1

1. Which of the followings are true about mitochondria?

I. Function in apoptosis II. Stores Ca+2 ions III. Posses DNA associated with proteins
IV. Genes have introns V. Replicate its DNA only when a cell is in S-phase
a) I,II b) I,II,V c) I,II,IV d) I,II,III e) II,III,IV,V

2. Tissue components that bind acidic dyes (eosin, orange 6) are acidophilic. Tissue components that bind basic dyes
(hematoxylin, methylene blue) are basophilic.
Which of the following is not acidophilic structure?
a) Collagen fibers b) mitochondria c) histones d) erythrocyte cytoplasm e) extracellular matrix

3. Which of the following statements about ribosomes are TRUE?

i. Ribosomes in prokaryotic cells are smaller than those in eukaryotic cells
ii. Ribosomes consist of three subunits — light, medium and heavy fragments
iii. Ribosomes are made of rRNA and protein in roughly equal proportions
iv. Ribosomes, being composed of heavy polymers, are the first organelles to separate out during ultracentrifugation
v. Ribosomes, if present in an animal cell, are always found attached to the endoplasmic reticulum forming rough ER
a). i & iii b). ii & v c). iii & iv d). i & v e. ii & v

4. B-lymphocyte produces and secretes antibodies. Which structures of its protoplast should therefore be well developed?
a) only the smooth endoplasmic reticulum b). only the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus
c). only the rough endoplasmic reticulum d). only the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus
e). the rough endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus and the lysosomes.

5. Nuclear pores do not permit the passage of:

A) Nucleotides inward and protein outward. B) RNA inward and chromosome outward.
C) Proteins inward and RNA outward. D) Potassium ions inward and protein outward.
E) Nucleotides inward and RNA outward.

6. Which of the following statements about cytokinesis in plant cells is/are NOT correct?
(1) Plant cells form cell plates (2) Cytokinesis can start during mitosis (3) Plant cells have a contracting ring
(4) Membrane fusion connects cell plate and the cytoplasmic membrane of the mother cell.
(5) Golgi apparatus does not participate in cytokinesis of a plant cell until two daughter cells are formed.
A. 1, 2, 4 B. 3 C. 3, 5 D. 4, 5 E. 4

7. The activity of lysosomes is regulated by:

A) cytoplasmic ions. B) lysosomal pH. C) temperature. D) calcium. E) nuclear DNA.

8. When a yeast mutant cannot grow on glycerol, the mutant has a defect in which organelle?
A. Mitochondria B. Lysosome C. Peroxisome D. Nucleus E. Endoplasmic reticulum

9. What structure in the bacterial cell has the most variety in enzyme activity?
A) Cell membrane. B) Cell wall. C) Vacuole. D) Capsule. E) Flagellum

10. How do polypeptides find their way from the site of synthesis on the cytoplasmic ribosome to the place of their
destination in the peroxisome?
A) Without signals B) By specific transport along the cytoskeleton C) By specific vesicular transport
D) By specific carboxy-terminal targeting signals E) All are possible ways
11. In muscle cells the ____ is specialized for the storage and release of calcium.
a. Mitochondria b. smooth ER c. the Golgi apparatus d. contractile vacuoles e. rough ER

12. Which of the following combinations among elements of the cytoskeleton and their characteristics is correct?
ELEMENTS OF THE CYTOSKELETON
I. Microfilaments. II. Microtubules. III. Intermediate Filaments.
STRUCTURAL AND FUNCTIONAL CHARACTERISTICS
01. Polymer of the protein actin. 02. Participate in animal cytokinesis.
03. Participate in the formation of cilia and flagella. 04. Polymer of the protein tubulin.
 2

05. Provide mechanical stability to the cell. 06. Participate in cellular locomotion.
07. Non polar polymer. 08. Form the nuclear lamina.
09. Form the mitotic spindle.

I II III
A) 01, 03, 05 02, 04, 08 02, 03, 07
B) 01, 02, 06 03, 04, 09 05, 07, 08
C) 01, 03, 08 03, 04, 05 02, 06, 09
D) 01, 06, 09 02, 04, 07 03, 05, 07

13. The maximum size of a cell is limited by:

a. its need for enough surface area for exchange with its environment.
b. the number of organelles that can be packed inside. c. the materials needed to build it.
d. the amount of flexibility it needs to be able to move. e. the amount of food it needs to survive.

