VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Architecture
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Which among the following helps us to understand the depth of a research study?
a) The abstract b) Keywords c) Research questions d) Research title
2. The person who fills a survey Questionnaire is known as _____
a) Researcher b) Respondent c) Surveyor d) Supervisor
3. The critical sequence of research steps that are followed in a study are
a) Abstract ; Data analysis ; Literature review : Methodology : Conclusion : findings
b) Introduction ; Literature Review ; Mehtodology ; Conclusions ; findings
c) Abstract ; Methodology ; Literature Review ; Conclusion ; results ; referances
d) Introduction ; Literature review ; Methodology ; results ; findings ; Conclusion.
4. A hypothesis is a
a) Tentative statement whose validity is still to be tested
b) Statement made by a person who holds a Ph D degree
c) Universal fact d) All of the above
5. Which among the following is not a type of quantitative research?
a) Survey b) Experimental c) Descriptive d) Correlational

6. ______ studies follow the same individuals throughout a long course of time
a) Cross - sequential b) Cross – Sectional c) Correlation d) Longitudinal
7. ______ data is collected through the interviews, observations, questionnaire , case study(or)
survey.
a) Primary survey b) Secondary survey c) Tertiary survey d) Online survey
8. ______ designs allows researchers to examine multiphase groups in a short period of time,
compared to _____ design.
a) Cross – sequential , longitudinal b) Cross – sectional
c) Longitudinal, cross - sequential d) Cross – sequential , cross sectional
9. Research that provides solution for real – life problems
a) Pure research b) Ex-planatory research c) Applied research d) Empirical research
10. Ethnography was originally used in
a) Physiology b) Anthropology c) Ecology d) Sociology
11. Bibliography provided in a research dissertation :
a) Has no relevance to research b) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher
c) Helps those interested in further research d) All the above
12. Which of the following research types focuses on Ameliorating the prevailing situations?
a) Fundamental research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Experimental research
13. What is Research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. A graph.
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
Ver – A - AT – 1 of 8
14. Statement I : Objectivity refers to whether a test measures what it says it measures.
Statement II : Validity refers to whether a test consistently yields the same or similar results.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
15. The objectives of exploring existing literature is to identify which of the following issues?
i) What is already known about the domain of study?
ii) What concepts and theories are relevant to the study area?
iii) How to get the research funded?
iv) What are the significant controversies in the area?
v) Are there any inconsistencies in the findings of the area?
a) i, ii, iii & iv only b) ii, iii, iv & v only c) i, ii, iv & v only d) i, ii, iii & v only
16. A case study is a process of research into a project and documenting through
a) only writings b) only sketches & diagrams
c) only photos d) all the above
17. Case studies helps in collecting
a) Qualitative data b) Quantitative data
c) Both Qualitative and Quantitative data d) None of the above
18. Comparative case studies involves
a) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a common focus (or) goal.
b) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
c) the analysis and synthesis of the differences and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
d) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a different focus (or) goal
19. Case study research typically includes _____ type of data collection techniques.
a) Single b) Two c) Multiple d) Unique
20. _______ case studies are useful for learning about unique cases. Here in the study subject itself
is the primary interest.
a) Intrinsic b) Instrumental c) Explanatory d) Important
21. Sampling is advantageous as it ______
a) saves time b) helps in capital saving c) both (a) & (b) d) increases accuracy
22. The longitudinal approach of research deals with _______
a) Short term researches b) Long term researches
c) Horizontal researches d) None of the above
23. Which of the following is non – probability sampling?
a) Snowball b) Random c) Cluster d) Stratified
24. The Research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more specifically, the
effect of one variable on another are known as :
a) Causal Research b) Applied Research
c) Conclusive Research d) Exploratory Research
Ver – A - AT – 2 of 8
25. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below :
a) Problem formulation , Analysis, Development of Research design , Hypothesis
construction , Collection of data , Arriving at Generalizations and Conclusions.
b) Development of Research design , Hypothesis construction , Problem formulation , Data
analysis , Arriving at Conclusions and Data Collection.
c) Problem formulation , Hypothesis construction , Development of Research design ,
Collection of data , Data analysis and Formulation of Generalization and Conclusions.
d) Problem formulation , Deciding on the sample and Data collection tools , Formulation of
Hypothesis , Collection and Interpretation of Research evidence.
26. Oral histories can be based on
a) Interviews with people b) Stories and tales
c) Songs d) All of the above
27. If two variables X and Y have significant negative correlation, which of the following statement
is true?
a) X causes variation in Y b) Y causes variation in X
c) X & Y vary together d) X & Y cause each other to vary.
28. Which of the following statistical methods are commonly used to analyse simulation results?
a) Regression analysis b) t – test
c) Analysis of variance d) All of the above
29. The findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
a) Qualitative Research b) Historical Research
c) Simulation Research d) Correlation Research
30. Which of the following characterize an Experimental Research?
i) Research questions ii) Research hypothesis
iii) Purpose of Research study iv) Narrative
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) i , ii & iii
31. Researches use both open ended and closed ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statement is correct?
a) Open ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researchers
predetermined response categories.
b) Closed ended questions provide quantitative data in the participants own words.
c) Open ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
d) Closed ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
32. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called
a) Categorical variable b) Independent variable
c) Dependent variable d) Intervening variable
33. A simple random sample is one in which
a) from a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected.
b) a non – probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize.
c) the researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
d) every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
34. Which of these is not a type of survey research?
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive c) Casual d) Deductive
35. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study ______
a) Vocational Interest b) Human Relations
c) Professional Competence d) Achievement Motivation
Ver – A - AT – 3 of 8
36. A hypothesis is a statement having no relationship between the variables at an initial stage
a) True b) False
37. A Null hypothesis is the one which a researcher is trying to prove _____
a) null b) wrong c) right d) inappropriate
38. An alternate hypothesis states that the random exam scores are collected from both men and
women. But are the scores of the two groups (men and women) the same or are they different?
Formulate the null hypothesis by choosing suitable option.
a) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is equal to the exam score of the women.
b) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is greater than the exam score of the women.
c) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is lesser than the exam score of the women.
39. What is the another name for a directional hypothesis?
a) One – tailed hypothesis b) Two – tailed hypothesis
c) Significance hypothesis d) None of the above
40. Flow of hypothesis testing shall be :
1) State the hypothesis 2) Interpret results
3) Analyse sample data 4) Formulate on analysis plan
a) 1.3.2.4 b) 1.2.3.4 c) 1.4.3.2 d) None
41. Mean of 15 , 20 , 22 , 34 , 47 is _____
a) 31 b) 22 c) 12.4 d) 27.6
42. The standard deviation for the following data is _______
P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Age 78 22 38 44 46 28 17 54 62 31
a) 15.31 b) 17.94 c) 18.1 d) 19.33
43. In correlation, if the values of two variables move in the same direction ______
a) The correlation is said to be non - linear b) The correlation is said to be positive
c) The correlation is said to be negative d) The correlation is said to be linear
44. Multiple regression analysis is a ______ type of statistical analysis.
a) Univariate analysis b) Bivariate analysis
c) Multivariate analysis d) Canonical analysis
45. ________ are considered as Qualitative data.
a) Nominal data and Ordinal data b) Nominal data and Discrete data
c) Discrete data and Continuous data d) Nominal data and Continuous data
46. Self plagiarism is also known as
a) Direct Plagiarism b) Auto Plagiarism
c) Paraphrasing Plagiarism d) Complete Plagiarism
47. Which one of the following is not an referencing style?
a) APA b) MLA c) Harvard system d) MRA
48. Which is not one among the principles of research ethics
a) Informed consent b) Conflict of Interest c) Respect for persons d) Non - Integrity
49. Which one amongst the four is not an Intellectual Property Rights?
a) Patents b) Signature c) Copyrights d) Trademarks
50. Which one amongst the four is not a part of referencing requirements?
a) Another b) Style c) Title d) Date
Ver – A - AT – 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Architecture)
[50 MARKS]
51. An ART DECO style of Architecture is commonly found in _____
a) Chandigarh & Ahmedabad b) Kolkata & Mumbai
c) Shimla d) Bengaluru & Hyderabad
52. Which of the following statements are false :
a) William Morris was associated with Arts & Crafts Movement.
b) Art Nouveau advocated geometric figures as source of design.
c) Art Nouveau objected to borrowing of ideas from past and other cultures.
d) All of above.
53. An Entabulature consists of
a) Cornice, Tenia, Architecture b) Architecture, Frieze, Cornice
c) Frieze, Cornice, Triglyphs d) Cornice, Guttae, Tympanum
54. Match the books listed in group - I with the Authors in Group – II
P – A pattern Language 1. Louis H Sullivan
Q – Letters to a Young Architect 2. Jane Jacobs
R – The Autobiography of an Idea 3. Christopher Charles Benninger
S – Death & Life of Great American Cities 4. Christopher Alexander
a) P–4,Q–1,R–3,S–2 b) P–4,Q–3,R–2,S–1
c) P–4,Q–3,R–1,S–2 d) P–1,Q–3,R–4,S–2
55. Ville Radieuse was conceptualized by ____
a) Mies Van der Rohe b) Alvar Alto
c) Frank Lloyd Wright d) Le Corbusier
56. Parthenon is an example of ______ Architecture
a) Roman b) Greek c) Gothic d) Byzantine
57. Ziggurat is a Religious counter of ________ Civilization
a) Mesopotamian b) Egyptian c) Indus valley d) Ancient China
58. The Colosseum, a large amphitheater that hosted events like gradiatorial game was built during
____
a) Greek period b) Roman period c) Renaissance period d) Byzantine period
59. Calligraphy played an important role in _______ Architecture
a) Islamic b) Greek c) Roman d) Gothic
60. Cities which have fair share of British Colonial architecture still present in
a) Kolkata b) Chennai c) Mumbai d) All of the above
61. Headquarters of Banks displacing manufacturing units in City cores indicate which of the
following :
a) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Primary sector of Economy.
b) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Tertiary sector of Economy.
c) Primary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.
d) Tertiary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.

