VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May 2024
Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

\
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

2. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?

a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

3. What are the main purposes of data analysis?

a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

4. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of

recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

5. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

6. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

7. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question
8. The term ‘ethno’ refers to
a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

9. Ogives is also known as?

a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

10. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

11. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :

a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

Ver-A : EI 1 of 8
12. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

13. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

14. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

15. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______

a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

16. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

17. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

18. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

19. Concept is of two types

a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these
20. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

21. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

Ver-A : EI 2 of 8
22. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

23. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

24. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

25. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

26. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

27. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

28. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

29. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

30. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

31. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

32. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

33. Hypothesis should be ______

a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

34. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

35. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

36. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

Ver-A : EI 3 of 8
37. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

38. The standard deviation is always ______

a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

39. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

40. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

41. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

42. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

43. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

44. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

45. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

46. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

47. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

48. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

49. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

50 Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

Ver-A : EI 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Which of the following is the correct relationship between base and emitter current of a BJT?
a) IB = IE b) IB = IE c) IB = ( + 1)IE d) IE = ( + 1)IB

52. For best operation of a BJT, which region must the operating point be set at?
a) Active region b) Cutoff region
c) Saturation region d) Reverse active region.

53. If there are 10 nodes in a current – how many equations do we get?

a) 10 b) 9 c) 8 d) 7.

54. Nodal analysis can be applied for ---------

a) Planner networks b) Non-Planar Networks
c) Both Planer and Non-planar Networks d) Neither planner nov non-planner Networks

55. A series RLC circuit has R = 50, L = 0.01H and C = 0.04 × 10-6F. System voltage is 100V the
frequency, at which the maximum voltage appears across capacitor, is?
a) 5937.81Hz b) 7370 Hz c) 7937.81Hz d) 981 Hz

56. FET is a voltage controlled device.

a) True b) False

57. Which of the following statement is True about FET?

a) It has high output Impedance b) It has high Input Impedance
c) It has low input – Impedance d) It does not offer any resistance.

58. If a MOSFET is to be used in the making of an amplifier then it must work in

a) Cut-off region b) Triode region
c) Saturation region d) Both cutoff and Triode region can be used.

59. The expression for the integration frequency is

a) CR b) 1/CR c) R/C d) C/R

60. Which circuit converts irregularly shaped waveform to regular shaped waveforms?
a) Schmitt trigger b) Voltage limiter
c) Comparator d) None of the mentioned.

61. Switches connected on parallel represent which operation?

a) NOT b) AND c) OR d) NAND.

62. What is the primary function of a switching circuit in digital logic design?
a) Signal switching b) Signal processing
c) Signal modulation d) Signal amplification.

Ver-A : EI 5 of 8
63. Any signed negative binary number is recognized by its ------.
a) MSB b) LSB c) Byte d) Nibble.

64. The parameter through which 16 distinct values can be represented is known as
a) Bit b) Byte c) Word d) Nibble.

65. Which hardware description language is popular in the US?

a) System varilog b) System log c) Verilog d) VHDL.

66. Which of the following architecture is follower by general – purpose microprocessor?

a) Von Neu mann architecture b) Harvard architecture
c) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned.

67. 8051 series has how many 16 bit registers?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0.

68. What is the function of the TMOD register?

a) TMOD register is used to set various operation modes of timer/counter
b) TMOD register is used to load the count of the timer
c) Is the destination or the final register where the result is obtained after the operation of the
timer
d) is used to interrupt the timer

69. Auto reload mode is allowed in which mode of the timer?

a) Mode 0 b) Mode 1 c) Mode 2 d) Mode 3

70. TF1, TR1,TFO, TRO bits are of which register?

a) TMOD b) SCON c) TCON d) SMOD

71. Which of the following is the most popular method for measuring low resistance?
a) Ducter ohm meter method b) Kelvin double bridge method
c) ammeter – voltmeter method d) Potentiometer method.

72. A Schering bridge can be used for

a) protecting the circuit the from temperature rises b) testing capacitors
c) measuring voltages d) measuring currents

73. Which of the following devices is used to measure power in A.C circuits?
a) Ammeter b) Wattmeter c) Voltmeter d) ohm meter.

