MPMSU MBBS 1st Year Previous Year Questions (2015-2023)

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MPMSU
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
MBBS 1st PROFF
2015-2023
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TRISM3GISTUS
CONTENTS
ANATOMY
2015 4
2016 6
2017 8
2018 10
2019 12
2021 14
2022 18
S
2023 Feb 22
TU
2023 Nov 26
PHYSIOLOGY
IS
3G
2015 31
2016 33
M
2017 35
2018 37
IS
2019 39
TR
2021 41
2022 45
2023 Feb 49
e/
2023 Nov 53
t.m
BIOCHEMISTRY
2015 58
2016 60
2017 62
2018 64
2019 66
2021 68
2022 72
2023 Feb 76
2023 Nov 80
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ANATOMY
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Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS First Professional Examination 2015
Subject- Anatomy
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50
Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means
Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10
a. Describe the formation and branches of brachial plexus
b. Draw labeled diagram to show gyri, sulci and functional areas of supero-lateral surface of cerebrum
Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome

b. Nasal septum
c. Floor of fourth ventricle
d. Histology of palatine tonsil
e. Otic ganglion
f. Cross section diagram of a typical intercostal space
g. Fallot’s tetralogy
h. Corpus callosum
i. Interior of right atrium
j. Boundaries and contents of posterior mediastinum
Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10
a. Name the bones meeting at pterion

b. Indicate the sinuses of pericardium
c. Name the terminal branches of internal thoracic artery
d. Indicate the paleocerebellar deep nuclei
e. Name the muscles attached to cricoid cartilage
f. Name two sensory thalamic nuclei
g. Name the structures passing through internal acoustic meatus
h. Name the two parts of orbicularis occuli
i. Name the lingual papillae
j. Indicate the venous sinuses related to falx cerebri
5
Subject- Anatomy
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50
Instructions:
a. Describe testis under following headings

i. Coverings (2)
ii. Development (2)
iii. Ectopic testis (1)
b. Describe adductor canal with its clinical importance
a. Portal systemic anastomosis

b. Fallopian tubes
c. Long sephanous vein
d. Root of mesentery
e. Development of kidney
f. Perineal body
g. Histology of spleen
h. Sex chromatin
i. Umbilicus
j. Spermiogenesis
a. Iliotibial tract
b. Enumerate derivatives of mesonephric duct
c. Epiploic foramen
d. Enumerate pulse points of lower limb
e. Stomach bed
f. Articularis genu
g. Porta hepatis
h. Broad ligament of uterus
i. Posterior relations of caecum
j. Meckel’s diverticulum
6
MBBS First Professional Examination Aug-Sep 2016
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe mid palmar space in hand
b. Draw labeled diagram to show transverse section of mid brain at the level of superior colliculus
a. Anatomical snuff box

b. Lateral wall of nose
c. Circulation of CSF
d. Histology of kidney
e. Ciliary ganglion
f. Typical intercostal nerve
g. Patent ductus arteriosus
h. Internal capsule
i. Arterial supply of heart
j. Boundaries and contents of superior mediastinum
a. Name any two parasympathetic ganglions

b. Name the artery piercing the clavipectoral fascia
c. Name the structures arranged in hilum of lung (anterior to posterior)
d. Name the terminal branches of external carotid artery
e. Name the nerve supplying the posterior one third of tongue
f. Name the parts of corpus callosum
g. Name the structure forming filum terminale
h. Name the structures passing through foramen spinosum
i. Name the structures attached on styloid process
j. Confluence of sinuses
7
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe stomach under following headings

i. Posterior relations
ii. Arterial supply
iii. Applied aspect
b. Describe femoral triangle
a. Medial longitudinal arch of foot

b. Locking and unlocking of knee joint
c. Ischiorectal fossa
d. Inguinal canal
e. Rectus sheath
f. Epiploic foramen
g. Development of kidney
h. Micro anatomy of pancreas
i. Posterior relations of urinary bladder in male
j. Adductor canal
a. Boundaries of popliteal fossa

b. Enumerate the ventral branches of abdominal aorta
c. Enumerate the superficial branches of femoral artery
d. Enumerate the branches of anterior division of obturator nerve
e. Name the muscles supplied by superior peroneal nerve
f. Enumerate the sites of porto-caval anastomosis
g. Karyotype of down syndrome
h. Derivative of mesonephric duct in males
i. Enumerate the intracapsular ligament of knee joint
j. Vasectomy
8
MBBS First Professional Examination 2017 Summer
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe bronchopulmonary segments with its applied aspects
b. Describe carotid triangle
a. Interior of right atrium

b. Secretomotor pathway of parotid gland
c. Diagram of floor of 4th ventricle of brain
d. Musculocutaneous nerve in arm
e. Supination and pronation of forearm
f. Relations in coronal section of cavernous sinus
g. Circle of Willis
h. Spermatogenesis
i. Classification of synovial joint
j. Urothelium
a. Name the nerve of carpal tunnel syndrome

b. Name the branches of second part of axillary artery
c. Sternal angle
d. Name the contents of umbilical cord
e. Site of speech area of Broca in cerebral hemisphere
f. Name the muscles forming musculotendinous cuff of shoulder
g. Name the structures passing through foramen ovale
h. Name the layers of scalp
i. Name the tributaries of external jugular vein
j. Name the muscles of mastication
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Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe vermiform appendix under the following headings

i. Position
ii. Relations
iii. Arterial supply
iv. Lymphatic drainage
v. Applied aspect
b. Describe venous drainage of lower limb and discuss its applied aspect
a. Obturator nerve – origin, course and distribution

b. Pelvic diaphragm
c. Inguinal canal
d. Extrahepatic biliary apparatus
e. Microanatomy of prostate gland
f. Femoral artery – origin, course and branches
g. Development of anal canal
h. Ischiorectal fossa
i. Recto-uterine pouch
j. Fallopian tube
a. Pudendal canal
b. Structures crossed by the root of mesentery
c. Crura of diagram
d. Enumerate superficial inguinal nodes
e. Spring ligament
f. Femoral sheath
g. Menisci of knee joint
h. Enumerate the development anomalies of kidney
i. Primitive streak
j. Contents of spermatic cord
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Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe tongue under following headings

i. Location and parts
ii. Nerve supply & lymphatic drainage
iii. Development
b. Describe cavernous sinus under following headings

i. Situation and extent
ii. Boundaries and relations
iii. Contents and connections
iv. Applied anatomy
a. Secretomotor pathway of parotid gland

b. Styloid apparatus
c. Microscopic structure of cerebellum
d. Pleural recess
e. Brachial plexus
f. T.S. of midbrain at the level of superior colliculus (only diagram)
g. Thoracic inlet
h. Lymphatic drainage of breast
i. Lateral medullary syndrome
j. Hyoglossus muscle and its relations
a. Safety muscle of larynx

b. What nerve innervate the floor of axilla
c. Which lobe contains the visual cortex
d. Which nerve supplies mucous membrane of larynx below vocal fold
e. Derivatives of neural crest cells (only three)
f. Enumerate the fibers present in cerebrum
g. Structures piercing clavipectoral fascia
h. Choice of site for paracentesis thoracis
i. Which nerve supply posterior belly of digastric muscle
j. Structures passing between middle and inferior constrictor of pharynx
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Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe inguinal canal under following heading

i. Location and extent
ii. Boundaries and contents
iii. Protective mechanism
iv. Applied anatomy
b. Describe the uterus under following heading

i. Normal axis and parts
ii. Relations
iii. Ligaments
iv. Supports
a. Hepato-renal pouch
b. Stomach bed
c. Development of anal canal and rectum
d. Microscopic structure of liver
e. Spermatic cord
f. Fallot’s tetralogy
g. Hamstring muscle
h. Mesonephric duct
i. Flexor retinaculum (lower limb)
j. Popliteal fossa
a. Contents of lienorenal ligament

b. McBurney’s point
c. Nerve related to postero-lateral aspect of neck of fibula
d. Tributaries of portal vein
e. Right testicular vein drains into …?
f. Name the nerve associated with second pharyngeal arch
g. Name the structures passing through aortic orifice of diaphragm
h. Parts of fallopian tube
i. Three cardinal features of large intestine
j. Branches of celiac trunk
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MBBS First Professional Examination Aug-2019
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe middle ear under following headings

i. Location
ii. Contents
iii. Boundaries
iv. Nerve supply
v. Applied
b. Describe brachial plexus with its applied anatomy
a. Sensory innervation of face

b. Histological features of parotid gland
c. Lateral pterygoid muscle
d. Development of tongue
e. Synapse
f. Transverse section of open part of medulla
g. Major openings of thoracic diaphragm
h. Thoracic duct
i. Axillary artery
j. Coronary sinus
a. Enumerate modifications of deep fascia

b. Neurobiotaxis
c. Structures forming floor of 3rd ventricle in brain
d. Structures passing in front of neck of 1st rib
e. Tentorium cerebelli
f. Name the muscles of soft palate
g. Name the various petrosal nerves
h. Structures present in the lateral wall of cavernous sinus
i. Glenoid labrum
j. Nerve supply of lumbricals of hand
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Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
a. Describe 2nd part of duodenum under the following headings

i. Relations
ii. Development
iii. Arterial supply
iv. Interior
v. Applied aspect
b. Describe urinary bladder under following headings

i. External features
ii. Relations
iii. Supports
iv. Arterial and nerve supply
v. Applied aspect
a. Defense mechanism of inguinal canal

b. Recto uterine pouch
c. Histology of pancreas
d. Klinefelter’s syndrome
e. Pudendal canal
f. Development of kidney
g. Notochord
h. Medial longitudinal arch of foot
i. Tibialis anterior
j. Adductor canal
a. Enumerate sites of portocaval anastomosis

b. Enumerate the posterior relations of right kidney
c. White pulp
d. Enumerate the “X” linked recessive trait
e. Enumerate the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery
f. Enumerate layers of scrotal wall
g. Enumerate structures piercing the perineal membrane in male
h. Enumerate various types of epithelium
i. Enumerate the structures passing deep to flexor retinaculum
j. Enumerate the ligament providing stability to hip joint
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MBBS First Professional Examination Feb-2021
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. The ‘C’ cells or parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland are developed from
(a) ultimobranchial body (b) fourth pharyngeal pouch (c) third pharyngeal pouch (d) second pharyngeal pouch
2. The neocerebellum is associated with

(a) regulation of muscle tone of (b) maintenance of equilibrium (c) regulation of muscle tone of (d) smooth performance of skilled
trunk limbs acts
3. Which layer of scalp is called the dangerous layer

(a) skin (b) dense connective (c) loose areolar connective tissue (d) epicranial aponeurosis
4. The largest peripheral parasympathetic ganglion of head and neck region is

(a) ciliary (b) pterygopalatine (c) submandibular (d) otic
5. All muscle of soft palate is supplied by accessory cranial nerve EXCEPT

(a) levator veli palatini (b) tensor veli palatini (c) palatoglossus (d) muscularis uvulae
6. The contents of middle ear cavity are

(a) tensor tympani and stapedius (b) chorda tympani and tympanic (c) malleus, incus and stapes (d) all of the above
plexus
7. The pain from tongue is referred to ear through

(a) facial nerve (b) glossopharyngeal nerve (c) both (a) and (b) (d) mandibular nerve
8. Epithelium lining of urinary bladder is

(a) simple squamous (b) pseudostratified columnar (c) cuboidal (d) transitional
9. All the muscles of tongue are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT
(a) hyoglossus (b) genioglossus (c) palatoglossus (d) styloglossus
10. Part of growing long bones commonly involved in osteomyelitis is

(a) epiphysis (b) metaphysis (c) diaphysis (d) epiphyseal plate
11. The lower motor neurons are located in the

(a) anterior gray column of spinal (b) cerebral cortex (c) internal capsule (d) thalamus
cord
12. The lymph vessels from thumb drain into which group of axillary lymph nodes
(a) lateral (b) posterior (c) anterior (d) central
13. Typical intercostal nerves are

(a) 1st and 2nd intercostal nerve (b) 7th and 10th intercostal nerve (c) 7th to 11th intercostal nerve (d) 3rd to 6th intercostal nerve
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14. Ligament of berry is a derivative of
(a) investing layer (b) pre-tracheal layer (c) pre-vertebral layer (d) carotid sheath
15. Basal nuclei include all of the following structures EXCEPT

(a) corpus striatum (b) claustrum (c) amygdaloid body (d) habenular nucleus
16. Crista terminalis is a feature of

(a) right ventricle (b) left ventricle (c) right atrium (d) left atrium
17. The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of

(a) external carotid artery (b) internal carotid artery (c) thyrocervical trunk (d) brachiocephalic trunk
18. Bipolar neurons are found at all of the following sites EXCEPT
(a) retina (b) olfactory epithelium (c) sensory ganglia (d) vestibulocochlear ganglia
19. Root value of long thoracic nerve is

(a) C5-C7 (b) C5-C6 (c) C5-C8 (d) C5-T1
20. All of the following are the examples of fibrous joint EXCEPT
(a) suture (b) syndesmosis (c) symphysis (d) gomphosis
a. Development of palate and its anomalies

b. Scalp
c. Middle ear cavity
d. Supination and pronation in forearm
e. Histology of thyroid gland
f. Rotator cuff of shoulder joint
g. Typical intercostal space
h. Carotid triangle
i. Lateral nasal wall
j. Secretomotor pathway of parotid gland
Q3. Long Answer Questions 3 x 10 = 30
a. Describe the median nerve under the following heads

i. Root value
ii. Course and relations
iii. Distribution
iv. Clinical anatomy
b. Describe bronchopulmonary segments with its applied
c. Classify the Dural venous sinuses and describe cavernous sinus in detail
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Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. A muscle which flexes both hip and knee joint is

