) Clock wise

(2) 10–5 weber (2) Anti clock wise
(3) Zero (3) Depending on the value of RG
(4) 100 weber (4) None of the above

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Q.30 A coil of resistance 10 and Q.35 An emf induced in a coil, the
1000 turns have the magnetic flux linking magnetic flux.
line of 5.5 × 10–4 Wb. If the
magnetic flux changed to 5 × 10–4 (1) Must decrease
Wb. in 0.1 sec, then the induced (2) Must increase
charge in coil is :- (3) Must remain constant
(4) Can be either
(1) 50 C (2) 5 C increased or decreased
(3) 2 C (4) 20 C
Q.36 An
Q.31 A square loop if side 22 cm is electron beam
changed to a circle in time 0.4 s. is moving near
The magnetic field present is 0.2 T. to a conducting
The emf induced is :- loop then the
induced current in the loop :-
(1) –6.6 mV (2) –13.2 mV
(3) +6.6 mV (4) +13.2 mV (1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
Q.32 The magnetic flux in a coil of (3) Both
100 turns increases by 12 × 103 (4) No current
Maxwell in 0.2 s due to the motion
of a magnet. The emf induced in the Q.37 The
coil will be :- current flows
from A to B
(1) 0.6 mV (2) 0.6 V as shown in
(3) 6 V (4) 60 mV the figure.
The direction
Q.33 A coil of mean area 500 cm2 of the induced current in the loop is
and having 1000 turns is held
perpendicular to a uniform field of (1) Clockwise
0.4 gauss. The coil is turned (2) Anticlockwise
through 1800 in 1/10 second. The (3) Straight line
average induced e.m.f. :- (4) None of these

(1) 0.04 V (2) 0.4 V Q.38 Consider a

(3) 4 V (4) 0.004 V metal ring kept on a
horizontal plane. A
Q.34 A closed coil consists of 500 bar magnet is held
turns on a rectangular frame of above the ring with
area 4.0 cm2 and has a resistance its length along the
of 50 ohms. The coil is kept with its axis of the ring. If
plane perpendicular to a uniform the magnet is dropped freely the
magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2, the acceleration of the falling magnet is
amount of charge flowing through (g a is acceleration due to gravity) :
the coil if it is turned over (rotated
through 1800) :- (1) More than g
(2) Equal to g
(1) 1.6 × 10–3C (2) 16 × 10–3C (3) Less than g
(3) 0.16 × 10–3C (4) 160 × 10–3C (4) Depend on mass of magnet

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Q.39 A circular loop of radius r is Q.44 During 0.1 s current in a coil

.
placed in a region where magnetic increases from 1A to 1 5 A. If
field increases with respect to time inductance of this coil is 60 H,
as B(t) = at then induced emf in induced current in external
coil :- resistance of 600  is :-

(1) r2a (2) 3r2a (1) 1 A (2) 4/3 A

(3) 2r2a (4) 4r2a (3) 2/3 A (4) 1/2 A

Q.40 The magnetic flux through a Q.45 If a current of 2A give rise a

circuit of resistance R changes by magnetic flux of 5 × 10–5
an amount  in a time t. The total weber/turn through a coil having
quantity of electric charge Q that 100 turns, then the magnetic
passes any point in the circuit energy stored in the medium
during the time t is represented by surrounding by the coil is :-

j j (1) 5 joule
(1) Q = (2) Q =
R t (2) 5 × 10–7 joule
j 1 j (3) 5 × 10–3 joule
(3) Q = R × (4) Q = ×
t R t (4) 0.5 joule

Q.41 Faraday law represents :- Q.46 A solenoid of 10 henry

inductance and 2 ohm resistance, is
(1) Relation between I and B connected to a 10 volt battery. In
(2) Relation between magnetic how much time the magnetic
force and magnetic field energy will reach to 1/4th of the
(3) Relation between e.m.f maximum value ?
and rate of change of flux
(4) None of these (1) 3.5 sec (2) 2.5 sec
(3) 5.5 sec (4) 7.5 sec
Q.42 Pure inductors each of
inductance 3 H are connected as Q.47 An inductance coil have the
shown. The equivalent induction of time constant 4 sec, if it is cut into
the circuit is :- two equal parts and connected
parallel then new time constant of
(1) 1H the circuit :-
(2) 2H
(3) 3H (1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec
(4) 9H (3) 1 sec (4) 0.5 sec

Q.43 In the circuit shown in figure Q.48 A circular loop of radius r is

what is the value of I1 just after moved away from a current
pressing the key K ? carrying wire then induced current
in circular loop will be :-
(1) 5/7 A
(2) 5/11 A (1) Clock wise
(2) Anti clockwise
(3) 1 A (3) Not induced
(4) None of these (4) None of them
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Q.49 If number of turns of 70cm2 Q.53 The inductance of a solenoid

coil is 200 and it is placed in a is 5 henry and its resistance is 5.
magnetic field of 0.8 Wb/m2 which If it is connected to a 10 volt
is perpendicular to the plane of coil battery then time taken by the
and it is rotated through an angle current to reach 9/10th of its
1800 in 0.1 sec, then induced emf in maximum will be –
coil :-
(1) 4.0 s (2) 2.3 s
(1) 11.2 V (2) 1.12 V
(3) 1.4 s (4) 1.2 s
(3) 22.4 V (4) 2.24 V

Q.50 When the current through a Q.54 The time constant of an

solenoid increases at a constant inductance coil is 2.0 × 10–3 s.
rate, the induced current. When a 90 resistance is joined in
series, the time constant becomes
(1) Is a constant and is in the 0.5 × 10–3 s. The inductance and
direction of the inducing current resistance of the coil are :-
(2) Is a constant and is opposite to
the direction of the inducing current (1) 30 mH; 30
(3) Increase with time and is in the (2) 30 mH; 60
direction of the inducing current (3) 60 mH; 30
(4) Increase with time and (4) 60mH; 60
opposite to the direction of
the inducing current Q.55 A cylindrical iron core
supports N turns. If a current I
Q.51 Which statement is correct produces a magnetic flux  across
from following – the core's cross section, then the
(a) Inductor store energy in magnetic energy is :-
the form of magnetic field
(b) Capacitor store energy in (1) I
the form of electric field 1
(c) Inductor store energy in (2) I
2
the form of electric and
magnetic field both
I2 
(3)
(d) Capacitor store energy in 2
the form of electric and (4) I2
magnetic field both
Q.56 The self inductance of a toroid
(1) a, b (2) a, c is :-
(3) b, d (4) b, c
0N2r2
Q.52 For a solenoid keeping the (1)
2Rm
turn density constant its length
makes halved and its cross section 0N2 r
(2)
radius is doubled then the 2Rm
inductance of the solenoid increased 0N2r
by :- (3)
2Rm
(1) 200% (2) 100% 0N2r
(4)
(3) 800% (4) 700% Rm
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Q.57 An LR circuit with a battery is Q.62 Two conducting coils are

connected at t = 0. Which of the placed co-axially now a cell is
following quantities is not zero just connected in one coil then they will.
after the connection :-
(a) Current in circuit (1) Attract to each other
(b) Magnetic potential (2) Repel to each other
energy in the inductor (3) Both (1) & (2)
(c) Power delivered by the battery (4) They will not experience any force
(d) Emf induced in the inductor
Q.63 A coil of resistance 10 and an
(1) a, b (2) a, c inductance 5H is connected to a
100 volt battery. Then energy
(3) c, d (4) Only d
stored in the coil is :-
Q.58 An inductance L and a
(1) 125 erg (2) 125 J
resistance R are joined to a battery.
(3) 250 erg (4) 250 J
After some time, battery is
disconnected but L and R remains
Q.64 The energy density in
connected to the closed circuit. The
magnetic field B is proportional to :
current strength will be reduced to
37% of its initial value in :-
(1) 1/B (2) 1/B2
(1) RL sec (2) R/L sec (3) B (4) B2
(3) L/R sec (4) 1/LR sec
Q.65 Inductance of a solenoid is 3H
Q.59 Energy is stored in the choke and it consist of 500 turns. If
coil in the form of :- number of turn is twice, then the
value of self inductance becomes :-
(1) Heat
(2) Electric field (1) 1.5 H (2) 3 H
(3) Magnetic field
(3) 9 H (4) 12 H
(4) Electro-magnetic field
Q.66 A coil of 40 henry inductance
Q.60 When a current changes from
is connected in series with a
2A to 4A in 0.05 sec. in a coil,
resistance of 8 ohm and the
induced emf is 8 V. The self
combination is joined to the
inductance of coil is :-
terminals of a 2 volt battery. The
time constant of the circuit is :-
(1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2 H
(3) 0.4 H (4) 0.8 H
(1) 1/5 sec (2) 40 sec
(3) 20 sec (4) 5 sec
Q.61 An e.m.f. of 12 V is induced in
a given coil when the current in it
Q.67 When current in a coil is
changes at the rate of 48
reduced from 2A to 1A in 1 ms, the
amp./min. The inductance of the
induced emf is 5V. The inductance
coil is :-
of coil is :-
(1) 0.5 henry (2) 15 henry
(1) 5 H (2) 5000 H
(3) 1.5 henry (4) 9.6 henry (3) 5 mH (4) 50 H

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Q.68 A coil of inductance 300mH Q.72 A current time

and resistance 2 is connected to a curve is shown in
source of voltage 2V. The current the following
reaches half of its steady state diagram. This type
value in :- of current is
passed in the primary coil of
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.15 s transformer. The nature of induced
(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.05 s emf in the secondary coil will be :-

Q.69 An ideal coil of 10H is

connected in series with a (1) (2)
resistance of 5 and a battery of
5V. 2 seconds after the connection
is made, the current flowing in
amperes in the circuit is :-

(1) e (2) e – 1 (3) (4)

(3) (1 – e–1) (4) (1 – e)

Q.70 Two Q.73 Two coil have a mutual

co-axial inductance 0.005 H. The current
solenoids changes in first coil according to
shown in equation I = I0, sin  t, where I0 =
figure. If key 2A and  = 100 rad/sec. The
of primary suddenly opened then maximum value of induced emf in
direction of instantaneous induced second coil is :-
current in resistance 'R' which
(1) 4 V (2) 3 V
connected in secondary :-
(3) 2 V (4)  V
(1) L to N (2) N to L Q.74 A small square loop of wire of
(3) Alternating (4) Zero side  is placed inside a large
square loop of wire of side L (L >>
Q.71 In figure  ). The loops are coplanar and their
(a) and figure centres coincide. The mutual
(b) two inductance of the system is
air-cored proportional to :-
solenoids P
and Q have been shown. They are (1)  /L (2)  2/L
placed near each other. In figure (3) L/  (4) L2/ 
(a), when Ip, the current in P.
Q.75 The electric power is
changes at the rate of 5 As–1, an
transferred to a far distance at high
emf of 2 mV is induced in Q. The
potential because :-
current in P is then switched off,
and a current changing at 2 A s–1 is (1) It stops the wire theft
fed through Q as shown in diagram. (2) To minimize power loss
What emf will be induced in P :– (3) Generator gives
only high potential
(1) 8 × 10–4 V (2) 2 × 10–8 V (4) Electric power is transferred
(3) 5 × 10–3 V (4) 8 × 10–2 V early due to high potential

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Q.76 If primary winding of a Q.81 Primary winding and

transformer were connected to a secondary winding of a transformer
battery, the current in it will :- has 100 and 300 turns respectively.
If its input power is 60 W then
(1) Increase output power of the transformer
will be :-
(2) Remain constant
(3) Decrease (1) 240 W (2) 180 W
(4) First (1) then (3) (3) 60 W (4) 20 W

Q.77 Which type of losses does not Q.82 The ratio of the secondary to
occur in transformer :- the primary turns in a transformer
is 3 : 2 and the output power is P.
(1) Mechanical losses Neglecting all power losses, the
(2) Copper losses input power must be :-
(3) Hysteresis losses (1) P/2 (2) P
(4) Eddy current losses (3) 2P/3 (4) 3P/2
Q.78 The mutual inductance of two Q.83 Mutual inductance of two coils
coils when magnetic flux changes depends on their self inductance L1
by 2 × 10–2 Wb and current changes and L2 as :-
by 0.01 A is :–
(1) M12 = L1/L2 (2) M12 = L2/L1
(1) 2 H (3) M12 = L1L2 (4) M12 = L1/L2
(2) 3 H
(3) 4 H Q.84 A step up transformer has
(4) 8 H turn ratio 10 : 1. A cell of e.m.f. 2
volts is fed to the primary.
Q.79 The efficiency of a Secondary voltage developed is :-
transformer is maximum, because :
(1) 20 V (2) 10 V
(3) 2 V (4) Zero
(1) No part of the
transformer is in motion Q.85 The flux linked with a coil at
(2) It creates maximum voltage any instant 't' is given by  = 10t2 –
(3) It creates minimum voltage 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3
(4) None of the above s is :–

Q.80 In order to avoid eddy currents (1) 190 V (2) –190 V

in the core of a transformer :- (3) –10 V (4) 10 V

(1) The number of turns in Q.86 Two coaxial solenoids are

the secondary coil is made made by winding thin Cu wire over
a pipe of cross-sectional area A =
considerably large 10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one
(2) A laminated core is used of the solenoids has 300 turns and
(3) A step down transformer is used the other 400 turns, their mutual
(4) A high voltage inductance is :–
alternating weak (1) 2.4 × 10–5H (2) 4.8 × 10–4H
current is used (3) 4.8 × 10–5H (4) 2.4 × 10–4H
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Q.87 A conducting rod Q.91 The primary and secondary

of length 2  is rotating coils of a transformer have 50 and
with constant angular 1500 turns respectively. If the
speed  about its magnetic flux  linked with the
perpendicular primary coil is given by  = 0 + 4t,
bisector. A uniform where  is in webers, t is time in
magnetic field B seconds and  is a constant, the
exists parallel to the axis of output voltage across the
rotation. The emf induced between secondary coil is :-
two ends of the rod is :-
(1) 30 volts (2) 90 volts
(1) B 2 (3) 120 volts (4) 220 volts
(2) 1/2 B 2
Q.92 A conducting
(3) 1/8 B 2 square frame of
(4) Zero side 'a' and a long
straight wire
Q.88 A conducting rod of 1m length carrying current I
rotating with a frequency of 50 are located in the same plane as
rev./sec. about its ones of end shown in the figure. The frame
inside the uniform magnetic field of moves to the right with a constant
6.28 mT. The value of induced emf velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the
between end of rod is :- frame will be proportional to :-

(1) 1 V (2) 2 V 1 1
(3) 0.5 V (1) 2
(2)
(2x – a) (2x + a) 2
(4) 0.25 V
1 1
(3) (4) 2
Q.89 In transformer, power of (2x – a) (2x + a) x
secondary coil is :-
Q.93 In the branch AB of a circuit,
(1) Less than primary coil as shown in the figure, a current I
(2) More than primary coil = (t + 2) A is flowing, where t is
(3) More in step up and less in the time in second. At t = 0, the
step down than primary coil value of (VA – VB) will be :-
(4) More in step down and less
in step up than primary coil

Q.90 Two coils of self inductances 2

(1) 3V (2) –3V
mH and 8 mH are placed so close
(3) –5V (4) 5V
together that the effective flux in
one coil is completely linked with Q.94 An e.m.f. of 15 volt is applied
the other. The mutual inductance in a circuit containing 5 henry
between these coils is :- inductance and 10 ohm resistance.
The ratio of the currents at time t
(1) 10 mH  and at t = 1 second is –
(2) 6 mH
(3) 4 mH (1) e1/2/e1/2 –1 (2) e2/e2 –1
(4) 16 mH (3) 1–e–1 (4) e–1

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Electromagnetic Induction Question Bank

Q.95 The equivalent inductance of Q.99 Which of the following units

two inductances is 2.4 henry when denotes the dimensions ML2/Q2,
connected in parallel and 10 henry where Q denotes the electric
when connected in series. The charge –
difference between the two
inductances is :- (1) Weber
(2) Wb/m2
(1) 2 henry (2) 3 henry (3) Henry
(3) 4 henry (4) 5 henry (4) H/m2

Q.96 If 2.2 kW power transmitts Q.100 A magnet is dropped down

22000 volts in a line of 10 an infinitely long vertical copper
resistance, the value of power loss tube. Then
will be :-
(1) The magnet moves with
(1) 0.1 watt (2) 14 watts
continuously decreasing velocity
(3) 100 watts (4) 1000 watts
and ultimately comes to rest
Q.97 An inductor (2) The magnet moves with
(L = 100 mH), a continuously increasing velocity
resistor (R = and ultimately acquires a
100) and a constant terminal velocity
battery (E = 100 (3) The magnet moves with
V) are initially connected in series continuously increasing
as shown in the figure. After a long velocity and acceleration
time the battery is disconnected (4) The magnet moves with
after short circuiting the points A continuously increasing
and B. The current in the circuit 1 velocity but constant
ms after the short circuit is –
Q.101 One conducting U tube can
(1) 1A (2) 1/e A slide inside another as shown in
(3) e A (4) 0.1 A figure, maintaining electrical
contacts between the tubes. The
Q.98 A short bar magnetic field B is perpendicular to
magnet passes at the plane of the figure. If each tube
a steady speed moves towards the other at a
right through a constant speed v, then the induced
long solenoid. A galvanometer is emf in the circuit, where is the
connected across the solenoid. width of each tube :-
Which graph best represents the
variation of the galvanometer
deflection  with time :-

(1) (2)

(1) 2 B v
(2) Zero
(3) (4) (3) –B  v
(4) B v

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Electromagnetic Induction Question Bank

Q.102 If a copper ring is moved Q.106 A coil of copper wire is

quickly towards south pole of a connected in series with a bulb, a
powerful stationary bar magnet, battery and a switch. When the
then :- circuit is completed the bulb lights
up immediately. The circuit is
(1) Current flows through switched off and a rod of soft iron
the copper ring is placed inside the coil. On
(2) Voltage in the magnet increases completing the circuit again. It is
(3) Current flows observed that :-
in the magnet
(4) Copper ring will (1) Bulb is not so bright
get magnetised (2) There is a slight delay before bulb
lights to its normal brightness
Q.103 When two co-axial coils (3) The bulb is initially bright
having same current in same but gradually becomes dim
direction are brought close to each (4) The bulb is brighter than before
other then the value of current in
both coils :- Q.107 A conducting rod rotates
with a constant angular velocity ‘'
(1) Increase (2) decrease about the axis which passes
(3) first increases and through point 'O' and perpendicular
then decrease to its length. A uniform magnetic
(4) remain same field 'B' exists parallel to the axis of
the rotation. Then potential
Q.104 As shown is the figure, a difference between the two ends of
magnet is brought towards a fixed the rod is :-
coil. Due to this the induced emf,
current and the charge are E, I and
Q respectively. If the speed of the
magnet is double then the following
statement is wrong :- (1) 6B 2 (2) B 2
(3) 10B 2 (4) Zero
(1) E increases (2) I increases
(3) Q does not change Q.108 The loop
(4) Q increases shown moves
with a constant
Q.105 The bob of a simple velocity 'v' in a
pendulum is replaced by a magnet. uniform magnetic
The oscillation are set along the field of magnitude 'B' directed into
length of the magnet. A copper coil the paper. The potential difference
is added so that one pole of the between P and Q is 'e' :-
magnet passes in and out of the
coil. The coil is short circuited. Then (1) e = BLv/2, Q is positive
which of the following happens ? with respect to P
(2) e = BLv/2, P is positive
(1) Period does not change with respect to Q
(2) Oscillations are damped (3) e = 0
(3) Amplitude increases (4) e = BLv, Q is positive
(4) Period decreases with respect to P

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Electromagnetic Induction Question Bank

Q.109 A semicircle Q.112 Two long

loop PQ of radius parallel metallic
‘R’ is moved wires with a
with velocity ‘v’ resistance 'R'
in transverse form a
magnetic field as shown in figure. horizontal plane. A conducting rod
The value of induced emf. between AB is on the wires shown in figure.
the ends of loops is :- The space has magnetic field
pointing vertically downwards. The
(1) Bv (r), end ‘P’ at high potential rod is given an initial velocity 'v0'.
(2) 2 BRv, end P at high potential There is no friction in the wires and
(3) 2 BRv, (r), end Q the rod. After a time 't' the velocity
at high potential v of the rod will be such that :–
R 2
(4) B v, end P (1) v > v0 (2) v < v0
2
at high potential (3) v = v0 (4) v = –v0

Q.113 The armature coil of dynamo

Q.110 A conducting wheel in which
is rotating. The generated induced
there are four rods of length  (as
emf varies and the number of
shown in figure is rotating with
magnetic lines of force also varies.
angular velocity  in a uniform
Which of the following condition is
magnetic field B. The induced
correct :-
potential difference between its
centre and rim will be :- (1) lines of flux will be minimum,
but induced emf will be zero.
(2) lines of flux will be maximum,
but the induced emf will be zero.
(3) lines of flux will be maximum,
but induced emf will be not be zero
(1) 2B 2 (4) the lines of flux will
(2) B2 be maximum, and the induced
(3) B  /2 (4) B 2 /2 emf will be also maximum.