74. Which of the following determine the rate of measurement cycles?

a) Multi vibrator b) Oscillator c) Oscilloscope d) amplifier.

75. Which of the following compares the output in a successive approximation type DVM?
a) Comparator b) diode c) Op-amp d) rectifier.

76. Which of the following is caused by careless handling?

a) Systematic error b) Random error c) Gross error d) None of the mentioned

Ver-A : EI 6 of 8
77. Which of the following conversions take place in float element?
a) level to force b) level to voltage
c) level to displacement d) None of the mentioned

78. Strain is a ---------

a) Fractional change in volume b) Fractional change in Area
c) Fractional change in length d) Fractional change in height

79. What is the specific humidity if the mass of water is 15g and mass of bone dry air is 25g?
a) 10% b) 30% c) 40% d) = 60%

80. Output of a bimetallic element will be

a) Strain b) Pressure c) Displacement d) Voltage.

81. A symptotic stability is concerned with

a) A system under influence of input b) A system not under influence input
c) A system under influence of output d) A system not under influence of output

82. If a Nyquist plot of G(jw) H (jw) for a closed loop system passes through (  2, j0) point in GH
plane, what would be the value of gain margin of the system on dB?
a) 0 dB b) 2.0201dB c) 4dB d) 6.0205dB.

83. The breakaway point – calculated mathematically must allow lie on the root locus.
a) True b) False

84 For a stable system closed loop system, the gain at phase cross over frequency should always be
a) < 20 dB b) < 6dB c) > 6dB d) > 0dB.

85. How is the size of PLC determined?

a) Number of terminals b) Power supply
c) Memory unit d) Size of Repay.

86. The even part of a signal x(t) is?

1 1
a) x(t) + x(  t) b) x(t)  x(  t) c)   * (x(t) + x (  t)) d)   * (x(t)  x(  t))
2 2

87. The Nth root of unity WN is given as -------

a) ej2πN b) e-j2πN c) e-j2π/N d) ej2π/N

88. If x(n) and x(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X (K + N) =?

a) X(  K) b)  X(K) c) X(K) d) None of the mentioned

89. The roots of the equation H(z) must occur in --------

a) Identical b) Zero c) Reciprocal d) Conjugate pairs

90. Which of the following is the disadvantage of sampling rate conversion by converting the signal
in to analog signal?
a) signal distortion b) Quantization effects
c) New sampling rate can be arbitrarity selected d) Signal distortion and quantization effects.

Ver-A : EI 7 of 8
91. Which terminal does not belong to the SCR?
a) Anode b) Gate c) Base d) Cathode.

92. An SCR is a
a) four layer, four junction device b) four layer, three junction device
c) four layer, two junction device d) three layer, signal junction device.

93. Bridge rectifier is an Alternative for

a) Full wave rectifier b) Peak rectifier c) Half wave rectifier d) None of the mentioned

94. Which device can be use in a chopper circuit?

a) BJT b) MOSFET c) GTO d) None of the mentioned

95. The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is

a) Square wave b) Triangular wave c) Quasi – square wave d) Sine wave.

96. Which of the following is not a feature of carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
a) It must be chemically inert
b) It should be suitable for the detector employed
c) If should be not be completely pure
d) It should be cheap.

97. Which of the following is not true about Solvent programming which is done on high
performance liquid chromatography?
a) It provides unequal bandwidths b) It provides fast overall separation
c) It provides maximum resolution d) It provides maximum sensitivity.

98. Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by
the power supply in the ECG circuit?
a) band pass filters b) high pass filters c) notch filters d) low pass filters.