Ver – A - AT – 5 of 8
62. The primary difference between Society and Community is
a) Community has a geographical connotation while society does not.
b) Society refers to group of people in a City while community refers to people in villages.
c) Individuals in society are identified through kinship while individual identity is maintained
in community.
d) None of the above.
63. Circular migration refers to
a) Migrant assisting other migrants to reach the place of destination.
b) Migrant revisiting his place of origin repeatedly from the place of destination.
c) Migrant moving from one place of destination to another.
d) Migrant locating in the place of destination only.
64. Primary source of data includes which of the following :
a) Data secured from gazettes
b) Data from Census and Government documents
c) Data generated by researcher d) Data from literature
65. Which of the following statements about Utility in Economics is true?
a) When we are making choices, we are weighing utility?
b) Utility is subjective
c) Utility explains how population deals with scarcity
d) All of the above
66. The insulating ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain unaffected d) None of the above
67. The recommended illumination levels for homes is often :
a) 300 lux b) 500 lux c) 150 lux d) 400 lux
68. For GRIHA certification, minimum points required to obtain is__
a) 100 b) 75 c) 50 d) 25
69. Star rating of an air conditioner is determined by its
a) Power consumption b) Energy efficiency ratio
c) Costing capacity d) Power of compressor
70. A wall of thickness 0.6m of thermal conductivity 0.6W/m-K has a surface area of 1m2. If the
inner of outer temperatures of the wall are 1840C. If 340 respectively, the rate of heat
transfer will be
a) 150W b) 75W c) 750W d) 1500W
71. Which of the following does not represent the composition of a filler slab
a) Steel, concrete and wood b) Steel, concrete and clay blocks
c) Steel, clay pots and concrete d) Both (b) and (c)
72. “Triangulating the curved surface” is the principle of which of the following structural systems
a) Flying buttresses b) Nubian vault c) Geodesic dome d) Stilted Arch
73. Pneumatic structures are
a) Stabilised by variation in air pressure
b) Membrane structures which are light weight
c) Framed linear geometry d) Both (a) & (b)
74. Double glazed windows are used mostly to
a) Eliminate noise and durability b) Thermal insulation and aesthetic appeal
c) Eliminate noise and thermal insulation d) Inexpensive and aesthetic appeal
Ver – A - AT – 6 of 8
75. Wt Glazing implies the use of which of the following :
a) Rubber Gaskets b) Silicone sealants c) Wood beading d) Aluminium sections
76. Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to
a) Water – Cement Ratio b) Water – Sand Ratio
c) Cement – Sand Ratio d) Water – Plasticiser Ratio
77. Which of the following is not a vehicle in paints
a) Lin seed oil b) Tung oil c) Poppy oil d) Turpentine oil
78. Timber can be made fire resistant reasonably by :
a) Seasoning b) Coating with Tar paint
c) Soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate d) Treating with Creosote oil
79. An increase in the carbon content of a steel leads to
a) Increase in strength b) Decrease in strength
c) Increase in ductility d) None of the above
80. Which among the following is a non – inflammable plastic
a) Urea formaldehyde plastic b) Cellulose acetate plastic
c) Phenol formaldehyde plastics d) Polyvinyl Chloride plastic
81. Water for Industrial uses may be obtained after ______ treatment of sewage
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) None of the above
82. Which of the following is not a way of improving energy efficiency in a building?
a) Use of LED lights b) Focus on insulation
c) Building design as per ECBC d) Use of branded gadgets
83. Inverter ACs are characterized by
a) Adjustable speed of compressor b) Faster cooling
c) Turning off – on upon reaching set temperature
d) Zero electricity requirements.
84. International Noise Council and the World Health Organization (WHO) has recommended that
noise levels in hospital areas should be :
a) 0 to 10 dB b) 11 to 20 dB c) 21 to 30 dB d) 30 to 40 dB
85. Ideal inclination for escalators is :
a) 15 to 20 degrees b) 20 to 25 degrees c) 30 to 35 degrees d) 35 to 40 degrees
86. The maximum bending moment (KNM) in a simply supported beam of 8m span subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of 20kN (inclusive of its self weight) over the entire span is
a) 380 b) 212 c) 160 d) 64
87. The reaction at support B in the beam shown is

a) 14.5 kN b) 16.5 kN c) 15.5 kN d) 13.5 kN

88. Expression for Young’s modulus and Bulk modulus is :

a) E = 2c (1 + ) b) E = 9kC c) E = 3k (1 - 2) d) None of the above
3k  C

Ver – A - AT – 7 of 8
89. For concrete grade M20 and steel grade of Fe 415, what would be the nearest cross reaction of
the beam if the ultimate moment of Resistance is 180 kN m. Assume d = 2b
a) 253  506mm b) 230  450mm c) 220  600mm d) None of the above
90. The concept of pressure lines is very useful in understanding the concept of ____
a) Bending mechanism b) Shear mechanism
c) Torsion mechanism d) Load carrying mechanism
91. Which of the following does not indicate the activity of visual survey?
a) To record the characteristics of urban space
b) To identify the elements to be studies in detail
c) Measured drawing of precincts d) Experiencing the urban district
92. Which of the following is not the responsibility of urban local body according to latest
legislation?
a) Preparing local areas plans b) Sanitation, Waste management
c) Augmenting energy
d) Enabling public participation in managing urban areas
93. Temporality in urban space is not depicted by which of the following :
a) Transformation of urban space to accommodate multiple activities through the day
b) Use of public transport
c) Temporary structures used to provide shelter
d) Both (b) & (c)
94. Efficient last mile connectivity with respect to public transport is achieved through which of
the following :
a) Walkability to public transport facilities b) Use of cars to reach destination
c) Use of multiple modes of transport
d) Least penetration of public transport networks within urban districts.
95. An “Infill” in the context of an urban area would demand which of the following :
a) Response to the heritage context of the site
b) Response to socio - economic context of the site
c) Response through environment friendly materials
d) Both (a) & (b)
96. Which of the following forces uplifts landscape and create new forms?
a) Hydrological forces b) Biological forces
c) Tectonic forces d) Soil forming forces
97. Which of the following is not characteristic of Mughal gardens?
a) Linear water elements b) Geometric definition
c) Minimalism d) Strong definition of axis
98. Which of the following is achieved through plant material in landscapes
a) Modifying microclimate b) Creating economic opportunities
c) Creating a sense of place d) All of the above
99. The degree of integration of plants and environment changes overtime is a process called
a) Succession b) Progression c) Intrusion d) Reclamation
100. Which of the following is not true about wetlands
a) Home to biodiversity b) Most suitable ecologically to reclaim land
c) Recharge aquifers d) Transition between land and water
Ver – A - AT – 8 of 8
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Architecture
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Mean of 15 , 20 , 22 , 34 , 47 is _____
a) 31 b) 22 c) 12.4 d) 27.6

