VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Chemistry
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

4. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

6. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

7. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

9. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

10. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

11. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
VER A : CY – 1 of 10
13. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
14. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

16. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

17. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

19. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

20. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

24. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

25. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

26. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

VER A : CY – 2 of 10
27. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

30. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

34. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

35. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

37. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

38. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

VER A : CY – 3 of 10
39. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

40. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

41. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

42. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

43. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

44. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

45. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

46. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

47. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

48. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

VER A : CY – 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Chemistry)
[50 MARKS]

51. How many possible combination of quantum numbers are for N shell
a) 8 b) 18 c) 32 d) 10

52. Among transition metals in a period the ionization potential

a) Increases gradually with increase in atomic number
b) Decreases with increase in atomic number
c) Increases abruptly with increase in atomic number
d) Remains reasonably constant with increase in atomic number

53. Alkali metals resembles IB (Copper family) in following respects

a) + 1 valancy
b) sulphates are soluble
c) Oxides are strong bases
d) Oxides are strong acids

54. Which one of the following has largest atomic radius

a) Ba b) Mg c) Cr d) Cs

55. Select correct statement (S)

a) Across a transition series, there is only a small decrease in atomic radium from one element
to another due to a very small increase in effective nucleus charge
st
b) The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than the across 1
transition series
c) Both ⓐ and ⓑ
d) None of the above

56. The reproducibility of the results are _____ of the instrument

a) Precision b) Accuracy
c) Both precision and accuracy d) Error

57. The sources of systematic error are :

a) Incorrect procedure in measuring technique
b) Calibration of the instrument
c) Bias of the experiment
d) All the above

58. The number 56.6884 can be rounded off to 4 significant digits

a) 56.68 b) 56.69 c) 56.70 d) 56.67

59. If air instrument is operated in a wrong protocol, the error arises is called as :
a) Random error b) Instrument error c) Systemic error d) None

60. Which of the following is the most accurate representation of an experimental results :
a) 300.0m b) 30  10 1m c) 3  10 2m d) 0.3  103m
VER A : CY – 5 of 10
61. Homolytic cleavage of covalent bonds generally takes place in gaseous reactions
a) at low temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light
b) at low temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
c) at high temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
d) at high temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light

62. Hydronium ion is an electrophile carries a positive charge due to the deficient in
a) one electron b) two electrons c) three electrons d) four electrons

63. Carbonium ions contain a carbon atom having only

a) three electrons b) four electrons c) five electrons d) six electrons

64. The order of stability and also the order of case of formation of free radicals is
a) 3 > 2 > 1 > CH3
b) CH3 > 1 > 2 > 3
c) 1 > CH3 > 2 > 3
d) 1 < CH3 < 2 < 3

65. Which of the following types of electronic effects are generally observed in organic molecules
as a permanent effect
a) Inductive effect and electrometric effect
b) Resonance effect and Electrometric effect
c) Hyper conjugative effect and Electrometric effect
d) Inductive, Resonance and hyper conjugative effect

66. Which of the following is not aromatic?

a) b)

c) d)

67. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
a) Ag.NaOH b) Tolleris reagent c) Molisch reagent d) Neutral Fecl3

68. Which of the following acts as electrophile in halogenations?

a) Nitronium ion
b) Sulphonium ion
c) Halonium ion
d) Acylium ion
VER A : CY – 6 of 10
69. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in the presence of a Lewis acid as a
catalyst to produce alkyl benzene is known as
a) Nitration
b) Halogenation
c) Friedel – Crafts Acylation
d) Friedel – Crafts Alkylation

70. Which of the following acts as catalysis in the nitration of benzene?

a) Conc.HCl
b) Dil.HCl
c) Conc.H2SO4
d) Dil.H2SO4

71. For the Van Der Waals real gas equation :

Statement 1 : The unit of constant ‘a’ is atm.L2/mole2
Statement 2 : The unit of constant ‘b’ is L1, then
a) Both the statements are false
b) Only one can be true at a time
c) Both the statements are true
d) None of the mentioned

72. Find the rms speed of Nitrogen molecule in a gas at 300K

a) 516m/s b) 498m/s
c) 312m/s d) 626m/s

73. The value of a gas constant is 0.1kJ/kg.k and specific heat at constant volume is 0.2kN/kg.K,
the specific ratio will be
a) 1.5 b) 1.1
c) 3.3 d) 2.5

74. In a reaction at 300K, KC is given as 2  1013, then what is the value of ∆G?
a) –7.64  104J
b) –7.64  104J/mol
c) –7.64  105J/mol
d) –7.64  104/mol

75. When two equilibrium states are infinitesimally near,

a) dQ/T = ds b) dQ/T > ds
c) dQ/T < ds d) none of the above

76. _____ any homogenous and physically distinct part of a system which is bounded by a surface
and is mechanically separable from other part of the system
a) components b) Freedom
c) phase d) chemical reaction