99. For rehabilitation engineering perspective a task that is specific to a single sense or movement
pattern is called ---------.
a) Functional Limitation b) Societal limitation
c) Modality specific d) Pathophysiology

100. Phonons are ---------

a) Quanta of Energy b) Quanta of light waves

Ver-A : EI 8 of 8
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May 2024
Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

\
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

2. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

3. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

4. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

5. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

6. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

7. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

8. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

9. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

10. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

11. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

12. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

Ver-B : EI 1 of 8
13. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

14. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

15. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

16. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

17. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

18. The standard deviation is always ______

a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

19. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

20. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

21. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :

a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

22. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

23. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

24. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above
25. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable
Ver-B : EI 2 of 8
26. Why do you need to review the existing literature?
a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

27. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

28. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

29. Concept is of two types

a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

30. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

31. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

32. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

33. What are the main purposes of data analysis?

a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

34. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

35. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

36. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

Ver-B : EI 3 of 8
37. Which of the following is not a data collection method?
a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

38. The term ‘ethno’ refers to

a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

39. Ogives is also known as?

a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

40. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

41. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

42. The data of research is _______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

43. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

44. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

45. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

46. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

47. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

48. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

49. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

50 _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

Ver-B : EI 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Which terminal does not belong to the SCR?

a) Anode b) Gate c) Base d) Cathode.

52. An SCR is a
a) four layer, four junction device b) four layer, three junction device
c) four layer, two junction device d) three layer, signal junction device.

53. Bridge rectifier is an Alternative for

a) Full wave rectifier b) Peak rectifier c) Half wave rectifier d) None of the mentioned

54. Which device can be use in a chopper circuit?

a) BJT b) MOSFET c) GTO d) None of the mentioned

55. The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is

a) Square wave b) Triangular wave c) Quasi – square wave d) Sine wave.

56. Which of the following is not a feature of carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
a) It must be chemically inert
b) It should be suitable for the detector employed
c) If should be not be completely pure
d) It should be cheap.

57. Which of the following is not true about Solvent programming which is done on high
performance liquid chromatography?
a) It provides unequal bandwidths b) It provides fast overall separation
c) It provides maximum resolution d) It provides maximum sensitivity.

58. Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by
the power supply in the ECG circuit?
a) band pass filters b) high pass filters c) notch filters d) low pass filters.

59. For rehabilitation engineering perspective a task that is specific to a single sense or movement
pattern is called ---------.
a) Functional Limitation b) Societal limitation
c) Modality specific d) Pathophysiology

60. Phonons are ---------

a) Quanta of Energy b) Quanta of light waves

61. A symptotic stability is concerned with

a) A system under influence of input b) A system not under influence input
c) A system under influence of output d) A system not under influence of output

Ver-B : EI 5 of 8
62. If a Nyquist plot of G(jw) H (jw) for a closed loop system passes through (  2, j0) point in GH
plane, what would be the value of gain margin of the system on dB?
a) 0 dB b) 2.0201dB c) 4dB d) 6.0205dB.

63. The breakaway point – calculated mathematically must allow lie on the root locus.
a) True b) False

64. For a stable system closed loop system, the gain at phase cross over frequency should always be
a) < 20 dB b) < 6dB c) > 6dB d) > 0dB.

65. How is the size of PLC determined?

a) Number of terminals b) Power supply
c) Memory unit d) Size of Repay.

66. The even part of a signal x(t) is?

1 1
a) x(t) + x(  t) b) x(t)  x(  t) c)   * (x(t) + x (  t)) d)   * (x(t)  x(  t))
2 2

67. The Nth root of unity WN is given as -------

a) ej2πN b) e-j2πN c) e-j2π/N d) ej2π/N

68. If x(n) and x(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X (K + N) =?

a) X(  K) b)  X(K) c) X(K) d) None of the mentioned

69. The roots of the equation H(z) must occur in --------

a) Identical b) Zero c) Reciprocal d) Conjugate pairs

70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of sampling rate conversion by converting the signal
in to analog signal?
a) signal distortion b) Quantization effects
c) New sampling rate can be arbitrarity selected d) Signal distortion and quantization effects.

71. Switches connected on parallel represent which operation?

a) NOT b) AND c) OR d) NAND.

72. What is the primary function of a switching circuit in digital logic design?
a) Signal switching b) Signal processing
c) Signal modulation d) Signal amplification.