14. In the following table, some components, processes and structures of mitochondria are presented. Match both columns
and identify the correct combination.
01. Porin.
02. Enzymes of mitochondrial RNA synthesis.
03. ATP synthase. I. Outer mitochondrial membrane.
04. Monoamine oxidase. II. Inner mitochondrial membrane.
05. Enzymes of fatty acid oxidation. III. Mitochondrial matrix.
06. Coenzyme Q.
07. Enzymes of citric acid cycle.

I II III
A) 02, 06, 07 01, 04, 07 01, 05
B) 01, 05, 06 02, 03 02, 04, 07
C) 01, 04 03, 06 02, 05, 07
D) 02, 05 01, 03, 07 06, 07

15. The diagram below shows a mitochondrion as seen

under the electron microscope. What movement of
protons occurs as a result of electron transport in the
mitochondrion?
A. From I to II across a concentration gradient.
B. From I to II down a concentration gradient.
C. From II to I against a concentration gradient.
D. From II to I down a concentration gradient

16. Which region is the most acidic in a chloroplast and a mitochondrion?

chloroplast mitochondrion
A stroma intermembrane pace

B intermembrane space intermembrane space

C stroma matrix

D inside of thylakoid matrix

E inside of thylakoid intermembrane space

17. The cytoskeleton is involved in which of the following?

1. Chromatid separation 2. Phagocyte motility via pseudopodia 3. Mitotic spindle formation 4. Erythrocyte shape
A. all of them B. 1, 2, 3 C. 2, 3 & 4 D.1, 2 & 4 E.1, 3 & 4
 3

18. In 1961 Mitchell proposed a highly original explanation for ATP synthesis, which he called the chemiosmotic
coupling model. Which of the following is correct?
A. ATP synthesis in mitochondria can be explained by the chemiosomotic model, but in chloroplasts it cannot.
B. ATP synthesis in mitochondria and chloroplasts can be explained by the chemiosomotic model only when the
concentration of H+ ions in the cell is higher than 0.1 mmol/L.
C. Energy source for mitochondria is electrons from nutrients, but for chloroplasts energy source is electrons from water.
D. In mitochondria H+ ions are pumped into the matrix, but in chloroplasts they are pumped into the thylakoid lumen.
E. H+ ions are transferred through ATP synthase both in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

19. A scientist, studying the process of photosynthesis, illuminates a culture of unicellular green algae for a certain period
of time. Then she turns off the light and adds radioactive CO2 by bubbling it in the culture for 30 minutes. Immediately
she measures radioactivity in the cells. What is she likely to observe?
A. No radioactivity in the cells, because light is necessary to produce sugars starting from CO 2 and water.
B. No radioactivity in the cells, because CO2 is used to produce O2 during the light-dependent reactions.
C. No radioactivity in the cells, because CO2 is taken by the plant cells only during illumination.
D. Radioactivity in the cells, because CO2 is used to produce sugars even in the dark.
E. Radioactivity in the cells, because CO2 is incorporated into NADPH in the dark.

20. Which treatment is most effective in breaking as many hydrogen bonds as possible in an aqueous solution (pH 7.0) of
1 mg/mL DNA and 10 mg/mL protein?
A. Addition of hydrochloric acid to make the pH 1.0. B. Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to make the pH 13.0.
C. Addition of urea to a concentration of 6 mol/L. D. Heating the solution to 121C.
E. Addition of sodium dodecyl sulfate (a detergent) to a concentration of 10 mg/mL. F. Freezing the solution to -80C.

21. Which of the following are true for the relative permeabilities of human red blood cells and artificial phospholipid
bilayer vesicles (called artificial vesicles hereafter) to glucose and ethanol?
I. Both red blood cells and artificial vesicles are more permeable to glucose than to ethanol.
II. Both red blood cells and artificial vesicles are more permeable to ethanol than to glucose.
III. In both red blood cells and artificial vesicles, the permeability to ethanol is almost the same as that to glucose.
IV. While red blood cells and artificial vesicles show almost the same permeability to glucose, red blood cells have a
higher permeability to ethanol than artificial vesicles.
V. While red blood cells and artificial vesicles show almost the same permeability to ethanol, red blood cells have a
higher permeability to glucose than artificial vesicles.
A. I, IV B. I, V C. II, IV D. II, V E. III, IV F. III, V

22. A chromosome with a long arm and a short arm is called

(a) telocentric, (b) egocentric, (c) epicentric, (d) metacentric, (e) acrocentric, (f ) paracentric, (g) chromocentric.