77. In general if there are ‘P’ phases present, the degree of freedom is given
a) F = C + 2 – P b) F = (3 – P)
c) P + F = C + 2 d) F = C – 2 + P

VER A : CY – 7 of 10
78. The Clausius – Clapeyron equation _____
dP q
a) 
dT T( VB  VA )
dP q
b) 
dT T( VA  VB )

dT T(VB  VA )
c) 
dV q
dT q
d) 
dP T( VA  VB )

79. Vapour phase of water at 95C and 100C are 634 and 760mm, respectively, calculate the
molar heat of vapourisation, ∆HVap of water between at 95C and 100C.
a) 41.363 kJ mol–1
b) 44.363 J mol–1
c) 39.478kJ/mol–1
d) 39.478 J/mol–1

80. The process of raising the relative proportion of silver in alloy is known as _____
a) Eutectic point
b) Cooling curve
c) Lambda point
d) Pattinsor’s process

81. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and Ethanol is less than that of water and
Ethanol. The mixture shows
a) No deviation from Raoult’s law
b) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
d) That the solution is unsaturated

82. Relation between partial pressure and mole fraction is stated by

a) Grahm’s law
b) Henry’s law
c) Avogadro law
d) Raoult’s law

83. Which of the following separation methods relies on differences in boiling point?
a) Fractional distillation and simple distillation
b) Fractional distillation and filtration
c) Simple distillation and paper chromatography
d) Filtration and paper chromatography

84. Which of the non polar solvent is completely miscible?

a) Benzene and carbon tetra chloride
b) Water and alcohol
c) Alcohol and acetone
d) Polar and semipolar solvents
VER A : CY – 8 of 10
85. According to Henry’s law at a constant temperature the solubility of gas in a liquid is directly
proportional to the
a) Volume of gas b) Pressure of gas c) Mass of gas d) Density of gas

86. Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify and quantify the presence
of a known impurity in a drug substance?
a) NMR b) MS c) IR d) HPLC

87. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer?

a) Silicon rectifier
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
c) Silicon boron rectifier
d) silicon quartz rectifier

88. Signal splitting in NMR arises from

a) Shielding effect
b) Spin-Spin decoupling
c) Spin-Spin coupling
d) Deshielding effect

89. What are the two main techniques for thermal analysis?
a) FTG and DGG
b) MSP and FCT
c) TGA and DTA
d) TSA and DGF

90. Which of the following solvent is not used in NMR?

a) D2O b) CHCl3 c) CCl4 d) CDCl3

91. An example of condensation polymer is :

a) Epoxy resin b) PAN c) PVC d) Neoprene

92. Chloroprene is :
a) 2 – methyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
b) 2 – chloro – 1, 3 – butadiene
c) 2 – ethyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
d) 2 – A – dichloro – 1, 3 – butadiene

93. An example of synthetic rubber is :

a) Polyisoprene
b) Poly chloroprene
c) Poly carbonate
d) All the above

94. Teflon is used for bearings because of

a) low coefficient of friction
b) better heat dissipation
c) smaller space consideration
d) flight density

VER A : CY – 9 of 10
95. Weight average molecular mass of a polymer is calculated using the following formula
W11  W22             Wii
a)
W1  W2             Wi

W11  W22             Wii

b)
1  2             i

W1M1  W2 M 2             Wi M i
c)
W1 W2             Wi

1M1  2 M 2            i M i
d)
1  2            i

96. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of _____

a) Phosphorous and carbon b) Sulphur and Nitrogen
c) Sulphur and Phosphorous d) Nitrogen and Carbon

97. The build – up of _____ which is known as Green house effect in the atmosphere is leading to
the current global warming.
a) Chlorine b) Sulphur dioxide c) Fluorine d) Carbon dioxide

98. The phenomenon of ozone depletion is caused by the

i) Volatile Chlorinated hydrocarbons
ii) Emission from thermal power plant
iii) Combustion of urban waste
iv) Excessive use of nitrogen containing fertilizers
a) i, ii and iv only
b) i and iv only
c) i, ii and iii only
d) i, iii and iv only

99. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is Emission from vehicles like car and trucks.
Car Emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled like
i) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
ii) Carbon monoxides (CO)
iii) Carbon oxides (CO2)
iv) Benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at low level?
a) i and iv only
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii, iii only
d) i, ii, iv only

100. Burning of Fossil fuel causes

a) Depletion in ozone layer
b) Global warming
c) Melting of polar ice caps
d) Both b and c

VER A : CY – 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Chemistry
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

2. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

3. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

4. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

5. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

6. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

7. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

8. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

9. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

10. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

11. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

VER B : CY – 1 of 11
12. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to
a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

13. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

14. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

15. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

16. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

17. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

18. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

19. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

20. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

21. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

22. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

23. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

24. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
VER B : CY – 2 of 11
25. Which data is cheaper to collect?
a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

26. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

27. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

28. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

29. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

30. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

31. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

32. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

33. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

34. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

35. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

36. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

37. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

VER B : CY – 3 of 11
38. Narrative literature review method is also known as
a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

39. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

40. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

41. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

42. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

43. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

44. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

45. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

46. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

47. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

48. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

49. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

50. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

VER B : CY – 4 of 11
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Chemistry)
[50 MARKS]

51. An example of condensation polymer is :

a) Epoxy resin b) PAN c) PVC d) Neoprene

52. Chloroprene is :
a) 2 – methyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
b) 2 – chloro – 1, 3 – butadiene
c) 2 – ethyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
d) 2 – A – dichloro – 1, 3 – butadiene

53. An example of synthetic rubber is :

a) Polyisoprene
b) Poly chloroprene
c) Poly carbonate
d) All the above

54. Teflon is used for bearings because of

a) low coefficient of friction
b) better heat dissipation
c) smaller space consideration
d) flight density

55. Weight average molecular mass of a polymer is calculated using the following formula
W11  W22             Wii
a)
W1  W2             Wi

W11  W22             Wii

b)
1  2             i

W1M1  W2 M 2             Wi M i
c)
W1 W2             Wi

1M1  2 M 2             i M i
d)
1  2             i

56. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of _____

a) Phosphorous and carbon b) Sulphur and Nitrogen
c) Sulphur and Phosphorous d) Nitrogen and Carbon

57. The build – up of _____ which is known as Green house effect in the atmosphere is leading to
the current global warming.
a) Chlorine b) Sulphur dioxide c) Fluorine d) Carbon dioxide
VER B : CY – 5 of 11
58. The phenomenon of ozone depletion is caused by the
i) Volatile Chlorinated hydrocarbons
ii) Emission from thermal power plant
iii) Combustion of urban waste
iv) Excessive use of nitrogen containing fertilizers
a) i, ii and iv only
b) i and iv only
c) i, ii and iii only
d) i, iii and iv only

59. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is Emission from vehicles like car and trucks.
Car Emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled like
i) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
ii) Carbon monoxides (CO)
iii) Carbon oxides (CO2)
iv) Benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at low level?
a) i and iv only
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii, iii only
d) i, ii, iv only

60. Burning of Fossil fuel causes

a) Depletion in ozone layer
b) Global warming
c) Melting of polar ice caps
d) Both b and c

61. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and Ethanol is less than that of water and
Ethanol. The mixture shows
a) No deviation from Raoult’s law
b) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
d) That the solution is unsaturated

62. Relation between partial pressure and mole fraction is stated by

a) Grahm’s law
b) Henry’s law
c) Avogadro law
d) Raoult’s law

63. Which of the following separation methods relies on differences in boiling point?
a) Fractional distillation and simple distillation
b) Fractional distillation and filtration
c) Simple distillation and paper chromatography
d) Filtration and paper chromatography

64. Which of the non polar solvent is completely miscible?

a) Benzene and carbon tetra chloride
b) Water and alcohol
c) Alcohol and acetone
d) Polar and semipolar solvents
VER B : CY – 6 of 11
65. According to Henry’s law at a constant temperature the solubility of gas in a liquid is directly
proportional to the
a) Volume of gas
b) Pressure of gas
c) Mass of gas
d) Density of gas

66. Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify and quantify the presence
of a known impurity in a drug substance?
a) NMR b) MS c) IR d) HPLC

67. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer?

a) Silicon rectifier
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
c) Silicon boron rectifier
d) silicon quartz rectifier

68. Signal splitting in NMR arises from

a) Shielding effect
b) Spin-Spin decoupling
c) Spin-Spin coupling
d) Deshielding effect

69. What are the two main techniques for thermal analysis?
a) FTG and DGG
b) MSP and FCT
c) TGA and DTA
d) TSA and DGF

70. Which of the following solvent is not used in NMR?

a) D2O b) CHCl3 c) CCl4 d) CDCl3

71. Homolytic cleavage of covalent bonds generally takes place in gaseous reactions
a) at low temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light
b) at low temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
c) at high temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
d) at high temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light

72. Hydronium ion is an electrophile carries a positive charge due to the deficient in
a) one electron b) two electrons c) three electrons d) four electrons

73. Carbonium ions contain a carbon atom having only

a) three electrons b) four electrons c) five electrons d) six electrons

74. The order of stability and also the order of case of formation of free radicals is
a) 3 > 2 > 1 > CH3
b) CH3 > 1 > 2 > 3
c) 1 > CH3 > 2 > 3
d) 1 < CH3 < 2 < 3
VER B : CY – 7 of 11
75. Which of the following types of electronic effects are generally observed in organic molecules
as a permanent effect
a) Inductive effect and electrometric effect
b) Resonance effect and Electrometric effect
c) Hyper conjugative effect and Electrometric effect
d) Inductive, Resonance and hyper conjugative effect

