Mark Klimek Blue book (ALL) NCLEX Study Guide

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1. Name the five/six essential carbs, fats, proteins, 20. An individual is obese if 20
nutrients vitamins, minerals, water they weigh ________%
above the ideal weight.
2. The major source of energy for carbs
the body is 21. What solution and material Plain water, cotton balls,
are used to cleanse the washcloths
3. carbs provide ____________ 4
eyes of an infant?
Kcalories per 1 gram
22. Can you use cotton swabs No, this is dangerous
4. Sucrose is a sugar found in fruits, veggies
to clean the eyes, nares or
____________ and
ears of an infant?
_____________.
23. Can you use the same No, it would cross contaminate
5. Lactose is a sugar found in ? milk
cotton ball/washcloth edge
6. What is glycogen? It is a stored formed of for both eyes?
glucose/energy
24. Should you cover an No, fold the diaper down.
manufactured by the
unhealed umbilical site
liver
with the diaper?
7. Is glycogen eaten in foods? NO! It is a stored form of
25. What temperature is 100 to 105
glucose
appropriate for the water
MANUFACTURED by the
used to bathe an infant?
liver.
26. What is the #1 purpose of a Lower body temperature during
8. When the body does not receive protein, fat
tepid sponge bath? fever.
enough carbs it burns
___________ and _____________. 27. How should the Dropping water on inside
temperature of the water be surface of your forearm.
9. The most concentrated source of fats
tested if no thermometer is
energy for the body is
available?
___________.
28. With which body part do Eyes always
10. Fats provide ___________ 9
you begin when bathing an
Kcalories per 1 gram.
infant?
11. Fats carry vitamins A,D,E,K (Remember
29. When cleansing an infant's No, inner to outer
FADE K!)
eye, cleanse from outer to
12. The nutrient needed most for protein (second best is inner canthus?
growth and repair of tissues is Vit C)
30. Should you retract the No, not until foreskin retracts
_____________.
foreskin of a 5 week old naturally and without
13. Proteins provide __________ 4 male, uncircumcised infant resistance- then it should be
Kcalories per 1 gram. to cleanse the area? retracted, cleansed and
14. Vitamins and minerals provide False- they are replaced.
energy for the body. (T/F) necessary for a body's 31. When sponge-bathing with 98.6 F
chemical reactions. tepid water the correct
15. Water is present in ALL body True (even bone) temp is _____________.
tissues. (T/F) 32. How long does it take for 7 to 14 days
16. Water accounts for ________ to 50 to 60% the umbilical stump to fall
___________% of an adult's total off?
weight? 33. The primary reason why an False, the primary purpose of
17. Name the four basic food groups Milk & Cheese, Meat & infant is draped during the draping is to prevent chilling.
Legumes, Veggies & bath is to provide privacy.
Fruits, Bread & Cereal (T/F)

18. Water acounts for __________ to 70 to 75% 34. You may use friction to False, it causes
_________% of an infant's total remove vernix caseosa damage/bruising
weight? from an infant's skin. (T/F)

19. An individual is overweight if they 10 35. What solution is commonly 70% alcohol to promote drying
are ________% above the ideal used for care of umbilical (trend is toward soap and water)
weight. cord?
36. What cranial nerve is #7, facial nerve
affected in Bell's Palsy?
37. What is the #1 symptom of Bell's One sided (unilateral) 56. Acid Ash diet Decrease pH (makes urine
Palsy? facial paralysis acid)
Chz, eggs, Meat, fish,
38. Complete recovery from the 4 to 6
oysters, poultry, Bread,
paralysis of Bell's Palsy should
Cereal, Whole Grains,
occur in _______ to ______ months.
Pastries, Cranberries,
39. In addition to the facial paralysis, the taste Prunes, Plums, Tomatoes,
sense of ______ is also affected. Peas, Corn, Legumes.
40. Will the patient be able to close their no 57. What is the primary purpose of To keep the catheter clear
eye on the affected side? a 3 way continuous bladder of clots and to drain urine
41. Give three eye interventions for the Dark glasses, irrigation (CBI) after TURP?
client with Bell's Palsy. artificial tears, cover 58. What solution is used for CBI? Normal saline (0.9 NaCl)
eye at night
59. How fast do you run the CBI? At whatever rate it takes to
42. As the prostate enlarges it Urethra, rentention keep the urine flowing and
compresses the ___________ and free of clots
causes urinary ________.
60. What drug is use to treat B&O suppositories
43. At what age does BPH occur? men over 50 years of bladder spasm? (Belladonna & Opiates)
age
61. Should you take a rectal temp No rectal temperatures, yes
44. What does BPH stand for? Benign Prostatic after prostatectomy? Give stool softeners
Hypertrophy stool softeners?
45. IN BPH the man has increased 62. You should call the MD after Bright thick blood,
(increased/decreased) frequency of TURP when you see _________ persistent clots, persistent
urination thick ________, urine on dressing (don't call
46. In BPH the force of the urinary decreased _____________ clots, and MD for transitory clots and
stream is (increased/decreased). ____________ urine drainage urine on dressing.)
on the dressing.
47. The man with BPH has a _________- forked
stream of urine 63. If you see an increase in blood Pull carefully on the
content of urine coming out of catheter to apply local
48. The man with BPH has hesitancey. Difficulty starting to the catheter, you would first pressure on the prostate
What does this mean? void ___________. with the Foley balloon.
49. Will the man with BPH have Enuresis-No, 64. If you see clots in the tubing Increase the flow-rate.
enuresis, nocturia or hematuria? Nocturia-Yes, and you would first ____________.
Hematuria-Maybe
65. What exercises should the post Perineal exercises, start
50. Enuresis inability to control the prostectomy patient do upon and stop stream of urine,
flow of urine and discharge? Why? because dribbling is a
involuntary urination common but temporary
51. What is the best way to screen men Digital rectal exam problem post op
for BPH? 66. Will the post prostectomy If TURP, no impotence, if
52. Should fluids be forced or restricted forced patient be impotent? perineal prostatectomy, yes
in BPH? impotence
53. What does TURP stand for? Transurethral 67. How often should the drainage Every 8 hours
resection of the bag be emptied?
prostate 68. What is the most common UTI
54. The most radical prostate surgery is Perineal problem due to
the ____________ prostatectomy. catheterization?
55. What type of diet is used in BPH? Acid Ash 69. What is the most common E. coli
organism to cause UTI with
catheterization?
70. What is the most common Up through the inside of the
route for organisms to enter catheter in the days
the blader when a following catheterization
catheterization is used?
71. Name foods that make acid Cranberry juice, apple juice
urine (avoid citrus juices- they
make alkaline urine)
72. What is important about the level Never have the bag at a 93. When 2 values are given in a blood Cessation of sounds
of the urinary drainage bag? higher level than the pressue, the bottom number stands
bladder. for the change in sounds or
cessation of sounds?
73. How is the catheter taped in a To the lateral thigh or
male client? abdomen 94. What is the normal adult blood 120/80
pressure?
74. How is the catheter taped in a To the upper thigh
female client? 95. Abnromally high blood pressure is Hypertension
called____________.
75. What urinary pH prevents UTI? Acidity, low pH
96. What is the pulse pressure? The difference between
76. Should the drainage bag ever No
the systolic and the
touch the floor?
diastolic blood
77. Is it ok to routinely irrigate No pressure
indwelling catheters?
97. If you deflate a cuff TOO SLOWLY, High, venous
78. What agents are best for catheter Soap and water the reading will be too high or low? congestion makes the
care? Why? arterial pressure higher
79. What is the most effective way to Keep the drainage (increases resistance)
decrease UTI with catheters? system closed, do not 98. If you use too narrow of a cuff the High
disconnect junction of reading will be too high or low?
tubing
99. Vasoconstriction will ___________ Increase
80. Give some signs of infection in a Cloudy urine, foul blood pressure.
Foley catheter smelling urine, hematuria
100. Vasodilation will ____________ Decrease
81. Is urinary incontinence an No blood pressure.
indication for catheterization?
101. Shock will ___________ blood Decrease
82. Give three appropriate Urinary retention, to pressure.
indications for bladder check for residual, to
102. Increased intracranial pressure Increase or Widen
catheterization? monitor hourly output
will _________ the pulse pressure.
83. What are the top 2 diagnoses for #1- Potential for infection;
103. If my blood pressure is 190/110, 80 mmHg
a client with a catheter? Which is Potential impairment of
what is my pulse pressure?
#1? urethral tissue integrity
104. What blood test must be done Type and cross match
84. What is systole? The MAXIMAL force of
before a transfusion?
blood on artery walls
105. What does a type and cross match Whether the client's
85. What is diastole? The LOWEST force of
indicate? blood and donor blood
blood on artery walls
are compatible.
86. Accurate blood pressure is Two-thirds
106. What should the nurse measure Vital signs
obtained by using a cuff that has
before starting a transfusion?
width of __________ of the arm.
107. With what solution should blood be 0.9 normal saline
87. Which artery is most commonly Brachial
transfused?
used to measure blood pressure?
108. How many nurses are requried to 2 nurses
88. Can the thigh EVER be used to Yes, but this is rare.
check the blood?
obtain a blood pressure?
109. What happens when blood is The cells clump
89. When pressure is auscultated the Systolic
administered with Dextrose IVs? together & don't flow
first sound heard is the
well
____________ measurement.
110. If a transfusion reaction occurs Stop the blood flow &
90. The change in the character of First diastolic sound
what should the nurse do first? start running the saline
the sounds is known as the
________ 111. How long can a unit of blood be on Less than 1/2 hour
the unit before it must be started?
91. The cessation of sounds is known Second diastolic sound
as the _________ 112. What should the nurse do with the Keep it open with
IV line if transfusion reaction is saline
92. When 2 values are given in a Systolic
suspected?
blood pressure the first is the
__________measurement. 113. If a transfusion reaction is Urine & blood
suspected, what two samples are
collected and sent to the lab?
114. If a unit of blood is infused Warmed 131. How long should you stay with At least 15 to 30 minutes
through a central line it the patient after beginning a
must be__________. transfusion?
115. Which of the following are Low back pain, wheezing, 132. What blood type is the AB
signs of transfusion fever, hives universal recipient?
reaction? Bradycardia,
133. What blood type is the O
Fever, Hives, Wheezing,
universal donor?
Increased Blood Pressure,
Low Back Pain 134. What is the routine for vital Once before administration
sign measurement with a Q15 x 2 after administration
116. What are three types of Hemolytic, febrile, allergic
transfusion? is begun
transfusion reactions that
Q1 x1 after transfusion has
can occur?
stopped
117. What would you do first if Stop the blood and start the
135. What IV solution is hung with a 0.9 normal saline (No
you suspected transfusion saline
blood transfusion? glucose)
reaction?
136. What gauge needle is used Large gauge, 18 gauge
118. What are the signs and Shivering, HA, low back pain,
with a blood transfusion?
symptoms of a hemolytic increased pulse & respirations,
transfusion reaction? decreasing BP, oliguria, 137. What other things are Call MD, get a blood
hematuria appropriate after a reaction? sample, get urine sample,
monitor vitals, send blood
119. What are the signs and Low back pain, shaking HA,
to lab
symptoms of a febrile increasing temperature,
transfusion reaction? confusion, hemoptysis 138. Can blood be given No, it has to be warmed
immediately after removal first for only about 20 to 30
120. What are the signs of Hives- uticaria, wheezing,
from refrigeration? minutes.
symptoms of an allergic pruritus, joint pain, (arthralgia)
reaction to a transfusion? 139. With what solution & when Plain water, before & after
should a breast feeding mother each feeding
121. Give three reasons for a Restore blood volume
cleanse the areola?
blood transfusion secondary to hemorrhage,
maintain hemoglobin in anemia, 140. For a woman who doesn"t have Air drying of the nipples is
replace specific blood retracted nipples, is towel best
components drying or air drying better?

122. What does blood-typing Check for surface antigen on 141. The goal is for the infant to 20
mean? the red blood cell breast feed for __________
minutes per side.
123. When does typing and Whenever a client is to get a
cross matching need to be blood product. It is only good 142. How does the mother break the She inserts her little finger
done? for 24 hours. suction of the breast feeding into the side of the infant's
infant? mouth
124. What does blood cross Mixing a little of the client's
matching mean? blood with the donor blood and 143. When should the breast After feeding from each
looking for agglutination. feeding infant be burped? breast

125. When are hemolytic In the first 10 to 15 minutes 144. Assuming no mastitis, on Begin nursing on the side
transfusion reactions which side should the that the baby finished on
likely to occur? breastfeeding begin? the last feeding

126. When is a febrile reaction Within 30 minutes of beginning 145. How long can breast milk be 24 hours
likely to occur? the transfusion refrigerated?

127. What test identifies Rh Coombs test detects antibodies 146. How long can breast milk be 6 months
factor? to Rh frozen?

128. What is the difference Packed cells don't have nearly 147. In what type of container Sealed plastic bags
between whole blood and as much plasma or volume as should breast milk be stored?
packed cells? whole blood does 148. Can you microwave frozen Never
129. What would you do if the Call the MD because blood is breast milk in order to
client had an increasing often held with an elevated warm/thaw it?
temperature and was to temperature 149. Which two nutrients is breast Fluoride and iron
get blood? milk lower in?
130. How long should it take for From one hour to three hours
one unit of blood to infuse?
150. What should you Milk should come in postpartum day 3. 164. A third-degree burn is white White
tell a breast Breastrfeed every 2-3 hours to establish or red?
feeding mother good milk supply.
165. A third-degree burn is wet or Dry
about her milk
dry?
supply when she
goes home from 166. A third degre burn is hard or Hard
the hospital? soft?

151. Can a woman on Should not use OCP during the first 6 167. Of first, second and third Third degree burns, nerve
oral weeks after birth because the hormones degree burns which has less damage has occured
contraceptives may decrease milk supply. Estrogen is pain? Why?
breastfed? not recommended. Non-hormonal 168. For what purpose do you use To estimate the percentage
methods are recommended. Remember, the rule of nines? of body surface burned; is
breastfeeding is an unreliable NOT used for children.
contraceptive.
169. In the rule of nines, the head 9%, 9%
152. What is another Thromboangiitis obliterans and neck receive _______:
name for each arm receives_______.
Buerger's
disease? 170. In the rule of nines, the front 18%, 18%, 18%, 1%
trunk gets_____, the
153. Which extremities Lower only posterior trunk gets_____,
are affected by it? each leg gets ______ and the
154. Which sex does it Males genitalia gets________.
affect the most 171. What is the only IM given to a Tetanus toxoid- if they had a
often? burn patient? previous immunization;
155. The group with the Smokers tetanus antitoxin- if they
highest incidence have never been immunized
of Buerger's before (or immune globulin)
disease is 172. In the emergent phase do you Yes, with anything clean and
__________. cover burns? (in the field) dry.
156. Upon walking the Intermittent Claudication 173. Should you remove adhered No
patient with clothing?
Buerger's
experiences 174. Name the 3 phases of burn Shock, diuretic, recovery
_______ 175. Fluid moves from Bloodstream, interstitial
_________. the___________ to the space
157. What is Pain in calf upon walking _______ in the SHOCK phase.
intermittent 176. The shock phase lasts for the 24 to 48 hours
claudication? first ________ to ________
158. A first degree Red hours after a burn.
burn is pale or 177. During shock phase of a burn Increased, because of all the
red? is potassium increased or cells damaged- the K+ is
159. A first degree False decreased? Why? released from damaged cells.
burn has vesicles 178. What acid-base disorder is Metabolic Acidosis
(T/F)? seen in the shock phase of a
160. A second-degree Red burn?
burn is pale or 179. What is the #1 therapy in the Fluid
red? shock phase? replacement/resuscitation
161. A second-degree Shiny 180. What is the simple formula 3cc X Kg X % burned per
burn is dull or for calculating fluid day
shiny? replacement needs in the
162. A second-degree True first 24 hours?
burn has 181. If the MD orders 2,800 cc of Half (or 1,400 cc)
vesicles? (T/F) fluid in the first 24 hours
163. A Second degree- Wet after a burn, one-_____ of it
burn is wet or must be infused in the first 8
dry? hours.
182. What blood value will The hematocrit 197. How often should you measure Q5-15 minutes for bleeding
dictate IV flow rate? the vital signs, vaginal and maternal VS,
bleeding, fetal heart rate during continuous fetal
183. How will you know the The urine output will increase
Abruptio Placenta>? monitoring, deliver at
patient has entered the
earliest sign of fetal
fluid mobilization or
distress
diuretic phase?
198. How is an infant delivered Usually C-section
184. How long does the fluid 2 to 5 days
when Abruptio Placenta is
mobilization or diuretic
present?
phase of a burn last?
199. Is there a higher or lower Highter
185. In the diuretic phase, K+ Fall- remember diuresis always
incidence of fetal death with
levels fall or rise? causes hypokalemia
Abruptio Placenta compared to
186. If the nurse accidentally Pulmonary edema Placenta Previa?
runs the IVs at the shock
200. In what trimester does Abruptio Third
phase rate during the
Placenta most commonly
diuretic phase the patient
occur?
will experience?
201. At what age are accidental 2 years old
187. The burn patient will be on Hourly, weight
poisonings most common?
_______urine output and
daily __________. 202. If a child swallows a call medical help
potentially poisonous
188. Sulfamyon Burns
substance, what should be done
cream__________.
first?
189. Silver nitrate Stains, skin
203. Should vomiting be induced No- not for gas or any
cream___________ the
after ingestion of gasoline? other petroleum products
________.
204. When taking a child to the ER the suspected poison
190. Pain medications should 30 minutes, wound care
after accidental poisoning has
be administered _______
occurred what must accompany
before ________ care.
the child to the ER?
191. When using silver nitrate, Wet
205. An elderly client is a (high/low) high - due to poor
the dressings must be
risk for accidental poisoning? eyesight, high
kept __________.
What about a school age child?
192. What is Curlings ulcer? It is a stress GI ulcer, you get
206. What types of chemicals cause Lye, caustic cleaners
Why is it a problem in these with any severe physical
burns to oral mucosa when
burn patients? What drug stress. Tagamet, Zantac,
ingested?
prevents it? Pepcid (any H2 receptor
antagonist), Protonix Prilosec 207. Children at highest risk for drugs, insecticides
seizure activity after ingestion
193. In Abruptio Placenta, the Separates, prematurely
are those who have swallowed
placenta _______________
_____________ and
from the uterine wall
______________.
____________.
208. Can impaired skin integrity Yes, when lye or caustic
194. Abruptio Placenta usually Multigravida, 35 (HTN, trauma,
ever be an appropriate nursing agents have been ingested
occurs in (prima/multi) cocaine)
diagnosis when poisoning has
gravida over the age of
occurred?
____________.
209. What is the causative organism P. acnes
195. How is the bleeding of usually pain; bleeding is more
of acne? (propionibacterium acnes)
Abruptio Placenta voluminous in previa
different from that in 210. What structures are involved in The sebaceous glands
placenta previa? acne vulgaris?
196. If you are the nurse 18 (in preparation to give blood 211. Name 3 drugs given for acne? Vitamin A, Antibiotics,
starting the IV on the if necessary) Retinoids
client with Abruptia
212. Dietary indiscretions and False
Placenta, what guage
uncleanliness are causes of
needle should you use?
acne?
213. What are the 3 causative Heredity, Bacterial,
factors in acne vulgaris? Hormonal
214. Uncleanliness is a cause of False 232. A CD4 count of 500
acne? under
__________ is
215. What is the most common Accutane
associated with
retinoid given to people
the onset of
with acne?
AIDS-related
216. Accutane is an analog of Vitamin A symptoms.
which vitamin?
233. A CD4 count of 200
217. What is the most common Inflammation of the lips; under _______
side effect of accutane? Causes birth defects is associated
And what is most important with the onset
in health teaching in of opportunistic
adminstration? infections.
218. What is the antibiotic most Tetracycline 234. Give 6 Anorexia, fatigue, weakness, night sweats,
commonly given to clients symptoms of fever, diarrhea
with acne? HIV disease.
219. How long will it take for 4 to 6 weeks 235. Which 2 NRTI's (nucleoside reverse transcriptease
the person to see results classes of inhibitors) and PI's (protease inhibitors)
when acne is being drugs are given
treated? in combination They prevent viral replication.
220. Does stress make acne yes for HIV sero-
worse? positivity?