23. A human cell at prophase II of meiosis will normally have how many centromeres?
(a) 46, (b) 45, (c) 92, (d) 23, (e) none of the above.
24. Statements about prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are:
01. prokaryotic flagella are covered with membrane.
02. eukaryotic flagella are rotating.
03. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagellae use proton gradient as a direct source of the energy for the movement.
04. prokaryotic flagellae are formed from actin, eukaryotic ones from the tubulin.
05. prokaryotic flagellae consist of three parts: the basal apparatus, the hook and the filament.
06. all prokaryotic cells have at least one flagellum.
07. all eukaryotic flagellae are covered with plasma membrane.
08. all functional eucaryotic flagellae contain motor-proteins (dyneins).
09. procaryotic flagellae can rotate only in one direction.

The correct statements are:

A) 01, 04, 07. B) 03, 07, 08. C) 02, 05, 09. D) 05, 07, 08.

25. What aspect of their structure makes carbohydrates well suited for storing energy?
a. Because simple carbohydrates are always polymers, they can form long, compact chains of atoms, which store energy
more efficiently than monomers.
b. The high number of carbon-hydrogen bonds releases a large amount of energy when oxidized.
 4

c. Carbohydrate molecules are often attached to a functional group of ATP.

d. Van der Waals forces that hold carbohydrates together release a large amount of energy when broken.
e. The long chains of fatty acids attached to carbohydrates are saturated, thus every carbon atom has high-energy bonds
with at least two hydrogen atoms

26. The Calvin-Benson cycle in the dark reaction of photosynthesis

a. requires 18 ATP and 12 NADPH molecules b. requires 12 ATP and 18 NADPH molecules
c. produces one molecule of hexose and one molecule of ATP d. occurs in the thylakoid membrane
e. involves transport of protons across the thylakoid membrane

27. Plant chloroplasts are believed to have evolved from cyanobacteria-like progenitors through endosymbiosis. Which of
the following statements support this hypothesis?
I. Chloroplasts and cyanobacteria share similar photosynthetic pigments and thylakoid membranes.
II. Cyanobacteria exhibit an oxygenic photosynthesis.
III. Chloroplasts are maternally inherited.
IV. Chloroplasts have their own DNA and ribosomes.
V. Viable chloroplasts can be isolated from cells but cannot be cultured in vitro.
VI. Prokaryotic genes express well in chloroplasts.
A) I, III, IV and V B) I, II, IV and VI C) I, II, III and V D) II, IV, V and VI

28. A mature rat’s sperm cell has an amount of DNA that is the equivalent of a haploid genome,
which we will call a “c” amount of DNA. Compared to this sperm cell, how much DNA will a
somatic cell have if it is in the G2 phase of interphase?
(a) c; (b) 2c; (c) 3c; (d) 4c; (e) more than 4c.

31. Which of the following statements about ribosomes are TRUE?

i. Ribosomes in prokaryotic cells are smaller than those in eukaryotic cells
ii. Ribosomes consist of three subunits — light, medium and heavy fragments
iii. Ribosomes are made of rRNA and protein in roughly equal proportions
iv. Ribosomes, being composed of heavy polymers, are the first organelles to separate out during ultracentrifugation
v. Ribosomes, if present in an animal cell, are always found attached to the endoplasmic reticulum forming rough ER
a). i & iii b). ii & v c). iii & iv d). i & v e. ii & v

32. Which of the following statements about vacuoles are TRUE?

i. They are only found in plant cells, never in animal cells
ii. In plant cells, vacuoles are surrounded by a single membrane called a tonoplast
iii. Vacuoles are the main store of amino acids, especially in growing cells
iv. Water passes into vacuoles down a water potential gradient and this helps the cell to remain turgid
v. In plant cells the size of the vacuole remains constant in proportion to the size of the cell, irrespective of water content
of the cell
a). i & iii b) ii & v c). iii & iv d). i & iv e) ii & iv
 5

Q
uestions 34-36. Two cells have the following characteristics:

34. From the characteristics presented in the table, which statement is correct?
A. Cell I is more complex in its organization than cell II B. Cell I is a prokaryote
C. Cells with all characteristics of cell II appeared earlier in the fossil record than cells with all characteristics of cell I.
D. Cell II does not have a cell membrane E. Both groups of cells are from fungi

35. Cell II is a
A. plant cell B. eubacterium C. archaebacterium D. animal cell E. cyanobacterium

36. What mechanism is responsible for the acidification of the lysosome?

A. A lysosome fuses with acidic vesicle derived from Golgi aparatus
B A pump transports protons from the cytosol into the lysosome
C. A pump transports protons from the lysosomal lumen to the cytosol
D. A lysosome fuses with acidic endocytosed material
E. A pump transports OH- ions from the cytosol to the lysosomal lumen

37. Which of the following functions are carried out in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
I. Addition of carbohydrates to protein. II. Synthesis of lisosomal protein. III. Addition of carbohydrates to lipids.
IV. Synthesis of membrane proteins. V. Formation of glycerol.
A) I, II and V. B) II, III and IV. C) II, IV and V. D) I, II and IV. E) III, IV and V.