2. The standard deviation for the following data is _______

P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Age 78 22 38 44 46 28 17 54 62 31
a) 15.31 b) 17.94 c) 18.1 d) 19.33

3. In correlation, if the values of two variables move in the same direction ______
a) The correlation is said to be non - linear b) The correlation is said to be positive
c) The correlation is said to be negative d) The correlation is said to be linear

4. Multiple regression analysis is a ______ type of statistical analysis.

a) Univariate analysis b) Bivariate analysis
c) Multivariate analysis d) Canonical analysis

5. ________ are considered as Qualitative data.

a) Nominal data and Ordinal data b) Nominal data and Discrete data
c) Discrete data and Continuous data d) Nominal data and Continuous data

6. Self plagiarism is also known as

a) Direct Plagiarism b) Auto Plagiarism
c) Paraphrasing Plagiarism d) Complete Plagiarism

7. Which one of the following is not an referencing style?

a) APA b) MLA c) Harvard system d) MRA

8. Which is not one among the principles of research ethics

a) Informed consent b) Conflict of Interest c) Respect for persons d) Non - Integrity

9. Which one amongst the four is not an Intellectual Property Rights?

a) Patents b) Signature c) Copyrights d) Trademarks

10. Which one amongst the four is not a part of referencing requirements?
a) Another b) Style c) Title d) Date

11. Researches use both open ended and closed ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statement is correct?
a) Open ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researchers
predetermined response categories.
b) Closed ended questions provide quantitative data in the participants own words.
c) Open ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
d) Closed ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants own words.

12. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called

a) Categorical variable b) Independent variable
c) Dependent variable d) Intervening variable
Ver – B - AT – 1 of 8
13. A simple random sample is one in which
a) from a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected.
b) a non – probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize.
c) the researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
d) every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
14. Which of these is not a type of survey research?
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive c) Casual d) Deductive
15. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study ______
a) Vocational Interest b) Human Relations
c) Professional Competence d) Achievement Motivation
16. A hypothesis is a statement having no relationship between the variables at an initial stage
a) True b) False
17. A Null hypothesis is the one which a researcher is trying to prove _____
a) null b) wrong c) right d) inappropriate
18. An alternate hypothesis states that the random exam scores are collected from both men and
women. But are the scores of the two groups (men and women) the same or are they different?
Formulate the null hypothesis by choosing suitable option.
a) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is equal to the exam score of the women.
b) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is greater than the exam score of the women.
c) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is lesser than the exam score of the women.
19. What is the another name for a directional hypothesis?
a) One – tailed hypothesis b) Two – tailed hypothesis
c) Significance hypothesis d) None of the above
20. Flow of hypothesis testing shall be :
1) State the hypothesis 2) Interpret results
3) Analyse sample data 4) Formulate on analysis plan
a) 1.3.2.4 b) 1.2.3.4 c) 1.4.3.2 d) None
21. Bibliography provided in a research dissertation :
a) Has no relevance to research b) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher
c) Helps those interested in further research d) All the above
22. Which of the following research types focuses on Ameliorating the prevailing situations?
a) Fundamental research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Experimental research
23. What is Research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. A graph.
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
24. Statement I : Objectivity refers to whether a test measures what it says it measures.
Statement II : Validity refers to whether a test consistently yields the same or similar results.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Ver – B - AT – 2 of 8
25. The objectives of exploring existing literature is to identify which of the following issues?
i) What is already known about the domain of study?
ii) What concepts and theories are relevant to the study area?
iii) How to get the research funded?
iv) What are the significant controversies in the area?
v) Are there any inconsistencies in the findings of the area?
a) i, ii, iii & iv only b) ii, iii, iv & v only c) i, ii, iv & v only d) i, ii, iii & v only
26. A case study is a process of research into a project and documenting through
a) only writings b) only sketches & diagrams
c) only photos d) all the above
27. Case studies helps in collecting
a) Qualitative data b) Quantitative data
c) Both Qualitative and Quantitative data d) None of the above
28. Comparative case studies involves
a) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a common focus (or) goal.
b) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
c) the analysis and synthesis of the differences and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
d) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a different focus (or) goal
29. Case study research typically includes _____ type of data collection techniques.
a) Single b) Two c) Multiple d) Unique
30. _______ case studies are useful for learning about unique cases. Here in the study subject itself
is the primary interest.
a) Intrinsic b) Instrumental c) Explanatory d) Important
31. Which among the following helps us to understand the depth of a research study?
a) The abstract b) Keywords c) Research questions d) Research title
32. The person who fills a survey Questionnaire is known as _____
a) Researcher b) Respondent c) Surveyor d) Supervisor
33. The critical sequence of research steps that are followed in a study are
a) Abstract ; Data analysis ; Literature review : Methodology : Conclusion : findings
b) Introduction ; Literature Review ; Mehtodology ; Conclusions ; findings
c) Abstract ; Methodology ; Literature Review ; Conclusion ; results ; referances
d) Introduction ; Literature review ; Methodology ; results ; findings ; Conclusion.
34. A hypothesis is a
a) Tentative statement whose validity is still to be tested
b) Statement made by a person who holds a Ph D degree
c) Universal fact d) All of the above
35. Which among the following is not a type of quantitative research?
a) Survey b) Experimental c) Descriptive d) Correlational
36. ______ studies follow the same individuals throughout a long course of time
a) Cross - sequential b) Cross – Sectional c) Correlation d) Longitudinal
37. ______ data is collected through the interviews, observations, questionnaire , case study(or)
survey.
a) Primary survey b) Secondary survey c) Tertiary survey d) Online survey
Ver – B - AT – 3 of 8
38. ______ designs allows researchers to examine multiphase groups in a short period of time,
compared to _____ design.
a) Cross – sequential , longitudinal b) Cross – sectional
c) Longitudinal, cross - sequential d) Cross – sequential , cross sectional
39. Research that provides solution for real – life problems
a) Pure research b) Ex-planatory research c) Applied research d) Empirical research
40. Ethnography was originally used in
a) Physiology b) Anthropology c) Ecology d) Sociology
41. Sampling is advantageous as it ______
a) saves time b) helps in capital saving c) both (a) & (b) d) increases accuracy
42. The longitudinal approach of research deals with _______
a) Short term researches b) Long term researches
c) Horizontal researches d) None of the above
43. Which of the following is non – probability sampling?
a) Snowball b) Random c) Cluster d) Stratified
44. The Research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more specifically, the
effect of one variable on another are known as :
a) Causal Research b) Applied Research
c) Conclusive Research d) Exploratory Research
45. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below :
a) Problem formulation , Analysis, Development of Research design , Hypothesis
construction , Collection of data , Arriving at Generalizations and Conclusions.
b) Development of Research design , Hypothesis construction , Problem formulation , Data
analysis , Arriving at Conclusions and Data Collection.
c) Problem formulation , Hypothesis construction , Development of Research design ,
Collection of data , Data analysis and Formulation of Generalization and Conclusions.
d) Problem formulation , Deciding on the sample and Data collection tools , Formulation of
Hypothesis , Collection and Interpretation of Research evidence.
46. Oral histories can be based on
a) Interviews with people b) Stories and tales
c) Songs d) All of the above
47. If two variables X and Y have significant negative correlation, which of the following statement
is true?
a) X causes variation in Y b) Y causes variation in X
c) X & Y vary together d) X & Y cause each other to vary.
48. Which of the following statistical methods are commonly used to analyse simulation results?
a) Regression analysis b) t – test
c) Analysis of variance d) All of the above
49. The findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
a) Qualitative Research b) Historical Research
c) Simulation Research d) Correlation Research
50. Which of the following characterize an Experimental Research?
i) Research questions ii) Research hypothesis
iii) Purpose of Research study iv) Narrative
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) i , ii & iii
Ver – B - AT – 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Architecture)
[50 MARKS]
51. Which of the following does not indicate the activity of visual survey?
a) To record the characteristics of urban space
b) To identify the elements to be studies in detail
c) Measured drawing of precincts d) Experiencing the urban district

52. Which of the following is not the responsibility of urban local body according to latest
legislation?
a) Preparing local areas plans b) Sanitation, Waste management
c) Augmenting energy
d) Enabling public participation in managing urban areas

53. Temporality in urban space is not depicted by which of the following :

a) Transformation of urban space to accommodate multiple activities through the day
b) Use of public transport
c) Temporary structures used to provide shelter
d) Both (b) & (c)

54. Efficient last mile connectivity with respect to public transport is achieved through which of
the following :
a) Walkability to public transport facilities b) Use of cars to reach destination
c) Use of multiple modes of transport
d) Least penetration of public transport networks within urban districts.