(a) gluteus maximus (b) biceps femoris (c) rectus femoris (d) sartorius
2. Which of the following structures is likely to get damaged when the semi flexed knee is suddenly rotated medially
(a) anterior cruciate ligament (b) lateral meniscus (c) medial meniscus (d) posterior cruciate ligament
3. Tredelenberg’s test is positive in following conditions EXCEPT

(a) dislocation of hip (b) fracture of neck of femur (c) paralysis of gluteus medius (d) paralysis of gluteus maximus
4. Foot drop is due to injury of which nerve

(a) common peroneal (b) superficial nerve (c) femoral (d) tibial
5. Following are the contents of inguinal canal in males EXCEPT

(a) ilio-inguinal nerve (b) spermatic cord (c) artery to vas deferens (d) ilio-hypogastric nerve
6. Conjoint tendon is formed by

(a) external and internal oblique (b) external oblique and (c) internal oblique and transversus (d) internal oblique alone
transversus abdominis
7. Commonest position of appendix is

(a) retrocecal (b) sub cecal (c) pelvic (d) pre-ileal
8. Nerve piercing and lying on psoas major is

(a) ilio-inguinal (b) ilio-hypogastric (c) femoral (d) genitofemoral
9. 2nd part of duodenum is developed from

(a) foregut and midgut (b) midgut and hindgut (c) only foregut (d) only midgut
10. Following are the boundaries of epiploic foramen EXCEPT

(a) free edge of lesser omentum (b) quadrate lobe of liver (c) 1st part of duodenum (d) inferior vena cava
11. Left testicular vein drain in

(a) inferior vena cava (b) left renal (c) left internal iliac (d) left common iliac
12. All are the contents of superficial perineal pouch EXCEPT

(a) bulbo urethra gland (b) superior transverse perinei (c) dorsal nerve of penis (d) dorsal artery of penis
13. Abnormal lateral curvature of vertebral column is known as

(a) kyphosis (b) lordosis (c) scoliosis (d) spondylolisthesis
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14. Disc between which vertebra corresponds to the highest point on iliac crest
(a) L1-L2 (b) L2-L3 (c) L3-L4 (d) L4-L5
15. Following veins are tributaries of portal vein EXCEPT

(a) right gastric (b) left gastric (c) splenic (d) inferior phrenic
16. Following structures form stomach bed EXCEPT

(a) splenic vein (b) splenic artery (c) left kidney (d) left suprarenal
17. Structure crossed by root of mesentery is

(a) left ureter (b) left gonadal vessels (c) inferior mesenteric artery (d) left suprarenal
18. Lymph nodes receiving lymphatics from testis are

(a) deep inguinal (b) internal iliac (c) external iliac (d) para-aortic
19. The skin around the umbilicus is innervated by which thoracic segment
(a) T8 (b) T9 (c) T10 (d) T11
20. Following structures represent derivatives of dorsal mesogastrium EXCEPT

(a) greater omentum (b) lesser omentum (c) gastrophrenic ligament (d) lienorenal ligament
a. Lesser sac
b. Histology of spleen
c. Popliteal fossa
d. Supports of uterus
e. Descent of testis
f. Blood supply of stomach
g. Adductor canal
h. Medial longitudinal arch of foot
i. Portocaval anastomosis
j. Prostate part of urethra
a. Describe the external feature, relations, ligaments, blood supply and developmental anatomy of urinary bladder. Add a
note on its applied anatomy
b. Describe the root value, course, relations, branches and distribution and applied anatomy of obturator nerve
c. Describe the type, ligaments, relations, movements and muscles producing the movements, and applied anatomy of hip
joint
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MBBS First Professional Examination April-2022
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Which cranial nerve nucleus lies under the facial colliculus

(a) V (b) VI (c) VII (d) VIII
2. Fossa ovalis is a remnant of

(a) septum primum (b) septum secundum (c) ductus arteriosus (d) ductus venosus
3. Somites develop from

(a) notochord (b) intermediate mesoderm (c) paraxial mesoderm (d) lateral plate mesoderm
4. Broca’s area is present in

(a) superior temporal gyrus (b) precentral gyrus (c) post central gyrus (d) inferior frontal gyrus
5. Which nerve injury results in ptosis

(a) IV (b) VI (c) III (d) VII
6. Axillary sheath is derived from

(a) pretracheal fascia (b) prevertebral fascia (c) pharyngobasilar fascia (d) investing layer of deep cervical
fascia
7. Nerve carrying secretomotor fibers for parotid gland

(a) auriculotemporal (b) great auricular (c) zygomatico temporal (d) posterior auricular
8. Nasolacrimal duct opens into

(a) superior meatus (b) middle meatus (c) inferior meatus (d) vestibule of nose
9. Primary yolk sac is derived from

(a) cavity of blastocyst (b) neuropore (c) stomodeum (d) hindgut
10. Typical intercostal nerve

(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 7th
11. Virchow’s lymph node is

(a) right supraclavicular (b) left supra clavicular (c) omohyoid node (d) submental node
12. Corpus callosum of cerebrum consists of

(a) association fibers (b) projection fibers (c) commissural fibers (d) reticular fibers
13. Aortic opening of diaphragm is at the level of

(a) T6 vertebra (b) T8 vertebra (c) T10 vertebra (d) T12 vertebra
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14. Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is inserted on the

(a) pisiform bone (b) scaphoid bone (c) lunate bone (d) trapezium bone
15. Styloid apparatus consists of

(a) vocal ligament (b) sphenomandibular ligament (c) vestibular ligament (d) styloid ligament
16. Opposition of thumb is done by

(a) abductor pollicis brevis (b) flexor pollicis brevis (c) opponens pollicis (d) adductor pollicis
17. Air embolism is common in

(a) external jugular vein (b) internal jugular vein (c) anterior jugular vein (d) facial vein
18. What is the cranial limit of notochord

(a) oropharyngeal membrane (b) prechordal plate (c) pericardial cavity (d) septum transversum
19. Which lemniscus originates from nuclei gracilis and cuneatus

(a) spinal (b) trigeminal (c) medial (d) lateral
20. Azygos vein opens into which vein

(a) superior vena cava (b) hemiazygos (c) accessory hemiazygos (d) inferior vena cava
a. Carotid triangle
b. Facial nerve
c. Describe microscopic features of trachea
d. Well labeled diagram showing the transverse section of upper part of pons
e. Cubital fossa
f. Classification of synovial joints
g. Respiratory movements of thoracic wall
h. Derivatives of first pharyngeal arch
i. Openings of lateral wall of nose
j. Write a note on otic ganglion
a. Describe arterial supply and venous drainage of heart
b. Describe palatine tonsils under the following headings

i. Gross features including deep relations
ii. Histology
iii. Applied anatomy
c. A 30-year-old male presented to emergency department after a road traffic accident complaining of right arm pain and
inability to move his extremity. The following morning, he developed clawing. Nerve conduction studies on the
peripheral nerves of his arm confirmed the diagnosis of injury to the ulnar nerve. Keeping this scenario in mind, answer
the following questions
i. Origin, root value of the nerve
ii. Course and distribution
iii. Branches
iv. Explain the reason for development of clawing
20
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. A muscle which flexes both hip and knee joint is

(a) gluteus maximus (b) biceps femoris (c) rectus femoris (d) sartorius
2. All are the content of spermatic cord except

(a) ductus deferens (b) testicular artery (c) ilioinguinal nerve (d) pampiniform plexus
3. The rectus sheath contains all of the following EXCEPT

(a) pyramidalis muscle (b) genitofemoral nerve (c) inferior epigastric vessels (d) superior epigastric vessels
4. Chromosomes with a central centromere are known as

(a) metacentric (b) submetacentric (c) acrocentric (d) telocentric
5. Urinary bladder develops from

(a) pre-allantoic bud (b) proctodeum (c) cloaca (d) mid gut
6. Left testicular vein drains into

(a) inferior vena cava (b) left renal (c) left internal iliac (d) left common iliac
7. Chromosome constitution of secondary oocyte is

(a) 23Y (b) 23X (c) 46 XY (d) 46XX
8. Which of the following ligament is called Y-shaped ligament of Bigelow

(a) the glenoid labrum (b) the ischiocapsular ligament (c) iliofemoral ligament (d) the pubocapsular ligament
9. Which structure is absent in lesser sciatic foramen

(a) nerve to obturator internus (b) obturator nerve (c) pudendal nerve (d) internal pudendal artery
10. Which is the most common site for the appendix to be found in appendectomy
(a) retro ileal (b) retro caecal (c) pelvic (d) anterior to terminal ileum
11. The following structures are crossed root of mesentery EXCEPT

(a) 3rd part of duodenum (b) inferior vena cava (c) right ureter (d) left ureter
12. Tredelenberg’s test is positive in following conditions EXCEPT

(a) dislocation of hip (b) paralysis of gluteus maximus (c) fracture of neck of femur (d) paralysis of gluteus medius
13. In which of the following haversian system is present

(a) cortical bone (b) cancellous bone (c) teeth (d) cartilage
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14. A patient experiences weakness in dorsiflexing and inverting the foot. Which of the following muscle is damaged
(a) peroneus longus (b) peroneus tertius (c) tibialis anterior (d) peroneus brevis
15. Which of the following lobes of the prostate is commonly involved in carcinoma
(a) anterior (b) posterior (c) middle (d) lateral
16. Lymphatics from glans penis drain into which lymph nodes
(a) external iliac (b) internal iliac (c) superficial inguinal (d) deep inguinal
17. Which of the following does not contribute to the formation of posterior wall of inguinal canal
(a) fascia transversalis (b) conjoint tendon (c) lacunar ligament (d) reflected part of ligament
18. Which ligament is commonly affected in ankle sprain is

(a) anterior talofibular (b) posterior talofibular (c) deltoid (d) calcaneofibular
19. Which nerve innervates the first interdigital cleft

(a) sural (b) saphenous (c) tibial (d) deep peroneal
20. The spermatogonial cells of the testis develop from

(a) yolk sac (b) genital ridge (c) mesonephric duct (d) gubernaculum
a. Write a note on various positions of appendix

b. Locking-unlocking mechanism of knee joint
c. Ischio-rectal fossa
d. Adductor canal
e. Supports of uterus
f. Great saphenous vein
g. Histology of ovary
h. Portocaval anastomosis, three important sites, diagram only, mentions three effects of portal hypertension
i. Development of testis
j. Medial longitudinal arch of foot
a. Describe inguinal canal under the following headings

i. Boundaries
ii. Contents
iii. Applied aspects
b. Describe knee joint under the following headings

i. Type of joint and articular surface
ii. Capsule and ligaments
iii. Movements and muscles responsible
iv. Applied anatomy
c. Describe duodenum under following headings

i. Peritoneal and visceral relations (1st, 2nd,3rd parts)
ii. Histology
iii. Explain anatomical basis of duodenal cap and duodenal ulcer
22
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Which nerve carries pre ganglionic fibers to sub mandibular gland

(a) chorda tympani (b) greater petrosal (c) lesser petrosal nerve (d) auriculotemporal
2. At which level common carotid artery divides

(a) cricoid cartilage (b) lower border of thyroid (c) upper border of thyroid (d) hyoid bone
cartilage cartilage
3. Which one of the following structures runs in the intersegmental planes of lungs
(a) bronchial artery (b) bronchial vein (c) segmental arteriole (d) segmental vein
4. What type of joint is first chondrosternal joint

(a) synovial (b) fibrous (c) primary cartilaginous (d) secondary cartilaginous
5. Which muscle is attached to lesser tuberosity of humerus

(a) subscapularis (b) supraspinatus (c) teres major (d) teres minor
6. In which vein does cephalic vein drains

(a) subclavian (b) axillary (c) basilic (d) medial cubital
7. Paralysis of upper trunk of brachial plexus results in which deformity

(a) ape hand (b) claw hand (c) waiter’s tip hand deformity (d) winged scapula
8. Pineal gland is part of which of the following

(a) telencephalon (b) diencephalon (c) mesencephalon (d) rhombencephalon
9. What type of sulcus is post calcarine sulcus

(a) operculated (b) limiting (c) complete (d) axial
10. What type of muscle is lateral part of deltoid

(a) fusiform (b) unipennate (c) strap-like (d) multipennate
23
a. Describe structure, deep relations, blood supply, lymphatic drainage and applied anatomy of breast.
b. Describe thyroid gland under following headings

i. Visceral relations
ii. Microstructure
iii. Capsule comparison with prostate
iv. Blood supply
v. Applied anatomy
Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30
a. Azygos system of veins

b. Internal capsule
c. Diagram of mediastinal surface of right lung
d. Relations of posterior belly of digastric muscle
e. Intermediate mesoderm
f. Sesamoid bone
a. Winging of scapula
b. Branches of first part of maxillary artery
c. Blood brain barrier
d. Extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of tongue
e. Structures passing through foramen ovale
f. Parts of conducting system of heart
g. Changes at level of sternal angle
h. Substantia nigra
i. Graafian follicle
j. Pivot joint with examples
24
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Ischial tuberosity provides attachment to

(a) obturator externus (b) quadratus femoris (c) gluteus maximus (d) adductor magnus
2. Major extensor of thigh is

(a) gluteus maximus (b) psoas major (c) obturator internus (d) superior and inferior gemelli
3. Superior vesical artery is branch of

(a) external iliac artery (b) anterior division of internal iliac (c) posterior division of internal iliac (d) inferior mesenteric artery
artery artery
4. All are contents of femoral triangle except

(a) femoral artery (b) femoral sheath (c) deep inguinal lymph nodes (d) superficial inguinal lymph nodes
5. Almost exclusively, urinary bladder is lined by

(a) squamous epithelium (b) columnar epithelium (c) transitional epithelium (d) cuboidal epithelium
6. Sinus of epididymis open on which surface of testis

