ME
Uploaded by
Shivaprasad SME
Uploaded by
Shivaprasad SVTU-ETR Seat No.
Question Paper Version : A
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi
Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Mechanical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of
a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research
3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research
4. The first step of Research process is
a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem
5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables
a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review
6. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book
7. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.
8. Narrative literature review method is also known as
a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.
9. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal
10. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False
11. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census
12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?
a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
VER-A : ME 1 of 9
13. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
14. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
15. Which data is cheaper to collect?
a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data
16. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data
17. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation
18. The most repeated value in the series is called as
a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range
19. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above
20. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic
21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling
22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as
a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random
23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size
a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above
24. Population under research study is referred as
a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population
25. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
26. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
VER-A : ME 2 of 9
27. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation
28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :
a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she
a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false
30. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these
32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to
a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F
33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to
a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound
34. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
35. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above
36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is
a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r
37. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept
38. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
VER-A : ME 3 of 9
39. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors
40. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations
41. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears
42. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above
43. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4
44. What are Independent Events?
a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
45. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7
46. The normal distribution
a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation
47. The shape of normal distribution curve
a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled
48. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)
49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is
a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2
50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is
a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N
VER-A : ME 4 of 9
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Mechanical Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. An experiment was conducted and it was found that shear modulus of the material is equal to
the bulk modulus then what will be the value of Poisson’s ratio?
a) 0.150 b) 0.125 c) 0.215 d) 1.125
52. A thin walled cylindrical vessel of well thickness ‘t’ and diameter ‘d’ is fitted with gas to a
gauge pressure of ‘P’. The maximum shear stress on vessel wall will be
Pd Pd Pd Pd
a) b) c) d)
t 2t 4t 8t
53. A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge located at a distance of L/4 from the roller support Q of
beam of length ‘L’.
Then vertical reaction at support Q is
a) 0.0 kN b) 2.5 kN c) 7.5 kN d) 10.0 kN
54. For a circular shaft of diameter ‘d’ subjected to torque ‘T’ the maximum value of shear stress is,
64T 32T 16T 8T
a) 3
b) 3
c) 3
d)
d d d d 3
55. A free bar of length 1 m is uniformly heated from 0C to a temperature tC. If ‘’ is the
coefficient of linear expansion and ‘E’ is the modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar is
E
a) TE b) c) Zero d) None of these
T
56. Automobile steering gear is an example of
a) Higher pair b) Lower pair c) Turning pair d) Rotary pair
57. A chain comprises of five links having five joints, is the chain in constrained kinematic chain?
a) Yes b) No c) It is marginal case d) Unpredictable
58. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
a) 1 b) 1/ c) d) 2
59. The natural frequency of free vibration (Transverse vibration) due to uniformly distributed load
acting over simple supported beam is
0.4985 0.571 0.6253 0.5615
a) b) c) d)
VER-A : ME 5 of 9
60. If is very high for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations. The phase angle for all
n
values of damping factors will tend to approach
a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360
61. A loaded semi-infinite flat plate is having an elliptical hole (A/B = 2) in the middle as shown in
figure. The stress concentration factor at points either X or Y is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
62. Which of the following process increases the fatigue strength?
a) Surface decorburisation b) Under stressing
c) Shot peering d) Polishing
63. The tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is given by
P d0 P 2d 0 P d0
a) b) c) d)
P P d0 P
64. A muff coupling used to transmit 40 kW at 150 rev/min. The allowable shear and crushing
stresses for the shaft and key, which are made of 50 C 8 steel; are 37 N/mm2 and 96.25 N/mm2
respectively. The material of the muff is FG 150 cast iron with a permissible shear strength of
17.3 N/mm2. Assume that the maximum torque transmitted is 20% greater than the mean torque.
The diameter of the shaft is
a) 65 mm b) 75 mm c) 81 mm d) 98 mm
65. Which of the following is a perfect application of roller bearings?
a) For low and medium radial load condition
b) For combined radial and thrust loads
c) For heavy loads and large shaft diameters
d) For household applications and less noise
66. Water at 20C flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe. Take kinematic viscosity of water at
20C = 0.0101 stoke. Assume that the changes from laminar to turbulent at R e = 2320. The
critical velocity will be
a) 2.22 cm/s b) 3.11 cm/sec c) 1.11 cm/s d) 4.11 cm/sec
67. The maximum velocity of a one dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow,
between two fixed parallel plates, is 6 m/s. The mean velocity in m/s of the flow is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
68. A system undergoes a change of state during which 100 kJ of heat is transferred to it and it does
50 kJ of work. The system is brought back to its original state through a process during which
120 kJ of heat is transferred to it. The work done by the system is
a) 270 kJ b) 170 kJ c) 370 kJ d) 470 kJ
VER-A : ME 6 of 9
69. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are 700C and 50C respectively. What
is the efficiency of the heat engine?
a) 66.8% b) 76.8% c) 86.8% d) 56.8%
70. Water flows through a turbine in which friction causes the water temperature to rise from 35C
to 37C. If there is no heat transfer, how much does entropy of the water change in passing
through the turbine?
