CRASH PAPER-1

CTS-TEST-1 (MEDICAL) MDCAT-2024 Time Allowed: 3.5 Hours

Total MCQs: 200

BIOLOGY CHEMISTRY PHYSICS ENGLISH LOGICAL

SYLLABUS

Cell Structure Introduction to Force and Subject Verb

Fundamental Concepts Critical Thinking
and Functions of Chemistry Motion Agreement
MCQs# 1 – 68 MCQs# 69 – 122 MCQs# 123 – 176 MCQs# 177 – 194 MCQs# 195 – 200

BIOLOGY
Q.1 The simplest and independent unit of life is known as:
A. Cell C. Chloroplast
B. DNA D. Gene
Q.2 Which of the following is an organelle found in all kinds of cells?
A. Chloroplast C. Ribosomes
B. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Mitochondria
Q.3 Every living cell must contain:
A. Plasma membrane C. Lysosome
B. Cytoskeleton D. Mitochondria
Q.4 According to most widely accepted model of plasma membrane:
A. Liquid protein layer is surrounded by phospholipids
B. Lipid are arranged in fluid layer of proteins
C. Proteins are arranged in fluid layer of phospholipids
D. Liquid phospholipid layer is surrounded by proteins
Q.5 The most accepted model which explains the structure and functions of plasma membrane is:
A. Unit Membrane Model C. Fluid Mosaic Model
B. Flip Flap Model D. Induced Fit Model
Q.6 Basic framework of all types of membranes is formed by:
A. Glycolipids C. Glycoproteins
B. Lipoproteins D. Sphingolipids
Q.7 Carbohydrates are present in the plasmalemma in the form of:
A. Hemicellulose C. Cellulose
B. Starch D. Glycoprotein
Q.8 Plasma membrane is fluid structure due to presence of:
A. Carbohydrate C. Lipid
B. Glycoprotein D. Polysaccharide
Q.9 All are characteristics of plasma membrane except:
A. Amphipathic C. Asymmetrical
B. Lipoprotein in nature D. Symmetrical
Q.10 Carbon dioxide passes through plasma membrane of cells by:
A. Active transport C. Phagocytosis
B. Phagocytosis D. Simple diffusion
Q.11 Na+/K+ pump in neurons is associated with:
A. Passive transport C. Osmosis
B. Active transport D. Imbibition
Q.12 Transport proteins are required for:
A. Diffusion C. Facilitated transport
B. Osmosis D. Facilitated transport and active transport
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Q.13 Formation of food vacuole in a cell is associated with:
A. Endocytosis C. Osmosis
B. Diffusion D. Facilitated diffusion
Q.14 Middle lamella is composed mainly of:
A. Phosphoglycerides C. Hemicellulose
B. Muramic acid D. Calcium pectate
Q.15 All of the following biomolecules can be the chemical component of cell wall except:
A. Polysaccharide C. Murein
B. Polynucleotide D. Chitin
Q.16 Which of the following is correct for cell wall?
A. Semi-permeable C. Differentially permeable
B. Permeable D. Not permeable
Q.17 Plant and prokaryotic cells are similar with each other but differ from animal cells due to the
presence of:
A. 70 S ribosomes C. Cell wall
B. Glycocalyx D. Lysosomes
Q.18 The non-living granules of storage or waste compounds that are not bounded by membranes and do
not possess metabolic activity are called:
A. Cell organelles C. Vacuole
B. Cytoplasmic Inclusions D. Ribosomes
Q.19 Which of the following pair are membrane less sub-cellular structures:
A. Nucleus & E.R. C. Mitochondria & chloroplast
B. Ribosome & nucleolus D. Microsomes & lysosome
Q.20 What is the site of enzyme synthesis in the cells?
A. Golgi apparatus C. Lysosome
B. Rough endoplasmic Reticulum D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q.21 What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Aerobic respiration C. Synthesis of steroids
B. Intracellular digestion D. Transport of proteins
Q.22 Which of the following pair of subcellular structures provide mechanical support and shape to the cell:
A. Golgi complex and SER C. Centrioles and Vacuoles
B. Nucleosomes and Mesosome D. Endoplasmic Reticulum and Cytoskeleton
Q.23 The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is generally:
Structure Role
A. Cisternae Protein synthesis
B. Vesicle Fatty acid metabolism
C. Tubular Drug detoxification
D. Thread like Glycerol synthesis
Q.24 "Palade particles" are:
A. Ribosomes C. Microsomes
B. Lysosomes D. Mesosomes
Q.25 Chemically, ribosomes are __________ particles.
A. Glycoprotein C. Ribonucleoproteins
B. Lipoproteins D. Deoxyribonucleoproteins
Q.26 A group of ribosomes attached to mRNA is known as polysome and the attachment is controlled by:
A. Na+ C. Mg+2
B. Ca+2 D. K+
Q.27 70 S type of ribosomes found in:
A. Prokaryotic cells C. Prokaryotic cells, chloroplasts and mitochondria
B. Mitochondria D. Nucleus, mitochondria

