AMT Proposal 1
AMT Proposal 1
AMT Proposal 1
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19. The gravity-feed system utilizes ……………… to transfer the fuel from the tanks to the engine
A. The force of pressure B. vacuum system C. the force of gravity
20. On selecting the BOTH position the engines are fed fuel ………………
A. From the left tank B. from both tanks C. from none of the tanks
21. The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refueling is ……………
A. 100 m B. 100 feet C. 50 feet
22. When an aircraft is fueled from a truck or fuel farm that has not been contaminated, daily draining
A. is not required because fuel trucks and fuel farms may make use of laser contaminant identification
technology.
B. is only required if the fuel truck or farm has not been in continuous service.
C. of strainers and sumps is combined with periodic filter changes and inspection to ensure fuel is
contaminant free.
23. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?
A. It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.
B. It is near the fuel tank heater to help prevent vapor lock in the system.
C. It filters and traps all micro organisms that may be present in the fuel system.
24. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
A. It allows any tank to supply fuel to any engine.
B. It bypasses the engine shutoff valve if it fails.
C. It divides the fuel and sends it to the injectors.
25. Which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel
system?
A. Structural repair manual.
B. Orthographic projection troubleshooting tree.
C. Maintenance manual diagrams and descriptions.
26. When defueling an aircraft, which of the following must be accomplished?
A. Always defuel outside the hangar.
B. Defuel inside the hangar when fire suppression is available.
C. Defuel outside the hangar when possible.
27. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are
A. easily removed for service or inspection.
B. constructed of plastic or fiberglass.
C. supported by the aircraft structure.
28. Airframe of an aircraft is its __________ structure.
A. Electrical B. Mechanical C. Hydraulic
29. Why does the landing gear retract into the wings and/or fuselage during flight?
A. To decrease drag B. To decrease airspeed C. To generate more thrust
30. Which of the following is not a part of the airframe?
A. Fuselage B. Stabilizing tail C. Landing gear
31. Jet engines are classified into _______ types.
A. 5 B. 4 C. 3
32. 2. Jet engines works on ______ cycle.
A. Brayton B. Dual C. Otto
33. Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:.
A- To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B- Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
C- Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some
outside force.
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34. A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A- movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
B- angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C- attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
35. The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
A- statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
B- review of the maintenance records.
C- log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
36. Which are the two common classifications applied to fuel systems in airplanes
A. gravity-feed , fuel-pump systems
B. gravity-feed , piston systems
C. fuel-pump systems , vacuum system
37. The control Valve ……..
A. Routes the fluid to the desired actuator.
B. Routes the fluid to the return valve
C. Routes the fluid to the pump
38. It allows selection of fuel from various tanks.
A. The fuel check valve B. The fuel selector valve C. The fuel primer
39. The fuel strainer should be …………….. before each flight
A. Drained B. Replaced C. removed
40. The fuel strainer is a type of …..
A. gauge B. valve C. filter
41. The function of the reservoir ……………..
A. It contains the fluid. B. It dissipates heat from the fluid. C. Both A and B
42. What is used to limit system pressure?
A- Relief valve. B- Check valve. C- Selector valve.
43. are designed to hold, turn and cut objects. They vary in length from 4" to 20". Some are available with factory
applied, plastic-coated handles, providing an attractive appearance and comfortable grip. However, these
should not be relied on
for electrical work.
A. Screwdrivers B. Wrench C. Pliers
44. The efficiency of jet engine as compared to propeller is higher at :
A. High speeds B. High altitudes C. Low altitudes
45. Winglets are used on wings to minimize ………
A. induced drag B. skin friction drag C. profile drag
46. What type of valve is installed in a closed-center hydraulic system?
A- Return valve. B- Check valve. C- Selector valve.
47. What component in a hydraulic system protects against pressure surges?
A- Double-check valve. B- Accumulator. C- Hand-operated pump.
48. It is a short-jawed cutter with a blade set at a slight angle on each jaw. It can be used to cut wire, rivets, small
screws, and cotter pins, besides being practically indispensable in removing or installing safety wire.
A. Diagonal pliers
B. Duckbill pliers
C. Slip joint pliers
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49. this tool is a ………………….……..
A- Combination wrench
B- Socket wrench
C- Point box-end wrench
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Answer sheet
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1- A B C 21- A B C A B C
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2- A B C 22- A B C 42 A B C
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3- A B C 23- A B C 43 A B C
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4- A B C 24- A B C 44 A B C
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5- A B C 25- A B C 45 A B C
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6- A B C 26- A B C 46 A B C
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7- A B C 27- A B C 47 A B C
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8- A B C 28- A B C 48 A B C
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9- A B C 29- A B C 49 A B C
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10- A B C 30- A B C 50 A B C
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11- A B C 31- A B C 51 A B C
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12- A B C 32- A B C 52 A B C
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13- A B C 33- A B C
14- A B C 34- A B C
15- A B C 35- A B C
16- A B C 36- A B C
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17- A B C 37- A B C
18- A B C 38- A B C
19- A B C 39- A B C
20- A B C 40- A B C
Answer Key
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1- A B C 21- A B C A B C
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2- A B C 22- A B C 42 A B C
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3- A B C 23- A B C 43 A B C
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4- A B C 24- A B C 44 A B C
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5- A B C 25- A B C 45 A B C
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6- A B C 26- A B C 46 A B C
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7- A B C 27- A B C 47 A B C
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8- A B C 28- A B C 48 A B C
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9- A B C 29- A B C 49 A B C
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10- A B C 30- A B C 50 A B C
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11- A B C 31- A B C 51 A B C
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12- A B C 32- A B C 52 A B C
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13- A B C 33- A B C
14- A B C 34- A B C
15- A B C 35- A B C
16- A B C 36- A B C
17- A B C 37- A B C
18- A B C 38- A B C
19- A B C 39- A B C
20- A B C 40- A B C