Q.111 A semi circular loop of radius Q.114 A conducting

R is placed in a uniform magnetic square loop of side
field as shown. It is pulled with a  and resistance R
constant velocity. The induced emf moves in its plane
in the loop is :- with a uniform
velocity perpendicular to one of its
sides. A uniform and constant
magnetic field B exists along the
perpendicular to the plane of the
loop as shown in the figure. The
current induced in the loop is :-
(1) Bv(R) cos (1) B  v/R, clockwise
(2) Bv(pR) sin (2) B  v/R, anticlockwise
(3) Bv(2R) cos (3) 2 B  v/R, anticlockwise
(4) Bv(2R) sin (4) Zero
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Electromagnetic Induction Question Bank

Q.115 For given arrangement (in Q.116 Which of the following is

horizontal plane) the possible correct for periodic electromagnetic
direction of magnetic field :- induction :-

(1) Maximum flux, zero emf

(2) Zero flux, maximum emf
(3) Zero flux, zero emf
(4) (1) & (2) both

(1) Towards right

(2) Towards left
(3) Vertically upward
(4) Vertically downward

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375
Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.1 A circuit when connected to an Q.5 The potential differences across

AC source of 12 V gives a current of the resistance, capacitance and
0.2 A. The same circuit when inductance are 80V, 40V and 100V
connected to a DC source of 12 V, respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The
gives a current of 0.4 A. The circuit power factor of this circuit is :-
is :-
(1) 0.8
(1) Series LR (2) 1.0
(2) Series RC (3) 0.4
(3) Series LC (4) 0.5
(4) Series LCR
Q.6 A small signal voltage V(t) = V0
Q.2 The variation of EMF with time sin t is applied across an ideal
for four types of generators are capacitor C :-
shown in the figures. Which
amongst them can be called AC ? (1) Current I (t), lags voltage
V(t) by 90o.
(2) Over a full cycle the capacitor C
does not consume any energy
from the voltage source.
(3) Current I (t) is in phase
with voltage V(t).
(4) Current I (t) leads
voltage V(t) by 180°

Q.7 Which of the following

(1) (a) and (d) combinations should be selected for
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (b) better tuning of an L-C-R circuit
(3) (a)and (d) used for communication ?
(4) Only (a)
(1) R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30 F
Q.3 An inductor 20mH, a capacitor (2) R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45 F
100F and a resistor 50 are (3) R = 20 , L = 1.5 H,
connected in series across a source C = 35 F
of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power (4) R = 25 , L = 2.5 H,
loss in the circuit is C = 45 F

(1) 0.79 W (2) 0.43 W Q.8 A series R-C circuit is

(3) 2.74 W (4) 1.13 W connected to an alternating voltage
source. Consider two situations :-
Q.4 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor (a) When capacitor is air filled.
50 F and a resistor 40 are (b) When capacitor is mica filled.
connected in series across a source Current through resistor is i and
of emf V = 10sin 340 t. The power voltage across capacitor is V then :-
loss in A.C. circuit is :-
(1) Va = Vb
(1) 0.51 W (2) Va < Vb
(2) 0.67 W (3) Va > Vb
(3) 0.76 W (4) 0.89 W (4) ia > ib

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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.9 A resistance 'R' draws power Q.13 An ac voltage is applied to a

'P' when connected to an AC resistance R and an inductor L in
source. If an inductance is now series. If R and the inductive
placed in series with the resistance, reactance are both equal to 3, the
such that the impedance of the phase difference between the
circuit becomes 'Z', the power applied voltage and the current in
drawn will be :- the circuit is :-

R R  (1) /6 (2) /4

(1) P (2) P  
Z Z (3) /2 (4) Zero
2
R 
(3) P (4) P   Q.14 In an ac circuit an alternating
Z
voltage e = 200√2 sin100t volts is
connected to a capacitor of capacity
Q.10 A coil of self-inductance L is
1F. The r.m.s. value of the current
connected in series with a bulb B
in the circuit is :-
and an AC source. Brightness of the
bulb decreases when :- (1) 10 mA (2) 100 mA
(3) 200 mA (4) 20 mA
(1) An iron rod is inserted in the coil.
(2) Frequency of the AC
Q.15 The r.m.s. value of potential
source is decreased.
difference V shown in the figure is :
(3) Number of turns in
the coil is reduced.
(4) A capacitance of reactance (1) V0/3
XC = XL is included in the same circuit. (2) V0
(3) V0/2
Q.11 In an electrical circuit R, L, C (4) V0/ 2
and an a.c. voltage source are all
connected in series. When L is Q.16 A coil has resistance 30 ohm
removed from the circuit, the phase and inductive reactance 20 ohm at
difference between the voltage and 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of
the current in the circuit is /3. If 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected
instead, C is removed from the across the coil, the current in the
circuit the phase difference is again coil will be :-
/3. The power factor of the circuit
is :- (1) 2.0 A (2) 4.0 A
20
(3) 8.0 A (4) A
(1) 1 (2) 3/2 13
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/2
Q.17 In the
Q.12 The instantaneous values of given circuit
alternating current and voltages in the reading
a circuit are given as of voltmeter
i = 1/2 sin(100 t) ampere V1 and V2 are
e = 1/2 sin(100 t + /3) volt 300 volts each. The reading of the
The average power in Watts voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are
consumed in the circuit is :- respectively :-

(1) 1/2 (2) 1/8 (1) 100 V, 2.0A (2) 150 V, 2.2A
(3) 1/4 (4) 3/4 (3) 220 V, 2.2A (4) 220 V, 2.0A
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 Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.18 A condenser of capacity C is Q.21 What is the value of

charged to a potential difference of inductance L for which the current
V1. The plates of the condenser are is a maximum in a series LCR circuit
then connected to an ideal inductor with C = 10 F and  = 1000s–1 ?
of inductance L. The current
through the inductor when the (1) 10 mH (2) 100mH
potential difference across the (3) 1 mH
condenser reduces to V2 is ? (4) Cannot be calculated unless
R is known
C(V12 _ V22 )
(1) Q.22 A transistor-oscillator using a
L
C  V1 + V22 
2 resonant circuit with an inductor L
(2) (of negligible resistance) and a
L
 C(V12 _ V22 ) 
1/2 capacitor C in series produce
(3)   oscillations of frequency f. If L is
 L 
doubled and C is changed to 4C,
 C  V _ V 2 
1/2

 
then frequency will be :-
(4) 1 2

 L 
  (1) f/4 (2) 8f
(3) f/2√2 (4) f/2
Q.19 Power dissipated in an LCR
series circuit connected to an a.c. Q.23 A coil of inductive reactance
source of emf  is :- 31 has a resistance of 8 . It is
placed in series with a condenser
2R of capacitive reactance 25 . The
(1) 2 combination is connected to an a.c.
R 2 
+  L _ 1 
C  source of 110 volt. The power

factor of the circuit is :-
(2) 2R
 2  1 
2
 (1) 0.56 (2) 0.64
R +  L _ 
  C   (3) 0.80 (4) 0.33
  1 
2

2 R2 +  L_  Q.24 What is the r.m.s. value of an
  C   alternating current which when
(3)
R passed through a resistor produces
 2  _ 1  
2
heat which is thrice of that
 R +  L
2

  C   produced by a direct current of 2
(4) amperes in the same resistor :-
R

Q.20 In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. (e) (1) 6 amp (2) 2 amp
and the current (i) at any instant (3) 3.46 amp (4) 0.66 amp
are given respectively by :
Q.25 The peak value of an
e = E0sint i = lo sin(t - )
alternating e.m.f. which is given by
The average power in the circuit
E = E0 cost is 10 volts and its
over one cycle of a.c. is :-
frequency is 50 Hz. At time t = 1/600
s, the instantaneous e.m.f. is –
E0I0
(1) COS (2) E0I0
2 (1) 10 V (2) 53 V
E0I0
(3) E0I0/ 2 (4) Sin (3) 5 V (4) 1 V
2
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 Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.26 The phase difference between Q.31 For an alternating current I =

current and voltage in an AC circuit I0 cos t. What is the rms value and
is /4 radian, If the frequency of AC peak value of current :-
is 50 Hz, then the phase difference
is equivalent to the time difference I0
(1) I0 ,
2
(1) 0.78 s I0
(2) , I0
(2) 15.7 ms 2
(3) 2.5 s I
(3) I0 , 0
(4) 2.5 ms 2
I
(4) 2I0 , 0
Q.27 A current in circuit is given by 2
i = 3 + 4 sin t. Then the effective
value of current is :- Q.32 If a step up transformer have
turn ratio 5, frequency 50 Hz root
(1) 5 mean square value of potential
(2) 7 difference on primary 100 volts and
(3) 17 the resistance of the secondary
(4) 10 winding is 500  then the peak
value of voltage in secondary
Q.28 The r.m.s. value of current for winding will be (the efficiency of
a variable current i = i1 cos t + i2 the transformer is hundred
sin t :- percent).

1 1 (1) 500 2 (2) 10 2

(1) (i1 + i2 ) (2) (i1 + i2 )2
2 2 (3) 50 2 (4) 20 2
1 2 1
(3) (i1 + i22 )1/2 (4) (i12 + i22 )1/2
2 2 Q.33 A resonant A.C. circuit
contains a capacitor of capacitance
Q.29 The relation between an A.C. 10–6 F and an inductor of 10–4 H.
voltage source and time in SI units The frequency of electrical
is. V = 120 sin (100 t) cos (100 t) oscillations will be :-
volt value of peak voltage and
frequency will be respectively (1) 105 Hz
(2) 10 Hz
(1) 120 volt and 100 Hz (3) 105/2 Hz
(2) 120/2 volt and 100 Hz (4) 10/2 Hz
(3) 60 volt and 200 Hz
(4) 60 volt and 100 Hz Q.34 A resistance of 300 and an
inductance of 1/ henry are
Q.30 If an A.C. main supply is given connected in series to a A.C.
to be 220 V. What would be the voltage of 20 volts and 200 Hz
average e.m.f. during a positive frequency. The phase angle
half cycle :- between the voltage and current is

(1) 198 V (1) tan–1 (4/3)

(2) 386 V (2) tan–1 (3/4)
(3) 256 V (3) tan–1 (3/2)
(4) None of these (4) tan–1 (2/3)
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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.35 The Q.39 A student connects a long air

graphs given cored – coil of managing wire to a
below depict 100 V D.C. supply and records a
the current of 25 amp. When the same
dependence coil is connected across 100 V. 50
of two Hz a.c. the current reduces to 20 A,
reactive impedances X1 and X2 on the reactance of the coil is
the frequency of the alternating
e.m.f. applied individually to them. (1) 4 
We can then say that :- (2) 3
(3) 5
(1) X1 is an inductor and (4) None
X2 is a capacitor
(2) X1 is a resistor and X2 is a capacitor Q.40 The graph shows variation of I
(3) X1 is a capacitor and with f for a series R-L-C network.
X2 is an inductor Keeping L and C constant. If R
(4) X1 is an inductor and decreases :-
X2 is a resistor

Q.36 A 12 ohm resistor and a 0.21

henry inductor are connected in
series to an AC source operating at
20 volts, 50 cycle/second. The
(a) Maximum current
phase angle between the current
(Im) increases
and the source voltage is :-
(b) Sharpness of the
graph increases
(1) 300 (2) 400
(c) Quality factor increases
(3) 800 (4) 900
(d) Band width increases
Q.37 A 110 V, 60 W lamp is run (1) a, b, c
from a 220 V AC mains using a (2) b, c, d
capacitor in series with the lamp, (3) c, d, a
instead of a resistor then the (4) All
voltage across the capacitor is
about :- Q.41 Alternating current is flowing
in inductance L and resistance R.
(1) 110 V (2) 190 V The frequency of source is /2.
(3) 220 V (4) 311 V Which of the following statement is
correct :-
Q.38 The resistance that must be
connected in series with inductance (1) For low frequency the limiting
of 0.2 H in order that the phase value of impedance is L.
difference between current and (2) For high frequency the limiting
e.m.f. may be 450 when the value of impedance is L.
frequency is 50 Hz, is :- (3) For high frequency the limiting
value of impedance is R.
(1) 6.28 ohm. (4) For low frequency
(2) 62.8 ohm. the limiting value of
(3) 628 ohm. (4) 31.4 ohm. impedance is L.
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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.42 A bulb and a capacitor are Q.46 A capacitor of capacity C and

connected in series to a source of reactance X if capacitance and
alternating current. If its frequency frequency become double then
is increased, while keeping the reactance will be :-
voltage of the source constant,
then. (1) 4X
(2) X/2
(1) Bulb will give more intense light.
(3) X/4
(2) Bulb will give less intense light.
(3) Bulb will give light of same (4) 2X
intensity as before
(4) Bulb will stop radiating light. Q.47 The coil of choke in a circuit :-

Q.43 In an A.C. circuit resistance (1) Increases the current

and inductance are connected in (2) Controlled the current
series : The potential and current in (3) Has high resistance
inductance is :- to d.c. circuit
(1) V0 sin t, V0/L sint (4) Does not change the current
(2) V0 sin t, V0/L sin(t + /2)
(3) V0 sin (t + /2), Q.48 The inductive reactance of an
V0/L sint inductive coil with 1/ henry and
(4) V0 sin (t + /2), 50 Hz :-
V0/L sin (t – /2)
(1) 50/ ohm
Q.44 An a.c. source of voltage V (2) /50 ohm
and of frequency 50 Hz is (3) 100 ohm
connected to an inductor of 2 H and (4) 50 ohm
negligible resistance. A current of
r.m.s value I flows in the coil. When Q.49 In the L–R circuit R = 10 and
the frequency of the voltage is L = 2H. If 120 V, 60 Hz alternating
changed to 400 Hz keeping the voltage is applied then the flowing
magnitude of V the same, the current in this circuit will be :-
current is now :-
(1) 0.32 A
(1) 8 I in phase with V
(2) 4 I and leading by 900 from V (2) 0.16 A
(3) I/4 and lagging (3) 0.48 A
by 900 from V (4) 0.80 A
(4) I/8 and lagging
by 900 from V Q.50 A capacitor of capacity C is
connected in A.C. circuit. The
Q.45 The impedence of a circuit, applied emf is V = V0 sint, then
when a resistance R and an the current is :-
inductor of inductance L are
connected in series in an A.C. (1) I = V0/L sint
circuit of frequency (f) is :- (2) I = V0/L sin(t + /2)
(3) I = V0 C sint
(1) R+4fL2 (2) R+42f2L2
(3) R2+42f2L2 (4) R2+22f2L2 (4) I = V0 C sin (t + /2)

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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.51 An inductance of 0.4 Henry Q.56 An inductance of 1mH, a

and a resistance of 100 ohm are condenser of 10F and a resistance
connected to a A.C. voltage source of 500 are connected in series. The
of 220 V and 50 Hz. Then find out reactance of inductor and
the phase difference between the condensers are same. The
voltage and current flowing in the reactance of either of them will be :
circuit :–
(1) 100 
–1
(1) tan (2.25 ) (2) 30 
(2) tan–1 (0.4 ) (3) 3.2 
(3) tan–1 (1.5 ) (4) 10 
(4) tan–1 (0.5 )
Q.57 If alternating current of 60 Hz
Q.52 A capacitor of capacitance 100 frequency is flowing through
F & a resistance of 100 is inductance of L = 1 mH and drop in
connected in series with AC supply VL is 0.6 V then alternating current
of 220V, 50Hz. The current leads
the voltage by ……….. (1) (1/)A
(2) (5/)A
(1) tan–1 (1/2) (2) tan–1 (1/) (3) (50/)A
(3) tan–1 (2/) (4) tan–1 (4/) (4) (20/)A

Q.53 There is a 5  resistance in an Q.58 A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volts

A.C., circuit. Inductance of 0.1 H is is connected across R and C as
connected with it in series. If shown in figure below. The voltage
equation of A.C. e.m.f. is 5 sin 50 t across R is 12 volts. The voltage
then the phase difference between across C is.
current and e.m.f. is :-
(1) 8 V
(1) /2 (2) /6
(2) 16 V
(3) /4 (4) 0
(3) 10 V
(4) Not possible to
Q.54 Impedance of the following
determine unless values of
circuit will be :-
R and C are given
(1) 150  
Q.59 Incorrect statement are :-
(2) 200
(a) A.C. meters can
(3) 250
measure D.C also
(4) 340
(b) If A.C. meter measures
D.C. there scale must be
Q.55 200  resistance and 1H
linear and uniform
inductance are connected in series (c) A.C. and D.C. meters are based
with an A.C. circuit. The frequency on heating effect of current
of the source is 200/2 Hz. Then (d) A.C. meter reads
phase difference of the in between rms value of current
V and I will be :-
(1) a, b (2) b, c
(1) 300 (2) 600
(3) 450 (4) 900 (3) c, d (4) d, a
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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.60 The hot wire ammeter Q.65 An alternating voltage is

measures :- connected in series with a
resistance r and an inductance L. If
(1) D.C. current (2) A.C. current the potential drop across the
(3) None of above resistance is 200 volt and across
(4) both (1) & (2) the inductance is 150 volt, the
applied voltage :-
Q.61 If the current through an
inductor of inductance L is given by (1) 350 volt (2) 250 volt
I = I0 sint, then the voltage across (3) 500 volt (4) 300 volt
inductor will be
Q.66 When V = 100 sint is applied
(1) I0 L sin (t – /2) across a series (R-L-C) circuit, At
(2) I0 L sin (t + /2) resonance the current in resistance
(3) I0 L sin (t – ) (R = 100) is i = i0 sint, then
(4) None of these power dissipation in circuit is :-

Q.62 In showing figure find VR :- (1) 50 W (2) 100 W

(3) 25 W
(4) Can't be calculated
(1) 132V
(2) 396V Q.67 For a series R-L-C circuit :-
(3) 185 V (a) Voltage across L and C
(4) 220 × 176V are differ by 
(b) Current through L and R
Q.63 L, C and R represent physical are in same phase
quantities inductance, capacitance (c) Voltage across R and L
and resistance respectively. The differ by /2
combination representing (d) Voltage across L and current
dimension of frequency is :- through Care differ by /2

(1) LC (2) (LC)–1/2 (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d

(3) (L/C)–1/2 (4) C / L (3) c, d, a (4) All

Q.64 A circuit contains R, L and C Q.68 A series RL - C (R = 10 , X1 20

connected in series with an A. C. , Xc = 20 ) circuit is supplied by
source. The values of the V = 10 sin t volt then power
reactances for inductor and dissipation in circuit is :-
capacitor are 2009 and 6000
respectively and the impedance of (1) Zero (2) 10 watt
the circuit is Z1. What happens to (3) 5 watt (4) 2.5 watt
the impedance of the same circuit if
the values of the reactance are Q.69 The self inductance of the
interchanged :- motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In
order to impart maximum power at
(1) The impedance will 50Hz. It should be connected to a
remain unchanged capacitance of :-
(2) The impedance will increase
(3) The impedance will decrease (1) 2 × 10–6 F (2) 3 × 10–6 F
(4) Information insufficient (3) 10–4 F (4) 10–6 F
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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.70 If value of R is changed, then : Q.74 Frequency of A.C. in India is –