a) 0.0143 kJ/K b) 0.0243 kJ/K c) 0.0343 kJ/K d) 0.0443 kJ/K
71. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer radii r1 and r0, respectively, length, L and
thermal conductivity, K. Its inner and outer surfaces are maintained at T i and To, respectively
(Ti > To). Assuming one dimensional steady state heat conduction in the radial direction, the
thermal resistance in the wall of the tube is
1 r L 1 r 1 r
a) ln i b) c) ln o d) ln o
2 KL ro 2 ri K 2 KL ri 4 KL ri
72. A Slendor rod of length ‘L’, diameter ‘d’ (L >> d) and thermal conductivity ‘K1’ is joined with
another rod of identical dimensions, but of thermal conductivity ‘K2’ to form a composite
cylindrical rod of length ‘2L’. The heat transfer in radial direction and contact resistance are
negligible. The effective thermal conductivity of the composite rod is
2K1K 2 K1K 2
a) b) K1K 2 c) d) K1 K 2
K1 K 2 K1 K 2
73. Match Group A with Group B
Group A
P : Biot number
Q : Grashof number
R : Prandtl number
S : Reynolds number
Group B
1. Ratio of buoyancy to viscous force
2. Ratio of inertia force to viscous force
3. Ratio of momentum to thermal diffusivities
4. Ratio of internal thermal resistance to boundary layer thermal resistance
a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
74. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature of 60C. The cooling
water enter at 30C and leaves at 45C. The Logarithmic Mean Temperature Difference
(LMTD) of the condenser is
a) 37.5C b) 16.2C c) 21.6C d) 30C
75. Consider the radiation heat exchanger inside an annulus between two very long concentric
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri. The
radiation view factor of the outer cylinder onto itself is
1
R 3 Ri Ri Ri
a) 1 i b) 1 c) 1 d) 1
Ro Ro Ro Ro
VER-A : ME 7 of 9
76. The compression ratio in an air standard Otto cycle is 8 and = 1.4. The thermal efficiency of
the Otto cycle is _________.
a) 46.5% b) 56.47% c) 50% d) 63.42%
77. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as _______.
a) compressor capacity b) compression ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) mean effective pressure
78. The runner passages of a reaction turbine are __________.
a) Partially filled with water b) Always completely filled with water
c) Never filled with water d) None of these
79. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used ___________.
a) to break the jet of water b) to bring the runner to rest in a short time
c) to change the direction of runner d) none of these
80. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine is mainly due to _______.
a) low velocity b) high velocity c) low pressure d) high pressure
81. Change in output of a sensor with change in input is
a) Threshold b) Slew rate c) Sensitivity d) None of these
82. Pyrometer is used to measure
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Strain d) Displacement
83. Electronic counters are used for measuring
a) linear velocity b) pressure c) acceleration d) angular velocity
84 A load cell is a
a) Strain gauge b) Thermistor
c) Resistive potentiometer d) Inductive transducer
85. Which of the following device is not used for measuring the pressure?
a) Piezo-electric transducers b) RTD
c) Piezo-resistive transducers d) LVDT
86. Cyaniding is the process of ________.
a) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
b) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
c) Adding Carbon and Nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
d) Making corrosion resistant steel
87. Inconel is an alloy of __________
a) Nickel, Iron b) Nickel, Copper
c) Nickel, Chromium d) Nickel, Zinc
88. Which of the following pipes is least corrosive resistant __________?
a) Mid Steel b) Cast Iron c) Brass d) Wrought Iron
89. A typical stress-strain curve helps us to understand, how a given material __________
a) Deforms when we increase the strain b) Produces strain with increase in pressure
c) Produces strain with increasing temperature d) Deforms with increasing loads
VER-A : ME 8 of 9
90. Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a) Atomization b) Compaction
c) Machining and Grinding d) Electrolysis
91. Draft on pattern for casting is provided for _______.
a) Shrinkage allowance b) Identification
c) Taper to facilitate removal from mould d) Machining allowance
92. Which of the following characteristics is mainly considered for the solidification of castings?
a) Appearance b) Crystal structure
c) Moulding capacity d) Surface finish
93. In which operation, motion of job is rotary and motion of cutting tool is forward translating?
a) Turning b) Planning c) Milling d) All of these
94. In tool signature, nose radius is indicated.
a) In the middle b) In the beginning c) Not indicated d) At the end
95. What is the percentage of the abrasives and water in the mixture used for Abrasive Water Jet
Machining?
a) 20% water and 80% abrasives b) 80% water and 20% abrasives
c) 30% water and 70% abrasives d) 70% water and 30% abrasives
96. Who is popularly known as the father of Modern Management Theory?
a) F.W. Taylor b) Henry Fayol c) Elton Mayo d) Max Weber
97. “No one on the organization should have more than one boss” is a statement of
a) Principle of unity of command b) Principle of specialization
c) Principle of span of control d) Principle of authority
98. Which type of entrepreneurs utilizes a chance to introduce a new technique or new product?
a) Instigated entrepreneur b) Initiative entrepreneur
c) Fabian entrepreneur d) Innovative entrepreneur
99. Espirit de corps mean___________.
a) Product is over strength b) Union is strength
c) Service is our motto d) Buyer beware
100. Military organization is known as
a) Line and staff organization b) Functional organization
c) Line organization d) None of these
VER-A : ME 9 of 9
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi
Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Mechanical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears
2. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above
3. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4
4. What are Independent Events?
a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
5. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7
6. The normal distribution
a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation
7. The shape of normal distribution curve
a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled
8. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)
9. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is
a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2
10. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is
a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N
11. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these
VER-B : ME 1 of 9
12. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to
a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F
13. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to
a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound
14. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
15. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above
16. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is
a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r
17. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept
18. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
19. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors
20. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations
21. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census
22. Which one is called non – probability sampling?
a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
23. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
24. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
VER-B : ME 2 of 9
25. Which data is cheaper to collect?
a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data
26. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data
27. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation
28. The most repeated value in the series is called as
a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range
29. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above
30. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic
31. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
32. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of
a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research
33. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research
34. The first step of Research process is
a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem
35. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables
a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review
36. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book
37. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.
VER-B : ME 3 of 9
38. Narrative literature review method is also known as
a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.
39. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal
40. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False
41. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling
42. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as
a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random
43. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size
a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above
44. Population under research study is referred as
a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population
45. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
46. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
47. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation
48. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :
a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
49. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she
a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false
50. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
VER-B : ME 4 of 9
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Mechanical Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Draft on pattern for casting is provided for _______.
a) Shrinkage allowance b) Identification
c) Taper to facilitate removal from mould d) Machining allowance
52. Which of the following characteristics is mainly considered for the solidification of castings?
a) Appearance b) Crystal structure
c) Moulding capacity d) Surface finish
53. In which operation, motion of job is rotary and motion of cutting tool is forward translating?
a) Turning b) Planning c) Milling d) All of these
54. In tool signature, nose radius is indicated.
a) In the middle b) In the beginning
c) Not indicated d) At the end
55. What is the percentage of the abrasives and water in the mixture used for Abrasive Water Jet
Machining?
a) 20% water and 80% abrasives b) 80% water and 20% abrasives
c) 30% water and 70% abrasives d) 70% water and 30% abrasives
56. Who is popularly known as the father of Modern Management Theory?
a) F.W. Taylor b) Henry Fayol c) Elton Mayo d) Max Weber
57. “No one on the organization should have more than one boss” is a statement of
a) Principle of unity of command b) Principle of specialization
c) Principle of span of control d) Principle of authority
58. Which type of entrepreneurs utilizes a chance to introduce a new technique or new product?
a) Instigated entrepreneur b) Initiative entrepreneur
c) Fabian entrepreneur d) Innovative entrepreneur
59. Espirit de corps mean___________.
a) Product is over strength b) Union is strength
c) Service is our motto d) Buyer beware
60. Military organization is known as
a) Line and staff organization b) Functional organization
c) Line organization d) None of these
61. Change in output of a sensor with change in input is
a) Threshold b) Slew rate c) Sensitivity d) None of these
62. Pyrometer is used to measure
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Strain d) Displacement
VER-B : ME 5 of 9
63. Electronic counters are used for measuring
a) linear velocity b) pressure c) acceleration d) angular velocity
64. A load cell is a
a) Strain gauge b) Thermistor
c) Resistive potentiometer d) Inductive transducer
65. Which of the following device is not used for measuring the pressure?
a) Piezo-electric transducers b) RTD
c) Piezo-resistive transducers d) LVDT
66. Cyaniding is the process of ________.
a) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
b) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
c) Adding Carbon and Nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
d) Making corrosion resistant steel
67. Inconel is an alloy of __________
a) Nickel, Iron b) Nickel, Copper
c) Nickel, Chromium d) Nickel, Zinc
68. Which of the following pipes is least corrosive resistant __________?
a) Mid Steel b) Cast Iron c) Brass d) Wrought Iron
69. A typical stress-strain curve helps us to understand, how a given material __________
a) Deforms when we increase the strain b) Produces strain with increase in pressure
c) Produces strain with increasing temperature d) Deforms with increasing loads
70. Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a) Atomization b) Compaction
c) Machining and Grinding d) Electrolysis
71. A loaded semi-infinite flat plate is having an elliptical hole (A/B = 2) in the middle as shown in
figure. The stress concentration factor at points either X or Y is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
72. Which of the following process increases the fatigue strength?
a) Surface decorburisation b) Under stressing
c) Shot peering d) Polishing
73. The tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is given by
P d0 P 2d 0 P d0
a) b) c) d)
P P d0 P
VER-B : ME 6 of 9
74. A muff coupling used to transmit 40 kW at 150 rev/min. The allowable shear and crushing
stresses for the shaft and key, which are made of 50 C 8 steel; are 37 N/mm2 and 96.25 N/mm2
respectively. The material of the muff is FG 150 cast iron with a permissible shear strength of
17.3 N/mm2. Assume that the maximum torque transmitted is 20% greater than the mean torque.
The diameter of the shaft is
a) 65 mm b) 75 mm
c) 81 mm d) 98 mm
75. Which of the following is a perfect application of roller bearings?
a) For low and medium radial load condition
b) For combined radial and thrust loads
c) For heavy loads and large shaft diameters
d) For household applications and less noise
76. Water at 20C flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe. Take kinematic viscosity of water at
20C = 0.0101 stoke. Assume that the changes from laminar to turbulent at R e = 2320. The
critical velocity will be
a) 2.22 cm/s b) 3.11 cm/sec
c) 1.11 cm/s d) 4.11 cm/sec
77. The maximum velocity of a one dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow,
between two fixed parallel plates, is 6 m/s. The mean velocity in m/s of the flow is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
78. A system undergoes a change of state during which 100 kJ of heat is transferred to it and it does
50 kJ of work. The system is brought back to its original state through a process during which
120 kJ of heat is transferred to it. The work done by the system is
a) 270 kJ b) 170 kJ
c) 370 kJ d) 470 kJ
79. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are 700C and 50C respectively. What
is the efficiency of the heat engine?