(a) anterior (b) posterior (c) lateral (d) medial
7. Submucosal glands of Brunner are characteristic feature of

(a) duodenum (b) jejunum (c) ileum (d) colon
8. Anterior division of obturator nerve supplies all of the following EXCEPT

(a) gracilis (b) obturator externus (c) adductor longus (d) adductor brevis
9. Oblique popliteal ligament is an extension from tendon of

(a) semitendinosus (b) semimembranosus (c) adductor magnus (d) biceps femoris
10. Round ligament of uterus is homologous to

(a) tunica vaginalis (b) testis (c) gubernaculum (d) all of the above
25
a. Describe the type, articular surface, capsule, ligaments. bursae, relations, movements and muscles involved and clinical
anatomy of hip joint
b. Describe the Extrahepatic Biliary Apparatus in detail along with related applied anatomy
a. Descent of testis
b. Draw a well labeled diagram to show relations of third part of duodenum
c. Stomach bed
d. Histology of appendix
e. Describe the embryological development of kidney
f. Describe the boundaries and content of superficial perineal pouch
a. Popliteus muscle
b. Pudendal canal
c. Foot drop
d. Hamstring muscles
e. Write the medial and lateral attachment of inguinal ligament
f. Name the arteries supplying the suprarenal gland
g. Name any two embryological structures that form parts of diaphragm
h. What is Hilton’s line
i. Write any two modifications of deep fascia of thigh
j. Enumerate tendons passing between flexor retinaculum of leg
26
MBBS First Professional Examination Nov-2023
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Which nerve injury results in ptosis

(a) trochlear (b) abducent (c) oculomotor (d) facial
2. Basal nuclei include all of the following structures except

(a) habenular nucleus (b) globus pallidus (c) claustrum (d) corpus striatum
3. Foramen secundum is gap in

(a) septum primum (b) septum secundum (c) septum spurium (d) septum intermedium
4. Largest peripheral parasympathetic ganglion in head and neck region is

(a) ciliary (b) otic (c) pterygopalatine (d) submandibular
5. The red nucleus is feature of

(a) cerebellum (b) midbrain (c) medulla (d) thalamus
6. Trapezius is supplied by
(a) cranial part of accessory nerve (b) spinal part of accessory nerve (c) vago accessory complex (d) vagus
7. First and second lumbrical muscles of hand are supplied by which nerve
(a) median (b) ulnar (c) radial (d) all of the above
8. Brodmann area number 18 and 19 represent

(a) visual cortex (b) auditory cortex (c) Broca’s area (d) prefrontal cortex
9. Upper half of deltoid is supplied by

(a) upper lateral cutaneous nerve (b) lower lateral cutaneous nerve (c) posterior cutaneous nerve of (d) medial cutaneous nerve of arm
arm
10. Fate of yolk sac during IUL is formation of

(a) primitive heart tube (b) primitive gut tube (c) primitive mesonephric tube (d) pharyngeal arches
27
a. Describe the tongue under the following headings

ii. Development
iii. Histology
iv. Taste pathway
b. Describe the heart under the following headings

ii. Interior of right atrium
iii. Blood supply
iv. Development
v. Applied anatomy
a. Write down the different types of commissural fibers of cerebral hemisphere with a special note on corpus callosum
b. Draw a well labeled diagram to show boundaries and contents of mid palmar space in hand
c. Describe the floor of fourth ventricle with a labelled diagram
d. Enumerate movements at temporomandibular joint with a special note on articular disc of joint
e. Describe supination and pronation movement in brief
f. What do you mean by gastrulation. Write down the fate of three germ layers of embryo
a. Enumerate any two types of epiphyses of bone with examples

b. How the notochord develops, what is its fate in adults
c. Transition epithelium
d. Describe the lymphatic drainage of mammary gland
e. Draw a well labeled diagram to show histology of serous salivary gland
f. Write any two differences between primary and secondary cartilaginous joint
g. Write any two signs and symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome
h. Write any two modifications of deep cervical fascia
i. Synovial membrane
j. Anatomical snuff box
28
Subject- Anatomy
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Following are the contents of spermatic cord EXCEPT

(a) testicular vein (b) testicular artery (c) cremasteric artery (d) artery to vas deferens
2. Which nerve supplies the most of skin over femoral triangle

(a) ilioinguinal (b) femoral (c) femoral branch of genito- (d) intermediate cutaneous nerve of
femoral thigh
3. Positive Tredelenberg’s sign test results from paralysis of which muscle

(a) gluteus maximus (b) gluteus medius (c) psoas major (d) adductor magnus
4. Posterior wall of inguinal canal is formed by all of the following EXCEPT

(a) conjoint tendon (b) fascia transversalis (c) parietal peritoneum (d) lacunar ligament
5. A child falls on spike, injuring the lateral margin of popliteal fossa, which one of the following nerves is liable to injury
(a) tibial (b) common peroneal (c) femoral (d) sciatic
6. What type of stroma is present in prostate gland

(a) reticular (b) fibrofatty (c) fibromuscular (d) fibroelastic
7. Which structure is crossed by uterine artery 2cm lateral to cervix

(a) fallopian tube (b) ovarian artery (c) obturator artery (d) ureter
8. Trigone of urinary bladder is derived from

(a) paraxial mesoderm (b) lateral plate mesoderm (c) intermediate mesoderm (d) endoderm
9. Haploid number if chromosomes are seen in

(a) spermatogonia (b) primary spermatocyte (c) secondary spermatocyte (d) none of the above
10. Karyotype of down syndrome is

(a) trisomy 13 (b) trisomy 18 (c) monosomy 21 (d) trisomy 21
29
a. A 20-year-old girl complains of pain in abdomen in the umbilical region with nausea vomiting. Later on, the pain was
shifted to Mc Burney’s point. With above details answer the following questions
i. Name the organ involved in this condition with its general anatomy
ii. Peritoneal relations of this organ
iii. What is Mc Burney’s point
iv. Anatomical basis of pain shifting
b. Discuss the type, articular surfaces, ligaments, relations, movements and muscles involved, clinical anatomy of knee joint
a. Rectus sheath
b. Development and descent of testis
c. Locking and unlocking of knee joint
d. Maintenance of arches of foot
e. What is the significance of AETCOM module
f. Compare histology: oesophagus and duodenum
a. Epiploic foramen
b. Structures forming the stomach bed
c. Openings in the diaphragm
d. Hasselbach’s triangle
e. Contents of adductor canal
f. Anal sphincters
g. Muscles of guy ropes
h. Dorsalis pedal artery
i. Turner syndrome
j. Barr body
30
PHYSIOLOGY
31
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. Enumerate determinants of blood pressure. Discuss the role of baroreceptors in regulation of arterial blood pressure
b. Describe the factors affecting glomerular filtration
a. CO2 carriage in blood

b. Extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation
c. Infant respiratory distress syndrome
d. Secretion of bile
e. Active transport across cell membrane
f. Deglutition
g. A normal ECG waveform in standard limb lead II
h. Gastrin
i. ABO blood group
j. Pre-Botzinger complex
a. Define physiological dead space

b. Define peristalsis
c. Define Ejection fraction
d. Define GFR
e. Define antigen
f. Define hypercapnia
g. Define a macrocyte
h. Define diastasis
i. Draw and label jugular venous pulse
j. Draw and label normal spirogram
32
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. A 45-year-old male has come to the hospital with complaints of excessive urination, excessive thirst, excessive desire to
eat and tingling and numbness in feet. Examination shows muscle wasting. Answer the following questions
i. Name the clinical condition (0.5)
ii. Explain the physiological basis of the above findings (2.5)
iii. Describe the blood tests which are advised to confirm diagnosis (2)
b. Describe the mechanism of synaptic transmission
a. Action potential in a nerve

b. Optic pathway and effect of lesion at different levels
c. Functions of semicircular canals
d. Tests of ovulation
e. Regulation of body temperature in cold weather
f. Speech and language disorders
g. Parkinsonism
h. Effects of lesions on pyramidal tract at level of internal capsule
i. Acromegaly
j. Accommodation reflex
a. Nissle’s granules
b. Sodium potassium pump
c. Phantom limb
d. Functions of Sertoli cells
e. Addison’s disease
f. Babinski’s sign
g. Stereognosis
h. Weber’s test
i. Saltatory conduction
j. Mechanism of action of oral contraceptive
33
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. A 25-year-old male has been brought to the hospital emergency room with history of roadside accident. He is
semiconscious sweating profusely. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Pulse is fast and weak. Answer the following
questions
ii. Explain the physiological basis of above findings (2.5)
iii. Describe the rationale of management (2.0)
b. Describe the tubuloglomerular feedback
a. Functional residual capacity

b. Hemophilia
c. Pulmonary stretch receptors
d. Standard limb lead in ECG
e. Saltatory conduction
f. Mixing movements in GIT
g. Functions of polymorphonuclear neutrophils
h. Sino aortic reflex
i. Erythroblastosis fetalis
j. Periodic breathing
a. What is sinus arrhythmia

b. What is TmG
c. Define stroke volume
d. Define PAO2
e. Law of intestine
f. Define auto antibody
g. Define renal threshold
h. Name 4 enzymes in pancreatic secretions
i. Define VO2 max
j. Define Haldane effect
34
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. A 45-year-old woman has come to the hospital OPD with complaints of weight loss, increased heart rate, and heat
intolerance. Answer the following questions.
ii. Explain the physiological basis of the above findings (3.5)
iii. Describe the rationale of management
b. Describe functional divisions of cerebellum and their related functions
a. Synaptic inhibition
b. Auditory pathway
c. Functions of thalamus
d. Osteoporosis
e. Regulation of body temperature in hot weather
f. Conditioned learning
g. REM sleep
h. Effects of lesions on pyramidal tract at level of internal capsule
i. Color vision
j. Cushing’s syndrome
a. Define reflex arc

b. The basic defect in astigmatism and its correction
c. Rigor mortis
d. Motor unit
e. Parosmia
f. What is Bell-Megendie law
g. Dysdiadochokinesia
h. Enumerate four functions of reticular activating system
i. Functions of Sertoli cell
j. Once a month oral contraceptive pills
35
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. Define hemopoiesis. Describe hemopoiesis. Add a note on factors affecting erythropoiesis
b. Describe in brief the pressure and volume changes in the left ventricle during a cardiac cycle
a. Fibrinolytic system
b. Neural regulation of ventilation
c. Herring-Breuer reflex
d. Transport of CO2 in blood
e. Factors affecting cardiac output
f. Factors affecting GFR
g. Countercurrent multiplier function of loop of Henle
h. Differences between hemolytic and obstructive jaundice
i. Regulation of pancreatic secretion
j. Pace maker potential
a. Automatic bladder
b. Renal splay
c. Characteristic of active transport
d. Characteristics of action potential
e. Starling filtration principle
f. QRS complex
g. Functions of bile salts
h. Chemical gastrectomy
i. MCHC
j. IgG
36
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. Enumerate hormones involved in regulation of plasma calcium and phosphorus metabolism. Describe the physiological
actions of parathyroid hormone
b. Describe spermatogenesis. Write the changes occurring at puberty in human male and female
a. Enumerate functions of hypothalamus

b. Role of middle ear in hearing
c. Sarcomere
d. Color vision and its defects
e. Describe physiological actions of insulin
f. Taste sensation
g. Brown Sequard syndrome
h. Classical conditioning
i. Staircase phenomenon in skeletal muscle
j. Parkinson’s disease
a. Name the hormones affecting food intake

b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) surge
c. Define visual acuity
d. Functions of skin
e. Troponin
f. Name different EEG waves and write their normal frequency range
g. Melatonin
h. Define isometric and isotonic muscle contraction
i. Core body temperature
j. Upper motor neuron paralysis
37
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. Describe the basis of blood grouping. Discuss in short, clinical importance of blood grouping. Add a note on blood
banking
b. Describe cardiac cycle in short. What are the pressure and volume changes in different chambers of heart and nearby
vessels connected to it. Add a note on heart sounds
a. How do cardiac and skeletal muscles differ structurally and functionally

b. Discuss the importance of spirometry in diagnosis of pulmonary diseases
c. Countercurrent multiplication of osmolality in the loop of Henle
d. Describe the process of micturition
e. Acid secretion in stomach
f. Enterohepatic circulation of bile salts
g. How is ventilation of lungs carried out
h. Describe transfer of oxygen from lungs to tissues
i. Describe in short role of neutrophils against invading organisms
j. Regulation of arteriolar tone
a. Functions of blood platelets and their clinical importance

b. Typical ECG trace
c. Aquaporin
d. Non excretory functions of kidneys
e. Segmentation movement in gut
f. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
g. Forces governing capillary exchange of fluids
h. Define anemia. What is the most common type of anemia in India
i. Glucose dependent insulinotropic hormone (GIP)
j. Properties of active transport
38
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. Describe functions of cerebellum. Add note on cerebellar ataxia
b. A female obese patient 46 years of age attended OPD with complaints of excessive hunger, thirst, urination and
weakness. On the basis of above symptoms answer the following questions
i. Probable diagnosis of the condition
ii. Investigation to confirm the diagnosis
iii. Underlying physiological mechanism of the diagnosed disease
a. What is a synapse? What are the properties of synapses