76. Which of the following is not aromatic?

a) b)

c) d)

77. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
a) Ag.NaOH
b) Tolleris reagent
c) Molisch reagent
d) Neutral Fecl3

78. Which of the following acts as electrophile in halogenations?

a) Nitronium ion
b) Sulphonium ion
c) Halonium ion
d) Acylium ion

79. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in the presence of a Lewis acid as a
catalyst to produce alkyl benzene is known as
a) Nitration
b) Halogenation
c) Friedel – Crafts Acylation
d) Friedel – Crafts Alkylation

80. Which of the following acts as catalysis in the nitration of benzene?

a) Conc.HCl
b) Dil.HCl
c) Conc.H2SO4
d) Dil.H2SO4
VER B : CY – 8 of 11
81. How many possible combination of quantum numbers are for N shell
a) 8 b) 18 c) 32 d) 10

82. Among transition metals in a period the ionization potential

a) Increases gradually with increase in atomic number
b) Decreases with increase in atomic number
c) Increases abruptly with increase in atomic number
d) Remains reasonably constant with increase in atomic number

83. Alkali metals resembles IB (Copper family) in following respects

a) + 1 valancy
b) sulphates are soluble
c) Oxides are strong bases
d) Oxides are strong acids

84. Which one of the following has largest atomic radius

a) Ba b) Mg c) Cr d) Cs

85. Select correct statement (S)

a) Across a transition series, there is only a small decrease in atomic radium from one element
to another due to a very small increase in effective nucleus charge
st
b) The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than the across 1
transition series
c) Both ⓐ and ⓑ
d) None of the above

86. The reproducibility of the results are _____ of the instrument

a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Both precision and accuracy
d) Error

87. The sources of systematic error are :

a) Incorrect procedure in measuring technique
b) Calibration of the instrument
c) Bias of the experiment
d) All the above

88. The number 56.6884 can be rounded off to 4 significant digits

a) 56.68 b) 56.69 c) 56.70 d) 56.67

89. If air instrument is operated in a wrong protocol, the error arises is called as :
a) Random error
b) Instrument error
c) Systemic error
d) None

90. Which of the following is the most accurate representation of an experimental results :
a) 300.0m b) 30  10 1m c) 3  10 2m d) 0.3  103m
VER B : CY – 9 of 11
91. For the Van Der Waals real gas equation :
Statement 1 : The unit of constant ‘a’ is atm.L2/mole2
Statement 2 : The unit of constant ‘b’ is L1, then
a) Both the statements are false
b) Only one can be true at a time
c) Both the statements are true
d) None of the mentioned

92. Find the rms speed of Nitrogen molecule in a gas at 300K

a) 516m/s
b) 498m/s
c) 312m/s
d) 626m/s

93. The value of a gas constant is 0.1kJ/kg.k and specific heat at constant volume is 0.2kN/kg.K,
the specific ratio will be
a) 1.5
b) 1.1
c) 3.3
d) 2.5

94. In a reaction at 300K, KC is given as 2  1013, then what is the value of ∆G?
a) –7.64  104J
b) –7.64  104J/mol
c) –7.64  105J/mol
d) –7.64  104/mol

95. When two equilibrium states are infinitesimally near,

a) dQ/T = ds
b) dQ/T > ds
c) dQ/T < ds
d) none of the above

96. _____ any homogenous and physically distinct part of a system which is bounded by a surface
and is mechanically separable from other part of the system
a) components
b) Freedom
c) phase
d) chemical reaction

97. In general if there are ‘P’ phases present, the degree of freedom is given
a) F = C + 2 – P
b) F = (3 – P)
c) P + F = C + 2
d) F = C – 2 + P

VER B : CY – 10 of 11
98. The Clausius – Clapeyron equation _____
dP q
a) 
dT T( VB  VA )
dP q
b) 
dT T( VA  VB )

dT T(VB  VA )
c) 
dV q
dT q
d) 
dP T( VA  VB )

99. Vapour phase of water at 95C and 100C are 634 and 760mm, respectively, calculate the
molar heat of vapourisation, ∆HVap of water between at 95C and 100C.
a) 41.363 kJ mol–1
b) 44.363 J mol–1
c) 39.478kJ/mol–1
d) 39.478 J/mol–1

100. The process of raising the relative proportion of silver in alloy is known as _____
a) Eutectic point
b) Cooling curve
c) Lambda point
d) Pattinsor’s process

VER B : CY – 11 of 11
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Chemistry
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

2. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

3. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

4. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

5. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

6. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

7. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

8. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

9. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

10. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

11. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

VER C : CY – 1 of 11
12. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

13. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

14. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

15. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

16. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

17. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

18. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

19. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

20. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

21. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

22. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

23. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

24. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
VER C : CY – 2 of 11
25. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

26. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

27. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

28. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

29. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

30. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

31. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

32. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

33. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

34. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

35. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

36. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

37. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

VER C : CY – 3 of 11
38. The most repeated value in the series is called as
a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

39. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

40. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

41. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

42. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

43. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

44. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

45. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

46. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

47. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

48. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

49. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

50. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

VER C : CY – 4 of 11
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Chemistry)
[50 MARKS]

51. For the Van Der Waals real gas equation :

Statement 1 : The unit of constant ‘a’ is atm.L2/mole2
Statement 2 : The unit of constant ‘b’ is L1, then
a) Both the statements are false
b) Only one can be true at a time
c) Both the statements are true
d) None of the mentioned

52. Find the rms speed of Nitrogen molecule in a gas at 300K

a) 516m/s b) 498m/s
c) 312m/s d) 626m/s

53. The value of a gas constant is 0.1kJ/kg.k and specific heat at constant volume is 0.2kN/kg.K,
the specific ratio will be
a) 1.5 b) 1.1
c) 3.3 d) 2.5

54. In a reaction at 300K, KC is given as 2  1013, then what is the value of ∆G?
a) –7.64  104J
b) –7.64  104J/mol
c) –7.64  105J/mol
d) –7.64  104/mol

55. When two equilibrium states are infinitesimally near,

a) dQ/T = ds
b) dQ/T > ds
c) dQ/T < ds
d) none of the above

56. _____ any homogenous and physically distinct part of a system which is bounded by a surface
and is mechanically separable from other part of the system
a) components
b) Freedom
c) phase
d) chemical reaction

57. In general if there are ‘P’ phases present, the degree of freedom is given
a) F = C + 2 – P
b) F = (3 – P)
c) P + F = C + 2
d) F = C – 2 + P

VER C : CY – 5 of 11
58. The Clausius – Clapeyron equation _____
dP q
a) 
dT T( VB  VA )
dP q
b) 
dT T( VA  VB )

dT T(VB  VA )
c) 
dV q
dT q
d) 
dP T( VA  VB )

59. Vapour phase of water at 95C and 100C are 634 and 760mm, respectively, calculate the
molar heat of vapourisation, ∆HVap of water between at 95C and 100C.
a) 41.363 kJ mol–1
b) 44.363 J mol–1
c) 39.478kJ/mol–1
d) 39.478 J/mol–1

60. The process of raising the relative proportion of silver in alloy is known as _____
a) Eutectic point
b) Cooling curve
c) Lambda point
d) Pattinsor’s process

61. An example of condensation polymer is :

a) Epoxy resin b) PAN c) PVC d) Neoprene

62. Chloroprene is :
a) 2 – methyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
b) 2 – chloro – 1, 3 – butadiene
c) 2 – ethyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
d) 2 – A – dichloro – 1, 3 – butadiene

63. An example of synthetic rubber is :

a) Polyisoprene
b) Poly chloroprene
c) Poly carbonate
d) All the above

64. Teflon is used for bearings because of

a) low coefficient of friction
b) better heat dissipation
c) smaller space consideration
d) flight density

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65. Weight average molecular mass of a polymer is calculated using the following formula
W11  W22             Wii
a)
W1  W2             Wi

W11  W22             Wii

b)
1  2             i

W1M1  W2 M 2             Wi M i
c)
W1 W2             Wi

1M1  2 M 2            i M i
d)
1  2            i

66. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of _____

a) Phosphorous and carbon
b) Sulphur and Nitrogen
c) Sulphur and Phosphorous
d) Nitrogen and Carbon

67. The build – up of _____ which is known as Green house effect in the atmosphere is leading to
the current global warming.
a) Chlorine
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Fluorine
d) Carbon dioxide

68. The phenomenon of ozone depletion is caused by the

i) Volatile Chlorinated hydrocarbons
ii) Emission from thermal power plant
iii) Combustion of urban waste
iv) Excessive use of nitrogen containing fertilizers
a) i, ii and iv only
b) i and iv only
c) i, ii and iii only
d) i, iii and iv only

69. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is Emission from vehicles like car and trucks.
Car Emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled like
i) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
ii) Carbon monoxides (CO)
iii) Carbon oxides (CO2)
iv) Benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at low level?
a) i and iv only
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii, iii only
d) i, ii, iv only
VER C : CY – 7 of 11
70. Burning of Fossil fuel causes
a) Depletion in ozone layer
b) Global warming
c) Melting of polar ice caps
d) Both b and c

71. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and Ethanol is less than that of water and
Ethanol. The mixture shows
a) No deviation from Raoult’s law
b) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
d) That the solution is unsaturated