a) 66.8% b) 76.8%
c) 86.8% d) 56.8%
80. Water flows through a turbine in which friction causes the water temperature to rise from 35C
to 37C. If there is no heat transfer, how much does entropy of the water change in passing
through the turbine?
a) 0.0143 kJ/K b) 0.0243 kJ/K
c) 0.0343 kJ/K d) 0.0443 kJ/K
81. An experiment was conducted and it was found that shear modulus of the material is equal to
the bulk modulus then what will be the value of Poisson’s ratio?
a) 0.150 b) 0.125
c) 0.215 d) 1.125
82. A thin walled cylindrical vessel of well thickness ‘t’ and diameter ‘d’ is fitted with gas to a
gauge pressure of ‘P’. The maximum shear stress on vessel wall will be
Pd Pd Pd Pd
a) b) c) d)
t 2t 4t 8t
VER-B : ME 7 of 9
83. A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge located at a distance of L/4 from the roller support Q of
beam of length ‘L’.
Then vertical reaction at support Q is
a) 0.0 kN b) 2.5 kN c) 7.5 kN d) 10.0 kN
84. For a circular shaft of diameter ‘d’ subjected to torque ‘T’ the maximum value of shear stress is,
64T 32T 16T 8T
a) 3
b) 3
c) 3
d)
d d d d 3
85. A free bar of length 1 m is uniformly heated from 0C to a temperature tC. If ‘’ is the
coefficient of linear expansion and ‘E’ is the modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar is
E
a) TE b) c) Zero d) None of these
T
86. Automobile steering gear is an example of
a) Higher pair b) Lower pair c) Turning pair d) Rotary pair
87. A chain comprises of five links having five joints, is the chain in constrained kinematic chain?
a) Yes b) No c) It is marginal case d) Unpredictable
88. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
a) 1 b) 1/ c) d) 2
89. The natural frequency of free vibration (Transverse vibration) due to uniformly distributed load
acting over simple supported beam is
0.4985 0.571 0.6253 0.5615
a) b) c) d)
90. If is very high for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations. The phase angle for all
n
values of damping factors will tend to approach
a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360
91. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer radii r1 and r0, respectively, length, L and
thermal conductivity, K. Its inner and outer surfaces are maintained at T i and To, respectively
(Ti > To). Assuming one dimensional steady state heat conduction in the radial direction, the
thermal resistance in the wall of the tube is
1 r L 1 r 1 r
a) ln i b) c) ln o d) ln o
2 KL ro 2 ri K 2 KL ri 4 KL ri
92. A Slendor rod of length ‘L’, diameter ‘d’ (L >> d) and thermal conductivity ‘K1’ is joined with
another rod of identical dimensions, but of thermal conductivity ‘K2’ to form a composite
cylindrical rod of length ‘2L’. The heat transfer in radial direction and contact resistance are
negligible. The effective thermal conductivity of the composite rod is
2K1K 2 K1K 2
a) b) K1K 2 c) d) K1 K 2
K1 K 2 K1 K 2
VER-B : ME 8 of 9
93. Match Group A with Group B
Group A
P : Biot number
Q : Grashof number
R : Prandtl number
S : Reynolds number
Group B
1. Ratio of buoyancy to viscous force
2. Ratio of inertia force to viscous force
3. Ratio of momentum to thermal diffusivities
4. Ratio of internal thermal resistance to boundary layer thermal resistance
a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
94. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature of 60C. The cooling
water enter at 30C and leaves at 45C. The Logarithmic Mean Temperature Difference
(LMTD) of the condenser is
a) 37.5C b) 16.2C c) 21.6C d) 30C
95. Consider the radiation heat exchanger inside an annulus between two very long concentric
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri. The
radiation view factor of the outer cylinder onto itself is
1
R 3 Ri Ri Ri
a) 1 i b) 1 c) 1 d) 1
Ro Ro Ro Ro
96. The compression ratio in an air standard Otto cycle is 8 and = 1.4. The thermal efficiency of
the Otto cycle is _________.
a) 46.5% b) 56.47% c) 50% d) 63.42%
97. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as _______.
a) compressor capacity b) compression ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) mean effective pressure
98. The runner passages of a reaction turbine are __________.
a) Partially filled with water b) Always completely filled with water
c) Never filled with water d) None of these
99. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used ___________.
a) to break the jet of water b) to bring the runner to rest in a short time
c) to change the direction of runner d) none of these
100. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine is mainly due to _______.