b. Describe the process of pain sensation. Add a note in referred pain
c. Discuss the learning process
d. Functional anatomy of basal ganglia. Describe its connections in brief
e. Defects of image forming mechanism of eye (errors of refraction)
f. Draw a labeled diagram of organ of corti
g. Ovarian changes in menstrual cycle
h. Describe in brief spermatogenesis and its regulation
i. Describe the role of muscle spindle in maintenance of skeletal muscle tone
j. Describe the basis of Erlanger and Gasser’s classification of nerve fibers
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Role of hypothalamic axis
c. Physiological basis of use of estrogen as oral contraceptive pill
d. Consensual light reflex
e. Visual evoked potential (VEP)
f. Type of taste
g. Enumerate hormones of adrenal cortex
h. Define chronaxie and rheobase
i. Importance of countercurrent blood flow in skin
j. Enumerate modes of heat transfer
39
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. A hypertensive male of age 38 years examined for renal blood flow with doppler and found to have stenosis at renal
arteries. His blood renin level is high. Explain the physiological basis of high renin level
b. Define cardiac cycle. Describe in detail with the help of diagram various events occurring during cardiac cycle.
a. Pacemaker potential
b. Define cardiac output and write factors affecting cardiac output
c. Cardiovascular and respiratory changes occurring during exercise
d. CO2 transport in blood
e. With the help of diagram describe stages of erythropoiesis and its regulation
f. Functions of saliva
g. Explain the counter current mechanism in the concentration of urine
h. Micturition reflex
i. Acclimatization
j. Define GFR and factors affecting GFR
a. Why blood does not clot in the circulation

b. Define immunity
c. Gastrin
d. Secondary active transport
e. Surfactant
f. Define renal clearance
g. Define blood pressure
h. Define homeostasis
i. Content of pancreatic secretion
j. VO2 max
40
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
a. A 55 years old male had attended OPD. His wife explained the complaints of her husband as his speech was slurred and
there was impaired coordination of movements as well as unsteady gait but no resting tremors
i. What will be the diagnosis
ii. Name two tests in support of diagnosis
iii. Functions of cerebellum
b. Describe mechanism of hearing
a. Muscle spindle
b. Functions of thyroxine
c. Response of vestibular apparatus for linear and rotational acceleration
d. Excitation contraction coupling
e. Regulation of blood sugar. Add a note on C peptide
f. Synthesis of steroid hormone
g. Placental hormones
h. Discuss the effect of oral contraceptive pills on ovarian function
i. What are the functions of Sertoli cells
j. Define memory. What are the types of memory
a. Difference between heat exhaustion and heat stroke

b. Astereognosis
c. Generator potential
d. Stapedial reflex
e. Test of ovulation
f. Motor unit
g. Skin circulation
h. Evoked potential
i. EMG
j. Dysgeusia
41
Time: 3:00 Hours
Instructions: Subject- Physiology
a) All questions are compulsory Paper- I Maximum Marks :100
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. The term "glycocalyx” refers to what

(a) the negatively charged (b) the negatively charged (c) the layer of anions aligned on (d) a mechanism of cell-cell
carbohydrate chains that protrude carbohydrate layer on the outer the cytosolic surface of the plasma attachment
into the cytosol from glycolipids cell surface membrane
and integral glycoproteins
2. A 17-year-old soccer player sustained a fracture to the left tibia after her lower leg has been in cast for 8 weeks, she is surprised to find that
the left gastrocnemius muscle is significantly smaller in circumference than it was before the fracture. What is the most likely explanation
(a) decrease in the individual (b) decrease in the blood flow to (c) temporary reduction in actin (d) increase in glycolytic activity in
muscle fibers in the left the muscle caused by constriction and myosin protein synthesis the affected muscle
gastrocnemius from cast
3. Pinocytosis occurs
(a) for large protein molecules (b) by formation of pinocytic vesicle (c) at sites of membrane called (d) all of the above
coated pits
4. Following substances are absorbed by sodium cotransport mechanism by intestine

(a) fatty acids (b) glucose (c) potassium ions (d) proteins
5. Total number of chromosomes in somatic cells is

(a) 48 (b) 46 (c) 22 (d) 26
6. Nernst potential for sodium is

(a) -94 mV (b) -60 mV (c) +61 mV (d) +45 mV
7. Worn out organelles are transferred to lysosomes by which of the following

(a) autophagosomes (b) granular endoplasmic reticulum (c) golgi apparatus (d) mitochondria
8. Which of the following cell organelle is responsible for producing ATP

(a) endoplasmic reticulum (b) mitochondria (c) lysosomes (d) golgi apparatus
9. In a resting adult, the typical ventricular ejection fraction has what value
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80%
10. Which of the following is most likely to cause the heart to go into spastic condition
(a) increased body temperature (b) increased sympathetic activity (c) decreased extracellular fluid (d) excess extracellular fluid calcium
potassium ions ions
11. Normally, end-diastolic volume to the stroke volume % is

(a) 35 (b) 50 (c) 65 (d) 80
12. What is the total delay of the cardiac impulse in the a-v node + bundle
(a) 0.22 sec (b) 0.13 sec (c) 0.09 sec (d) 0.16 sec
13. What is the normal QT interval

(a) 0.03 sec (b) 0.13 sec (c) 0.20 sec (d) 0.35 sec
14. Which condition will usually result in left axis deviation in an ECG 42
(a) systemic hypertension (b) pulmonary valve stenosis (c) pulmonary valve regurgitation (d) pulmonary hypertension
15. The maximum clearance rate possible for a substance that is totally cleared from the plasma is equal to which of the following
(a) GFR (b) filtered load of that substance (c) urinary excretion rate of that (d) renal plasma flow
substance
16. Which change tends to increase peritubular capillary fluid reabsorption

(a) increase in blood pressure (b) decreased filtration fraction (c) increased efferent arteriolar (d) decreased angiotensin II
resistance
17. Which of the following would likely lead to hyponatremia

(a) excessive ADH secretion (b) restriction of fluid intake (c) excess aldosterone secretion (d) administration of 2 liters of 3%
NaCl solution
18. What is the volume of dead space in a normal healthy adult

(a) 100 ml (b) 150 ml (c) 350 ml (d) 500 ml
19. Which of the following applies to patients with acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS)
(a) able to generate a normal (b) increased helper T cells (c) increased secretion of (d) decrease in helper T cells
antibody response interleukins
20. Platelet adhesion is mainly facilitated by

(a) von Willebrand factor (b) fibrinogen (c) ADP (d) calcium
a. Describe short term regulation of blood pressure

b. Describe movements of small intestine
c. Define hypoxia, enumerate types of hypoxias and describe hypoxic hypoxia
d. Describe process of erythropoiesis
e. Define immunity and discuss humoral immunity
f. Explain effect of mismatched transfusions
g. Explain the mechanism of formation of HCl in gastric secretion
h. Give a brief note on milieu interior
i. Describe sodium potassium pump
j. Give a brief note on acidification of urine
a. Discuss the transport of O2 in blood
b. Describe about pathophysiology of shock, enumerate types of shock & give brief note on cardiogenic shock
c. Define GFR & its regulation and factors affecting GFR

43
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Milk ejection reflex is mediated by hormone

(a) vasopressin (b) prolactin (c) oxytocin (d) estrogen
2. True statement about endemic goiter

(a) associated with hyperfunction (b) also called colloid goiter (c) occurs if the iodine intake falls (d) associated with decreased TSH
of thyroid gland below 100-200 μgm/day seceretion
3. The features of tetany include all EXCEPT

(a) carpopedal spasm (b) trousseau’s sign (c) clotting defects (d) neuromuscular hyperexcitability
4. Pheochromocytoma’s predominantly secrete

(a) norepinephrine (b) epinephrine (c) serotonin (d) dopamine
5. In Addison’s disease the following is observed

(a) an increase in ECF volume (b) hyperglycemia (c) hyperkalemia (d) high blood pressure
6. Bitter taste is felt at the following part of the tongue

(a) back (b) tip (c) mid-dorsal (d)sides
7. If a person can perceive sound but fails to understand the meaning of sound, the lesion is most likely in
(a) VIII nerve (b) auditory association areas (c) primary auditory cortex (d) inferior colliculus
8. Highest refractive index amongst the following is of

(a) aqueous humor (b) lens (c) cornea (d) vitreous humor
9. Ovulation coincides with

(a) GnRH release (b) progesterone increase (c) decreased estrogen (d) LH surge
10. The pregnancy test is based on detection of which hormone

(a) estrogen (b) progesterone (c) HCG (d) LH
11. Positive feedback is seen in all of the following EXCEPT

(a) coagulation cascade (b) stimulation of gastric secretion (c) entry of calcium ions into (d) LH surge
gastrin sarcoplasmic reticulum
12. All of the following hormones mediate their effects without entering the target cell EXCEPT
(a) growth hormone (b) insulin (c) mineralocorticoids (d) glucagon
13. All re the functions of thalamus EXCEPT

(a) integrating center for sleep (b) major sensory relay (c) controls circadian rhythm (d) maintains conscious and alert
state
44
14. Alcohol produces diuresis by

(a) increase in GFR (b) decreased water reabsorption (c) inhibiting release of ADH from (d) decreasing medullary interstitial
from loop of henle hypothalamus osmolarity
15. Higher intellectual functions are linked to

(a) motor system (b) parietal lobe (c) limbic system (d) prefrontal cortex
16. Best method to increase muscle strength is

(a) isotonic exercise (b) isometric exercise (c) electrical stimulation (d) isotonic aerobic exercise
17. Pyrogens raise body temperature by

(a) releasing interleukins (b) setting the thermostat to a (c) decrease peripheral heat (d) causing peripheral
higher level liberation mechanism vasoconstriction
18. A major source of heat production in infants is

(a) increased muscular activity (b) increased sympathetic activity (c) specific dynamic action of food (d) brown fat
19. Which area of the hypothalamus functions as thermostat

(a) paraventricular (b) preoptic (c) lateral (d) dorsomedial
20. Rectal temperature is higher than oral temperature by

(a) 1-2oC (b) 0.5-1oC (c) 2-3oC (d) 3-4oC
a. State the functions of insulin. Give basis of polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia in diabetes mellitus
b. Draw a labeled diagram of visual pathway with effects of lesions on it at various levels
c. Give the functions of middle ear
d. State the functions of growth hormone
e. State the functions of cerebellum
f. Describe the hormonal changes during menstrual cycle
g. Give the functions of hypothalamus
h. Enumerate and describe the errors of refraction
i. Define speech. What are the areas of speech in brain
j. Give the functions of basal ganglia
a. Give the functions of thyroid hormone
b. Draw labeled diagrams of somatosensory tracts. Describe their functions
c. Draw a labeled diagram of neuromuscular junction. Describe the steps of nerve impulse transmission at neuromuscular
junction
45
Time: 3:00 Hours Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Paper- I Maximum Marks :100
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Serum electrolyte level are ordered on a 12-year-old boy with gastrointestinal infection, which induced prolonged and severe vomiting
episodes. Plasma K concentration were found to be abnormally low (2mmol/L). which of the following might be expected to result from mild
hypokalemia
(a) resting potentials would shift (b) K+ equilibrium potential would (c) neuronal action potentials (d) K+ channel activation would
positive shift negative would be inhibited yield K+ influx
2. Increase in affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is associated with

(a) more release of oxygen by (b) shifting of oxygen-hemoglobin (c) rise in 2,3 DPG concentration in (d) less oxygen available to the
blood to tissues dissociation curve to the right RBC tissues
3. Conjugated bilirubin is excreted by hepatic cells into bile canaliculi by

(a) exocytosis (b) diffusion (c) an active process (d) carrier mediated process
4. GFR is decreased when

(a) plasma colloidal osmotic (b) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (c) tubular hydrostatic pressure (d) renal blood flow decreases
pressure increases increases decreases
5. Gap junctions are present in

(a) choroid plexus (b) skeletal muscle (c) renal tubular epithelium (d) smooth muscle
6. All features can be found in hypoxic hypoxia EXCEPT

(a) low arterial pO2 content (b) low arterial O2 content (c) normal hemoglobin content (d) low A-V pO2 difference
7. A 55-year-old male with a history of intestinal pulmonary fibrosis undergoes pulmonary function testing. What parameter would most likely be
decreased in this restrictive lung disease patient
(a) FVC (b) peak expiratory flow rate (c) FEV1 (d) FEV1/FVC
8. Emptying of urinary bladder is a function of

(a) sympathetic innervation (b) parasympathetic innervation (c) somatic innervation (d) all of the above
9. Peroxisomes
(a) engulf exogenous substances (b) have structural and chemical (c) destroy products formed from (d) consume oxygen in large
and degrade them composition similar to that of oxygen, especially hydrogen amounts, hence the name
lysosomes peroxide peroxisomes
10. The P50 in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve means

(a) at pO2 of 50 mmHg, hemoglobin (b) pO2 at which hemoglobin is half (c) amount of O2 carried by blood (d) hemoglobin combines 50% each
is half saturated with O2 saturated with O2 does not change much even if pO2 with O2 and CO2
falls to 50 mmHg
11. The term “milieu interior” was coined by

(a) Sherrington (b) W.B. Cannon (c) Claude Bernard (d) Starling
12. Antibodies which can easily cross placenta

(a) IgE (b) IgG (c) IgA (d) IgM
46
13. Most important stimulus for secretion of secretin is
(a) mechanical duodenal distension (b) acidic chyme entering the (c) vagal stimulation (d) fat reaching duodenum
duodenum
14. Na+-K+ pump in renal tubules helps in

(a) absorption of sodium (b) absorption of potassium (c) excretion of sodium (d) absorption sodium and
excretion of potassium
15. Blood volume can be measured by all of the following EXCEPT

(a) Evan’s blue (b) radioactive labeled plasma (c) radioactive labeled RBCs (d) N2O
protein
16. Gastric phase of HCL secretion is mediated mainly by

(a) neurohormones (b) gastrin (c) parasympathetic nerves (d) CCK-PZ
17. Hypoproteinemia produces oedema by

(a) increasing hydrostatic pressure (b) increasing interstitial fluid (c) decreasing colloidal osmotic (d) increasing interstitial fluid
at capillary arteriolar end osmotic pressure pressure across capillary wall hydrostatic pressure
18. Cardiac output in L/min divided by heart rate equals

(a) cardiac efficiency (b) cardiac index (c) stroke volume (d) mean arterial BP
19. Normal QRS complex is approx.