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Q.28 Cells without nucleoli die because they do not possess:
A. Centrioles and are unable to undergo cell division
B. Lysosomes and are unable to destroy worn out organelles
C. Mitochondria and are unable to obtain energy
D. Ribosomes and are unable to manufacture proteins
Q.29 The given diagram expresses polysomes which contain

Ribosomes mRNA Proteins formed

A. Single Many Many of Different types
B. Many Single Many of same type
C. Many Many Many of Different types
D. Many Many Many of same type
Q.30 The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins for transport. What does this process
contribute to?
A. Energy production C. Protein synthesis
B. Secretion and cellular organization D. Waste disposal
Q.31 Surface of Golgi cisternae towards nucleus is _________face and towards plasma membrane is
_________face.
A. (Outer-convex), Forming C. (Inner-concave), (Forming)
B. (Outer-concave), Maturing D. (Outer-convex), (Maturing)
Q.32 Which of the following is related to glycosylation of proteins?
A. Lysosome C. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q.33 Golgi apparatus in plants are known as:
A. Microsomes C. Glyoxysomes
B. Dictyosomes D. Polysomes
Q.34 The organelle that give rise vesicles containing cell wall synthesizing material in plants during
cytokinesis is __________.
A. Mitochondria C. Microtubules
B. Golgi complex D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.35 Golgi apparatus is absent in:
A. Blue-green algae C. Liver cells
B. Fungi D. Higher plants
Q.36 Lysosomes are known as:
A. Catalytic horses C. Storage batteries
B. Suicidal bags D. Cellular highway
Q.37 All of the following cell organelles are correctly paired to their synthetic products, except;
A. RER: Poly peptide C. Golgi body: Glycoproteins
B. SER: Steroids D. Lysosomes: Lysozymes
Q.38 Which of the following combination is correct for the enzymes of lysosomes?
A. Oxidative, Active at acidic pH C. Hydrolytic, Active at basic pH
B. Synthetic, Active at neutral pH D. Hydrolytic, Active at acidic pH
Q.39 A tadpole’s tail is gradually broken-down during metamorphosis. Which organelle increases in
number in the cells of the tail at this time?
A. Centriole C. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Lysosome
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Q.40 From which cell organelle are nucleic acids absent?
A. Chloroplast C. Lysosome
B. Mitochondria D. Ribosome
Q.41 Glycogenosis type II disease is characterized by the deficiency of:
A. Enzyme C. Hormone
B. Chemical messenger D. Ligand
Q.42 Which of the following act as “cellular waste disposal unit” in plants?
A. Cytosol C. Nucleus
B. Chloroplasts D. Vacuoles
Q.43 It is considered as osmoregulatory structure found in cell
A. DNA C. RNA
B. Chloroplasts D. Vacuoles
Q.44 What is found in both animal and plant cells?
A. Cellulose cell wall C. Chloroplast
B. Starch grain D. Vacuole
Q.45 Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments collectively form the:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Cytoskeleton
B. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus
Q.46 Higher plant cells normally lack:
A. Ribosomes C. Centrioles
B. Golgi bodies D. Cell membrane
Q.47 Which of the following is a pair of self-replicating organelles?
A. Nucleus and RER C. Mitochondria and chloroplast
B. Chloroplast and SER D. Mitochondria and Golgi bodies
Q.48 Aerobic respiration is performed by:
A. Mitochondria C. Chloroplast
B. Ribosome D. Golgi body
Q.49 In mitochondrion, the ATP synthase is present at________
A. Inner membrane C. Outer membrane
B. Matrix D. Inter-membrane space
Q.50 The number of mitochondria in a cell depends upon:
A. State of differentiation C. State of cellular metabolism
B. State of cell division D. All of these
Q.51 Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are similar in having:
(a) Two membranes (b) Cristae (c) DNA (d) Ribosomes (e) Thylakoids (f) Transcription enzymes
A. a, e and d C. a, b and d
B. a, f and d only D. a, c, d and f
Q.52 Plastids are developed from:
A. Vacuole C. Nucleus
B. Cell wall D. Proplastids
Q.53 The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the
chloroplasts are:
A. Grana C. Stroma lamellae
B. Stroma D. Cristae
Q.54 Which of the following plastids store Fat?
A. Aleuroplast C. Elaioplast
B. Leucoplast D. Amyloplast
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Q.55 Location of Chlorophylls and ribosomes in chloroplasts is respectively –
A. Granum and Intergranum C. Granum and Thylakoid lumen
B. Thylakoid lumen and stroma D. Grana and stroma
Q.56 Which cell organelle is incorrectly matched with its function?
A. Chloroplast - carbon fixation C. Mitochondria - ATP synthesis
B. Cell membrane - cell recognition D. Golgi apparatus - intracellular digestion
Q.57 Nucleic acid is not a part of
A. Nucleoplasm and mitochondrial matrix C. Mitochondrial matrix and stroma
B. Ribosomes and Chromosome D. Golgisomes and Glyoxisomes
Q.58 Nuclear envelope is a derivative of:
A. Membrane of Golgi complex C. Microtubules
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q.59 Which of the following cell structure contains the highest concentration of RNA?
A. Centriole C. Chromosome
B. Lysosome D. Nucleolus
Q.60 Nucleus controls the activity of cytoplasm by sending:
A. Enzymes C. ATP
B. Hormones D. RNA
Q.61 Nucleolus appear during
A. Mitosis C. Interphase
B. Karyokinesis D. Interkinesis
Q.62 Nucleoplasm is the transparent semifluid ground substance contains magnesium ions for the
synthesis of
A. Proteins C. Vitamins
B. Enzymes D. DNA and RNA
Q.63 How many chromosomes are present in spermatids of Drosophila melanogaster?
A. 8 C. 4
B. 32 D. 16
Q.64 Absence of which of the following structure is a distinctive feature of prokaryotes?
A. Membrane bounded organelles C. Nuclear envelop
B. Cytoskeleton D. All of these
Q.65 All are characteristics of prokaryotic cell except
A. Cell wall - murein C. Plasma Membrane – Lack Cholesterol
B. Plasma Membrane - Mesosome D. Cytoplasm – Lack Circular DNA
Q.66 Which of the following cell organelle is correctly paired to its synthetic body:
A. Lysosome – Golgi bodies C. Ribosomes – Nucleolus
B. Golgi bodies – SER D. All of these
Q.67 Mark the correct one
Organelle within organelle Cell within cell
A. Chloroplast Mesosome
B Ribosome Mitochondria
C. Mesosome Golgi bodies
D. Mitochondria Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.68 Which of the following organism contains sacculus
A. Bacillus anthracis C. Euglena
B. Mycoplasma D. Amoeba proteus