55. An “Infill” in the context of an urban area would demand which of the following :
a) Response to the heritage context of the site
b) Response to socio - economic context of the site
c) Response through environment friendly materials
d) Both (a) & (b)

56. Which of the following forces uplifts landscape and create new forms?
a) Hydrological forces b) Biological forces
c) Tectonic forces d) Soil forming forces

57. Which of the following is not characteristic of Mughal gardens?

a) Linear water elements b) Geometric definition
c) Minimalism d) Strong definition of axis

58. Which of the following is achieved through plant material in landscapes

a) Modifying microclimate b) Creating economic opportunities
c) Creating a sense of place d) All of the above

59. The degree of integration of plants and environment changes overtime is a process called
a) Succession b) Progression c) Intrusion d) Reclamation

60. Which of the following is not true about wetlands

a) Home to biodiversity b) Most suitable ecologically to reclaim land
c) Recharge aquifers d) Transition between land and water
Ver – B - AT – 5 of 8
61. Water for Industrial uses may be obtained after ______ treatment of sewage
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) None of the above
62. Which of the following is not a way of improving energy efficiency in a building?
a) Use of LED lights b) Focus on insulation
c) Building design as per ECBC d) Use of branded gadgets
63. Inverter ACs are characterized by
a) Adjustable speed of compressor b) Faster cooling
c) Turning off – on upon reaching set temperature
d) Zero electricity requirements.
64. International Noise Council and the World Health Organization (WHO) has recommended that
noise levels in hospital areas should be :
a) 0 to 10 dB b) 11 to 20 dB c) 21 to 30 dB d) 30 to 40 dB
65. Ideal inclination for escalators is :
a) 15 to 20 degrees b) 20 to 25 degrees c) 30 to 35 degrees d) 35 to 40 degrees

66. The maximum bending moment (KNM) in a simply supported beam of 8m span subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of 20kN (inclusive of its self weight) over the entire span is
a) 380 b) 212 c) 160 d) 64
67. The reaction at support B in the beam shown is

a) 14.5 kN b) 16.5 kN c) 15.5 kN d) 13.5 kN

68. Expression for Young’s modulus and Bulk modulus is :
a) E = 2c (1 + ) b) E = 9kC c) E = 3k (1 - 2) d) None of the above
3k  C

69. For concrete grade M20 and steel grade of Fe 415, what would be the nearest cross reaction of
the beam if the ultimate moment of Resistance is 180 kN m. Assume d = 2b
a) 253  506mm b) 230  450mm c) 220  600mm d) None of the above
70. The concept of pressure lines is very useful in understanding the concept of ____
a) Bending mechanism b) Shear mechanism
c) Torsion mechanism d) Load carrying mechanism
71. Headquarters of Banks displacing manufacturing units in City cores indicate which of the
following :
a) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Primary sector of Economy.
b) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Tertiary sector of Economy.
c) Primary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.
d) Tertiary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.
72. The primary difference between Society and Community is
a) Community has a geographical connotation while society does not.
b) Society refers to group of people in a City while community refers to people in villages.
c) Individuals in society are identified through kinship while individual identity is maintained
in community.
d) None of the above.
Ver – B - AT – 6 of 8
73. Circular migration refers to
a) Migrant assisting other migrants to reach the place of destination.
b) Migrant revisiting his place of origin repeatedly from the place of destination.
c) Migrant moving from one place of destination to another.
d) Migrant locating in the place of destination only.
74. Primary source of data includes which of the following :
a) Data secured from gazettes
b) Data from Census and Government documents
c) Data generated by researcher d) Data from literature
75. Which of the following statements about Utility in Economics is true?
a) When we are making choices, we are weighing utility?
b) Utility is subjective
c) Utility explains how population deals with scarcity
d) All of the above
76. The insulating ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain unaffected d) None of the above
77. The recommended illumination levels for homes is often :
a) 300 lux b) 500 lux c) 150 lux d) 400 lux
78. For GRIHA certification, minimum points required to obtain is__
a) 100 b) 75 c) 50 d) 25
79. Star rating of an air conditioner is determined by its
a) Power consumption b) Energy efficiency ratio
c) Costing capacity d) Power of compressor
80. A wall of thickness 0.6m of thermal conductivity 0.6W/m-K has a surface area of 1m2. If the
inner of outer temperatures of the wall are 1840C. If 340 respectively, the rate of heat
transfer will be
a) 150W b) 75W c) 750W d) 1500W
81. An ART DECO style of Architecture is commonly found in _____
a) Chandigarh & Ahmedabad b) Kolkata & Mumbai
c) Shimla d) Bengaluru & Hyderabad
82. Which of the following statements are false :
a) William Morris was associated with Arts & Crafts Movement.
b) Art Nouveau advocated geometric figures as source of design.
c) Art Nouveau objected to borrowing of ideas from past and other cultures.
d) All of above.
83. An Entabulature consists of
a) Cornice, Tenia, Architecture b) Architecture, Frieze, Cornice
c) Frieze, Cornice, Triglyphs d) Cornice, Guttae, Tympanum
84. Match the books listed in group - I with the Authors in Group – II
P – A pattern Language 1. Louis H Sullivan
Q – Letters to a Young Architect 2. Jane Jacobs
R – The Autobiography of an Idea 3. Christopher Charles Benninger
S – Death & Life of Great American Cities 4. Christopher Alexander
a) P–4,Q–1,R–3,S–2 b) P–4,Q–3,R–2,S–1
c) P–4,Q–3,R–1,S–2 d) P–1,Q–3,R–4,S–2
Ver – B - AT – 7 of 8
85. Ville Radieuse was conceptualized by ____
a) Mies Van der Rohe b) Alvar Alto
c) Frank Lloyd Wright d) Le Corbusier
86. Parthenon is an example of ______ Architecture
a) Roman b) Greek c) Gothic d) Byzantine
87. Ziggurat is a Religious counter of ________ Civilization
a) Mesopotamian b) Egyptian c) Indus valley d) Ancient China
88. The Colosseum, a large amphitheater that hosted events like gradiatorial game was built during
____
a) Greek period b) Roman period c) Renaissance period d) Byzantine period
89. Calligraphy played an important role in _______ Architecture
a) Islamic b) Greek c) Roman d) Gothic
90. Cities which have fair share of British Colonial architecture still present in
a) Kolkata b) Chennai c) Mumbai d) All of the above
91. Which of the following does not represent the composition of a filler slab
a) Steel, concrete and wood b) Steel, concrete and clay blocks
c) Steel, clay pots and concrete d) Both (b) and (c)
92. “Triangulating the curved surface” is the principle of which of the following structural systems
a) Flying buttresses b) Nubian vault c) Geodesic dome d) Stilted Arch
93. Pneumatic structures are
a) Stabilised by variation in air pressure
b) Membrane structures which are light weight
c) Framed linear geometry d) Both (a) & (b)
94. Double glazed windows are used mostly to
a) Eliminate noise and durability b) Thermal insulation and aesthetic appeal
c) Eliminate noise and thermal insulation d) Inexpensive and aesthetic appeal
95. Wt Glazing implies the use of which of the following :
a) Rubber Gaskets b) Silicone sealants c) Wood beading d) Aluminium sections
96. Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to
a) Water – Cement Ratio b) Water – Sand Ratio
c) Cement – Sand Ratio d) Water – Plasticiser Ratio
97. Which of the following is not a vehicle in paints
a) Lin seed oil b) Tung oil c) Poppy oil d) Turpentine oil
98. Timber can be made fire resistant reasonably by :
a) Seasoning b) Coating with Tar paint
c) Soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate d) Treating with Creosote oil
99. An increase in the carbon content of a steel leads to
a) Increase in strength b) Decrease in strength
c) Increase in ductility d) None of the above
100. Which among the following is a non – inflammable plastic
a) Urea formaldehyde plastic b) Cellulose acetate plastic
c) Phenol formaldehyde plastics d) Polyvinyl Chloride plastic
Ver – B - AT – 8 of 8
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Architecture
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Sampling is advantageous as it ______
a) saves time b) helps in capital saving c) both (a) & (b) d) increases accuracy
2. The longitudinal approach of research deals with _______
a) Short term researches b) Long term researches
c) Horizontal researches d) None of the above
3. Which of the following is non – probability sampling?
a) Snowball b) Random c) Cluster d) Stratified
4. The Research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more specifically, the
effect of one variable on another are known as :
a) Causal Research b) Applied Research
c) Conclusive Research d) Exploratory Research
5. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below :
a) Problem formulation , Analysis, Development of Research design , Hypothesis
construction , Collection of data , Arriving at Generalizations and Conclusions.
b) Development of Research design , Hypothesis construction , Problem formulation , Data
analysis , Arriving at Conclusions and Data Collection.
c) Problem formulation , Hypothesis construction , Development of Research design ,
Collection of data , Data analysis and Formulation of Generalization and Conclusions.
d) Problem formulation , Deciding on the sample and Data collection tools , Formulation of
Hypothesis , Collection and Interpretation of Research evidence.
6. Oral histories can be based on
a) Interviews with people b) Stories and tales c) Songs d) All of the above
7. If two variables X and Y have significant negative correlation, which of the following statement
is true?
a) X causes variation in Y b) Y causes variation in X
c) X & Y vary together d) X & Y cause each other to vary.
8. Which of the following statistical methods are commonly used to analyse simulation results?
a) Regression analysis b) t – test
c) Analysis of variance d) All of the above
9. The findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
a) Qualitative Research b) Historical Research
c) Simulation Research d) Correlation Research
10. Which of the following characterize an Experimental Research?
i) Research questions ii) Research hypothesis
iii) Purpose of Research study iv) Narrative
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) i , ii & iii
11. Mean of 15 , 20 , 22 , 34 , 47 is _____
a) 31 b) 22 c) 12.4 d) 27.6
12. The standard deviation for the following data is _______
P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Age 78 22 38 44 46 28 17 54 62 31
a) 15.31 b) 17.94 c) 18.1 d) 19.33
Ver – C - AT – 1 of 8
13. In correlation, if the values of two variables move in the same direction ______
a) The correlation is said to be non - linear b) The correlation is said to be positive
c) The correlation is said to be negative d) The correlation is said to be linear
14. Multiple regression analysis is a ______ type of statistical analysis.
a) Univariate analysis b) Bivariate analysis
c) Multivariate analysis d) Canonical analysis
15. ________ are considered as Qualitative data.
a) Nominal data and Ordinal data b) Nominal data and Discrete data
c) Discrete data and Continuous data d) Nominal data and Continuous data
16. Self plagiarism is also known as
a) Direct Plagiarism b) Auto Plagiarism
c) Paraphrasing Plagiarism d) Complete Plagiarism
17. Which one of the following is not an referencing style?
a) APA b) MLA c) Harvard system d) MRA
18. Which is not one among the principles of research ethics
a) Informed consent b) Conflict of Interest c) Respect for persons d) Non - Integrity
19. Which one amongst the four is not an Intellectual Property Rights?
a) Patents b) Signature c) Copyrights d) Trademarks
20. Which one amongst the four is not a part of referencing requirements?
a) Another b) Style c) Title d) Date
21. Researches use both open ended and closed ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statement is correct?
a) Open ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researchers
predetermined response categories.
b) Closed ended questions provide quantitative data in the participants own words.
c) Open ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
d) Closed ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
22. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called
a) Categorical variable b) Independent variable
c) Dependent variable d) Intervening variable
23. A simple random sample is one in which
a) from a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected.
b) a non – probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize.
c) the researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
d) every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
24. Which of these is not a type of survey research?
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive c) Casual d) Deductive
25. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study ______
a) Vocational Interest b) Human Relations
c) Professional Competence d) Achievement Motivation
26. A hypothesis is a statement having no relationship between the variables at an initial stage
a) True b) False
27. A Null hypothesis is the one which a researcher is trying to prove _____
a) null b) wrong c) right d) inappropriate
Ver – C - AT – 2 of 8
28. An alternate hypothesis states that the random exam scores are collected from both men and
women. But are the scores of the two groups (men and women) the same or are they different?
Formulate the null hypothesis by choosing suitable option.
a) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is equal to the exam score of the women.
b) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is greater than the exam score of the women.
c) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is lesser than the exam score of the women.
29. What is the another name for a directional hypothesis?
a) One – tailed hypothesis b) Two – tailed hypothesis
c) Significance hypothesis d) None of the above
30. Flow of hypothesis testing shall be :
1) State the hypothesis 2) Interpret results
3) Analyse sample data 4) Formulate on analysis plan
a) 1.3.2.4 b) 1.2.3.4 c) 1.4.3.2 d) None
31. Bibliography provided in a research dissertation :
a) Has no relevance to research b) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher
c) Helps those interested in further research d) All the above
32. Which of the following research types focuses on Ameliorating the prevailing situations?
a) Fundamental research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Experimental research
33. What is Research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. A graph.
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
34. Statement I : Objectivity refers to whether a test measures what it says it measures.
Statement II : Validity refers to whether a test consistently yields the same or similar results.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
35. The objectives of exploring existing literature is to identify which of the following issues?
i) What is already known about the domain of study?
ii) What concepts and theories are relevant to the study area?
iii) How to get the research funded?
iv) What are the significant controversies in the area?
v) Are there any inconsistencies in the findings of the area?
a) i, ii, iii & iv only b) ii, iii, iv & v only c) i, ii, iv & v only d) i, ii, iii & v only
36. A case study is a process of research into a project and documenting through
a) only writings b) only sketches & diagrams
c) only photos d) all the above