(1) 45 Hz
(2) 60 Hz
(3) 50 Hz
(4) None of the above
(1) Voltage across L remains same
(2) Voltage across C remains same Q.75 At resonance in a series LCR
(3) Voltage across LC circuit, which of the following
combination remains same statements is true :-
(4) Voltage across LC
combination changes (1) Current in the circuit is maximum
and phase difference between
Q.71 In a series LCR circuit voltage E and I is /2
across resister, inductor and (2) Current in the circuit is maximum
capacitor are 1V, 3V and 2V and phase difference between
respectively. At the instant t when E and I is zero
the source voltage is given by :- (3) Voltage is maximum and phase
V = V0 cos t, the current in the difference between E and I is /2
circuit will be :- (4) Current is minimum and
phase difference between
(1) I = I0 cos (t + /4 ) E and I is zero
(2) I = I0 cos (t – /4 )
(3) I = I0 cos (t + /3 ) Q.76 In a series resonant R-L-C
(4) I = I0 cos (t – /3 ) circuit, if L is increased by 25% and
C is decreased by 20%, then the
Q.72 In an AC Circuit decrease in resonant frequency will :-
impedance with increase in
frequency indicates that (1) Increases by 10%
circuithas/have :- (2) Decreases by 10%
(3) Remain unchanged
(1) Only resistance (4) Increases by 2.5%
(2) Resistance & inductance.
(3) Resistance & Q.77 The value of quality factor is :-
capacitance Supply
(4) Resistance, capacitance (1) L/R (2) /RC
& inductance. (3) LC (4) L/R

Q.73 In given Q.78 In LCR circuit, the voltage

LCR circuit, the across the terminals of a
voltage across resistance, inductance &
the terminals of capacitance are 40V, 30V & 60V,
a resistance & then the voltage across the main
current will be : source will be –

(1) 400V, 2A (1) 130 volt

(2) 800V, 2A (2) 100 volt
(3) 100V, 2A (3) 70 volt
(4) 100V, 4A (4) 50 volt

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 Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.79 Phase of current in LCR circuit Q.84 A 1.5 F capacitor is charged

of 60 V. The charging battery is
(1) Is in the phase a of potential then disconnected and a 15 mH coil
(2) Leading from the phase of potential is connected in series with the
(3) Lagging from the phase of potential capacitor so that LC oscillations
(4) Before resonance frequency, leading occurs. Assuming that the circuit
from the phase of potential contains no resistance. The
and after resonance maximum current in this coil shall
frequency, lagging rom be close to.
the phase of potential
(1) 1.4 A
Q.80 For an alternating current of (2) 1.2 A
frequency 500/ Hz in L-C-R series (3) 0.8 A
circuit with L = 1H, C = 1 F, R = (4) 0.6 A
100, impedance is :-
Q.85 In an A.C. circuit inductance,
(1) 100  capacitance and resistance are
(2) 100  connected. If the effective voltage
(3) 100 2 across inductance is V1, across
(4) 100  capacitance is V and across
resistance is V., then the total
Q.81 A sinusoidal A.C. current flows effective value of voltage is :-
through a resistor of resistance R.
If the peak current is Ip, then the (1) VR + VL + VC
power dissipated is :- (2) VR + VL – VC
(3) VR2 + (VL _ VC )2
(1) Ip2 /R cos
(4) V2 _ (V _ V )2
R L C
(2) 1/2 Ip2 /R
(3) 4/ Ip2 /R Q.86 In an a.c. circuit V and I are
(4) 1/2 Ip2 /R given by
V = 100sin(100t)volts
Q.82 An AC circuit draws 5A at 160 I = 100sin(100t + /3)
V and the power consumption is The power dissipated in the circuit
600 W. Then the power factor is :- is :-

(1) 1 (1) 104 watt

(2) 0.75 (2) 10 watt
(3) 0.50 (3) 2.5 watt
(4) Zero (4) 5.0 watt

Q.83 Which is not correct for Q.87 For a series LCR circuit the
average power P at resonance :- power loss at resonance is :-

(1) P = Irms Vrms V2

(1) (2) I2L
(2) P = V/√2.I/√2  _ 1 
 L  C
(3) P = VI 
(4) P = 12rmsR (3) I2R (4) V2/C

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 Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.88 In an alternating circuit Q.93 In a purely capacitive circuit

applied voltage and flowing current average power dissipated in the
are E = E0 sint and I = I0 sin (t + circuit is –
/2) respectively. Then the power
consumed in the circuit will be :- (1) Vrms Irms
(2) Depends on capacitance
(1) Zero (2) E0I0/2 (3) Infinite
(4) Zero
(3) E0l0/√2 (4) E0l0/4
Q.94 Energy loss in pure
Q.89 In which of the following case capacitance in A.C. circuit is :-
power factor will be negligible :-
(1) 1/2 CV2 (2) CV
(1) Inductance and resistance both high
(2) Inductance and resistance both low (3) 1/4 CV2 (4) Zero
(3) Low resistance and
high inductance Q.95 Power dissipated in pure
(4) High resistance and inductance will be :-
low inductance
(1) LI2/ 2 (2) 2LI2
Q.90 If V = 100 sin100t volt, and I
= 100 sin(100t + /6) A. then find (3) LI2/ 4 (4) Zero
the watt less power in watt :-
Q.96 If alternating current of rms
(1) 10 4 value 'a' flows through resistance R
(2) 103 then power loss in resistance is :-
(3) 102
(4) 2.5 × 103 (1) Zero (2) a2R
(3) A2r/2 (4) 2a2R
Q.91 An A.C. supply gives 30V
r.m.s. which passes through a 10 Q.97 Which of the following device
resistance. The power dissipated in in alternating circuit provides
it is :- maximum power :-

(1) 90 √2 W (1) Only capacitor

(2) 90 W (2) Capacitor and resistor
(3) 45 √2 W
(3) Only inductor
(4) 45 W
(4) Only resistor
Q.92 An inductor of inductance L
and resistor of resistance R are Q.98 Comparing the L-C oscillations
joined in series and connected by a with the oscillations of a spring-
source of frequency . Power block system (force constant of
dissipated in the circuit is :- spring = k and mass of block = m),
the physical quantity mk is similar
to :-
(1)
R 2
+ 2L2 
(2)
V2R
V R2 + 2L2  (1) CL (2) 1/CL
V R2 + 2L2
(3) (4) (3) C/L (4) L/C
 R 2
+ 2L2  V2
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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.99 For given circuit the power Q.104 A fully charged capacitor C
factor is. with initial charge q0 dis connected
to a coil of self inductance L at t =
0. The time at which the energy is
(1) 0
stored equally between the electric
(2) 1/2
and the magnetic fields is :-
(3) 1/√2
(4) None of these
(1) 2 LC (2) LC

Q.100 The power factor of L-R (3)  LC (4) LC
4
circuit is :-
Q.105 When100 volts d.c. is applied
R
(1) L/R (2) across a solenoid a current of 1.0
(L)2 + R2
amp. flows in it. When 100 volt a.c.
(3) L R (4) LR is applied across the same coil, the
current drops to 0.5 amp. If the
Q.101 In an oscillating LC circuit frequency of the a.c. source is 50
the maximum charge on the Hz the impedance and inductance
capacitor is Q. The charge on the of the solenoid are :-
capacitor when the energy is stored
equally between the electric and (1) 200 ohm and 0.55 H
magnetic fields is :- (2) 100 ohm and 0.86 H
(3) 200 ohm and 1.0 H
(1) Q/2 (4) 100 ohm and 0.93 H
(2) Q/√3
(3) Q/√2 Q.106 Time
(4) Q constant of the
given circuit is
Q.102 A LC circuit is in the state of . If the
resonance. if C = 0.1 F and L = battery is
0.25 henry. Neglecting ohmic replaced by an ac source having
resistance of circuit what is the voltage V = V0 cos t, power factor
frequency of oscillations. of the circuit will be :-

(1) 1007 Hz 1
(1)  (2)
(2) 100 Hz 1 + ()2
(3) 109 Hz
(4) 500 Hz (3) 1 + ()2 (4) None

Q.103 A 60 F capacitor is charged Q.107 An alternating emf of

to 100 volts. This charged capacitor angular frequency w is applied
is connected across a 1.5 mH coil, across an inductance. The
so that LC oscillations occur. The instantaneous power developed in
maximum current in the coil is :- the circuit has an angular
frequency :-
(1) 1.5 A
(2) 2A (1) /4
(3) 15 A (2) /2
(4) 20 A (3)  (4) 2 

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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.108 he self inductance of a choke Q.112 A coil has an inductance of

coil is 10 mH. when it is connected 0.7 henry and is joined in series
with a 10 V D.C. source, then the with a resistance of 220 . When
loss of power is 20 watt. When it is the alternating emf of 220 V at 50
connected with 10 volt A.C. source Hz is applied to it then the phase
loss of power is 10 watt. The through which current lags behind
frequency of A.C. source will be :- the applied emf and the watt less
components of current in the circuit
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz will be respectively :-
(3) 80 Hz (4)100 Hz
(1) 30°, 1 A
Q.109 An inductance L, a
capacitance C and resistance R may (2) 45°, 0.5 A
be connected to an AC source of (3) 60°, 1.5 A
angular frequency , in three
different combinations of RC, RL (4) None of these
and RLC in series. Assume that L =
1/C. The power drawn by the Q.113 In the
three combinations are P1, P2, P3 circuit shown
respectively. Then :- in the figure,
the A.C. source
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P1 = P2 < P3
gives a voltage
(3) P1 = P2 > P3 (4) P1 = P2 = P3
V = 20
Q.110 In the L-C cos(2000t)
circuit shown in volt neglecting source resistance,
figure, the the voltmeter and ammeter
current is in readings will be :-
direction shown
in the figure and charges on the (1) 0V, 1.4 A
capacitor plates have sign shown in (2) 5.6V, 1.4 A
the figure. At this time :-
(3) 0V, 0.47 A
(1) i as well as Q increasing
(2) i as well as Q decreasing (4) None of these
(3) i is increasing but Q
is decreasing Q.114 An inductor and a resistor in
(4) is decreasing but Q series are connected to an A.C.
is increasing supply of variable frequency. As the
frequency of the source is
Q.111 The inductance of the increased, the phase angle between
oscillatory circuit of a radio station current and the potential difference
is 10 milli henry and its capacitance across source will be :-
is 0.25F. Taking the effect of the
resistance negligible, wavelength (1) First increase and
of the broadcasted waves will be then decrease
(velocity of light 3.0 × 108 m/s,  = (2) First decrease and
3.14) :- then increase
(1) 9.42 × 104m (2) 18.8 x 104m (3) Go on decreasing
(3) 4.5 × 104m (4) none of these (4) Go on increasing

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Alternating Current Question Bank

Q.115 The Q.118 If frequency of alternating

diagram shows source is made zero then which of
a capacitor C the following statement is true :-
and a resistor R
connected in (1) Current through capacitor will be zero
series to an AC (2) Current through resistance
source, V1, and V2 are voltmeters will be zero
and A is an ammeter. Consider now (3) Current through inductance
the following statements :- will be zero
(I) Readings in A and V2 are always (4) All
(II) in phase
Q.119 The
(II) Reading in V1 is ahead with
figure shows a
reading in V2
LCR network
(III) Readings in A and V1 are
connected to 300
always
V a.c. supply. The
in phase Which of these statements
circuit elements are such that R =
are is correct :-
XL = XC = 100. V1, V2 and V3 are
three a.c. voltmeters connected as
(1) I only
shown in the figure. Which of the
(2) II only following represents the correct set
(3) I and II only of readings of the voltmeters ?
(4) II and III only
(1) V1 = 100 V, V2 = 100V, V3 =100 V
Q.116 A capacitor of capacitance 2 (2) V1 = 150 V, V2 = 0V, V3 =150 V
F is connected in the tank circuit (3) V1 = 300 V, V2 = 100V,
of an oscillator oscillating with a V3 =100 V
frequency of 1 kHz. If the current (4) V1 = 300 V, V2 = 300V,
flowing in the circuit is 2 mA, the V3 = 300 V
voltage across the capacitor will be. Q.120 If an alternating current i =
im sin t is flowing through an
(1) 0.16 V inductor then voltage drop VL
(2) 0.32 V across inductor L will be :-
(3) 79.5 V
(1) imLsint (2) imLcost
(4) 159 V
(3) imLsin(t + /4)
(4) imLcos(t – /4)
Q.117 If an alternating current i =
im sin t is flowing through a Q.121 The
capacitor then voltage drop VC switch in the
across capacitor C will be ? circuit pictured
is in position a
i
(1) _ m sint for a long time. At t = 0 the switch
C is moved from a to b. The current
i
(2) _ m cost through the inductor will reach its
C first maximum after moving the
i
(3) _ m (sint _  / 4) switch in a time :-
C
i (1) 2 LC (2) 1/4 LC
(4) m (sint _  / 4)
C (3) /2 LC (4) LC
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389
Electromagnetic Waves Question Bank

Q.1 For a transparent medium Q.6 Which of the following

relative permeability and statement is false for the properties
permittivity, r and r are 1.0 and of electromagnetic waves ?
1.44 respectively. The velocity of
light in this medium would be. (1) These waves do not require any
material medium for propagation
(1) 2.5 × 108 m/s
(2) Both electric and magnetic field
(2) 3 × 108 m/s
Vectors attain the maxima and Minima
(3) 2.08 × 108 m/s
(4) 4.32 × 108 m/s at the same place and same time
(3) The energy in electromagnetic
Q.2 In an electromagnetic wave in wave is divided equally between
free space the root mean square
value of the electric field is Erms = electric and magnetic vectors
6V/m. The peak value of the (4) Both electric and magnetic
magnetic field is :–
field vectors are parallel to
(1) 2.83 × 10–8 T each other and perpendicular
(2) 0.70 × 10–8 T to the direction of
(3) 4.23 × 10–8 T propagation of wave
(4) 1.41 × 10–8 T
Q.7 The electric and the magnetic
Q.3 Out of the following options field, associated with an e.m. wave,
which one can be used to produce a propagating along the + z-axis, can
propagating electromagnetic wave ? be represented by :-

(1) A charge moving  

(1) E = E0 i, B = B j
0 
at constant velocity
(2) A stationary charge  
(3) A chargeless particle (2) E = E0  B = B j
k, 0 

(4) An accelerating charge  

(3) E = E0 j, B = B j
0 
Q.4 The electric field associated
with an e.m. wave in vacuum is  
(4) E = E0 j, B = B k 
0 
given by E = 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
108t)  î, where E, z and t are in
volt/m, meter and seconds
respectively. The value of wave Q.8 An em wave is propagating in a
vector k is :- 
medium with a velocity V = Vî. The
(1) 6m–1 (2) 3m–1 instantaneous oscillating electric
field of this em wave is along +y
(3) 2m–1 (4) 0.5m–1
axis. Then the direction of
oscillating magnetic field of the em
Q.5 The energy of the em waves is
wave will be along :-
of the order of 15 kev. To which part
of the spectrum does it belong ?
(1) –z direction
(1) -rays (2) +z direction
(2) X-rays
(3) –y direction
(3) Infra-red
(4) Ultraviolet rays (4) –x direction

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Electromagnetic Waves Question Bank

Q.9 A 100   resistance and a Q.13 The dimensions of (00)–1/2

capacitor of 100  reactance are are.
connected in series across a 220 V
source. When the capacitor is 50% (1) [L1/2T–1/2]
charged, the peak value of the
displacement current is :- (2) [L–1T]
(3) [LT–1]
(1) 4.4 A
(2) 112 A (4) [L–1/2T1/2]
(3) 2.2 A
(4) 11 A Q.14 The electric field part of an
electromagnetic wave in a medium
Q.10 The decreasing order of is represented by Ex = 0 ;
wavelength of infrared, microwave,
ultraviolet and gamma rays is :- N
Ey = 2.5 cos
C
(1) Microwave, infrared,  6 rad  _ _2 rad  
ultraviolet, gamma rays  2 × 10 s  t   × 10  x ;
m  
  
(2) Gamma rays, ultraviolet,
infrared, microwaves Ez = 0. The wave is :-
(3) Microwaves, gamma rays,
infrared, ultraviolet (1) Moving along – × direction
(4) Infrared, microwave, with frequency 106 Hz and
ultraviolet, gamma rays wave length 200 m.
(2) Moving along y direction
Q.11 The condition under which a with frequency 2 × 106 Hz
microwave oven heats up a food and wave length 200 m.
item containing water molecules
(3) Moving along × direction
most efficiently is :-
with frequency 106 Hz and
(1) Infra-red waves produce wave length 100 m.
heating in a microwave oven (4) Moving along × direction
(2) The frequency of the microwaves with frequency 106 Hz and
must match the resonant frequency wave length 200 m.
of the water molecules
(3) The frequency of the Microwaves Q.15 A plane electromagnetic wave
has no relation with natural of frequency 40 MHz travels in free
frequency of water molecules space in the X-direction. At some
(4) Microwaves are heat waves, point and at  some instant, the
so always produce heating
electric field E has its maximum
value of 750 N/C in Y-direction. The
Q.12 A radiation of energy 'E' falls
wavelength of the wave is –
normally on a perfectly reflecting
surface. The momentum transferred
(1) 3.5 m
to the surface is (C = Velocity of
light) :- (2) 5.5 m
(3) 7.5 m
(1) 2E/C (2) 2E/C2
(3) E/C2 (4) E/C (4) 9.5 m

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Electromagnetic Waves Question Bank

Q.16 A plane electromagnetic wave Q.20 In an electromagnetic wave

of frequency 40 MHz travels in free the average energy density is
space in the X-direction. At some associated with –
point and at  some instant, the
electric field E has its maximum (1) Electric field only
value of 750 N/C in Y-direction. The (2) Magnetic field only
magnitude and direction of (3) Equally with electric
magnetic field will be. and magnetic fields
(4) Average energy density is zero
(1) 2.5 T in X-direction
Q.21 In an electromagnetic wave,
(2) 2.5 T in Y-direction the energy density associated with
(3) 2.5 T in Z-direction the electric field will be –
(4) None of these
1 1 q2
(1) CV2 (2)
Q.17 The sun delivers 103 W/m2 of 2 2 C
electromagnetic flux to the earth's 1 0 1
surface. The total power that is (3) (4) 0E2
2E 2
incident on a roof of dimensions 8m
× 20m, will be Q.22 In which part of earth's
atmosphere is the ozone layer
(1) 6.4 × 103 W present ?
(2) 3.4 × 104 W
(3) 1.6 × 105 W (1) Troposphere
(2) Stratosphere
(4) None of these
(3) Ionosphere
  (4) Mesosphere
Q.18 If E and B are the electric and
magnetic field vectors of Q.23 The frequency from 3 × 109 Hz
electromagnetic waves then the to 3 × 1010 Hz is –
direction of propagation of
electromagnetic wave is along the (1) High frequency band
direction of – (2) Super high frequency band
(3) Ultra high frequency band

(1) E (4) Very high frequency band
 
(2) E × B
 Q.24 The AM range of radiowaves
(3) B have frequency –
(4) None of these
(1) Less than 30 MHz
Q.19 The wave function (in S.I. (2) More than 30 MHz
units) for an electromagnetic wave (3) Less than 20000Hz
is given as – (4) More than 20000Hz
(x, t) = 103 sin (3 × 106 × –9 ×
1014t) The speed of the wave is – Q.25 The waves related to tele-
communication are –
(1) 9 × 1014 m/s (1) Infrared
(2) 3 × 108 m/s (2) Visible light
(3) 3 × 106 m/s (3) Microwaves
(4) 3 × 107 m/s (4) Ultraviolet rays

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Electromagnetic Waves Question Bank

Q.26 Greenhouse effect keeps the Q.32 The ozone layer is earth's
earth surface – atmosphere is crucial for human
survival because it –
(1) Cold at night
(2) Dusty and cold (1) Contains ions
(3) Warm at night (2) Reflects radio signals
(4) Moist (3) Reflects ultraviolet rays
(4) Reflects infra red rays
Q.27 What is the cause of
greenhouse effect ? Q.33 The frequency from 3MHz to
30 MHz is known as –
(1) Infrared rays
(2) Ultraviolet rays (1) Audio band
(3) X-rays (2) Medium frequency band
(4) Radio waves (3) Very high frequency band
(4) High frequency band
Q.28 The electromagnetic waves do
not transport – Q.34 Select wrong statement from
the following for EMW –
(1) Energy
(2) Charge (1) Are transverse
(3) Momentum (2) Travel with same speed in all medium
(4) Information (3) Travel with
the speed of light
(4) Are produced by
Q.29 The wave function (in S.I. accelerating charge
units) for an electromagnetic wave
is given as – Q.35 The nature of electromagnetic
(x, t) = 103 sin (3 × 106 × –9 × wave is –
1014t), wavelength of the wave is –
(1) Longitudinal
(1) 666 nm (2) 666 Å (2) Longitudinal stationary
(3) Transverse
(3) 666 m (4) 6.66 nm
(4) Transverse stationary