72. Relation between partial pressure and mole fraction is stated by

a) Grahm’s law
b) Henry’s law
c) Avogadro law
d) Raoult’s law

73. Which of the following separation methods relies on differences in boiling point?
a) Fractional distillation and simple distillation
b) Fractional distillation and filtration
c) Simple distillation and paper chromatography
d) Filtration and paper chromatography

74. Which of the non polar solvent is completely miscible?

a) Benzene and carbon tetra chloride
b) Water and alcohol
c) Alcohol and acetone
d) Polar and semipolar solvents

75. According to Henry’s law at a constant temperature the solubility of gas in a liquid is directly
proportional to the
a) Volume of gas
b) Pressure of gas
c) Mass of gas
d) Density of gas

76. Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify and quantify the presence
of a known impurity in a drug substance?
a) NMR
b) MS
c) IR
d) HPLC

77. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer?

a) Silicon rectifier
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
c) Silicon boron rectifier
d) silicon quartz rectifier
VER C : CY – 8 of 11
78. Signal splitting in NMR arises from
a) Shielding effect
b) Spin-Spin decoupling
c) Spin-Spin coupling
d) Deshielding effect

79. What are the two main techniques for thermal analysis?
a) FTG and DGG
b) MSP and FCT
c) TGA and DTA
d) TSA and DGF

80. Which of the following solvent is not used in NMR?

a) D2O b) CHCl3 c) CCl4 d) CDCl3

81. Homolytic cleavage of covalent bonds generally takes place in gaseous reactions
a) at low temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light
b) at low temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
c) at high temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
d) at high temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light

82. Hydronium ion is an electrophile carries a positive charge due to the deficient in
a) one electron
b) two electrons
c) three electrons
d) four electrons

83. Carbonium ions contain a carbon atom having only

a) three electrons
b) four electrons
c) five electrons
d) six electrons

84. The order of stability and also the order of case of formation of free radicals is
a) 3 > 2 > 1 > CH3
b) CH3 > 1 > 2 > 3
c) 1 > CH3 > 2 > 3
d) 1 < CH3 < 2 < 3

85. Which of the following types of electronic effects are generally observed in organic molecules
as a permanent effect
a) Inductive effect and electrometric effect
b) Resonance effect and Electrometric effect
c) Hyper conjugative effect and Electrometric effect
d) Inductive, Resonance and hyper conjugative effect

VER C : CY – 9 of 11
86. Which of the following is not aromatic?
a) b)

c) d)

87. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
a) Ag.NaOH
b) Tolleris reagent
c) Molisch reagent
d) Neutral Fecl3

88. Which of the following acts as electrophile in halogenations?

a) Nitronium ion
b) Sulphonium ion
c) Halonium ion
d) Acylium ion

89. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in the presence of a Lewis acid as a
catalyst to produce alkyl benzene is known as
a) Nitration
b) Halogenation
c) Friedel – Crafts Acylation
d) Friedel – Crafts Alkylation

90. Which of the following acts as catalysis in the nitration of benzene?

a) Conc.HCl
b) Dil.HCl
c) Conc.H2SO4
d) Dil.H2SO4

91. How many possible combination of quantum numbers are for N shell
a) 8 b) 18 c) 32 d) 10

92. Among transition metals in a period the ionization potential

a) Increases gradually with increase in atomic number
b) Decreases with increase in atomic number
c) Increases abruptly with increase in atomic number
d) Remains reasonably constant with increase in atomic number
VER C : CY – 10 of 11
93. Alkali metals resembles IB (Copper family) in following respects
a) + 1 valancy
b) sulphates are soluble
c) Oxides are strong bases
d) Oxides are strong acids

94. Which one of the following has largest atomic radius

a) Ba b) Mg c) Cr d) Cs

95. Select correct statement (S)

a) Across a transition series, there is only a small decrease in atomic radium from one element
to another due to a very small increase in effective nucleus charge
st
b) The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than the across 1
transition series
c) Both ⓐ and ⓑ
d) None of the above

96. The reproducibility of the results are _____ of the instrument

a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Both precision and accuracy
d) Error

97. The sources of systematic error are :

a) Incorrect procedure in measuring technique
b) Calibration of the instrument
c) Bias of the experiment
d) All the above

98. The number 56.6884 can be rounded off to 4 significant digits

a) 56.68 b) 56.69 c) 56.70 d) 56.67

99. If air instrument is operated in a wrong protocol, the error arises is called as :
a) Random error
b) Instrument error
c) Systemic error
d) None

100. Which of the following is the most accurate representation of an experimental results :
a) 300.0m b) 30  10 1m c) 3  10 2m d) 0.3  103m

VER C : CY – 11 of 11
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Chemistry
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

2. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

3. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

4. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

5. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

6. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

7. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

8. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

9. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

10. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

11. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

VER D : CY – 1 of 11
12. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of
a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

13. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

14. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

15. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

16. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

17. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

18. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

19. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

20. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

21. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

22. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

23. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

24. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
VER D : CY – 2 of 11
25. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

26. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

27. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

28. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

29. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

30. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

31. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

32. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

33. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

34. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

35. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

36. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

37. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

38. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

VER D : CY – 3 of 11
39. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she
a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

40. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

41. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

42. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

43. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

44. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

45. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

46. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

47. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

48. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

49. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

50. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

VER D : CY – 4 of 11
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Chemistry)
[50 MARKS]

51. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and Ethanol is less than that of water and
Ethanol. The mixture shows
a) No deviation from Raoult’s law
b) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
d) That the solution is unsaturated

52. Relation between partial pressure and mole fraction is stated by

a) Grahm’s law
b) Henry’s law
c) Avogadro law
d) Raoult’s law

53. Which of the following separation methods relies on differences in boiling point?
a) Fractional distillation and simple distillation
b) Fractional distillation and filtration
c) Simple distillation and paper chromatography
d) Filtration and paper chromatography

54. Which of the non polar solvent is completely miscible?

a) Benzene and carbon tetra chloride
b) Water and alcohol
c) Alcohol and acetone
d) Polar and semipolar solvents

55. According to Henry’s law at a constant temperature the solubility of gas in a liquid is directly
proportional to the
a) Volume of gas b) Pressure of gas c) Mass of gas d) Density of gas

56. Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify and quantify the presence
of a known impurity in a drug substance?
a) NMR b) MS c) IR d) HPLC

57. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer?

a) Silicon rectifier
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
c) Silicon boron rectifier
d) silicon quartz rectifier

58. Signal splitting in NMR arises from

a) Shielding effect
b) Spin-Spin decoupling
c) Spin-Spin coupling
d) Deshielding effect
VER D: CY – 5 of 11
59. What are the two main techniques for thermal analysis?
a) FTG and DGG
b) MSP and FCT
c) TGA and DTA
d) TSA and DGF

60. Which of the following solvent is not used in NMR?

a) D2O b) CHCl3 c) CCl4 d) CDCl3

61. How many possible combination of quantum numbers are for N shell
a) 8 b) 18 c) 32 d) 10

62. Among transition metals in a period the ionization potential

a) Increases gradually with increase in atomic number
b) Decreases with increase in atomic number
c) Increases abruptly with increase in atomic number
d) Remains reasonably constant with increase in atomic number

63. Alkali metals resembles IB (Copper family) in following respects

a) + 1 valancy
b) sulphates are soluble
c) Oxides are strong bases
d) Oxides are strong acids

64. Which one of the following has largest atomic radius

a) Ba b) Mg c) Cr d) Cs

65. Select correct statement (S)

a) Across a transition series, there is only a small decrease in atomic radium from one element
to another due to a very small increase in effective nucleus charge
st
b) The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than the across 1
transition series
c) Both ⓐ and ⓑ
d) None of the above

66. The reproducibility of the results are _____ of the instrument

a) Precision b) Accuracy
c) Both precision and accuracy d) Error

67. The sources of systematic error are :

a) Incorrect procedure in measuring technique
b) Calibration of the instrument
c) Bias of the experiment
d) All the above

68. The number 56.6884 can be rounded off to 4 significant digits

a) 56.68 b) 56.69 c) 56.70 d) 56.67

69. If air instrument is operated in a wrong protocol, the error arises is called as :
a) Random error b) Instrument error c) Systemic error d) None
VER D : CY – 6 of 11
70. Which of the following is the most accurate representation of an experimental results :
a) 300.0m b) 30  10 1m c) 3  10 2m d) 0.3  103m

71. An example of condensation polymer is :

a) Epoxy resin b) PAN c) PVC d) Neoprene

72. Chloroprene is :
a) 2 – methyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
b) 2 – chloro – 1, 3 – butadiene
c) 2 – ethyl – 1, 3 – butadiene
d) 2 – A – dichloro – 1, 3 – butadiene

73. An example of synthetic rubber is :

a) Polyisoprene
b) Poly chloroprene
c) Poly carbonate
d) All the above

74. Teflon is used for bearings because of

a) low coefficient of friction
b) better heat dissipation
c) smaller space consideration
d) flight density

75. Weight average molecular mass of a polymer is calculated using the following formula
W11  W22             Wii
a)
W1  W2             Wi

W11  W22             Wii

b)
1  2             i

W1M1  W2 M 2             Wi M i
c)
W1 W2             Wi

1M1  2 M 2            i M i
d)
1  2            i

76. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of _____

a) Phosphorous and carbon
b) Sulphur and Nitrogen
c) Sulphur and Phosphorous
d) Nitrogen and Carbon