a) low velocity b) high velocity c) low pressure d) high pressure
VER-B : ME 9 of 9
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi
Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Mechanical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling
2. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as
a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random
3. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size
a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above
4. Population under research study is referred as
a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population
5. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
6. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
7. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation
8. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :
a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
9. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she
a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false
10. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
11. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears
VER-C : ME 1 of 9
12. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above
13. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4
14. What are Independent Events?
a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
15. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7
16. The normal distribution
a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation
17. The shape of normal distribution curve
a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled
18. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)
19. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is
a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2
20. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is
a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N
21. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these
22. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to
a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F
23. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to
a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound
24. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
VER-C : ME 2 of 9
25. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above
26. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is
a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r
27. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept
28. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
29. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors
30. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations
31. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census
32. Which one is called non – probability sampling?
a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
33. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
34. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
35. Which data is cheaper to collect?
a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data
36. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data
37. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation
VER-C : ME 3 of 9
38. The most repeated value in the series is called as
a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range
39. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above
40. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic
41. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
42. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of
a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research
43. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research
44. The first step of Research process is
a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem
45. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables
a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review
46. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book
47. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.
48. Narrative literature review method is also known as
a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.
49. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal
50. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False
VER-C : ME 4 of 9
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Mechanical Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer radii r1 and r0, respectively, length, L and
thermal conductivity, K. Its inner and outer surfaces are maintained at T i and To, respectively
(Ti > To). Assuming one dimensional steady state heat conduction in the radial direction, the
thermal resistance in the wall of the tube is
1 r L 1 r 1 r
a) ln i b) c) ln o d) ln o
2 KL ro 2 ri K 2 KL ri 4 KL ri
52. A Slendor rod of length ‘L’, diameter ‘d’ (L >> d) and thermal conductivity ‘K1’ is joined with
another rod of identical dimensions, but of thermal conductivity ‘K2’ to form a composite
cylindrical rod of length ‘2L’. The heat transfer in radial direction and contact resistance are
negligible. The effective thermal conductivity of the composite rod is
2K1K 2 K1K 2
a) b) K1K 2 c) d) K1 K 2
K1 K 2 K1 K 2
53. Match Group A with Group B
Group A
P : Biot number
Q : Grashof number
R : Prandtl number
S : Reynolds number
Group B
1. Ratio of buoyancy to viscous force
2. Ratio of inertia force to viscous force
3. Ratio of momentum to thermal diffusivities
4. Ratio of internal thermal resistance to boundary layer thermal resistance
a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
54. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature of 60C. The cooling
water enter at 30C and leaves at 45C. The Logarithmic Mean Temperature Difference
(LMTD) of the condenser is
a) 37.5C b) 16.2C c) 21.6C d) 30C
55. Consider the radiation heat exchanger inside an annulus between two very long concentric
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri. The
radiation view factor of the outer cylinder onto itself is
1
R 3 Ri Ri Ri
a) 1 i b) 1 c) 1 d) 1
Ro Ro Ro Ro
56. The compression ratio in an air standard Otto cycle is 8 and = 1.4. The thermal efficiency of
the Otto cycle is _________.
a) 46.5% b) 56.47% c) 50% d) 63.42%
VER-C : ME 5 of 9
57. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as _______.
a) compressor capacity b) compression ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) mean effective pressure
58. The runner passages of a reaction turbine are __________.
a) Partially filled with water b) Always completely filled with water
c) Never filled with water d) None of these
59. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used ___________.
a) to break the jet of water b) to bring the runner to rest in a short time
c) to change the direction of runner d) none of these
60. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine is mainly due to _______.
a) low velocity b) high velocity c) low pressure d) high pressure
61. Draft on pattern for casting is provided for _______.
a) Shrinkage allowance b) Identification
c) Taper to facilitate removal from mould d) Machining allowance
62. Which of the following characteristics is mainly considered for the solidification of castings?
a) Appearance b) Crystal structure
c) Moulding capacity d) Surface finish
63. In which operation, motion of job is rotary and motion of cutting tool is forward translating?
a) Turning b) Planning c) Milling d) All of these
64. In tool signature, nose radius is indicated.
a) In the middle b) In the beginning c) Not indicated d) At the end
65. What is the percentage of the abrasives and water in the mixture used for Abrasive Water Jet
Machining?
a) 20% water and 80% abrasives b) 80% water and 20% abrasives
c) 30% water and 70% abrasives d) 70% water and 30% abrasives
66. Who is popularly known as the father of Modern Management Theory?
a) F.W. Taylor b) Henry Fayol c) Elton Mayo d) Max Weber
67. “No one on the organization should have more than one boss” is a statement of