37. Case studies helps in collecting

a) Qualitative data b) Quantitative data
c) Both Qualitative and Quantitative data d) None of the above
Ver – C - AT – 3 of 8
38. Comparative case studies involves
a) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a common focus (or) goal.
b) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
c) the analysis and synthesis of the differences and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
d) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a different focus (or) goal
39. Case study research typically includes _____ type of data collection techniques.
a) Single b) Two c) Multiple d) Unique
40. _______ case studies are useful for learning about unique cases. Here in the study subject itself
is the primary interest.
a) Intrinsic b) Instrumental c) Explanatory d) Important
41. Which among the following helps us to understand the depth of a research study?
a) The abstract b) Keywords c) Research questions d) Research title
42. The person who fills a survey Questionnaire is known as _____
a) Researcher b) Respondent c) Surveyor d) Supervisor
43. The critical sequence of research steps that are followed in a study are
a) Abstract ; Data analysis ; Literature review : Methodology : Conclusion : findings
b) Introduction ; Literature Review ; Mehtodology ; Conclusions ; findings
c) Abstract ; Methodology ; Literature Review ; Conclusion ; results ; referances
d) Introduction ; Literature review ; Methodology ; results ; findings ; Conclusion.
44. A hypothesis is a
a) Tentative statement whose validity is still to be tested
b) Statement made by a person who holds a Ph D degree
c) Universal fact d) All of the above
45. Which among the following is not a type of quantitative research?
a) Survey b) Experimental c) Descriptive d) Correlational
46. ______ studies follow the same individuals throughout a long course of time
a) Cross - sequential b) Cross – Sectional c) Correlation d) Longitudinal
47. ______ data is collected through the interviews, observations, questionnaire , case study(or)
survey.
a) Primary survey b) Secondary survey c) Tertiary survey d) Online survey
48. ______ designs allows researchers to examine multiphase groups in a short period of time,
compared to _____ design.
a) Cross – sequential , longitudinal b) Cross – sectional
c) Longitudinal, cross - sequential d) Cross – sequential , cross sectional
49. Research that provides solution for real – life problems
a) Pure research b) Ex-planatory research c) Applied research d) Empirical research
50. Ethnography was originally used in
a) Physiology b) Anthropology c) Ecology d) Sociology