77. The build – up of _____ which is known as Green house effect in the atmosphere is leading to
the current global warming.
a) Chlorine b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Fluorine d) Carbon dioxide
VER D : CY – 7 of 11
78. The phenomenon of ozone depletion is caused by the
i) Volatile Chlorinated hydrocarbons
ii) Emission from thermal power plant
iii) Combustion of urban waste
iv) Excessive use of nitrogen containing fertilizers
a) i, ii and iv only
b) i and iv only
c) i, ii and iii only
d) i, iii and iv only

79. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is Emission from vehicles like car and trucks.
Car Emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled like
i) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
ii) Carbon monoxides (CO)
iii) Carbon oxides (CO2)
iv) Benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at low level?
a) i and iv only
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii, iii only
d) i, ii, iv only

80. Burning of Fossil fuel causes

a) Depletion in ozone layer
b) Global warming
c) Melting of polar ice caps
d) Both b and c

81. For the Van Der Waals real gas equation :

Statement 1 : The unit of constant ‘a’ is atm.L2/mole2
Statement 2 : The unit of constant ‘b’ is L1, then
a) Both the statements are false
b) Only one can be true at a time
c) Both the statements are true
d) None of the mentioned

82. Find the rms speed of Nitrogen molecule in a gas at 300K

a) 516m/s b) 498m/s
c) 312m/s d) 626m/s

83. The value of a gas constant is 0.1kJ/kg.k and specific heat at constant volume is 0.2kN/kg.K,
the specific ratio will be
a) 1.5 b) 1.1
c) 3.3 d) 2.5

84. In a reaction at 300K, KC is given as 2  1013, then what is the value of ∆G?
a) –7.64  104J
b) –7.64  104J/mol
c) –7.64  105J/mol
d) –7.64  104/mol
VER D : CY – 8 of 11
85. When two equilibrium states are infinitesimally near,
a) dQ/T = ds
b) dQ/T > ds
c) dQ/T < ds
d) none of the above

86. _____ any homogenous and physically distinct part of a system which is bounded by a surface
and is mechanically separable from other part of the system
a) components
b) Freedom
c) phase
d) chemical reaction

87. In general if there are ‘P’ phases present, the degree of freedom is given
a) F = C + 2 – P
b) F = (3 – P)
c) P + F = C + 2
d) F = C – 2 + P

88. The Clausius – Clapeyron equation _____

dP q
a) 
dT T( VB  VA )

dP q
b) 
dT T( VA  VB )

dT T(VB  VA )
c) 
dV q
dT q
d) 
dP T( VA  VB )

89. Vapour phase of water at 95C and 100C are 634 and 760mm, respectively, calculate the
molar heat of vapourisation, ∆HVap of water between at 95C and 100C.
a) 41.363 kJ mol–1
b) 44.363 J mol–1
c) 39.478kJ/mol–1
d) 39.478 J/mol–1

90. The process of raising the relative proportion of silver in alloy is known as _____
a) Eutectic point
b) Cooling curve
c) Lambda point
d) Pattinsor’s process
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91. Homolytic cleavage of covalent bonds generally takes place in gaseous reactions
a) at low temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light
b) at low temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
c) at high temperatures or in the presence of ultraviolet light
d) at high temperatures or in the absence of ultraviolet light

92. Hydronium ion is an electrophile carries a positive charge due to the deficient in
a) one electron
b) two electrons
c) three electrons
d) four electrons

93. Carbonium ions contain a carbon atom having only

a) three electrons
b) four electrons
c) five electrons
d) six electrons

94. The order of stability and also the order of case of formation of free radicals is
a) 3 > 2 > 1 > CH3
b) CH3 > 1 > 2 > 3
c) 1 > CH3 > 2 > 3
d) 1 < CH3 < 2 < 3

95. Which of the following types of electronic effects are generally observed in organic molecules
as a permanent effect
a) Inductive effect and electrometric effect
b) Resonance effect and Electrometric effect
c) Hyper conjugative effect and Electrometric effect
d) Inductive, Resonance and hyper conjugative effect

96. Which of the following is not aromatic?

a) b)

c) d)

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97. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
a) Ag.NaOH
b) Tolleris reagent
c) Molisch reagent
d) Neutral Fecl3

98. Which of the following acts as electrophile in halogenations?

a) Nitronium ion
b) Sulphonium ion
c) Halonium ion
d) Acylium ion

99. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in the presence of a Lewis acid as a
catalyst to produce alkyl benzene is known as
a) Nitration
b) Halogenation
c) Friedel – Crafts Acylation
d) Friedel – Crafts Alkylation

100. Which of the following acts as catalysis in the nitration of benzene?

a) Conc.HCl
b) Dil.HCl
c) Conc.H2SO4
d) Dil.H2SO4

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