(a) 0.02 sec (b) 0.04-0.06 sec (c) 0.08-0.12 sec (d) 0.1-0.15 sec
20. Viscosity of blood increases with rise in levels of

(a) albumin (b) globulin (c) fibrinogen (d) prothrombin
a. What are the functions of WBCs

b. Properties of action potential
c. Explain briefly intestinal movements
d. Give the functions of platelets
e. Functions of bile juice
f. Draw a labeled diagram of cystometrogram and explain micturition reflex
g. Give definition and types of anemia. Write in short about pernicious anemia
h. Concept and significance of clearance tests
i. Neuroglia
j. Metabolic actions of thyroid hormone. What is Myxedema
a. Enumerate blood pressure regulatory mechanisms. Describe short term regulation of blood pressure
b. What are the constituents of gastric juice. Describe the mechanism of secretion of HCL. Write briefly about gastric
mucosal barrier
c. Describe and discuss the transport of the respiratory gases; oxygen and carbon dioxide
47
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. The part of vestibule that prevents a person from falling while suddenly turning is
(a) saccule (b) utricle (c) cochlea (d) semicircular canals
2. An effective temporary method of contraception in females is

(a) tubectomy (b) vasectomy (c) IUCD (d) condom
3. Prolactin synthesis and secretion may be inhibited by

(a) dopamine (b) serotonin (c) substance P (d) all of the above
4. The refractory power of the reduced eye is

(a) 64 diopters (b) 14 diopters (c) 41 diopters (d) 59 diopters
5. Smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle because smooth muscle

(a) can be voluntarily contracted (b) is found in the walls of arteries (c) has many nuclei in a cell (d) has intercalated disc between
the cells
6. The highest density of voltage-gated ion channels is found on which part of neuron
(a) dendrites (b) soma (c) nodes of Ranvier (d) internodes
7. What is the function of luteinizing hormone

(a) it stimulates Leydig cells to (b) it stimulates Sertoli cells to (c) it stimulates the anterior (d) it stimulates the ovary to
produce testosterone produce sperms pituitary to release FSH develop follicles
8. Which one of the following is NOT a secondary sex characteristic

(a) the adult male body shape (b) the thicker vocal cords of a male (c) pubic hair (d) penis
9. Primary auditory cortex is in Brodmann’s area

(a) 37 (b) 41 (c) 43 (d) 47
10. The laboratory report shows values of gonadotropin and ovarian hormones of the blood sample taken, on day 20 of menstrual cycle of a young
woman. Whether the cycle was ovulatory or not will be assessed by serum levels of
(a) FSH (b) LH (c) estradiol (d) progesterone
11. Which of the following organs has maximum % of growth in first two years of life
(a) brain (b) kidney (c) gonads (d) liver
12. The first change to occur in a sharp cut nerve is

(a) chromatolysis (b) Schwann cell proliferation (c) degeneration of myelin sheath (d) degeneration of neurilemma
13. All of the following are regulated by hypothalamus except

(a) food intake (b) hypophysis (c) anticipatory rise in heart rate (d) temperature
48
14. Lower and upper lethal core temperatures respectively are
(a) 26 and 43.5oC (b) 5oC below and above normal (c) 30oC and 41oC (d) 7oC below and above normal
body temaperature
15. Not an effect of glucagon

(a) stimulates glycogenolysis (b) hormone of abundance (c) mobilizes glucose (d) promotes gluconeogenesis
16. Olfactory receptors are

(a) sensitive to physical stimuli (b) rapidly replaced (c) slowly adapting (d) bipolar neurons
17. All the following mechanisms lead to an increase in body heat loss EXCEPT
(a) cutaneous vasodilation (b) sweating (c) increased respiration (d) curling up
18. The gap between the plasma membranes of a neuron that conducts and incoming signal and the cell that is going to receive the signal is
known as
(a) neuromuscular junction (b) intercellular cleft (c) synaptic cleft (d) intercalated disc
19. Experimental diabetes mellitus is caused by

(a) alloxan (b) prostaglandin F (c) radioactive iron (d) gold metal
20. Weber Fechner law deals with

(a) frequency discrimination (b) receptive field organization (c) intensity discrimination (d) two-point discrimination
a. Describe visual pathway with the help of a well labeled diagram

b. Enumerate and describe professional qualities and roles of a physician
c. Calcitonin
d. Addison’s disease
e. Draw a well labeled diagram of muscle spindle and functions of muscle spindle
f. Short note on memory
g. Explain Young-Helmholtz theory of color vision
h. Properties of receptors
i. What are the differences between pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts
j. Sec differentiation and their abnormalities
a. Define and classify synapse. Describe synaptic inhibition in detail. Add a note on subliminal fringe
b. Describe the connections and functions of cerebellum. Add a note on clinical features of cerebellar disorders
c. What is menstrual cycle. Describe briefly the various phases

49
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Gap junctions are present in

(a) Neurons (b) Cardiac muscle (c) Epithelial tissue (d) Skeletal muscle
2. Resting membrane potential develops mainly due to

(a) Na+ Efflux (b) Cl- Influx (c) Ca++ Influx (d) K+ Efflux
3. One of the following is the test for extrinsic system of blood clotting
(a) Platelet count (b) Thromboplastin generation time (c) Bleeding time (d) Prothrombin time
4. Pacemaker potential is due to

(a) Leaky Na+ Channels (b) Leaky K+ Channels (c) Leaky Ca++ Channels (d) Slow Ca++ Channels
5. A 55-year-old man with a history of interstitial pulmonary fibrosis undergoes pulmonary function testing. What parameter would most like be
decreased in this restrictive lung disease patient
(a) Low arterial pO2 (b) Low arterial pO2 content (c) Normal hemoglobin content (d) Low A-V pO2 difference
6. Which of the following is incorrect about the Na+-K+ pump

(a) K+ is pumped against gradient (b) 2 K+ are exchanged with 3 Na+ (c) It is present in nerve and muscle (d) It utilizes energy in the form of
cells only ATP
7. The phases of ventricular muscle actional potential are given

at which point on the graph, is membrane potential most dependent
on calcium permeability
(a) Point B (b) Point C (c) Point D (d) Point E
8. Assuming a regular menstrual cycle of 30-32 days in a young female, ovulation would be expected to occur between
(a) Day 12-14 (b) Day 16-18 (c) Day 18-20 (d) Day 22-24
9. A 35-year-old female patient complaints of unexpected weight gain, excessive sleepiness, constipation and dry hair. What could be the
probable diagnosis
(a) Grave’s disease (b) Hashimoto thyroiditis (c) Toxic goiter (d) All of the above
10. Functional residual capacity of lung is defined as

(a) Volume expired after normal (b) Volume expired after forced (c) ERV+RV (d) TV+IRV
expiration expiration
50
a. Define cardiac output

Describe factors affecting cardiac output
List methods of measurement of cardiac output
b. Define resting membrane potential. Describe genesis of RMP in nerve fibers
a. Oxygen delivery to tissue is greatly reduced in o patient with carbon monoxide poisoning, in relation to this answer the
following.
i. What is the physiological basis of reduced oxygen delivery lo the tissues
ii. Describe the functional significance of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
b. Define hemostasis. Discuss all the mechanism involved in hemostasis
c. Metabolic action of Thyroid hormone. What is Myxedema
d. Define immunity and describe the mechanism of cellular immunity
e. Describe the role of endocrine pancreas in regulation of blood sugar level
f. Explain neural Regulation of respiration
a. Ejection fraction
b. Indicators of ovulation
c. Define hypoxia and name it’s types
d. Surfactant
e. Frank Starling law
f. Draw a well labeled diagram of normal ECG in Lead II
g. Herring-Breuer Reflex
h. Define cardiac cycle
i. Cushing’s syndrome
j. Define blood pressure
51
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Weber Fechner law is related with

(a) amplitude (b) surface area (c) number of sensory fibers (d) stimulus discrimination
involvement
2. The processing of short-term memory to long term memory is done in

(a) prefrontal cortex (b) hippocampus (c) neocortex (d) amygdala
3. Wallerian degeneration is seen in

(a) proximal cut end of nerve with (b) distal cut end of nerve without (c) both the free ends of the cut (d) all of the above
cell body cell body nerve
4. In normal kidneys, which of the following is true for osmolarity of renal tubular fluid that flows through the early distal tubule in the region of
macula densa
(a) usually hypotonic compared to (b) usually isotonic compared to (c) usually hypertonic compared to (d) hypertonic compared to
plasma plasma plasma plasma, during antidiuresis
5. Which of the following allows smooth muscle to maintain sustained contraction with minimal energy usage
(a) dense body (b) gap junctions (c) intermediate filaments (d) latch state
6. In muscle contraction, all are true except

(a) A band remains unchanged (b) H zone disappears (c) I band becomes wider (d) two Z lines come closer
7. Which sensory receptor is most sensitive to angular acceleration

(a) crista (b) utricle (c) saccule (d) organ of corti
8. Broca’s area is concerned with

(a) word formation (b) comprehension (c) repetition (d) reading
9. Renshaw cell inhibition is an example of

(a) feedback inhibition (b) feed forward inhibition (c) feed forward facilitation (d) feedback facilitation
10. In cerebellar disease, all of the following are correct EXCEPT

(a) the Romberg’s sign is positive (b) there is adiadochokinesia (c) there is pendular knee jerk (d) there are involuntary tremors
52
a. A 75-year-old man was admitted to hospital with complaints of trembling hands while holding a cup of tea, difficulty in
doing rapid sequential movements, and experiences imbalance while walking. On clinical examination, past pointing was
observed.
i. Give the clinical diagnosis of above condition
ii. Explain overall functions of the part involved
iii. What more clinical abnormalities would you expect in the above patient
b. Enumerate layers of retina. Draw a well labeled diagram of visual pathway and explain it. Indicate the effects of lesion in
different levels of visual pathway
a. Define receptor. List properties of a receptor and briefly describe any two of it
b. Explain the role of gamma motor neuron in the control of muscle tone and activities
c. Define GFR. Write the factors affecting it
d. Cardiorespiratory adjustments during exercise in body
e. Draw schematic diagram to depict direct and indirect pathways of basal ganglia
f. Write the content and functions of gastric juice. Discuss the factors regulating the secretion of gastric juice
a. Define peristalsis
b. What is a motor unit
c. Define sarcomere
d. Any two properties of synapse
e. Content of pancreatic secretion
f. Define aphasia
g. Lower motor neuron lesion
h. Transport maximum for glucose
i. Define learning and memory
j. Write various steps of excitation contraction coupling mechanism in flow chart
53
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. The normal osmolarity of plasma is

(a) 100 osmoles/L (b) 200 osmoles/L (c) 300 osmoles/L (d) 400 osmoles/L
2. Immediate source of energy for muscle contraction is

(a) ATP (b) ADP (c) glucose (d) creatine phosphate
3. Auerbach’s plexus in intestine lies

(a) beneath the mucosa (b) within the sub mucosa (c) between longitudinal and (d) beneath the serosal coat
circular muscles
4. Which of the following is an attachment protein in skeletal muscle

(a) actin (b) alpha actinin (c) tropomyosin (d) myosin
5. The density of sodium channels is maximum at

(a) surface of myelin (b) soma (c) nodes of ranvier (d) dendrite
6. The normal pulmonary ventilation air in a 70 kg adult male is

(a) 6000 mL (b) 4200 mL (c) 4800 mL (d) 3000 mL
7. What is chyle
(a) food mixed with saliva (b) food mixed with gastric (c) food mixed with pancreatic (d) none of the above
secretion enzymes
8. Hemophilia B is caused by deficiency of

(a) factor I (b) factor IX (c) factor VIII (d) calcium
9. Mayer waves are caused by

(a) respiration (b) chemoreceptor discharge (c) increased pO2 (d) tachycardia
10. The most common site for myocardial infarction is

(a) left atrial muscle (b) epicardium (c) right ventricular muscle (d) left ventricular sub endocardium
54
a. Describe in detail neural regulation of respiration
b. 30-year-old industrial worker met with an accident and sustained a crush injury of thigh which cut across femoral artery
with loss of 1.5 L of blood. He was brought to casualty by his co-workers. One examination; pulse: 120/min, BP: 80/60
mmHg, respiratory rate: 12/min, urine output was decreased. On investigation; PCV: 32%
i. What could be the probable diagnosis of this case

ii. What are the various stages of his condition
iii. Describe the compensatory reflexes during the compensatory stage
iv. What will be the physiological basis for his treatment
a. Mechanism of cell mediated immunity

b. Baroreceptor reflex
c. Structure of neuro-muscular junction and transmission of impulse at neuro-muscular junction
d. Mechanism HCL secretion in stomach
e. Physiological basis of generation of resting membrane potential
f. Define homeostasis. Explain mechanisms regulating homeostasis
a. Fick’s principle
b. Hypertension
c. All or none law
d. Graded potential
e. Peristalsis
f. Osmotic pressure
g. Pernicious anemia
h. Marey’s law
i. Enumerate types of hypoxias
j. Tight junction
55
Subject- Physiology
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Vasopressin is synthesized in
(a) posterior pituitary (b) anterior pituitary (c) hypothalamic nuclei (d) cerebral cortex
2. Glucose reabsorption takes place in