Q.30 In an electromagnetic wave Q.36 The speed of electromagnetic

the energy density associated with radiation in vaacuum is :–
magnetic field will be –
(1) 00
1 2 B 2 (2) 0 0
(1) LI (2) (3) 1/0 0
2 20
(4) 1/0 0
1 1 0
(3) 0B2 (4)
2 2 B2 Q.37 The conduction current is the
same as displacement current when
Q.31 If there were no atmosphere, source is –
the average temperature on earth
surface would be – (1) Ac only
(2) Dc only
(1) Lower (2) Higher (3) Both ac and dc
(3) Same (4) 00 C (4) Neither dc nor ac

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Electromagnetic Waves Question Bank

Q.38 The pressure exerted by an Q.40 A plane electromagnetic wave

electromagnetic wave of intensity I of frequency 40 MHz travels in free
W/m2 on a non-reflecting surface is space in the X-direction. At some
point and at  some instant, the
(1) Ic electric field E has its maximum
(2) Ic2 value of 750 N/C in Y-direction. the
(3) I/c angular frequency of e.m. wave will
(4) I/c2 be . (in rad/s)

Q.39 A plane electromagnetic wave (1) 8  × 107

of frequency 40 MHz travels in free (2) 4  × 106
space in the X-direction. At some (3) 2  × 105
point and at  some instant, the (4) p  104
electric field E has its maximum
value of 750 N/C in Y-direction . Q.41 The sun radiates
the period of the wave will be – electromagnetic energy at the rate
of 3.9 × 1026 W . It’s radius 6.96 ×
(1) 2.5 s 108 m. The intensity of sun light at
(2) 0.25 s the solar surface will be.
(3) 0.025 s (in W/m2)
(4) None of these
(1) 1.4 × 104
(2) 2.8 × 105
(3) 4.2 × 106
(4) 6.4 × 107

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.1 For a p-type semiconductor Q.6 In the

which of the following statements circuit shown in
is true ? the figure, the
input voltage vi
(1) Electrons are the majority carriers is 20V, VBE =
and trivalent atoms are the dopants. 0 and VCE = 0.
(2) Holes are the majority carriers and The values of IB,
trivalent atoms are the dopants. IC and  are given by.
(3) Holes are the majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are the dopants. (1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 2
(4) Electrons are the majority (2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
carriers and pentavalent atoms (3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5
are the dopants mA,  = 250
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5
Q.2 The correct Boolean operation
mA, = 125
represented by the circuit diagram
drawn is :-
Q.7 In a p-n junction diode, change
in temperature due to heating.
(1) AND
(2) OR
(1) Affects only reverse resistance
(3) NAND
(2) Affects only forward resistance
(4) NOR
(3) Does not affect
resistance of p-n junction
Q.3 The circuit diagram shown here
(4) Affects the overall V – I
corresponds to the logic gate –
characteristics of p-n junction

(1) NOR Q.8 In a common emitter transistor

(2) AND amplifier the audio signal voltage
(3) OR across the collector is 3V. The
(4) NAND resistance of collector is 3k. If
current gain is 100 and the base
Q.4 An LED is constructed from a p- resistance is 2k, the voltage and
n junction diode using GaAsP. The power gain of the amplifier is :-
energy gap is 1.9 eV. The
wavelength of the light emitted will (1) 15 and 200
be equal to :– (2) 150 and 15000
(3) 20 and 2000
(1) 10.4 × 10–26 m
(4) 200 and 1000
(2) 654 nm
(3) 654 Å (4) 654 × 10–11 m
Q.9 The given electrical network is
Q.5 In the combination of the equivalent to :-
following gates the output Y can be
written in terms of inputs A and B as.

(1) A.B (1) OR gate

(2) A.B + A.B (2) NOR gate
(3) A.B + A.B (3) NOT gate
(4) A +B (4) AND gate

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.10 Which one of the following Q.14 For CE transistor amplifier,

represents forward bias diode ? the audio signal voltage across the
collector resistance of 2k is 4V. If
(1) the current amplification factor of
the transistor is 100 and the base
resistance is 1k , then the input
(2) signal voltage is –

(3) (1) 30 mV (2) 15 mV

(3) 10 mV (4) 20 mV
(4)
Q.15 The
given circuit
Q.11 Consider the junction diode as
has two
ideal. The value of current flowing
ideal diodes
through AB is –
connected
as shown in
the figure
below. The current flowing through
(1) 0 A (2) 10–2 A the resistance R1 will be –
(3) 10–1 A (4) 10–3 A
(1) 1.43 A
Q.12 A npn transistor is connected (2) 3.13 A
in common emitter configuration in (3) 2.5 A
a given amplifier. A load resistance (4) 10.0 A
of 800 is connected in the
collector circuit and the voltage Q.16 What is the output Y in the
drop across it is 0.8V. If the current following circuit, when all the three
amplification factor is 0.96 and the inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1 ?
input resistance of the circuit is 192
, the voltage gain and the power
gain of the amplifier will
respectively be –
(1) 1, 0 (2) 1, 1
(1) 4, 3.84 (2) 3.69, 3.84
(3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 3.69 (3) 0, 1 (4) 0, 0

Q.13 To get output 1 for the Q.17 Which logic gate is

following circuit, the correct choice represented by the following
for the input is – combination of logic gates ?

(1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(1) NAND (2) AND
(3) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (3) NOR (4) OR

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 Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.18 If in a p-n junction, a square Q.21 The given

input signal of 10 V is applied, as graph represents V-
shown, I characteristic for a
semiconductor
device. Which of the
following statement
is correct ?
Then the output across RL will be :- Which of the following statement is
correct ?

(1) (2) (1) It is V - I characteristic for solar cell

where, point A represents open circuit
voltage and point B short circuit
(2) It is a for a solar cell and point A
and B represent open circuit voltage
(3) (4) and current, respectively.
(3) It is for a photodiode and points A
and B represent open circuit voltage
and current, respectively.
Q.19 In the (4) It is for a LED and points
given figure, a A and B represent open
diode D is circuit voltage and short
connected to an circuit current, respectively
external
resistance R = Q.22 The barrier potential of a p-n
100 and an e. m. f. of 3.5 V. If the junction depends on :-
barrier potential developed across (a) type of semi conductor material
the diode is 0.5 V, the current in (b) amount of doping
the circuit will be – (c) temperature
Which one of the following is
(1) 35 mA (2) 30 mA correct ?
(3) 40 mA (4) 20 mA
(1) (a) and (b) only
Q.20 The input signal given to a CE (2) (b) only
amplifier having a voltage gain of (3) (b) and (c) only
  (4) (a), (b) and (c)
150 is Vi = 2 cos  15t +  . The
 3
corresponding output signal will be. Q.23 In a common emitter (CE)
amplifier having a voltage gain G,
 4  the transistor used has
(1) 300 cos  15t +
 3  transconductance 0.03 mho and
current gain 25. If the above
  transistor is replaced with another
(2) 300 cos  15t + 
 3 one with transconductance 0.02
 5  mho and current gain 20, the
(3) 2 cos  15t +
 3  voltage gain will be –
 2  (1) (5/4)G (2) (2/3)G
(4) 75 cos  15t +
 3  (3) 1.5 G (4) (1/3)G

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 Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.24 In a n-type semiconductor which Q.28 Transfer

of the following statements is true – characteristics
[(output voltage
(1) Holes are majority carrier (V0) vs input
and trivalent atoms are dopants voltage (Vi)] for a
(2) Electrons are majority carrier base biased
and pentavalent atoms are dopants transistor in CE configuration is as
(3) Electrons are minority carrier shown in the figure. For using
and trivalent atoms are dopants transistor as a switch, it is used.
(4) Holes are minority carrier
and pentavalent atoms are dopants
(1) In region II (2) In region I
(3) In region III
Q.25 The output (X) of the logic
(4) Both in region (1) & (III)
circuit shown in figure will be –
Q.29 The input resistance of a
silicon transistor is 100 . Base
current is changed by 40mA which
(1) X = A + B (2) X = A.B results in a change in collector
(3) X = A.B (4) X = A.B current by 2 mA. This transistor is
used as a common emitter amplifier
Q.26 In a CE transistor amplifier, the with a load resistance of 4K . The
audio signal voltage across the voltage gain of the amplifier is :-
collector resistance of 2k is 2 V. If
the base resistance is 1k and the (1) 4000 (2) 1000
current amplification of the (3) 2000 (4) 3000
transistor is 100, the input signal
voltage is :- Q.30 A zener
diode, having
(1) 1 mV (2) 10 mV breakdown
(3) 0.1 V (4) 1.0 V voltage equal
to 15 V, is
Q.27 C and Si both have same lattice used in a voltage regulator circuit
structure, having 4 bonding electrons shown in fittgure. The current
in each. However, C is insulator through the zener diode is –
where as Si is intrinsic
semiconductor. This is because :- (1) 5 mA (2) 10 mA
(3) 15 mA (4) 20 mA
(1) The four bonding electrons
in the case of C lie in the second
Q.31 In the following figure, the
orbit, whereas in the case of Si
they lie in the third. diodes which are forward biased, are
(2) The four bonding electrons in the
case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas
for Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
(3) In case of C the valence
band is not completely filled
at absolute zero temperature.
(4) In case of C the conduction (1) (a), (b) and (d)
band is partly filled even at (2) (c) only
absolute zero temperature (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.32 Pure Si at 500 K has equal Q.35 If a small amount of antimony

number of electron (ne) and hole is added to germanium crystal :-
(nh) concentrations to 1.5 × 1016
m–3. Doping by indium increases nh, (1) It Becomes A
to 4.5 × 1022 m–3 The doped P-type Semiconductor
semiconductor is of :– (2) The Antimony Becomes
An Acceptor Atom
(1) p-type having electron (3) There Will Be More
concentrations ne = 5 × 109m–3 Free Electrons Than Holes
In The Semiconductor
(2) n-type with electron
(4) Its Resistance Is Increased
concentration ne = 5 × 1022 m–3
(3) p-type with electron
Q.36 Symbolic representation of
concentration ne = 2.5 × 1010m–3
four logic gates are shown as :-
(4) n-type with electron
concentration ne = 2.5 × 1023m–3

Q.33 A transistor is operated in

common emitter configuration at VC
= 2V such that a change in the base
current from 100 A to 300 A Pick out which ones are for AND,
produces a change in the collector NAND and NOT gates, respectively :
current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The
current gain is :- (1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii), (ii) and (i)
(1) 50 (3) (iii), (ii) and (iv)
(2)75 (4) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
(3) 100
(4) 25 Q.37 The device that can act as a
complete electronic circuit is :-
Q.34 In forward biasing of the p-n
junction :- (1) Zener diode
(2) Junctions diode
(1) The positive terminal of (3) Integrated circuit
the battery is connected to (4) Junction transistor
p-side and the depletion
region becomes thick. Q.38 Which one of the following
(2) The positive terminal of statement is false?
the battery is connected to
n-side and the depletion (1) The resistance of intrinsic
region becomes thin. semiconductor decreases with
(3) The positive terminal of increase of temperature
the battery is connected to (2) Pure Si doped with
n-side and the depletion trivalent impurities gives
region becomes thick a p-type semiconductor.
(4) The positive terminal (3) Majority carriers in a n-type
of the battery is connected semiconductor are holes.
to p-side and the depletion (4) Minority carriers in a p-type
region becomes thin. semiconductor are electrons

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 Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.39 To get an output Y= 1 in given Q.44 The circuit is equilvalent to –

circuit which of the following input
will be correct –

A B C (1) NOR gate (3) AND gate

(1) 1 1 0 (2) OR gate (4) NAND gate
(2) 0 1 0
(3) 1 0 0 Q.45 In the energy
(4) 1 0 1 band diagram EC of
a material shown
Q.40 A p-n photodiode is fabricated below, the open
from a semiconductor with a band circles and filled
gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal circles denote holes
of wavelength :- and electrons
respectively. The Ev material is :-
(1) 4000 Å (3) 4000 nm
(2) 6000 Å (4) 6000 nm
(1) An n-type semiconductor
Q.41 The (2) A p-type semiconductor
symbolic A (3) An insulator
representation of (4) A metal
four logic gates
are given below : Q.46 A common emitter amplifier
The logic symbols has a voltage gain of 50, an input
for OR, NOT and impedance of 100  and an output
NAND gates are impedance of 200  . The power
respectively :- gain of the amplifier is :-

(1) (i), (iii), (iv) (1) 100 (3) 1000

(2) (iii), (iv), (ii) (2) 500 (4) 1250
(3) (iv), (i), (iii) (4) (iv), (ii), (i)
Q.47 In the following circuit, the
Q.42 A p-n photodiode is made of a output Y for all possible inputs A
material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. and B is expressed by the truth
The minimum frequency of the table :-
radiation that can be absorbed by
the material is nearly :-

(1) 1 × 1014 Hz
(2) 20 × 1014 Hz
(3) 10 × 1014 Hz
(1) (2)
(4) 5 × 1014 Hz

Q.43 The voltage gain of an

amplifier with 9% negative
feedback is 10. The voltage gain
without feedback will be :- (3) (4)
(1) 1.25 (3) 90
(2) 100 (4) 10

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.48 A transistor oscillator using a Q.52 Electric conduction in a

resonant circuit with an inductor L semiconductor takes place due to :-
(of negligible resistance) and a
capacitor C in series produce (1) electrons only
oscillations of frequency f. If L is (2) holes only
doubled and C is changed to 4C, the (3) both electrons and holes
frequency will be :- (4) neither electrons nor holes

(1) f/4 Q.53 The atomic bonding is same

(2) 8f for which of the following pairs :-
(3) f/2√2
(4) f/2 (1) Ag and Si
(3) Ne and Ge
Q.49 The following (2) Ge and Si
figure shows a AND (4) NaCl and Ge
logic gate circuit
with two inputs A Q.54 Which of the following energy
and B and the band diagram shows the n-type
output C. The semiconductor :-
voltage waveforms
of C will be.
(1) (2)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Q.50 On increasing the temperature
the specific resistance of a
semiconductor :-

(1) increases Q.55 Let np and ne be the numbers

(2) decreases of holes and conduction electrons
(3) does not change in an extrinsic semiconductor –
(4) first decreases and then increases
(1) np > ne
Q.51 Platinum and silicon are (2) np = ne
cooled after heating up to 25° C (3) np < ne
then :- (4) np  ne

(1) resistance of platinum will increase Q.56 A p-type semiconductor is :-

and that of silicon decreases
(2) resistance of silicon will increase (1) Positively charged
and that of platinum decreases (2) Negatively charged
(3) resistance of (3) Uncharged
both will decrease (4) Uncharged at OK
(4) resistance of but charged at higher
both increases temperatures 2

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.57 Which statement is correct for Q.62 Two wires P and Q made up of
p-type semiconductor – different materials have same
resistance at room temperature.
(1) the number of electrons When heated, resistance of P
in conduction band is more increases and that of Q decreases.
than the number of holes in We conclude that :-
valence band at room temperature
(2) the number of holes in (1) P and Q both are conductors but
valence band is more than because of being made of different
the number of electrons in materials it happens so.
conduction band at room temperature (2) P is n-type semiconductor and
(3) there are no holes and Q is p-type semiconductor.
electrons at room temperature (3) P is semiconductor and
(4) number of holes and Q is conductor.
electrons is equal in (4) P is conductor and
valence and conduction band Q is semiconductor.

Q.58 When an impurity is doped Q.63 When the conductivity of a

into an intrinsic semiconductor, the semiconductor is only due to
conductivity of the semiconductor – breaking of covalent bonds, the
semiconductor is called :-
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains the same (1) intrinsic (2) extrinsic
(4) become zero (3) p-type (4) n-type

Q.59 When we convert pure Q.64 In an intrinsic semiconductor,

semiconductor into N type the number of electrons and holes at
number of hole :- room temperature are :-

(1) Increases (1) Equal (2) zero

(2) Decreases (3) Unequal (4) infinity
(3) Remains constant
(4) None Q.65 A semiconductor wire is
connected in an electric circuit in
Q.60 A semiconductor is damaged series and temperature of
by a strong current, because :- semiconductor increased then the
current in the circuit :-
(1) lack of free electrons
(2) decrease in electrons (1) Decreases (2) constant
(3) excess of electrons (3) Increases
(4) none of these (4) will not flow

Q.61 If no and nh are the number of Q.66 In germanium crystal, the

electrons and holes in a forbidden energy gap in joule is:-
semiconductor heavily doped with
phosphors, then :- (1) 1.6 × 10–19
(2) zero
(1) ne >> nn (2) ne << nn (3) 1.12 × 10–19
(3) ne ≤ nn (4) ne = nn (4) 1.76 × 10–19

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Q.67 In semiconductor, at room Q.71 Choose the false statement

temperature :- from the following :-

(1) valence band are partially (1) The resistivity of resistivity

empty and conduction of a semiconductor increases
band are partially filled with increase in temperature.
(2) valence band are fully (2) Substances with energy gap
filled and conduction band of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
are partially empty (3) In conductors the valence and
(3) valence band conduction bands may over lap.
are fully filled (4) The conductivity of a
(4) conduction band semiconductor increases
are fully empty with increases in temperature

Q.72 Carbon, Silicon and

Q.68 The probability of electrons to Germanium atoms have four
be found in the conduction band of
valence electrons each. Their
an intrinsic semiconductor at a
valence and conduction bonds are
finite temperature :- separated by energy band gaps
represented by (Eq)c, (Eq)Si and
(1) decreases exponentially (Eq)Ge respectively. Which one of
with increasing band gap. the following relationships is true
(2) increases exponentially in their case :-
with increasing band gap.
(3) decrease with (1) (Eq)c < (Eq)Ge
increasing temperature. (2) (Eq)c > (Eq)Si
(4) is independent of the (3) (Eq)c = (Eq)Si
temperature and the band gap. (4) (Eq)c < (Eq)Si

Q.69 In a p-type semiconductor, Q.73 In semiconducting material

there are mainly :- the motilities of electrons and holes
are e and h respectively. Which of
(1) free electrons the following is true :-

(2) holes (1) me > mh (2) me < mh

(3) me = mh (4) me < 0; h > 0
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) none of these Q.74 Impurity energy level of n-
type semiconductor lies in :-
Q.70 A conducting wire of Copper
(1) just above valence band
and Germanium are cooled from
(2) just below conduction band
room temperature to temperature
(3) between valence
80K, then their resistance will :-
and conduction band
(4) none of these
(1) increase
(2) decrease Q.75 What is the energy gap is Si
(3) copper's increase and semiconductor ?
Germanium's decrease
(4) copper's decrease and (1) 4.4 eV (2) 0.3 eV
Germanium's increase (3) 0.7 eV (4) 1.1 eV

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Q.76 Region which have no free Q.81 The majority current in a p-n
electrons and holes in a p-n junction is :–
junction is :-
(1) from the n-side to the p-side
(1) p – region (2) n - region (2) from the p-side to the n-side
(3) Junction (3) from the n-side to the p-side if the
(4) depletion region junction is forward-biased and in the
opposite direction if it is reverse biased
Q.77 In p-n junction at the near at (4) from the p-side to the
junction there are :- n-side if the junction is
forward-biased and in the
(1) positive Ions opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(2) negative Ions
(3) positive and negative Ions Q.82 Diffusion current in a p-n
(4) electrons and holes junction is greater than the drift
current in magnitude :-
Q.78 In a P-N junction diode not
connected to any circuit – (1) if the junction is forward-biased
(2) If the junction
(1) Potential is the same everywhere. is reverse-biased
(2) the P – type side is at a higher (3) If the junction is unbiased
potential than the N – type side. (4) In no case
(3) there is an electric field at the
junction directed from the N–type Q.83 In a ………………. biased P-N
side to the P – type side. junction, the net flow holes is from
(4) There is an electric field at N-region to the P-region :-
the junction directed from the
P – type side to the N – type side. (1) F.B.
(2) R.B.
Q.79 Depletion layer in p-n junction (3) Unbiased
region is caused by – (4) both 1 & 2

(1) drift holes Q.84 A 2 V

(2) diffusion of free carriers battery forward
(3) migration of impurity ions biases a diode
(4) drift of electrons however there is
a drop of 0.5 V
Q.80 The minority current in a p-n across the dipole which is
junction is :- independent of current. Also a
current greater than 10 mA
(1) from the n-side to the p-side
produces large joule loss and
(2) from the p-side to the n-side damages diode. If diode is to be
(3) from the n-side to the p-side if the operated at 5 mA, the series
junction is forward-biased and in the resistance to be put is :-
opposite direction if it is reverse biased.
(4) from the p-side to the n-side if the (1) 3 k
junction is forward-biased and (2) 300 k
in the opposite direction if it (3) 300 
is reverse biased (4) 200 k

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Q.85 Which of the following diode Q.91 In a unbias p-n junction:-

is reverse biased :-
(1) high potential is at n side
and low potential is at p side.
(1) (2) (2) high potential is at p side
and low potential is at n side.
(3) p and n both are at
same potential.
(4) undetermined.
(3) (4)
Q.92 On increasing the reverse bias
to a large value in p-n junction
Q.86 Find VAB :- diode then value of current.

