Lakshya JEE (2025)

MOCK TEST - 06

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 16/01/2025 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
Chemistry: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
Mathematics: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions
are Objective Type and last 5 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer
needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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[1]
 Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 5. Three particles A, B and C of equal mass move with
1. The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting equal speed v along the medians of an equilateral
surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle triangle. They collide at the centroid O of the triangle.
of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back After collision A comes to rest while B retraces its path
through the same path after suffering reflection at with speed v. The velocity of C is then:
the silvered surface. The refractive index µ, of the
prism is :
(1) 2 sin A
(2) 2 cos A
(3) 1/2 cos A
(4) tan A

(1) v, direction OA
2. A current of I ampere flows along an infinitely long
(2) 2v, direction OA
straight thin walled hollow metallic cylinder of radius
r. The magnetic field at any point inside the cylinder (3) 2v, direction OB
at a distance x from the axis of the cylinder is (4) v, direction BO
0 I
(1) infinite (2)
2 r 6. In a Young's double slit experiment, the intensity
 I 
(3) 0 (4) zero at a point where the path difference is ( being
x 6
the wavelength of light used) is I. If I0 denotes the
3. Select the correct statements about Lorentz Force. I
maximum intensity, is equal to
I. In presence of electric field E ( r ) and I0
magnetic field B ( r ) , the force on a moving 3
(1)
4
electric charge is F  q[ E (r )  v  B(r )]
1
II. The force due to magnetic field on a negative (2)
2
charge is opposite to that on a positive charge.
III. The force due to magnetic field will become 3
(3)
zero if velocity and magnetic field are parallel 2
or antiparallel. 1
(4)
IV. For a static charge, the magnetic force is 2
maximum.
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only 7. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as
(3) I, II and III (4) I, II, III and IV shown in figure is

4. The maximum kinetic energy (Emax) of

photoelectrons emitted in a photoelectric cell
varies with frequency () as shown in the graph.
The slope of the graph is equal to A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
(1) charge of the electron
A B Y A B Y
e
(2) of the electron 0 0 1 0 0 1
m
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0
(3) work function of the emitter
(4) Planck’s constant 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1

[2]
8. A graph of the square of the velocity against the what time will its kinetic energy be 75% of the
square of the acceleration of a given simple total energy?
harmonic motion is 1 1
(1) s (2) s
6 4
1 1
(1) (2) (3) s (4) s
3 12

14. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a

transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in
(3) (4) the figure.

9. The potential at a point x (measured in µm) due to

some charges situated on the x-axis is given by
V(x) = 20/(x2 – 4) volt
The change in internal energy of the gas during the
The electric field E at x = 4 µm is given by
transition is
(1) (10/9) volt/µm and in the +ve x direction
(1) –20 kJ (2) 20 J
(2) (5/3) volt/µm and in the –ve x direction
(3) (5/3) volt/µm and in the +ve x direction (3) –12 kJ (4) 20 kJ
(4) (10/9) volt/µm and in the –ve x direction
15. Imagine a new planet having the same density as
10. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth
R. The equivalent resistance between adjacent in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the
corners A and D is surface of earth is g and that on the surface of the
new planet is g, then
(1) g = g/9 (2) g = 27g
(3) g= 9g (4) g = 3g

16. Select the incorrect statements from the following.

I. The orbital velocity of a satellite increases
with the radius of the orbit
II. Escape velocity of a particle from the surface
of the earth depends on the speed with which
2
(1) R (2) R it is fired
3
III. The time period of a satellite does not depend
3 8
(3) R (4) R on the radius of the orbit
7 15
IV. The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to
the square root of the radius of the orbit.
11. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a
(1) I and II (2) I and IV
single U235 nucleus, the number of fissions required
per second to produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (3) I, II and IV (4) I, II and III
(Given 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)
(1) 3.125 × 1013 (2) 3.125 × 1014 17. Statement I: When height of a tube is less than
(3) 3.125 × 1015 (4) 3.125 × 1016 liquid rise in the capillary tube, the liquid does not
overflow
Statement II : Product of radius of meniscus and
12. A particle moves a distance x in time t according height of liquid in capillary tube always remains
to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of constant.
particle is proportional to (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) (velocity)3/2 (2) (distance)2 (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) (distance)–2 (4) (velocity)2/3 incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
13. Starting from the mean position, a body oscillates (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
simple harmonically with a period of 2 s. After incorrect.
[3]
18. A thermodynamic system is taken through the Integer Type Questions
cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by 21. From a supply of identical capacitors rated 8 mF,
the gas during the cycle is 250 V, the minimum number of capacitors
required to form a composite 16 mF, 1000 V is
_______.