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 CHEMISTRY
Q.69 The probability of finding an electron between s-orbitals is zero whereas within a filled s-orbital it is
A. 95% C. 100%
B. 10% D. 55%
Q.70 Number of single covalent bonds in water molecule are
A. 1 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4
Q.71 Element with highest percentage in acetic acid is
A. Carbon C. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
Q.72 Each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum number, according to__________.
A. Aufbau principle C. Hund’s rule
B. Pauli’s exclusion principle D. None of these
Q.73 The e/m value of the positive rays depends on ______ enclosed in a discharge tube
A. Nature of gas C. Properties of gas
B. Composition of gas D. All of these
Q.74 Positive rays are also known as
A. X rays C. Gamma rays
B. Canal rays D. Cathode rays
Q.75 Azimuthal quantum number is represented by
A. n C. l
B. m D. s
Q.76 Limiting line of Balmer series in H-spectrum lies in______ region
A. Visible C. Ultraviolet
B. Infrared D. Far red
Q.77 n+ l value for 6d is
A. 5 C. 6
B. 7 D. 8
Q.78 All reactants are completely converted into product according to
A. Law of conservation of mass C. Stoichiometry
B. Law of definite proportions D. All of these
Q.79 Which ray has greater mass?
A. Alpha C. Beta
B. Gamma D. Proton
Q.80 Total no. of electrons that can be accommodated in f-subshell
A. 6 C. 14
B. 10 D. 18
Q.81 Number of electrons in 4s subshell of Cr?
A. 4 C. 5
B. 6 D. 1
Q.82 Magnetic quantum number of s is
A. 0 C. 1
B. 2 D. 3
Q.83 The ratio of volume between 4 moles of H2 and 16g of CH4
A. 1:2 C. 1:1
B. 1:8 D. 4:1
Q.84 The no. of valence electrons in 1 mole of He are
A. 25×6.02 x 1022 C. 2×6.02 x 1023
B. 1/2×6.02 x 1024 D. 2×3.01 x 1023
Q.85 The mass of water formed when 2g of H2 and 1.6g of oxygen react
A. 38g C. 1.8g
B. 26g D. 3.6g
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Q.86 Theoretical yield is
A. moles of gaseous products C. minimum product
B. maximum product D. product through experiment
Q.87 When 1/2 mole of Hydrogen reacts with excess of chlorine what mass of HCl is likely to form
A. 39 g C. 23 g
B. 71 g D. 36.5g
Q.88 1 mole of an ideal gas occupies a volume of 22.414dm3 at STP. If 22.414dm3 of different ideal gases
are present which of the following quantity is always the same for all of them
A. number of atoms C. Number of electrons
B. Number of molecules D. Number of protons in nucleus
Q.89 An atom of a specie weighs 14 amu, the atom is
A. He C. N
B. K D. Mg
Q.90 For which compound you find the same empirical and molecular formula?
A. water C. methane
B. ammonia D. all of these
Q.91 Which formula does not give moles of a substance
A. mass/ molar mass C. given volume/ molar volume
B. No. of particles/ NA D. mass × molar mass
Q.92 Limiting reactant is the reactant
A. giving highest efficiency of reaction C. giving highest yield of reaction
B. responsible for stopping reaction D. that controls theoretical yield of reaction
Q.93 A vessel contains 10g of N2, 10g of H2, 10g Ne and 10g of O2. Which one has largest number of atoms?
A. O2 C. H2
B. N2 D. Ne
Q.94 H2SO4→2H+ + SO-24 98g of H2SO4 constitute its
A. 1g atom C. 1g molecule
B. 1g ion D. 1g formula
Q.95 Which one of the following pairs has the same mass?
A. 1 mole of CO and 1 mole of N2 C. 1 mole of O2 and 1 mole of N2
B. 1 mole of CO and 1 mole of CO2 D. 1 mole of O2 and 1 mole of CO2
Q.96 The reactant which is consumed earlier and gives least quantity of product is called:
A. Excess reactant C. Catalyst
B. Limiting reactant D. Non-limiting reactant
Q.97 The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l having lowest energy are
A. n = 4, l= 1 C. n = 3, l = 0
B. n = 4, l =2 D. n = 3, l = 1
Q.98 A neutral atom that has only one electron in its 3d subshell has number of electrons in the
outermost shell.
A. 9 C. 2
B. 7 D. 5
Q.99 Maximum number of electrons in a shell of an atom is determined by the formula.
A. 2 + 1 C. 2n2
B. 4 - 1 D. 4 + 2
Q.100 The pair of orbitals that share the same value of n +l
A. 2s and 3px C. 3dxy and 3dyz
B. 1s and 2s D. 4f and 5p.
Q.101 Auf bau principle arranges subshells on the basis of
A. increasing l value C. increasing n value
B. increasing energy D. increasing n+l value