(1) 10 V (1) Remains fixed

(2) 20 V (2) Increases slowly
(3) 30 V (3) Decrease slowly
(4) None (4) Suddenly increase
Q.87 Assuming that the junction
Q.93 Reverse bias applied to a
diode is ideal then the current
junction diode :-
through the diode is :-
(1) Lowers the potential barrier.
(2) Raises the potential barrier.
(3) Increases the majority
(1) 200 mA (2) 20 mA carrier current.
(3) 2 mA (4) Zero (4) Increases the minority
carrier current.
Q.88 The resistance of a reverse
biased pn junction diode is about :-
Q.94 Correct statement for diode is.
(1) 1 ohm (2) 102 ohm
(1) In full wave rectifier
(3) 103 ohm (4) 106 ohm
both diodes work alternatively
Q.89 Current I in the circuit will be :- (2) In full wave rectifier both
diodes work simultaneously.
5 (3) Efficiency of full wave rectifier
(1) A and half wave rectifier is same.
40
5 (4) Full wave rectifier in bidirectional.
(2) A
50
Q.95 When a junction diode is
5 5
(3) A (4) A reverse biased, the flow of current
10 20
across the junction is mainly due to
Q.90 In a p-n junction the depletion
layer of thickness 10–6 m has (1) Diffusion of charges
potential across it is 0.1 V. The (2) Depends upon the
average electric field is (V/m) nature of material
(3) Drift of charges
(1) 107 (2) 10–6 (4) Doth drift and
(3) 105 (4) 10–5 diffusion of charges

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Q.96 The width of depletion region Q.101 In p-n junction photocell

in a p-n junction diode. electromotive force due to
monochromatic light is proportional
(1) Increases when to –
reverse bias is applied.
(2) Increases when a (1) p-n potential barrier
forward bias is applied. (2) Intensity of light
(3) Decreases when a (3) Frequency of light
reverse bias is applied. (4) p-n applied voltage
(4) Remains the same
irrespective of the bias voltage. Q.102 Efficiency of a half wave
rectifier is nearly :-
Q.97 Forbidden energy gap of Ge is
0.75 eV, maximum wave length of (1) 80% (2) 60%
incident radiation of photon for (3) 40% (4) 20%
producing electron hole pair in
germanium semiconductor is :- Q.103 A transistor is used in the
common emitter mode as an
(1) 4200 Å amplifier then :-
(2) 16500 Å (A) The base emitter junction is
(3) 4700 Å (4) 4000 Å forward baised.
(B) The base emitter junction is
Q.98 In the reverse baised.
circuit given (C) The input signal is connected in
the current series with the voltage applied to
through the bias the base emitter junction.
zener diode is. (D) The input signal is connected in
series with the voltage applied to
(1) 10 mA bias the base collector junction.
(2) 6.67 MA
(3) 5 mA (1) A, B
(4) 3.33 mA (2) A, D
(3) A, C
Q.99 If a full wave rectifier circuit (4) Only C
is operating from 50 Hz mains, the
fundamental frequency in the ripple Q.104 A
will be :- full wave
rectifier
(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz circuit
(3) 70.7 Hz (4) 100 Hz along
with the
Q.100 The electrical circuit used to input and output voltage is shown
get smooth DC output from a in the figure then output due to
rectifier circuit is called :- diode D2 is :-

k(1) Filter (1) A, C

(2) Oscillator (2) B, D
(3) Logic gate (3) B, C
(4) Amplifier (4) A, D

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.105 In a transistor :- Q.110 The current gain  of a

transistor is 50. The input
(1) The emitter has the least resistance of the transistor, when
concentration of impurity. used in the common emitter
(2) The collector has the least configuration, is 1 k. The peak
concentration of impurity. value of the collector a.c. current
(3) The base has the least for an alternating peak input
concentration of impurity. voltage 0.01 V is –
(4) All the three regions have
equal concentration of impurity. (1) 100 Α
(2) 250 А
Q.106 In transistor symbols, the (3) 500 А
arrows shows the direction of :- (4) 800 Α

(1) Current in the emitter Q.111 A transistor is operated in CE

(2) Electron current configuration at VCC = 2V such that
in the emitter a change in base current from 100
(3) Holes current A to 200 A produces a change in
in the collector the collector current from 9 mA to
(4) Electron current 16.5 mA. The value of current gain,
in the collector  is :-

Q.107 Zener dode is used for :- (1) 45 (2) 50

(1) Rectification (3) 60 (4) 75

(2) Stabilization
(3) Amplification Q.112 The input resistance of a
(4) Producing oscillations silicon transistor is 1 k. If base
in an oscillator current is changed by 100 µA, it
causes the change in collector
Q.108 The region of transistor in current by 2 mA. This transistor is
which extra impurity is doped to used as a CE amplifier with a load
obtain a large number of majority resistance of 5 k . What is the ac
carrier is called as – voltage gain of amplifier ?

(1) Emitter (1) 10

(2) Base (2) 100
(3) Collector (3) 500
(4) Any one of these (4) 200
depending upon the transistor
Q.113 For a transistor amplifier
Q.109 Input resistance of common power gain and voltage gain are 7.5
emitter with output transistor and 2.5 respectively. The value of
compare with resistance is :- the current gain will be :-

(1) Less (1) 0.33

(2) More (2) 0.66
(3) Less and more (3) 0.99
(4) None of these (4) 3

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Q.114 In the Q.118 In a transistor, the base is

following made very thin and lightly doped
common with an impurity :-
emitter circuit
if  = 100, VCE (1) To save the transistor
= 7V, VBE = from heating effect
negligible, Rc = 2k then IB is – (2) To enable the emitter to emit
small number of electrons and holes
(1) 0.01 mA (3) To enable the collector 95%
(2) 0.04 mA of the holes or electron coming
(3) 0.02 mA from the emitter side
(4) 0.03 mA (4) None of the above

Q.115 When a transistor is used in Q.119 In CB

configuration of
a circuit :- iC
transistor ac current gain is =
iE
(1) Both junctions are forward biased.
0.98, determine current gain of CE
(2) Emitter base junction is forward
configuration –
biased and the base collector
junction is reverse biased.
(1) 49
(3) Emitter base junction
(3) 4.9
is reverse biased and the
(2) 98
base collector junction
(4) 24.5
is forward biased.
(4) Both junctions
are reverse biased. Q.120 In an n-p-n transistor :-

Q.116 What is the voltage gain in a (1) Holes move from

common emitter amplifier where emitter to base
input resistance is 3 and load (2) Electrons moves
resistance is 24  and current gain from emitter to base
= 6 ? (3) Holes move from
base to collector
(1) 2.2 (4) Electrons move
(2) 1.2 from collector to base
(3) 4.8
(4) 48 Q.121 In the
given transistor
Q.117 In a n-p-n transistor circuit, circuit, the base
the collector current is 10 mA. If current is 35 A.
90% of the electrons emitted reach The value of RB
the collector then the emitter is (VBE is
current (IE) and base current (IB) assumed to
are given by :- negligible)

(1) IE = 1 mA; IB = 11 mA (1) 100 ΚΩ

(2) IE = 11 mA; IB = 1 mA (2) 300 ΚΩ
(3) IE = –1 mA; IB = 9 mA (3) 200 ΚΩ
(4) IE = 9 mA; IB = –1 mA (4) 400 ΚΩ

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.122 In the study of transistor as Q.126 The

amplifier if  = IC/IE and  = IC/IB circuit shown
where IC, IB, and IE are the in the figure
collector, base and emitter current, contains three
then :- diodes each
with forward
  resistance of
(1) = (2) = _
1+  1  50 ohms and with infinite backward
1+  1_  resistance. If the battery voltage is
(3) = (4) = 6 V, the current through the 100
 
ohm resistance is–
Q.123 An oscillator is nothing but
an amplifier with :- (1) 0 (2) 36 mA
(3) 43 mA (4) 50 mA
(1) Positive feedback
(2) High gain Q.127 In the case of constants 
(3) No feedback and  of a transistor :-
(4) Negative feedback
(1) =
Q.124 For the (2) <1>1
given circuit (3)  = 1
shown in fig, to act (4) >1<1
as full wave
rectifier :- a.c. Q.128 For a transistor in a common
input should be emitter arrangement the alternating
connected across current gain  is given by –
…….. and the d.c. output would
appear across ....... and ……….  I 
(1) =  C 
 IE  V
CE
(1) A, C, B, D
 I 
(2) B, D, A, C (2) =  B 
(3) A, B, C, D  IC  V
CE

(4) C, A, D, B  I   I 
(3) =  C  (4) =  E 
Q.125 A n-p-n transistor conducts  IB  V
CE
 IC  V
CE

when :-
Q.129 Consider an n-p-n transistor
(1) Both Collector And Emitter Are amplifier in common emitter
Positive With Respect To The Base. configuration. The current gain of
(2) Collector Is Positive And the transistor is 100. If the
Emitter Is Negative With collector current changes by 1 mA,
Respect To The Base. what will be the change in emitter
(3) Collector Is Positive And current ?
Emitter Is At Same Potential
As The Base. (1) 1.1 mA
(4) Both Collector And (2) 1.01 mA
Emitter Are Negative (3) 0.01 mA
With Respect To The Base. (4) 10 mA

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.130 The output Q.136 When all the inputs of a

of the given logic NAND gate are connected together,
gate is 1 when the resulting circuit is :-
inputs A, B and C
are such that :- (1) a NOT gate (2) an AND gate
(3) an OR gate (4) a NOR gate
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 Q.137 The NOR gate is logically
(3) A = B=C=0 equivalent to an OR gate followed by
(4) A = B=C=1
(1) An Inverter (2) A NOR Gate
Q.131 The truth table shown below (3) A NAND Gate
is for which of the following gates – (4) All Of Above

Q.138 The output of a two input

(1) XNOR
NOR gate is in state 1 when :-
(2) AND
(3) XOR
(1) Either Input Terminals Is At 0 State
(4) NOR
(2) Either Input Terminals Is At 1 State
(3) Both Input Terminals
Q.132 A two inputed XOR gate
Are At 0 State
produces an high output only when
(4) Both Input Terminals
it’s both inputs are :-
Are At 1 State
(1) Same (2) Different
Q.139 The output Y of the
(3) Low (4) High
combination of gates shown is
equal to –
Q.133 Which of the following
Boolean expression is not correct :-
(1) A
(2) Ā
(1) A.B = A + B (3) A+B
(2) A + B = A.B (4) AB
(3) A.B = A.B
Q.140 What would be the output of
(4) 1 + 1 = 1
the circuit whose Boolean
Q.134 Digital circuits can be made expression Y = AB + AB when A =
by repetitive use of :- 1, B = 0 :-

(1) OR gate (1) 1 (2) 0

(2) AND gate (3) both (1) & (2)
(3) NOT gate (4) None of these
(4) NAND gate
Q.141 To get an output 1, the input
Q.135 In Boolean algebra, which of ABC should be :-
the following is not equal to zero :-
(1) 101
(2) 100
(1) A.A (2) A.0 (3) 110
(3) A + A (4) A.0 (4) 010
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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.142 The circuit shown here is Q.147 The logic symbols shown
logically equivalent to :- here are logically equivalent to :-

(1) OR gate (2) AND gate

(3) NOT gate (4) NAND gate (1) (a) AND and (b) OR gate
(2) (a) NOR and (b) NAND gate
Q.143 The output of 2 input gate is (3) (a) OR and (b) AND gate
1 only if its inputs are equal. It is (4) (a) NAND and (b) NOR gate
true for :-
Q.148 Which of the following gates
(1) NAND (2) AND will have an output of 1 :-
(3) EX-NOR (4) EX-OR

Q.144 The
combination
of the gates
shown will
produce – (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
(1) OR gate (2) AND gate
(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate Q.149 The logic behind 'NOR' gate
is that it gives :-
Q.145 In the CB mode of a
transistor, when the collector (1) High Output When
voltage is changed by 0.5 volt, the Both Inputs Are High
collector current changes by 0.05 (2) High Output When
mA. the output resistance will be – Both Inputs Are Low
(3) Low Output When
(1) 10 kΩ (2) 20 ΚΩ Both Inputs Are Low
(4) None Of These
(3) 5 ΚΩ (4) 2.5 kΩ
Q.150 The
Q.146 The truth table for the
combination
following combination of gates is :-
of the gates
shown will
produce –

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate

(3) NOR gate (4) XOR gate
(1) (2)
Q.151 A two-input NAND gate is
followed by a single-input NOR gate.
This logic circuit will function as :-

(3) (4) (1) An AND gate

(2) An OR gate
(3) A NOT gate (4) A NOR gate

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Semiconductor Question Bank

Q.49 The following Q.156 Mobility of electrons in N-

figure shows a AND type Ge is 5000 cm2/volts and
logic gate circuit conductivity 5 mho/cm. If effect of
with two inputs A holes is negligible then impurity
and B and the concentration will be :-
output C. The
voltage waveforms
(1) 6.25 × 1015/cm3
of C will be.
(2) 9.25 × 1014/cm3

(1) (2) (3) 6 × 1013/cm3

(4) 9 × 1013/cm3

(3) (4)
Q.157 If the two ends of a p-n
junction are joined by a wire :-
Q.153 An electric field is applied to
a semiconductor. Let the number of
charge carriers density is 'n' and (1) there will not be a steady
the average drift speed be v. If the current in the circuit.
temperature is increased – (2) there will be a steady current
from the n-side to the p-side.
(1) both n and v will increase (3) there will a steady current
(2) n will increase but v will decrease from the p-side to the n-side.
(3) v will increase (4) there may or may not be
but n will decrease a current depending upon the
(4) both n and v will decrease resistance of the connecting wire.

Q.154 What will be conductivity of Q.158 A hole diffuses from the p-

pure silicon crystal at 300 K side to the n-side in a p-n junction.
temperature. If electron hole pairs This means that :-
per cm3 is 1.072  × 106 at this
temperature, 1350 cm2 volt-s and 
= 480 cm2/volt-s :– (1) a bond is broken on the
n-side and the electron freed
(1) 3.14 × 10–6 mho/cm from the bond jumps to the
(2) 3 × 106 mho/cm conduction band.
(3) 10–6 mho/cm (2) a conduction electron on
(4) 106 mho/cm the p-side jumps to a broken
bond to complete it.
Q.155 In sample of pure silicon (3) a bond is broken on the
1013 atom/cm3 is mixed of n-side and the electron free
phosphorus. If all donor atoms are from the bond jumps to a
active then what will be resistivity broken bond on the p-side
at 200C if mobility of electron is to complete it.
1200 cm2/volt-s :- (4) a bond is broken on the
p-side and the electron free
(1) 0.5209 ohm cm from the bond jumps to a
(2) 5.209 ohm cm broken bond on the n-side
(3) 52.09 ohm cm to complete it.
(4) 520.9 ohm cm
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Q.159 The output Q.163 For the

across the diode given circuit of
in the given p-n junction
circuit in figure. diode which is
correct :-
(1) Would be zero at all times.
(2) Would be like a half wave rectifier (1) in F.B. the voltage across R is V
with positive cycles in output. (2) in R.B. the voltage across R is V
(3) Would be like a half wave rectifier (3) in F.B. the voltage
with negative cycles in output. across R is 2 V
(4) Would be like that (4) in R.B. the voltage
of a full wave rectifier. across R is 2 V

Q.160 In a common emitter Q.164 The intrinsic carrier density

transistor circuit, the base current in germanium crystal at 300 K is
is 40 mA, then VBE is :- 2.5 × 1013 per cm2. If electron
density in an n-type germanium
(1) 2V crystal at 300 K be 0.5 × 1017 per
(2) 0.2V cm3, a hole density (per cm3) in this
(3) 0.8V n-type crystal at 300 K would be
(4) Zero expected around –

Q.161 In the (1) 2.5 × 1013

circuit shown (2) 5 × 106
the transistor (3) 1.25 × 1010
used has current (4) 0.2 × 104
gain  = 100.
What should be the base resistor RB Q.165 In half wave rectifier peak
so that VCE = 5 V, VBE = 0. value of sinusoidal signal is 10 V.
Determine D.C. component at
(1) 1 × 103  (2) 500  output :-
(3) 200 × 103  (4) 2 × 103 
10 10
Q.162 Two similar blocks of (1) (2) V
intrinsic silicon are separately 2 
doped uniformly to obtain same do 20
(3) 10V (4) V
pant densities ND = NA per m3. The 
n-type and p-type samples thus
obtained are arranged in parallel to Q.166 The number of charge carrier
each other and a current is passed concentration in silicon at 300 K is
through the combination Then – 1.56 × 1016/m3. If the electron and
hole motilities are respectively
(1) same current passes 0.135 and 0.065 (SI units) the
through each sample resistivity of the material is (in SI
(2) current through n-type units) approximately :-
sample is more
(3) current through p-type (1) 2500
sample is more (2) 2000
(4) current through p-type sample is (3) 3600
twice that through the n-type sample (4) 1350
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Q.167 In the following common Q.170 The combination of the gates

emitter configuration an 'npn' shown represents –
transistor with current gain  = 100
is used the output voltage of
amplifier will be :-

(1) AND gate

(2) OR gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate

(1) 10 mV (2) 0.1 V Q.171 The following configuration

(3) 1.0 V (4) 10 V of gate equivalent to :-

Q.168 The correct circuit for a pnp

transistor amplifier in common
emitter configuration –
(1) NAND (2) OR
(3) XOR (4) NOR

(1) Q.172 The

diagram of a
logic circuit is
given below.
The output of
(2)
the circuit is
represented by :-

(1) W.(X+Y)
(3) (2) X.(X.Y)
(3) W+(W+Y)
(4) W+(X.Y)

Q.173 'Output is LOW if and only if

(4) all the inputs are HIGH' Indicate
the logic gate for which the above
statement in ture :-

Q.169 Assuming the diodes to be of (1) AND (2) OR

silicon with forward resistance (3) NOR (4) NAND
zero, the current I in the following
circuit. Q.174 The output of gate is low
when at least one of its input is
high. This is true for :-

(1) NOR
(2) OR
(1) 0 (2) 9.65 mA (3) AND
(2) 10 mA (4) 10.36 mA (4) NAND

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Q.175 The following combination of Q.178 Two NOT gates are

gates is equivalent to :- connected at the two inputs of a
NAND gate. This combination will
behave like :-

(1) NAND gate

(2) AND gate
(3) OR gate
(1) (4) NOR gate

Q.179 Given truth table is related

with :-
(2)
(1) NOT Gate
(2) OR Gate
(3) (3) XOR Gate
(4) NAND Gate

Q.180 Which logic gate is

(4)
represented by the following
combination of logic gate :-
Q.176 The truth table given below
belongs for which gates ?