a) Principle of unity of command b) Principle of specialization
c) Principle of span of control d) Principle of authority
68. Which type of entrepreneurs utilizes a chance to introduce a new technique or new product?
a) Instigated entrepreneur b) Initiative entrepreneur
c) Fabian entrepreneur d) Innovative entrepreneur
69. Espirit de corps mean___________.
a) Product is over strength b) Union is strength
c) Service is our motto d) Buyer beware
70. Military organization is known as
a) Line and staff organization b) Functional organization
c) Line organization d) None of these
VER-C : ME 6 of 9
71. Change in output of a sensor with change in input is
a) Threshold b) Slew rate c) Sensitivity d) None of these
72. Pyrometer is used to measure
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Strain d) Displacement
73. Electronic counters are used for measuring
a) linear velocity b) pressure c) acceleration d) angular velocity
74. A load cell is a
a) Strain gauge b) Thermistor
c) Resistive potentiometer d) Inductive transducer
75. Which of the following device is not used for measuring the pressure?
a) Piezo-electric transducers b) RTD
c) Piezo-resistive transducers d) LVDT
76. Cyaniding is the process of ________.
a) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
b) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
c) Adding Carbon and Nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
d) Making corrosion resistant steel
77. Inconel is an alloy of __________
a) Nickel, Iron b) Nickel, Copper
c) Nickel, Chromium d) Nickel, Zinc
78. Which of the following pipes is least corrosive resistant __________?
a) Mid Steel b) Cast Iron c) Brass d) Wrought Iron
79. A typical stress-strain curve helps us to understand, how a given material __________
a) Deforms when we increase the strain b) Produces strain with increase in pressure
c) Produces strain with increasing temperature d) Deforms with increasing loads
80. Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a) Atomization b) Compaction
c) Machining and Grinding d) Electrolysis
81. A loaded semi-infinite flat plate is having an elliptical hole (A/B = 2) in the middle as shown in
figure. The stress concentration factor at points either X or Y is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
82. Which of the following process increases the fatigue strength?
a) Surface decorburisation b) Under stressing
c) Shot peering d) Polishing
VER-C : ME 7 of 9
83. The tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is given by
P d0 P 2d 0 P d0
a) b) c) d)
P P d0 P
84. A muff coupling used to transmit 40 kW at 150 rev/min. The allowable shear and crushing
stresses for the shaft and key, which are made of 50 C 8 steel; are 37 N/mm2 and 96.25 N/mm2
respectively. The material of the muff is FG 150 cast iron with a permissible shear strength of
17.3 N/mm2. Assume that the maximum torque transmitted is 20% greater than the mean torque.
The diameter of the shaft is
a) 65 mm b) 75 mm c) 81 mm d) 98 mm
85. Which of the following is a perfect application of roller bearings?
a) For low and medium radial load condition
b) For combined radial and thrust loads
c) For heavy loads and large shaft diameters
d) For household applications and less noise
86. Water at 20C flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe. Take kinematic viscosity of water at
20C = 0.0101 stoke. Assume that the changes from laminar to turbulent at R e = 2320. The
critical velocity will be
a) 2.22 cm/s b) 3.11 cm/sec c) 1.11 cm/s d) 4.11 cm/sec
87. The maximum velocity of a one dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow,
between two fixed parallel plates, is 6 m/s. The mean velocity in m/s of the flow is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
88. A system undergoes a change of state during which 100 kJ of heat is transferred to it and it does
50 kJ of work. The system is brought back to its original state through a process during which
120 kJ of heat is transferred to it. The work done by the system is
a) 270 kJ b) 170 kJ c) 370 kJ d) 470 kJ
89. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are 700C and 50C respectively. What
is the efficiency of the heat engine?
a) 66.8% b) 76.8% c) 86.8% d) 56.8%
90. Water flows through a turbine in which friction causes the water temperature to rise from 35C
to 37C. If there is no heat transfer, how much does entropy of the water change in passing
through the turbine?
a) 0.0143 kJ/K b) 0.0243 kJ/K c) 0.0343 kJ/K d) 0.0443 kJ/K
91. An experiment was conducted and it was found that shear modulus of the material is equal to
the bulk modulus then what will be the value of Poisson’s ratio?
a) 0.150 b) 0.125 c) 0.215 d) 1.125
92. A thin walled cylindrical vessel of well thickness ‘t’ and diameter ‘d’ is fitted with gas to a
gauge pressure of ‘P’. The maximum shear stress on vessel wall will be
Pd Pd Pd Pd
a) b) c) d)
t 2t 4t 8t
VER-C : ME 8 of 9
93. A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge located at a distance of L/4 from the roller support Q of
beam of length ‘L’.
Then vertical reaction at support Q is
a) 0.0 kN b) 2.5 kN c) 7.5 kN d) 10.0 kN
94. For a circular shaft of diameter ‘d’ subjected to torque ‘T’ the maximum value of shear stress is,
64T 32T 16T 8T
a) 3
b) 3
c) 3
d)
d d d d 3
95. A free bar of length 1 m is uniformly heated from 0C to a temperature tC. If ‘’ is the
coefficient of linear expansion and ‘E’ is the modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar is
E
a) TE b) c) Zero d) None of these
T
96. Automobile steering gear is an example of
a) Higher pair b) Lower pair c) Turning pair d) Rotary pair
97. A chain comprises of five links having five joints, is the chain in constrained kinematic chain?
a) Yes b) No c) It is marginal case d) Unpredictable
98. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
a) 1 b) 1/ c) d) 2
99. The natural frequency of free vibration (Transverse vibration) due to uniformly distributed load
acting over simple supported beam is
0.4985 0.571 0.6253 0.5615
a) b) c) d)
100. If is very high for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations. The phase angle for all
n
values of damping factors will tend to approach
a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360
VER-C : ME 9 of 9
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi
Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Mechanical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these
2. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to
a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F
3. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to
a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound
4. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
5. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above
6. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is
a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r
7. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept
8. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
9. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors
10. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations
11. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
VER-D : ME 1 of 9
12. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of
a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research
13. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research
14. The first step of Research process is
a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem
15. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables
a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review
16. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book
17. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.
