Xii Objectives.docx

XII - Chemistry
Volume – I & II
(2022-2023)
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PAGE
SN CONTENTS
No.
1 Metallurgy 3
2 p-Block Elements-I 7
3 p-Block Elements - II 10
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4 Transition and Inner Transition Elements
5 Coordination Chemistry 17
6 Solid State 20
7 Chemical Kinetics 24
8 Ionic Equilibrium 30
9 Electro Chemistry 33
10 Surface Chemistry 39
11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 44
12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 50
13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 56
14 Biomolecules 61
15 Chemistry in Everyday Life 65
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1. METALLURGY
EVALUATION:
I. Choose the correct answer:

1. Bauxite has the composition
a) Al2O3 b) Al2O3.nH2O c) Fe2O3.2H2O d)None of these
2. Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas (A).(A) is a colourless gas. Aqueous solution
of (A) is acidic. The gas (A) is a)CO2 b)SO3 c)SO2
d)H2S
3. Which one of the following reaction represents calcinations?
a) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO b) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 d) Both (a) and (c)
4. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon isa) PbO b) Al2O3c) ZnOd) FeO
5. Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Herold process? a) Al b) Ni c) Cu d) Zn
6. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore
before reduction is not true?
a) ΔGfo of sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2S .
b) ΔGro is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
c) Roasting of the sulphide to its oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides
7.Match items in column - I with the items of column – II and assign the correct code
Column – I Column – 2 A B C D
A Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B Froth flotationprocess (ii) Dressing of ZnS b) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
C Electrolyticrefining (iii) Extraction of Al c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
D Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au d) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(v) Purification ofNi
8. Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of
a) Smelting b) Calcinationc) Roasting d) Electromagnetic separation
9. Which one of the following is not feasible
a) Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq) b) Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)
c) Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) →Ag(s) + Cu2+(aq) d) Fe(s) + Cu2+(aq) →Cu(s) + Fe2+(aq)
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10. Electrochemical process is used to extracta) Iron b) Lead c) Sodium d) silver
11. Flux is a substance which is used to convert
a) Mineral into silicate b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities
c) Soluble impurities to infusible impurities d) All of these
12. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth – floatation method?
a) Magnetite b) Hematite c) Galena d) Cassiterite
13. In the extraction of aluminium from alumina by electrolysis, cryolite is added to
a) Lower the melting point of alumina b) Remove impurities from alumina
c) Decrease the electrical conductivity d) Increase the rate of reduction
14. Zinc is obtained from ZnO by
a) Carbon reduction b) Reduction using silver
c) Electrochemical process d) Acid leaching
15. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with cyanide ion. silver is later recoveredBy
a) Distillation b) Zone refining c) Displacement with zinc d) liquation
16. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to
reduce alumina? a) Fe b) Cu c) Mg d) Zn
17.The following set of reactions are used in refining Zirconium
a) Liquation b) van Arkel process c) Zone refining d) Mond’s process

18. Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in metallurgy?
a) Leaching b) Roasting c) Froth floatation d) Both (a) and (c)
19. The incorrect statement among the following is
a) Nickel is refined by Mond’s process b) Titanium is refined by Van Arkel’s process
c) Zinc blende is concentrated by froth floatation
d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute sodium chloride solution
20. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which one of the following is used as anode?
a) Pure copper b) Impure copper c) Carbon rod d) Platinum electrode
21. In the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of carbon monoxide
a)ΔSo/ΔT is negative b) ΔGo/ΔT is positive
c) ΔGo/ΔT is negative d) initially ΔT/ ΔGo is positive, after 700oC ,ΔGo /ΔT is negative
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22.Which of the following plot gives Ellingham diagram
a) ΔSVs T b) ΔGo Vs T c) ΔGo Vs 1/Tis negative d) ΔGo Vs T2 is negative
23.Which of the following reduction is not thermodynamically feasible?
a) Cr2O3+ 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr b) Al2O3 + 2Cr → Cr2O3 + 2Al
c) 3TiO2 + 4Al → 2 Al2O3 + 3Ti d) none of these
24.Which of the following is not true with respect to Ellingham diagram?
a) Free energy changes follow a straight line. Deviation occurs when there is a phase change.
b) The graph for the formation of CO2 is a straight line almost parallel to free energy axis.
c) Negative slope of CO shows that it becomes more stable with increase in temperature.
d) Positive slope of metal oxides shows that their stabilities decrease with increase in
temperature.
ADDITIONALQUESTIONS :
1. Which metal is used for extraction of Au and Ag and also for galvanization of iron
object? a)Mg b) Zn c)Cr d)Co
2. Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?
a)Bauxite b) Cryolite c) China clay d) Malachite
3. Name the process by which elements such as germanium ,silicon and galium are refined.
a) Vapour phase method b) Electrolytic refining
c) Zone refining d) Van–Arkel method.
4. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the
reduction of cuprous oxide with a)Ironsulphide(FeS) b) Carbon monoxide(CO)
c) Copper (I)sulphide (Cu2S) d) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
5.Concentration 0f copper glance is done by
a) leaching b) magnetic separation c) froth flotation d) hydraulic washing
6. Zone refining is based on a) fractional distillation b) simple distillation
c) sublimation d) fractional crystallization
7.The process of heating of copper pyrites to remove sulphur is called
a)froth flotation b)roasting c) calcination d) smelting
8.Malachite has ___ composition.
a) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 b) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 c) Cu2O d) Cu2S
9.Zinc blende is __ _ a)ZnS b) PbS c) Ag2S d) Cu2S
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10.In acid leaching process, the insoluble sulphide is converted into soluble sulphate andelemental
__ _ a)Carbon b) Lead c) Sulphur d) Zinc 11.Gibb’s free
energy is given by
a) ΔGo = -nFEo b) ΔGo = nF c) Δ Go = nFEo d) ΔEo = -nFGo
12.In the metallurgy of iron, limestone is added to coke .which acts as a
a) reducing agent b) oxidizing agent c) slag d) Flux
13.Froth flotation process is suitable for concentrating ore.
a) Oxide b) Carbonate c) Sulphide d)Halide
14.Metal oxide is converted into metal by
a) Calcination b) Roasting c) Smelting d) Bessemerisation
15.In Hall-Herold process, act as an anode.
a)Carbon blocks b) Hydrogen c)Copper rods d)Zinc rods
16. In froth floatation sodium ethyl Xanthate is used as a
a) Collector b) depressing agent c) frothing agent d) Flux
17. Which method is based on the solubility of the ore in a suitable solvent
a) Gravity separation b) Hydraulic wash c) Leaching d) Magnetic separation
18. Tin stone , Chromite and Pyrolusite are concentrated by process.
a) Gravity separation b) Hydraulic wash c) Froth flotation d) Magnetic separation
19.The process of ore into metal oxide with absence of air is called
a) Oxidation b) Cementation c) Galvanization d) Calcination
20. Metals having low melting points such as tin, lead, mercury and bismuth are refined by
a) Distillation b) Liquation c) Electrolytic d) Zone refining
21. Which one is used in the manufacture of many products such as paints,
rubber, cosmetics.a) Zinc carbonate b) Zinc oxide c)
Zinc metal d) Zinc sulphide
22. Which one is used for cutting tools and crushing machines.
a) Nickel steel b) Chrome steel c) Chrome vanadium steel d) Nichrome
23.Elingham diagram helps to selecta) suitable reducing agent b) appropriate temperature
c) both (a) and (b) d) oxidizing agent
24. The complex formed when NaCN is added to galena in which ZnS is the impurity
a) 2Na[Zn(CN)4] b) Na2[Zn(CN)4] c) 2Zn[Na(CN)2] d) Na4[Zn(CN)4]
25. Depressing agents used to separate ZnS from PbS is
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a) NaCN b) NaCl c) NaNO3 d) NaNO2
26. Which type of leaching process convert insoluble sulphide ore into soluble sulphates?
a) cyanide leaching b) alkali leaching c) acid leaching d) hand picking
2. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – I
EVALUATION:

1. An aqueous solution of borax is …………
(a) neutral (b) acidic (c) basic (d) amphoteric
2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule …………
(a) contains replaceable H+ ion (b) gives up a proton
(c) combines with proton to form water molecule
(d) accepts OH– from water, releasing proton.
3. Which among the following is not a borane?
(a) B2H6 (b) B3H6 (C) B4H10 (d) none of these
4. Which of the following metals has the largest abundance in the earth’s crust?
(a) Aluminium (b) calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Sodium
5. In diborane, the number of electrons that accounts for banana bonds is …………
(a) six (b) two (c) four (d) three
6. The element that does not show catenation among the following p-block elements is …………
(a) Carbon (b) silicon (c) Lead (d) germanium
7. Carbon atoms in fullerene with formula C60 have (a) sp3 hybridised
(b) sp hybridized (c) sp2 hybridised (d) partially sp2 and
partially sp3 hybridised 8.Oxidation state of carbon in its hydrides …………
(a) +4 (b) -4 (c) +3 (d) +2
9. The basic structural unit of silicates is …………
(a) (SiO3)2- (b) (SiO4)2- (c) (SiO)– (d) (SiO4)4-
10. The repeating unit in silicone is …………
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11. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone
polymer?
(a) Me3SiCl (b) PhSiCl3 (c) MeSiCl3 (d)
Me3SiCl3
12. Which of the following is not sp2 hybridised?
(a) Graphite (b) grapheme (c) Fullerene (d) dry ice
13.The geometry at which carbon atom in diamond are bonded to each other is …………
(a) Tetrahedral (b) hexagonal (c) Octahedral (d) none of these
14.Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate (b) Mg2SiO4 is an orthosilicate
(c) SiO44- is the basic structural unit of silicates (d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate
15. Match items in column – I with the

items of column – II ans assign the correct
code
16. Duralumin is an alloy of …………