38. Which is the function of the nucleolus?

A) Import of cytoplasmic proteins. B) Regulation of nuclear pores. C) Site of ribosome subunit assembly.
D) Storage of inactive DNA. E) Synthesis of nuclear protein.
 6

39. Where are most proteins of the respiratory chain in the mitochondrial structure located?
A) Dissolved within the fluid of the matrix. B) In the cytoplasm on the outer surface of the mitochondria.
C) In the space between the two membranes. D) On the surface and embedded within the outer membrane.
E) On the surface and embedded within the inner membrane.

40. Mayoz bölünmenin profaz evresinin aşağıdaki basamaklarının meydana geliş sırası hangisinde doğru olarak verilmiştir?
1. Leptoten 2. Diyakinez 3. Zigoten 4. Diploten 5. Pakiten
a) 1 – 3 – 5 –4 – 2 b) 1 – 3 –4 – 5- 2 c) 1 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 4 d) 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 e) 2 –3 – 5 –4 –1

41. Which of the following structures and processes can exist in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
I. Nuclear envelope. II. Ribosomes. III. Introns. IV. ATP synthesis. V. Cell membrane.
VI. DNA polymerase. VII. Cytoskeletal elements. VIII. rRNA 18S.
A) I, II, III and VIII. B) II, IV, VI and VIII. C) I, III, V and VII. D) II, IV, V and VI. E) II, III, VI and VIII.

42. A particular ____ carry the information for making a particular polypeptide, but ____ can be used to make any polypeptide.
a. gene and ribosome . . . a tRNA and an mRNA b. gene and mRNA . . . a ribosome and a tRNA
c. ribosome and mRNA . . . a gene and a tRNA d. gene and tRNA . . . a ribosome and an mRNA
e. tRNA and ribosome . . . a gene and an mRNA

43. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a
a. tight junction. b. microtubule. c. desmosome. d. plasmodesma. e. gap junction.

44. During interphase, _____ can be seen with a light microscope.

a. Nucleosomes b. İntrons c. Heterochromatin d. Transposons e. euchromatin

45. Which of the following cell cycle phases is usually the shortest in duration? (1 point)
A. G1 B. G0 C. G2 D. S E. M

46. Which of the following statements about mRNA is correct?

1. All mRNA has a cap at its 5’ end 2. All mRNA has a poly A tail at its 3’ end
3. Its synthesis is performed by RNA polymerase 4. The stability of mRNA regulates abundance of the protein it encodes.
5. The codons on mRNA pair with anti-codons of tRNA through A-T, G-C hydrogen bonds
A.1, 2, 3, 4, B. 3, 4, 5, C. 1, 2, D.3, 4 E. 3

47. Which of the following about tRNA is/are correct?

1. There are stem-loop structures 2. It consumes ATP in synthesis of aminoacyl tRNA
3. tRNA is synthesized by RNA polymerase III 4. tRNA is synthesized as a precursor and was processed before it is functional.
5. Although the theoretical number of tRNA molecules is 61, the actually number of tRNA molecules in most of the cell is smaller,
partially because some anticodons can recognize more than one codon.
A.1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 2, 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, E. 2, 3, 4, 5

48. Which of the following functions are carried out in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
I. Addition of carbohydrates to protein. II. Synthesis of lisosomal protein. III. Addition of carbohydrates to lipids.
IV. Synthesis of membrane proteins. V. Formation of glycerol.
A) I, II and V. B) II, III and IV. C) II, IV and V. D) I, II and IV. E) III, IV and V.

49. Which of the following fibers bind to the cytoplasmic site of cell-matrix adherens junctions (focal adhesion)?
A) Tubulin protein fibers. B) Collagen fibers. C) Actin protein fibers. D) Elastic fibers. E) Reticular fibers.

50. What is embedded in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast and protruding as knobs from the outer surface?
A) Enzymes that fix carbon dioxide B) Molecules of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b C) P700 or P680 molecules.
D) Proton channels that synthesize ATP. E) Water splitting complex.

51. Two sister chromatids fail to separate at the anaphase because microtubules became improperly attached to the
kinetochores and the spindle checkpoint fails to arrest division. What is the most likely result?
A) Both chromatids will remain at the equator of the spindle. B) The mitosis process will stop immediately.
C) One daughter cell will lose all its chromosomes. D) One daughter cell will lose one chromosome.