Ver – C - AT – 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Architecture)
[50 MARKS]
51. Which of the following does not represent the composition of a filler slab
a) Steel, concrete and wood b) Steel, concrete and clay blocks
c) Steel, clay pots and concrete d) Both (b) and (c)
52. “Triangulating the curved surface” is the principle of which of the following structural systems
a) Flying buttresses b) Nubian vault c) Geodesic dome d) Stilted Arch
53. Pneumatic structures are
a) Stabilised by variation in air pressure
b) Membrane structures which are light weight
c) Framed linear geometry d) Both (a) & (b)
54. Double glazed windows are used mostly to
a) Eliminate noise and durability b) Thermal insulation and aesthetic appeal
c) Eliminate noise and thermal insulation d) Inexpensive and aesthetic appeal
55. Wt Glazing implies the use of which of the following :
a) Rubber Gaskets b) Silicone sealants c) Wood beading d) Aluminum sections
56. Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to
a) Water – Cement Ratio b) Water – Sand Ratio
c) Cement – Sand Ratio d) Water – Plasticiser Ratio
57. Which of the following is not a vehicle in paints
a) Lin seed oil b) Tung oil c) Poppy oil d) Turpentine oil
58. Timber can be made fire resistant reasonably by :
a) Seasoning b) Coating with Tar paint
c) Soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate d) Treating with Creosote oil
59. An increase in the carbon content of a steel leads to
a) Increase in strength b) Decrease in strength
c) Increase in ductility d) None of the above
60. Which among the following is a non – inflammable plastic
a) Urea formaldehyde plastic b) Cellulose acetate plastic
c) Phenol formaldehyde plastics d) Polyvinyl Chloride plastic
61. Which of the following does not indicate the activity of visual survey?
a) To record the characteristics of urban space
b) To identify the elements to be studies in detail
c) Measured drawing of precincts d) Experiencing the urban district
62. Which of the following is not the responsibility of urban local body according to latest
legislation?
a) Preparing local areas plans b) Sanitation, Waste management
c) Augmenting energy
d) Enabling public participation in managing urban areas

Ver – C - AT – 5 of 8
63. Temporality in urban space is not depicted by which of the following :
a) Transformation of urban space to accommodate multiple activities through the day
b) Use of public transport
c) Temporary structures used to provide shelter
d) Both (b) & (c)
64. Efficient last mile connectivity with respect to public transport is achieved through which of
the following :
a) Walkability to public transport facilities b) Use of cars to reach destination
c) Use of multiple modes of transport
d) Least penetration of public transport networks within urban districts.
65. An “Infill” in the context of an urban area would demand which of the following :
a) Response to the heritage context of the site
b) Response to socio - economic context of the site
c) Response through environment friendly materials
d) Both (a) & (b)
66. Which of the following forces uplifts landscape and create new forms?
a) Hydrological forces b) Biological forces
c) Tectonic forces d) Soil forming forces
67. Which of the following is not characteristic of Mughal gardens?
a) Linear water elements b) Geometric definition
c) Minimalism d) Strong definition of axis
68. Which of the following is achieved through plant material in landscapes
a) Modifying microclimate b) Creating economic opportunities
c) Creating a sense of place d) All of the above
69. The degree of integration of plants and environment changes overtime is a process called
a) Succession b) Progression c) Intrusion d) Reclamation
70. Which of the following is not true about wetlands
a) Home to biodiversity b) Most suitable ecologically to reclaim land
c) Recharge aquifers d) Transition between land and water
71. Water for Industrial uses may be obtained after ______ treatment of sewage
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) None of the above
72. Which of the following is not a way of improving energy efficiency in a building?
a) Use of LED lights b) Focus on insulation
c) Building design as per ECBC d) Use of branded gadgets
73. Inverter ACs are characterized by
a) Adjustable speed of compressor b) Faster cooling
c) Turning off – on upon reaching set temperature
d) Zero electricity requirements.
74. International Noise Council and the World Health Organization (WHO) has recommended that
noise levels in hospital areas should be :
a) 0 to 10 dB b) 11 to 20 dB c) 21 to 30 dB d) 30 to 40 dB

75. Ideal inclination for escalators is :

a) 15 to 20 degrees b) 20 to 25 degrees c) 30 to 35 degrees d) 35 to 40 degrees

Ver – C - AT – 6 of 8
76. The maximum bending moment (KNM) in a simply supported beam of 8m span subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of 20kN (inclusive of its self weight) over the entire span is
a) 380 b) 212 c) 160 d) 64
77. The reaction at support B in the beam shown is

a) 14.5 kN b) 16.5 kN c) 15.5 kN d) 13.5 kN

78. Expression for Young’s modulus and Bulk modulus is :
a) E = 2c (1 + ) b) E = 9kC c) E = 3k (1 - 2) d) None of the above
3k  C