221. How often should the client twice a day 236. NRTI an antiviral drug used against HIV (is
with acne wash his face (nucleoside incorporated into the DNA of the virus and
each day? reverse stops the building process; results in
transcriptease incomplete DNA that cannot create a new
222. What instructions do you Take it on an empty stomach inhibitors) virus; often used in combination with other
give to a client taking and avoid the sunlight drugs)
tetracycline? (photosensitivity)
237. PI's (Protease most potent of antiviral meds, inhibit cell
223. What are comedones? Blackheads and white heads inhibitors) protein synthesis that interferes with viral
224. What virus causes AIDS? HIV - Human immunodeficiency replication, does not cure but slows
virus progression of AIDS and prolongs life, used
prophylactically, used in AIDS to decrease
225. The AIDS virus invades T-lymphocytes (or CD4 cells)
viral load and opportunistic infections
helper ____________.
238. What do NRTI's They prevent viral replication
226. AIDS is trasmissible blood, sexual contact, breast
and PI's do?
through what four routs? feeding, across placenta in
utero 239. What does the A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as
physician hope possible (usually can delay onset for 10-15
227. HIV is present in all body Yes, but not transmitted by all,
to achieve with years)
fluids? only blood, semen and breast
NRTI's and PI's
milk
for HIV?
228. Name the 5 risk groups for Homosexual/bisexual men, IV
240. What is the AZT (zidovudine)
AIDS drug users, hemophiliacs,
most common
heterosexual partners of
NRTI used?
infected people, newborn
children of infected women 241. What is the The number of pills that must be taken in
most 24 hours can be overwhelming. The
229. What is the first test for ELISA
challenging frequency also makes it hard to remember-
HIV antibodies?
aspect of an alarm wristwatch is used.
230. What test confirms the Western Blot combination of
ELISA? drug therapy
231. Which test is the best CD4 count for HIV
indicator of the progress of disease?
HIV disease? 242. Clients with lose
AIDS
(gain/lose)
weight?
243. The typical pneumonia of AIDS Pneumocystic carinii 263. Do people recover Yes, the vast majority of all clients
is caused by ___________ from AGN? recover completely from it
____________.
264. How can AGN be By having all sore throats cultured for
244. What type of oral/esophageal Candida prevented? strep and treating any strep
infections do AIDS patients infections
get?
265. What is the most Bedrest - they can walk if hematuria,
245. What is the #1 cancer that Kaposi's sarcoma important edema and hypertension are gone.
AIDS patients get? intervention in
treating AGN?
246. Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer skin
of the ___________. 266. What is the most Moderate sodium restriction. Fluid
common dietary restriction is #2 if edema is severe.
247. T/F: AIDS patients get True
restriction for AGN?
lymphomas?
267. What are the Hematuria
248. What lab findings are present Decreased RBC's, WBC's
urinaysis findings on Proteinuria +3 to +4
in AIDS? and platelets
AGN? Specific gravity Up
249. If the AIDS patient has protective (reverse)
268. How long after strep 2 to 3 weeks after initial infection
leukopenia they will be on isolation
infection does AGN
_____________
develop?
________________.
269. How do you assess Daily weight
250. Define Leukopenia decrease in wbc, indicated
fluid excess in the
viral infection
child with AGN?
251. Without leukopenia the AIDS Standard precautions or
270. What organism Group A beta hemolytic strep
patient will be on blood and body fluid
causes acute
____________ precautions. precautions
glomerular
252. When the AIDS patient has a bleeding precautions; No nephritis?
low platelet count, what is IM's, no rectal
271. What happens to the It becomes clogged with antigen-
indicated? temperatures, other
kidney in AGN? antibody complexes which then cause
bleeding precautions
inflammation and loss of function.
253. Does AIDS require a single Yes - if WBC counts are low
272. How often are vital Q4 hours with blood pressure
room?
sign measurements
254. When do you need a gown with If you are going to get taken in AGN?
AIDS? contaminated with
273. Will the client have Hypertension, because of fluid
secretions
hypo or hyper retention
255. When do you need a mask Not usually unless they tension with AGN?
with AIDS? have an infection caused by Why?
an airborne bug
274. What are the first Puffiness of face, dark urine
256. When do you need goggles Suctioning, central line signs of AGN?
with AIDS? start, arterial procedures
275. What are the three early adulthood, middle adulthood and
257. If an AIDS patient's blood 1:10 solution of bleach and adult stages of later adulthood
contaminates a counter top, water development called
with what di you clean?
276. What is the age 19 to 35 years of age
258. Are all articles used by AIDS no - only those range for early
patients double-bagged? contaminated with adulthood?
secretions
277. What is the age 35 to 64 years of age
259. Can AIDS patients leave the Yes, unless WBC's are very range for middle
floor? low adulthood?
260. Is dietary protein limited in Not usually, however if 278. What is the age 64 years of age to death
AGN? there is severe azotemia range for late
then it may be restricted adulthood?
261. Define azotemia? nitrogenous wastes in the 279. What is the Intimacy vs. Isolation
blood (increased creatinine, developmental task
BUN) for early adulthood?
262. What is the best indicator of The serum creatinine
renal function?
280. What is the Generativity vs. stagnation. 295. How long should the stump 12-24 hours
developmental task be elevated to prevent post
for middle adulthood? op swelling?
281. Intimacy vs. Isolation Erikson's stage in which individuals 296. How often should a stump be daily
form deeply personal relationships, washed?
marry, begin families
297. When a stump is wrapped, distally (far from the center),
282. Generativity vs. Erikson's stage of social the bandage should be proximally (neareast to the
Stagnation development in which middle-aged tightest _____________ and point)
people begin to devote themselves loosest _____________.
more to fulfilling one's potential and
298. If after a right BKA, the phantom limb sensation
doing public service
client c/o pain in his right (which is normal)
283. What is the Ego Integrity vs. Despair tow, he is experiencing
developmental task _____________.
for later adulthood?
299. When will phantom limb in a few months
284. Ego Integrity vs. (Erikson) People in late adulthood sensation subside?
Despair either achieve a sense of integrity of
300. Name ways to toughen a push the stump against the
the self by accepting the lives they
stump so it will not wall, hitting it with a pillow
have lived or yield to despair that
breakdown due to the wear
their lives cannot be relived
of the prosthetic leg?
285. "Time is too short to despair
301. An aneurysim is an widening (it is also weakening)
start another life,
abnormal _______________
though I wish I could,"
of the wall of a(n) artery.
is an example of
___________. 302. What artery is widened in a the aorta
thoracic aneurysm?
286. "If I had to do it over Ego Integrity
again, I'd life my life 303. An aneurysm can result infection, syphilis
just about the same," from an _____________ and
is an example of ____ from ____________.
____________ 304. The most common symptom a pulsating mass above the
287. What does AKA mean? Above the knee amputation of abdominal aneurysm is: umbilicus

288. What does BKA mean? Below the knee amputation 305. Which aneurysm is most the abdominal is most often
likely to have no symptoms? "silent"
289. If the patient had an prone (to prevent flexion
AKA they should lie contracture) 306. Which vital signs are most The pulse and blood pressure
____________ several important to measure in
times per day. clients with aneurysm?

290. The #1 contracture flexion, hip 307. An aneurysm will most the pulse (many times the
problem in AKA is affect which of the aneurysm will rupture and
____________ of the following, the blood much blood will be lost before
_____________ pressure or the pusle? the blood pressure starts to
change.
291. What will prevent hip Lying prone several times a day
flexion contracture 308. What activity order is the Bedrest. do not get these
after AKA? client with an aneurysm people up
supposed to have?
292. What is the #1 Flexion of the knee
contracture problem 309. If the client with aneurysm no, bedrest until the client is
after BKA? is physically unstable, stable!
should you encourage
293. How do you prevent Remide the patient to straighten
turning, coughing and deep
flexion contracture of their knee constantly while standing
breathing?
the knee after BKA?
310. What class of drugs is the Antihypertensives
294. To prevent post-op elevated
client with an aneurysm
swelling, the stump
most likely to be on?
should be
__________. 311. What is the BIG danger with Rupture, leads to shock and
aneurysms of any type? death
312. If an aneurysm is ruptured decreased LOC (restlessness), 328. Everyone with angina needs False
how would you know it? tachycardia, hypotension - all bypass surgery? t/f
signs of shock
329. Anorexics are usually females, 25
313. If an aneurysm ruptures Get them to the operating room __________ under the age of
what is the #1 priority? ASAP _____.
314. Is there anything that can Yes, if available you can get 330. The diagnosis is made when 15 (weigh < 85% of normal
be done for the client with them into antishock trousers there is a weight loss of body weight), hospitalize if
a ruptured aneurysm but not if this causes a delay in _______% or more of body 30% weight loss
before they get to the getting them to the operating weight.
operating room? room
331. A major mental/emotional Altered body image
315. The post op thoracic Chest tube, because the chest nursing diagnosis seen in
aneurysm is most likely to was opened anorexia nervosa is
have which type of tube? ___________.
316. The post op abdominal NG tube for decompression of 332. The pulse rate of anorexics is Bradycardic
aneurysm repair client is bowel tachycardic or bradycardic?
most likely to have which
333. List the most common amenorrhea
type of tube?
gynecologic symptom of
317. If you care for a client who check the distal extremity (far anorexia nervosa?
is post-op for a repair of a from center) for color,
334. What is found over the body of lanugo (soft downy hair)
femoral popliteal resection temperature, pain and PULSE,
the client with anorexia
what assessment must you also MUST document
nervosa?
make every hour for the
first 24 hours? 335. What is the top priority in the intake of enough food to
care of the client with anorexia keep them alive, have
318. What causes angina Decreased blood supply to
nervosa? them gain weight
pectoris? myocardium, resulting in
ischemia and pain 336. The best goal to evaluate the an adequate weight gain
progress of the client with
319. Describe the pain of crushing substernal chest pain
anorexia nervosa?
angina pectoris that may radiate
337. What is the apgar scale? quick objective way to
320. What drug treates angina Nitroglycerine
evaluate the vital
pectoris?
functions of the newborn
321. How do you tell if a client the pain of the two is similar,
338. When is apgar scoring at one minute and again at
has angina or an MI? the way to tell the difference is
performed on infants? 5 minutes after the birth
if nitro and rest relieve the pain.
For angina, nitro and rest 339. Name the 5 criteria that are Cardiac status, respiratory
relieve the pain, for MI, nitro recorded on an apgar scale effort, muscle tone,
and rest do not relieve the pain neuromuscular irritability,
and color
322. How many nitro tabs can 3
you take before you call 340. The total apgar score can range 0 to 10
the doctor? from

323. How many minutes should 5 minutes - take one nitro tab 341. The maximum score and infant 2
lapse between the nitro every 5 minutes 3 times, if no can receive on any one of the
pills you take? relief, call MD criteria is

324. By what route do you take sublingual 342. A 10 on the apgar means the in terrific health
nitro? baby is

325. What is the action of nitro? dilates coronary arteries to 343. A 0 on the apgar means the is stillborn
increase blood supply (O2 baby
supply) and reduces preload. 344. On heart rate or cardiac status, 100
326. What are the top 2 side headache and hypotension a 2 means that the HR is above
effects of nitro? _______ BPM.

327. What precaution must the wear gloves, nurse may get a 345. On the HR criteria an infant greater, less than
nurse take when dose of the med scores a "1" if their HR is
administering topical nitro _________ than 0 and
paste? ____________ 100
346. In order to score a 0 on HR the infant must Zero 359. Acrocyanosis Temporary cyanotic condition, usually in
have a rate of _________. newborns resulting in a bluish color
around the lips, hands and fingernails,
347. A high score of 2 is given for respiratory Cries
feet and toenails. May last for a few
effort if the newborn_____________. vigorously
hours and disappear with warming.
348. An infant is given a score of 1 if their Slow or
360. Apendicitis is an inflammation, obstruction
respirations are _______ or ________. irregular
_________ of the
349. An infant is given a score of 0 for They do not appendix due to
respiratory effort if __________. breathe __________.
350. In order to get a score of 2 on muscle tone Move 361. Apendicitis occurs 15 to 35
the infant must_________________. spontaneously most in what age
(actively) group?
351. To get a score of 1 on the APGAR for Flexion 362. What is the most Peritonitis
muscle tone the newborn must place their common
extremities in _______________. complication of
352. A newborn receives a score of 0 on muscle No movement appendicitis?
tone when there is__________ (limp) 363. Peritonitis inflammation of the peritoneum
353. To score the maximum of 2 points on Cry 364. What is the first right upper quadrant pain
nueromuscular reflex irritability the infant sign of
must ______________. appendicitis?
354. If the neonate ____________, they will Grimaces 365. What follows the N/V
score a 1 on neuromuscular irritability. RUQ abd pain of
355. To receive a 0 on reflex (neuromuscluar) No response appendicitis?
irritability the neonate must exhibit 366. Where does the RLQ
_______ pain of
356. To score a maximum score fo 2 on color Totally pink appendicitis finally
the child must be ____________. end up?

357. If the child's _______ are ______ and the Extremities 367. What is the name McBirney's point
trunk -face abdomen are ________, the are blue of the RLQ abd
child scores 1 on color (cyanotic), pain where
Pink appendicitis pain
finally localizes?
358. To get a 0 on color the infant is Totally blue,
pale 368. What is present Peritoneal inflammation
when rebound
tenderness is
present?
369. What is the hightes 102 F
that the temp will
be in appendicitis?
370. What blood count WBC
is elevated in
appendicitis?
371. What is the name Leukocytosis
for an elevated
WBC?
372. What is the only surgery - appendectomy
treatment
recommended for
appendicitis?
373. Before the client pain meds, enemas, laxatives, food!
with suspected NPO
appendicitis sees
the physician what
should be avoided?
374. To lessen pain place the client in fowlers (a sitting 392. What are the 3 most common N/V
___________ position. position) (also use post chemotherapeutic GI side effects? Diarrhea
op) Stomatitis (oral
sores)
375. Never apply __________ to the heat (it causes rupture)
area of the appendix. 393. Clients receiving chemotherapy must be False
NPO. (T/F)
376. After appendectomy, document in bowel sounds
the nurses notes the return of (peristalsis) 394. Is it permissible to give lidocaine True
__________ viscous ac (before meals) if the patient
has chemotherapeutic stomatosis? (T/F)
377. What is the primary dietary Low calcium diet
prescription for calcium 395. With what solution should the client H2O2 - hydrogen
nephrolithiasis? with chemotherapeutic stomatitis rinse peroxide
pc (after meals)?
378. For the client with calcium Acid
nephrolithiasis the diet should be 396. What lubricant can safely be applied to K-Y Jelly
_________ash. the cracked lips of chemotherapy
stomatitis?
379. If the kidney stone is calcium Phosphorous
phosphate the diet must be low in 397. Name the 3 hematologic side effects of Thrombocytopenia
_____ too. chemotherapy. Leukopenia
Anemia
380. The primary diet treatment for uric Low pruine
acid nephrolithiasis is _________ - 398. Which cells are low in Platelets
________. thrombocytopenia?
381. The client with uric acid Methionine 399. What drug should NOT be given to the ASA (aspirin)
nephrolithiasis should have a diet patient with chemotherapeutic
low in ___________. thrombocytopenia?
382. What is methionine? The precursor of the 400. When should the nurse WITHHOLD IM Only when their
amino acid cystine injections in the client on PLATELET count
(precursor = material chemotherapy? is down.
out of which something
401. What are the 3 objective Petechiae
is made)
symptoms/signs of thrombocytopenia? Epistaxis
383. Name two foods high in Milk, eggs Hint: P.E.E. Ecchymosis
methionine.
402. What is epitaxis? Nose bleeds
384. Clients with cystine Alkaline
403. What is ecchymosis? Bruising
nephrolithiasis should have a (n)
_________ ash diet. 404. What is petechiae? Small dot like
pinpoint
385. Increasing fluids to over 3000 cc True. It's more
hemorrhages on
per day is more effective in important to flush the
the skin.
treating renal calculi ( kidney urinary tract than worry
stones) than any dietary about what you're 405. What blood cell is low in leukopenia? White blood cells
modification. (T/F) eating. 406. When the Absolute Neutrophil Count 500
386. Neoplasm refers to benign and True ANC is below________ the person on
malignant tumors. (T/F) chemotherapy will be placed on reverse
isolation.
387. Which type of tumor is more Undifferentiated is
malignant? Differentiated or worse to have (highly 407. What is the #1 integumentary side effect Alopecia
undifferentiated? differentiated is better of chemotherapy?
to have) 408. What is alopecia? Hair loss
388. When cancer spreads to a distant Metastasis 409. The hair loss due to chemotherapy is True
site it is called? usually temporary? (T/F)
389. The cause of cancer is known. False 410. Can scalp tourniquets prevent In some cases,
(T/F) chemotherapy alopecia? yes
390. A person should have a yearly 40 411. Can ice packs to the scalp prevent In some cases,
work up exam for cancer detection chemotherapy alopecia? yes
over the age of __________.
412. CD ranks ________ among the leading Fourth
391. In general, cancer drugs have side GI cause of maternal death.
effects in which three body Hematologic (blood)
systems? Integumentary
413. What is the #1 cause of CD Rheumatic heart disease 428. What is the most common dietary Decreased
of pregnancy? modification for the woman with CD who sodium,
shows signs of decompensation? decreased water
414. Pregnancy requires a 30-50%
(restriction)
__________ increase in the
cardiac output. 429. Is a C-section mandatory for delivery of No
a woman with CD of pregnancy?
415. What is the #1 cause of Decompensation
maternal death in CD of 430. Second to rest, what is very important Weight control
pregnancy? treatment for CD of pregnancy?
416. What is meant by Failure of the heart to 431. How long must the woman with CD of At least one
decompensation? maintain adequate circulation. pregnancy be on bed rest after delivery? week
417. What will you see when you Distended neck veins -JVD 432. What nutrients should be supplied in the Iron
observe the neck of a client diet of the pregnant woman with CD? Folic acid
with CD of pregnancy?
Prevent anemia
418. What will you hear when you Murmurs
(anemia always
auscultate the heart of the
makes the heart
client with CD of pregnancy?
work more)
419. What will you hear when you Crackles-rales
433. What are the two most common SOB
auscultate the lungs of the
subjective complaints of the woman who Palpitations
client with CD of pregnancy?
is decompensating during labor?
420. If the client with CD of Sudden onset of SOB
434. In addition to the things you assess for in You must
pregnancy experiences (dyspnea).
every woman during labor, what assess lungs
sudden heart failure what is
additional assessment must you make sounds
the MOST common thing you
for a woman with CD? frequently
will see?
435. How often must you assess the lung Every 30 to 10
421. What is the #1 treatment of Rest
sounds during the first stage of labor? minutes
CD during pregnancy?
During active labor? During transition
422. What are the three most Diuretics labor?
common drugs given to Heparin
436. In which position should a woman with Semi recumbent,
women with CD in Digitalis
CD in labor be? HOB up
pregnancy?
437. The nurse should limit the client's efforts Bear down
423. Why are diuretics given to To promote diuresis which
to ________ ______ during labor when
women with CD of will:
CD is present.
pregnancy? -lower circulating blood
volume 438. What is the big danger to staff when Radiation hazard
-decrease preload caring for a client with cesium implant?
-decrease the amount of
439. What are the three principles to protect Distance
blood the heart pumps.
yourself from radiation hazard? Shielding
424. Why are anticoagulants To prevent thrombophlebitis Time
(heparin only) given to due to venous congestion,
440. Will the woman with a cesium implant Yes
women with CD of usually in legs.
have a foley?
pregnancy?
441. From where should the nurse provide The head of the
425. Why is digitalis given to To increase the strength of
care to the client with cesium implant? bed
women with CD of the heart and to decrease the
pregnancy? rate, rest the heart while 442. How can the woman with cesium implant Only from side
making it more efficient move in bed? to side

426. Can a woman with CD of Yes, in fact they should be 443. What four symptoms in a patient with a Profuse vaginal
pregnancy be given given analgesics, may get cesium implant should be reported to the discharge
analgesics during labor? too anxious which is bad for physician? Elevated temp
the patient Nausea
Vomiting
427. Can morphine be given to a Yes, even though it
woman with CD during negatively affects the fetus,
(these indicate
labor? remember morphine
infection and
decreases preload and pain
perforation)
which rests the heart.
444. Should pregnant staff care for No 462. What is the #1 symptom of cast Nausea and vomiting
a client with a cesium syndrome? due to bowel
implant? obstruction
445. Can the woman with a cesium Yes, only 45 degrees 463. What is the #1 treatment of cast NPO and NG tube for
implant have the HOB maximum syndrome? decompression
elevated?
464. A dry cast is gray or white? White
446. From where should the nurse The entrance to the room
465. A dry cast is dull or shiny? Shiny
talk to the client?
466. A dry cast is dull or resonant to Resonant
447. Is bed rest necessary when a Yes, absolute bed rest
percussion?
woman has cesium implant in
place? 467. Traction is used to _______ and Reduce and
_______ a fracture, relieve immobilize, muscle
448. What type of diet is this Low residue (decrease
________ _______ and prevent spasm; deformities
woman with a cesium implant bowel motility )
________.
on?
468. Can skin traction be removed for Yes
449. No nurse should attend the 1/2 hour
skin care?
client with a cesium implant
more than ____ per day. 469. Can the client be removed from No
skeletal traction?
450. What would you do if the Pick it up with forceps only
cesium implant came out? - never touch with hand 470. Name 3 types of skin traction Bucks
even if you are wearing Bryants
gloves. Pelvic

451. Should the nurse provide No, risk of radiation hazard 471. Name 3 types of skeletal traction Cranial tongs
perineal care for the client Thomas splints with
with a cesium implant? Peason attachments
90 degrees to 90
452. What part of your hand do you The palm
degrees
use to handle a wet cast?
472. What type of traction is most Bucks
453. Upon what do you support a Pillows (no plastic covers)
commonly used for hip fracture in
cast while it dries?
adults?
454. How long does it take a cast to 24 hours
473. What type of traction is most Bryants
dry?
commonly used for hip fractures in
455. Should you cover a wet cast? No children?
456. Should you use a heat lamp or No heat lamp and hair dryer 474. In what position should the bed be Semi-fowlers with knee
hair dryer or fan to help dry a Yes fan if the patient is in pelvic traction? gatched
cast?
475. To insure that Bryant's traction is Off the bed enough to
457. What signs or symptoms would Numbness working the child's hip/sacrum slip a hand between
you report if they were present Tingling should be _________ the sacrum and the
after cast application? Burning bed.
Pallor
476. What is the advantage of balanced You can easily move
Unequal or absent pulses
counteraction? the patient around in
Unequal coolness
bed
458. If there is inflammation under Hot
477. Patients in Russell's traction are Thrombophlebitis
a cast, it will be evident in a
particularly prone to
_______ spot.
____________.
459. To prevent irritation of the skin Petaled
478. When a patient is in a Buck's Unaffected
near the edges of a cast the
traction they may turn to the
edges should be
_________ side.
____________.
479. Define cataract Opacity of the
460. What type of cast causes cast A body cast
crystalline lens
syndrome?
480. Is surgery done immediately upon No, they usually wait
461. What causes cast syndrome? Anxiety and stress leading
diagnosis of cataract? until it interferes with
to sympathoadrenal shut-
ADLs .
down of the bowel
481. What three most Cloudiness 493. What are the three signs of Pain (moderate to
common visual Diplopia (double vision) increased intraocular pressure? severe)
defects occur with Photophobia (sensitivity to light) Restlessness
cataract? Increased pulse rate
482. What are the two Laser, surgical removal. Surgery called 494. What is the major objective in To prevent pressure
common intraocular or extraocular lens extraction caring for a client after surgical in or on the eyes
treatments of cataract removal?
cataract?
495. When the lens is to be extracted for Mydriatics
483. What does the eye Cloudy, milky-white pupil cataracts, what drugs are given Dilators
look like when a preoperatively? Antibiotic drugs (gtts)
client has
496. What three drugs are given post- Stool softeners
cataracts?
operatively for surgical cataract Antiemetics
484. What will the A protective patch/shield on the removal? Analgesics (mild to
client be wearing operative eye for 24 hours, then a metal moderate)
after cataract shield (AT NIGHT only) for 3 weeks
497. Give five causes of catarcts? Injury
surgery?
Congenital
485. When the client If an introcular lens is implanted they will Exposure to heat
asks about the NOT need glasses. If no lens is Heredity
use of glassess or implanted, then contacts will be fitted for Age
contacts after 3 months post-op, temporary thick
498. Celiac's disease is a __________ Malabsorption
cataract surgery glasses given immediately but will get a
disease
what would you different prescription in 2 to 3 months
say? 499. The client with celiacs cannot Gluten
tolerate___________.
486. What will be a Safety
high priority 500. Gluten is a __________. Protein
nursing diagnosis 501. What does gluten do to the It destroys the lining
for a client post intestines of the client with celiac's of the intestine.
cataract surgery? disease?
487. Should the client No the patient should not ambulate 502. The stools of a client with celiac's Large
ambulate independently, depth perception is disease are ______, ______ and Greasy
independently altered. _____- _____. Foul-smelling
after cataract
surgery? 503. Clients with celiac's disease do not Iron
absorb what mineral?
488. What positions Lying face down. Also, do not lie on
are to be avoided operative side for a month. 504. Clients with celiac's disease don't Fat soluble vitamins
after cataract absorb fats; therefore they don't
surgery? absorb _____ ______ ______.