73. Any signed negative binary number is recognized by its ------.

a) MSB b) LSB c) Byte d) Nibble.

74. The parameter through which 16 distinct values can be represented is known as
a) Bit b) Byte c) Word d) Nibble.

75. Which hardware description language is popular in the US?

a) System varilog b) System log c) Verilog d) VHDL.

76. Which of the following architecture is follower by general – purpose microprocessor?

a) Von Neu mann architecture b) Harvard architecture
c) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned.
Ver-B : EI 6 of 8
77. 8051 series has how many 16 bit registers?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0.

78. What is the function of the TMOD register?

a) TMOD register is used to set various operation modes of timer/counter
b) TMOD register is used to load the count of the timer
c) Is the destination or the final register where the result is obtained after the operation of the
timer
d) is used to interrupt the timer

79. Auto reload mode is allowed in which mode of the timer?

a) Mode 0 b) Mode 1 c) Mode 2 d) Mode 3

80. TF1, TR1,TFO, TRO bits are of which register?

a) TMOD b) SCON c) TCON d) SMOD

81. Which of the following is the correct relationship between base and emitter current of a BJT?
a) IB = IE b) IB = IE c) IB = ( + 1)IE d) IE = ( + 1)IB

82. For best operation of a BJT, which region must the operating point be set at?
a) Active region b) Cutoff region
c) Saturation region d) Reverse active region.

83. If there are 10 nodes in a current – how many equations do we get?

a) 10 b) 9 c) 8 d) 7.

84 Nodal analysis can be applied for ---------

a) Planner networks b) Non-Planar Networks
c) Both Planer and Non-planar Networks d) Neither planner nov non-planner Networks

85. A series RLC circuit has R = 50, L = 0.01H and C = 0.04 × 10-6F. System voltage is 100V the
frequency, at which the maximum voltage appears across capacitor, is?
a) 5937.81Hz b) 7370 Hz c) 7937.81Hz d) 981 Hz

86. FET is a voltage controlled device.

a) True b) False

87. Which of the following statement is True about FET?

a) It has high output Impedance b) It has high Input Impedance
c) It has low input – Impedance d) It does not offer any resistance.

88. If a MOSFET is to be used in the making of an amplifier then it must work in

a) Cut-off region b) Triode region
c) Saturation region d) Both cutoff and Triode region can be used.

89. The expression for the integration frequency is

a) CR b) 1/CR c) R/C d) C/R

90. Which circuit converts irregularly shaped waveform to regular shaped waveforms?
a) Schmitt trigger b) Voltage limiter
c) Comparator d) None of the mentioned.
Ver-B : EI 7 of 8
91. Which of the following is the most popular method for measuring low resistance?
a) Ducter ohm meter method b) Kelvin double bridge method
c) ammeter – voltmeter method d) Potentiometer method.

92. A Schering bridge can be used for

a) protecting the circuit the from temperature rises b) testing capacitors
c) measuring voltages d) measuring currents

93. Which of the following devices is used to measure power in A.C circuits?
a) Ammeter b) Wattmeter c) Voltmeter d) ohm meter.

94. Which of the following determine the rate of measurement cycles?

a) Multi vibrator b) Oscillator c) Oscilloscope d) amplifier.

95. Which of the following compares the output in a successive approximation type DVM?
a) Comparator b) diode c) Op-amp d) rectifier.

96. Which of the following is caused by careless handling?

a) Systematic error b) Random error c) Gross error d) None of the mentioned

97. Which of the following conversions take place in float element?

a) level to force b) level to voltage
c) level to displacement d) None of the mentioned

98. Strain is a ---------

a) Fractional change in volume b) Fractional change in Area
c) Fractional change in length d) Fractional change in height

99. What is the specific humidity if the mass of water is 15g and mass of bone dry air is 25g?
a) 10% b) 30% c) 40% d) = 60%

100. Output of a bimetallic element will be

a) Strain b) Pressure c) Displacement d) Voltage.