(a) bowman’s capsule (b) proximal tubule (c) distal tubule (d) loop of henle
3. The deficiency of the hormone which causes osteoporosis of bone in old age is
(a) progesterone (b) oestrogen (c) follicle stimulating hormone (d) luteinizing hormone
4. An elderly man suffers from stroke that damages the vestibulocerebellum. What type of deficit in motor function would you expect to see
(a) paralysis accompanied by (b) falling and gait problems (c) hyperreflexia (d) muscle rigidity
spasticity
5. Which of the following reflexes best describes incoming pain signals that elicit movements performed by antagonistic muscle groups on either
side of the body
(a) crossed extensor reflex (b) withdrawal reflex (c) reciprocal inhibition (d) autogenic inhibition
6. Anterolateral tracts carry the following sensations EXCEPT

(a) pain (b) temperature (c) (d)
7. The normal synaptic delay is

(a) 0.5 ms (b) 5 ms (c) 0.05 ms (d) 5 s
8. Lentiform nucleus is formed by putamen along with

(a) caudate nucleus (b) putamen (c) globus pallidus (d) dentate
9. A person who is running, the main source of energy he will be using in first minute is
(a) glucose (b) glycogen (c) fat (d) phosphate
10. Following cells are responsible for acid secretion in kidney

(a) I cells (b) P cells (c) mesangial cells (d) pericytes
56
a. A 60-year-old male presented to the physician with signs of flexion attitude, pill rolling movement of thumb over fingers,
resting tremors, mask-like face, and festinating gait.
i. What is the likely diagnosis (1)
ii. Describe the pathways of the parts involved (14)
iii. Comment on the treatment (5)
b. Describe ovarian and uterine cycle. Mention indicators of ovulation (16+4)
a. Describe the mechanisms of thermoregulation

b. Describe counter current system and its role
c. Describe the functions of thyroid hormones
d. Describe the layers of retina
e. Describe spermatogenesis and factors affecting it
f. Describe withdrawal reflex
a. Enumerate professional qualities of a physician

b. Short note on aging
c. Define the term dysosmia
d. Glial cells and their functions
e. Circadian rhythm
f. Addison’s disease
g. Milk ejection reflex
h. Tympanic reflex
i. Enumerate the factors affecting (GFR) glomerular filtration rate
j. Papez circuit
57
BIOCHEMISTRY
58
Subject- Biochemistry
Instructions:
a. Enumerate sources of vitamin D, describe its biosynthesis and explain why vitamin D is called hormone
b. Explain the pathway of glycogen synthesis and glycogenolysis. In short explain role of branching and de-branching
enzymes
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Fluid mosaic model of biological membrane
c. Electrophoresis
d. Selenocysteine
e. Na+-K+ pump
f. Cytochrome p450
g. Inhibitors of electron transport chain
h. Biosynthesis of thyroxine
i. Isoenzymes
j. Tyrosinemia
a. Enumerate mechanisms of enzymes action

b. Enumerate functions of glutathione
c. Enumerate antioxidant vitamins
d. Enumerate lipoproteins in human plasma
e. Enumerate mechanisms of enzyme inhibition
f. Enumerate functions of zinc
g. Differentiate between starch and glycogen
h. Why urea cycle is called a bicycle
i. Alkaptonuria
j. Draw structure of cholesterol
59
Instructions:
a. Discuss the elongation steps of translation (protein synthesis)
b. Enumerate the various tests of kidney function. Explain how creatinine clearance is superior to urea clearance test
a. Genetic code
b. RNA splicing
c. Gout
d. Dehydration
e. SDA
f. Metabolic acidosis
g. Calculate caloric requirement of a painter
h. Glucose tolerance test
i. Catabolism of pyrimidines
j. Formation and fate of bilirubin
a. Purine ring sources of its components

b. Enumerate normal anion gap acidosis
c. Enumerate steps of DNA replication
d. Enumerate clinical features of kwashiorkor
e. Enumerate abnormal variants of hemoglobin
f. Enumerate types of DNA repair
g. Structure of immunoglobin
h. Enumerate various extracellular buffers
i. Biological role of 2,3 BPG
j. Enumerate different components of colorimeter
60
Instructions:
a. Enumerate major sources of vitamin K, describe its functions and effects of its deficiency (1+3+1)
b. Describe the components of chemiosmotic theory of electron transport chain
a. Cyclic AMP
b. Biological role of calcium
c. High density lipoprotein cycle
d. Biomedical role of vitamin C
e. Role of niacin as Coenzyme
f. Biological importance of peptides
g. Cytochrome p450
h. Isoenzymes and their diagnostic importance
i. Golgi apparatus
j. Synthesis and biological role of bile salts
a. Formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU)

b. Name the insulin dependent glucose transporters and their tissue distribution
c. Define beta oxidation
d. Write the normal serum calcium and phosphate levels
e. What is suicide inhibition. Give example
f. List 2 differences between hexokinase and glucokinase
g. List 2 differences between marasmus and kwashiorkor
h. Name the derivatives of tyrosine
i. Hemoglobin S
j. Give two examples of substrate level phosphorylation
61
Instructions:
a. Discuss transcription, genetic code and post transcriptional modifications
b. Explain importance of proteins in human nutrition. Why is SDA of proteins higher than that of major nutrients
a. Role of free radicals in aging

b. Tumour markers
c. IgG
d. Enzyme classification
e. Point mutation
f. Heme catabolism
g. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
h. Markers of acute renal failure
i. Telomere and telomerase
j. Calorie requirements in a person having diabetes mellitus
a. Van den Bergh reaction

b. Value of TmG and renal threshold for glucose
c. Name the markers of bone formation
d. Oxidative stress
e. Define vector
f. Principle of photometry
g. Bicarbonate buffer
h. Wobble hypothesis
i. Orotic aciduria
j. Name the important compounds formed from glycine
62
Instructions:
a. Write a detailed essay on glycogen synthesis and degradation. Give an account of their regulation
b. Write an essay on the biosynthesis of urea. How is it regulated? Add a note on the clinical significance of uremia
a. Active transport
b. Describe the biomedical functions and deficiency manifestations of vitamin D
c. Classify lipoproteins and write the functions of each lipoprotein
d. Glycosaminoglycans
e. Describe the stages of absorption, transport and storage of iron in the body
f. Competitive inhibition
g. Role of clearance tests in kidney function
h. Amino acids classification based on their nutritional importance
i. What are isoenzymes? Discuss the clinical significance of different isoenzyme variant of CK
j. Detoxification by conjugation
a. Scurvy
b. Fluorosis
c. Bile salts
d. Factors affecting calcium absorption
e. Isoelectric pH
f. Mitochondria
g. PUFA
h. Phagocytosis
i. Cytochrome p450
j. Pellagra
63
Instructions:
a. Describe the protein synthesis in prokaryotes. How does it differ from protein synthesis in eukaryotes
b. What is balanced diet? Formulate a balanced diet for a moderate working vegetarian and non-vegetarian adult males of
70 kg body weight
a. Mutation
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. SDA
d. tRNA
e. Enzyme inhibition
f. Free radicals
g. Cardiac markers
h. BMR
i. Reverse transcription
j. HbA1c
a. Salkowski’s reaction
b. Renal threshold for serum calcium
c. Principle of electrophoresis
d. Acidosis
e. Co-factors
f. Respiratory quotient
g. Hemoglobin buffer
h. Km and its significance
i. Oxidative stress
j. ATPase
64
Instructions:
a. Draw urea cycle. Describe the inherited disorders of urea cycle. Write in brief the biochemical basis of treatment of
hyperammonemia
b. Describe the β oxidation of fatty acids with its energetics. Write a note on biochemical significance of β oxidation of fatty
acids
a. Fluid mosaic model of membrane structure

b. Synthesis and deficiency disorders of vitamin D
c. Derivatives of monosaccharides and their biomedical importance
d. Rapaport luebering cycle
e. Hormones of adrenal gland and their functions
f. Glutathione
g. The regulation of plasma calcium
h. Detoxification od aspirin
i. Irreversible inhibition of enzymes
j. Role of dopamine in Parkinson’s disease
a. Essential amino acids

b. Name of different isomers of glucose
c. Iodine number
d. FIGLU test
e. Menke’s syndrome
f. Reichert-Meissl value
g. Biomedical importance of sorbitol pathway
h. Pellagra
i. Fluoride toxicity
j. Hypernatremia
65
Instructions:
a. Give a detailed account of transcription process. How is it regulated? Give the name of inhibiters of transcription
b. Describe the de-novo synthesis of purine nucleotides. Indicate the clinical uses of inhibitors of purine nucleotide
synthesis
a. Water intoxication
b. Health hazards
c. Renal regulation by acid base balance
d. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
e. Free radicals and anti-oxidants
f. Gout
g. SDA
h. Tumour markers and oncogens
i. Abnormal hemoglobin
j. Kidney function tests
a. Biologically important nucleotides

b. Role of fiber in the body
c. Give clinical symptoms of porphyria
d. Principles of ELISA
e. Biological carcinogens
f. Cardiac markers
g. Reactive oxygen species (ROS)
h. Give four characteristics of genetic code
i. Significance off quality control in lab
j. Central dogma of molecular biology
66
Instructions:
a. Absorption, transport and fate of iron in body
b. Write sources of vitamin D and explain the role of vitamin D in health and disease
a. Amphibolic pathways of glucose metabolism

b. Fatty acid synthase complex
c. Mechanism for regulation of blood glucose
d. Detoxification of aspirin
e. GTT
f. Iso-enzymes
g. Adulteration of lipids
h. Homocystinuria
i. ATP synthase
j. Ketosis
a. Vitamin A deficiency disorders

b. Enumerate essential amino acids
c. Normal reference range of cholesterol
d. Specialized product of amino acid metabolism
e. Glycogen storage disorders
f. Name four phospholipids
g. Classify proteins
h. HDL
i. Cell membrane
j. Epimers
67
Instructions:
a. Write a note on purine metabolism. Add a note on gout
b. Describe the process of protein biosynthesis. Add a note on post translational modifications
a. Tumour markers
b. Liver function tests
c. Air pollution. Enumerate its effects on health
d. Recombinant DNA technology
e. KFT
f. Porphyrias
g. Immunoglobulin
h. Chromatography
i. DNA repair mechanism
j. Lac operon model
a. Normal reference range of sodium and potassium

b. siRNA
c. histone proteins
d. Oncogens
e. DNA fingerprinting
f. Synthetic nucleotides
g. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
h. Ubiquitin
i. HbS
j. SDA
68
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Intracellular sorting, packing and secretion of proteins is done by

(a) ribosomes (b) peroxisomes (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) golgi complex
2. Which of the following is a semi-essential amino acid

(a) serine (b) cysteine (c) asparagine (d) arginine
3. Corneal transparency is a function of which mucopolysaccharide

(a) chondroitin sulphate (b) heparan sulphate (c) keratan sulphate (d) dermatan sulphate
4. Which phospholipid acts as a pulmonary surfactant

(a) cephalin (b) dipalmitoyl lecithin (c) phosphatidyl inositol (d) sphingomyelin
5. All of the following are formed from cholesterol EXCEPT

(a) vitamin D (b) bile acid (c) bile pigment (d) steroid hormones
6. All of the following are formed from tyrosine EXCEPT

(a) melanin (b) melatonin (c) dopamine (d) thyroid hormones
7. Level of HbA1c diagnostic of diabetes mellitus is

(a) >= 5% (b) >= 5.6 (c) >= 6.5% (d) >= 7%
8. Rate limiting enzyme of fatty acid biosynthesis is

(a) acetyl CoA carboxylase (b) acetyl trans acylase (c) 3-ketoacyl synthase (d) 3-ketoacyl reductase
9. Pyruvate dehydrogenase multienzyme complex requires all of the following coenzymes EXCEPT
(a) thiamine pyrophosphate (b) C0-enzyme A (c) FMN (d) NAD+
10. Which of the following cannot serve as a generalized energy reserve of the body
(a) adipose tissue TAG (b) liver glycogen (c) muscle glycogen (d) muscle protein
11. Enzyme which is estimated as an indicator of hypoxia in covid 19 patients is

(a) CK-MB (b) SGOT (c) SGPT (d) LDH
12. Dicumarol acts as anticoagulant by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase

(a) competitively (b) non-competitively (c) irreversible (d) allosterically
13. Which of the following decreases serum calcium

(a) calciferol (b) calcitonin (c) parathyroid (d) thyroid
69
14. Anti tuberculosis drug INH leads to deficiency of vitamin
(a) B1 (b) B2 (c) B6 (d) B12
15. Ketolysis cannot take place in the liver due to deficiency of enzyme
(a) thiokinase (b) thiophorase (c) thioesterase (d) thiolase
16. BAL (british antilewisite) or dimercaprol inhibits the electron transport chain at complex
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
17. Food preservative benzoic acid is conjugated with which conjugating agent to be excreted as hippuric acid
(a) glycine (b) glutamate (c) glutamine (d) glucuronic acid
18. All of the following are formed with the help of TCA cycle EXCEPT
(a) haeme (b) fatty acids (c) essential amino acids (d) glucose
19. All of the following are substrates for gluconeogenesis EXCEPT

(a) fatty acids (b) lactic acids (c) propionic acid (d) all amino acids except leucine
and lysine
20. Which of the following is formed by transmethylation