489. What are the post- Severe pain 505. What are the four fat-soluble A,D,E,K
operative signs of Restlessness vitamins?
hemorrhage into 506. Malabsorption of which vitamin Vitamin K, remember
the eye? leads to bleeding disorder? do not mix up
490. What movements Coughing potassium with
are to be avoided Sneezing Vitamin K
after cataract Bending at the waist 507. What will the abdomen of clients Distended with flatus
surgery? Straining at stool with celiac's disease look like?
Rubbing or touching eyes
508. What is the #1 treatment of celiac's Gluten-free diet
Rapid head movements
disease?
491. What positions Do not lie on operative side; do not lie
509. Veggies are allowed or not allowed Allowed
are okay after on back
in diet of client with Celiac's
cataract surgery?
disease?
492. Should you use No, it may cause sneezing; also should
510. Fruits are allowed or not allowed? Allowed
talcum powder avoid pepper.
with a post- 511. Grains of all kinds are prohibited. False
operative cataract (T/F)
client? 512. What grains are allowed in a gluten- Rice and corn
free diet?
513. What grains are not allowed Wheat 532. Obesity increases risk of CVA True
in a gluten-free diet? Oats (T/F)
Rye
533. Smoking increases the risk of True
Alfalfa
CVA. (T/F)
Barley
534. Atrial fibrillation increases the True, emboli particularly
514. Are foods made with wheat, No
risk of CVA (T/F)
oat, or rye flour allowed?
535. What is a TIA? Transient Ischemic
515. Is milk allowed on a gluten- Yes
Attack
free diet?
Warning sign of
516. Are meats allowed on a Yes, but watch for breaded impending CVA (transient
gluten-free diet? meats and hot dogs/lunch neurologic deficits of any
meats- may have grain in kind can last 30 seconds
them and are not allowed to 24 hours)
517. Are eggs allowed on a Yes 536. Do patients experiencing a CVA Yes
gluten-free diet? have a headache?
518. Is commercial ice cream No, even though it is a milk 537. The first sign of CVA is usually Change in LOC
allowed on a gluten-free product, commercial ice a___________.
diet? cream has GRAIN in it.
538. The activity order in early Absolute Bed Rest
519. Are puddings allowed on a No, for the same reason ice management of CVA is
gluten-free diet? cream isn't. __________.
520. Which soups are not allowed Creamed soups- these often 539. The patient with a recent CVA is Restricted
on a gluten free diet? have flour most likely to have fluids
restricted or forced?
521. The #1 problem with central Infection
lines ___________ 540. How far should the HOB be up 30 degrees
after CVA?
522. How often should central QOD- every other day
line dressings be changed? 541. Can the stroke victim be turned Yes
side-to-side?
523. What type of dressing is Sterile occlusive
applied to a central line 542. How often should the CVA patient Every 2 hours
insertion site? be turned or repositioned?
524. Can drugs be piggybacked No, use another lumen. 543. The CVA patient should be turned False, the patient should
into central --TPN? onto his paralyzed side no longer not be on their paralyzed
than 2 hours. (T/F) side for more than 20
525. When changing central line Turn his head away from the
minutes.
tubing the patient should be site, hold breath, and perform
told to_________? the Valsalva maneuver 544. ROM exercises should occur False-- every 4 hours or
every 2 hours in CVA patients. 3 times a day is enough
526. If a central line is found Left side
(T/F)
accidentally open the patient
should be positioned on his 545. To prevent urinary incontinence; False- remember
______ ______. the CVA patient should be incontinence will never
catheterized. (T/F) be allowed as a reason
527. A CVA is a __________ of Destruction; blood flow and
for catheterization
the brain cells due to oxygen
decreased _____ _____ and 546. Which type of paralysis is typical Hemiplegia
______. of CVA- paraplegia, hemiplegia
or quadriplegia?
528. Women have a Lower
(higher/lower) incidence of 547. What anatomical fact accounts The motor-pyramidal-
stroke than men? for the left side of the body being tracts cross over to the
controlled by the right brain? other side (decussate in
529. Name the three types of CVA Embolus
the medulla)
Thrombus
Hemorrhage 548. If the patient has right Right arm and right leg,
hemiplegia, he cannot move his left
530. Use of oral contraceptives True
____ ____ and ____ ____ and the
increases the risk of CVA
stroke was on the _________
(T/F).
side of the brain.
531. Chronic abuse of alcohol False
increases risk of CVA. (T/F)
549. What is hemianopsia? Not being able to see one half of 563. Cytoxan cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystitis
the field of vision.
564. Cisplatin Peripheral neuropathy,
550. The client with Scan constipation, ototoxicity
hemianopsia should be
565. Bleomycin Pulmonary fibrosis
taught to ____________.
566. Adriamycin Cardiotoxicity
551. What is scanning? Moving the head from side to side
to see the whole field of vision. 567. Vincristine Peripheral neuropathy
(foot drop, numbness and
552. If the client has right Right
tingling, hoarseness, jaw
homonymous
pain)
hemaniopsia, the food on
constipation (adynamic
the ____ side of the tray
ileus due to neurotoxicity)
may be ignored.
568. DTIC- dome Flu-like symptoms
553. After meals, the nurse Mouth (cheek), food
must always check
Chemo-therapeutic Agent
_______ of the CVA
Toxicities
client for _________.
569. Methotrexate Toxic to just about every
554. Should a CVA patient Side rails yes. Restraints- no,
organ except to heart,
have all four side rails unless they are a danger to
toxicity made worse with
up at all times? Should themselves or others
aspirin
they be restrained?
570. The infant fears _________ Separation from love
555. When a patient does not Receptive
most when hospitalized. object
understand INCOMING
language he is said to 571. The toddler fears _______ most Separation from family
have ______ aphasia. when hospitalized.

556. When the CVA client Expressive 572. The preschooler fears Mutilation- remember
understands your separation as well as preschoolers have vivid
question but can't _________ when hospitalized. imaginations...fantasy
respond verbally 573. The toddler and preschooler Something they did wrong.
correctly, he is said to will think that illness is caused
have ___________ by_____________.
aphasia.
574. The school-aged hospitalized Age group
557. What is global aphasia? Both receptive and expressive child is afraid of separation
558. Aphasia is most common Dominant from ___________.
if the stroke occurred in 575. The school-aged child perceives External, she knows that
the (dominant/non- the cause of illness to to be illness is not a result of
dominant) hemisphere of external or internal? bad behavior.
the brain.
576. The adolescent who is Peers, independence
559. How do you tell which It is the side that controls their hospitalized fears separation
side of the person's dominant hand, ie, a left handed from _________ and loss of
brain is dominant? person has a dominant right ___________.
hemisphere and conversely a
right hand person has a dominant 577. Preschoolers may require True
left hemisphere physical restraint during painful
procedures. (T/F)
560. For which type of Receptive
aphasia are slow, short, 578. Which age group engages in School-Age
simple directions most stalling tactics before painful
useful? procedures most?

561. For which type aphasia Expressive 579. Which age groups are most School-age, adolescents
is careful listening and likely to physically resist the
needs anticipation most nurse during procedures?
useful? 580. Toddlers may require physical True
562. The loss of the ability to Apraxia restraint for painful procedures.
perform purposeful, (T/F)
skilled acts, ie brushing
teeth, is called
__________.
581. The meats that are highest in Organ meats 603. What is cleft palate? The roof of the mouth is open to
cholesterol are _________ liver, heart, brains, the nasopharynx.
meats. kidneys
604. Is it possible to have Yes, you can have one or or the
582. The meats that are second Shell seafood- shrimp, only one: cleft lip or other or both
highest in cholesterol are the crab, lobster cleft palate?
___________
605. When will the cleft lip Between 10 weeks and 6 months
583. Egg white is (high/low) in Low be repaired?
cholesterol?
606. When is cleft palate Between 1 and 5 years of age
584. Egg yolk is (high/low) in High repaired?
cholesterol?
607. Why is cleft lip Feeding is easier after repair and
585. The three meats lowest in Chicken, pork, mutton repaired early? appearance after repair is more
cholesterol are _________, acceptable to parents.
_________ and __________.
608. Describe the nipples on Large-holed, soft nipples
586. Milk is (high/low) in cholesterol. Low bottles used to feed
babies with cleft lip?
587. Is cheese high in cholesterol? Only moderate, not really
that high 609. The infant with cleft Bubbling, burping
lip/palate needs more
588. Which oils are high in Animal oils
frequent ___________.
cholesterol?
610. Children with cleft An almost upright position
589. Is cholesterol a triglyceride? No
lip/palate should be fed
590. Do plant foods contain any No, not many in what position?
cholesterol?
611. What is the #1 Aspiration
591. What is otitis media? Chronic complication of cleft
infectious/inflammatory lip/palate?
disease of the middle ear
612. Children with cleft lip hearing
592. Is otitis a disease of the adult or Usually the child and cleft palate have speech
child? long-term problems teeth
593. What part of the ear is involved Middle ear _____, _____ and
in otitis media? _____.

594. What are the 2 common Hearing loss 613. In how many surgeries Two surgeries
subjective signs of otitis media? Feeling of fullness in the is cleft palate one at 12 to 18 months
ear repaired? the last at 4 to 5 years

595. What are the 2 common objective Hyperpyrexia (fever) 614. Why is final repair of Earlier surgery would interfere with
signs of otitis media? Drainage from ear the palate delayed until tooth development.
4 to 5 years?
596. What commonly happens Perforation of the ear
secondary to otitis media? drum 615. How are cleft lip and Surgical repair
cleft palate primarily
597. Do all the children with otitis No treated?
media need tubes in their ears?
616. Is the infant restrained No, just AFTER repair
598. What are the two most common Systemic antibiotics BEFORE repair?
medical treatments for otitis Antibiotic ear drops
media? 617. Should children with Yes, they can cry; may breast feed
cleft palate BEFORE with simple cleft lip however palate
599. What is the most severe Meningitis or mastoiditis surgery be allowed to interferes with feeding
complication of otitis media? cry? To breast-feed?
600. What is cholesteatoma? An epidemial cyst in the 618. AFTER repair of cleft No, the infant should be held to
ear highly associated lip is infant allowed to PREVENT CRYING; the infant is
with otitis media. cry? To breast feed? not allowed to breast-feed because
601. What are the restrictions to be No swimming, no sucking is not good after lip repair.
followed when tubes are in a showering, no diving 619. After clep lip repair, A Logan bow
child's ear? what device will the
602. What is cleft lip? The lip is open to the baby wear?
nares 620. What is the purpose of To prevent stress on the suture
a Logan Bow? line
621. With what device will the Elbow restraints 637. By what day post-op should By the 3rd to 4th day, they
infant be restrained? the client begin to take care of should be looking at it and
their own stoma? asking questions by day 2.
622. How do you care for an infant Remove the gauze before
with a Logan Bow? feeding and cleanse after 638. The MORE colon is removed Liquid
feeding with peroxide and the more _________ the stool.
saline.
639. What technique is used to Colostomy irrigation
623. Can cleft lip /palate babies Yes remove feces and flatus from
sleep on their backs? the bowel through a
colostomy?
624. What position is NEVER lie on their abdomen
contraindicated after cleft lip 640. How many times per day will Once
repair? the client irrigate his
colostomy?
625. What will be used to feed the A dropper/syringe with rubber
infant after cleft lip repair? tip to discourage sucking 641. Which solution is used to Tap water
irrigate a colostomy?
626. What must the mother do Rinse the infant's/child's
after feeding the baby who mouth with water 642. How warm should the Warmer than body
has had cleft lip/palate irrigation solution be? temperature, ie, 99-100F
repair?
643. In what position should the Sitting
627. What is a colostomy? A surgically created opening client be when they irrigate
of the colon out onto the their colostomy?
abdomen wall.
644. Illeostomy liquid stool
628. Name the 3 most common Cancer odor mild
reasons for a colostomy. Diverticulitis stool very damaging to the
Ulcerative Colitis skin
continuous drainage
629. What is meant by the term A colostomy that is not
high risk for fluid/electrolyte
"temporary colostomy"? intended to be permanent--
imbalances
the bowel will be reconnected
incontinent
at a later date and the client
never irrigate
will defecate normally
645. Transverse Colostomy soft stool
630. What is meant by the term A procedure where the colon
typical stool odor
"double barrel" colostomy? is cut and both ends are
stool damages the skin
brought out onto the
empties several times per
abdomen.
day
631. Colostomies performed for Permanent may or may not be at risk
cancer tend to be for fluid/electrolytes
(temporary/permanent). imbalances
632. Colostomies performed for a Temporary may irrigate
gunshot are usually 646. Descending Colostomy formed stool
(temporary/permanent) typical stool odor
633. In a double-barrel colostomy, Proximal stool doesn't irrigate unless
from which stoma (barrel) diarrhea
will the stool come out? predictable 2 to 3 times per
day emptying
634. A fresh new stoma is Red, large, noisy lowest risk for
_________, __________ and fluid/electrolyte imbalances
__________. continent
635. When a client voices The noise will go away in a do irrigate
embarrassment over the few days to a week. 647. CHF can be right-sided, left True- left sided usually
noises that their colostomy sided or both-sided. (T/F) comes FIRST
makes on the first post-op
day, what would you say?
636. What behavior on the part of When they do their own
the client is the BEST stoma care
indicator that they have
accepted their stoma?
648. What does right sided Right ventricle has 662. What daily measurement best indicates Daily weight
CHF mean? decompensated the amount of fluid the client is
retaining?
Dependent Edema (legs and
663. Should clients with CHF have a Foley Yes, on diuretics
sacrum)
catheter? and fluid balance
Jugular venous distention
is important
Abdominal distention
Hepatomegaly 664. What complication is common in CHF? Pulmonary edema
Splenomegaly 665. When the client is taking diuretics, Potassium--K+
Anorexia and nausea what mineral is the CHF client most
Weight gain likely to lose?
Nocturnal diuresis
Swelling of the fingers and hands 666. You should tell the client with CHF to Three
Increased BP immediately report to his/her doctor if
he/she gains _____pounds in one week.
649. What does left sided CHF Left ventricle has
mean? decompensated 667. Name the four most common toxic Anorexia
effects of digitalis. N&V-- very
650. CHF can result from MI. True common
(T/F) Yellow vision
651. When cardiac output Ventricle hypertrophy Arrythmia
fails, name three ways Dilate and heart rate will increase 668. Should hearing aids be removed before Yes, but just
the heart will try to going for surgery? before surgery
compensate.
669. Hearing aids are more useful in Conductive
652. What is meant by It means that the compensatory sensory or conductive hearing loss?
"cardiac mechanisms - hypertrophy,
decompensation"? dilation, tachycardia are not 670. Some women experience discomfort True
working and the heart has failed. when wearing contact lenses during
pregnancy or menstrual periods. (T/F)
653. Name the three groups of Diuretics
drugs used to treat CHF? Vasodilators 671. Should a client sleep with the hearing No, a client should
Digitalis aide in place? not sleep with a
hearing aide in
654. What is the activity order Bed Rest place.
for clients with CHF?
672. What the two most common causes of Loose earmold
655. What special item do TED hose whistling and squealing of a hearing Low battery
clients with CHF have to aid?
wear to decrease venous
stasis in the legs? 673. What solution should be used to clean a Soap and water
hearing aid?
656. How often should anti- Daily
embolism hose (TED) be 674. What solution is best to use if you Sterile saline
removed? intend to remove a client's contact
lenses?
657. When during the day Before the client gets out of bed
should TED hose be 675. Hearing aids make sounds more False, they only
applied? distinct and clear. (T/F) amplify--make it
louder, they do not
658. Is it okay to use powder Yes clarify
with TED hose?
676. Can you use alcohol on the earmold of No, it dries and
659. Should you massage the Never a hearing aid? cracks it
calves of the client with
CHF? 677. The connecting tube of a hearing aid A pipe cleaner
can be cleansed with__________.
660. Before you give digitalis, Measure the apical pulse
what action must you 678. What is the most common complication Corneal ulceration
take? of malpositioned lenses in the
comatose or confused patient?
661. If the adult client's apical Do not give digitalis
pulse is below 60, what For a child don't give for a pulse 679. 1 kg 1000 cc
should you do? under 70 680. 1 inch 2.5 cm
For an infant don't give for a
681. 1 ml 1 cc
pulse under 90
682. 1 tsp 4 to 5 cc
683. 1g 1000 mg 706. Cushings Man aka Cush Man moon face with infection
buffalo hump on back
684. 1L 1000 cc
big trunk
685. 1 oz 30 cc thin extremities
686. 1 kg 2.2 lbs loses potassium
keeps glucose and salt
687. 1 tbs 15 cc has striations on abdomen
688. 1 tbs 3 tsp and breasts
689. 1 gm 15 gr 707. Is CF hereditary? Yes

690. 1 gr 60 mg 708. What glands are affected in Exocrine glands

CF?
691. Cushings syndrome is Oversecretion;
__________ secretion of glucocorticoids, 709. What is the appearance of the Fat
_______, _______ and _______ mineralocorticoids, stool in a client with CF? Frothy
_______ by the _______ _______. androgenic hormones; remember the 4 Fs Foul-smelling
adrenal gland Floating
Steatorrhea
692. In Cushings the blood sugar is Increased
(increased/decreased). 710. What are the top 2 nursing Decreased airway clearance
diagnoses for a client with Alteration in nutrition or
693. In Cushings the sodium level is Increased
CF? absorption
(increased/decreased)
711. What is the classic test for Iontophoresis - sweat test
694. In Cushings syndrome, the client Moon
CF?
develops __________ face.
712. In which two systems/organs Lungs
695. In Cushings syndrome, the trunk Obese, thin
are the most problems in CF? Pancreas
is ________ and the extremities
are _________. 713. How does the client evaluate Observe stools for
the activity of their pancreas? steatorrhea
696. What is seen on the abdomen of Striae--purple horizontal
the patient with Cushings? lines 714. What is the typical diet for CF High calorie
client? High protein
697. Men with Cushings Gynecomastia
Modified fat
develop______________.
715. The major problem in CF is Increased viscosity of the
698. What is gynecomastia? Female-type breasts
_______________. secretions of exocrine
699. Women with Cushings develop? Hirsutism glands lead to obstruction.
Amenorrhea
716. The most common Postural drainage
700. What is hirsuitism? Hair where you don't intervention for the CF client
want it with a diagnosis of decreased
701. The Cushings syndrome patient Buffalo hump airway clearance is
will have a _________ on their _________________.
upper back. 717. What vitamins need to be Fat soluble in water soluble
702. The patient with Cushings Increased, remember replaced in CF? form -- A,D,E,K
Syndrome will have retaining water and 718. What do CF clients need to do Take NaCl tablets
(increased/decreased) blood sodium (ingest) in hot weather?
pressure.
719. The child with the diagnosis Meconium ileus-- bowel
703. The Cushings syndrome patient Hyper; hypo; hyper of CF probably had a history obstruction due to the
will have ________ natremia, of _________ ________ at thickness of the stool.
_________kalemia and birth.
_______glycemia.
720. Why is the child with CF They are enzymes which aid
704. Cushings clients will have Decreased receiving absorption of nutrients.
(increased/decreased) resistance pancreas/viokase/pancreatin?
to infection.
721. When should the child with CF With meals, so it is in the
705. Chronic _____________therapy Steroid take his gut while the food is
imitates Cushings. pancreatin/viokase/pancreas? present, the whole purpose
is to increase absorption of
ingested food.
722. Define Cystoscopy? Direct visualization of the 742. Side effects of a high fiber diet Gas (flatus),
urethra and bladder include__________ and minerals
through a cystoscope. malabsorption of ____________.
723. What would you do if the client Record it but no need to 743. Of milled bread, enriched bread, Whole grain
had any one of the following call the MD fortified bread and whole grain
after cystoscopy: bladder bread; which is highest in fiber?
spasm, burning, frequency?
744. What structures in the brain are Basal ganglia
724. What would you do if the client's Record it in the notes, no most affected in Parkinson's?
urine was pink-tinged after need to call the MD.
745. The neurotransmitter imbalance that Decrease, dopamine
cystoscopy?
causes Parkinson's is a ______ in activity
725. Is the client NPO before No, not unless a child with ______ ______.
cystoscopy? a general anesthetic-- in
746. What drugs can cause a Parkinson- Haldol, major
fact with adults you
like syndrome? tranquilizers -- drugs
should encourage fluids.
that end in -azine
726. Are enemas required before No, but may be ordered.
747. What is the classic motor Pill-rolling and
cystoscopy?
manifestation of Parkinson's? tremors
727. Should you encourage fluids yes
748. What type of rigidity is typical of Cogwheel
after cystoscopy?
Parkinson's?
728. Is a signed informed consent Yes
749. Parkinson's patients move fast or Slow
required for cystoscopy?
slow?
729. What vital sign changes are A fall in the blood
750. What type of gait is seen in Shuffling slow gait
most ominous after cystoscopy? pressure and increase in
Parkinson's?
the pulse-- increasing
hemorrhage 751. Patient's with Parkinson's have Monotone
______ speech.
730. Is the client sedated for a It is done under LOCAL
cystoscopy? anesthesia. General 752. Patients with Parkinson's tend to Constipation
anesthesia may be used have constipation or diarrhea?
for a child. 753. Name four drugs used to treat Levodopa, Sinement,
731. What drugs are most commonly Valium or demerol Parkinson's. Symmetrol, Cogentin,
given before cystoscopy? Artane, Parlodel

732. Increasing dietary fiber lowers Cancer, colon 754. In what type of chair should Firm, hard-backed
the risk of ___________ of the Parkinson's patients sit?
__________. 755. What time of day can be particularly Mealtime, due to
733. Foods lose some or all of their Processed, cooked, dangerous for the Parkinson's choking
fiber when they are peeled, refined patient?
___________. 756. When a patient is taking Levodopa he Of orthostatic
___________,____________ should have assistance getting out of hypotension
or__________. bed because...
734. Whole grains and grain products High 757. What vitamin should patients on B6 pyridoxine
are (high/low) in fiber. Levodopa avoid?
735. Fruits are (high/low) in fiber. High 758. Levodopa should be given with or With
736. Veggies are (high/low) in fiber. High without food?

737. Milk and milk products are Low 759. What might Levodopa do to patients Make it very dark
(high/low) in fiber. urine?