52. Which of the following is not a part of the endomembrane system?

A) Rough E.R B) Smooth E.R C) Golgi apparatus D) mitochondria E) lysosomes
 7

53. Below is a diagram representing cholesterol in the lipid bilayer.

Cholesterol mixes with phospholipids in a cell membrane because cholesterol molecules

are:
A. amphipathic
B. steroid derivatives
C. entirely hydrophobic
D. phospholipids derivatives
E. bound with glycoproteins

54. In anaerobic fermentation pyruvate is further oxidized to lactate or ethanol

a. by enzymes of the mitochondrion b. with release of one more molecule of ATP c. with the generation of CO2
d. to consume excess ATP e. to convert NADH to NAD+

55. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Plasmids do not possess protein coats B. Plasmids are circular double-stranded DNA molecules
C. Plasmids can be incorporated into the host cell’s chromosome
D. Plasmid genes are required for bacterial survival and/or reproduction E. Plasmids are generally beneficial to their host cells

55. Which combination of statements is correct for aerobic respiration?

1. H2O is a reducer 2. CO2 is an oxidant 3. O2 is an electron acceptor
4. H2O is an electron donor for organic substances 5. H2O is one of the end products
6. Photophosphorylation occurs 7. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs 8. Substrate level phosphorylation occurs
A. 1, 2, 8 B. 2, 3, 4, 7 C. 3, 5, 7, 8 D. 1, 4, 7, 8 E. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7

57. All of the following are functions of integral membrane proteins except
A) enzyme synthesis. B) active transport. C) cell adhesion. D) cytoskeleton attachment. E) hormone reception.

58. The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals

A) enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids.
B) makes the animal more susceptible to circulatory disorders.
C) makes the membrane less flexible, so it can sustain greater pressure from within the cell.
D) enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops.
E) enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids.

59. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane
phospholipids?
A) They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane.
B) They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane.
C) They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other.
D) They are free to depart from the membrane and dissolve in the surrounding solution.
E) They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane.

60. Plasmodesmata most closely resemble which of the following structures in animal cells?
A. Desmosomes B. Gap junctions C. Basal junctions D. Tight junctions E. Ion channels

61. All of the following cellular events involve actin filaments EXCEPT
A. amoeboid movement B. cytoplasmic streaming C. cytokinesis
D. contraction of smooth muscles E. flagellar movement in bacteria

62. According to Rao & Johnson's 1970 article "Mammalian cell fusion: studies on the regulation of DNA synthesis and
mitosis" (presented by Brad, Emily, Jamie, and Narita) and our current knowledge of cell biology, what happens when
cells in S phase are fused with cells in G1 phase?
a. CDKs from the S-phase cells cause the G1-phase cells to start replicating their DNA.
b. CDK inhibitors from the G1-phase cells cause the S-phase cells to stop replicating their DNA.
c. Cyclins from the S-phase cells cause the G1-phase cells to skip S phase.
d. p53 from the G1-phase cells leads to apoptosis of the S-phase cells.
e. Phosphorylation of CDKs by the S-phase cells causes the G1-phase cells to undergo cytokinesis.
 8

63. In their 1978 article "Protein kinase activity associated with the avian sarcoma virus gene product" (presented by
Amy, Joe, Nicholas, and Sarah), Collett & Erikson reported how they infected cells with a temperature-sensitive version
of the Avian Sarcoma Virus. What happened when these cells were grown at high temperatures (41 ºC)?
a. Protein kinase activity increased.
b. Protein kinase activity decreased.
c. The cells switched from phosphorylating threonine and serine to phosphorylating tyrosine.
d. The cells switched from phosphorylating tyrosine to phosphorylating threonine and serine.
e. Immunoprecipitates isolated large amounts of p60src.

64. According to the 1980 article "Transforming gene product of Rous sarcoma virus phosphorylates tyrosine" (presented
by Anne, Ashley, Jenni, and Kristen), how did Hunter & Sefton determine that tyrosine is the amino acid that is normally
phosphorylated by the src gene product?
a. They used the genetic code to determine that the src gene product contained tyrosine residues but not serine or
threonine residues.
b. They found that phosphatases only affect proteins with phosphorylated tyrosine residues.
c. They used phosphorus NMR spectroscopy to determine that the phosphate was linked to tyrosine.
d. They found that the virus could not infect cells that didn't contain tyrosine.
e. They digested immunoprecipitate proteins into their individual amino acids and saw that only the tyrosine residues
contained radioactive phosphate.