Ver-B : EI 8 of 8
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May 2024
Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

\
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30
c) less than 50 d) none of these

2. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

3. Hypothesis should be ______

a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

4. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

5. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

6. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

7. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

8. The standard deviation is always ______

a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

9. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

10. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

11. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

12. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

Ver-C : EI 1 of 8
13. What are the main purposes of data analysis?
a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

14. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

15. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

16. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

17. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

18. The term ‘ethno’ refers to

a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

19. Ogives is also known as?

a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

20. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

21. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

22. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

23. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

24. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

Ver-C : EI 2 of 8
25. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

26. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

27. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

28. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

29. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

30. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

31. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

32. The data of research is _______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

33. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

34. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

35. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population
36. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive
37. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

38. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting
39. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

40. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation
Ver-C : EI 3 of 8
41. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :
a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

42. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

43. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

44. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

45. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______

a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

46. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

47. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

48. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above
49. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

50 _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

Ver-C : EI 4 of 8
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Which of the following is the most popular method for measuring low resistance?
a) Ducter ohm meter method b) Kelvin double bridge method
c) ammeter – voltmeter method d) Potentiometer method.

52. A Schering bridge can be used for

a) protecting the circuit the from temperature rises b) testing capacitors
c) measuring voltages d) measuring currents

53. Which of the following devices is used to measure power in A.C circuits?
a) Ammeter b) Wattmeter c) Voltmeter d) ohm meter.

54. Which of the following determine the rate of measurement cycles?

a) Multi vibrator b) Oscillator c) Oscilloscope d) amplifier.

55. Which of the following compares the output in a successive approximation type DVM?
a) Comparator b) diode c) Op-amp d) rectifier.

56. Which of the following is caused by careless handling?

a) Systematic error b) Random error c) Gross error d) None of the mentioned

57. Which of the following conversions take place in float element?

a) level to force b) level to voltage
c) level to displacement d) None of the mentioned

58. Strain is a ---------

a) Fractional change in volume b) Fractional change in Area
c) Fractional change in length d) Fractional change in height

59. What is the specific humidity if the mass of water is 15g and mass of bone dry air is 25g?
a) 10% b) 30% c) 40% d) = 60%

60. Output of a bimetallic element will be

a) Strain b) Pressure c) Displacement d) Voltage.

61. Which terminal does not belong to the SCR?

a) Anode b) Gate c) Base d) Cathode.

62. An SCR is a
a) four layer, four junction device b) four layer, three junction device
c) four layer, two junction device d) three layer, signal junction device.

63. Bridge rectifier is an Alternative for

a) Full wave rectifier b) Peak rectifier c) Half wave rectifier d) None of the mentioned

Ver-C : EI 5 of 8
64. Which device can be use in a chopper circuit?
a) BJT b) MOSFET c) GTO d) None of the mentioned

65. The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is

a) Square wave b) Triangular wave c) Quasi – square wave d) Sine wave.

66. Which of the following is not a feature of carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
a) It must be chemically inert
b) It should be suitable for the detector employed
c) If should be not be completely pure
d) It should be cheap.

67. Which of the following is not true about Solvent programming which is done on high
performance liquid chromatography?
a) It provides unequal bandwidths b) It provides fast overall separation
c) It provides maximum resolution d) It provides maximum sensitivity.

68. Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by
the power supply in the ECG circuit?
a) band pass filters b) high pass filters c) notch filters d) low pass filters.

69. For rehabilitation engineering perspective a task that is specific to a single sense or movement
pattern is called ---------.
a) Functional Limitation b) Societal limitation
c) Modality specific d) Pathophysiology

70. Phonons are ---------

a) Quanta of Energy b) Quanta of light waves

71. A symptotic stability is concerned with

a) A system under influence of input b) A system not under influence input
c) A system under influence of output d) A system not under influence of output

72. If a Nyquist plot of G(jw) H (jw) for a closed loop system passes through (  2, j0) point in GH
plane, what would be the value of gain margin of the system on dB?
a) 0 dB b) 2.0201dB c) 4dB d) 6.0205dB.