738. Meats are (high/low) in fiber. Low 760. The tremors of Parkinson's will get Better, they tremor
better or worse when they more when not
739. Nuts, seeds, and legumes are Low
purposefully move or perform a performing an action
(high/low) in fiber.
task?
740. Which has highest fiber? Grains, especially bran
Grains, fruits, veggies, nuts.
741. When a person increases fiber Slowly
in the diet they should do
so____________.
761. The client on a PCA pump True, because the comfortable 777. Can nurses be held liable for yes
is less likely to have patient moves around more and an accident resulting from a
post-operative is less likely to get client not being told how to
complications than the thrombophlebitis, pulmonary use the call light?
client without a PCA embolus, fatigue, ileus and
778. Dangers associated with Circulation of micro-
pump. (T/F) pneumonia
drafts are... organisms on air currents
762. Clients with COPD are not True, due to the effects of
779. The first thing a nurse should Explain why they are being
good candidates for PCA narcotics on central respiratory
do when a client objects to used.
pumps. (T/F) control
side rails is...
763. Name the three most Post-operative pain, cancer
780. The comfort range of 68 to 74 degrees
common uses of PCA pain, sickle-cell crisis pain
temperature is...
techniques.
781. Is having the client verbally No, only identification bands
764. PCA pumps allow a more True
identify himself considered are acceptable.
constant level of serum
adequate safety?
drug than conventional
analgesia. (T/F) 782. Bed side rails should be up Elderly clients, unconscious,
for the following babies, young children,
765. A major disadvantage of False, it is not possible for the
individuals... restless, confused
PCA pump is that the client to overdose due to the
client can take too much lock-out feature 783. The symptoms of sensory Fear, panic, depression,
medication. (T/F) overload and sensory inability to concentrate,
deprivation are... restlessness, agitation
766. Clients on PCA pumps use False, they use less
more medication than 784. If a family member asks to Remember that you are
those receiving IM have the side rails down responsible for the client's
injections. (T/F) while they are in the room safety-- not his family, it
you should... might be unwise to permit
767. A disadvantage of PCA False, PCA clients ambulate
this
pumps is that the client earlier and they pull their
does not ambulate as machine with them. 785. Pillows are sterilized False
early due to the machine. between uses. (T/F)
(T/F) 786. What is the common name Lice
768. When discontinuing a PCA False, the whole cartridge for pediculosis?
infusion it is acceptable system must be returned to the 787. What is the common finding Reddish-brown dust in the
to discard the drug pharmacy due to federal with pediculosis pubis? underwear
cartridge. (T/F) narcotic control laws.
788. What common household Vinegar. Nits are the eggs of
769. Comfort range or relative 30-60% solution is used to remove lice that adhere to the hair
humidity is... nits? shaft
770. Which patients should be Those with oxygen in the room, 789. What shampoo is used for Kwell
forbidden to smoke? confused, sleepy, drugged lice?
Smoke alone? clients
790. Where are head lice most At the back of the head and
771. When applying restraints Avoid bruising skin, cutting off commonly found? behind the ears
remember to... circulation, accidental entangling
791. On what do lice feed? Blood
772. List ways to ensure Use drapes and screens during
privacy... care in semi-private rooms 792. After treatment how long do Inspect for 2 weeks to be
you have to inspect for lice? sure that they are all gone
773. Plastic pillow cases are Hot and slippery
______. (disadvantages) 793. What is the most common Itching
symptom of lice?
774. When using restraints False imprisonment
with clients who object, 794. What is the most dangerous CNS toxicity
don't forget about _____- toxicity of Kwell?
_____. 795. What is the typical of the Foul-smelling, blisters break
775. Individuals who are ill are more lesions of pemphigus? easily, seen in the elderly,
________ sensitive to cause unknown
noise than individuals 796. What is the characteristic Large vesicular bullae
who are well. lesion of pemphigus?
776. When you are not at the In the lowest position 797. What are bullae? Large blisters
bedside the bed should
always be...
798. What chemical Potassium permanganate 809. When PD is being used the False, you do not need to be
is added to the client must be on heparin. heparinized for peritoneal, but
bath water of a (T/F) you do need to be
client with heparinized for hemodialysis
pemphigus?
810. How long does one Could be 10 hours
799. What Be careful that no undissolved crystals episode/course of PD last?
precaution touch the client; it will burn the skin
811. With PD there is a high/low High
must be taken
risk of peritonitis?
with potassium
permanganate? 812. When fluid accumulates in Dyspnea - SOB or difficulty
the abdomen during PD what breathing, due to the inability
800. What is the Cool wet dressing
problem does the client of the diaphragm to descend
typical skin
experience first?
care of
pemphigus? 813. What nutrient is lost in Protein
highest amounts during PD?
801. What unusual Alteration in fluid and electrolyte balance
nursing 814. Can a client who had recent No
diagnosis is bowel surgery get PD?
high priority in 815. Should a client who is No
pemphigus? having breathing problems
802. What are the Oral care, protection from infection, receive PD?
top three encouraging high fluid intake 816. What body surface must be The abdomen
nursing punctured to administer PD?
interventions
in pemphigus? 817. The solution introduced into Dialysate
the peritoneum during PD is
803. What kinds of Cold fluids called...
fluids will
clients with 818. Before allowing the dialysate Warmed, body
pemphigus to flow into the peritoneal
drink best? cavity it must be _____ to
_____ temperature.
804. What drugs are Steroids
most 819. Before PD it is important the Weighed, to assess water
commonly client be... loss or gain
used? 820. What force is used to Gravity only, no pumps
805. Should Always introduce the dialysate into
steroids be the peritoneum?
given with 821. How fast does the dialysate In 10 minutes
meals? usually flow into the
806. What is the #1 Overwhelming infection peritoneum?
cause of death 822. How long is the dialysate 15-30 minutes
in pemphigus? allowed to remain in the
807. Pemphigus An acute or chronic disease of adults, peritoneum before it is
characterized by occurence of successive drained out?
crops of bullae that appear suddenly or 823. How long does it usually 10 minutes: (10 minutes flow
apparently normal skin and disappear, take for the dialysate to in, 30 minutes in abdominal
leaving pigmented spots. It may be drain out of the peritoneum? cavity, 10 minutes flow out =
attended by itching and burning and total of 50 minutes)
constitutional disturbance. The disease if
824. If the dialysate does not Have them turn side to side
untreated is usually fatal. A characteristic
drain out well, you would
finding is a positive Nikolsky sign: When
first...
pressure is applied tangential to the surface
of affected skin, the outer layer of 825. What color is the dialysate Straw-colored - clear
epidermis will detach from the lower layer. when it comes out?
(Probably autoimmune) 826. Should you raise the HOB to Yes
808. Peritoneal The removal of wastes, electrolytes and increase drainage of the
Dialysis (PD) fluids from the body using peritoneum as dialysate?
dialysis membrane
827. How often do you measure vital Every 15 minutes 846. How long must the client For the rest of life
signs during PD? during the first cycle receive this medical
and every hour treatment?
thereafter
847. Can we cure pernicious No, just treat the symptoms.
828. Can a client on PD: Sit in a chair? Yes to all anemia?
Eat? Urinate? Defacate?
848. What unique urine test is The Schilling test
829. If too much fluid is removed Decreased blood done to diagnose
during PD, the client will pressure (hypotension) pernicious anemia?
experience...
849. Is it okay to give B12 No, it will never be absorbed due
830. If the client absorbs too much of Increased blood orally to a client with to a lack of intrinsic factor
the dialysate the client will pressure (circulatory pernicious anemia?
experience... overload)
850. What neurologic test do The Romberg test (a test for
831. If the client complains of dyspnea Slow the flow, elevate they do for this anemia? balance), in normal people this
during PD you would first HOB test is negative, in the client
__________, then __________. with pernicious anemia this test
becomes positive
832. If the client complains of Encourage them to
abdominal pain during PD you move about 851. What is conservation? In When the child realized that
would first... what stage does it number, weight, volume remain
develop? the same even when outward
833. Cloudy drainage in the dialysate Peritonitis (Not good,
appearances change; Concrete
commonly means... call MD)
Operational
834. What would you do if you noticed a Nothing, this is normal:
852. What is the age range of 12-15
small amount of blood come out in the blood is due to the
formal operation
the first few bottles that were initial puncture of the
thinking?
infused? abdomen
853. What is the sensori-motor It is the intellectual stage of
835. What precautions are important in Safety, because they
stage of intellectual children from birth to 2 years
the care of the client receiving get dizzy.
development?
PD?
854. What is the age range of 7-11
836. Is I&O important to record during Yes
concrete operational
PD?
thinking?
837. How high should the dialysate bag Shoulder height
855. What is the age range of 3-6
be when its infused?
pre-operational thinking?
838. What factor do clients with Intrinsic factor. It has Hint: Think of PRE-
pernicious anemia lack? no other name. schoolers.
839. What vitamin is not absorbed in a Vitamin B-12 856. What is the classic Abstract reasoning
patient with pernicious anemia? pattern in formal
840. What is another name for Vitamin Extrinsic factor operational thinking?
B-12? 857. What is egocentricity? In The child views everything from
841. Why isn't Vitamin B-12 absorbed in Because these patients what stage is it found? his frame of reference, common
pernicious anemia? lack intrinsic factor in pre-operational thinking

842. What happens when patients with Their RBC's do not 858. In Placenta Previa the Lower, cervical os
pernicious anemia don't absorb mature and they placenta is implanted
Vitamin B-12? become seriously _______ than it should be
anemic. and lays over the
________ ________.
843. What other disease can be Angina pectoris
confused with pernicious anemia? 859. What is the classic Painless 3rd trimester bleeding
symptom of Placenta (hint: Painless Placenta Previa)
844. What are some classic and unique Beefy red tongue Previa?
signs of pernicious anemia? Numbness and tingling
of the hands 860. In whom is Placenta Multigravidas
Sores in the mouth Previa most likely to
Chest pain occur? Primigravida's or
multigravida's?
845. What is the medical treatment for IM injections of Vitamin
pernicious anemia? B-12
861. What is meant when the Total or complete: placenta 876. What procedure is done Phlebotomy
physician/nurse use the terms covers whole cervical to relieve symptoms in
total (complete) or partial opening polycythemia vera?
(incomplete) in reference to Partial or incomplete:
877. What is phlebotomy? Drain off 200-500 cc of blood from
placenta previa? placenta covers only part
body (opposite of transfusion).
of the cervical opening
878. What type of diet will Low iron
862. What are the 3 complications of Shock
people with
placenta previa? Maternal death
polycythemia vera be
Fetal death
on?
863. What is the best and safest way Ultrasound
879. What are three signs of Headache
to confirm placenta previa?
polycythemia vera? Weakness
864. Should a woman with placenta Yes, always if bleeding Itching
previa be hospitalized?
880. Is hemoglobin Increased
865. If a surgeon delays doing a C- Immaturity of the fetus increased or decreased
section for Placenta Previa it (they will want the child to in this disease?
is due to: (reason for delay). mature)
881. What oral problem will Bleeding mucous membranes
866. As soon as Placenta Previa is True people with
diagnosed, most pregnancies polycythemia vera
will be terminated via C- have?
section if the fetus is mature.
882. What organ will be The spleen, because it is
(T/F)
enlarged in destroying the excessive RBC's.
867. If a woman is admitted with Continuously via fetal polycythemia vera?
active bleeding with Placenta monitor
883. Due to increased Uric acid levels will be high
Previa you should monitor fetal
destruction of RBC's (remember - uric acid levels are
heart tones _________.
seen in polycythemia always high when cells are being
868. It is not necessary to use False, infant must always vera what blood level destroyed as in hemolysis,
electronic fetal monitoring be monitored will be increased? chemotherapy or radiation therapy)
when there is active bleeding
884. What drug is most Myleran -- (this is usually used for
in Placenta Previa. (T/F)
commonly used in bone marrow cancer)
869. Will a woman with active No, they don't want to polycythemia vera?
bleeding in Placenta Previa be depress the fetus
885. How often should the Every 2 hours
given any systemic pain relief
client cough and deep
during labor?
breath post-
870. If you were told to start the IV 18 gauge, or any other operatively?
on the woman admitted for large enough to administer
886. How often should the Every 2 hours
Placenta Previa, what gauge blood
post-operative patient
needle would you use?
turn?
871. Pneumonia is an ______ in the Infection, alveoli, lungs
887. How often should the Every 1-2 hours
______ of the ______.
patient use the
872. Pneumonia is only caused by False, it can be caused by incentive spirometer?
bacteria. (T/F) viruses and aspiration.
888. How often should the Every 4 hours
873. Which blood gas disorder is Respiratory alkalosis, nurse auscultate the
most common in pneumonia? because the lung sounds post-
hyperventilation blows off operatively?
more CO2, than the
889. How often should the Every 2 hours
consolidation traps in the
bedridden post-
blood
operative patient do leg
874. What is polycythemia vera? A blood disease in which exercises?
there is an increase in
890. The post-operative 6 to 8
erythrocytes, leukocytes
patient should void by
and platelets
_____hours post-
875. What is the typical complexion Ruddy red, almost purple operatively or you
of a client with polycythemia must call the MD.
vera?
891. Will the typical post- Lung - yes; bowel sounds - no; 909. ec- Out of
operative client have lung Low grade temperature - yes
910. e-; ex- Out from, away from, outside
sounds? Bowel sounds?
Increased temperature? 911. iso- A combining form meaning
'equal'
892. Unless contraindicated the 24
patient should be out of 912. para- Similar, beside
bed no later than ______ 913. Pregnancy Increases
hours post-operatively. (decreases/increases) the
893. Deep vein thrombosis is Low abdominal or pelvic body's insulin requirements.
most common in what type 914. Can pregnancy convert a Yes
of surgery? non-diabetic woman into a
894. The most common Pulmonary embolism diabetic?
complication of deep vein 915. What name is is given to Gestational diabetes
thrombosis _______ diabetes that is brought on
________. by pregnancy?
895. The best way to prevent False, ambulation/exercise are 916. Diabetes with pregnancy is More
thrombophlebitis is TED the best ways. (more/less) common as the
hose. (T/F) woman ages.
896. What is paralytic ileus? Paralysis of the bowel due to 917. What is the #1 cause of Hypoglycemia
surgery (common --especially in infant illness when the
abdominal surgery) mother has diabetes?
897. If a post-operative patient Assess then ambulate 918. When is infant hypoglycemia In the hours immediately
complains of gas and most likely to occur during following delivery
cramping you should first labor and delivery?
_______ then ________.
919. Hormones of pregnancy True
898. The typical post-operative 99.8 to 101 degrees work against insulin. (T/F)
inflammatory temperature
elevation is in the range of 920. A sign of gestational Weight gain
________. diabetes is excessive
(weight gain/weight loss)
899. The onset of post operative 2nd or 3rd, never before that
infection is on the ______ (remember elevated 921. (Obese/very thin) women are Obese
or ______ day post- temperatures earlier than the most likely to become
operative day. 2nd post-operative day is NOT diabetic during pregnancy.
infection) 922. In gestational diabetes the Increase (polydipsia)
900. Define dehiscense Separation of the incisional client experiences a
edges (decrease/increase) in thirst

901. Define evisceration Protrusion of abdominal 923. In gestational diabetes the Increase (polyuria)
contents through a dehiscence. client experiences a
(decrease/increase) in urine
902. What do you do for Decrease HOB (but not flat); output.
dehiscence? cover with sterile gauze
moistened with sterile saline, 924. Gestational diabetes is Previous large baby (over 9
call MD associated with what OB lbs), unexplained stillbirth,
history? miscarriage, congenital
903. What do you do, in order, Decrease HOB (but not flat); anomalies
for evisceration? cover with sterile gauze
moistened with sterile saline, 925. Women who have gestational Large for gestational age
call MD diabetes tend to deliver
infants who are
904. ante- Before in time or place (ie. (small/large).
"antepartal - before giving birth)
926. Gestational diabetics tend to Monilial (yeast)
905. Im-; in- "Not" or "into" get ________ infections.
906. intra- Occurring within 927. What test confirms the 3 hour glucose tolerance test
907. inter- Between diagnoses of gestational
diabetes?
908. per- Throughout, completely, a large
amount
928. What are the two main treatment Diet, insulin 948. What measurement must the She must weigh herself
methods in gestational diabetes? woman with pre-eclampsia make
every day?
929. How often should a woman visit the Twice a month, then
doctor prenatally if diabetes is once per week in the 949. What is the activity order for a Left side lying
present? 3rd trimester woman with severe pre-
eclampsia?
930. How many pounds per week is the 1 pound a week
diabetic allowed to gain the 2nd 950. What is the dietary order for the Low salt, high protein
and 3rd trimesters? woman with severe pre-
eclampsia?
931. Is severe carbohydrate restriction No, it could lead to
required in gestational diabetics? ketosis 951. Are diuretics used for women with Yes
pre-eclampsia?
932. Of protein, fat, and carbohydrates, Protein, fat
which ones (percent-wise) increase 952. When a woman is hospitalized for #1 reflexes, the urine
in the diet of gestational diabetics? severe pre-eclampsia the nurse for protein
should test...
933. When is insulin used in the When dietary control
treatment of gestatinal diabetes? does not keep the 953. When pre-eclampsia gets worse Hyper-reflexia
blood sugar within the deep tendon reflexes will be
normal limits (hyper/hypo) reflexia.
934. If insulin is used, the dose is the False, it varies 954. Pre-eclampsia makes the More
same in all 3 trimesters. (T/F) neuromuscular system more or
less irritable?
935. Oral hypoglycemics should never True, they cause birth
be used during pregnancy. (T/F) defects (teratogenic) 955. What vision problem do women Blurred vision
with pre-eclampsia have?
936. When should a diabetic be Between 37 and 39
delivered? weeks 956. What types of precautions will be Seizure precautions
in effect for a woman with severe
937. What IV solution is used during D5W
pre-eclampsia?
labor for the diabetic?
957. Name 5 things included in seizure Suction machine in
938. The mother's insulin requirements Fall
precations. room O2 in room
will (fall/rise) markedly after
Padded rails up X 4
delivery.
Must stay on unit
939. During pregnancy what ketosis Ambulation with
complications is most dangerous supervision only
for the fetus of a diabetic? No More than 1 pillow
940. If ketosis is a big problem for the Hypoglycemia 958. When is pre-eclampsia called Once convulsions have
baby during pregnancy what the big eclampsia? occured
problem after delivery?
959. In eclamptic client what ominous Severe epigastric pain
941. Why is hypoglycemia such a Brain cells die without sign almost always precedes a
dangerous problem? glucose, brain damage seizure?
942. (Multi/prima) gravida clients are Primagravida 960. What are the three major treatment Decrease blood
most likely to get PIH. objectives in eclampsia? pressure
943. Which age group(s) are most likely Patients under 18 and Control convulsions
to experience PIH? over 35 Diuresis

944. When does pre-eclampsia usually After 20 weeks 961. The urine output of the eclamptic Decrease
begin in pregnancy (week)? client will (decrease/increase).