(1) OR gate
(1) OR
(2) XOR gate (2) NAND
(3) AND gate (3) AND
(4) NOR
(4) NAND gate
Q.181 Three circuit connections of
Q.177 The truth table for the gate a PNP-transistor are given below:
shown in the following figure will be. Which of the above represents the
Common-Emitter Configuration ?

(1) (2)

(1) (i) (2) (ii)

(3) (4) (3) (iii) (4) None

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Q.182 Which of the following is not

a rectifier circuit ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

Q.183 An npn transistor is baised to

work as an amplifier Which of the
following statement is false ?

(1) The electrons go from base

region to the collector region
(2) The electrons go from the
collector region to the base region
(3) The electrons go from emitter
region to the base region
(4) The holes go from base
region to the emitter region

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Unit And Dimension Question Bank

Q.1 In an experiment, the Q.5 A physical quantity of the

percentage of error occurred in the dimensions of length that can be
measurment of physical quantities formed out of c, G and e2/40 is [c
A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and is velocity of light, G is universal
4% respectively. Then the constant of gravitation and e is
maximum percentage of error in charge] :
the measurement X, where, X =
A2B1/2/C1/3 D3 will be :–  e2 
1/2
 e2 
1/2
2 1
(1) c G  (2) 2  
 3   40  c  G40 
(1)  % (2) 16% 1/2
 13  1 e2 1  e2 
(3) G (4) 2 G 
(3) –10% (4) 10% c 40 c  40 

Q.2 The unit of thermal conductivity Q.6 Planck's constant (h), speed of
is :- light in vacuum (c) and Newton's
gravitational constant (G) are three
(1) J m K–1 (2) J m–1 K–1 fundamental constants. Which of
(3) W m K–1 (4) W m–1 K–1 the following combinations of these
has the dimension of length ?
Q.3 The main scale of a vernier
calliper has n divisions/cm. n hc Gc
divisions of the vernier scale (1) (2)
G h3/2
coincide with (n − 1) divisions of
main scale. The least count of the hG hG
(3) 3/2 (4) 5/2
vernier calliper is, c c

1 Q.7 If energy (E), velocity (V) and

(1) cm
(n +1)(n _ 1) time (T) are chosen as the
1 fundamental quantities, the
(2) cm dimensional formula of surface
n
tension will be :–
1
(3) 2 cm
n (1) [EV–1T–2] (2) [EV–2T–2]
1
(4) cm (3) [E–2V–1T–3] (4) [EV–2T–1]
n(n + 1)

Q.8 If dimension of critical velocity

Q.4 A student measured the
, of liquid flowing through a tube
diameter of a small steel ball using
is expressed as (x y z), where , 
a screw gauge of least count 0.001
cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and r the coefficient of viscosity of
and zero of circular scale division liquid, density of liquid and radius
coincides with 25 divisions above of the tube respectively, then the
the reference level. If screw gauge values of x, y and z are given by :-
has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the
correct diameter of the ball is :- (1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 1, −1, −1
(1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.525 cm (3) −1, −1, 1
(3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.529 cm (4) −1, −1, −1

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 Unit And Dimension Question Bank

Q.9 If force (F), velocity (V) and Q.15 A student measures the
time (T) are taken as fundamental distance traversed in free fall of a
units, then the dimensions of mass body, initially at rest in a given
are :- time. He uses this data to estimate
g, the acceleration due to gravity.
(1) [F V T–1] (2) [F V T–2] If the maximum percentage errors
(3) [F V–1 T–1] (4) [F V–1 T] in measurement of the distance and
the time are e1 and e2 respectively,
Q.10 In an experiment four
the percentage error in the
quantities a, b, c and d are
estimation of g is :-
measured with percentage errors
1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
(1) e1 + 2e2
Quantity P is calculated as follows
(2) e1 + e 2
a3b2 (3) e1 − 2e2
P= , percentage error in P is –
cd (4) e2 − e 1
(1) 4% (2) 14%
Q.16 If the dimensions of a physical
(3) 10% (4) 7%
quantity are given by MaLbTc, then
Q.11 If voltage across a bulb rated the physical quantity will be :
220 Volt 100 Watt drops by 2.5% of
its rated value, the percentage of (1) Force if a = 0, b = −1, c = −2
the rated value by which the power (2) Pressure if a = 1, b = −1, c = −2
would decrease is - (3) Velocity if a = 1,
b = 0, c = −1
(1) 5% (2) 10% (4) Acceleration if a = 1,
(3) 20% (4) 2.5% b = 1, c = −2

Q.12 The dimensions of (0 0)–1/2 Q.17 Which two of the following
are :- five physical parameters have the
same dimensions ?
(1) [L1/2T–1/2] (2) [L–1T] (A) Energy Density
(3) [LT–1] (4) [L–1/2T1/2] (B) Refractive Index
(C) Dielectric Constant
Q.13 The density of a material in
(D) Young's Modulus
CGS system of units is 4 g/cm3. In
(E) Magnetic Field
a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is
(1) (a), (d)
100 g, the value of density of
(2) (a), (e)
material will be :-
(3) (b), (d)
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4 (4) (c), (e)
(3) 40 (4) 400
Q.18 If the error in the
1 measurement of radius of a sphere
Q.14 The dimensions of 0 E2,
2 is 2% then the error in the
where is permittivity of free space determination of volume of the
and E is electric field. is :- sphere will be :-

(1) [MLT–1] (2) [ML2T–2] (1) 8% (2) 2%

(3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [ML2T–1] (3) 4% (4) 6%
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Q.19 Dimensions of electrical Q.25 Temperature can be

resistance is :- expressed as a derived quantity in
terms of which of the following ?
(1) [ML2 T–2 A–1]
(2) [ML2 T–3 A–2] (1) Length and mass
(3) [ML3 T–3 A–2] (2) Mass and time
(4) [ML–1 L3 T3 A2] (3) Length. mass and time
(4) None of these
Q.20 The velocity v of a particle at
b Q.26 Density of wood is 0.5 gm/cc
time t is given by v = at + , in CGS system of units. The
t +c
where a, b and c are constants. corresponding value in MKS units
The dimensions of a, b and c are is.
respectively :-
(1) 500 (2) 5
(3) 0.5 (4) 5000
(1) LT–2, L and T
(2) L2, T and LT2 Q.27 Match list I with list II and
(3) LT2, LT and L select the correct answer by using
(4) L, LT and T2 the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
Q.21 Which of the following system (item) (Units of length)
of units is not based on units of A. Distance 1. Micron
mass. length and time alone ? between earth
and stars
(1) SI (2) MKS B. Inter atomic 2. Angstrom
(3) FPS (4) CGS distance in a solid
C. Size of nucleus 3. Light year
Q.22 Which of the following D. Wavelength of 4. Fermi
quantity is unit less? Infrared Laser 5. Kilometre

(1) Velocity gradient Codes

(2) Pressure gradient A B C D
(3) Displacement gradient (1) 5 4 2 1
(4) Force gradient (2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 5 2 4 3
Q.23 The fundamental unit which (4) 3 4 1 2
has same power in the dimensional
formula of surface tension and co- Q.28 Which of the following is
efficient of viscosity is – smallest unit.

(1) Mass (2) Length (1) Millimeters (2) Angstrom

(3) Fermi (4) Meter
(3) Time (4) None
Q.29 Which relation is wrong ?
Q.24 The ratio of one micron to one
nanometer is – (1) 1 cal = 4.18 joules
(2) 1 Å = 10–10 m
(1) 103 (2) 10–3 (3) 1 MeV 1.6 × 10–13 joules
(3) 10–6 (4) 10–1 (4) 1 newton = 10–5 dynes

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Unit And Dimension Question Bank

Q.30 ‘Parsec’ is the unit of – Q.36 A dimensionless quantity.

(1) Time (2) Distance (1) Never has a unit

(3) Frequency (2) Always has a unit
(4) Angular acceleration (3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist
Q.31 The ratio of the dimensions of
Planck's constant and that of the Q.37 Which of the following does
moment of inertia is :- not have the dimensions of force ?

(1) Velocity (1) Potential gradient

(2) Angular momentum (2) Energy gradient
(3) Time (4) Frequency (3) Weight
(4) Rate of change of
Q.32 When a wave travels in a momentum
medium, the displacement of a
particle located at distance x at Q.38 Which of the following is
time t is given by y = a sin (bt – cx) incorrect statement.
where a, b and c are constants of
the wave. The dimensions of b/c (1) A dimensionally correct
are same as that of equation may be correct
(2) A dimensionally correct
(1) Wave velocity equation may be incorrect
(2) Wave length (3) A dimensionally incorrect
(3) Wave amplitude equation may be correct
(4) Wave frequency (4) A dimensionally incorrect
equation is incorrect
Q.33 The dimensional formula of
wave number is. Q.39 Two physical quantities of
which one is a vector and the other
(1) [MoLoT–9] (2) [M–1L–1To] is a scalar having the same
(3) [MoL–1To] (4) [MoLoTo] dimensional formula are.

Q.34 The method of dimensional (1) Work and energy

analysis can be used to derive (2) Torque and work
which of the following relations ? (3) Impulse and momentum
(4) Power and pressure
(1) N0e–t (2) A sin (t + kx)
1 1 Q.40 The equation of a wave is
(3) mv2 + I2 x 
2 2 given by Y = A sin  _ k  where
(4) None of the above v 
 is the angular velocity and v is
Q.35 Which of the following is not the linear velocity. The dimensions
the unit of time ? of k is.

(1) Micro second (1) [LT]

(2) leap year (2) [T]
(3) Lunar month (3) [T–1]
(4) Parallactic second (4) [T2]

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Q.41 The time dependence of a Q.48 If dimensions of A and B are

physical quantity P is given by P = different, then which of the
P0 exp(–a t2), where a is a constant following operation is valid ?
and t is time. The constant a.
(1) A/B (2) e–A/B
(1) Is dimensionless (3) A–B (4) A+B
(2) Has dimensions [T–2]
Q.49 Which of the following is
(3) Has dimensions of P
incorrect ?
(4) Has dimensions [T2]
(1) All derived quantities may be
Q.42 The dimensional formula of
represented dimensionally in terms of
angular velocity is. the base quantities
(2) A base quantity cannot be
(1) [M0L0T–1] (2) [MLT–1]
represented dimensionally in terms of
(3) [M0L0T1] (4) [ML0T–2]
other base quantities
(3) The dimension of a derived quantity
Q.43 A force F is given by F = at +
is never zero in any base quantity
bt2, where t is time. The dimensions
(4) The dimension of a base
of a and b are.
quantity in other base
(1) [M L T–3] and [M L T–4] quantities is always zero.
(2) [M L T–4] and [M L T–3]
Q.50 A unitless quantity.
(3) [M L T–1] and [M L T–2]
(4) [M L T–2] and [M L T0] (1) Does not exist
(2) Always has a nonzero dimension
Q.44 Which of the following pairs (3) Never has a nonzero
does not have similar dimensions ? dimension
(4) May have a nonzero
(1) Tension and surface tension dimension
(2) Stress and pressure
(3) Planck's constant and Q.51 A quantity is represented by X
angular momentum = Ma Lb Tc. The percentage error in
(4) Angle and strain measurement of M, L and T are %,
% and % respectively. The
Q.45 The dimensions of torque are : percentage error in X would be

(1) [ML3T–3] (2) [ML–1T–1] (1) (a + b + c) %

(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [ML–2] (2) (a - b + c) %
(3) (a - b - c) %
Q.46 Dimensions of relative density (4) None of these
is.
Q.52 An experiment measures
(1) kg m –3
(2) [ML ] –3 quantities a, b and c, and X is
(3) Dimensionless (4) [M2 L–6] calculated from X = ab2/c3. If the
percentage error in a, b and c are
Q.47 The dimensions of universal ±1%, ±3% and ±2% respectively,
gravitational constant are :- the percentage error in X will be –

(1) [ML2T–1] (2) [M–2L3T–2] (1) ±13% (2) ±7%

(3) [M–2L2T–1] (4) [M–1L3T–2] (3) ±4% (4) ±1%
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Q.53 Zero error of an instrument Q.58 The external and internal

introduces radius of a hollow cylinder are
measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm
(1) Systematic errors and (3.89 ± 0.01)cm. The thickness
(2) Random errors of the wall of the cylinder is :-
(3) Both
(4) None of these (1) (0.34 ± 0.02) cm
(2) (0.17 ± 0.02) cm
Q.54 What is the fractional error in (3) (0.17 ± 0.01) cm
g calculated from T = 2  /g (4) (0.34 ± 0.01) cm
Given that fractional errors in T and
 are ±x and ±y respectively. Q.59 Percentage error in measuring
the radius and mass of a solid
(1) x+y sphere are 2% & 1% respectively.
(2) x–y Then error in measurement of
(3) 2x + y moment of inertia about to its
(4) 2x – y diameter is

Q.55 A thin copper wire of length  (1) 3%

metre increases in length by 2% (2) 6%
when heated through 10°C. What is (3) 5%
the percentage increase in area (4) 4%
when a square copper sheet of
length  metre is heated through Q.60 The heat generated in a circuit
10°C ? is dependent upon the resistance,
current and time for which the
(1) 4% current is flown. If the error in
(2) 8% measuring the above are as 1%,
(3) 16% 2% and 1% the maximum error in
(4) None of these measuring heat will be

Q.56 The resistance is R = V/I (1) 2%

where V = (100 ± 5) volt and I = (2) 3%
(10 ± 0.2) ampere What is the total (3) 6%
error in R ? (4) 1%

(1) 5% Q.61 The percentage errors in the

(2) 7% measurement of mass and speed
(3) 5.2% are 2% and 3% respectively. How
(4) (5/2)% much will be the maximum error in
the estimate of kinetic energy
Q.57 If error in measuring diameter obtained by measuring mass and
of a circle is 4 %, the error in speed ?
circumference of the circle would
be :-
(1) 11 %
(2) 8%
(1) 2% (2) 8%
(3) 5%
(3) 4% (4) 1% (4) 1%
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Q.62 While measuring acceleration Q.67 A physical quantity X is

due to gravity by a simple given by X = 2k3  2/mn The
pendulum a student makes a percentage error in the
positive error of 1% in the length measurements of k,  , m and n are
of the pendulum and a negative  %, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
error of 3% in the value of the time The value of X is uncertain by
period. His percentage error in the
measurement of the value of g will (1) 8 % (2) 10 %
be – (3) 12 % (4) None
(1) 2 % (2) 4 %
Q.68 Which of the following has the
(3) 7 % (4) 10 %
highest number of significant
Q.63 The pressure on a square figures ?
plate is measured by measuring the
force on the plate and the length of (1) 0.007 m2
the sides of the plate. If the (2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
maximum error in the (3) 0.0006032 m2
measurement of force and length (4) 6.3200 J
are respectively 4% and 2%, the
maximum error in the Q.69 In a vernier callipers, N
measurement of pressure is. divisions of vernier scale coincide
with (N–1) divisions of main scale
(1) 1% (2) 2% (in which 1 division represents
(3) 6% (4) 8% 1mm). The least count of the
instrument in cm should be –
Q.64 The error in measuring the
side of a cube is ±1%. The error in (1) N (2) N–1
the calculation of the volume of the
(3) 1/10N (4) 1/N–1
cube will be about

(1) ± 0.001% (2) ± 1% Q.70 A vernier callipers has 20

(3) ± 6% (4) ± 3% divisions on the vernier scale which
coincide with 19 divisions on the
Q.65 When a copper sphere is main scale. The least count of the
heated, maximum percentage instrument is 0.1 mm. The main
change will be observed in – scale divisions are of –

(1) Radius (2) Area (1) 0.5 mm (2) 1 mm

(3) Volume (4) None Of These (3) 2 mm (4) 1/4 mm
Q.66 The resistance R of a wire is
Q.71 One centimetre on the main
given by the relation R =   /r2.
scale of vernier callipers is divided
Percentage error in the
into ten equal parts. If 10 divisions
measurement of ,  and r is 1%,
of vernier scale coincide with 8
2% and 3 % respectively. Then the
small divisions of the main scale,
percentage error in the
the least count of the calliper is –
measurement of R is –

(1) 6% (2) 9% (1) 0.01cm (2) 0.02cm

(3) 8% (4) 10% (3) 0.05cm (4) 0.005cm

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Q.72 A student measured the Q.77 Suppose refractive index  is

diameter of a wire using a screw given as  = A + B/2, were A and B
gauge with least count 0.001 cm are constants and  is wavelength
and listed the measurements. The then the dimension of B are same
correct measurement is – as that of :-

(1) 5.3 cm (2) 5.32 cm (1) wavelength (2) Pressure

(3) 5.320 cm (4) 5.3200 cm (3) area (4) volume

Q.78 The period of oscillation of a

Q.73 If energy (E), velocity (V) and
simple pendulum in an experiment
time (T) were chosen as
is recorded as 2.63s, 2.56s, 2.42s,
fundameltal physical quantities for
2.71s and 2.80s respectively. The
measurement, then the dimensional
average absolute error is –
formula for mass will be :
(1) 0.1s (2) 0.11s
(1) [E1 V2T1] (2) [E2 V–2 T0] (3) 0.01s (4) 1.0s
(3) [E1 V–2 T0] (4) [E–1 V2 T1]
Q.79 In a particular system the
Q.74 The dimensional formula for units of length mass and time are
Planck's constant h and chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
gravitational constant G respectively. The unit of force in
respectively are : this system will be equal to –

(1) [ML3T–2], [M–1L2T3] (1) 0.1 N (2) 1 N

(2) [ML2T–1], [M–1L3T–2] (3) 10 N (4) 100 N
(3) [ML3T–2], [M–1L2T2]
Q.80 The length, breadth and
(4) [MLT–3], [M–1L3T–3]
thickness of a strip are
(10.0±0.1) cm
Q.75 In a vernier callipers, one
(1.00±0.01) cm and
main scale division is x cm and n
(0.100+ 0.001) cm
divisions of the vernier scale
respectively. The most probable
coincide with (n -1) divisions of the
error in its volume will be
main scale. The least count (in cm)
of the callipers is (1) ± 0.03 cm3 (2) ± 0.111 cm3
(3) ± 0.012 cm3
 n _ 1 nx (4) None of these
(1)  x (2)
 n  (n _ 1)
x x Q.81 The length of a cylinder is
(3) (4) _ measured with a metre rod having
n (n 1)
least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is
measured with vernier callipers
Q.76 A wire has a mass (0.3 ±
having least count 0.01 cm. Given
0.003) g, radius (0.5 ± 0.005) mm
the length is 5.0 cm. and radius is
and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The
2.00 cm. The percentage error in
maximum percentage error in the
the calculated value of volume will
measurement of its density is –
be –
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 2% (2) 1%
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3% (4) 4%

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Q.82 Which of the following does Q.83 Choose the incorrect

not have the same unit as others? statement out of the following :-

(1) watt-s (1) Every measurement made by any

(2) Kilowatt-hour measuring instrument has some error.
(3) eV (2) Every calculated physical
(4) J-s quantity that is based on
measured values has some error.
(3) A measurement can have
more accuracy but less
precision and vice versa.
(4) The percentage error is
different from relative error.

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Q.1 A soap bubble, having radius of Q.5 The stress-strain curves are
1 mm, is blown from a detergent drawn for two different materials X
solution having a surface tension of and Y. It is observed that the
2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure ultimate strength point and the
inside the bubble equals at a point fracture point are close to each
Z0 below the free surface of water other for material X but are far
in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2 apart for material Y. We can say
density of water 103 kg/m3, the that materials X and Y are likely to
value of Z0 is :– be (respectively).