73. The breakaway point – calculated mathematically must allow lie on the root locus.
a) True b) False

74. For a stable system closed loop system, the gain at phase cross over frequency should always be
a) < 20 dB b) < 6dB c) > 6dB d) > 0dB.

75. How is the size of PLC determined?

a) Number of terminals b) Power supply
c) Memory unit d) Size of Repay.

76. The even part of a signal x(t) is?

1 1
a) x(t) + x(  t) b) x(t)  x(  t) c)   * (x(t) + x (  t)) d)   * (x(t)  x(  t))
2 2

Ver-C : EI 6 of 8
77. The Nth root of unity WN is given as -------
a) ej2πN b) e-j2πN c) e-j2π/N d) ej2π/N

78. If x(n) and x(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X (K + N) =?

a) X(  K) b)  X(K) c) X(K) d) None of the mentioned

79. The roots of the equation H(z) must occur in --------

a) Identical b) Zero c) Reciprocal d) Conjugate pairs

80. Which of the following is the disadvantage of sampling rate conversion by converting the signal
in to analog signal?
a) signal distortion b) Quantization effects
c) New sampling rate can be arbitrarity selected d) Signal distortion and quantization effects.

81. Switches connected on parallel represent which operation?

a) NOT b) AND c) OR d) NAND.

82. What is the primary function of a switching circuit in digital logic design?
a) Signal switching b) Signal processing
c) Signal modulation d) Signal amplification.

83. Any signed negative binary number is recognized by its ------.

a) MSB b) LSB c) Byte d) Nibble.

84 The parameter through which 16 distinct values can be represented is known as

a) Bit b) Byte c) Word d) Nibble.

85. Which hardware description language is popular in the US?

a) System varilog b) System log c) Verilog d) VHDL.

86. Which of the following architecture is follower by general – purpose microprocessor?

a) Von Neu mann architecture b) Harvard architecture
c) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned.

87. 8051 series has how many 16 bit registers?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0.

88. What is the function of the TMOD register?

a) TMOD register is used to set various operation modes of timer/counter
b) TMOD register is used to load the count of the timer
c) Is the destination or the final register where the result is obtained after the operation of the
timer
d) is used to interrupt the timer

89. Auto reload mode is allowed in which mode of the timer?

a) Mode 0 b) Mode 1 c) Mode 2 d) Mode 3

90. TF1, TR1,TFO, TRO bits are of which register?

a) TMOD b) SCON c) TCON d) SMOD

Ver-C : EI 7 of 8
91. Which of the following is the correct relationship between base and emitter current of a BJT?
a) IB = IE b) IB = IE c) IB = ( + 1)IE d) IE = ( + 1)IB

92. For best operation of a BJT, which region must the operating point be set at?
a) Active region b) Cutoff region
c) Saturation region d) Reverse active region.

93. If there are 10 nodes in a current – how many equations do we get?

a) 10 b) 9 c) 8 d) 7.

94. Nodal analysis can be applied for ---------

a) Planner networks b) Non-Planar Networks
c) Both Planer and Non-planar Networks d) Neither planner nov non-planner Networks

95. A series RLC circuit has R = 50, L = 0.01H and C = 0.04 × 10-6F. System voltage is 100V the
frequency, at which the maximum voltage appears across capacitor, is?
a) 5937.81Hz b) 7370 Hz c) 7937.81Hz d) 981 Hz

96. FET is a voltage controlled device.

a) True b) False

97. Which of the following statement is True about FET?

a) It has high output Impedance b) It has high Input Impedance
c) It has low input – Impedance d) It does not offer any resistance.

98. If a MOSFET is to be used in the making of an amplifier then it must work in

a) Cut-off region b) Triode region
c) Saturation region d) Both cutoff and Triode region can be used.

99. The expression for the integration frequency is

a) CR b) 1/CR c) R/C d) C/R

100. Which circuit converts irregularly shaped waveform to regular shaped waveforms?
a) Schmitt trigger b) Voltage limiter
c) Comparator d) None of the mentioned.