945. Name the three symptoms of PIH. Hypertension, weight 962. How would you palpate the uterus Place the hand flat on
gain (edema), to see if the eclamptic woman was the abdomen over the
proteinuria having contractions? fundus with fingers
apart and press lightly
946. If pre-eclampsia is mild will the No, just rest at home
woman be hospitalized? 963. Premature rupture of membranes Spontaneous, before,
(PROM) is a ________ break in the onset
947. What type of diet is indicated for a Increased amniotic sac __________ the
woman with pre-eclampsia? protein/normal salt _________ of contractions.
intake (no restriction
typically) 964. Usually labor starts within 24
________hours of rupture
membranes.
965. What is the danger with PROM? Infection 984. Flight of ideas is when the patient Rapidly
changes topics of
966. How would you tell if the woman Maternal fever
conversation______.
with PROM had an infection? Fetal tachycardia
Foul smelling vaginal 985. The basis for a therapeutic Nurse's, awareness,
discharge nurse/patient relationship begins self understanding
with the ______, self______ and
967. To test amniotic fluid the nurse pH
______ _______.
should check the ________ of the
fluid. 986. What are the steps of the Pre-interaction phase
nurse/patient therapeutic Orientation phase
968. Amniotic fluid is (acidic/alkaline) Alkaline
relationship? Working phase
969. Being alkaline means have a High Termination phase
(high/low) pH
987. Should the nurse self-disclose if No, not unless it is
970. Amniotic fluid turns nitrazine Blue the patient asks the nurse to? specifically
paper deep _________ (color). therapeutic.
971. When PROM occurs, the age of L/S 988. The nurse should introduce Orientation
the fetus must be determined. The (lecithin/sphingomyelin) information about the end of the
best way to assess lung maturity nurse/patient relationship during
is to check the ________ ratio. the _____phase.
972. An L/S ratio greater than 2.0 989. Termination phase begins in the Orientation
_______indicates lung maturity. _______phase.
973. If labor does not begin within 24 990. Pulmonary edema is accumulation Fluid
________ hours after PROM, labor of _______in the lung.
will likely be induced.
991. Pulmonary edema is a common Cardiovascular
974. If PROM occurs before viability, Termination of complication of ______disorders.
what is the typical management? pregnancy
992. Pulmonary edema usually results Left ventricular
975. If PROM occurs after viability but Hospitalize, watch for from ______ failure.
before 36 weeks, what is the infection, try to gain
993. What force causes the pulmonary Increased hydrostatic
typical management? time for the infant to
edema in left ventricular failure? pressure in the
mature
pulmonary capillaries
976. If there are any signs of infection Delivery of fetus
994. Can letting IVs run too fast cause Yes in the client with
after PROM, what must occur
pulmonary edema? poor cardiovascular
immediately?
function
977. PROM always occurs in a gush of False
995. What are the four classic signs of Dyspnea on exertion,
fluid. (T/F)
pulmonary edema? paroxysmal nocturnal
978. The woman must avoid sexual True dyspnea, orthopnea,
intercourse if PROM has coughing
occurred. (T/F)
996. What is meant by dyspnea on Shortness of breath
979. What does self-disclosure mean? When the nurse tells the exertion? when active.
patient personal
997. What is meant by paroxysmal Sudden episodes of
information about self.
nocturnal dyspnea? difficulty breathing
980. Is it always bad for the nurse to No, you can self-
998. What is meant by orthopnea? Shortness of breath
self-disclose? disclose as long as you
when lying flat
do it cautiously and you
are 100% sure it is 999. Is heart rate fast or slow in Fast, tachycardia
therapeutic. pulmonary edema?
981. If the nurse uses self-disclosure Short, quickly refocused 1000. What will the nurse auscultate Crackles (rales)
it should be ______ and the back on the patient over the lungs when pulmonary
conversation should be... edema occurs?
982. Insight means the ability of the Understand 1001. When pulmonary edema is severe Bloody and frothy
patient to ________his problem. what does the sputum look like?
983. During what phase should the Pre-interaction phase 1002. What drug is used in pulmonary A diuretic (Lasix)
nurse examine his/her own edema to reduce fluid in the
feelings? lungs?
1003. What drug is used to Aminophylline 1020. Name the anitcoagulant Heparin
increase ventilation in (bronchodilator) given for immediate
clients with pulmonary anticoagulation by IV or
edema? SQ route.
1004. Is O2 given in pulmonary Yes 1021. A drug for long term Coumadin
edema? anticoagulation in any
disorder would be?
1005. Since pulmonary edema is Digitalis
caused by left ventricular 1022. What two lab tests monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and the
failure what drug is given? coumadin therapy? INR
1006. Why is morphine given to To decrease apprehension 1023. When coumadin is 2.0 and 3.0
clients with pulmonary and decrease preload, this therapeutic, the INR
edema? rests the heart should be between
_______ and _______.
1007. If your client suddenly goes Elevate the HOB, then
into pulmonary edema what increase O2, then call the 1024. What is lovenox? It is a low-dose Heparin used
would you do first? MD for anticoagulation in POST-OP
THROMBOPHLEBITIS
1008. Pulmonary embolus is an Capillary, thrombus
PREVENTION NOT USED FOR
obstruction of the pulmonary
PULMONARY EMBOLUS
______ bed by a dislodged
_______ or foreign 1025. Heparin therapy is PTT (partial thromboplastin
substance. monitored by daily time)
measurement of the
1009. Where do the emboli that The legs
_______.
cause pulmonary embolus
usually come from? 1026. Effective heparin therapy 2.5
rises the PTT to
1010. Besides a thrombus what Air, fat, tumor cells
approximately _______
else can cause an embolus
times normal.
in the lung?
1027. Clients on heparin should Electric razor
1011. What treatment modality can Bed rest
use an electric razor or
lead to pulmonary embolus?
safety razor?
1012. What class of drugs can lead Oral contraceptives
1028. What is the best way to Early ambulation
to pulmonary embolus?
prevent pulmonary
1013. What heart problem can lead Atrial fibrillation (RIGHT atrial embolus in post-operative
to pulmonary embolus? fibrillation casues pulmonary patients?
embolus; LEFT atrial
1029. Is it appropriate to No, never
fibrillation causes cerebral
massage the legs of the
embolus)
client to preven pulmonary
1014. What genetic disorder can Sickle cell anemia embolus?
lead to pulmonary embolus?
1030. Heparin is used in the Coumadin
1015. What is the first sign of Dyspnea acute phase of pulmonary
pulmonary embolus? embolus. What drug is
1016. The dyspnea of pulmonary Pleuritic pain used for 6 months after
embolus is accompanied by pulmonary embolus?
____ _____. 1031. Coumadin therapy is PT (prothrombin time)
1017. Does the heart rate increase Increase monitored by what daily
or decrease in pulmonary test?
embolus? 1032. What is pyelonephritis? A bacterial infection of the
1018. With severe pulmonary In Shock kidneys
embolus the client will look 1033. Which organism causes E. Coli
as though they are pyelonephritis?
__________.
1034. Name the symptoms that Frequency, urgency, burning,
1019. What are the two major O2, anticoagulants pyelonephritis and cystitis cloudy, foul smelling urine
treatments of pulmonary have in common?
embolus?
1035. What medical intervention IV antibiotics for one to two 1054. What do you see during and after Peristaltic waves from
is necessary in weeks, must get urine culture feeding? left to right
pyelonephritis? 2 weeks after antibiotic
1055. Is vomiting projectile or non- Projectile, not bile-
therapy is over
projectile in patients with pyloric stained
1036. How does pyelonephritis Cystitis means bladder stenosis? Is the vomiting bile-
differ from cystitis in infection; pyelonephritis stained or not bile-stained?
meaning? means an infection of kidney
1056. What assessment finding is found An olive sized bulge
pelvis
under the right rib cage? (the hypertrophied
1037. What causes or precedes Cystitis always does pylorus)
pyelonephritis?
1057. The symptoms of pyloric stenosis 4 to 6 weeks
1038. Will the client with Yes, as would any client with mostly commonly appear at age
pyelonephritis have daily kidney problem ______ to _____.
weights?
1058. Describe the typical child with Firstborn, full term,
1039. Name the five Fever, flank pain, chills, pyloric stenosis. white, boys
signs/symptoms that increased WBC, malaise
1059. For what reason are Montgomery Permit you to remove
pyelonephritis has that
straps used? & replace dressings
cystitis does not have?
without using tape
1040. What is the BIG danger Permanent scarring and (protects the skin)
with pyelonephritis? kidney damage
1060. Sutures in general are removed by 7th
1041. How is pyelonephritis By preventing or treating all the ___ day.
prevented? cystitis (UTI's)
1061. Leaving a would open to air Dark, warm, moist
1042. Will the client with It is common but not always decease infection by eliminating
pyelonephritis have present what 3 environmental conditions?
hematuria?
1062. To remove tape always pull Toward (this way you
1043. The patient with Hypertension (toward/away) from the wound. don't put pressure/pull
pyelonephritis will have on the suture line.)
(hypertension/hypotention)?
1063. Define contusion. Bruise (internal)
1044. Where is the pyloric At the distal (duodenal) end of
1064. Define debridement. Removal of necrotic
sphincter? the stomach
tissue from a wound.
1045. What does stenosis mean? Narrowed
1065. What is the purpose of a wound Remove secretions
1046. What is done to correct Surgery (pyloromyotomy) drain? from the area so
pyloric stenosis? healing occurs.
1047. In what position should the High fowlers 1066. To prevent germs from getting into An occlusive dressing
child with Pyloric Stenosis or out of a wound you should use
be during feeding? what type of dressing?
1048. The feedings for an infant Thickened 1067. What solution is put onto the skin Tincture of benzoin
with pyloric stenosis to protect it from the irritating
should be thick or thin? effects of the tape?
1049. What test is done to Upper GI series (barium 1068. With what is a round closed in first Sutures or steri-
confirm a diagnosis of swallow) intention? strips, staples
pyloric stenosis?
1069. What is another name of second Granulation
1050. These infants are prone to Dehydration, thrive intention?
develop ______ and failure
1070. When swabbing an incision you Start at the incision
to ______.
would start at the incision or 1 and move outward.
1051. Why does the pyloric valve It hypertrophies Inch away from the incision?
become stenosed in pyloric
1071. After you remove soiled dressings Wash your hands and
stenosis?
and before you put on the sterile put on sterile gloves
1052. In what position should a Right side with HOB up dressing you must....
child with pyloric stenosis
1072. What is meant be the phrase You pull the drain out
be after a feeding?
"advance the drain 1 inch"? 1 inch.
1053. The infant with pyloric Hungry
1073. After advancing a Penrose drain Should
stenosis appears ______
you (should/should not) cut off the
even after vomiting.
excess drain?
1074. When a dressing saturated, True, by a process called 1094. How many hours 23
germs can enter the wound capillary action a day should the
from the outside. (T/F) client wear a
Milkwaukee
1075. When is a bad time to change Mealtime
brace?
dressings?
1095. What solution Tincture of benzoin or alcohol,no lotions
1076. Define laceration. Cut
should be used of ointments-you want to toughen the
1077. Scoliosis is a ______ Lateral, spine on the skin skin not soften it
curvature of the ______. where the
1078. Scoliosis is MOST common in Thoracic and lumbar brace rubs?
the _______ and 1096. Clients with a True
______ sections of the spinal Milwaukee brace
column. should avoid
1079. Scoliosis in the thoracic spine Right vigorous
is usually convex to the exercise. (T/F)
(left/right). 1097. After corrective Log rolled (in a body cast)
1080. Scoliosis in the lumbar spine Left (*Hint: curve Left in SURGERY how is
is usually convex to the Lumbar) the client turned?
(left/right). 1098. How often should Every 2 hours
1081. With which other two spine Kyphosis (humpback), the
deformities is scoliosis Lordosis (swayback) neurovascular
associated? status of the
extremities of a
1082. What is Kyphosis? Humpback in the thoracic client in a Risser
area cast be
1083. What is Lordosis? Swayback in the lumbar measured? Fresh
region (Lumbar, Lordosis) post-operatively?
1084. What is the difference between Structural-you are born 1099. What is a Cast syndrome
structural and with; Functional-you get common
functional scoliosis? from bad posture complication of a
client in a body
1085. What age group should be Young teens
cast (like a
routinely screened for
Risser cast)?
scoliosis?
1100. What is cast Nausea, vomiting and abdominal
1086. What are the 3 subjective Back pain, dyspnea,
syndrome? distention that can result in intestinal
complaints of clients with fatigue
obstruction
scoliosis?
1101. What group of ANYONE in a body cast
1087. What test/exam CONFIRMS the X-rays of the spine
people get cast
diagnosis of
syndrome?
scoliosis?
1102. What is the Removal of the cast, NG tube to
1088. What type of brace is most Milwaukee
treatment of for decompress, NPO
commonly used for
cast syndrome?
scoliosis?
1103. How would you, Ask the client if they are experiencing
1089. Name 4 exercises used to treat Heel lifts; sit-ups;
the nurse, any abdominal symptoms-keep track of
mild scoliosis. hyperextension of the
assess for bowel movements & passing flatus (if
spine; breathing exercises
developing not having BMs or passing flatus, cast
1090. What kind of treatment is done Surgical fusion with rod cast syndrome? syndrome is suspected)
for severe scoliosis? insertion
1104. What causes cast Hyperextension of the spine by a body
1091. What type of cast is used post- Risser cast syndrome, cast: the hyperextension interrupts the
operatively? specifically in a nerve & blood supply to the gut
1092. What kind of rod is used to Harrington Rod Risser
"fix" curvature? cast?

1093. Scoliosis MOST commonly Teenage females

affects _____ _____
(type of clients).
1105. The inheritance Autosomal recessive 1118. What activity order will Bed rest
pattern of sickle-cell the client with sickle cell
anemia is _____ CRISIS have?
_____.
1119. Or Tylenol, Morphine, Aspirin-it can cause acidosis
1106. What does It means you only have 1 defective Demoral, Aspirin which is which makes the crisis and
heterozygous mean? gene from 1 parent. NEVER given to a sickle- sickling worse
cell patient?
1107. People who are Heterozygous
(hetero/homo) have 1120. At what age is death most Young adulthood
sickle cell likely in sickle cell
trait. anemia?
1108. What does It means you have the defective 1121. Sickle-cell anemia 6; fetal hemoglobin
homozygous mean? gene from both parents. symptoms do not appear
before
1109. People who are Homozygous
the age of ____ months
(hetero/homo)zygous
due to the presence of
have sickle cell
_____ ______.
disease.
1122. Sickle cell anemia is most Blacks
1110. People with sickle True-usually it has occurred that in
commonly seen in
cell TRAIT only times of SEVERE stress, the TRAIT
(blacks/whites).
carry the disease, does cause some symptoms but not
they DO NOT have usually. 1123. Should a child in sickle- No, it can occlude vessels
symptoms. (T/F) cell crisis wear tight even more.
clothes?
1111. What are the #1 and Hypoxia, dehydration
#2 causes of sickle 1124. Spinal cord injuries are True
cell crisis? more common in males.
(T/F)
1112. The most common Vaso-occlusive
type of crisis that 1125. In what age range is 15 to 25
occurs is a spinal cord injury most
______-______ common?
crisis.
1126. The #1 goal in emergency Immobilization of the spine
1113. In vaso-occlusive Abnormal RBC's treatment of spinal cord
crisis the vessels injury is...
become
1127. When halo traction is Ambulate
occluded with
being used to immobilize
______ ______.
the
1114. The abnormal Hgb S-it "sickles" spinal cord the client is
hemoglobin allowed to _______.
produced by people
1128. When the patient with Absolute bed rest
with
spinal cord injury is in
sickle cell anemia
tongs or
is called Hgb
on a stryker frame or on a
______.
circoelectric bed they are
1115. What shape does Crescent-shaped on......
Hgb S make the
1129. The 2 most common Laminectomy and spinal fusion
RBC's?
surgeries used to treat
1116. Why do the They clump together and create a spinal
crescent-shaped sludge. cord injury are ____ and
RBCs cause ______.
occlusion
of the vessels?
1117. What are the top 3 Oxygenation, hydration, and PAIN
priorities in care of control
the client with
sickle-cell crisis?
1130. What is spinal It is a common occurrence in spinal cord 1139. How should you change Slowly, because of severe
shock? injury in which the spinal cord swells the position of the orthostatic hypotension (they use
above and below the level in injury spinal cord a tilt table)
injury patient after he
1131. When does Immediately or within 2 hours of injury
has an order to be up?
spinal shock
Why?
occur?
1140. For the patient with Every 6 hours
1132. How long does 5 days to 3 months
neurogenic bladder you
spinal shock
should
last?
straight catheterize
1133. When the spinal C1 to C8 every ____ hours.
cord injury is
1141. The patient with spinal Spastic
at level of
cord injury will have
_____ to
(flaccid/spastic)
_____ the
muscles.
patient will be
a quadriplegic. 1142. Name 3 drugs used to Valium, Baclofen, Dantrium
treat spasms.
1134. When the spinal C1 and C4
cord injury is 1143. What is automatic A common complication of
between _____ dysflexia or quadriplegics in response to a fulle
and hyperreflexia? bladder or bowel.
_____, there is
1144. What are the vital sign Sweating, headache, nausea &
permanent
changes seen in vomiting, gooseflesh, and severe
respiratory
autonomic HYPERtension
paralysis.
dysreflexia?
1135. Can the patient Yes, because even thought his injury was
1145. What do you do first Raise HOB
with spinal below C4, spinal shock can lead to loss
for the client
cord injury at function above the level, however the will
experiencing
C7 level have not be permanently ventilator dependent-
autonomic dysreflexia?
respiratory he will breath on when once spinal shock
arrest? goes away. 1146. What do you do Check the bladder, check the
secondfor the client bowel
1136. Spinal cord Paraplegia
experiencing
injury in the
autonomic dysreflexia?
thoracic/lumbar
regions result 1147. Do you need to call the No, only call the doctor if draining
in ___plegia. doctor for autonomic the bladder & removing impaction
dysreflexia? does not work
1137. If airway Modified jaw thrust
obstruction 1148. What is the #1 Drain the bladder, empty the bowel
occurs at the treatment for
accident site autonomic dysreflexia?
and 1149. What is the purpose of To prevent headache due to CSF
you suspect restricting activity loss
spinal cord after spinal
injury, what tap?
maneuver is
used to open 1150. Should the client drink Yes, encourage fluids to replace
the airway? after a spinal tap? CSF

1138. In spinal cord Move, hyperextend 1151. Do you need an Yes

injury never informed consent for a
______ the spinal tap?
neck. 1152. Should CSF contain No
blood?
1153. Does the client have to No
be NPO before a spinal
tap?
1154. What is the normal Clear, colorless
color of cerebrospinal
fluid?
1155. Into what space is Subarachnoid space 1174. Portal of entry Part of the body where organisms
the needle inserted (Define) enter
during a spinal
1175. Contaminate (Define) To make something unclean or
tap?
unsterile
1156. Can the client turn Yes
1176. Surgical asepsis Practices that render & keep objects
side-to-side after a
(Define) & areas free from all micro-organisms
spinal tap?
(synonym for sterile techniques)
1157. In what position Lateral decubitus (on their side)
1177. Medical asepsis Practices that help reduce the
should the client position and knees to chest
(Define) number & spread of micro-organisms
be during a spinal
(synonym for clean techniques)
tap?
1178. Spore (Define) A cell produced by a micro-organism
1158. Identify the activity Lie flat for 6 to 12 hours
which develops into active micro-
restriction
organisms under proper conditions.
necessary after
lumbar puncture? 1179. Which hand should The dominant, the non-dominant
hold the suction
1159. What are the 2 To measure or relieve pressure and
catheter? Which
purposes of a obtain a CSF sample
should hold the
spinal tap?
connecting tube?
1160. Does the client No
1180. The nurse should Surgical asepsis (sterile technique)
have to be sedated
use
before a spinal
(medical/surgical)
tap?
asepsis
1161. Antibiotic (Define) A drug that destroys or inhibits growth during airway
of micro-organisms suction?
1162. Asepsis (Define) Absence of organisms causing 1181. What kind of Sterile water-soluble
disease lubricant should be
used on the suction
1163. Antiseptic (Define) A substance used to destroy or inhibit
catheter?
the growth of pathogens but not
necessarily their spores (in general 1182. Should the suction Intermittent to prevent mucosal
safe to use on persons) be continuous or damage
intermittent?
1164. Disinfectant A substance used to destroy
(Define) pathogens but not necessarily their 1183. For how long should 10 seconds
spores (in general not intended for use suction be applied
on persons) during any
one entry of the
1165. Bactericide Substance capable of destroying
catheter?
(Define) micro-organisms but not necessarily
their spores 1184. How often should the After each pass/entry/removal
nurse clear the
1166. Bacteriostatic Substance that prevents or inhibits the
tubing during
(Define) growth of micro-organisms
suctioning?
1167. Anaerobe (Define) Micro-organisms that do not require
1185. Which way would To the left, to the right
free oxygen to live
you turn the client
1168. Aerobe (Define) Micro-organisms requiring free oxygen hear to suction
to live the right mainstem
1169. Pathogen (Define) Micro-organism that causes disease bronchus? The left
mainstem bronchus?
1170. Clean technique Practices that help reduce the number
(Define) & spread of micro-organisms (synonym 1186. The best client Semi-fowlers
for medical asepsis) position during
airway suctioning is
1171. Sterile (Define) An item on which all micro-organism _______.
have been destroyed
1187. The suction should While removing the catheter
1172. Coagulate (Define) Process that thickens or congeals a be delivered while
substance (inserting/removing)
1173. Host (Define) An animal or a person upon which or in the catheter.
which micro-organisms live
1188. What outcomes would Clear even lung sounds, normal 1197. Do you assess for Yes, in fact whenever a patient makes
indicate that vital signs suicide potential a statement about wishing or wanting
suctioning was whenever a to die or kill self you must ALWAYS
effective? patient makes any AND FIRST assess for suicide
statement about potential*-stop everything and assess
1189. How often should the When it needs to be, for example
wanting to die or for suicide patient (except CPR, or
client's airway be moist lung sounds, tachycardia,
kill self? course)
suctioned? restlessness (hypoxia), ineffective
cough 1198. Children are at Low
_____ risk for
1190. The unconscious client Side-lying, facing nurse
suicide.
should assume what
position 1199. Adolescents are High
during suctioning? (low/high) risk for
suicide.
1191. If not contraindicated, Administer a few breaths at 100%
what action by the oxygen before beginning 1200. Young adults are High to moderate
nursing (low/high) risk for
before suctioning suicide.
would most likely
1201. People between 25 Low to moderate
reduce hypoxia during
and 50 years are
suctioning?
(low/moderate
1192. What solution should Sterile saline /high) risk for
be used to clear the suicide.
tubing
1202. People over 50 High
during suctioning?
year are (low/high)
1193. With what size 12 to 16 French risk for suicide.
catheter should an
1203. The patient who has Moderate to high, depends upon
adult's airway be
a definite plan is feasibility and ease of plan
suctioned?
(low/high) risk
1194. How much suction Less than 80 mm Hg for suicide.
should be used for an
1204. The use of pills Moderate
infant?
makes the patient
1195. How much suction 80 to 100 mm Hg (low/moderate/high)
should be used for a risk for suicide.
child?
1205. The patient who has Low
1196. How much suction 120 to 150 mm Hg NO definite plan is
should be used for an (low/high) risk
adult? for suicide.
1206. The use of _____, Guns, ropes, knives
_______, and
______ to kill self,
make high risk
suicide.
1207. Who is at higher Man
risk for suicide, a
man or a woman?
1208. Of: married, Highest-separated then divorced
divorced, and Lowest-married
separated, which
marital status is
highest risk for
suicide? Lowest
risk of suicide?
1209. The goal of action Another person on the scene (then 1238. -gram; -graphy Write; record
while the suicidal immediately decreases risk)
1239. Syphilis is sexually True
patient is still of Remember: people who are alone are
transmiteed. (T/F)
the phone is to get always high risk
_______ person 1240. Syphilis first infects the Mucous membranes
_______ the ______. _____ ______.

1210. What are the four Search personal belongings for drugs 1241. What are the stages of Primary, secondary, latent,
classic suicide & alcohol, remove any sharp objects, syphilis? late
precautions? remove any device for hanging or 1242. Syphilis is a fatal disease if True
strangling; must be on constant one- untreated. (T/F)
to-one observation (NEVER out of
sight) 1243. What organism causes Treponema palladium
syphilis?
1211. Once the patient is No, you should not focus on the
admitted for attempt, focus on the present and 1244. What is the lesion like in The chancre (pronounced
attempted suicide future. primary syphilis? shanker)
should you ever 1245. The chancres of syphilis are Painless
discuss the attempt (painful/painless).
with them?
1246. Chancres disappear without True
1212. -pathy Disease, suffering treatment. (T/F)
1213. -penia Lack, deficiency of 1247. Late syphilis attacks which 3 Liver, heart, brain
1214. -sect To cut body organs?

1215. -plast Plastic surgery on a specified part 1248. What test CONFIRMS the Dark-field illumination of
presence of syphilis? the treponema palladium
1216. -sclerosis Hardening of a tissue by:
inflammation, deposition of mineral 1249. What is the treatment of Penicillin
salt; an infiltration of connective choice for syphilis?
tissue fibers 1250. Why is penicillin administered Procaine makes the shot
1217. -centesis A perforation or puncture with Procaine? less painful; Probenecid
With Probenecid? blocks the excretion of
1218. -genic Produce, originate, become penicillin
1219. -emia Blood 1251. What is the most common Ataxia (gait problems)
1220. -otomy Butting sign of neurosyphillis?

1221. -pexy Fixation of something 1252. Mastitis and breast Primipara

engorgement are more likely
1222. -atresia Condition of occlusion
to occur in
1223. -desis Binding, fusing (primipara/multipara).
1224. -cele Combining form meaning a tumor or 1253. Where does the organism that The infant's nose or mouth
swelling or a cavity causes mastitis come from?
1225. -cis Cut, kill 1254. Which organism most Staph
commonly causes mastitis?
1226. -rhapy; -rrhapy Joining in a seam, suturation
1255. Prolonged intervals between Increase
1227. -scope; -scopy Instrument for observation
breast-feeding
1228. -osis Indicates condition, process (decrease/increase) the
1229. -oma Tumor incidence of mastitis.

1230. -ostomy Surgical opening 1256. Can too tight bras lead to Yes, preventing emptying
mastitis? of ducts
1231. -stasis Stoppage
1257. Mastitis usually occurs at 10
1232. -itis Inflammation least _______days after
1233. -ology Study of; knowledge, science delivery.

1234. -lysis Breaking down 1258. When mastitis is present the Hard, swollen, warm
breasts are ________,
1235. -ectomy Surgical removal of
_________, and __________.
1236. -tripsy Crushing of something by a surgical
1259. Mastitis is accompanied by a 102 degrees
instrument
fever over _________.
1237. -ase Used in naming enzymes
1260. If mastitis is caused Temporary increase in vascular 1275. What is the medical treatment for Systemic antibitoics
by an organism, what and lymph supply to the breast in mastoiditis?
causes breast preparation for milk production
1276. What is the surgery for Simple or radical
engorgement?
mastoiditis called? mastoidectomy
1261. If mastitis occurs 1+ 2 to 5 days after delivery
1277. Will a simple mastoidectomy No, a radical
weeks after delivery,
worsen hearing? mastoidectomy may
when does breast
engorgement occur? 1278. Should the nurse change the post- No, reinforce it.
mastoidectomy dressing? Physician changes
1262. Does breast Yes, the infant has a difficult time
first post op dressing
engorgement interfere latching on (getting nipple in its
with nursing? mouth) 1279. What is a common side effect of Dizziness (vertigo)
mastoidectomy?
1263. What class of drugs is Antibiotics
used to treat mastitis? 1280. What is a major nursing diagnosis Safety
post-mastoidectomy?
1264. Antibiotics are used to False
treat breast 1281. In the chain of infection, hand Transmission
engorgment? (T/F) washing breaks the mode of
____________.
1265. Application of (warm Ice packs to decrease swelling
H2O compress/ice 1282. The best way to decrease False, hand washing is
packs) is the preferred nosocomial infection is sterile the best way.
treatment for breast technique. (T/F)
engorgement. 1283. Sterile gloved hands must always True
1266. The mother with False, the mother must keep be kept above the waist. (T/F)
mastitis should stop breast feeding. (Offer unaffected 1284. When putting on the second of a False, reach under the
breast feeding. (T/F) breast first) set of sterile gloves, you should cuff with the tip of the
1267. If the mother has an True grasp the cuff. (T/F) gloved fingers.
open abscess on her 1285. When putting on the first glove of True
breast, must not a set of sterile gloves, you should
breast-feed. (T/F) grasp the cuff. (T/F)
1268. For breast No, that would increase milk 1286. When putting on the second glove True
engorgement, the non- production and would make the of a set of sterile gloves, you
breastfeeding mother problem worse (warm compresses must not use the thumb of the first
should be told to or warm shower to let milk "leak" is hand. (T/F)
express breast milk. okay- Ice is best)
(T/F) 1287. Airborne microorganisms travel Dust or water
on ________ or ______particles.
1269. What is the best Breast-feeding - it will balance
treatment for breast supply and demand 1288. Another name for medical asepsis Clean technique
engorgement? is...