79. For concrete grade M20 and steel grade of Fe 415, what would be the nearest cross reaction of
the beam if the ultimate moment of Resistance is 180 kN m. Assume d = 2b
a) 253  506mm b) 230  450mm c) 220  600mm d) None of the above
80. The concept of pressure lines is very useful in understanding the concept of ____
a) Bending mechanism b) Shear mechanism
c) Torsion mechanism d) Load carrying mechanism
81. Headquarters of Banks displacing manufacturing units in City cores indicate which of the
following :
a) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Primary sector of Economy.
b) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Tertiary sector of Economy.
c) Primary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.
d) Tertiary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.
82. The primary difference between Society and Community is
a) Community has a geographical connotation while society does not.
b) Society refers to group of people in a City while community refers to people in villages.
c) Individuals in society are identified through kinship while individual identity is maintained
in community.
d) None of the above.
83. Circular migration refers to
a) Migrant assisting other migrants to reach the place of destination.
b) Migrant revisiting his place of origin repeatedly from the place of destination.
c) Migrant moving from one place of destination to another.
d) Migrant locating in the place of destination only.
84. Primary source of data includes which of the following :
a) Data secured from gazettes
b) Data from Census and Government documents
c) Data generated by researcher d) Data from literature
85. Which of the following statements about Utility in Economics is true?
a) When we are making choices, we are weighing utility?
b) Utility is subjective
c) Utility explains how population deals with scarcity
d) All of the above
86. The insulating ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain unaffected d) None of the above
Ver – C - AT – 7 of 8
87. The recommended illumination levels for homes is often :
a) 300 lux b) 500 lux c) 150 lux d) 400 lux
88. For GRIHA certification, minimum points required to obtain is__
a) 100 b) 75 c) 50 d) 25
89. Star rating of an air conditioner is determined by its
a) Power consumption b) Energy efficiency ratio
c) Costing capacity d) Power of compressor
90. A wall of thickness 0.6m of thermal conductivity 0.6W/m-K has a surface area of 1m2. If the
inner of outer temperatures of the wall are 1840C. If 340 respectively, the rate of heat
transfer will be
a) 150W b) 75W c) 750W d) 1500W
91. An ART DECO style of Architecture is commonly found in _____
a) Chandigarh & Ahmedabad b) Kolkata & Mumbai
c) Shimla d) Bengaluru & Hyderabad
92. Which of the following statements are false :
a) William Morris was associated with Arts & Crafts Movement.
b) Art Nouveau advocated geometric figures as source of design.
c) Art Nouveau objected to borrowing of ideas from past and other cultures.
d) All of above.
93. An Entabulature consists of
a) Cornice, Tenia, Architecture b) Architecture, Frieze, Cornice
c) Frieze, Cornice, Triglyphs d) Cornice, Guttae, Tympanum
94. Match the books listed in group - I with the Authors in Group – II
P – A pattern Language 1. Louis H Sullivan
Q – Letters to a Young Architect 2. Jane Jacobs
R – The Autobiography of an Idea 3. Christopher Charles Benninger
S – Death & Life of Great American Cities 4. Christopher Alexander
a) P–4,Q–1,R–3,S–2 b) P–4,Q–3,R–2,S–1
c) P–4,Q–3,R–1,S–2 d) P–1,Q–3,R–4,S–2
95. Ville Radieuse was conceptualized by ____
a) Mies Van der Rohe b) Alvar Alto
c) Frank Lloyd Wright d) Le Corbusier
96. Parthenon is an example of ______ Architecture
a) Roman b) Greek c) Gothic d) Byzantine
97. Ziggurat is a Religious counter of ________ Civilization
a) Mesopotamian b) Egyptian c) Indus valley d) Ancient China
98. The Colosseum, a large amphitheater that hosted events like gradiatorial game was built during
____
a) Greek period b) Roman period c) Renaissance period d) Byzantine period
99. Calligraphy played an important role in _______ Architecture
a) Islamic b) Greek c) Roman d) Gothic
100. Cities which have fair share of British Colonial architecture still present in
a) Kolkata b) Chennai c) Mumbai d) All of the above
Ver – C - AT – 8 of 8
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Architecture
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Researches use both open ended and closed ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statement is correct?
a) Open ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researchers
predetermined response categories.
b) Closed ended questions provide quantitative data in the participants own words.
c) Open ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
d) Closed ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants own words.
2. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called
a) Categorical variable b) Independent variable
c) Dependent variable d) Intervening variable
3. A simple random sample is one in which
a) from a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected.
b) a non – probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize.
c) the researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
d) every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
4. Which of these is not a type of survey research?
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive c) Casual d) Deductive
5. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study ______
a) Vocational Interest b) Human Relations
c) Professional Competence d) Achievement Motivation
6. A hypothesis is a statement having no relationship between the variables at an initial stage
a) True b) False
7. A Null hypothesis is the one which a researcher is trying to prove _____
a) null b) wrong c) right d) inappropriate
8. An alternate hypothesis states that the random exam scores are collected from both men and
women. But are the scores of the two groups (men and women) the same or are they different?
Formulate the null hypothesis by choosing suitable option.
a) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is equal to the exam score of the women.
b) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is greater than the exam score of the women.
c) The calculated mean of the men’s exam score is lesser than the exam score of the women.
9. What is the another name for a directional hypothesis?
a) One – tailed hypothesis b) Two – tailed hypothesis
c) Significance hypothesis d) None of the above
10. Flow of hypothesis testing shall be :
1) State the hypothesis 2) Interpret results
3) Analyse sample data 4) Formulate on analysis plan
a) 1.3.2.4 b) 1.2.3.4 c) 1.4.3.2 d) None
11. Which among the following helps us to understand the depth of a research study?
a) The abstract b) Keywords c) Research questions d) Research title
12. The person who fills a survey Questionnaire is known as _____
a) Researcher b) Respondent c) Surveyor d) Supervisor
Ver – D - AT – 1 of 8
13. The critical sequence of research steps that are followed in a study are
a) Abstract ; Data analysis ; Literature review : Methodology : Conclusion : findings
b) Introduction ; Literature Review ; Mehtodology ; Conclusions ; findings
c) Abstract ; Methodology ; Literature Review ; Conclusion ; results ; referances
d) Introduction ; Literature review ; Methodology ; results ; findings ; Conclusion.
14. A hypothesis is a
a) Tentative statement whose validity is still to be tested
b) Statement made by a person who holds a Ph D degree
c) Universal fact d) All of the above
15. Which among the following is not a type of quantitative research?
a) Survey b) Experimental c) Descriptive d) Correlational
16. ______ studies follow the same individuals throughout a long course of time
a) Cross - sequential b) Cross – Sectional c) Correlation d) Longitudinal
17. ______ data is collected through the interviews, observations, questionnaire , case study(or)
survey.
a) Primary survey b) Secondary survey c) Tertiary survey d) Online survey
18. ______ designs allows researchers to examine multiphase groups in a short period of time,
compared to _____ design.
a) Cross – sequential , longitudinal b) Cross – sectional
c) Longitudinal, cross - sequential d) Cross – sequential , cross sectional
19. Research that provides solution for real – life problems
a) Pure research b) Ex-planatory research c) Applied research d) Empirical research
20. Ethnography was originally used in
a) Physiology b) Anthropology c) Ecology d) Sociology
21. Mean of 15 , 20 , 22 , 34 , 47 is _____
a) 31 b) 22 c) 12.4 d) 27.6
22. The standard deviation for the following data is _______
P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Age 78 22 38 44 46 28 17 54 62 31
a) 15.31 b) 17.94 c) 18.1 d) 19.33
23. In correlation, if the values of two variables move in the same direction ______
a) The correlation is said to be non - linear b) The correlation is said to be positive
c) The correlation is said to be negative d) The correlation is said to be linear
24. Multiple regression analysis is a ______ type of statistical analysis.
a) Univariate analysis b) Bivariate analysis
c) Multivariate analysis d) Canonical analysis
25. ________ are considered as Qualitative data.
a) Nominal data and Ordinal data b) Nominal data and Discrete data
c) Discrete data and Continuous data d) Nominal data and Continuous data
26. Self plagiarism is also known as
a) Direct Plagiarism b) Auto Plagiarism
c) Paraphrasing Plagiarism d) Complete Plagiarism
27. Which one of the following is not an referencing style?
a) APA b) MLA c) Harvard system d) MRA
Ver – D - AT – 2 of 8
28. Which is not one among the principles of research ethics
a) Informed consent b) Conflict of Interest c) Respect for persons d) Non - Integrity
29. Which one amongst the four is not an Intellectual Property Rights?
a) Patents b) Signature c) Copyrights d) Trademarks
30. Which one amongst the four is not a part of referencing requirements?
a) Another b) Style c) Title d) Date
31. Sampling is advantageous as it ______
a) saves time b) helps in capital saving c) both (a) & (b) d) increases accuracy
32. The longitudinal approach of research deals with _______
a) Short term researches b) Long term researches
c) Horizontal researches d) None of the above
33. Which of the following is non – probability sampling?
a) Snowball b) Random c) Cluster d) Stratified
34. The Research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more specifically, the
effect of one variable on another are known as :
a) Causal Research b) Applied Research
c) Conclusive Research d) Exploratory Research
35. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below :
a) Problem formulation , Analysis, Development of Research design , Hypothesis
construction , Collection of data , Arriving at Generalizations and Conclusions.
b) Development of Research design , Hypothesis construction , Problem formulation , Data
analysis , Arriving at Conclusions and Data Collection.
c) Problem formulation , Hypothesis construction , Development of Research design ,
Collection of data , Data analysis and Formulation of Generalization and Conclusions.
d) Problem formulation , Deciding on the sample and Data collection tools , Formulation of
Hypothesis , Collection and Interpretation of Research evidence.
36. Oral histories can be based on
a) Interviews with people b) Stories and tales
c) Songs d) All of the above
37. If two variables X and Y have significant negative correlation, which of the following statement
is true?
a) X causes variation in Y b) Y causes variation in X
c) X & Y vary together d) X & Y cause each other to vary.
38. Which of the following statistical methods are commonly used to analyse simulation results?
a) Regression analysis b) t – test
c) Analysis of variance d) All of the above
39. The findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
a) Qualitative Research b) Historical Research
c) Simulation Research d) Correlation Research
40. Which of the following characterize an Experimental Research?
i) Research questions ii) Research hypothesis
iii) Purpose of Research study iv) Narrative
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) i , ii & iii
Ver – D - AT – 3 of 8
41. Bibliography provided in a research dissertation :
a) Has no relevance to research b) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher
c) Helps those interested in further research d) All the above
42. Which of the following research types focuses on Ameliorating the prevailing situations?
a) Fundamental research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Experimental research
43. What is Research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. A graph.
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
44. Statement I : Objectivity refers to whether a test measures what it says it measures.
Statement II : Validity refers to whether a test consistently yields the same or similar results.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
45. The objectives of exploring existing literature is to identify which of the following issues?
i) What is already known about the domain of study?
ii) What concepts and theories are relevant to the study area?
iii) How to get the research funded?
iv) What are the significant controversies in the area?
v) Are there any inconsistencies in the findings of the area?
a) i, ii, iii & iv only b) ii, iii, iv & v only c) i, ii, iv & v only d) i, ii, iii & v only
46. A case study is a process of research into a project and documenting through
a) only writings b) only sketches & diagrams
c) only photos d) all the above
47. Case studies helps in collecting
a) Qualitative data b) Quantitative data
c) Both Qualitative and Quantitative data d) None of the above
48. Comparative case studies involves
a) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a common focus (or) goal.
b) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
c) the analysis and synthesis of the differences and patterns across two (or) more cases that
share a common focus (or) goal.
d) the analysis and synthesis of the similarities, differences and patterns across two (or) more
cases that share a different focus (or) goal
49. Case study research typically includes _____ type of data collection techniques.
a) Single b) Two c) Multiple d) Unique
50. _______ case studies are useful for learning about unique cases. Here in the study subject itself
is the primary interest.
a) Intrinsic b) Instrumental c) Explanatory d) Important