(a) creatine phosphate (b) epinephrine (c) melatonin (d) all of the above
a. Biologically important peptides

b. Ketosis
c. Secondary structure of proteins
d. Phenylketonuria
e. Electron transport chain
f. Functions and deficiency of vitamin D
g. Competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition
h. Structure of cell membrane
i. Iron deficiency and iron toxicity
j. Phase 2 of detoxification
a. Describe the breakdown of protein to urea and explain its significance in a person with impaired liver function
b. A middle-aged obese smoker with family history of heart disease came for a routine check-up to the hospital
i. What investigations will be done in lipid profile to assess the risk of heart disease (2)
ii. Describe formation of cholesterol up to mevalonate, explaining the significance of the conversion o HMG CoA to
mevalonate and how it Is inhibited (3)
iii. Name clinical conditions associated with hypercholesterolemia and describe atherosclerosis (2.5)
iv. Which markers can be used to diagnose myocardial infarction (MI)? Which enzyme is used therapeutically to
dissolve the clot (2.5)
c. A diabetic child came to the hospital with complaints of polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia.
i. What investigations can be done in his blood and urine to assess his glycemic index (5)
ii. Describe the regulation of blood glucose (5)
70
Time: 3:00 Hours
Instructions: Subject- Biochemistry
a) All questions are compulsory Paper- II Maximum Marks :100
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Termination of the synthesis of RNA molecule is signaled by a sequence in the template strand of the DNA molecule, a signal that is recognized
by a termination protein
(a) Rho factor (b) sigma factor (c) delta factor (d) epsilon factor
2. The correct statement concerning RNA and DNA polymerases is

(a) RNA polymerases use (b) RNA polymerase requires (c) DNA polymerases can add (d) all RNA and DNA polymerases
nucleoside diphosphatase primers and adds bases at 5’ end of nucleotides at both ends of the can add nucleotides only at 3’ end
the growing polynucleotide chain of the growing polynucleotide chain
3. The enzyme DNA ligase

(a) introduces super helical twists (b) connects the end of two DNA (c) unwinds the double helix (d) synthesizes RNA primers
chains
4. Restriction endonucleases
(a) cut RNA chains at specific (b) excise introns from hnRNA (c) remove Okazaki fragments (d) acts as defensive enzymes to
locations protect the host bacterial DNA from
foreign organisms
5. All of the following statements about uric acid is true EXCEPT

(a) it can be formed from allantoin (b) formation of uric acid stones in (c) uric acid begins to dissociate at (d) it is present in plasma mainly as
kidneys can be decreased by pH above 5.8 monosodium urate
alkalinization
6. The daily total body water derived from oxidation of foodstuffs is about
(a) 100 ml (b) 300 ml (c) 600 ml (d) 1000 ml
7. Minimum excretory urinary volume for waste product elimination in 24hrs is

(a) 200-300 ml (b) 200-400 ml (c) 500-600 ml (d) 800 ml
8. All of the following features are found in blood chemistry in uncompensated lactic acidosis EXCEPT
(a) pH is decreased (b) bicarbonate is decreased (c) pCO2 is normal (d) anion gap is normal
9. During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all of the following changes occur EXCEPT
(a) decreased secretion of (b) increased excretion of sodium in (c) increased excretion of (d) increased excretion of ammonia
hydrogen ions by renal tubules urine bicarbonate in urine in urine
10. Normal quantity of urobilinogen excreted in the feces per day is about
(a) 10-25 mg (b) 50-250 mg (c) 300-500 mg (d) 700-800 mg
11. The normal range of indirect bilirubin in serum is

(a) 0-0.1 mg/100ml (b) 0.1-0.2 mg/100ml (c) 0.2-0.7 mg/100ml (d) 0.8-1.0 mg/100ml
12. The normal values for creatinine clearance varies from

(a) 20-40 ml/min (b) 40-60 ml/min (c) 70-85 ml/min (d) 95-105 ml/min
13. Methemoglobin can be reduced to hemoglobin by

(a) removal of hydrogen (b) vitamin C (c) glutathione (d) creatinine
14. Alpha fetoprotein level in serum is increased in 71
(a) prostatic cancer (b) hepatoma (c) cancer in lungs (d) nephritis
15. Which of the following enzymes produce a free radical in macrophages

(a) SOD (b) catalase (c) GSH peroxidase (d) NOS
16. The minimum daily requirement of proteins in food for a normal healthy adult is
(a) 0.2 gm/Kg body weight (b) 0.5 gm/Kg body weight (c) 0.7 gm/Kg body weight (d) 1.5 gm/Kg body weight
17. Which has no role in calculating calorie requirements

(a) respiratory quotient (b) specific dynamic action (c) basal metabolic rate (d) physical activity
18. Ratio of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in balanced diet should be

(a) 50:40:10 (b) 60:20:20 (c) 50:10:40 (d) 70:20:10
19. A 2-year-old boy presents to OPD with poor eating for past few weeks. Recently he has developed a wound on his leg which shows poor
healing. On examination he appears plump but apathetic. He has dry, sparse golden hair and skin appears thick and pigmented. Abdomen is
distended. His serum albumin is 1.5 g/dL. What is the diagnosis
(a) anorexia nervosa (b) starvation (c) marasmus (d) kwashiorkor
20. The laboratory reports the following ABG: pH 7.33, pCO2 40 mmHg ( N 35-45 ) and HCO3 20 mEq/L ( N 22-26 ), you interpret these results as
(a) respiratory acidosis (b) metabolic acidosis (c) respiratory alkalosis (d) metabolic alkalosis
a. Dehydration
b. Nitrogen balance
c. Tumour markers
d. Applications of polymerase chain reaction
e. Gout
f. Eukaryotic post transcriptional RNA processing
g. Types of RNA
h. Water intoxication
i. Give an example of some oncogenic viruses. Name some anti-carcinogens
j. Explain the concept of balanced diet
a. A 67-year-old female presented at clinic with intense jaundice. She had noted that her stools had been very pale.
Laboratory test revealed a very high level of direct bilirubin. The level of alkaline phosphatase was markedly elevated
(1+2+2+2+3)
i. What is the probable diagnosis
ii. Why color of stools Is very pale
iii. What will be the status of bilirubin and urobilinogen in urine
iv. Why is alkaline phosphatase markedly elevated
v. What do you understand by direct and indirect bilirubin
b. A person presents himself with untreated diabetes mellitus, he is then treated for acidosis (1+2+2+2+3)
i. What is the type of acidosis
ii. What is the normal bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio
iii. What will happen to the ratio in this patient
iv. How will compensation occur
v. What is the role of kidney in regulation of acid base balance in the body
c. Classify renal function tests. Describe serum and urine markers of renal functions (4+3+3)
72
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Which of the following is not essential fatty acid

(a) oleic acid (b) linoleic acid (c) arachidonic acid (d) linolenic acid
2. An amino acid required for porphyrin synthesis is

(a) proline (b) glycine (c) serine (d) histidine
3. The main source of reducing equivalents NADPH for lipogenesis is

(a) pentose phosphate pathway (b) citric acid cycle (c) glycolysis (d) glycogenolysis
4. The hormones that bind to cell surface receptor and requires the second messenger action is
(a) thyroxine (b) estrogen (c) FSH (d) glucocorticoids
5. Uncoupling agent of oxidative phosphorylation is

(a) fructose 1,6 bisphosphate (b) 2,4 dinitrophenol (c) NADP (d) urea
6. Acute pancreatitis may be diagnosed by the estimation of following enzyme

(a) alanine transaminase (b) acid phosphatase (c) amylase (d) alkaline phosphatase
7. Which organelle is referred to as the ‘incinerator’ of the cell containing hydrolytic enzymes
(a) lysosome (b) ribosome (c) peroxisome (d) golgi apparatus
8. Phospholipid acting as lung surfactant

(a) phosphatidyl inositol (b) cephalin (c) dipalmitoyl lecithin (d) sphingomyelin
9. Pellagra occurs due to deficiency of vitamin

(a) B1 (b) B2 (c) B3 (d) B5
10. High Km means enzyme’s affinity for

(a) inhibitor is high (b) substrate is high (c) inhibitor is low (d) substrate is low
11. Von Gierke’s disease occurs due to deficiency of the following enzyme
(a) muscle glycogen phosphorylase (b) glucose-6-phosphatase (c) debranching enzyme (d) glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase
12. Which of the following complexes is inhibited by cyanide

(a) complex I (b) complex II (c) complex III (d) complex IV
13. Which of the following mucopolysaccharide acts as a lubricant in joints

(a) chondroitin sulfate (b) keratan sulphate (c) dermatan sulphate (d) hyaluronic acid
73
14. Which of the following is a semi essential amino acid
(a) lysine (b) arginine (c) tyrosine (d) tryptophan
15. Normal range of serum cholesterol is

(a) 100-150 mg/dL (b) 150-200 mg/dL (c) 200-250 mg/dL (d) 250-300 mg/dL
16. Wilson’s disease is due to excess of which mineral

(a) cobalt (b) iodine (c) copper (d) fluorine
17. Which of the following enzymes in glycolytic pathway is inhibited by fluoride

(a) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (b) phosphoglycerate kinase (c) pyruvate kinase (d) enolase
dehydrogenase
18. The regulatory key enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is

(a) HMG CoA synthase (b) HMG CoA reductase (c) HMG CoA lyase (d) mevalonate kinase
19. Reference range of serum calcium is

(a) 3-4 mg/dL (b) 9-11 mg/dL (c) 4-5 mg/dL (d) 96-106 mg/dL
20. Which of the following hormone acts a physiological uncoupler

(a) cortisol (b) insulin (c) glucagon (d) thyroxine
a. Enumerate any 5 phospholipids with their biochemical role

b. Mechanisms of enzymes inhibition
c. Describe calcium metabolism
d. Regulation of blood glucose
e. Explain the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane
f. Explain the phase I of xenobiotic metabolism
g. Mucosal block theory of iron absorption
h. Describe fatty liver and add note on lipotropic factors
i. Electron transport chain
j. A two-month-old child was brought to pediatrician with complaints of vomiting after each feed. Mother gave history of
failure to gain weight and frequent diarrhea for the last 1 month. On physical examination, child had jaundice and
cataract. Benedict’s test was positive and glucose oxidase test was negative (1+1+3)
i. What is the most probable inborn error of metabolism
ii. Name the enzyme deficient
iii. Explain the biochemical basis of jaundice and cataract
a. A sixty-year-old male was admitted in Medicine ICU with complaints of severe chest pain and profuse sweating. His ECG
showed the changes of acute myocardial infarction. Mention different biochemical tests for confirming the above
diagnosis along with its reference range. Describe the different diagnostic and prognostic enzymatic markers with their
change in concentration with time in the above case. (4+6)
b. Describe biosynthesis of urea. How it is regulated, add a note on disorders related to it. (5+2+3)
c. A 15-year-old high school boy had difficulty in performing his work in dim light. Dietary history revealed he does not like
following foods -carrots, papaya and fish liver oil.
I. Based on history and chief complaint the probable diagnosis would be? Name the biochemical compound which
is responsible for the above condition. (2)
II. Discuss its metabolism under following headings (1+4+3)
i. Requirement
ii. Functions
iii. Deficiency causes and manifestations
74
Time: 3:00 Hours Subject- Biochemistry
Paper- II Maximum Marks :100
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1 = 20
1. Rate limiting enzyme in heme synthesis is

(a) heme synthase (b) ALA dehydratase (c) ALA synthase (d) uroporphyrinogen synthase
2. Normal range of albumin is

(a) 3.5-5.5 gm/dL (b) 6-8 gm/dL (c) 3.5-5.5 mmol/dL (d) 6-8 mmol/dL
3. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with increased alkaline phosphatase level is present in

(a) viral hepatitis (b) obstructive jaundice (c) hemolytic jaundice (d) physiological jaundice
4. The first protein to be excreted in urine in glomerular damage is

(a) albumin (b) transferrin (c) hemoglobin (d) Bence jones protein
5. Major intracellular cation is

(a) sodium (b) potassium (c) magnesium (d) calcium
6. Basal metabolic rate is increased by all the following EXCEPT

(a) fever (b) thyroxine (c) starvation (d) cold climate
7. The normal range of plasma bicarbonate is

(a) 5-7 mEq/L (b) 10-15 mEq/L (c) 21-26 mEq/L (d) 30-37 mEq/L
8. Which of the following hormones affects fluid and electrolyte balance

(a) epinephrine (b) glucagon (c) thyroxine (d) aldosterone
9. RNA in a mixture can be identified by

(a) southern blotting (b) northern blotting (c) western blotting (d) none
10. Specific dynamic action for protein is

(a) 5% (b) 13% (c) 30% (d) 60%
11. Tumour suppressor gene are sometimes called

(a) antioncogenes (b) proto-oncogenes (c) oncogene (d) proximate carcinogen
12. Serum urea and creatine are markers of

(a) liver function (b) renal function (c) pancreatic function (d) gastric function
13. Immunoglobulins are classified on basis of

(a) light chains (b) heavy chains (c) carbohydrate content (d) electrophoretic ability
14. In a 70 kg adult, the total body water content is

(a) 42L (b) 28L (c) 14L (d) 3.5L
75
15. Which of the following separates DNA like a zip opener
(a) DNA ligase (b) DNA polymerase (c) DNA helicase (d) DNA topoisomerase
16. Human genome map where genes are visualized as bands with the help of a chemical dye is
(a) cytogenic map (b) gene linkage map (c) restriction fragment length (d) physical map
17. All of the following are terminating codons EXCEPT

(a) UAA (b) UGG (c) UAG (d) UGA
18. All of the following are anti-oxidant enzymes EXCEPT