18. Narrative literature review method is also known as
a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.
19. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal
20. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False
21. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears
22. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above
23. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4
24. What are Independent Events?
a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
VER-D : ME 2 of 9
25. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7
26. The normal distribution
a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation
27. The shape of normal distribution curve
a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled
28. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)
29. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is
a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2
30. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is
a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N
31. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling
32. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as
a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random
33. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size
a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above
34. Population under research study is referred as
a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population
35. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
36. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
37. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation
38. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :
a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
VER-D : ME 3 of 9
39. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she
a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false
40. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
41. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census
42. Which one is called non – probability sampling?
a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
43. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
44. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
45. Which data is cheaper to collect?
a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data
46. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data
47. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation
48. The most repeated value in the series is called as
a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range
49. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above
50. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic
VER-D : ME 4 of 9
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Mechanical Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Change in output of a sensor with change in input is
a) Threshold b) Slew rate c) Sensitivity d) None of these
52. Pyrometer is used to measure
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Strain d) Displacement
53. Electronic counters are used for measuring
a) linear velocity b) pressure c) acceleration d) angular velocity
54. A load cell is a
a) Strain gauge b) Thermistor
c) Resistive potentiometer d) Inductive transducer
55. Which of the following device is not used for measuring the pressure?
a) Piezo-electric transducers b) RTD
c) Piezo-resistive transducers d) LVDT
56. Cyaniding is the process of ________.
a) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
b) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
c) Adding Carbon and Nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
d) Making corrosion resistant steel
57. Inconel is an alloy of __________
a) Nickel, Iron b) Nickel, Copper
c) Nickel, Chromium d) Nickel, Zinc
58. Which of the following pipes is least corrosive resistant __________?
a) Mid Steel b) Cast Iron c) Brass d) Wrought Iron
59. A typical stress-strain curve helps us to understand, how a given material __________
a) Deforms when we increase the strain b) Produces strain with increase in pressure
c) Produces strain with increasing temperature d) Deforms with increasing loads
60. Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a) Atomization b) Compaction
c) Machining and Grinding d) Electrolysis
61. An experiment was conducted and it was found that shear modulus of the material is equal to
the bulk modulus then what will be the value of Poisson’s ratio?
a) 0.150 b) 0.125 c) 0.215 d) 1.125
62. A thin walled cylindrical vessel of well thickness ‘t’ and diameter ‘d’ is fitted with gas to a
gauge pressure of ‘P’. The maximum shear stress on vessel wall will be
Pd Pd Pd Pd
a) b) c) d)
t 2t 4t 8t
VER-D : ME 5 of 9
63. A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge located at a distance of L/4 from the roller support Q of
beam of length ‘L’.
Then vertical reaction at support Q is
a) 0.0 kN b) 2.5 kN c) 7.5 kN d) 10.0 kN
64. For a circular shaft of diameter ‘d’ subjected to torque ‘T’ the maximum value of shear stress is,
64T 32T 16T 8T
a) 3
b) 3
c) 3
d)
d d d d 3
65. A free bar of length 1 m is uniformly heated from 0C to a temperature tC. If ‘’ is the
coefficient of linear expansion and ‘E’ is the modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar is
E
a) TE b) c) Zero d) None of these
T
66. Automobile steering gear is an example of
a) Higher pair b) Lower pair c) Turning pair d) Rotary pair
67. A chain comprises of five links having five joints, is the chain in constrained kinematic chain?
a) Yes b) No c) It is marginal case d) Unpredictable
68. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
a) 1 b) 1/ c) d) 2
69. The natural frequency of free vibration (Transverse vibration) due to uniformly distributed load
acting over simple supported beam is
0.4985 0.571 0.6253 0.5615
a) b) c) d)
70. If is very high for a body vibrating under steady state vibrations. The phase angle for all
n
values of damping factors will tend to approach
a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360
71. Draft on pattern for casting is provided for _______.
a) Shrinkage allowance b) Identification
c) Taper to facilitate removal from mould d) Machining allowance
72. Which of the following characteristics is mainly considered for the solidification of castings?
a) Appearance b) Crystal structure
c) Moulding capacity d) Surface finish
73. In which operation, motion of job is rotary and motion of cutting tool is forward translating?
a) Turning b) Planning c) Milling d) All of these
74. In tool signature, nose radius is indicated.
a) In the middle b) In the beginning c) Not indicated d) At the end
VER-D : ME 6 of 9
75. What is the percentage of the abrasives and water in the mixture used for Abrasive Water Jet
Machining?