1270. What is mastoiditis? Inflammation/infection of the 1289. Sensitivity (susceptibility) The susceptibility of
mastoid process means... an organism to the
bacterial action of a
1271. What is the most Chronic otitis media particular agent
common cause of
mastoiditis? 1290. When unwrapping a sterile pack Away from you
how should you unfold the top
1272. What are 4 signs and Drainage from ear, high fever, point?
symptoms of headache and ear pain,
mastoiditis? tenderness over mastoid process 1291. Virulence means.... Ability of an organism
to produce disease
1273. What unusual post- Facial nerve paralysis due to
operative complication accidental damage during surgery 1292. Another name for surgical asepsis Sterile technique
can result from (law suit time!) is...
mastoidectomy? 1293. What is the best location in a On the over-bed table
1274. What should you do to Have the patient smile and wrinkle client's room to set up a sterile
assess for facial nerve forehead. field?
paralysis post- 1294. Medical aseptic technique are True, doesn't eliminate
mastoidectomy? aimed at reducing the number of all of it just decreases
organisms (T/F) the number
1295. What does bacteriostatic Having the capability to stop 1311. Oral medications have a Longer
mean? growth of the bacteria (shorter/longer) duration of action
than IM medications.
1296. What does bacteriocidal Having the capability to kill
mean? bacteria. 1312. How should drugs that stain teeth By a straw
be administered?
1297. What does nosocomial Infection acquired through
infection mean? contact with contamination in 1313. A drug given by a parenteral route True
the hospital acts outside the GI tract. (T/F)
1298. When pouring liquid onto 6 to 8 1314. Name the four most common SQ, IM, IV, ID
a sterile field you should parenteral routes of (intradermal)
pour from a height of administrations.
_____ to _____ inches
1315. When blood is administered by IV, 18 gauge
above sterile field.
the needle/catheter should be
1299. When you plan to use False, always wash even if you ________gauge.
gloves for a procedure plan to use gloves
1316. You can administer up to ____ cc 3 cc
you do not need to wash
of a drug per site by IM injection in
hands before it. (T/F)
adults.
1300. Culture means.... Growing colony of organisms,
1317. Children should receive no more 2 cc
usually for the purpose of
than _______ cc per site by IM
identifying them
injection.
1301. Surgical aseptic True
1318. The preferred IM injection site for Vastus lateralis
techniques render and
children under 3 is the _________
keep articles free from all
___________.
organisms. (T/F)
1319. Why is the dorsogluteal site not Because the muscle
1302. You must never turn your True
recommended for IM injection the is not well developed
back to a sterile field.
children less than 3 years of age? yet.
(T/F)
1320. Can 3 cc of fluid be administered No, maximum of 1 cc
1303. What must you do if you Consider the area contaminated
per IM into the deltoid of an adult?
reach across a sterile and not use the articles in the
field? area 1321. The #1 danger when using the Damage to the sciatic
dorsogluteal site for IM injection nerve
1304. Micro-organisms grow Warm, dark, moist
is___________.
best in a _______,
_______, _______place. 1322. The preferred angle of injection to 90 degrees
to be used for IM administration
1305. It is common practice to True, the outer 1 inch is
is___________.
regard the edges of any considered contaminated. You
sterile field as must not touch it with your 1323. The preferred length of needle to 1 to 2 inch
contaminated. (T/F) sterile gloves. administer an IM injection is...

1306. Immediately after opening No, you must pour a few cc's 1324. The preferred gauge of needle for 21 to 22 gauge
a bottle of sterile water, out of the bottle into a waste IM injection is...
can you pour it directly container before you pour into 1325. Which type of medications are Irritating, staining
into a sterile basin? the sterile basin. (This is called given by Z-track injection?
"lipping" the bottle)
1326. How long is the needle kept 10 seconds
1307. Which is the best method By ID name-band inserted during Z-track injection?
for identifying clients
accurately? 1327. What must be done to the Change the needle
equipment before injecting by Z-
1308. An emulsion is a mixture Oil and H2O track method?
of ______ and ______.
1328. When giving a Z-track injection, Laterally
1309. Syrups and elixirs are of they contain sugars the overlying skin is pulled
particular concern to (up/down/medially/laterally).
diabetic clients
because.... 1329. Subcutaneous injection must be True (for boards),
given at 45 degrees. (T/F) false- whatever angle
1310. Oral medications have a Slower gets it SQ without
(faster/slower) onset of going IM
action that IM drugs.
1330. The preferred gauge of needle 25 gauge 1346. Eye drops should be placed Conjunctival sac
for injection for SQ directly into the _______
injection___________. _______.
1331. The preferred length of needle 5/8 inch 1347. To prevent eye medications Nasolacrimal sac, 10 (press
for SQ injection is_________. from getting into the between the inner canthus
systemic circulation you and the bridge of the nose)
1332. The intradermal route is Skin testing
apply pressure to the
primarily used for ________
_______ for ______ seconds.
_________.
1348. The eye should be irrigated False, it must flow from
1333. Name the two sites used for Inner forearm
so that the solution flows inner canthus to outer
intradermal injection. Upper back
from outer to inner canthus. (alphabetical: I to O)
1334. In general, the nurse should True (T/F)
wear gloves when applying
1349. If ear medications are not Dizziness, nausea
skin preparations such as
given at room temperature
lotions. (T/F)
the client may experience...
1335. After using nose drops, the Supine, 5
1350. To straighten the ear canal in Up and back
client should remain ______
the ADULT, the nurse should
for _______ minutes.
pull the pinna______ and
1336. Strict aseptic techniques is False-- only "clean" ________.
required when administering a technique or medical
1351. To straighten the ear canal in Down and back
vaginal medication. (T/F) asepsis is necessary
the young CHILD under 3 the
1337. Before administering vaginal Void pinna should be pulled
medications the client is more _______ and ________.
comfortable if you ask them to
1352. After receiving ear drops the Side lying, 5
_________ .
client should remain in
1338. After administration of a Supine, 10 ________position for
vaginal durg the client should ________minutes.
remain _____ for______
1353. How far above the ear canal 1/2 inch
minutes.
should you hold the dropper
1339. Rectal suppositories with an True while administering ear
oil base should be kept drops?
refrigerated. (T/F)
1354. Liquid doses of medications Eye
1340. Strict sterile technique is False, clean or medical should be prepared at
required when administering a asepsis _______level.
drug per rectum. (T/F)
1355. Liquid drugs should be Opposite
1341. The best way to ensure Push the suppository poured out of the side
effectiveness of a rectal against the wall of the (opposite of/the same as) the
suppository is to... rectum label.
1342. A rectal suppository is 4,2 1356. It is safe practice to False
inserted ______ inches in an administer drugs prepared by
adult and ________ inches in a another nurse. (T/F)
child.
1357. In order to leave drugs at the True
1343. The client should remain False-- they should be bedside you must have a
supine for 5 minutes after lying on their side for 5 physician's order. (T/F)
having received a rectal minutes, not supine
1358. Young infants accept Dropper
suppository. (T/F)
medication best when given
1344. A suppository given rectally True, lubricant fingers also with a _______.
must be lubricated with a
1359. It is safe practice to recap False, Never re-cap
water soluble lubricant. (T/F)
needles after injection. (T/F)
1345. Eye medications can be given False, into the
1360. What do you do if you get Remove the syringe
directly over the cornea. (T/F) conjunctival sac, never
blood in the syringe upon immediately and apply
the cornea; hold the
aspiration? pressure; you must discard
dropper 1/2 inch above
the syringe and redraw
the sac
medication in a new syringe
1361. Tagamet Give with meals, remember Zantac does not 1383. Thorazine Take with LOTS OF WATER regardless
have to be given with meals of meals to prevent constipation.
1362. Capoten Give on empty stomach, one hour before
All drugs that end in "-zine" are major
meals (antihypertensive)
tranquilizers that also cause Psuedo
1363. Apresoline Given with meals (antihypertensive) Parkinson's or extra-pyramidal effects.
1364. Iron with Give with meals 1384. Carafate and Give on empty stomach 1 hour before
nausea sulcrafate meals and at bedtime -- remember these
1365. Sulfonamides Take with LOTS OF WATER regardless of coat the GI tract and interfere with the
whether you give it at mealtime or not -- absorption of other medications (give
Bactrim, Septra, Gantricin, ie, used to treat them by themselves)
UTI 1385. Allopurinol Give with meals and give with lots of
1366. Codeine Take with lots of water rergardless of meals - water--anti uric acid--- used to treat gout
- to prevent constipation and the purine build up seen in
chemotherapy for cancer
1367. Antacids Give on empty stomach I hour ac and hs
1386. Define Meniere's An increase in endolymph in the inner
1368. Ipecac Give with 200-300 cc water-- not related to Disease ear, causing severe vertigo.
mealtime -- this is an emetic (to make you
vomit after ingestion of poisons -- don't give 1387. What is the Paroxysmal whirling vertigo --
if the poisons were caustic, or petroleum famous triad of sensorineural hearing loss--tinnitus
based) symptoms in (ringing in the ears)
Meniere's?
1369. Rifampin Give on empty stomach (anti-tuberculosis)
remember Rifampin causes red urine 1388. Does Meniere's Women
occur more in
1370. Non-steroidal Give with food (for arthrosis) men or women?
anti-
inflammatory 1389. What should the Bed Rest
drugs client do if they
get an attack?
1371. Aldactone Give with meals (K--sparing diuretic)
1390. What safety Side rails up x 4, ambulate only with
1372. Iron (without Give on empty stomach with orange juice to measures should assistance
nausea) increase absorption be followed with
1373. Penicillin Give on empty stomach Meniere's?
1374. Erythromycin Give on empty stomach (antibiotics) 1391. What age group 40 to 60
in Meniere's
1375. Stool Take with lots of water regardless of mealtim
highest in?
Softeners
1392. What can Avoid sudden movements
1376. Griseofulvin Give with meals-- especially high fat meals
PREVENT the
(anti-fungal)
attacks of
1377. Tetracycline Do not give with milk products, do not give Meniere's?
to pregnant women or children before age 8
1393. What electrolyte Ammonium chloride
or damage to tooth enamel occurs
is given to
1378. Theophylline Give with meals, ie, Aminophylline, Theodur people with
derivative (anti-asthmatic bronchodilator) Meniere's?
1379. Steroids Give with meals-- remember taper the patient 1394. What is the Labyrinthectomy
off these drugs slowly surgery done for
1380. Pancreas Give with meals-these are oral enzymes Meniere's?
pancreatin used with children with cystic fibrosis to 1395. What disease Bell's palsy-- facial paralysis, will go
isozyme increase the absorption of the food they eat often follows away in a few months
1381. Para-amino Give with meals/food-- anti tuberculosis labyrinthectomy?
salicylate 1396. What is the Bed rest
sodium (PAS) activity order
1382. Colchicine Give with meals -- anti gout, remember if after
diarrhea develops, stop the drug labyrinthectomy?
1397. When surgery is performed for Hearing is totally 1416. What is opisthotonos? Arching of back (entire body)
Meniere's, what are the lost in the surgical from hyperextension of the
consequences? ear neck and ankles, due to
severe meningeal irritation.
1398. What should the client avoid after Sudden
labyrinectomy? movements and 1417. If a patient has Side-lying
increased Na food opisthotonos, in what
position would you place
1399. What type of diet is the client with Low salt
them?
Meniere's on?
1418. Average duration of 5 days, 3 to 6
1400. What two classes of drugs are given Antihistamines and
menstrual flow is _____.
in Meniere's? diuretics (Diamox)
The normal range is _____
1401. Meningitis is an inflammation of the Linings, brain , to ______ days.
_______ of the _______ and spinal cord
1419. Average blood loss during 50 to 60 cc
___________.
menstruation is _____cc.
1402. Meningitis can be caused by _______, Viruses, bacteria,
1420. Name the two phases of Follicular phase (first 14
_____, and _____. chemicals
ovarian cycle. days)
1403. The four most common organisms that Pneumococcus Luteal phase (second 14
cause meningitis are... Meningococcus days)
Streptococcus
1421. In the menstrual cycle, day Menstrual discharge begins
H. influenza
1 is the day on which...
1404. The child with meningitis is most Irritable
1422. How long does an ovarian Average of 28 days
likely to be (lethargic/irritable) at
cycle last?
first.
1423. How many days after 14 days
1405. What visual symptom will the patient Photophobia (over-
ovulation does menstruation
with meningitis have? sensitivity to light)
begin?
1406. What is the most common musculo- Stiff neck- nuchal
1424. What hormones are active FSH and Estrogen
skeletal symptom of meningitis? rigidity
during follicular phase?
1407. Will the patient with meningitis have a Yes
1425. During the luteal phase of Progesterone and LH
headache?
the ovarian cycle, which of
1408. Kernig's sign is positive when there is Knee; hip the following hormones
pain in the _____ when attempting to increase: estrogen,
straighten the leg with ____ flexed. progesterone or LH?
1409. What type of vomiting is present in Projectile 1426. What is the major function To develop and maintain the
meningitis? of the luteal phase of the corpus luteum which
1410. What is the definitive diagnostic test Lumbar puncture ovarian cycle? produces progesterone to
for meningitis? with culture of CSF maintain pregnancy until
(cerebro-spinal placenta is established.
fluid) 1427. If an ovum is fertilized HCG (human chorionic
1411. If the patient has meningitis, the CSF Increased, during the luteal phase what gonadotropin)
shows _______ pressure, _____ WBC, increased, hormone will be secreted?
______ protein, ______ glucose. increased, 1428. During menstruation, the 0.5 to 1.0 mg
decreased average daily loss of iron is
1412. On what type of isolation will the Contact and _____ mg.
patient with meningitis be? respiratory 1429. What occurs during the It accomplishes maturation
precautions follicular phase of the of the graafian follicle which
1413. How long will the patient with Until they have ovarian cycle? results in ovulation
meningitis be on these precautions? been on an 1430. What type of environmental Dark and quiet environment
antibiotic for 48 modification is best for a
hours migraine?
1414. The room of a patient with meningitis Dark and quiet 1431. The long term treatment of Assessing things that bring
should be _______ and ______. migraine focuses upon... on stress and then planning
1415. The client with meningitis can Seizures to avoid them.
develop________. 1432. What type of pain is typical Throbbing
of migraines?
1433. Are migraines more or less Less 1455. Dantrium causes Diarrhea (hint: D's go
common in men? (constipation/diarrhea) together, Dantrium and
Diarrhea)
1434. Besides pain, people with migraines Nausea, vomiting
complain of what other symptoms? and visual 1456. Patient's with MS should Increased to dilute urine and
disturbances have (increased/restricted) reduce incidence of UTI.
fluids.
1435. What are the processes occurring in Reflex constriction
migraines? then dilation of 1457. The diet of a patient with MS Acid
cerebral arteries. should be ____--ash.
1436. Where is the pain of migraine most Temporal, 1458. What major sense is Tactile (touch)-- they burn
likely located? supraorbital affected most in MS themselves easily
(besides vision)?
1437. Name a drug given to treat Sansert
migraine? (methsergide), 1459. Which will bring on a MS Both will; but they tend to do
Cafergot exacerbation: over-heating better in cool weather
or chilling? (summer will always be a bad
(Prophylaxis: time for MS patients)
Imipramine)
1460. In Myasthenia Gravis (MG) Neuromuscular junction
1438. Are migraine headaches usually Unilateral there is a disturbance in
unilateral or bilateral? transmission of impulses at
the _____ _____.
1439. When Inderal is given in migraine To prevent. It DOES
headache, it is used to prevent or NOT treat. 1461. The #1 sign of MG is ______ Severe muscle weakness
treat an attack? ______ _____.
1440. MS is a progressive _____ disease Demyelinating 1462. What is the unique adjective The early signs (difficulty
of the CNS. given to describe the early swallowing, visual problems)
signs of MG? are referred to a BULBAR
1441. Myelin promotes _____, _____ Fast, smooth
signs.
_____ of nerve impulses. conduction
1463. MG affects men more than False, affects women more
1442. MS affects men more than women. False
women. (T/F) than men
(T/F)
1464. When women get MG they Young
1443. What age group usually gets MS? 20 to 40
are usually old or young?
1444. MS usually occurs in (hot/cool) Cool
1465. When men get MG they are Old
climates .
usually old or young?
1445. What is the first sign of MS? Blurred or double
1466. What neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine
vision
problematic in MG?
1446. MS can lead to urinary True
1467. What class of drugs is used Anticholinesterases
incontinence. (T/F)
to treat MG?
1447. MS can lead to impotence in males. True
1468. What ending do -stigmine
(T/F)
anticholinesterases have?
1448. Patients with MS should be taught to Wide based
1469. Are anticholinesterases Parasympathetic
walk with a ____-____ gait.
sympathetic or
1449. Why are Adrenocorticotropic To decrease edema parasympathetic?
Hormone (ACTH) and prednisone in the demyelination
1470. Anticholestinesterases will Cholinergic (they will mimic
given during acute MS? process
have the parasympathetic nervous
1450. For acute exacerbations of MS ACTH (Corticotropin) (sympathetic/cholinergic) system)
_______ per IV is often used. side effects.
1451. What drug can be given to treat Urecholine, 1471. What surgery CAN be done Thymectomy (removal of
urinary retention in MS? Bethanocol for MG? thymus)
1452. Will the muscles of MS clients be Spastic 1472. The severe muscle False, it is worse with
spastic or flaccid? weakness of MG gets better activity
1453. What three drugs can be given for Valium, Baclofen with exercise. (T/F)
muscle spasms? (Lioresal), Dantrium 1473. What will the facial Mast-like with a snarling
1454. Baclofen causes Constipation appearance of a patient with smile (called a myasthenic
(constipation/diarrhea) MG look like? smile)
1474. If a patient has MG, what The patient will show a dramatic 1490. The three most common Cardiogenic shock,
will be the results of the sudden increase in muscle complications after MI are arrhythmia, CHF
Tensilon Test? strength ____ _____,_____, and
_______.
1475. Besides the Tensilon Electromylogram (EMG)
Test, what other 1491. Give another name for an MI. Heart attack
diagnostic tests confirm
1492. What will the activity order Bed rest with bedside
a diagnosis of MG?
be for the post-MI client? commode
1476. What is the most They must be given EXACTLY
1493. What is the most common Premature ventricular
important thing to ON TIME; at home, they might
arrhythmia after a MI? contractions (PVCs)
remember about giving need to set their alarm
Mestinon and other 1494. What cardiac enzymes Elevated CPK, LDH, SGOT
anticholestinerases? indicate an MI?

1477. Do you give With food, about 1/2 hour ac; 1495. What serum protein rises Troponin
anticholestinerases with giving ac helps strengthen soonest after myocardial cell
or without food? muscles of swallowing injury?

1478. What type of diet should Soft 1496. Do people without cell No it is only present when
the patient with MG be damage have troponin in their myocardial cells are
on? blood? damaged.

1479. What equipment should Suction apparatus (for meals), 1497. How soon after cell damage As soon as 3 hours (can
be at the bedside of an tracheostomy/endotube (for does troponin increase? remain elevated for 7 days)
MG patient? ventilation) 1498. When will the client with an 6 weeks after discharge
1480. Name the two types of Cholinergic (too much Mestinon) MI be allowed to engage in
crises that a MG patient Myasthenic (not enough sexual intercourse after an
can have. Mestinon) MI?

1481. The #1 danger in both Respiratory arrest 1499. Will fluid resuscitation No, you must use cardiac
Myasthenic and (administering large amounts drugs (giving IVs and blood
Cholinergic crisis is of IV fluid) treat cardiogenic will not help this kind of
_____ ______. shock? shock)

1482. What words will the Crushing, heavy, squeezing, 1500. Will the client with a MI be yes, yes
client use to describe the radiating to left arm, neck , jaw, nauseated?...diaphoretic?
pain of an MI? shoulder 1501. What will the extremities of Cold, clammy
1483. What is an MI? Either a clot, spasm or plaque the client with a MI feel like?
that blocks the coronary arteries 1502. What is the permanent EKG ST wave changes
causing loss of blood supply to change seen post MI?
the heart and myocardial cell
death 1503. Of CPK and LDH which rises CPK
earliest?
1484. What is the #1 symptom Severe chest pain unrelieved by
of an MI? rest and nitroglycerine 1504. What drug will be used to Lidocaine
treat PVCs of MI?
1485. Males are more likely to True
get an MI than females. 1505. Will the client with a MI need No, just moderate flow
(T/F) 100% O2 for their entire stay (42% or 3 to 6 liters for first
in the hospital? 48 hours)
1486. Due to MI occurs within One hour
_____ of symptom onset 1506. What information does the The amount of body fat
in 50% of all patients. measurement of skin fold
thickness yield?
1487. What pain medication is Morphine, Demerol,
given for the pain of a MI Nitroglycerine 1507. In general, males have a True
(Give three). higher risk of heart disease
than females. (T/F)
1488. What is the reason for To prevent platelets from
giving post MI patients forming clots in the coronary 1508. Post-menopausal females False. They have a higher
ASA? arteries have a lower risk of heart risk.
disease than males aged 25-
1489. Name a new drug with Plavix 40. (T/F)
anti-platelet activity.
1509. Family history of diabetes True
increases the risk fo heart
disease. (T/F)
1510. Family history of liver disease False 1530. Hemophilia A is a deficiency of Factor # VIII
increases the risk of heart __________.
disease. (T/F)
1531. During an acute bleeding episode, you Pressure, ice
1511. Cigarette smoking increases True should apply________ for 15 minutes and
the risk of heart disease. (T/F) apply________.
1512. Oral contraceptives decrease False, use increases the 1532. The inheritance patterns for hemophilia Sex linked
the risk of heart disease. (T/F) risk is: recessive
1513. Routine exercise decreases True 1533. In hemophilia, the PTT is (up/down), the Up (increased
the risk of heart disease. (T/F) coagulation or clotting time is (up/down) or longer)
and the platelet count is (up/down). Up (increased
1514. What is done in a graft for A blood vessel is sutured
or longer)
hemodialysis? between an artery and a
Neither
vein.
(hemophilia
1515. What is done in an AV fistual? A surgical anastomosis is does not
made between the artery affect
and a vein. platelets)
1516. Does anything exit the skin in No 1534. What does hemarthrosis mean? Bleeding into
an AV fistula? the joints
1517. How long can an AV fistula be Indefinitely 1535. During bleeding into the joints you should Immobilize to
used? (mobilize/immobilize) the extremity. prevent
1518. Who is the most likely to People with diabetes dislodging the
receive a graft for dialysis? mellitus. clots that do
form.
1519. How often do clients with renal 3 times per week
failure undergo dialysis? 1536. To treat hemarthrosis you should _______ Elevate, heart
the extremity above the __________.
1520. Is hemodialysis short term or Both- but most short term
long term? dialysis is achieved by 1537. What is the name of frozen factor VIII Cryoprecipitate
hemodialysis given to hemophiliacs?