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Q.102 Which of these elements has the valence shell electronic configuration of 3s1
A. He C. Mg
B. Na D. K
Q.103 For an electron in different s-orbitals, the only quantum number that changes is
A. magnetic quantum number C. principal quantum number
B. azimuthal quantum number D. spin quantum number
Q.104 An oxide of an element (X) has 50% by mass of oxygen. X has a relative atomic mass of 32. The
empirical formula of oxide is
A) M2O C) MO
B) MO2 D) M3O4
Q.105 The decomposition of calcium carbonate generates 2.24 dm3carbon dioxide. How many moles of the
reactant were decomposed?
A. 2 moles C. 1 mole
B. 4 moles D. 0.1 mole
Q.106 The correct relationship w.r.t percentages of C, H and O in glucose is
A. C = H<O C. C<H=O
B. C>H>O D. H<C<O
2 -
Q.107 [Ar] 4s is the e configuration of
A. Ti C. Sc
B. K D. Ca
Q.108 Splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field can be explained by
A. n C. ℓ
B. m D. s
Q.109 The no. of shapes possible for orbitals of d - subshell
A. 3 C. 5
B. 7 D. 9
Q.110 An orbital can be regarded as
A. Sphere C. Spread of charge
B. Energy level D. Quantum of energy
st
Q.111 Moving from 1 to higher shells
A. Size of shells increase only C. Size of shells, subshells and orbitals increase
B. Size of shells and subs hells increases only D. Size of orbitals increases only
Q.112 The value of principal quantum no. which is not possible
A. 1 C. 4
B. 0 D. 6
Q.113 There is 95% chance of finding the only electron of hydrogen atom at a distance of ________ from
the nucleus
A. 10Ao C. 0.52nm
B. 0.053nm D. 95%
Q.114 Which two shells have the same number of electrons in 36Kr
A. 1,2 C. 2,3
B. 1,3 D. 2,4
Q.115 Principal quantum no. does not tell us
A. Size of shell C. Energy of shell
B. Distance from nucleus D. Spin of e-
Q.116 Which gas will form the lightest positive ray in discharge tube
A. N2 C. He
B. Ne D. O2
Q.117 Highest energy among followings is of
A. 4s C. 4d
B. 4p D. 3f