22. The first line of the Lyman series in a hydrogen

spectrum has a wavelength of 1210 Å. The
corresponding line of a hydrogen-like atom of
Z = 11 is equal to _______ (in Å)

(1) 2 PV (2) 4 PV 23. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force

 constant 800 N m–1 executes simple harmonic
(3) PV (4) PV
2 oscillations. If the total energy of the oscillator is 4
J, the maximum acceleration (in m s–2) of the mass
19. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of is ______
10 km h–1 and a ship B 100 km South of A, is
moving Northwards with a speed of 10 km h–1. 24. A crate is pushed horizontally with 100 N across a
The time after which the distance between them 5 m floor. If the frictional force between the crate
becomes shortest, is and the floor is 40 N, then the kinetic energy
(1) 5 h (2) 5 2 h gained by the crate is ______ (in Joule)
(3) 10 2 h (4) 0 h
25. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and
vibrates in fundamental mode with a tuning fork of
20. A particle tied to a string describes a vertical
frequency 416 Hz. The length of the wire between
circular motion of radius r continually. If it has a
the bridges is now doubled. In order to maintain
velocity 3 gr at the highest point, then the ratio fundamental mode, the load should be changed to
of the respective tensions in the string holding it at ______ (in kg)
the highest and lowest points is
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 5 : 4
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 2

Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 29. Azomethane  CH3 NNCH3  decomposes
26. The frequency of radiation emitted when the according to the following equation.
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen CH3  N  N  CH3 (g)  C2 H 6 (g)  N 2 (g)
atom will be (Given, ionisation energy of H = The initial concentration of azomethane was
2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js) 1.50 × 10–2 M. After 10 minutes, the
(1) 1.54 × 1015 s–1 (2) 1.03 × 1015 s–1 concentration was decreased to 1.29 × 10–2 M.
(3) 3.08 × 1015 s–1 (4) 2.00 × 1015 s–1 The average rate of reaction during this time
interval is
27. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane (1) 3.5 × 10–6 Ms–1 (2) 2.1 × 10–4 Ms–1
results in the formation of (3) 3.5 × 10–6 Mh–1 (4) 2.1 × 10–3 Mmin–1
(1) Predominantly But-2-yne
(2) Predominantly But-1-ene 30. Polarisation is the distortion of the shape of an
(3) Predominantly But-2-ene anion by the cation. Which of the following
(4) Equimolar mixture of But-1-ene and But-2- statements is correct?
ene (1) Maximum polarisation is done by a cation of
28. Standard enthalpy of vapourisation ΔH° for water high charge
(2) A large cation is likely to bring large degree
is 40.66 kJ mol–1. The internal energy of
of polarisation
vapourisation of water will be: (3) A smaller anion is likely to undergo a high
(Use: R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) degree of polarisation
(1) +43.76 kJ mol–1 (2) +40.66 kJ mol–1 (4) Minimum polarisation is done by a cation of
(3) +37.56 kJ mol–1 (4) None of these small size

[4]
31. The mole fraction of a solute in a binary solution 36. Select the incorrect statement
is 0.1. At 298 K, the molarity of this solution is (1) The higher oxidation state for d-block
the same as its molality. elements is stable with F.
Density of this solution at 298 K is 2.0 g cm3. (2) Enthalpy of atomisation follows the order
The ratio of molecular weights of the solute and Sc > Ti > V
Msolute (3) The ionic size of the following ions is
the solvent is:
Msolvent Mn 2  Fe2  Co2  Ni2 .
1 (4) Mn 2 O 7 exists but MnF7 does not.
(1) 9 (2)
9
1 37. To balance the following reaction,
(3) 4.5 (4)
4.5 2Mn 2  AS2 O82  BH 2 O