1521. How long does the average 4 to 6 hours 1538. Once you have stopped the bleeding into 48 hours
dialysis last? the joint, how long should the
hemarthrosis patient wait before bearing
1522. What are 3 ways to gain AV shunt weight or doing range of motion?
access to the circulation in AV fistula
hemodialysis? AV graft 1539. What drug can you apply topically to stop Epinephrine, or
bleeding? topical fibrin
1523. What is the most common site Radial artery to radial vein foam
for an AV shunt?
1540. Which of these symptoms are NOT seen in Petechiae
1524. What should be avoided in the No venipuncture or blood hemophilia? Prolonged bleeding,
arm of the client with an AV pressure allowed in the petechiae, ecchymosis or hematoma?
shunt? arm with a shunt, graft or
fistula. 1541. Hepatitis is an _____, ______ disease of Acute,
the _______. inflammatory,
1525. What syndrome results when Disequilibrium syndrome liver
too much fluid is exchanged
during hemodialysis too 1542. Hepatitis A,B,C and D are all Viral
quickly? (bacterial/viral) diseases.

1526. What are the symptoms of Change in LOC 1543. An early sign of hepatitis A is ________. Anorexia or
disequilibrium syndrome? N/V fatigue
Headache 1544. Early stage hepatitis often looks like the Flu
Twitching _______.
1527. Does anything exit the skin in Yes, the plastic tube that 1545. In later stages of hepatitis, the ______ Urine
an AV shunt? connects the artery and turns dark.
vein outside the arm
1546. What does pre-icteric mean? The stage
1528. How long can AV shunt be Just for a few weeks BEFORE the
used? patient
1529. Hemophilia is a ___________ Bleeding exhibits
disorder. jaundice.
1547. What is the When the patient exhibits jaundice. 1561. Hepatitis B Watch those needles
icteric stage? HBsAg (this is what blood
tests show) Hepatitis B
1548. What skin Pruritis (itching)
surface antigen
symptoms do you Jaundice (Both are due to bilirubin
HBIG - vaccine
see in hepatitis? accumulation)
Vaccination available, can
(Give 2)
give immune globulin after
1549. Which disease Hepatitis B exposure
has more severe Transmitted by blood and
symptoms-- body fluids
Hepatitis A or B? Incubates 5 to 35 weks
1550. Patients with Cigarettes 1562. Hepatitis C Watch those needles
hepatitis have an Incubates 2 to 23 weeks
aversion to Transmitted by blood only
_________. No vaccine, immune globulin
1551. In hepatitis the Stools: remember the urine is dark and doesn't work
________ are stools are light. (Bilirubin ends up in the 1563. Which types of client should Diabetics, peripheral vascular
light colored. skin and urine instead of the stool where have their toenails trimmed disease, very thick nails
it should have gone.) only by an MD?
1552. What is the Shingles 1564. Two purposes of bed bath Cleanses the skin
common name are... Provides comfort
for Herpes
1565. The typical hospital client Should
Zoster?
(should/should not) wear
1553. What type of rash A vesicular rash over the pathway of a their dentures.
occurs with sensory nerve
1566. What type of movement Inner to outer canthus
shingles?
should be used for
1554. How long does it 30 days cleansing eyes?
take for shingles
1567. Before applying elastic Elevate the clients legs for 3
to heal?
hose the nurse should... to 5 minutes to decrease
1555. Who is the most Pain, pain, Pain venous stasis
common
1568. Clients on what class of Anticoagulants
subjective
drugs should use an elastic (heparin/coumadin/lovenox)
symptoms of
razor?
shingles?
1569. When a client is unable to Leave them out
1556. What three drugs Acyclovir (anti-infective)
hold his dentures firmly in
are given for Tegretol (anticonvulsant--given to
his mouth, the nurse
shingles? stabilize nerve cell membranes) Steroids
should...
(anti-inflammatory)
1570. How often should mouth Every 2 hours
1557. What other chickenpox
care be performed for those
disease is
clients on oxygen?
related to
shingles? 1571. Should lemon and glycerine No, they are not cleansing
swabs be used to cleanse agents. They are used
1558. What organism Varicella--herpes zoster
the mouth? AFTER cleansing as a
causes shingles?
moistening agent
1559. What is the #1 Alteration in comfort: pain, #2 Impaired
1572. How should a client's Straight across
nursing diagnosis skin integrity
toenails be trimmed?
with shingles?
1573. Are nurses permitted to Yes, nurses are permitted to
1560. Hepatitis A Enteric precautions
give perineal care to clients give perineal care to clients
Fecal/oral route of transmission
of the opposite sex? of the opposite sex.
Incubates 3 to 5 weeks
Vaccine available (Can give immune 1574. Clients on what type of Oxygen therapy, since an
globulin after exposure) therapy must use a safety electric razor could cause
HAsAg (this is what the blood test show) blade razor (non electric)? sparks
Hepatitis A surface Antigen
1575. How should a nurse carry In a neat bundle held away
soiled linen? from the body.
1576. When giving a bed bath, on The eyes 1593. What are the instructions given to clients Remain seated
which body party should the recovering from hyperemesis upright for 45
nurse begin to work? gravidarum in relation to mealtime? minutes after
each meal
1577. Give three reasons for giving Comfort
a back rub. Stimulate circulation and 1594. What is the biggest challenge in nursing Getting them to
muscles care of the client with hyperemesis eat
Relaxation gravidarum?
1578. The greatest danger in placing Aspiration 1595. Hypertension is an ________ or Intermittent,
water in the mouth of the sustained elevation in the diastolic blood
unconscious patient during (systolic/diastolic) __________. pressure
oral hygiene is...
1596. Hypertension is often fatal if untreated. True
1579. When shaving a client, water Hot (T/F)
used should be more (hot/cold)
1597. Hypertension is more common in blacks Blacks
than bath water?
or whites?
1580. What does evening or hour of Oral hygiene
1598. Aging decreases the risk of False, it
sleep (HS) care consist of? Washing face/hands
hypertension. (T/F) increases the
Back rub
risk
Tightening linens
1599. Obesity increases the risk of True
1581. What is dentifrice? Agents which promote
hypertension. (T/F)
adherence of dentures to
gums, ie, Polygrip 1600. Oral contraceptives Increase
(increase/decrease/do not effect) the
1582. What is sordes? Crusts on the tongue and
blood pressure.
gums due to improper oral
hygiene 1601. What four organs does hypertension Brain (stroke)
affect the most? Eyes
1583. What action will facilitate the Soaking in warm water
(blindness)
trimming of brittle toenails?
Heart (MI)
1584. Should the client roll the No, it can cause a Kidney (renal
elastic stocking down to wash constricting band around failure)
legs? Why or why not? the ankle/foot.
1602. How many measurements must be made At least three
1585. Elastic stockings should be True before you can say a person has
removed for the bath. (T/F) hypertension?
1586. When should a patient put on Before getting out of bed 1603. What blood pressure is considered to be Anything
TED hose? (before the swelling hypertension? greater than
occurs). 140/90 mm Hg
1587. Hyperemesis Gravidarum is Severe and prolonged; 2nd 1604. Which pressure is most damaging, an An increased
______ and ________ vomiting trimester (normal vomiting increased (systolic/diastolic)? diastolic
that persists into the _____ should be gone before 2nd
1605. When a doctor takes three different blood At least one
trimester. trimester)
pressure readings at different times, week
1588. Give three possible causes of Pancreatitis how far apart must the measurements be
hyperemesis gravidarum. Multiple pregnancies made?
Hydatidiform mole
1606. Can hypertension be cured? No, just treated
1589. Has hyperemesis gravidarum Yes, increased incidence
1607. What class of drugs is used to first treat Diuretics
ever been associated with of it in women who are
hypertension?
mixed feelings about ambivalent about
pregnancy? pregnancy 1608. Name the two most common dietary Calorie
prescriptions used to treat hypertension? reduction for
1590. What are the two most Electrolyte imbalance
weight loss
common complications of (dehydration)
Sodium
hyperemesis gravidarum? Starvation
restriction
1591. What is the initial diet order NPO
1609. What two non-dietary lifestyle changes Decreases
for clients with hyperemesis
are used commonly to treat stress
gravidarum?
hypertension? Increase
1592. Why are doctors cautious in They don't want to harm activity
using antiemetics to treat the fetus
hyperemesis gravidarum?
1610. When you take the blood Both arms; lying, sitting 1626. The client's skin will be _____, Cool, pale, clammy
pressure of the client with and standing ______, and ________. (due to arterial
hypertension you would constriction to shunt
measure _____- _______, with blood from skin to
the client _____, _______ and vital organs)
_______.
1627. Which acid-base disorder is MOST Metabolic acidosis
1611. What do caffeine and smoking Increase it commonly associated with (due to lactic acid
do to blood pressure? hypovolemic shock? accumulation- no
oxygen = anaerobic
1612. What is the #1 side effect of Orthostatic hypotension
metabolism)
antihypertensives? (means you feel weak
when you rise to a 1628. Of all the following, which one(s) Only the heart rate
standing position increase in hypovolemic shock? and respiratory rate
because your blood Blood pressure, output, heart rate,
pressure falls) pH, LOC, pulse pressure,
respiratory rate
1613. Would vasodilators or Vasodilators (decreases
vasoconstrictors treat resistance) 1629. What are the first two sings of Change in LOC and
hypertension? hypovolemic shock? tachycardia
1614. Would sympathetic stimulators Sympathetic blockers 1630. What is the #1 medical treatment Replace blood and
or sympathetic blockers treat (decrease cardiac output of hypovolemic shock fluids
hypertension? and decrease
1631. What are mast trousers? Pneumatic device
resistance)
placed around the
1615. In hypovolemic shock there is a Decrease; blood; legs and lower body
________ in the circulating decreases; oxygen that is inflated to
__________ volume -- this force blood centrally
_______ tissue perfusion with
1632. Do clients in hypovolemic shock Yes, to measure urine
________.
have to have a Foley inserted? output (when output is
1616. What gauge catheter would you 16 or larger >30 cc per hour the
use to start an IV in shock has resolved)
hypovolemic shock?
1633. In what position would you place a On back with arms
1617. What is the #1 cause of Acute blood loss client in suspected hypovolemic and legs elevated
hypovolemic shock? shock?
1618. What happens to the blood It decreases 1634. How often are vital signs measured Every 15 minutes
pressure in hypovolemic shock? in hypovolemic shock?
1619. What happens to the pulse It narrows (becomes a 1635. If the blood pressure (systolic) Increase the oxygen
pressure in hypovolemic shock? smaller number) falls below 80 mmHg, what would flow rate
you do first in hypovolemic shock?
1620. How do you calculate the pulse You subtract the
pressure? diastolic from systolic 1636. What is a hysterectomy? It is surgical removal
of the uterus
1621. If J. Doe's blood pressure is 40 (100-minus 60 equals
100/60, what is his pulse 40) 1637. How long must a woman wait 4 to 6 weeks
pressure? before having intercourse after
hysterectomy?
1622. What is the normal pulse 40 (+ or -10)
pressure? 1638. Is the woman likely to have a foley Yes
catheter in after a hysterectomy?
1623. In hypovolemic shock the level Decreased
of consciousness (LOC) is 1639. Are enemas common before a Yes
(increased/decreased). hysterectomy?
1624. Which heart rate is associated Tachycardia 1640. What would you do if the client Call the MD, probably
with hypovolemic shock, complains of flank pain (back pain) had a ureter tied off
bradycardia or tachycardia? after hysterectomy? accidentally in
surgery
1625. In hypovolemic shock the output 25 to 30 cc
of urine will be less than 1641. What are 2 common psychological Grief, depression
_______cc per hour. reactions to hysterectomy?
1642. What causes Venous stasis in the abdomen 1656. What is the most dangerous Rupture of the fallopian
thrombophlebitis after (the woman was in the vaginal side effect/complication of tube
hysterectomy? lithotomy position for hours) fallopian ectopic pregnancy?
1643. What sign would indicate A hard, red swelling in the 1657. If the fallopian tube ruptures Shock and peritonitis
the presence of posterior calf due to ectopic pregnancy,
thrombophlebitis? nursing care is the same as
that for___________.
1644. Should you assess for No. Homan's sign is no longer
Homan's sign? recommended as a test for 1658. The uterus feels _______ Boggy- tender, also
thrombophlebitis because it can after rupture of a fallopian
cause a clot to embolize ectopic pregnancy?
1645. How long does the Oral contraceptives should be 1659. The first sign that a fallopian Sharp abdominal pain
woman have to be off discontinued 3 to 4 weeks ectopic pregnancy had
oral contraceptives preoperatively. ruptured is...
before hysterectomy?
1660. Ectopic pregnancy is Almost never
1646. How long should a 2 months (usually/almost never)
woman wait before lifting carried to term.
heavy objects after a
1661. The most common medical- Surgical removal of fetus
hysterectomy?
surgical treatment for ectopic and some surrounding
1647. How long does a lady 3 to 4 weeks pregnancy is___________. tissue
have to wait before
1662. Name the surgery performed Exploratory laparotomy
driving after a
for an ectopic pregnancy.
hysterectomy?
1663. What is ECT? The use of electrical shock
1648. If the client complains of Ambulation
current delivered to the
abdominal gas after a
brain to induce a seizure
hysterectomy, the best
that treats depression.
intervention is.....
1664. The client is (awake/under Under general anesthesia --
1649. What are two major Thrombus and pulmonary
local anesthesia/under must be artificially
complications of a embolus Urinary retention
general anesthesia) during ventilated
hysterectomy besides
ECT?
hemorrhage?
1665. What conditions does ECT Depression primarily
1650. What body position Knee flexion (because it
treat?
should be avoided after increases the chance of
hysterectomy? Why? thrombophlebitis) 1666. Is an informed consent Yes
necessary for ECT?
1651. When will bowel sounds After 24 hours but before 72
return after a hours 1667. Name the three most common Aspiration of emesis (most
hysterectomy? complications of ECT? common) into the lung
Dislocations of joints
1652. Ectopic pregnancy is Outside, uterus
Fractures due to
implantation of a
convulsion-- rare today
fertilized ovum ________
the _________. 1668. What class of drugs is given Muscle relaxant --
with ECT? succinylcholine
1653. The most common site Fallopian tube - 90%
for ectopic pregnancy is 1669. What intellectual ability is Memory
in the _________ impaired after ECT?
__________. 1670. How long will a client's 2 to 3 weeks
1654. Have intrauterine devices Yes and so have pelvic memory be impaired after
to prevent pregnancy infections. ECT?
ever been linked to 1671. Immediately after ECT, how Drowsy
ectopic pregnancy? will the client normally act? Dull
1655. What is the most Unilateral pelvic pain Apathetic
common sign of fallopian 1672. In what position should the On their side-- to prevent
tube ectopic pregnancy? client be immediately after aspiration
ECT?
1673. What typical pre-operative NPO after midnight 1692. Name two things for which stool Occult blood, fat,
type of orders will be Remove dentures specimens are tested. ova and parasites
ordered before ECT? Client to void before surgery
1693. Is blood a normal constituent of No
Side rails up
feces?
1674. The convulsion (seizure) False, it used to be, but it isn't
1694. What is melena? A black, tarry stool
that the electrical current any more with the use of
indicating a GI
produced is violent. (T/F) muscle relaxants
bleed
1675. What does an EEG Measures electrical activity
1695. What position is best for clients with Semi-fowlers or
measure? generated by the brain
emphysema under normal higher
1676. When are there activity ONLY when sedatives are circumstances?
restrictions after an EEG? used, and then it's only
1696. What flow rates of O2 are Low flow -- <2.5
necessary to keep side rails
appropriate for the client with L/min; never exceed
up.
emphysema? 2.5L in COPD
1677. Should the client wash his Yes
1697. If a client with emphysema has a Sitting upright with
hair before an EEG?
severe dyspneic episode what arms folded on the
1678. What would you tell a That is impossible since the position is best? overbed table
client who says what if I test measures electrical
1698. What will you observe on the hands Clubbing of the
get shocked during my activity coming FROM him,
of the client with emphysema? fingernail beds
EEG? never to him.
1699. In emphysema, the alveoli are over- Over-enlarged,
1679. Does a client have to be No, they should never be NPO,
_____ and under-______. under-ventilated so
NPO before an EEG? it could cause hypoglycemia
that air is trapped in
and alter the EEG results.
alveoli
1680. What instructions are Try not to move
1700. The development of emphysema is Smoking
MOST important to give a
most associated with a history of
client during an EEG?
___________.
1681. What should the client do Wash their hair
1701. In emphysema, the appetite________ Decreases,
after an EEG?
the weight ______ and the anterior- decreases,
1682. Should sedatives be given Only if ordered as a pre-test post diameter of the chest________. increases
before an EEG? medication.
1702. What is the increase in anterior- Barrel chest
1683. How much sleep should At least 4 to 5 hours--unless it posterior diameter of emphysema
the client get the night is a sleep deprivation EEG called?
before an EEG?
1703. The person with emphysema have Grunting, pursed,
1684. Do you need a signed No ________, _______lips and rapid
informed consent for an (slow/rapid) breathing.
EEG?
1704. What dietary prescription is most Frequent small
1685. Should caffeine be limited Yes. It should be eliminated for appropriate for the client with meals to prevent
before an EEG? 24 hours before the test. emphysema? tiring
1686. What will excessively Large, pale, foul smelling, 1705. What fluid order should the 3 liters of fluid per
fatty stool be like? greasy emphysema client have? day (this is an
increase)
1687. What are the large, pale, Steatorrhea
foul smelling, greasy 1706. The client with emphysema is Cyanotic
stools called? (ruddy/pale/cyanotic).
1688. Name the three types of Roundworm 1707. Hyperthyroid (High metabolism) Graves Disease
parasites abnormally Tapeworm
1708. High growth hormone in a child (give Gigantism
found in stool. Pinworm
another name)
1689. What does occult blood in Bleeding somewhere in the GI
1709. Over secretion of mineralcorticoids Conn's disease
the feces mean? tract
only (give another name)
1690. Are fats a normal Yes but it should be WNL
1710. Low growth hormone (give another Pituitary dwarfism
constituent of feces?
name)
1691. A decrease in urobilin in Clay-colored
1711. High growth hormone in an adult. Acromegaly
stool results in stool that
is______ ________. 1712. Under-secretion of adrenal cortex Addison's disease
1713. Hypothyroidism in an adult. Myxedema
1714. Over secretion of adrenal cortex Cushing's syndrome 1736. If a child is suspected of No, never put any
having epiglottitis, should you instrument in the child's
1715. Over secretion of adrenal medulla Pheochromocytoma
put a tongue depressor in mouth unless you are
1716. Hypothyroid in a child Cretinism their mouth to look? prepared to do an
1717. Oversecretion of ACTH Cushing's disease immediate intubation.