Ver-C : EI 8 of 8
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) May 2024
Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

\
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by

a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

2. The data of research is _______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

3. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.

a) t b) f c) z d) P

4. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

5. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.

a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

6. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

7. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.

a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

8. The final stage in a survey is

a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

9. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

10. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

11. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

12. The fullform of APA is ______

a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

13. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

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14. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

15. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

16. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______

a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

17. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.

a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

18. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

19. If Ho is true and we reject it is called

a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

20. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

21. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

22. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

23. Hypothesis should be ______

a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

24. What is the purpose of doing research?

a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

25. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?

a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

26. _______ is the first step of the Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

27. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

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28. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

29. Mean, Median and Mode are

a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

30. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

31. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :

a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

32. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory
33. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

34. Quantitative research only works if

a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

35. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______

a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

36. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
37. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

38. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above
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39. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

40. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

41. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?

a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

42. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

43. What are the main purposes of data analysis?

a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

44. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

45. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?

a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

46. Find an example of probability sampling.

a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

47. Which of the following is not a data collection method?

a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

48. The term ‘ethno’ refers to

a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture
49. Ogives is also known as?
a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

50 Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

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 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronic and Instrumentation Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. A symptotic stability is concerned with

a) A system under influence of input b) A system not under influence input
c) A system under influence of output d) A system not under influence of output

52. If a Nyquist plot of G(jw) H (jw) for a closed loop system passes through (  2, j0) point in GH
plane, what would be the value of gain margin of the system on dB?
a) 0 dB b) 2.0201dB c) 4dB d) 6.0205dB.

53. The breakaway point – calculated mathematically must allow lie on the root locus.
a) True b) False

54. For a stable system closed loop system, the gain at phase cross over frequency should always be
a) < 20 dB b) < 6dB c) > 6dB d) > 0dB.

55. How is the size of PLC determined?

a) Number of terminals b) Power supply
c) Memory unit d) Size of Repay.

56. The even part of a signal x(t) is?

1 1
a) x(t) + x(  t) b) x(t)  x(  t) c)   * (x(t) + x (  t)) d)   * (x(t)  x(  t))
2 2

57. The Nth root of unity WN is given as -------

a) ej2πN b) e-j2πN c) e-j2π/N d) ej2π/N

58. If x(n) and x(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X (K + N) =?

a) X(  K) b)  X(K) c) X(K) d) None of the mentioned

59. The roots of the equation H(z) must occur in --------

a) Identical b) Zero c) Reciprocal d) Conjugate pairs

60. Which of the following is the disadvantage of sampling rate conversion by converting the signal
in to analog signal?
a) signal distortion b) Quantization effects
c) New sampling rate can be arbitrarity selected d) Signal distortion and quantization effects.

61. Which of the following is the correct relationship between base and emitter current of a BJT?
a) IB = IE b) IB = IE c) IB = ( + 1)IE d) IE = ( + 1)IB

62. For best operation of a BJT, which region must the operating point be set at?
a) Active region b) Cutoff region
c) Saturation region d) Reverse active region.
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63. If there are 10 nodes in a current – how many equations do we get?
a) 10 b) 9 c) 8 d) 7.

64. Nodal analysis can be applied for ---------

a) Planner networks b) Non-Planar Networks
c) Both Planer and Non-planar Networks d) Neither planner nov non-planner Networks

65. A series RLC circuit has R = 50, L = 0.01H and C = 0.04 × 10-6F. System voltage is 100V the
frequency, at which the maximum voltage appears across capacitor, is?
a) 5937.81Hz b) 7370 Hz c) 7937.81Hz d) 981 Hz

66. FET is a voltage controlled device.

a) True b) False

67. Which of the following statement is True about FET?

a) It has high output Impedance b) It has high Input Impedance
c) It has low input – Impedance d) It does not offer any resistance.

68. If a MOSFET is to be used in the making of an amplifier then it must work in

a) Cut-off region b) Triode region
c) Saturation region d) Both cutoff and Triode region can be used.

69. The expression for the integration frequency is

a) CR b) 1/CR c) R/C d) C/R

70. Which circuit converts irregularly shaped waveform to regular shaped waveforms?
a) Schmitt trigger b) Voltage limiter
c) Comparator d) None of the mentioned.