32. Nitrogen forms N 2 , but phosphorus forms P4 ,  2MnO4  CSO24  DH

the main reason for this is stoichiometric coefficients A, B, C and D have
(1) Triple bond is present between phosphorus been used. What would be the exact value of
atoms. these coefficients?
(1) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-8
(2) p   p  bonding is strong in N.
(2) A-5, B-8, C-10, D-16
(3) p   p  bonding is weak in P. (3) A-10, B-16, C-20, D-32
(4) Multiple bond is formed easily in P. (4) A-8, B-5, C-32, D-20

38. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 × 10–

13
. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar
33. mass taken as 120 g mol–1) to be added to 1 litre
of 0.05M solution of silver nitrate to start the
In the given reaction the product is. precipitation of AgBr is
(1) An optically inactive mixture of two (1) 5.0 × 10–8 g (2) 1.2 × 10–10 g
compounds (3) 1.2 × 10–9 g (4) 6.2 × 10–5 g
(2) A mixture of an optically active and
optically inactive two compounds. 39. Which of the following complex show ionization,
(3) An optically inactive mixture of three linkage and geometrical isomerism ?
compounds (I) Co  NH3   NO2  Br ;
 5 
(4) An optically active mixture of three
compounds (II) Co  NH3 5  H2O   NO2 2

(III) Pt  NH3 4  Pt SCN 4  ;

34. At 323 K, the vapour pressure in millimeters of
mercury of a methanol-ethanol solution is (IV) Cr  NH3 4  NO2 2   NO3 
represented by the equation p  120X A  140 , (1) III only (2) II and IV only
where X A is the mole fraction of methanol. (3) IV only (4) III and IV only
pA
Then the value of is
XA
40.
(1) 250 mm (2) 140 mm
(3) 260 mm (4) 20 mm
which is true about this reaction?
35. For a cell reaction (1) A is meso 2,3- butanediol formed by syn
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) Δr Sº298 = – 0.32 kJ/K. addition.
What is the value of f Ho298 (H2O, l)? (2) A is meso 2,3- butanediol formed by anti
Given: addition.
O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– → 2H2O(l); Eº = 1.23 V (3) A is a racemic mixture of d and l and 2,3-
(1) –285.07 kJ/mol (2) –570.14 kJ/mol butanodiol formed by anti addition.
(3) 285.07 kJ/mol (4) 570.14 kJ/mol (4) A is a racemic mixture of d and l and 2,3-
butanodiol formed by syn addition.
[5]
41. Hydro boration Oxidation, and acid catalysed (3) 3-Bromo-6-methylbicyclo[3.2.0]heptane
hydration will give same product in (4) 2-Methyl-6-bromobicyclo[2.3.0]heptane

(1) (2)
Integer Type Questions
46. A solution is made by mixing 200 ml of 0.1M
(3) (4) FeSO4, 200 ml of 0.1M KMnO4 and 600 ml of
1M HClO4. A reaction occurs in which Fe2+ and
MnO 4 convert to Fe3+ and Mn2+. If the molarity
42. For the ionic reaction of hydrochloric acid with
the following alkenes, predict the correct of H+ ion in the final solution is x M, then the
sequence of reactivity as measured by reaction value of 1000x is
rates:
47. How many compounds show amphoteric nature
(I) ClCH  CH 2
amongst following
(II)  CH3 2  C  CH 2 (a) B2O3 (b) Tl2O3
(III) OHC  CH  CH 2 (c) Al(OH)3 (d) Ga(OH)3
(IV)  NC 2 C  C  CN 2
(e) Al2O3 (f) Ga2O3
(g) CrO3 (h) Sr(OH)2
(1) IV > I > III > II (2) I > IV > II > III (i) Cr2O3
(3) III > II > IV > I (4) II > I > III > IV
48. If value of spin quantum number(s) = –1/2, 0, +
1/2 then find out number of elements in first
period in the new form of periodic table if all
(NH ) S NaNO /
43. 
4 2  (A) 
2  (B)
other rules of electronic configurations remain
HCl.0ºC
same.