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Q.118 Two different hydrocarbons each contain the same percentage by mass of hydrogen. It follows that
they have the same.
A. Empirical formula C. number of isomers
B. Number of atoms in a molecule D. relative molecular mass
Q.119
e- e-
H H
a b
The electrons in a and b hydrogen atom can have the same values of
A. n only C. n, ℓ only
B. n, ℓ, m only D. n, ℓ, m, s
Q.120 When an electron remains between orbit, its momentum is:
A. Dequantized C. Quantized
B. Emitted D. Changes always
Q.121 An element or its compound is first____ to get its _____spectrum
A. Freezed, continuous C. freezed, line
B. volatilized, line D. volatilized, continuous
Q.122 Planck’s constant ‘h’ is:
A. 6.626 x 10-35 kJs C. 6.262 x 10 -31 Js
-34
B. 6.626 x 10 Js D. 6.262 x10 -32 kJs

PHYSICS
Q.123 If body is falling freely, distance covered after 3 seconds will be (g = 10ms-2)
A. 45m C. 54m
B. 90m D. 25m
Q.124 The “reaction” force does not cancel the “action” force because:
A. the action force is greater than the reaction force
B. they act on different bodies
C. they act in the same direction
D. the reaction force is greater than the action force
Q.125 The slope of v-t graph for uniform velocity is
A. 0 C. Negative
B. Positive D. Positive or negative
Q.126 The ratio of magnitudes of average velocity to average speed of a moving body in a straight line
A. always less than one C. always more than one
B. always equal to one D. equal to or more than one
Q.127 A racing car traveling with constant acceleration increases its speed from 10 m/s to 50 m/s over a
distance of 60 m. How long does this take?
A. 2.0 s C. 5.0 s
B. 4.0 s D. 8.0 s
Q.128 The displacement time graph for a moving particle is given below. The instantaneous velocity of the
particle is negative at the point.

A. D C. C
B. F D. E

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Q.129 Time of flight of projectile is
v sin  2v i sin 2 
A. i C.
g g
v i 2 sin  2v i sin 
B. D.
g g
Q.130 A ball is in free fall. Its acceleration is:
A. Downward during both ascent and descent
B. Downward during ascent and upward during descent
C. Upward during both ascent and descent
D. Upward during ascent and downward during descent
Q.131 A baseball is thrown vertically into the air. The acceleration of the ball at its highest point is:
A. Zero C. g, down
B. g, up D. 2g, down
Q.132 A newton is the force
A. Of gravity on a 1kg body
B. That gives a 1kg body an acceleration of 1m/s2
C. Of gravity on a 1g body
D. That gives a 1g body an acceleration of 1cm/s2
Q.133 A projectile is thrown at an angle of 30o with the horizontal has a range R1, and attains a maximum
height h1 –Another projectile thrown, with the same velocity at an angle 30o with the vertical has a
range R2 and attains a maximum height h2. The relation between R1 and R2 is
R
A. R 1  2 C. R1 =2R2
2
B. R1 =R2 D. R1 =4 R2
Q.134 In straight line motion the
A. Acceleration is parallel (or antiparallel) to the velocity
B. Acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity
C. Acceleration is vertical, while the velocity can be in any direction
D. Acceleration is vertical and the velocity is horizontal
Q.135 In projectile motion the
A. Acceleration is parallel (or antiparallel) to the velocity
B. Acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity
C. Acceleration is vertical, while the velocity can be in any direction
D. Acceleration is vertical and the velocity is horizontal
Q.136 When the average velocity of a moving body is equal to its instantaneous velocity then it is moving with
A. Uniform velocity C. Uniform acceleration
B. Variable velocity D. Variable acceleration
Q.137 How far does a car travel in 6s if its initial velocity is 2 m/s and its acceleration is 2 m/s2 in the forward
direction?
A. 12 m C. 24 m
B. 14 m D. 48 m
Q.138 If the initial speed of a projectile is doubled.
A. Its range will double C. Its range will quadruple
B. Its range will be decreased by a factor of two D. Its range will decrease by a factor of four
Q.139 Velocity and acceleration are in the same direction when
A. Velocity of a car is increasing on a straight road
B. Velocity of a car is decreasing on a straight road
C. Car is turning round a corner
D. None of these