1718. What is endometriosis? Growth of endometrial 1737. Would you do a throat culture No, never put anything in
tissue outside of for a child with epiglottitis? their mouth.
uterus 1738. If epiglottitis is suspected, To take the child to the ER
1719. Endometriosis most commonly 25 to 40 what should the parents be as soon as possible.
occurs in women between ages of told?
______ and ________. 1739. What drug is used to fight Penicillin, ampicillin
1720. After menopause, endometriosis Decreases epiglottitis?
(decreases/increases). 1740. Children with epiglottitis Restlessness
1721. What is the MOST common side Dysmenorrhea (painful often need a tracheotomy. Increased HR
effect of endometriosis? menstruation) What behavior would indicate Retractions
the need for a tracheotomy?
1722. What is the major complication of Infertility
endometriosis? 1741. What is recommended for the All children two months and
prevention of epiglottitis? over should receive an H.
1723. What diagnostic procedure Laparoscopy influenza B vaccine.
confirms the diagnosis of
endometriosis? 1742. Autonomy vs Shame and Toddler
Doubt
1724. What class of drugs is used to Androgens
conservatively treat 1743. Industry vs Inferiority School Age
endometriosis? 1744. 18 to 25 years Young Adult
1725. Which androgen drug is most Danazol 1745. Says "no" Toddler
commonly used to treat
1746. Encourage creativity and School Age
endometriosis?
collecting things
1726. Women with endometriosis should Pads only
1747. Give choices Toddler
be counseled to use
(tampons/pads) during 1748. Centers on having basic Infancy
menstruation? needs met
1727. Will client die of endometriosis? Not life-threatening 1749. 18 months to 3 years Toddler
What would you say?
1750. 3 to 6 years Pre-schooler
1728. What advice is best for women Do not postpone
1751. 12 to 20 years Adolescent
with endometriosis who want to pregnancy, may not
have children? be able to have 1752. Initiative vs Guilt Pre-schooler
children 1753. 6 to 12 years School age
1729. What is the #1 danger of Airway obstruction 1754. Trust vs Mistrust Infancy
epiglottitis?
1755. Peer group important Adolescent
1730. Epiglottitis most commonly occurs 1 to 8 years
in children from age ________ to 1756. Encourage fantasy Pre-schooler
______. 1757. Identity vs Role confrontation Adolescent
1731. What organism causes epiglottitis? Hemophilus influenza 1758. Intimacy vs Isolation Young adult
B
1759. Birth to 18 months Infancy
1732. What level of fever is present in Over 102 degrees
1760. Define EGD Insertion of a fiber optic
epiglottitis?
scope to visualize the
1733. What symptoms are classic Muffled voice esophagus, stomach and
epiglottitis? Drooling duodenum
Stridor
1761. What can be done during an Remove polyps
1734. Will a child with epiglottitis No, there will be a EGD besides visualization? Take specimens
cough? lack of spontaneous Coagulate bleeding vessels
cough.
1762. Can EGD be done on an No
1735. How will the child with epiglottitis Leaned forward with uncooperative client?
breathe? flaring nostrils
1763. Does client need to have Yes, until sedative effects of 1779. Name the most common side Diuresis
side rails up after EGD? valium have worn off effect of carbonic anhydrase
inhibitors?
1764. Can an EGD be done on Yes
clients with GI bleeding? 1780. Which two groups of these Mydriatics
drugs cause photophobia? Anticholinergics
1765. Is the client sedated Yes, with valium (diazepam) or
before EGD? another sedative 1781. Which of these classes of Miotics
drugs causes contact
1766. What pre-test activities Remove dentures and
dermatitis?
must be performed eyeglasses
before the EGD? Sign consent 1782. What do mydriatics do for the Dilate the pupil (My
NPO after midnight eye? "D"riatic "D" for dilate)
1767. When can an EGD client When gagg reflex returns 1783. What do miotics do for the Constrict the pupil
begin to eat after the (knocked out with xylocaine) eye?
test?
1784. Name one mydriatic Neo synephrine or
1768. Is an EGD a fasting Yes, after midnight Atropine
procedure?
1785. What do anticholinergics do Dilate the pupil
1769. What drug is given to Xylocaine (a local anesthetic) for the eye? Cycloplegia
anesthetize the pharynx? Paralyzes accommodation
1770. What are the Perforation of gut 1786. What is cycloplegia? Paralysis of the iris/pupil
complications of EGD? Aspiration secondary to emesis
1787. Which two of these classes of Mydriatics
Respiratory arrest (due to
drugs cause tachycardia? Anticholinergics
valium)
(sympathetic effects)
1771. What two discomforts Vomiting
1788. What is the most common use To cause cycloplegia
are common during an Gagging
for anticholinergics in the Dilation
EGD?
eye? Allowing eye exam
1772. What is the most Secondary respiratory arrest
1789. How should eye ointments be Placed on the lower inner
dangerous complication (valium)
given? eye lid, then have client
of EGD?
close eyes
1773. What is the most Sore throat
1790. Name two anticholinergics Cyclogel, atropine
common complaint after
used in the eye.
an EGD?
1791. Name one carbonic anhydrase Diamox
1774. Carbonic Anhydrase Treat glaucoma
inhibitor
Inhibitors Decreases aqueous humor
production 1792. How should the eye drops be Place drops into the lower
Diuresis given? conjunctival sac
1793. How is the flow of eye From inner canthus to
Diamox is an example irrigational fluid directed? outer canthus
1775. Anticholinergic Dilates pupils 1794. Name two miotics Pilocarpine, Timpotic (or
Causes photophobia any drug ending in -lol)
Used preoperatively for cataract
removal 1795. Define nuclear family A family of parents and
Don't use in glaucoma their offspring
1796. When does a nuclear family When aunts or uncles or
Atropine is an example become an extended family? grandparents live with the
1776. Miotic Constricts pupil; Timoptic family
1797. In America, the family is the True
Pilocarpine are examples basic unit of society. (T/F)
1777. Mydriatic Tachycardia 1798. Give the 2 major roles of the To protect and socialize
Photophobia family in society
Dilates pupil
1799. What percentage of North 50%
Do not use in glaucoma
American families are single-
parent?
Neo-synephrine is an example
1800. 90% of single-parent families Female
1778. What do carbonic Decrease production of aqueous
are headed by a ___________.
anhydrase inhibitors do humor and thus decrease
to the eye? intraocular pressure.
1801. In what step of the Assessment phase 1813. How many days of the You take it on days 5-24, but
nursing process does menstrual cycle do you not on days 24-28 and 1-4 (8
the nurse ask the take the combination pill? days off)
family about their
1814. How long before surgery One week before surgery
beliefs on illness?
must you discontinue oral
1802. What is the first thing Nurse must first examine her own contraceptives?
a nurse must do to values
1815. If a women forgets to take Take it as soon as she
help families in
pill one day, what should remembers it, and take next pill
crisis?
she do? at regular time.
1803. Anxiety-producing Obsessions
1816. What if a woman forgets Take 2 pills a day for two days
thoughts are
to take the pill for two in a row and then resume
called_____.
days in a row? What normal schedule.
1804. Repetitive actions Compulsions -- such as washing should she do?
designed to reduce hands over and over, dusting
1817. What should a woman do Throw away pack and start new
anxiety are furniture 3 hours per day, refusing
if she forgets to take her pack same day. use back-up
called_____. to turn your back to anyone
pill for 3 days or more? contraceptive method for 7
1805. Which defense Displacement days
mechanism is most
1818. If a woman doesn't stop Thrombophlebitis
closely associated
oral contraceptives one
with obsessive-
week before surgery she
compulsive disorder?
is at risk for
1806. Should you allow an Yes, give them time to do their ritual developing______.
obsessive- and try to set limit and redirect
1819. People who smoke more 15, because if you smoke you
compulsive person
than ______ cigarettes have constriction of vessels
perform their
per day should not be on and this potentates the
compulsive behavior?
oral contraceptives. chances that a woman on oral
1807. Should you ever No, they will become very anxious contraceptives will get
make an obsessive- thrombophlebitis
compulsive person
1820. If a women on oral Yes, however, if 2 missed
stop their compulsive
contraceptives misses a periods occur,stop and have a
behavior?
period, should she still pregnancy test.
1808. Is the patient with Neurotic-- they know reality take pills?
obsessive-
1821. Will breakthrough Yes, after about 3-6 months of
compulsive disorder
bleeding, nausea and treatment.
neurotic or
vomiting and breast
psychotic?
tenderness go away when
1809. Should you confront No, just say things like :You a woman is on oral
the obsessive- washed your hands for so long you contraceptives?
compulsive patient must have been very anxious."
1822. Osteoarthritis is a Degenerative, joint
with the absurdity of
________ disease of the
their behavior?
______.
1810. What should you do if Get them started earlier-- for
1823. Osteoarthritis is most True
an obsessive- example if they wash their hands for
commonly caused by the
compulsive patient is 1/2 hours before meals and are
wear and tear of life. (T/F)
always late due to always late for breakfast, just get
their rituals? them started 1/2 hour earlier. 1824. The most common Joint pain
symptom of osteoarthritis
1811. What are the two Progestin only and combination
is ________ __________.
types of oral progesterone and estrogen
contraceptives? 1825. What two joints are most knee and hip
commonly affected in
1812. How many days of the All 28 days
osteoarthritis?
menstrual cycle do
you take the 1826. To control the pain of Heat
progestin only pill? osteoarthritis one should
use heat or cold?
1827. What three medications are Aspirin, non-steroidal 1846. What type of hearing Conductive
used in osteoarthritis? inflammatory (NSAIDs) loss is associated
Indocen, Ibuprofen, steroids with otosclerosis?
1828. What do you observe on the Heberden's nodes 1847. Which sex has a Women
fingers of the client higher incidence of
osteoarthritis? otosclerosis?
1829. Are Heberden's nodes Not in the beginning, can be 1848. Do hearing aids help Yes
painful? later as swelling occurs in otosclerosis?
1830. Are rest periods and range Yes, rest is probably the most 1849. What will be the Bone conduction will be better than
of motion exercises effective thing they can do. results of the Rinne air conduction
appropriate in the care of test in otosclerosis?
osteoarthritis?
1850. Is stapedectomy done Local
1831. The pain of osteoarthritis Better with rest, worse with under general or local
is usually better or worse activity anesthesia?
with rest? With activity?
1851. If the client complains It is normal due to edema. The
1832. What age group gets 60-80 years old of decreased hearing hearing will start to improve within
osteoarthritis? after stapedectomy six weeks.
what would you say?
1833. Osteoarthritis is more False, it occurs with equal
common in females. (T/F) frequency 1852. Which side will the Depends on M: operative side
client be allowed to promotes drainage, un-operative
1834. For cervical osteoarthritis A cervical collar
lie upon post- side prevents graft dislodgement.
the client should wear...
stapedectomy? Don't make a big deal of position
1835. What is arthroplasty Joint replacement post-op
1836. What is arthodesis? Joint fusion 1853. What two drugs are Codeine/Demerol for pain,
1837. What is otosclerosis? Overgrowth of spongy bone in commonly give post- Dramamine for dizziness
the middle ear that doesn't stapedectomy?
allow the bones of the middle 1854. Cysts on the ovaries False, usually benign
ear to vibrate are usually malignant.
1838. What will the client with Buzzing or ringing, in the ears (T/F)
otosclerosis complain of (tinnitus) 1855. What is the #1 reason Remove before they transform into
besides hearing loss? why MD's remove malignancy.
1839. Do people have a loss of Yes ovrian cysts?
hearing with otosclerosis? 1856. Do small ovarian No, only large ones
1840. What is corrective surgery Stapedectomy cysts cause
for otosclerosis called? symptoms?

1841. Should side rails be up Yes, client may feel dizzy 1857. Common signs of Low back pain
after stapedectomy ? large ovarian cysts Pelvic pain
are... Abnormal bleeding
1842. What should the client coughing
avoid post-stapedectomy? sneezing 1858. What does torsion of Twisting of cyst with interruption of
blowing nose an ovarian cyst its blood supply
swimming mean?
showers 1859. What is the big danger Necrosis and rupture of ovary
flying from torsion?
1843. What warning should you Get up slowly 1860. What other disorders Appendicitis, rupture of a fallopian
give the client about resemble rupture of tube pregnancy
getting up after ovarian cysts?
stapedectomy?
1861. What affect do oral They cause it to stop growing and
1844. What should the client An initial decrease with the contraceptives have decrease in size.
expect regarding hearing benefits of surgery noticeable on ovarian cysts?
post-stapedectomy? in 6 weeks
1862. What are the three Pain, abdominal distention,
1845. What should the post- Open his mouth, this de- most common signs abdominal rigidity
stapedectomy client do if pressurizes the middle ear. of ovarian cyst
he must sneeze? rupture?
1863. Compare signs of non-ruptured Non-ruptured: low back 1879. The 2nd stage of labor and 1 1/2 hours, 1/2 hour
ovarian cysts with the sings of pain, dull pelvic pain, delivery lasts ______ hours
a ruptured ovarian cyst. (Give 3 abnormal uterine bleeding for a primagravida and
for each) especially with ______ hours for a
menstruation multigravida.
1880. The 3rd stage of labor and Expulsion of the placenta
Ruptured: acute pain,
delivery accomplishes...
abdominal distention, and
abdominal rigidity 1881. The 3rd stage of labor and Less than one hour
delivery lasts...
1864. After surgery to remove an 4-6 weeks
ovarian cyst the woman can 1882. What occurs during the 4th Recovery
return to normal activities stage of labor and delivery?
between _______ to _______ 1883. When does the 4th stage of 2 hours after expulsion of the
weeks, labor and delivery end? placenta
1865. How soon after removal of an 4-6 weeks 1884. What is the average blood 500 cc
ovarian cyst can a woman loss during labor?
resume sexual intercourse?
1885. When the terminology "the If the statement refers to
1866. Should a woman douche after No, it is not good to three phases of labor" is phases of labor, it means the
surgery to remove an ovarian douche on a regular used, what does it mean? 3-step process of latency,
cyst? basis, it destroys natural followed by an active and
protective vaginal flora transitional
1867. What does lightening mean? When the fetal head 1886. Normal length of pregnancy 240 to 300
descends into the pelvis is ______ to ______ days.
1868. When does lightening occur in 2-3 weeks before birth for 1887. Pregnancy is divided into 3
pregnancy? primipara ____ trimesters.
1869. What is the most common After it occurs the woman 1888. During the first trimester Increased
positive effect of lightening? can breathe much easier the woman experiences
1870. Name the two earliest signs Low back pain and show decreased or increased
that a woman is likely in labor. (blood-tinge mucous plug vaginal secretions?
is passed) 1889. When are urine pregnancy At the time of the first
1871. What is the most RELIABLE or The onset of regular tests positive? missed period
VALID indication that a woman contractions that result in 1890. Pregnancy tests test for the HCG (human chorionic
is in labor? progressive presence of what hormone? gonadotropin hormone)
dilation/effacement of the
cervix 1891. Urine and blood pregnancy False, these tests only
tests are enough evidence suggest pregnancy
1872. What is the meaning of cervical The cervix thins to be certain of pregnancy.
effacement? (T/F)
1873. Into how many stages is labor 4 1892. What is Hegar's sign? Uterine softening
and delivery divided?
1893. What is Chadwick's sign? Blue-tint to the cervix
1874. What is accomplished during Full effacement and
the first stage of labor and dilation 1894. The first trimester goes 1, 13
delivery? from week _____ to
week_____.
1875. How long is the first stage of 12 hours, 6 hours
labor and delivery for a 1895. The second trimester goes 14, 27
primagravida? For a from week ____ to week
multigravida? ______.

1876. THe cervix is fully dilated when 10 1896. Which week can mother 16th to 20th week (the end of
it is ______ cm. first feel the fetus move? the 4th month into the 5th
month)
1877. The 2nd stage of labor and Delivery of the infant
delivery accomplishes.... 1897. What is the word used to Quickening
identify the feeling that the
1878. The 2nd stage of labor and Full dilation, delivery, mother experiences when
delivery begins with ______ and infant the fetus moves?
ends with _______ of the
________. 1898. The 3rd trimester goes from 28, 40
week _____ to week______.
1899. In which trimester does the Third 1917. What is the #1 Both are internal forms of radiotherapy
woman most feel backache? difference between however, in sealed, a solid object is
sealed & unsealed placed in a body cavity; in unsealed a
1900. Which trimester is the fetus First
radiation? radioactive substance is injected in
most susceptible to effects
liquid form into a vein
of outside agents?
1918. What are the 3 Time, distance, shielding
1901. What is the name of the Teratogenesis
principles the
process in which outside
nurse uses to
agents cause birth defects in
protect
the fetus?
self when caring
1902. Which trimester is nausea First for a client with a
and vomiting most common? sealed radioactive
1903. Which trimester do Braxton- Third implant?
Hicks contractions begin? 1919. What is another Beam or X-rays
1904. In addition to the nares, Behind and on top of the name for external
where else should the nurse ears radiation therapy?
assess for skin irritation 1920. What is the In external the tumor is bombarded
when nasal cannulae are in difference between with x-rays & nothing is placed in the
use? external radiation body; in internal there is some
1905. What are the two early signs Restlessness, tachycardia treatment and radioactive substance introduced into
of hypoxia? internal radiation the body
treatment?
1906. What is the highest flow rate 6 L/min
appropriate for nasal 1921. Of sealed internal, Sealed internal then unsealed internal,
cannulae? unsealed internal, external radiation treatment is of no
and external danger to the nurse unless the nurse
1907. How often should the nares Every 6-8 hours radiation is in the radiation treatment room
of a client with O2 by nasal treatment, which during the treatment
cannulae be assessed for is MOST
skin breakdown? dangerous for the
1908. What is the maximal O2 flow 2 L/min nurse?
rate for the client with 1922. Should pregnant Never. (Lawsuit time!)
COPD? nurses care for
1909. What are the signs of O2 Confusion, headache patient receiving
toxicity? sealed internal
radiotherapy?
1910. What can happen if the client They may stop breathing
with COPD is given a high 1923. Should pregnant Maybe, as long as they don't contact
flow rate of O2? nurses care for a body secretions.
patient receiving
1911. What is the problem with Dries the mucous
unsealed internal
giving high flow rates of O2 membranes.
radiotherapy?
by nasal cannulae?
1924. What skin products No ointments with metals like zinc
1912. Can a client smoke in the No, the O2 delivery device
should the patient oxide, no talcum powder
room when the O2 is turned must be removed from the
receiving
off? wall or the tank out of the
external
room before a client can
radiotherapy
smoke
AVOID?
1913. When O2 is administered, it Humidified
1925. Describe the Use plain water only, no soaps, pat
must be...
hygiene measures dry, can use cornstarch for itch
1914. Masks deliver higher or Higher the you teach the
lower concentrations of O2 patient receiving
than nasal cannulae? external
1915. How often should the nurse At least once per shift radiotherapy?
check the flow rate of the 1926. What are the major Pruritis, erythema, burning, sloughing
O2? side effects of of skin, anorexia, nausea & vomiting,
1916. O2 is an explosive (T/F) False, it does not explode-- radiotherapy? diarrhea, bone marrow depression
it supports combustion
1927. When the patient is Wear gloves while in possible 1940. The rape victim requires False, the exam is a very long,
receiving radioactive contact with urine, special only a pelvic exam & a invasive head-to-toe exam
iodine what precautions taken to dispose of head to toe
precautions is/are the urine. exam is not done, so the
most important? client is not stressed.
(T/F)
1928. Rape is a crime of False, it is a violent act
passion. (T/F) 1941. During exam the vaginal False, lubrication could alter the
speculum is lubricated evidence
1929. Most rapes occur False, usually the same race
before it is
involving two people of
placed in the vagina?
different
(T/F)
races. (T/F)
1942. What drug is often used Kits approved by FDA:
1930. When must In the emergency room
to prevent pregnancy Preven (levornorgestrel &
psychological care of
after rape? ethinly estradiol) or Plan B:
the rape victim
Levonorgestrel (less N&V)
begin?
1943. When working with a rape Dignity & respect
1931. Name the two phases Disorganization phase, re-
victim they should be
of Rape Trauma organziation phase
treated
Syndrome.
with ________ and
1932. Immediately after rape, False, calmness & a composed _________.
a woman who is calm attitude are SIGNS of Rape
1944. After rape, a woman Sexually transmitted disease
& Trauma syndrome, (calm person is
needs follow-up (STD's), i.e: AIDS, gonorrhea,
composed is adjusting just as disorganized as the crying
exam/test for syphilis...
well. (T/F) and upset lady)
_______ __________
1933. Name the 3 physical GI irritability, itching or burning on ________.
symptoms of Rape urination, skeletal muscle tension*
1945. After discharge contact Telephone
Trauma Syndrome. don't forget PAIN
with the rape victim is
1934. Victims of rape often Themselves maintained
blame ___________. via the _______.
1935. In the long term Residence or/an telephone number 1946. Raynaud's is an arterial Arterial disease characterized
reorganization phase or venous disease? by spasms
the woman is likely to
1947. What part of the body is The fingers
change ______.
most affected by
1936. In the long term Nightmares Raynaud's?
reorganization phase
1948. Raynaud's affects males Women (young)
the woman is likely to
or females mostly?
experience ____ during
sleep. 1949. What 3 things precipitate Exposure to cold, emotional
a Raynaud's attack? stress, tobacco use
1937. In the long term 1. Indoors or outdoors (depending
reorganization phase on where the rape occured) 1950. The digits in Raynaud's Cold
the woman has 4 2. Being alone or in crowds are hot or cold?
common fears. Name 3. People being behind them
1951. What will the fingers look Pale, sometimes blue
them.... 4. Sexual fears
like?
1938. Before evident from the Consent forms
1952. What will you find when Weak/absent pulses, cool, pale,
woman's body can be
you assess the legs of loss of hair, shiny thin skin
gathered for rape,
these patients?
_____ _____ must be
completed. 1953. What 3 sensations will Pain, numbness, tingling
the client experience?
1939. Should a female staff Always
member be present 1954. What should the client Cold weather. (They should
when the rape with Raynaud's avoid? wear gloves & stop smoking)
victim is being 1955. In the recovery room On either side
examined? (PACU) the patient should
be positioned....
1956. What reflex is Gag reflex 1972. In the oliguric phase, High, high, high
commonly routinely blood volume is ______,
tested in the sodium is
recovery _____, and potassium is
room? ________.
1957. When will the When the gag reflex returns 1973. How long does the 7-10 days
artificial airway be oliguric phase last?
removed in the
1974. In the diuretic phase, Low, low, low
recovery room?
blood volume is ______,
1958. Vital signs are Every 15 minutes sodium is
measured _______ in _____, and potassium is
the recovery room. ________.
1959. In the recovery room To the side with the cheek & neck 1975. How long does the 3-4 days, maximum time 2-3
the head should be extended slightly down diuretic phase last? weels
....
1976. In the diuretic phase: 4-5 liters per 24 hours
1960. In the recovery room Slightly extended urine output
the neck should be ... can=________ to
________ liters/24
1961. Can post-operative Yes
hours.
pain medications be
given in the 1977. Which is more Oliguria, because since you are
recovery room? dangerous, oliguria or losing more fluids you are
anuria? Why? actually hemo-concentrating the
1962. Give 3 stages of Oliguric, diuretic, recovery
hyperkalemia more
acute renal failure.
1978. Respiratory Distress False, it occurs in premature
1963. Define renal failure. Inability of the kidney to excrete
Syndrome occurs in infants
wastes & maintain fluid & electrolyte
full-term infants.
balance
(T/F)
1964. What is the BIG Hyperkalemia and it's effect on the
1979. Respiratory Distress 37
danger in renal heart
Syndrome hardly ever
failure?
occurs after
1965. What is anuria? Less than 50 cc of urine in 24 hours week ____ of gestation.
1966. What is oliguria? Less than 500 cc of urine in 24 1980. Respiratory Distress Hyaline Membrane Disease (HMD)
hours Syndrome is also know
1967. What are the dietary Increased carbohydrates, increased as ....
modifications for the protein. 1981. The cause of RDS is a Surfactant
recovery phase of lack of _______.
acute renal failure?
1982. Surfactant _____ Decreases, alveoli
1968. What are the dietary Increased carbohydrates, increased surface tension inside
modifications for the protein. Moderate potassium & ________.
diuretic phase of sodium. (May need to increase fluids
1983. Surfactant prevents the Collapse
acute renal failure? in diuresis results in dehydration.)
_________ of the
1969. What are the dietary Increased carbohydrates, decreased alveoli.
modifications for the protein, decreased sodium,
1984. Lack of surfactant Breath
oliguric phase of decreased potassium, decreased
causes the neonate to
acute renal failure? water.
lose lung capacity with
1970. What causes the Accumulation of wasted in the blood each _______.
itching seen in renal and the associated signs. This
1985. Death from Respiratory 96
failure? occurs in the end stage renal failure.
Distress Syndrome
1971. What is the first The oliguric phase most
phase in acute renal commonly occurs within
failure? _____ hours of birth.
1986. Within in minutes of Retractions, nasal flaring, and
birth, what 3 respiratory grunting
difficulties
occur?
1987. What Survanta (Surfactant) via ET tube. Repeat 1996. Retrolental fibroplasia can result in Blindness from
medication is doses are often required. _________. retinal damage
given? By
1997. High ventilatory pressures result in Bronch-pulmonary
what route?
what chronic lung dyplasia
1988. What Respiratory acidosis (CO2 is retained) problem?
acid/base
1998. At what time of year does rheumatoid Spring
disorder is
arthritis flare up?
seen in
Respiratory 1999. As with any inflammatory disease grade fever
Distress clients with rheumatoid
Syndrome? arthritis have a low-_________.

1989. What will you Decreased lung sounds with crackles 2000. What factor is present in the blood The rheumatoid
auscultate when the client has factor
over the lungs rheumatoid arthritis?
of the neonate
with
Respiratory
Distress
Syndrome?
1990. What lab test L/S ratio (Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio)
assesses the
risk of
Respiratory
Distress
Syndrome?
1991. What L/S ratio 2/1
indicated fetal
lung
maturity?
1992. What other Amniotic fluid is analyzed for presence of
test is used to PG
confirm fetal
lung
maturity?
1993. Severe cases PEEP (Positive end expiratory pressure) &
of Respiratory CPAP. (Continuous positive airway
Distress pressure), to keep alveoli open while on the
Syndrome ventilator. High frequency jet ventilation is
requires sometimes used.
ventilation
with
_________.
1994. What may be Bicarbonate
added to the
IV to correct
the acidosis?
1995. High flow Retrolental fibroplasia (an eye problem)
rates of O2
delivered in
Respiratory
Distress
Syndrome can
cause
__________
__________.