a) 20% water and 80% abrasives b) 80% water and 20% abrasives
c) 30% water and 70% abrasives d) 70% water and 30% abrasives
76. Who is popularly known as the father of Modern Management Theory?
a) F.W. Taylor b) Henry Fayol c) Elton Mayo d) Max Weber
77. “No one on the organization should have more than one boss” is a statement of
a) Principle of unity of command b) Principle of specialization
c) Principle of span of control d) Principle of authority
78. Which type of entrepreneurs utilizes a chance to introduce a new technique or new product?
a) Instigated entrepreneur b) Initiative entrepreneur
c) Fabian entrepreneur d) Innovative entrepreneur
79. Espirit de corps mean___________.
a) Product is over strength b) Union is strength
c) Service is our motto d) Buyer beware
80. Military organization is known as
a) Line and staff organization b) Functional organization
c) Line organization d) None of these
81. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer radii r1 and r0, respectively, length, L and
thermal conductivity, K. Its inner and outer surfaces are maintained at T i and To, respectively
(Ti > To). Assuming one dimensional steady state heat conduction in the radial direction, the
thermal resistance in the wall of the tube is
1 r L 1 r 1 r
a) ln i b) c) ln o d) ln o
2 KL ro 2 ri K 2 KL ri 4 KL ri
82. A Slendor rod of length ‘L’, diameter ‘d’ (L >> d) and thermal conductivity ‘K1’ is joined with
another rod of identical dimensions, but of thermal conductivity ‘K2’ to form a composite
cylindrical rod of length ‘2L’. The heat transfer in radial direction and contact resistance are
negligible. The effective thermal conductivity of the composite rod is
2K1K 2 K1K 2
a) b) K1K 2 c) d) K1 K 2
K1 K 2 K1 K 2
83. Match Group A with Group B
Group A
P : Biot number
Q : Grashof number
R : Prandtl number
S : Reynolds number
Group B
1. Ratio of buoyancy to viscous force
2. Ratio of inertia force to viscous force
3. Ratio of momentum to thermal diffusivities
4. Ratio of internal thermal resistance to boundary layer thermal resistance
a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
VER-D : ME 7 of 9
84. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature of 60C. The cooling
water enter at 30C and leaves at 45C. The Logarithmic Mean Temperature Difference
(LMTD) of the condenser is
a) 37.5C b) 16.2C c) 21.6C d) 30C
85. Consider the radiation heat exchanger inside an annulus between two very long concentric
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri. The
radiation view factor of the outer cylinder onto itself is
1
R 3 Ri Ri Ri
a) 1 i b) 1 c) 1 d) 1
Ro Ro Ro Ro
86. The compression ratio in an air standard Otto cycle is 8 and = 1.4. The thermal efficiency of
the Otto cycle is _________.
a) 46.5% b) 56.47% c) 50% d) 63.42%
87. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as _______.
a) compressor capacity b) compression ratio
c) compressor efficiency d) mean effective pressure
88. The runner passages of a reaction turbine are __________.
a) Partially filled with water b) Always completely filled with water
c) Never filled with water d) None of these
89. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used ___________.
a) to break the jet of water b) to bring the runner to rest in a short time
c) to change the direction of runner d) none of these
90. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine is mainly due to _______.
a) low velocity b) high velocity c) low pressure d) high pressure
91. A loaded semi-infinite flat plate is having an elliptical hole (A/B = 2) in the middle as shown in
figure. The stress concentration factor at points either X or Y is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
92. Which of the following process increases the fatigue strength?
a) Surface decorburisation b) Under stressing
c) Shot peering d) Polishing
93. The tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is given by
P d0 P 2d 0 P d0
a) b) c) d)
P P d0 P
VER-D : ME 8 of 9
94. A muff coupling used to transmit 40 kW at 150 rev/min. The allowable shear and crushing
stresses for the shaft and key, which are made of 50 C 8 steel; are 37 N/mm2 and 96.25 N/mm2
respectively. The material of the muff is FG 150 cast iron with a permissible shear strength of
17.3 N/mm2. Assume that the maximum torque transmitted is 20% greater than the mean torque.
The diameter of the shaft is
a) 65 mm b) 75 mm c) 81 mm d) 98 mm
95. Which of the following is a perfect application of roller bearings?
a) For low and medium radial load condition
b) For combined radial and thrust loads
c) For heavy loads and large shaft diameters
d) For household applications and less noise
96. Water at 20C flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe. Take kinematic viscosity of water at
20C = 0.0101 stoke. Assume that the changes from laminar to turbulent at R e = 2320. The
critical velocity will be
a) 2.22 cm/s b) 3.11 cm/sec c) 1.11 cm/s d) 4.11 cm/sec
97. The maximum velocity of a one dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow,
between two fixed parallel plates, is 6 m/s. The mean velocity in m/s of the flow is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
98. A system undergoes a change of state during which 100 kJ of heat is transferred to it and it does
50 kJ of work. The system is brought back to its original state through a process during which
120 kJ of heat is transferred to it. The work done by the system is
a) 270 kJ b) 170 kJ c) 370 kJ d) 470 kJ
99. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are 700C and 50C respectively. What
is the efficiency of the heat engine?
a) 66.8% b) 76.8% c) 86.8% d) 56.8%
100. Water flows through a turbine in which friction causes the water temperature to rise from 35C
to 37C. If there is no heat transfer, how much does entropy of the water change in passing
through the turbine?
a) 0.0143 kJ/K b) 0.0243 kJ/K c) 0.0343 kJ/K d) 0.0443 kJ/K
VER-D : ME 9 of 9
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