Ver – D - AT – 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Architecture)
[50 MARKS]
51. Water for Industrial uses may be obtained after ______ treatment of sewage
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) None of the above
52. Which of the following is not a way of improving energy efficiency in a building?
a) Use of LED lights b) Focus on insulation
c) Building design as per ECBC d) Use of branded gadgets
53. Inverter ACs are characterized by
a) Adjustable speed of compressor b) Faster cooling
c) Turning off – on upon reaching set temperature
d) Zero electricity requirements.
54. International Noise Council and the World Health Organization (WHO) has recommended that
noise levels in hospital areas should be :
a) 0 to 10 dB b) 11 to 20 dB c) 21 to 30 dB d) 30 to 40 dB
55. Ideal inclination for escalators is :
a) 15 to 20 degrees b) 20 to 25 degrees c) 30 to 35 degrees d) 35 to 40 degrees
56. The maximum bending moment (KNM) in a simply supported beam of 8m span subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of 20kN (inclusive of its self weight) over the entire span is
a) 380 b) 212 c) 160 d) 64
57. The reaction at support B in the beam shown is

a) 14.5 kN b) 16.5 kN c) 15.5 kN d) 13.5 kN

58. Expression for Young’s modulus and Bulk modulus is :
a) E = 2c (1 + ) b) E = 9kC c) E = 3k (1 - 2) d) None of the above
3k  C
59. For concrete grade M20 and steel grade of Fe 415, what would be the nearest cross reaction of
the beam if the ultimate moment of Resistance is 180 kN m. Assume d = 2b
a) 253  506mm b) 230  450mm c) 220  600mm d) None of the above
60. The concept of pressure lines is very useful in understanding the concept of ____
a) Bending mechanism b) Shear mechanism
c) Torsion mechanism d) Load carrying mechanism
61. An ART DECO style of Architecture is commonly found in _____
a) Chandigarh & Ahmedabad b) Kolkata & Mumbai
c) Shimla d) Bengaluru & Hyderabad
62. Which of the following statements are false :
a) William Morris was associated with Arts & Crafts Movement.
b) Art Nouveau advocated geometric figures as source of design.
c) Art Nouveau objected to borrowing of ideas from past and other cultures.
d) All of above.
Ver – D - AT – 5 of 8
63. An Entabulature consists of
a) Cornice, Tenia, Architecture b) Architecture, Frieze, Cornice
c) Frieze, Cornice, Triglyphs d) Cornice, Guttae, Tympanum
64. Match the books listed in group - I with the Authors in Group – II
P – A pattern Language 1. Louis H Sullivan
Q – Letters to a Young Architect 2. Jane Jacobs
R – The Autobiography of an Idea 3. Christopher Charles Benninger
S – Death & Life of Great American Cities 4. Christopher Alexander
a) P–4,Q–1,R–3,S–2 b) P–4,Q–3,R–2,S–1
c) P–4,Q–3,R–1,S–2 d) P–1,Q–3,R–4,S–2
65. Ville Radieuse was conceptualized by ____
a) Mies Van der Rohe b) Alvar Alto
c) Frank Lloyd Wright d) Le Corbusier
66. Parthenon is an example of ______ Architecture
a) Roman b) Greek c) Gothic d) Byzantine
67. Ziggurat is a Religious counter of ________ Civilization
a) Mesopotamian b) Egyptian c) Indus valley d) Ancient China
68. The Colosseum, a large amphitheater that hosted events like gradiatorial game was built during
____
a) Greek period b) Roman period c) Renaissance period d) Byzantine period
69. Calligraphy played an important role in _______ Architecture
a) Islamic b) Greek c) Roman d) Gothic
70. Cities which have fair share of British Colonial architecture still present in
a) Kolkata b) Chennai c) Mumbai d) All of the above
71. Which of the following does not indicate the activity of visual survey?
a) To record the characteristics of urban space
b) To identify the elements to be studies in detail
c) Measured drawing of precincts d) Experiencing the urban district
72. Which of the following is not the responsibility of urban local body according to latest
legislation?
a) Preparing local areas plans b) Sanitation, Waste management
c) Augmenting energy
d) Enabling public participation in managing urban areas
73. Temporality in urban space is not depicted by which of the following :
a) Transformation of urban space to accommodate multiple activities through the day
b) Use of public transport
c) Temporary structures used to provide shelter
d) Both (b) & (c)
74. Efficient last mile connectivity with respect to public transport is achieved through which of
the following :
a) Walkability to public transport facilities b) Use of cars to reach destination
c) Use of multiple modes of transport
d) Least penetration of public transport networks within urban districts.

Ver – D - AT – 6 of 8
75. An “Infill” in the context of an urban area would demand which of the following :
a) Response to the heritage context of the site
b) Response to socio - economic context of the site
c) Response through environment friendly materials
d) Both (a) & (b)
76. Which of the following forces uplifts landscape and create new forms?
a) Hydrological forces b) Biological forces
c) Tectonic forces d) Soil forming forces
77. Which of the following is not characteristic of Mughal gardens?
a) Linear water elements b) Geometric definition
c) Minimalism d) Strong definition of axis
78. Which of the following is achieved through plant material in landscapes
a) Modifying microclimate b) Creating economic opportunities
c) Creating a sense of place d) All of the above
79. The degree of integration of plants and environment changes overtime is a process called
a) Succession b) Progression c) Intrusion d) Reclamation
80. Which of the following is not true about wetlands
a) Home to biodiversity b) Most suitable ecologically to reclaim land
c) Recharge aquifers d) Transition between land and water
81. Which of the following does not represent the composition of a filler slab
a) Steel, concrete and wood b) Steel, concrete and clay blocks
c) Steel, clay pots and concrete d) Both (b) and (c)
82. “Triangulating the curved surface” is the principle of which of the following structural systems
a) Flying buttresses b) Nubian vault c) Geodesic dome d) Stilted Arch
83. Pneumatic structures are
a) Stabilised by variation in air pressure
b) Membrane structures which are light weight
c) Framed linear geometry d) Both (a) & (b)
84. Double glazed windows are used mostly to
a) Eliminate noise and durability b) Thermal insulation and aesthetic appeal
c) Eliminate noise and thermal insulation d) Inexpensive and aesthetic appeal
85. Wt Glazing implies the use of which of the following :
a) Rubber Gaskets b) Silicone sealants c) Wood beading d) Aluminium sections
86. Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to
a) Water – Cement Ratio b) Water – Sand Ratio
c) Cement – Sand Ratio d) Water – Plasticiser Ratio
87. Which of the following is not a vehicle in paints
a) Lin seed oil b) Tung oil c) Poppy oil d) Turpentine oil
88. Timber can be made fire resistant reasonably by :
a) Seasoning b) Coating with Tar paint
c) Soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate d) Treating with Creosote oil
89. An increase in the carbon content of a steel leads to
a) Increase in strength b) Decrease in strength
c) Increase in ductility d) None of the above
Ver – D - AT – 7 of 8
90. Which among the following is a non – inflammable plastic
a) Urea formaldehyde plastic b) Cellulose acetate plastic
c) Phenol formaldehyde plastics d) Polyvinyl Chloride plastic

91. Headquarters of Banks displacing manufacturing units in City cores indicate which of the
following :
a) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Primary sector of Economy.
b) Secondary sector of Economy displacing Tertiary sector of Economy.
c) Primary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.
d) Tertiary sector of Economy displacing Secondary sector of Economy.

92. The primary difference between Society and Community is

a) Community has a geographical connotation while society does not.
b) Society refers to group of people in a City while community refers to people in villages.
c) Individuals in society are identified through kinship while individual identity is maintained
in community.
d) None of the above.

93. Circular migration refers to

a) Migrant assisting other migrants to reach the place of destination.
b) Migrant revisiting his place of origin repeatedly from the place of destination.
c) Migrant moving from one place of destination to another.
d) Migrant locating in the place of destination only.

94. Primary source of data includes which of the following :

a) Data secured from gazettes
b) Data from Census and Government documents
c) Data generated by researcher d) Data from literature

95. Which of the following statements about Utility in Economics is true?

a) When we are making choices, we are weighing utility?
b) Utility is subjective
c) Utility explains how population deals with scarcity
d) All of the above

96. The insulating ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain unaffected d) None of the above

97. The recommended illumination levels for homes is often :

a) 300 lux b) 500 lux c) 150 lux d) 400 lux

98. For GRIHA certification, minimum points required to obtain is__

a) 100 b) 75 c) 50 d) 25

99. Star rating of an air conditioner is determined by its

a) Power consumption b) Energy efficiency ratio
c) Costing capacity d) Power of compressor

100. A wall of thickness 0.6m of thermal conductivity 0.6W/m-K has a surface area of 1m2. If the
inner of outer temperatures of the wall are 1840C. If 340 respectively, the rate of heat
transfer will be
a) 150W b) 75W c) 750W d) 1500W

Ver – D - AT – 8 of 8