CuCN/ H O 49. How many molecules of the following have non


 (C) 
3
 (D)
HCN zero dipole moment ?
In the above reaction sequence (D) is

(i) (ii)
(1) (2)

(iii) (iv)
(3) (4)

44. Aqueous solution of two compounds, M – O – H (v) (vi)

and M1 – O – H have been prepared in two
separate beakers. If the electronegativity of
M = 3.5, M1 = 1.72, O = 3.0 and H = 2.1, then the
solutions respectively are:
(1) acidic, basic (2) acidic, acidic
(3) basic, basic (4) basic, acidic (vii) (viii)

45. The correct IUPAC name of the following

compound is
50. Number of compounds from the following which
will not produce orange red precipitate with
Benedict solution is .......... .
(1) 2-Bromo-5-methylbicyclo[5.4.0]heptane Glucose, maltose, sucrose, ribose, 2-deoxyribose,
(2) 3-Bromo-7-methylbicyclo[3.2.0]heptane amylose, lactose.
[6]
 Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions eh are the eccentricities of the ellipse and the
51. Let A  (3, –4), B  (1, 2) and P  (2k – 1, 2k + 1) hyperbola respectively, then
be a variable point such that PA + PB is the (1) 2eh2  ee2  6 (2) 4eh2  ee2  6
minimum. Then k is equal to
(1) 7/9 (2) 0 (3) 4eh2  ee2  6 (4) eh2  2ee2  0
(3) 7/8 (4) –7/8
57. If the tangent and normal to the parabola y2 = 4x at
a 4 b 9 c point P(1, 2) intersects y-axis at point A and B
52. If – 12 =  , then family of lines respectively, then the area (in sq. unit) of
bc c b
circumcircle of triangle PAB is
ax  b y  c  0 always passes through a fixed 
point whose coordinates are (where a, b, c > 0) (1)  (2)
2
 1 2 (3) 2 (4) 4
(1) (–1, 2) (2)   , 
 3 3
1 2  1 1
(3)  ,   (4) (1, –2) 58. Let A be matrix   then the matrix
3 3  1 1
B = A10 – A9 + 2A8 – A7 + 4A6 – 2A5 + 4A4 + A3 – A2
53. If f  x   x3  3x  4 and g is the inverse function + A + I is
(1) A (2) A + I
d  g  x  (3) I (4) A – I
of f, then the value of   at x = 4
dx  g  g  x   
equals 59. A variable chord is drawn through the origin to cut
1 1 the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 8y + 11 = 0 at A and B. The
(1) (2) locus of the midpoint of AB, is
3 2
(1) x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y = 0
(3) 3 (4) 6
(2) x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y = 0
(3) x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y = 0
54. Let ƒ(x) be an odd function defined on R such that
(4) x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y = 0
ƒ(1) = 2, ƒ(3) = 5 and ƒ(–5) = –1. The value of
 
f f  f  3   f  f  0  
is 60. Let V  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ, W  iˆ  3kˆ, U  2 . If U is a
3 f 1  2 f  3  f  5 
vector in x-y plane, then greatest value of
2 2
 U 
(1) (2) 2
5 3 V W  is
2 2 (1) 232 (2) 340
(3) (4)
5 3 (3) 236 (4) 312

55. The image of the point (1, 2, –1), on the plane 61. If two tangents drawn from a point P to the
x 1 y  3 z  2 parabola y2 = 16(x – 3) are at right angles, then the
containing the line   and the
3 2 1 locus of point ‘P’ is
point (0, 7, –7), is (1) x + 3 = 0
 1 7 1   1 2 7  (2) x + 1 = 0
(1)  , ,  (2)  , ,  (3) x + 2 = 0
 3 3 3  3 3 3 
(4) x + 4 = 0
 1 7   1 2 7 
(3)  ,0,  (4)  , , 
 3 3   3 3 3
 2x  3  a
  5 x  2 and f  27   b in lowest
1
x2 y2 62. If f 
56. If radii of director circles of   1 and  x2 
a2 b2 form, then (a + b) is equal to
x2 y2 (1) 24 (2) 62
  1 are 2r and r respectively. Also ee and
a2 b2 (3) 76 (4) 82