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Q.140 The distance travelled is given by
A. Area under speed-time graph C. Area under distance-time graph
B. Slope of velocity-time graph D. Slope of distance-time graph
Q.141 If a body starts from a point, and returns back to the same point, then its
A. Average velocity is zero but not average speed
B. Both average velocity and average speed are not zero
C. Average speed is zero but not average velocity
D. Both average speed and average velocity are zero
Q.142 An object is dropped from rest. Its v-t graph is

A. B. C. D.
Q.143 If a projectile is thrown with 19.6m/s velocity at 30° with x-axis, time taken to reach highest point?
A. 1 sec C. 3 sec
B. 2 sec D. 4 sec
Q.144 Minimum number of equal forces that keep the body in equilibrium are:
A. Two C. Four
B. Three D. Five
Q.145 Two projectiles are fired at different angles with the same magnitude of velocity such that they have
the same range. At what angles they might have been projected?
A. 35° and 75° C. 10° and 50°
B. 25° and 65° D. None of the above
Q.146 A train takes 1 hour to go from one station to the other. It travels at a speed of 30 kmh–1 for first half
hour and at a speed of 50 kmh–1 for the next half hour. The average speed of the train is:
A. 45 kmh–1 C. 40 kmh–1
–1
B. 35 kmh D. 30 kmh-1
Q.147 Two balls projected at 30o and 60o with same initial velocities. The ratio of their maximum heights is
A. 1:2 C. 1:3
B. 1:4 D. 1: 2
Q.148 A graph is drawn with force along Y-axis and time along X-axis. The area under the graph represents
A. Momentum C. Moment of the force
B. Couple D. Impulse of the force
Q.149 At which point for a projectile its kinetic energy is completely converted into potential energy
A. at point of projection C. point to hit the ground
B. at the highest point D. not possible
Q.150 A 7.0 kg bowling ball experiences a net force of 5.0 N what will be its acceleration?
A. 7.1 ms-2 C. 5.0 ms-2
B. 0.71 ms-2 D. 35.0 ms-2
Q.151 The velocity time graph are inclined at 30 and 45o with time axis. The ratio of their acceleration
o

A. 3:2 C. 3 : 1
B. 1 : 3 D. None of these
Q.152 A force of 10 N acts on a body for 5 sec. What will be the change in momentum?
A. 10 N.s C. 50 N.s
B. 5 N.s D. 100 N.s
Q.153 A particle moves through half of a circle of radius 1.0m in one second
The magnitude of average velocity is
A. 3.14 m/s C. 1.9 m/s
B. 2.0 m/s D. Zero

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Q.154 A particle moves from A to B and then it moves from B to C as shown in figure.
Calculate the ratio between path length and displacement.

A. 2 C. 1/2
B. 1 D. Infinity
Q.155 A player throws a ball at an angle  with the horizontal, the height is maximum.
When  is equal to:
A. 0o C. 45o
B. 30o D. 90°
Q.156 Imran travels 2m with speed v1 and then 2m with speed v2, his average speed is:
v  v2 vv
A. 1 C. 1 2
2 v1  v 2
vv 2v1v 2
B. 1 2 D.
2 v1  v 2
Q.157 Forces in nature always occur in
A. Pairs C. Triplet form
B. Singlet form D. Octet form
Q.158 If a stone is released from moving train then the stone will follow
A. Hyperbolic path C. Straight path
B. Parabolic path D. Circular path
Q.159 Which law of motion is called law of inertia?
A. 1st C. 3rd
B. 2nd D. Law of gravitation
Q.160 A ball is projected at 45o its horizontal range is 10m. Velocity of projection is
A. 5 ms-1 C. 15 ms-1
B. 10 ms-1 D. 20 ms-1
Q.161 A body, whose momentum is constant, must have constant
A. Force C. Acceleration
B. Velocity D. All of these
Q.162 A force of 5N acts on a body of 5kg for 5 sec. The rate of change of momentum is
A. 25N C. 5 N
B. 50 N D. 125 N
Q.163 A 9 kg block is originally at rest on a horizontal smooth surface. If a horizontal force F is applied
such that it varies with time as shown in Fig. the speed of block in 4 s is:

A. 5 m/s C. 25 m/s
B. 15 m/s D. 30 m/s
Q.164 An aeroplane moving horizontally with 50 ms–1 drops a packet at 490 m height. Its time of flight is
A. 50 sec C. 10 sec
B. 40 sec D. 20 sec
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Q.165 A truck weighing 2500 kg and moving with a velocity of 21 ms-1 collides with stationary car weighing
1000 kg. The truck and the car move together after the impact. Calculate their common velocity.
A. 15 ms–1 C. 5 ms–1
–1
C. 10 ms D. 20 ms–1
Q.166 A 70 g ball collides with another ball of mass 140 g. The initial velocity of the first ball is 9 ms1 to the
right while the second ball is at rest. If the collision were perfectly elastic; what would be the velocity
of the two balls in ms–1 after the collision?
A. –3, 6 C. 6, –3
B. 3, 7 D. –7, 3
Q.167 When person moves in the coordinate system from A (0, 0) to B (5, 10), to C (8, 6), what is the
displacement covered?
A. 10 units C. 5 units
B. 7 units D. 15 units
Q.168 The maximum range of gum on horizontal terrain is 16 km. If g = 10 m/s2. What must be the
muzzle velocity of the shell?
A. 400 m/s C. 100 m/s
B. 200 m/s D. 50 m/s
Q.169 A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of a uniformly moving train. The path of coin for the
man will be
A. Vertical straight line C. Inclined straight line
B. Parabolic D. Horizontal straight line
Q.170 Which is the type of inertia?
A. Inertia of rest C. Inertia of motion
B. Inertia of direction D. All the above options
Q.171 Apparent weight of a body = actual weight of the body, if the body _____________
A. Moves with increasing velocity C. Remains at rest
B. Remains in a state of uniform motion D. Option B. and C.
Q.172 If the block P as shown in the figure below were to be at rest, what should the magnitude of force F be?

A. 5N C. 6N
B. 8N D. 10N
Q.173 On the roof of a train travelling on horizontal rails, a simple pendulum swing. If the pendulum’s
string is pointing towards the front, the train is:
A. Moving at a steady speed C. Moving with acceleration
B. Moving with retardation D. At rest
Q.174 The graph shows how the velocity of an object varies with time. Identify which row in the table
shows the displacement after 4 s and the acceleration of the object during the first 4 s.

Displacement (m) Accleration (ms–2)

A. 10 -10
B. 10 2.5
C. 0 2.5
D. 0 -10
E. 0 -2.5

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Q.175 A variable mass body with an initial mass of 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s initially, after
some time the velocity increases to 10 m/s, what is the new mass if the body is moving in the absence
of any external force?
A. 2.5 Kg C. 5 Kg
B. 7.5 Kg D. 10 Kg
Q.176 A ball falls from a building and covers 5m in 10s. What is the acceleration?
A. 0.1 m/s2 C. 0.2 m/s2
2
B. 9.81 m/s D. 10 m/s2
ENGLISH
FILL IN THE BLANKS
Choose the best option to complete the sentences given above and fill the circle corresponding to that letter
under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.177 Corned beef and cabbage a traditional meal in Ireland.
A. Is C. Are
B. Have D. Will have
Q.178 Fifty percent of the pies disappeared.
A. Will have being C. Have
B. Will has D. Has
Q.179 The Committee has appended a note to ______ report.
A. its C. their
B. one’s D. his
Q.180 Three parts of the business ______left for me to do.
A. are C. was
B. have D. were
Q.181 Fifty thousand rupees ______ a large sum to buy a gift for him.
A. had C. were
B. was D. has
Q.182 Every boy and every girl ______a packet of sweets.
A. are given C. have been given
B. has been given D. were given
Q.183 My friend and benefactor _____to meet me daily at my home for just fun.
A. comes C. have come
B. come D. are coming
Q.184 ______ your father and mother at home who invited me to talk about your behavior?
A. have C. is
B. was D. are
Q.185 At the end of the fall ___________ the hard tests.
A. comes C. come
B. coming D. has come
SPOT THE ERROR.
In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that
underlined segment of the sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the circle
corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.186 My favorite history professor, as well as some of his administrative staff, were asked
A) B)
to resign because fewer students were taking history courses than ever before.
C) D)