65. The article "p53-dependent apoptosis modulates the cytotoxicity of anticancer agents" (presented by Courtney, Jenny,
Kate, and Melissa) concluded that the cytotoxicity of chemotherapeutic drugs is mostly determined by
a. the specific type of drug that was used b. whether the tumor was malignant or not
c. whether the p21 gene was normal or mutated d. whether the p53 gene was normal or mutated
e. whether or not the p53 gene was methylated

66. One new cancer therapy that does not appear to lead to drug resistance, even after several cycles of treatment with and
withdrawal of the drug, is
a. endostatin b. Taxol c. gene therapy d. antibodies to the HER2 receptor e. marijuana

67. If you mix a person's blood with anti-A serum and find that the blood agglutinates, you can conclude that the person's
blood type is
a. A b. B c. A or AB d. A or O e. B or O

68. If a proto-oncogene mutated into an oncogene in an otherwise normal cell, the immediate result would most likely be
a. apoptosis b. arrest of the cell cycle c. that the cell would become malignant
d. rapid mutations of other genes e. not much; perhaps a slight quickening of the cell cycle

69. Which of the following are "adapter proteins" that help bring other proteins together but have no enzymatic activity of
their own?
a. BRCA1 and BRCA2 b. Protein Kinase A and Protein Kinase B c. FADD and TRADD
d. initiator caspases e. executioner caspases

70. CDK activity will increase due to all of the following except
a. high cyclin concentrations b. dephosphorylation by cdc25 c. high p53 concentrations
d. degradation of p21 e. phosphorylation of cyclin B1

71. Which of the following behaviors will not reduce your risk of getting cancer?
a. Giving up smoking. b. Avoiding unnecessary X-ray tests. c. Eating lots of fiber.
d. Eating lots of moldy peanuts. e. Ingesting aspirin.

72. Antibodies are synthesized by

a. B cells b. plasma cells c. T-helper cells d. B cells and plasma cells e. plasma cells and T-helper cells

73. Membrane proteins generally

a. are about five amino acids long b. are hydrophilic c. include lots of hydrogen bonding among the amino acids
d. form hydrophobic protein channels through which lipids can pass e. have alpha pleated sheets as their secondary structure
 9

74. Inside a human host, bacterial cells coated with antibodies may become targets of
a. apoptosis b. cell-cycle arrest c. phagocytosis d. autoimmune reactions e. cytokines

75. The following is an example of covalent bonds that contribute to a protein's tertiary structure:
a. van der Waals forces b. hydrogen bonds c. disulfide bridges d. hydrophobic interactions e. DNA cross-linking

76. The following entity contains a grand total of six carbon atoms:
a. starch b. glucagon c. glycogen d. glucose e. lactate

77. The "threshold" of a neuron is

a. about 10 or 15 millivolts above its resting membrane potential
b. the amount of calcium that must enter the axon terminal in order to trigger release of synaptic vesicles
c. the membrane potential at which voltage-gated K+ channels open
d. the neurotransmitter concentration at which ligand-gated Na + channels open
e. the membrane potential at which voltage-gated Cl- channels open

78. Which of the following "zones" in the sarcomere does not change length during muscle contraction? (Hint: although
drawing a picture will not get you any points, it may help you answer this question.)
a. the zone where there is overlap between actin and myosin filaments
b. the zone where there is only actin (no myosin) c. the zone where there is only myosin (no actin)
d. the zone consisting of the full length of the myosin filaments e. the sarcomere as a whole

79. The following equation may or may not be relevant to this question: ΔG = ΔG˚' + 2.303RTlog 10([B]/[A]). In order for
the reaction ADP + Pi  ATP to proceed spontaneously,
a. blood glucose levels should be low b. an allosteric activator of ATP synthase should be provided
c. [ADP], [Pi], and [ATP] should all be low d. [ADP] and [Pi] should be high and [ATP] should be low
e. [ADP] and [Pi] should be low and [ATP] should be high

80. The following amino acids have an R group that includes a hydroxyl (-OH) group:
a. glycine and proline b. serine and tyrosine c. leucine and tryptophan d. aspartate and glutamine e. histidine and lysine

81. The intracellular response to the binding of a ligand to a G protein-linked receptor may be terminated in part by
a. hydrolysis of GTP by the alpha subunit of the G protein b. dephosphorylation of the G protein-linked receptor
c. release of GDP and binding of GTP by the G protein d. deletion of the gene that encodes arrestin
e. addition of 5'-Gpp(NH)p, which acts exactly like GTP except that it can't be hydrolyzed to GDP