(1) 100 cm (2) 10 cm (1) Ductile and brittle

(3) 1 cm (4) 0.5 cm (2) Brittle and ductile
(3) Brittle and plastic
(4) Plastic and ductile
Q.2 When a block of mass M is
suspended by a long wire of length Q.6 In a U-tube as
L, the length of the wire become (L shown in figure,
+  ). The elastic potential energy water and oil are in
stored in the extended wire is :- the left side and right
side of the tube
(1) Mg  (2) MgL respectively. The heights from the
(3) 1 / 2 Mg  (4) 1/2 MgL bottom for water and oil columns
are 15 cm and 20 cm respectively.
Q.3 A small hole of area of cross- The density of the oil is :-
section 2 mm2 is present near the [take water = 1000 kg/m3]
bottom of a fully filled open tank of
(1) 1200 kg/m3 (2) 750 kg/m3
height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the
(3) 1000 kg/m3 (4) 1333 kg/m3
rate of flow of water through the
open hole would be nearly :- Q.7 A small sphere of radius 'r' falls
from rest in a viscous liquid. As a
(1) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s result, heat is produced due to
(2) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s viscous force. The rate of
(3) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s production of heat when the sphere
(4) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s attains its terminal velocity, is
proportional to :-
Q.4 Two small spherical metal balls,
having equal masses, are made (1) r3 (2) r2
from materials of densities 1 and 2 (3) r5 (4) r4
(1 = 82) and have radii of 1mm
and 2mm, respectively. They are Q.8 Two wires are made of the same
made to fall vertically (from rest) in material and have the same volume.
The first wire has cross-sectional
a viscous medium whose coefficient
area A and the second wire has
of viscosity equals  and whose
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length
density is 0.1 2. The ratio of their
of the first wire is increased by   on
terminal velocities would be :- applying a force F, how much force is
needed to stretch the second wire by
(1) 79 / 72 the same amount ?
(2) 19 / 36
(3) 39 / 72 (1) 9F (2) 6F
(4) 79 / 36 (3) 4F (4) F
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Q.9 The bulk modulus of a spherical Q.13 Three liquids of densities 1, 2
object is 'B'. If it is subjected to and 3 (with 1 > 2 > 3), having
uniform pressure 'p', the fractional the same value of surface tension
decrease in radius is :- T, rise to the same height in three
identical capillaries. The angles of
(1) B/3p (2) 3p/B contact 1, 2 and 3 obey :-
(3) p/3B (4) Р/B

Q.10 A U tube with (1)  /2 < 1 < 2 < 3 < 

both ends open to (2)  > 1 > 2 > 3 >  /2
the atmosphere, is (3)  /2 > 1 > 2 > 3 ≥ 0
partially filled with (4) 0 ≤ 1 < 2 < 3 <  /2
water. Oil, which is
immiscible with Q.14 The approximate depth of an
water, is poured into one side until ocean is 2700 m. The
it stands at a distance of 10 mm compressibility of water is 45.4 ×
above the water level on the other 10–11 Pa–1 and density of water is 103
side. Meanwhile the water rises by kg/m3. What fractional compression
65 mm from its original level (see of water will be obtained at the
diagram). The density of the oil is :- bottom of the ocean ?

(1) 425 kg m–3 (1) 1.0 × 10–2 (2) 1.2 × 10–2

(2) 800 kg m–3 (3) 1.4 × 10–2 (4) 0.8 × 10–2
(3) 928 kg m–3
(4) 650 kg m–3 Q.15 A wind with speed 40 m/s
blows parallel to the roof of a
Q.11 Two non-mixing liquids of house. The area of the roof is 250
densities  and n (n > 1) are put in m2. Assuming that the pressure
a container. The height of each inside the house is atmospheric
liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length pressure, the force exerted by the
L and density d is put in this wind on the roof and the direction
container. The cylinder floats with of the force will be : (Pair = 1.2
its axis vertical and length pL(p < kg/m3)
1) in the denser liquid. The density
(1) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards
d is equal to :-
(2) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards
(3) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards
(1) {1+ (n + 1)p}
(4) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards
(2) {2 + (n + 1)p}
(3) {2 + (n − 1)p}
Q.16 The cylindrical tube of a spray
(4) {1+ (n − 1)p}
pump has radius R, one end of
which has n fine holes, each of
Q.12 A rectangular film of liquid is
radius r. If the speed of the liquid
extended from (4 cm × 2 cm) to (5
in the tube is V, the speed of the
cm × 4 cm). If the work done is 3 ×
ejection of the liquid through the
10–4 J, the value of the surface
holes is :-
tension of the liquid is :-
(1) V2R/nr (2) VR2/n2r2
(1) 0.2 Nm–1 (2) 8.0 Nm–1
(3) 0.250 Nm–1 (4) 0.125 Nm–1 (3) VR2/nr2 (4) VR2/n3r2

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Q.17 The Young's modulus of steel Q.21 A certain number of sphereical

is twice that of brass. Two wires of drops of a liquid of radius 'r'
same lenght and of same area of coalesce to form a single drop of
cross section, one of steel and radius 'R' and volume 'V'. If T is the
another of brass are suspended surface tension of the liquid, then :-
from the same roof. If we want the
lower ends of the wires to be at the (1) Energy = 4VT (1/r-1/R)
same level, then the weights added is released
to the steel and brass wires must (2) Energy = 3VT (1/r+1/R)
be in the ratio of :- is released
(3) Energy = 3VT (1/r-1/R)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 is released
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 (4) Energy is neither
released nor absorbed
Q.18 Water rises to height 'h' in
capillary tube. If the length of
Q.22 The following four wires are
capillary tube above the surface of made of the same material. Which
water is made less than 'h', then –
of these will have the largest
(1) Water does not rise at all. extension when the same tension is
(2) Water rises upto the tip applied ?
of capillary tube and then
(1) Length= 300cm,
starts overflowing like a fountain.
diameter = 3mm
(3) Water rises upto the top
(2) Length= 50 cm,
of capillary tube and stays
diameter = 0.5 mm
there without overflowing.
(3) Length= 100 cm,
(4) Water rises upto a point a
diameter = 1mm
little below the top and stays there.
(4) Length= 200 cm,
Q.19 The heart of a man pumps 5 diameter = 2mm
litres of blood through the arteries
per minute at a pressure of 150 mm Q.23 The wettability of a surface by
of mercury. If the density of a liquid depends primarily on :-
mercury be 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 and g
= 10m/s2 then the power of heart (1) Angle of contact between
in watt is :- the surface and the liquid
(2) Viscosity
(1) 1.50 (2) 1.70 (3) Surface tension
(3) 2.355 (4) 3.0 (4) Density

Q.20 Copper of fixed volume 'V; is Q.24 The lower surface of a cube is
drawn into wire of length ‘  . When fixed. On its upper surface, force is
this wire is subjected to a constant applied at an angle of 30o from its
force F, the extension produced in surface. The change will be in its –
the wire is '  . Which of the
following graphs is a straight line ? (1) Shape
(1)   versus 1/  (2) Size
(2) l versus  2 (3) Volume
(3)   versus 1/  2
(4) l versus  (4) Both shape and size
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Properties of Matter and Fluid Mechanics Question Bank

Q.25 One end of uniform wire of Q.30 A wire elongates by ℓ mm

length L and of weight W is when a load W is hanged from it. If
attached rigidly to a point in the the wire goes over a pulley and two
roof and a weight W1 is suspended weights W each are hung at the
from its lower end. If s is the area two ends, the elongation of the
of cross-section of the wire, the wire will be (in mm) –
stress in the wire at a height (L/4)
from its lower end is – (1) ℓ (2) 2ℓ
(3) zero (4) ℓ/2
(1) W1/s (2) [W1+W/4]/s
(3) [W1+3W/4]/s (4) W1+W /4 Q.31 The Young’s modulus of a
rubber string 8 cm long and density
Q.26 For steel, the breaking stress 1.5 kg/m3 is 5 × 108 N/m2, is
is 6 × 106 N/m2 and the density is 8 suspended on the ceiling in a room.
× 103 kg/m3. The maximum length The increase in length due to its
of steel wire, which can be own weight will be :-
suspended without breaking under
its own weight is [g = 10 m/s2] (1) 9.6 × 10–5m (2) 9.6 × 10–11m
(3) 9.6 × 10–3m (4) 9.6m
(1) 140 m (2) 120 m
(3) 75 m (4) 200 m Q.32 A ball falling in a lake of depth
200 m shows 0.1% decrease in its
Q.27 The dimensions volume at the bottom. What is the
of two wires A and B bulk modulus of the material of the
are the same. But ball :-
their materials are
different. Their load- (1) 19.6 × 108 N/m2
extension graphs are (2) 19.6 × 10–10 N/m2
shown. If YA and YB are the values (3) 19.6 × 10 N/m2
of Young’s modulus of elasticity of (4) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2
A and B respectively then –
Q.33 The pressure of a medium is
(1) YA > YB (2) YA < YB changed from 1.01 × 105 Pa to 1.165
(3) YA = YB (4) YB = 2YA × 105 Pa and change in volume is
10% keeping temperature constant.
Q.28 If the density of the material The bulk modulus of the medium is –
increase, the value of Young’s
modulus – (1) 204.8 × 105 Pa
(2) 102.4 × 105 Pa
(1) increases (3) 51.2 × 105 Pa
(2) decreases (4) 1.55 × 105 Pa
(3) first increases, then decreases
(4) First decreases, then increases Q.34 Two wires of the same material
and length but diameters in the ratio
Q.29 A fixed volume of iron is drawn 1 : 2 are stretched by the same
into a wire of earth ℓ. The extension force. The potential energy per unit
produced in this wire by a constant volume for the two wires when
force F is proportional to – stretched will be in the ratio.

(1) 1/ℓ2 (2) ℓ2 (1) 16 : 1 (2) 4 : 1

(3) 1/ℓ (4) ℓ (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
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Q.35 A weight is suspended from a Q.41 The load versus elongation

long metal wire. If the wire graph for four wires of the same
suddenly breaks, its temperature – material and same length is shown
in figure. The thinnest wire is
(1) Rises (2) Falls represented by the line.
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Attains a value 0 K (1) OA
Q.36 A mass of 0.5 kg is suspended (2) OB
from wire, then length of wire
increase by 3 mm then find out (3) OC
work done :- (4) OD
(1) 4.5 × 10–3 J (2) 7.3 × 10–3 J
Q.42 The mean distance between
(3) 9.3 × 10–2 J (4) 2.5 × 10–2 J
the atoms of iron is 3 × 10–10 m and
Q.37 If the strain in a wire is not inter atomic force constant for ion
more than 1/1000 and Y = 2 × 1011 is 7 N/m. The young’s modulus of
N/m2, Diameter of wire is 1mm. elasticity for iron is :-
The maximum weight hung from
the wire is :- (1) 2.33 × 105 N/m2
(2) 23.3 × 1010 N/m2
(1) 110 N (2) 125 N (3) 233 × 1010 N/m2
(3) 157 N (4) 168 N (4) 2.33 × 1010 N/m2
Q.38 When a tension F is applied in
Q.43 Cross section area of a steel
uniform wire of length ℓ and radius r,
wire (Y = 2.0 × 1011 N/m2) is 0.1
the elongation produced is e. When
cm2. The required force, to make its
tension 2F is applied, the elongation length double will be –
produced in another uniform wire of
length 2ℓ and radius 2r made of same (1) 2 × 1012 N (2) 2 × 1011 N
material is :-
(3) 2 × 1010 N (4) 2 × 106 N
(1) 0.5 e (2) 1.0 e
(3) 1.5 e (4) 2.0 e Q.44 For a given material, the
Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that
Q.39 How much force is required to of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s
produce an increase of 0.2% in the ratio is :-
length of a brass wire of diameter
0.6 mm ? (1) 2.4 (2) 1.2
[Young’s modulus for brass = 0.9 × (3) 0.4 (4) 0.2
1011 N/m2]
Q.45 The diameter of a brass rod is
(1) Nearly 17 N (2) Nearly 34 N
4 mm and Young’s modulus of
(3) Nearly 51 N (4) Nearly 68 N brass is 9 × 1010 N/m2. The force
Q.40 If the interatomic spacing in a required to stretch by 0.1% of its
steel wire is 2.8 × 10–10m and Ysteel length is :-
= 2 × 1011 N/m2, then force
constant in N/m is – (1) 360 N
(2) 36 N
(1) 5.6 (2) 56 (3) 144 × 103 N
(3) 0.56 (4) 560 (4) 36 × 105 N
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Q.46 Poisson’s ratio can not have Q.51 A wire of length L and cross-
the value :- sectional area A is made of a
material of Young’s modulus Y. The
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.7 work done in stretching the wire by
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.5 an amount x is given by :-

Q.47 Two wires of the same length YAx2 YAx2

and material but different radii r1 (1) (2)
L 2L
and r2 are suspended from a rigid
YAL2 YAL2
support both carry the same load at (3) (4)
the lower end. The ratio of the stress x 2x
developed in the second wire to that
developed in the first wire is – Q.52 Two vessels A and B have the
same base area and contain water to
r1 r12 the same height, but the mass of
(1) (2) water in A is four times that in B. The
r2 r22
ratio of the liquid thrust at the base
5/2 1/2
r  r  of A to that at the base of B is :-
(3)  1  (4)  1 
 r2   r2 
(1) 4 : 1
Q.48 An increases in pressure (2) 2 : 1
required to decreases the 200 litres
(3) 1 : 1
volume of a liquid by 0.004% in
container is :- (Bulk modulus of the (4) 16 : 1
liquid = 2100 MPa)
Q.53 A cylinder is filled with a
(1) 188 kPa (2) 8.4 kPa liquid of density d upto a height h.
(3) 18.8 kPa (4) 84 kPa If the beaker is at rest, then the
mean pressure on the wall is :-
Q.49 If ‘S’ is stress and ‘Y’ is
Young’s modulus of material of a (1) Zero (2) hdg
wire, the energy stored in the wire h
per unit volume is – (3) dg (4) 2 hdg
2
S 2Y
(1) (2) Q.54 In
2Y S2 determination of
S2 young's modulus
(3) (4) 2S 2Y
2Y of elasticity of
wire, a force is
Q.50 For a constant hydraulic stress applied and
on an object, the fractional change extension is recorded. Initial length
 V  of wire is '1m'. The curve between
in the object’s volume   and its
 V  extension and stress is depicted
bulk modulus (B) are related as :- then Young's modulus of wire will be

V V 1 (1) 2 × 109 N/m2

(1) B (2) 
V V B (2) 1 × 109 N/m2
V V _ (3) 2 × 1010 N/m2
(3) B2 (4) B 2 (4) 1 × 1010 N/m2
V V
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Q.55 Two wires are made of the Q.58 A homogeneous solid cylinder
same material and have the same of length L (L<H/2), cross-sectional
volume. However wire 1 has cross area A/5 is immersed such that it
sectional area A and wire 2 has floats with its axis vertical at the
cross-sectional area 3A. If the liquid-liquid interface with length
length of wire 1 increases by x on L/4 in the denser liquid as shown in
applying force F, how much force is the figure. The lower density liquid
needed to stretch wire 2 by the is open to atmosphere having
same amount ? pressure P0. Then, density D of solid
is given by :-
(1) 6F
(1) (5/4)d
(2) 9F
(2) (4/5)d
(3) F (3) 4d
(4) d/5
(4) 4F
Q.59 A small ball is left in a viscous
Q.56 To what height h should a
liquid in a tall container from large
cylindrical vessel of diameter d be
height. Correct graph of its velocity
filled with a liquid so that due to
with time is :-
liquid force on the vertical surface
of the vessel be equal to the force
(1) A
on the bottom :-
(2) B
(1) h = d (3) C
(4) D
(2) h = 2d
(3) h = 3d Q.60 A ball rises to surface at a
constant velocity in liquid whose
(4) h = d/2 density is 4 times than that of the
material of the ball. The ratio of the
Q.57 A solid uniform ball having force of friction acting on the rising
volume V and density  floats at the ball and its weight is :-
interface of two immiscible liquids
as shown in figure. The densities of (1) 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
the upper and the lower liquids are (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
1 and 2 respectively, such that 1
<  < 2. What fraction of the Q.61 If a ball of steel (density  =
volume of the ball will be in the 7.8 g/cm3) attains a terminal
lower liquid :- velocity of 10 cm/s when falling in
a tank of water (coefficient of
_ 2 viscosity water 8.5 × 10–4 Pa-s)
(1)
1_ 2 then its terminal velocity in
3
1 glycerine ( = 1.2 g/cm ,  = 13.2
(2) Pa-s) would be nearly :-
1 _ 2
 _
(3) 1 _ (1) 1.6 × 105 cm/s
1 2 (2) 3.98 × 10–4 cm/s
 _ 2 (3) 6.25 × 10–4 cm/s
(4) 1
2 (4) 1.5 × 10–5 cm/s

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Q.62 If more air is pushed in a soap Q.66 When a large bubble rises
bubble, the pressure in it :- from the bottom of a lake to the
surface, its radius doubles. If
(1) Decreases atmospheric pressure is equal to
(2) Increase that of column of water height H,
(3) Remains same then the depth of lake is –
(4) Becomes zero
(1) H
Q.63 A glass tube (2) 2H
of uniform internal (3) 7H
radius (r) has a (4) 8H
valve separating
the two identical Q.67 A wooden cube just floats
ends. Initially, the inside water when a 200 g mass is
valve is in a tightly closed position. placed on it. When the mass is
End 1 has a hemispherical soap removed the cube is 2 cm above
bubble of radius r. End 2 has sub- water level. The side of cube is –
hemispherical soap bubble as
shown in figure. Just after opening (1) 5 cm
the valve. (2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(1) Air from end 1 flows towards end (4) 20 cm
2. No change in the volume of the
soap bubbles. Q.68 Water stands upto a height h
(2) Air from end 1 flows towards end behind the vertical wall of a dam.
2. Volume of the soap bubble at What is the net horizontal force
end 1 decreases. pushing the dam down by the
(3) No change occurs stream, if width of the dam is  ?
(4) Air from end 2 flows ( = density of water)
towards end 1. Volume
of the soap bubble at end 1 increases. (1) 2hg

Q.64 The bulk modulus of a metal is (2) h2g/2

1010 N/m2 and poisson's ratio (3) h2g/4
0.20. If average distance between
the molecules is 3 Å then the inter (4) hg/4
atomic force constant –
Q.69 A U-tube is partially filled with
(1) 5.4N/m (2) 7.5 N/m water. Oil which does not mix with
(3) 75 N/m (4) 30 N/m water is next poured into one side,
until water rises by 25 cm on the
Q.65 There is no change in the other side. If the density of the oil
volume of a wire due to change in is 0.8 g/cc, the oil level will stand
its length on stretching. The higher than the water level by –
poisson's ratio of the material of
the wire is – (1) 6.25 cm
(2) 12.50 cm
(1) + 0.50 (2) - 0.50 (3) 18.75 cm
(3) 0.25 (4) - 0.25 (4) 25.00

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Q.70 A U-tube contains two liquids Q.74 If the difference between

in static equilibrium: Water of pressure inside and outside of a soap
density w ( = 1000 kg/m3) is in the bubble is 6 mm of water and its
right arm, oil of unknown density  radius is 8 mm. What is the surface
is the left arm as shown in figure. tension in dynes per cm.
Measurement give  = 135 mm and
(1) 117.6 (2) 256
d = 12.5 mm. The density of oil is :-
(3) 378 (4) 450
(1) 1092 kg/m3
Q.75 An air bubble is lying just below
3
(2) 961 kg/m the surface of water. The surface
tension of water is 70 × 10–3 N/m
(3) 915 kg/m3 and atmospheric pressure is 1.013 ×
(4) 843 kg/m 105 N/m2. If the radius of bubble is 1
mm, then the pressure inside the
Q.71 A hole is there in the bottom bubble will be –
of the tank having water. If total
(1) 1.0270 × 105 Pa
pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1 atm (2) 1.0160 × 105 Pa
= 105 N/m2), then velocity of water (3) 1.0144 × 105 Pa
flowing from hole is – (4) 1.0131 × 105 Pa

(1) √400 m/s Q.76 Which one of the following

(2) √600 m/s will make its way most easily
(3) √60 m/s through the tiny space between the
(4) None of these fiber of clothing –

Q.72 Water is moving with a speed (1) Glycerene at 20oC

of 5.0 m/s through a pipe will cross (2) Water at 20oC
sectional area of 4.0 cm2. The water (3) Soap water at 20oC
gradually descends 10 m as the (4) Water at 100oC
pipe increase in area to 8.0 cm2. If
Q.77 Daimeter of two limbs of a U-
the pressure at the upper level is
tube are 2 mm and 5 mm, and
1.5 × 105 Pa, the pressure at lower
surface tension is 70 dyne/cm, if
level will be :-
water density is 1000 kg/m2 and g =
10 m/s2, then water level difference
(1) 2.8 × 105 Pa in both the tubes will be –
(2) 2.6 × 105 Pa
(3) 2.4 × 105 Pa (1) 8.4 m (2) 8.4 cm
(4) 2.1 × 105 Pa (3) 84 cm (4) 0.84 cm