(a) superoxide dismutase (b) catalase (c) glutathione peroxidase (d) cytochrome p450 mono-
oxygenase
19. A boy was stung by an unknown insect. He experienced respiratory distress within minutes and lapsed into unconsciousness. This may be
mediated by
(a) IgG (b) IgE (c) sensitized T cells (d) complement
20. DNA synthesis or extension is the third step of PCR, which is carried out at
(a) 95oC (b) 55oC (c) 72oC (d) room temperature
a. 50-year-old male came in medicine OPD with chief complaint of swelling in joint of great toe. On biochemical laboratory
investigations, physician noticed the increased serum uric acid. Physician diagnosed him to be suffering with gout.
Explain the metabolic pathways steps along with enzymes that is affected in above patient with its biochemical
correlation.
b. Explain acid base disorders with their compensatory mechanism
c. Applications of recombinant DNA technology
d. A 60-year-old male is admitted in medicine ICU with complaints of increased micturition and abdominal pain. He was
known case of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Describe different tests which can be performed in above patient for the
measurement of glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
e. Define replication. Write a note on DNA repair mechanism
f. Free radicals and antioxidants
g. Write the features of primary and secondary dehydration
h. Quality control in clinical laboratory
i. Describe the disorders of heme synthesis
j. Balanced diet and specific dynamic action
a. A 45-year-old man had acute pain in the right abdomen. He was diagnosed with gall stones
i. What are the various types of jaundice? Which type of jaundice do gall stones cause
ii. What investigations can be done in the blood and urine to find out the severity and type of jaundice
iii. What is the relationship of cholesterol in bile to development of gall stones? Why do bile acids help to prevent
development of gall stones
b. A 5-year-old child with chief complaints of acute onset of pain both lower limbs and past history of painful episodes of
abdomen, upper limb presented to casualty. He is pale and febrile. On examination spleen is palpable and icterus is
present. History reveals he is known case of sickle cell disease.
i. What is the etiopathogenesis of sickle cell disease

ii. Explain polymerization of HbS in deoxygenated state
iii. Explain electrophoresis findings in sickle cell disease
iv. Enlist the complications of sickle cell disease
c. Describe the process of protein synthesis in prokaryotes. How does it differ from protein synthesis in eukaryotes
76
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Lysosomes are produced by the

(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Ribosomes
2. Transmembrane proteins serve as

(a) Ion channels (b) Carriers (c) Receptors (d) All of the above
3. Lactose intolerance is due to deficiency of enzyme

(a) Lactase (b) Amylase (c) Sucrase (d) All of the above
4. Which of the following is an epimeric pair

(a) Glucose and Galactose (b) Galactose and Mannose (c) Fructose and Galactose (d) Lactose and Maltose
5. Pellagra is due to deficiency of

(a) Thiamine (b) Niacin (c) Riboflavin (d) Vit. B12
6. RDA of copper for adults is

(a) 5-1 mg (b) 2-3 mg (c) 3.5-4.5 mg (d) 9-11 mg
7. Normal LDL cholesterol level is

(a) <100 mg/dl (b) >150 mg/dl (c) 20-30 mg/dl (d) 200-220 mg/dl
8. Which of the following has protective effect against malaria

(a) Hb Bart (b) HbF (c) HbM (d) HbS
9. Glycine is used for synthesis of

(a) Thyroxine (b) Niacin (c) Serotonin (d) Heme
10. Bence-Jones proteins are excreted in the urine of patients of

(a) Diabetes Mellitus (b) Nephrotic Syndrome (c) Multiple Myeloma (d) All of the above
77
a. Give on account on how fatty acids are activated and transported into the mitochondria. Describe the reactions of Beta-
oxidation in the mitochondrial matrix. Add a note on ATP yield from palmitate:
b. Case study: -A 57-year-old male was brought to the emergency with a history of 12 hrs of shortness of breath, coughing
and tightness in the chest region. The symptoms appeared suddenly. His past medical history is significant for diabetes
mellitus and hypertension. He is a known smoker and alcoholic. At the time of admission his BP was 180/100mm of Hg.
The laboratory tests showed CKMB as 45 IU/L (Ref Range 5-25 IU/L).
1. Suggest the probable diagnosis

2. define enzymes end its classification.
3. define isoenzyme also discuss different isoenzyme forms of any two relevant enzyme along with their characteristics
and clinical significance
4. management
a. Structure of cell-membrane
b. Discuss the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
c. Classify) protein based on tl1cir functions, with suitable example
d. Causes and deficiency manifestations of calcium.
e. Communication skill and Its 1mpor1once in doctor patient relationship.
f. Detoxification by conjugation.
a. Risk factors for Atherosclerosis

b. What is oxidative phosphorylation
c. Biochemical role of oxytocin and ADH.
d. Deficiency of vitamin C.
e. Why Cataract is seen in diabetic patient.
f. Respiratory acidosis
g. Why low levels ofVit31Tlln O 12 is seen in vegetarians
h. Biologically important peptides
i. Disorders of urea cycle
j. Energetics of glycolysis
78
MBBS First Professional Examination Dec-2022
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. Opalescent urine is seen in

(a) Porphyria (b) Alkaptonuria (c) Chyluria (d) Creatinuria
2. The end product of catabolism of heme is

(a) Bile salt (b) Bile acid (c) Bile pigment (d) Uric acid
3. The flow of Genetic information from DNA to RNA to Protein in living cells is
(a) Central dogma (b) Replication (c) Transcription (d) Reverse transcription
4. DNA Replication in Eukaryotes is

(a) Conservative (b) Semi Conservative (c) Dispersive (d) None of these
5. In Lac operon we see

(a) 1 Regulatory Gene & 1 P site (b) 1 Regulatory Gene, 1 Promoter (c) 1 Regulatory Gene, 1 Promoter (d) 2 Regulatory Gene, I Operator
site & 1 Operator site, 1 Operator & 3 Structural & 3 Structural genes
genes
6. UAA, UAG & UGA are

(a) Initiating codons (b) codons for lysine (c) codons for arginine (d) Nonsense codons
7. The normal Serum Uric acid is-

(a) 8-10 mg% (b) 4-7 mg% (c) 1-3 mg% (d) 2-4 mg%
8. The purification of enzymes is mostly done by

(a) affinity chromatography (b) ion exchange chromatography (c) paper chromatography (d) none of these
9. Which of the vitamins listed has NO anti-oxidant property?

(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin K
10. Which has no role in calculating calorie requirements?

(a) Respiratory quotient (b) Specific Dynamic Action (c) Nature of work (d) Basal metabolic rate
79
a. How heme is synthesized in body. Add a note on various Porphyrias.
b. A patient with chronic renal failure was found to had the following laboratory findings: - serum creatinine 3 gm/dL, serum
sodium 120 mmol/L, serum potassium 5.8 mmol/L, serum bicarbonate 15 mmol/L.
i. what kind of acid base disturbance is like present in this case

ii. how does kidney normally regulate extracellular pH
iii. what are additional investigations to be done in this patient
iv. explain the basis of abnormal electrolyte values
v. explain anion gap
a. KFT
b. Explain the biochemical tests that will help differentiating the types of jaundice.
c. Importance and applications of recombinant DNA technology.
d. Give an account of water distribution and its balance in the body.
e. Explain regulation of genes by repression with examples.
f. Mutations
a. What is the principle of adsorption chromatography

b. Beer and Lambert law
c. Biochemical alterations in protein energy malnutrition
d. Wobble hypothesis
e. Gene therapy
f. Molecular basis of thalassemia and cystic fibrosis
g. Functions of nucleotides
h. Tumour markers
i. Name the pre renal conditions that cause increased blood urea
j. Give two examples of purine analogues used as anticancer drugs
80
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. A homopolysaccharide among the following is

(a) heparin (b) hyaluronic acid (c) dermatan sulfate (d) cellulose
2. Nyctalopia is
(a) drying of eyes (b) destruction of cornea (c) blindness (d) inability to see in dim light
3. Which is the most common amino acid present in collagen

(a) lysine (b) glycine (c) threonine (d) proline
4. The most important clinical importance of the BMR is that it is an indicator of

(a) thyroid dysfunction (b) gastrointestinal disturbances (c) liver ailments (d) nephritis
5. Vegetarians, who do not consume milk should take daily

(a) vit. B1 (b) vit. B6 (c) vit. B12 (d) vit. C
6. During respiratory burst, all of the following reactive oxygen species (ROS) are formed, EXCEPT
(a) superoxide (b) hydrogen peroxide (c) nitric oxide (d) hydroxyl radical
7. Copper deficiency occurs commonly in

(a) acrodermatitis enteropathy (b) wilson’s disease (c) xeroderma pigmentosum (d) menke’s disease
8. Which of the disease listed below is a lysosomal storage disease

(a) Zellweger syndrome (b) inclusion cell bodies (c) pompe’s disease (d) leber’s neuropathy
9. 25-hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs in

(a) skin (b) liver (c) kidneys (d) intestinal mucosa
10. Vitamin C enhances intestinal absorption of

(a) potassium (b) iodine (c) iron (d) none of the above
81
a. Define enzymes with classification. Write different types of enzymes inhibition with suitable examples. Explain
isoenzymes with examples. Indicate the importance of enzyme studies in myocardial infarction.
b. A 50-year-old obese lady complains of excessive thirst and hunger, with increased urination. On physical examination she
appeared normal. Her laboratory report showed the following findings; random plasma glucose level: 250 mg/dL. Urine
was positive for glucose with glucose strips. Her fasting and postprandial plasma glucose levels were 130 mg/dL and 195
mg/dL respectively
i. What is your diagnosis and write the biochemical basis of the disorder
ii. Which biochemical investigations will help in diagnosis of the disease
iii. What are the characteristic clinical features of the disorder
iv. Mechanism of action of responsible hormone
a. What does it mean to be a doctor

b. Regulation of plasma calcium level
c. One year old female child with low socio-economic status comes to OPD with retarded growth and emaciated
appearance. No edema is present
i. Identify the condition
ii. What is the difference between marasmus and kwashiorkor
iii. What is the cause of emaciated appearance
d. Explain cholesterol metabolism
e. Describe electron transport chain. Write uncouplers with their significance
f. Write the sources, RDA, and deficiency manifestations of vitamin A
a. Enumerate biologically important peptides

b. Enumerate antioxidant enzymes and minerals
c. Nitrogen balance
d. Biochemical importance of serotonin
e. Alkaptonuria
f. Well labeled diagram of cell membrane
g. Define classify carbohydrates
h. Define detoxification with its examples
i. Enumerate essential fatty acids
j. Wilson’s disease manifestations
82
Instructions:
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10
1. An amino acid required for porphyrin synthesis is

(a) proline (b) glycine (c) serine (d) histidine
2. A cosmid is a
(a) large bacterial plasmid (b) viral plasmid (c) hybrid of plasmid and phage (d) yeast plasmid
3. The most abundant immunoglobin present in plasma is

(a) IgA (b) IgG (c) IgM (d) IgD
4. Normal anion gap in plasma is around

(a) 1-5 mEq/L (b) 8-12 mEq/L (c) 20-25 mEq/L (d) 35-40 mEq/L
5. Unit of clearance is
(a) mg/dL (b) mmol/day (c) mg/min (d) mL/min
6. Which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs works by inhibiting de novo purine synthesis
(a) acyclovir (b) methotrexate (c) azidodeoxythymidine (d) 5-fluorouracil
7. Unconjugated bilirubin is raised mostly in

(a) hemolytic jaundice (b) obstructive jaundice (c) carcinoma of pancreas (d) stone in gall bladder
8. Most important physiological buffer in the blood is

(a) hemoglobin buffer system (b) acetate buffer (c) phosphate buffer (d) bicarbonate buffer
9. The main biological targets for attack by free radical are all EXCEPT
(a) PUFA (b) protein (c) DNA (d) glycosaminoglycans
10. Cigarette smoke inhibits the activity of

(a) alpha 1-antitrypsin (b) ceruloplasmin (c) alpha 2-macroglobulin (d) c- reactive protein
83
a. A 4 years old boy suffered from pain in joints, hypotonia, developmental delay, irritability, showed signs of mental
retardation and evidences of self-mutilation. On examination there was testicular atrophy and hematuria. The serum
uric acid level was 10 mg/dL
i. What is the probable diagnosis
ii. Which enzyme is defective in this disease
iii. What is the normal level of serum uric acid in humans
iv. What is the mode of inheritance of this disease
v. What is the biochemical basis of this condition
b. Classify liver function tests according to various functions of liver. Write enzymatic, non-enzymatic and urinary markers
based on type of jaundice
a. Explain metabolic acidosis and its compensation

b. Describe post translational modifications and inhibitors of this process
c. Explain kidney function tests
d. Explain recombinant DNA technology and its applications
e. Explain eukaryotic rRNA processing
f. Explain the mechanism of free radical formation and describe different antioxidants with their mechanisms
a. Enumerate tumour markers

b. Enumerate cause of overhydration
c. Types of RNA and their functions
d. Enumerate derivatives of hemoglobin
e. Write types of gout and their biochemical causes
f. Uses of quality control in biochemistry lab
g. Enumerate disorders due to changes in immunoglobulins
h. Enumerate oncogenes
i. Write various types of plasma proteins
j. Write any two types of mutations with examples

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MPMSU MBBS 1st Year Previous Year Questions (2015-2023)

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MPMSU MBBS 1st Year Previous Year Questions (2015-2023)

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1

MBBS 1st PROFF

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe the formation and branches of brachial plexus

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name the bones meeting at pterion

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe testis under following headings

b. Describe adductor canal with its clinical importance

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Portal systemic anastomosis

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe mid palmar space in hand

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Anatomical snuff box

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name any two parasympathetic ganglions

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe stomach under following headings

b. Describe femoral triangle

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Medial longitudinal arch of foot

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Boundaries of popliteal fossa

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe bronchopulmonary segments with its applied aspects

b. Describe carotid triangle

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Interior of right atrium

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name the nerve of carpal tunnel syndrome

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe vermiform appendix under the following headings

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Obturator nerve – origin, course and distribution

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe tongue under following headings

b. Describe cavernous sinus under following headings

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Secretomotor pathway of parotid gland

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Safety muscle of larynx

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe inguinal canal under following heading

b. Describe the uterus under following heading

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Contents of lienorenal ligament

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe middle ear under following headings

b. Describe brachial plexus with its applied anatomy

Q2. Short Answer Questions 10 x 3 = 30

a. Sensory innervation of face

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Enumerate modifications of deep fascia

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 x 5 = 10