71. Which terminal does not belong to the SCR?

a) Anode b) Gate c) Base d) Cathode.

72. An SCR is a
a) four layer, four junction device b) four layer, three junction device
c) four layer, two junction device d) three layer, signal junction device.

73. Bridge rectifier is an Alternative for

a) Full wave rectifier b) Peak rectifier c) Half wave rectifier d) None of the mentioned

74. Which device can be use in a chopper circuit?

a) BJT b) MOSFET c) GTO d) None of the mentioned

75. The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is

a) Square wave b) Triangular wave c) Quasi – square wave d) Sine wave.

76. Which of the following is not a feature of carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
a) It must be chemically inert
b) It should be suitable for the detector employed
c) If should be not be completely pure
d) It should be cheap.

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77. Which of the following is not true about Solvent programming which is done on high
performance liquid chromatography?
a) It provides unequal bandwidths b) It provides fast overall separation
c) It provides maximum resolution d) It provides maximum sensitivity.

78. Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by
the power supply in the ECG circuit?
a) band pass filters b) high pass filters c) notch filters d) low pass filters.

79. For rehabilitation engineering perspective a task that is specific to a single sense or movement
pattern is called ---------.
a) Functional Limitation b) Societal limitation
c) Modality specific d) Pathophysiology

80. Phonons are ---------

a) Quanta of Energy b) Quanta of light waves

81. Which of the following is the most popular method for measuring low resistance?
a) Ducter ohm meter method b) Kelvin double bridge method
c) ammeter – voltmeter method d) Potentiometer method.

82. A Schering bridge can be used for

a) protecting the circuit the from temperature rises b) testing capacitors
c) measuring voltages d) measuring currents

83. Which of the following devices is used to measure power in A.C circuits?
a) Ammeter b) Wattmeter c) Voltmeter d) ohm meter.

84 Which of the following determine the rate of measurement cycles?

a) Multi vibrator b) Oscillator c) Oscilloscope d) amplifier.

85. Which of the following compares the output in a successive approximation type DVM?
a) Comparator b) diode c) Op-amp d) rectifier.

86. Which of the following is caused by careless handling?

a) Systematic error b) Random error c) Gross error d) None of the mentioned

87. Which of the following conversions take place in float element?

a) level to force b) level to voltage
c) level to displacement d) None of the mentioned

88. Strain is a ---------

a) Fractional change in volume b) Fractional change in Area
c) Fractional change in length d) Fractional change in height

89. What is the specific humidity if the mass of water is 15g and mass of bone dry air is 25g?
a) 10% b) 30% c) 40% d) = 60%

90. Output of a bimetallic element will be

a) Strain b) Pressure c) Displacement d) Voltage.

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91. Switches connected on parallel represent which operation?
a) NOT b) AND c) OR d) NAND.

92. What is the primary function of a switching circuit in digital logic design?
a) Signal switching b) Signal processing
c) Signal modulation d) Signal amplification.

93. Any signed negative binary number is recognized by its ------.

a) MSB b) LSB c) Byte d) Nibble.

94. The parameter through which 16 distinct values can be represented is known as
a) Bit b) Byte c) Word d) Nibble.

95. Which hardware description language is popular in the US?

a) System varilog b) System log c) Verilog d) VHDL.

96. Which of the following architecture is follower by general – purpose microprocessor?

a) Von Neu mann architecture b) Harvard architecture
c) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned.

97. 8051 series has how many 16 bit registers?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0.

98. What is the function of the TMOD register?

a) TMOD register is used to set various operation modes of timer/counter
b) TMOD register is used to load the count of the timer
c) Is the destination or the final register where the result is obtained after the operation of the
timer
d) is used to interrupt the timer

99. Auto reload mode is allowed in which mode of the timer?

a) Mode 0 b) Mode 1 c) Mode 2 d) Mode 3

100. TF1, TR1,TFO, TRO bits are of which register?

a) TMOD b) SCON c) TCON d) SMOD

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