Q.73 The terminal speed attained Q.78 A capillary tube of radius r is

by an aluminium sphere of radius 1 immersed in water and water rises in
mm falling through water at 20oC it to a height h. The mass of water in
will be close to (Assume laminar the capillary tube is 5g. Another
flow, specific gravity of Al = 2.7 capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
and water = 8 × 104 Pl.) in water. The mass of water that will
rise in this tube is :-
(1) 9.2 m/s (2) 6.9 m/s
(1) 2.5 g (2) 5.0 g
(3) 4.6 m/s (4) 2.3 m/s (3) 10 g (4) 20 g

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Q.79 A jar is filled Q.83 A piece of ice is floating in a

with two non-mixing jar containing water. When the ice
liqudis 1 and 2 melts, then the level of water :-
having densities 1
and 2 , respectively. (1) Rises (2) Falls
A solid ball, made of (3) Remains unchanged
a material of density (4) Changes erratically
3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to
equilibrium in the position shown in Q.84 A sample of metal weights
the figure. Which of the following is 210 gram in air, 180 gram in water
true for 1, 2 & 3 – and 120 gram in an unknown liquid.
Then –
(1) 3 < 1 < 2
(2) 1 > 3 > 2 (1) The Density Of Metal Is 3 G/Cm3
(3) 1 < 2 < 3 (2) The Density Of Metal Is 7 G/Cm3
(4) 1 < 3 < 2 (3) Density Of Metal Is 4
Times The Density Of
Q.80 A boat having a length of 3 The Unknown Liquid
metre and breadth 2 metre is (4) The Metal Will Float In Water
floating on a lake. The boat sinks
by one cm when a man gets on it. Q.85 Torr' is the unit of :-
The mass of the man is –
(1) Pressure (2) Density
(1) 60 kg (2) 62 kg (3) Volume (4) Flux
(3) 72 kg (4) 128 kg
Q.86 A sphere is floating in water
its 1/3rd part is outside the water
Q.81 If the density of a block is 981 and when sphere is floating in
kg/m3 then it shall – unknown liquid, its 3/4 th part is
outside the liquid then density of
(1) Sink in water liquid is –
(2) float with some
part emmersed in water (1) 4/9 gm/c.c. (2) 9/4 gm/c.c.
(3) float completely immersed in water (3) 8/3 gm/c.c. (4) 3/8 gm/c.c.
(4) float completely out of water.
Q.87 Which of the following works
Q.82 A wooden on Pascal's law ?
block, with a
coin placed on (1) Sprayer (2) Venturimeter
its top, floats (3) Hydraulic lift
in water as (4) Aneroid barometer
shown in figure. The distance  and
h are shown there. After sometime Q.88 An object of weight W and
the coin falls into the water. Then density  is submerged in a fluid of
density 1. Its appearent weight
(1)  decreases and h increases will be –
(2)  increases and h decreases
(3) both  and h increase (1) W( – 1) (2) ( – 1)/W
(4) both  and h decrease (3) W(1 –1/) (4) W(1 – )

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Q.89 Which law states that the Q.95 Water from a tap emerges
magnitude of pressure with in fluid vertically downwards with an in it
is equal in all parts ? initial speed of 1.0 m/s. The cross–
sectional area of tap is 10–4 m2.
(1) Pascal's law Assume that the pressure is
(2) Gay-Lusac's law constant throughout the stream of
(3) Dalton's law (4) Boyle's law water and that the flow is steady,
Q.90 A body measures 5 N in air the cross–sectional area of stream
and 2 N when put in water. The 0.15 m below the tap is :-
buoyant force is –
(1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2
(1) 7 N (2) 9 N (2) 1.0 × 10–4 m2
(3) 3 N (4) None of these (3) 5.0 × 10–5 m2
(4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2
Q.91 Hydraulic press is based upon.

(1) Archimede's principle Q.96 Water flows

(2) Bernoulli's theorem through a
(3) Pascal's law frictionless duct
(4) Reynold's number with a cross-
section varying as
Q.92 A wooden block is taken to the shown in figure. Pressure P at points
bottom of a lake of water and then along the axis is represented by –
released. it rise up with a –

(1) Constant acceleration (1) (2)

(2) Decreasing acceleration
(3) Constant velocity
(4) Decreasing velocity

Q.93 Two water pipes P and Q (3) (4)

having diameter 2 × 10–2 m and 4 ×
10–2 m respectively are joined in
series with the main supply line of Q.97 A tank of height 5 m is full of
water. The velocity of water water. There is a hole of cross
flowing in pipe P is – sectional area 1 cm2 in its bottom.
The initial volume of water that will
(1) 4 times that of Q come out from this hole per second
(2) 2 times that of Q is –
(3) 1/2 times that of Q
(4) 1/4 times that of Q (1) 10–3 m3/s (2) 10–4 m3/s
Q.94 The cylindrical tube of a spray (3) 10 m3/s (4) 10–2 m3/s
pump has a radius R, one end of
which has n fine holes, each of Q.98 The pressure of water in a
radius r. If the speed of flow of the water pipe when tap is opened and
liquid in the tube is v, the speed of closed is respectively 3 × 105 N/m2
ejection of the liquid through the and 3.5 × 105 N/m2. With open tap,
hole is :- the velocity of water flowing is –

(1) v/n(R/r) (2) v/n(R/r)1/2 (1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s

(3) v/n(R/r)3/2 (4) v/n(R/r)2 (3) 20 m/s (4) 15 m/s
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Q.99 The flow speeds of air on the Q.104 Bernoulli's equation for
lower and upper surfaces of the steady, non-viscous, in-
wing of an aeroplane are v and 2 v compressible flow expresses the –
respectively. The density of air is r
and surface area of wing is A. The (1) Conservation of
dynamic lift on the wing is – angular momentum
(2) Conservation of density
(1) v2A (2) 2 v2A (3) Conservation of momentum
(3) (1/2) v2A (4) 2v2A (4) Conservation
of mechanical energy
Q.100 An in compressible fluid flows
steadily through a cylindrical pipe Q.105 Application of Bernoulli's
which has radius 2 R at point A and theorem can be seen in –
radius R at point B farther along the
flow direction. If the velocity at (1) Dynamic lift to aeroplane
point A is v, its velocity at point B is – (2) Hydraulic press
(3) Speed Boat
(1) 2v (2) v (4) None of these

(3) v/2 (4) 4v Q.106 The velocity of water flowing

in a non-uniform tube is 20cm/s at
Q.101 Water is flowing through a a point where the tube radius is
non-uniform radius tube. If ratio of 0.2cm. The velocity at another
the radius of entry and exit end of point, where the radius is 0.1cm is.
the pipe is 3 : 2 then the ratio of
velocities of entering and exit liquid (1) 80cm/s
is :- (2) 40cm/s
(3) 20cm/s
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (4) 5cm/s
(3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
Q.107 A small drop of water falls
Q.102 An aeroplane of mass 3 × from rest through a large height h
104 kg and total wing area of 120 in air. The final velocity is –
m2 is in a level flight at some
height. (1) Almost independent of h
The difference in pressure between (2) Proportional to h
the upper and lower surfaces of its (3) Proportional to h
wings in kilopascals is (g = (4) Inversely proportional to h
10m/s2)
Q.108 Two drops of equal radius
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0 are falling through air with a steady
(3) 10.0 (4) 12.5 velocity of 5 cm/s. If the two drops
coalesce, then its terminal velocity
Q.103 Scent sprayer is based on – will be –

(1) Charle's law (1) 41/3 × 5 cm/s

(2) Archimede's principle (2) 41/3 cm/s
(3) Boyle's law (3) 51/3 × 4 cm/s
(4) Bernoulli's theorem (4) 41/3 × 5 cm/s
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Q.109 If the terminal speed of a Q.115 A drop of water of radius

sphere of gold (density = 19.5 0.0015 mm is falling in air. If the
kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous coefficient of viscosity of air is 2.0
liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find × 10–5 kg / (m–s), the terminal
the terminal speed of a sphere of velocity of the drop will be –
silver (density=10.5 kg/m3) of the (The density of water = 1.0 × 103
same size in the same liquid. kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.4 m/s (2) 0.133 m/s (1) 1.0 × 10–4 m/s
(3) 0.1 m/s (4) 0.2 m/s (2) 2.0 × 10–4 m/s
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 m/s
Q.110 Speed of 2 cm radius ball in a (4) 5.0 × 10–4 m/s
viscous liquid is 20 cm/s. Then the
speed of 1 cm radius ball in the Q.116 Spiders and insects move
same liquid is – and run about on the surface of
water without sinking because –
(1) 5 cm/s (2) 10 cm/s
(3) 40 cm/s (4) 80 cm/s (1) Elastic membrane is formed
on water due to properly
Q.111 The velocity of falling rain of surface tension
drop attain limited value because of (2) Spiders and insects are lighter
(3) Spiders and insects
(1) surface tension swim on water
(2) up thrust due to air (4) Spiders and insects
(3) viscous force exerted by air experience up-thrust
(4) air current
Q.117 A thin liquid film
Q.112 Poise is the unit of – formed between a U-
shaped wire and a light
(1) Pressure (2) Friction slider supports a
(3) Surface tension weight of 1.5 × 10–2 N
(4) Viscosity (see figure). The length
of the slider is 30 cm
Q.113 Two rain drops falling and its weight negligible. The
through air have radii in the ratio surface tension of the liquid film is.
1:2. They will have terminal
velocity in the ratio – (1) 0.025 N/m
(2) 0.0125 N/m
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 0.1 N/ m
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (4) 0.05 N/ m

Q.114 A sphere of mass M and Q.118 A liquid drop of diameter D

radius R is falling in a viscous fluid. breaks into 27 tiny drops. The
The terminal velocity attained by resultant change in energy is –
the falling object will be
proportional to – (1) 2 TD2
(2) 4TD2
(1) MR2 (2) M/R (3) TD2
(3) MR (4) M/R2 (4) None of these

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Properties of Matter and Fluid Mechanics Question Bank

Q.119 The excess pressure inside Q.123 On dipping a capillary of

an air bubble of radius r just below radius 'r' in water, water rises upto
the surface of water is p1. The a height H and potential energy of
excess pressure inside a drop of the water is u1. If a capillary of radius
same radius just outside the 2r is dipped in water, then the
surface is p2. If T is surface tension, potential energy is u2. The ratio
then – u1/u2 is –

(1) p1 = 2p2 (2) p1 = p2 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) p2 = 2p1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(4) p2 = 0, p1  0
Q.124 A vessel, whose bottom has
round holes with diameter of 0.1
Q.120 A water drop is divided into 8
mm, is filled with water. The
equal droplets. The pressure
maximum height to which the
difference between inner and outer
water can be filled without leakage
sides of the big drop –
is :-
(S.T. of water = 75 dyne/cm, g =
(1) will be the same as
1000 cm/s2)
for smaller droplet
(2) will be half of that (1) 100 cm (2) 75 cm
for smaller droplet (3) 50 cm (4) 30 cm
(3) will be one-forth of
that for smaller droplet Q.125 In a surface tension
(4) will be twice of experiment with a capillary tube
that for smaller droplet water rises up to 0.1 m. If the same
experiment is repeated on an artificial
Q.121 A false statement is – satellite which is revolving round the
earth, water will rise in the capillary
(1) Angle of contact  < 90°, if tube up to a height of.
cohesive force < adhesive force × 2
(1) 0.1 m (2) 0.98 m
(2) Angle of contact  > 90°, if
(3) 9.8 m
cohesive force > adhesive force × 2
(4) full length of capillary tube
(3) Angle of contact  = 90°, if
cohesive force = adhesive force × 2 Q.126 A soap bubble in vacuum has
(4) If the radius of capillary a radius of 3 cm and another soap
is reduced to half, the bubble in vacuum has a radius of 4
rise of liquid column cm. If the two bubbles coalesce
becomes four time under isothermal condition, then the
radius of the new bubble is :-
Q.122 If a capillary of radius r is
dipped in water, the height of (1) 2.3 cm (2) 4.5 cm
water that rises in it is h and its (3) 5 cm (4) 7 cm
mass is M. If the radius of the
Q.127 The spherical shape of rain-
capillary is doubled the mass of
drop is due to –
water that rises in the capillary will
be – (1) Density of the liquid
(2) Surface tension
(1) 4M (2) 2M (3) Atmospheric pressure
(3) M (4) M/2 (4) Gravity
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Q.128 In a capillary tube, water Q.133 The property utilized in the

rises by 1.2 mm. The height of manufacture of lead shots is –
water that will rise in another
capillary tube having half the (1) Specific weight of liquid lead
radius of the first, is – (2) Specific gravity of liquid lead
(3) Compressibility of liquid lead
(1) 1.2 mm (4) Surface tension of liquid lead
(2) 2.4 mm
(3) 0.6 mm Q.134 Surface tension of a liquid is
(4) 0.4 mm 5 N/m. If its thin film is made in a
ring of area 0.02 m2, then its
Q.129 Water rises to a height h in a surface energy will be –
capillary at the surface of earth. On
the surface of the moon the height (1) 5 × 10–2 Joule
of water column in the same (2) 2.5 × 10–2 Joule
capillary will be – (3) 3 × 10–1 Joule
(4) 2 × 10–1 Joule
(1) 6h (2) 1/6 h
(3) h (4) Zero Q.135 If one end of capilary tube is
dipped into water then water rises
Q.130 Due to capillary action a up to 3cm. If the surface tension of
liquid will rise in a tube if angle of water is 75 × 10–3 N/m then the
contact is – diameter of capilary tube will be –

(1) acute (2) obtuse (1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.5 mm

(3) 90° (4) 180
(3) 1 mm (4) 2 mm
Q.131 Two droplets merge with
Q.136 If the surface tension of a
each other and form a large
liquid is T and its surface area is
droplet. In this process :-
increased by A, then the surface
energy of that surface will be
(1) Energy is liberated
increased by –
(2) Energy is absorbed
(3) Neither liberated
(1) AT (2) A/T
nor absorbed
(4) Some mass is (3) A2T (4) A2T2
converted into energy
Q.137 Two soap bubbles of radii r1
Q.132 Two capillary tubes of same and r2 equal to 4cm and 5 cm are
diameter are put vertically one touching each other over a common
each in two liquids whose relative surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its
densities are 0.8 and 0.6 and radius will be :–
surface tensions are 60 dyne/cm
and 50 dyne/cm respectively. Ratio
(1) 4 cm.
of heights of liquids in the two
tubes h1/h2 is :- (2) 20 cm.
(3) 5 cm.
(1) 10/9 (2) 3/10
(3) 10/3 (4) 9/10 (4) 4.5 cm.

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Q.138 The radius of a soap bubble Q.143 A capillary tube of radius r

is r. The surface tension of soap can support a liquid of weight 6.28
solution is T. Keeping temperature × 10–4 N. If the surface tension
constant, the radius of the soap of the liquid is 5 × 10–2 N/m.
bubble is doubled, the energy The radius of capillary must be :-
necessary for this will be –
(1) 2 × 10–3m (2) 2 × 10–4m
(1) 24  r2 T (2) 8  r2 T (3) 1.5 × 10–3 (4) 12.5 × 10–4m
(3) 12  r2 T (4) 16  r2 T
Q.144 Water rise in a capillary upto
Q.139 A liquid does not wet the an extension height such that
sides of a solid, if the angle of upward force of surface tension
contact is – balances the force of 75 × 10–4 N.
due to weight of water. If surface
(1) Zero tension of water is 6 × 10–2 N/m.
(2) Obtuse (more than 90°) The internal circumference of the
(3) Acute (less than 90°) capillary must be :-
(4) 45°
(1) 12.5 × 10–2 m
(2) 6.5 × 10–2 m
Q.140 The excess of pressure inside
(3) 0.5 × 10–2 m
a soap bubble than that of the
(4) 1.25 × 10–2 m
outer pressure is –
Q.145 Two small drops of mercury,
(1) 2T/r (2) 4T/r each of radius R, coalesce to form a
(3) T/2r (4) T/r single large drop. The ratio of the
total surface energies before and
Q.141 In a capillary tube after the change is :–
experiment, a vertical 30 cm long
capillary tube is dipped in water. (1) 1 : 21/3 (2) 21/3 : 1
The water rises up to a height of 10 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
cm due to capillary action. If this
experiment is conducted in a freely Q.146 Inside a drop excess
falling elevator, the length of the pressure is maximum in :-
water column becomes –
(1) 0.200 mm diameter
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (2) 20.0 mm diameter
(3) 200 mm diameter
(3) 30 cm (4) Zero (4) 2.0 mm diameter

Q.142 Radius of a capillary is 2 × Q.147 The diameter of one drop of

10–3 m. A liquid of weight 6.2 × water is 0.2 cm. The work done in
10–4 N may remain in the capillary. breaking one drop into 1000 equal
Then the surface tension of liquid droplets will be :– (surface tension
will be :- of water = 7 × 10–2 N/m)

(1) 5 × 10–3 N/m (1) 7.9 × 10–6 J

(2) 5 × 10–2 N/m (2) 5.92 × 10–6 J
(3) 5 N/m (3) 2.92 × 10–6 J
(4) 50 N/m (4) 1.92 × 10–6 J

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Q.148 If two bubble of radii 0.03 Q.154 Adding detergents to water

cm and 0.04 cm come in contact helps in removing dirty greasy
with each other then the radius of stains. This is because –
curvature of the common surface 'r' (a) It increases the oil-water
is given by – surface tension
(b) It decreases the oil-water
(1) 0.03 cm (2) 0.06 cm surface tension
(3) 0.12 cm (4) 0.24 cm (c) It increases the viscosity of the
solution
Q.149 Work done in forming a soap (d) Dirt is held suspended
bubble of radius R is W. Then work surrounded by detergent molecules
done is forming a soap bubble of
radius '2R' will be :- (1) (b) and (d)
(2) (a) only
(1) 2W (2) 4W (3) (c) and (d)
(3) W/2 (4) W/4 (4) (d) only

Q.150 At which angle liquid will not Q.155 The excess pressure inside a
wet solid. soap bubble A is twice that in
another soap bubble B. The ratio of
(1) Zero (2) acute volumes of A and B is –
(3) 45° (4) obtuse
(1) 1 : 2
Q.151 Internal radius of a capilary (2) 1 : 4
tube is 1/28 cm and surface (3) 1 : 8
tension of water 70 dyne/cm, if (4) 1 : 16
angle of contact is zero, then water
will rise up in the tube up to height. Q.156 Consider a soap film on a
rectangular frame of wire of area 4
(1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm × 4 cm2. If the area of the soap film
(3) 14 cm (4) 18 cm is increased to 4 × 5cm2, the work
done in the process will be (The
Q.152 Area of liquid film is 6 × 10 surface tension of the soap film is 3
cm2 and surface tension is T = 20 × 10–2 N/m)
dyne/cm, what is the work done to
change area up to 12 × 10 cm2. (1) 12 × 10–6 J
(2) 24 × 10–6 J
(1) 120 joule (2) 120 erg
(3) 1200 joule (4) 2400 erg (3) 60 × 10–6 J
(4) 96 × 10–6 J
Q.153 The work done in blowing a
soap bubble of radius 0.2 m, given
Q.157 Shape of meniscus for a
that the surface tension of soap
liquid of zero angle of contact is –
solution is 60 × 10–3 N/m, is –

(1) 24 × 10–4 J (1) plane

(2) 8 × 10–4 J (2) parabolic
(3) 96 × 10–4 J (3) hemi-spherical
(4) 192 × 10–4 J (4) cylindrical

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Q.158 The spring

balance A read 2 kg.
With a block m
suspended from it.
A balance B reads
5kg. When a beaker
with liquid is put on
the pan of the
balance. The two balances are now
so arranged that the hanging mass
is inside the liquid in the beaker as
shown in fig. in this situation –

(1) The balance A will

read more than 2kg.
(2) The balance B will
read more than 5kg.
(3) The balance A will
read less than 2kg. And
B will read more than 5kg.
(4) The balance A and B
will read 2kg. And 5g. Respectively

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