82. A gene has 1.4 x104 base pairs. If transcription occurs at the rate of 70 bases/sec, how long will it take to transcribe
this gene? Express answer in minutes!
a. 3.1 b. 3.2 c. 3.3 d. 3.4 e. 3.5

83. An exothermic reaction in the body uses an enzyme to generate a metabolic product, B, from a reactant A (∆H = 100
kJ). The activation energy is 40 kJ. Using the same catalyst, what is the activation energy for the reverse reaction (that is,
generating A from B)?
a. 60 kJ b. 40 kJ c. 140 kJ d. 160 kJ e. 100 kJ

84. Which of the following statements about the phospholipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane are CORRECT?
i. It is a fluid layer of completely hydrophobic (nonpolar) molecules.
ii. Phospholipid molecules move constantly along the plane of the membrane.
iii. Proteins embedded in the membrane can act as hydrophilic channels for molecules entering or exiting the cell.
iv. Molecules can only enter or exit the cell through transmembrane proteins.
a. i, ii, iii, and iv b. i, iii, and iv c. i and ii d. ii and iii e. iv only

85. Three different human cells, A, B, C, are exposed to hormone X. Type A cells begin to divide, Type B cells remain
unchanged, and type C cells begin to secrete a slimy substance. What would be reasonable hypothesis for these observations?
A. The cells have been exposed to the hormone for different lengths of time. B. The cells each have different genes.
C. Cells have different receptor molecules in their membranes. D. Hormone X changes pH of medium.
 10

86. Suppose a single-celled organism has a microtubular defect that results in non-motility. Which of the following cell
types will be unaffected by this defect?
A sperm B. algae C. protozoans D. bacteria E. Muscle cell

87. To measure the amount of air in soil, four steps were followed as
illustrated in the diagram below, using identical beakers throughout.
Calculate the % (by volume) of air in the soil sample. Write your
answer as a Percentage (%).
A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35 E. 40

88. The enzyme subtilisin is a protease, originally found in the

bacteria Bacillus subtilis, that is produced in vast quantities annually
for use in laundry powders (Have you ever wondered about the
mysterious “enzymes” mentioned in all those laundry powder ads?).
In order to generate washing powders that work over a range of
different conditions, subtilisin has been the focus of many protein
engineers attempting (and succeeding) to create subtilisin variants
that have optimal activity in conditions other than those naturally
occurring in B.subtilis. The graphs below show the activities of
engineered subtilisin variants over a range of temperatures and pH.

Which variant would be most appropriate for use

in a cold water laundry detergent at 20 C?
o

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
e. All
f. None

89. The following scheme shows the relationship between an enzyme (E) and its substrate (S), product (P) and an
inhibitor (I):
In the above scheme, assume (i) that increasing the
concentration of S increases the activity of the enzyme
(ii) that at low substrate concentrations the presence of I
reduces reaction velocity, and (iii) that the same
maximum velocity of reaction can be reached in the
presence or absence of I. Which of following terms best
describes what is occurring in pathway B?
a. Positive Feedback b. Non-competitive inhibition
c. Competitive inhibition d. Negative feedback
e. Homeostatic regulation

90. Aşağıdaki olaylardan hangisine mikrotubüller katılır?

A B C D E
Sil ve Kamçıların Hareketi + + + - -
Kromatidlerin Hareketi + - + - +
Osmatik Düzenleme + - - + +
Canlı Hücrelerde Organellerin Hareketi - - + + +
 11

91. Yandaki şekilde bir pentoz şeker görülmektedir. DNA’da azotlu bazın bağlandığı bölge,
şekilde hangi harf ile gösterilmiştir?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

92. A student recorded the events of a reaction using an enzyme at

37oC in his lab book. Into test tube 1, he put 10 mL of a boiled
egg-white solution. This was cloudy in appearance. Then he added
2mL of an enzyme solution and stirred the solution. Ten minutes
later, the solution had turned clear as shown in test tube 2. The
suspension might have become clear more quickly if:
A. More egg protein had been used. B. The mixture had not been stirred.
C. The pH of the mixture had been changed. D. The temperature had been raised to 75°C.
E. Iodine had been added to the test tube.

93. The graph below shows the effect of x on the rate of reaction of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Which one of the
following could be x?

A. Either substrate concentration or temperature.

B. Either enzyme concentration or pH.
C. Either pH or substrate concentration.
D. Either temperature or pH.
E. Either temperature or enzyme concentration.

94. The following graph shows the effect of pH on the structure of a protein that consists entirely of repeating residues of
a single amino acid.