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Q.187 Stephanie claims that she wants to attend college after graduation, but her poor attitude
A) B)
about studying during senior year do not indicate that she enjoys being a student.
C) D)
In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill
the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.188
A. Historically there has been only two major factions in the Republican Party.
B. Historically there have been only two major factions in the Republican Party.
C. Historically there had been only two major faction in the Republican Party.
D. Historically there has been only two major faction in the Republican Party.
Q.189
A. The weak stays weak as long as they consider themselves weak.
B. The weak stays weak as long as he considers himself weak.
C. The weak stay weak as long as he considers themselves weak.
D. The weak stay weak as long as they consider themselves weak.
Q.190
A. Carlos is the only one of those students who are lived up to the potential described in the yearbook.
B. Carlos is the only one of those students who is lived up to the potential described in the yearbook.
C. Carlos is the only one of those students who has lived up to the potential described in the yearbook.
D. Carlos is the only one of those students who have lived up to the potential described in the yearbook.
Q.191
A. A large number of voters still votes along straight-party lines.
B. A large number of voters still vote along straight-party lines.
C. A large number of voters is still voting along straight-party lines.
D. A large number of voters was still voting along straight-party lines.
Q.192
A. The slaughter of animals for their fur were caused controversy.
B. The slaughter of animals for their fur will caused controversy.
C. The slaughter of animals for their fur may caused controversy.
D. The slaughter of animals for their fur has caused controversy.
Q.193
A. Your friendship over the years and your support has meant a great deal to us.
B. Your friendship over the years and your support have means a great deal to us.
C. Your friendship over the years and your support have mean a great deal to us.
D. Your friendship over the years and your support have meant a great deal to us.
Q.194
A. The professors in this college are nice, but they gives too much homework.
B. The professors in this college are nice, but they give too many homework.
C. The professors in this college are nice, but they give much too homework.
D. The professors in this college are nice, but they give too much homework.

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 LOGICAL REASONING
Q.195 “If the forest continues to disappear at its present pace, the Royal Bengal tiger will approach
extinction,” said the biologist. “So, all that is needed to save the tiger is to stop deforestation,” said
the politician. Which one of the following statements is consistent with the biologist’s claim but not
with the politician’s claim?
A. Deforestation continues and the tiger becomes extinct.
B. Deforestation is stopped and the tiger becomes extinct.
C. Reforestation begins and the tiger survives.
D. Deforestation is slowed and the tiger approaches extinction.
Q.196 An Informal Gathering occurs when a group of people get together in a casual, relaxed manner.
Which situation below is the best example of an Informal Gathering?
A. The book club meets on the first Thursday evening of every month.
B. After finding out about his promotion, Jeremy and a few coworkers decide to go out for a quick drink
after work.
C. Mary sends out 25 invitations for the bridal shower she is giving for her sister.
D. Whenever she eats at the Mexican restaurant, Clara seems to run into Peter.
Q.197 Statement The CEO instructed his secretary to complete the data by tomorrow.
Assumptions
I. The secretary cannot do the work.
II. The secretary will give the complete work.
A. Only assumption I is implicit. C. Either I or II is implicit.
B. Only assumption II is implicit. D. Neither I nor II is implicit.
Q.198 Zubair has invited his three buddies over to watch the basketball game on his wide-screen television.
They are all hungry, but no one wants to leave to get food Just as they are arguing about who should
make the food run, a commercial comes on for a local pizza station that delivers. The phone number
flashes on the screen briefly and they all try to remember it. By the time Zubair grabs a pen and
paper, each of them recollects a different number.
Which of the numbers is most likely the telephone number of the pizza station?
A. 995-9266 C. 995-9268
B. 995-9336 D. 995-8266
Q.199 Statement - My 10-year niece is taller than my 12-year son
A. Always C. Sometimes
B. Generally D. Never
Q.200 Statement: Should the major part of school examinations be made objective type?
Arguments
I. No, objective type examination does not test student’s ability to express.
II. Yes, this is the best method of assessing one's ability and knowledge.
A. only Argument I is strong C. either I or II is strong
B. only Argument II is strong D. neither I nor II is strong

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