[7]
63. A ray of light coming from the point 2, 2 3 is   (4) 2x2  5xy  2 y 2  3x  3 y  9  0
incident at an angle 30° on the line x = 1 at the
point A. The ray gets reflected on the line x = 1 and 68. If (6, 13) and (25, 8) are the foci of a hyperbola
meets x–axis at the point B. Then, the line AB passing through the point (1, 1) then the
passes through the point eccentricity of the hyperbola is

 
 1  386 386
(1)  3,   (2) 3,  3 (1)
38
(2)
25
 3
386 386
 3
(3)  4, 
 
2 
(4)  4,  3  (3)
13
(4)
12

69. Equation of common tangents with positive slope
64. Equation of the perpendicular line from to the circle x2 + y2 = 5 and hyperbola 4x2 – 9y2 = 36,
x y 2 z 3 is
 3,  1,11 to the line   is
2 3 4 (1) 2 x  3 y  65  0
x  3 y  1 z  11
(1)   (2) 3x  2 y  65  0
1 6 4
(3) 2 x  3 y  5  0
x  3 y  1 z  11
(2)   (4) 3x  2 y  5  0
2 5 7
x  3 y  1 z  11
(3)   70. Product of length of the perpendiculars drawn from
1 11 3
x  3 y  1 z  11 y2
(4)   foci on any tangent to hyperbola x 2   1 is
1 6 4 4
(1) 2 (2) 4
2 (3) 1 (4) 1/2
65. Two tangents to the parabola y = 4ax make angles
θ1, θ2 with axis of parabola such that
cosθ1·cosθ2 = k, then the locus of their point of Integer Type Questions
intersection is 71. Let two circles are passing through a fixed point
(1) x2 = k2[(x – a)2 + y2]  x1 , y1  , where x1  0, y1  0 and both circle touch
(2) x2 = k2[(x + a)2 + y2] coordinate axes. If sum of their radii is equal to
(3) x2 = k2[(x – a)2 + 4y2] 2
(4) 4x2 = k2[(x + a)2 + y2] product of their radii, then  x1  y1   is
1 1
  
66. If e is the eccentricity of hyperbola  x1 y1 
2 2 equal to
x y
  1 and  is the angle between the
a2 b2 72. Let PN be the ordinate of a point P on the

asymptotes, then cos is equal to x2 y2
2 hyperbola   1 and the tangent at P
1 1
 97 2  79 2
(1) (2) meets transverse axis in T, O is origin. Then
e e
1 1  ON  OT 
(3)  (4)  2023  is equal to
e  
e2  2
(where [ ] is greatest integer function)

67. If the lines represented by 2x2  5xy  2 y 2  0 be 73. A ray emanating from the point (–4, 0) is incident
the two sides of a parallelogram and the line on the ellipse 9x2 + 25y2 = 225 at the point P with
x + y = 3 be one of its diagonal, then the combined abscissa 3. Then equation of the reflected ray after
equation of other two sides will be first reflection is ax + by = c (HCF of a, b, c is 1),
(1) 2x2  5xy  2 y 2  3x  3 y  9  0 where value of |b| is equal to

(2) 2x2  5xy  2 y 2  3x  3 y  9  0

(3) 2 x2  5xy  2 y 2  3x  3 y  9  0

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74. If the shortest distance between the parabolas 75. A variable point P moves such that it is equidistant
3 2 from A(3, 4) and B(7, –2). If X(0, 4) and Y(3, 2) are
y2 = x – 1 and x2 = y – 1 is , then the numerical fixed points, then locus of centroid of ΔPXY is a
k
value of k is equal to line of slope m, then the value of 2/m is equal to

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