Which of the following statements is true?

a. At pH2 the protein has lost its secondary structure.
b. At pH2 the protein has lost its tertiary structure.
c. At pH10 the protein has lost its primary structure.
d. At pH10 the protein has lost its secondary structure.

95. Insulin is an important protein hormone in the regulation of blood glucose levels. Insulin-dependent diabetics are
unable to synthesise their own insulin and must rely on the biotechnology industry to produce the insulin they cannot.
Mature insulin consists of 2 polypeptide chains linked by several disulfide bonds. To synthesise correctly assembled
insulin, the two amino acid chains are generated in separate strains of E. coli and purified. The purified chains are then
combined under conditions favouring disulfide formation.
Which of the following aspects of insulin structure remain unchanged throughout this process?
a. Primary structure b. Tertiary structure c. Quaternary structure d. All aspects of structure are altered during this process.
e. All aspects of structure remain unchanged during this process but differ from the structure of insulin produced in
healthy individuals.

96. In the 1960s the drug cholesterlower, after the usual period of carefully monitored clinical trials, was declared by its
manufacturers to be safe and very effective at lowering cholesterol levels in the blood. The World Health Organisation
carried out exactly the same kind of trial on the drug but for a much longer period than the usual five years. The results in
1980 showed that the mortality rate from all causes was 25% higher for those on cholesterlower than for those who,
though similar in other respects, had not taken the drug.
Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?
a. The five-year trial period may not be sufficient to identify all drug side effects.
b. Taking cholesterlower reduces life expectancy by 25%.
c. Cholesterlower is less effective at reducing cholesterol levels than was at first thought.
d. After the original trials, the manufacturers concealed the side effects of cholesterlower.
e. The monitoring programme instigated by the World Health Organisation was carried out efficiently.

97. Which of the following is an example of active transport?

A. K+ through a voltage-gated K+ channel B. Ca2+ through a voltage-gated ion channel
C. Na+ through ligand-gated ion channel D. 3 Na+ in exchange for 2 K+ across the plasmalemma E. All of the above
 12

98. A cell in the G1 phase has two homologous pairs of chromosomes. It undergoes a mitotic division, followed by
meiosis. At the end of meiosis 2, what is the sum of all the products of these divisions in all cells?
a. 16 chromosomes, 16 chromatids, 8 cells, 4 times as many alleles.
b. 8 chromosomes, 16 chromatids, 8 cells, 2 times as many alleles.
c. 8 chromosomes, 16 chromatids, 16 cells, 4 times as many alleles.
d. 8 chromosomes, 16 chromatids, 4 cells, 4 times as many alleles.
e. 16 chromosomes, 16 chromatids, 4 cells, 4 times as many alleles.

99. Which of the following molecules can diffuse through the mammalian phospholipid bilayer without using a
channel/transporter?
I. O2 II. Glucose III. steroid hormones IV. K+ V. amino acids
A. I, III B. I, IV C. II, III, V D. II, III, IV, V E. All of the above.

100. For each of the following figures, identify the specific stage of nuclear division and the
diploid, 2n, chromosome number of the organism.

A). a: Telophase II 2n=6, b: Telophase I 2n=4, c: Prophase II 2n=6, d: Metaphase II 2n= 4, e:

Metaphase I n=4,
f: Anaphase I 2n= 6
B) a: Anaphase II 2n=6, b: Telophase 2n=4, c: Prophase II 2n=6, d: Metaphase II 2n= 4, e:
Metaphase I n=4,
f: Anaphase I 2n= 6
C) a: Anaphase I 2n=6, b: Telophase I 2n=4, c: Prophase I 2n=6, d: Metaphase 2n= 4 or
Metaphase II 2n= 8,
e: Metaphase I n=4, f: Anaphase I 2n= 6
D) a: Anapase I 2n=6, b: Telophase 2n=4, c: Prophase I 2n=6, d: Metaphase I 2n= 4, e:
Metaphase 2n=4 or Metaphase II 2n=8, f: Anaphase II 2n= 6
E) a: Telophase II 2n=6, b: Telophase I 2n=4, c: Prophase I 2n=6, d: Metaphase I 2n= 4, e:
Metaphase I n=4,
f: Anaphase I 2n= 6

101. Bivalents are seen

(a) at prophase I of meiosis, (b) at prophase II of meiosis,
 13

(c) at prophase of mitosis, (d) at prophase I of meiosis and at prophase of mitosis,

(e) at prophase II of meiosis and at prophase of mitosis, (f ) during the interphase just prior
to the beginning of meiosis.