(a) Cu, Mn (b) Cu, Al, Mg (c) Al, Mn (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg
17.The compound that is used in nuclear reactors as protective shields and control rods is …………
(a) Metal borides (b) metal oxides (c) Metal carbonates (d) metal carbide
18.The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence …………
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) Tl < In < Ga < Al (c) In < Tl < Ga < Al (d) Ga< In < Al < Tl
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :
1. More common oxidation state for halogens is …………
(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) -1 (d) -2
2. Electronic configuration of noble gases is …………
(a) ns2 (b) ns2np5 (c) ns1np6 (d) ns2np6
3. Noble gases are chemically inert. This is due to …………
(a) unstable electronic configuration (b) stable electronic configuration
(c) only filled p-orbital (d) only filled 5-orbital
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4. Noble gases are chemically inert. This is due to …………
(a) unstable electronic configuration (b) stable electronic configuration
(c) only filled p-orbital (d) only filled 5-orbital
5. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
6. Some elements exist in more than one crystalline or molecular forms in the same physical state
is called …………(a) isomerism (b) allotropism (c) isomorphism (d) isoelectronics
7. How many allotropes possible for boron? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
8. Important ore of boron is(a) bauxite(b) borosilicate (c) borax(d) P-tetragonal boron
9. Borontrifluoride reacts with sodium hydride at 450 K gives …………
(a) diborane (b) tetraborane (c) pentaborane (d) decaborane
10. Boron reacts with fused sodium hydroxide to forms …………
(a) Borax (b) Boric acid (c) Sodium borate (d) Sodium tetraborate
11. Which isotope is used as moderator in nuclear reactors?
(a) 10B5 (b) nC6 (c) 4He2 (d) 40Ca2
12. Compounds used as an eye lotion …………
(a) H3BO3 (b) HBO2 (c) H2B4O7 (d) B2O3
13. Which one of the following is called as inorganic benzene?
(a) B2H6 (b) BN (c) H2B4O7 (d) B3N3H6
14. Diborane reacts with excess ammonia at high temperature to give …………
(a) Boron nitride (b) Boron oxide (c) Borazole (d) Diborane diammonate
15. Consider the following statements.
(i) Diborane contains two centre-two electron bond.
(ii) In diborane, the boron has sp3 hybridis ed.
(iii) Diborane has two terminal B – H bonds and four B – H – B
bonds. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) only (d) (i) and (ii)
16. The structure of graphite is (a) planner (b) hexagonal (c) octahedral(d) bucky balls
17. CO and N2 mixture is …………(a) natural gas(b) producer gas (c) water gas (d) LPG
18. Syn gas is …………(a) CO + N2 (b) CO + H2 (c) CO2 + H2 (d) CO2 + N2
19. Critical temperature of CO2 is ………(a) -31°C (b) -13°C (c) 31°C (d) 13°C
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3. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – II
EVALUATION:

1. In which of the following, NH3 is not used?
(a) Nessler’s reagent (b) Reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical
(c) Reagent for the analysis of III group basic radical (d) Tollen’s reagent
2. Which is time regarding nitrogen?
(a) least electronegative element (b) has low ionisation enthalpy than oxygen
(c) d-orbitals available (d) ability to form pπ – pπ bonds with itself
3. An element belongs to group 15 and 3 rd period of the periodic table, its electronic
configuration would be (a) 1s22s22p4 (b) 1s22s22p3 (c) 1s22s22p63s23p2 (d)
1s22s22p63s23p3
4. Solid (A) reacts with strong aqueous NaOH liberating a foul smelling gas(B) which
spontaneously burn in air giving smoky rings. A and B are respectively …………
(a) P4(red) and PH3 (b) P4(white) and PH3(c) S8 and H2S (d) P4(white) and H2S
5. On hydrolysis, PCl3 gives (a) H3PO3 (b) PH3 (c) H3PO4 (d) POCl3
6. P4O6 reacts with cold water to give (a) H3PO3 (b) H4P2O7 (c) HPO3
(d) H3PO4 7.The basicity of pyrophosphorous acid ( H4P2O5) is (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 5
8. The molarity of given orthophosphoric acid solution is 2M. its normality is …………
(a) 6N (b) 4N (c) 2N (d) none of these
9.Assertion – bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas
Reason – chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
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10.Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) Cl2 (b) F2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
11.The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halide is (a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI (d) HI > HCl > HF > HBr
12.Which one of the following compounds is not formed?
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO3 (c) XeF2 (d) NeF2
13. Most easily liquefiable gas is …………
(a) Ar (b) Ne (c) He (d) Kr
14.XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces …………
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO2F4 (c) XeO3 (d) XeO2
15.Which of the following is strongest acid among all?
(a) HI (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HCl
16. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of
halogen molecules?(a) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2(b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2(d) Cl2 > Br2 >
F2 > I2
17.Among the following the correct order of acidity is …………
(a) HClO2 < HCIO < HClO3 < HClO4 (b) HClO4 < HClO2 < HCIO < HClO3
(c) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HCIO (d) HCIO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
18.When copper is heated with cone HNO3 it produces …………
(a) Cu(NO3)2 , NO and NO2 (b) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
(c) CU(NO3)2 and NO2 (d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
1. Nitrogen gas in atmosphere is separated industrially from liquid air by …………
(a) simple distillation (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Sublimation (d) Distillation under reduced pressure
2. Which one of the following is used in cryosurgery?
(a) Liq N2 (b) Liq NH3 (c) Liq Na (d) Liq H2
3. The dielectric constant of ammonia is (K) (a) 10-30 (b) 10-14 (c) 1030 (d)
1014 4. H – N – H bond angle in NH3 is …………(a) 109° 28’ (b) 107° 28’ (c) 104° (d)
107°
5. Shape of ammonia is ……(a) Planar (b) Square planar (c) Pyramidal(d) Square pyramidal
6. Nitric acid prepared in large scales using …………(a) Ostwald’s process (b) Haber’s process
(c) Contact process (d) Deacon’s process
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7. Benzene undergoes nitration reaction to form nitrobenzene in this reaction takes place due to the
formation of (a) Hydronium ion (b) Hydride ion(c) Nitronium ion(d) Nitrasonium ion
8. Compound used in photography is …………(a) AgNO3(b) AgBr (c) AgCl (d) AgI
9. Sodium nitrate (a) Photography (b) Firearms (c) Royal water (d) Cryosurgery
10. White (Yellow) phosphorous glows in the dark due to oxidation which is called …………
(a) phosphorescence (b) phosphorus (c) Fluorescence (d) Liminoscence
11. Yellow phosphorous reacts with alkali on boiling in an inert atmosphere liberates …………
a) Phosphorous acid (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Phosphine(d) Pyrophosphoric acid
12. Hybridisation of P in phosphine is (a) sp3d (b) sp3d2 (c) sp3d3 (d) sp3
13. Compounds used in Holme’s signal are …………(a) Phosphine + Acetylene (b) H3PO3+H3PO3
(c) Calcium carbide + calcium phosphide (d) Calcium carbonate + calcium phosphate
14. Shape of ozone ……(a) V-shape (b) Linear shape (c) bent shape(d) spherical shape
15. Sulphur di oxide, how many times heavier than air?
(a) 2 times (b) 2.5 times (c) 2.2 times (d) 2.3 times
16. Sulphuric acid can be manufactured by …………(a) Ostwald’s process (b) Lead chamber process
(c) Deacon’s process (d) Haber’s process
17. Sulphuric acid is manufactured by contact process, catalyst used in contact process is …………
(a) V2O5 (b) TiCl4 (c) Fe (d) Mo
18. Deacon’s process is used to manufacture …………(a) Cl2 (b) F2 (C) Br (d) I2
19. Catalyst used in Deacon’s process is …………(a) CuCl2 (b) Cu2Cl2 (c) CuBr (d) Cu2Br2
20. Passing chlorine gas through dry slaked lime to produce(a) CaOCl(b) CaOCl2(c) CaO(d) CaCl2
21. Which one of the following is a weak acid?(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
22. Reagent not stored in glass bottles? (a) HCI (b) HBr (c) HF (d) HI
23. The correct order of the acidity of hydrohalic acids?
(a) HF > HCI > HBr > HI (b) HCI >HF >HBr >HI
(c) HBr > HCI >HF > HI (d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF
24. Shape of ClF3 is …………(a) Linear(b) T-shape (c) Pyrimidal (d) Square planar
25. Which one of the following is more acidic?(a) HOCl (b) HCIO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4
26. Shape of XeF6 is(a) Octahedron (b) Distorted octahedron(c) Pyramidal (d) Tetrahedron
27. Which one of the following can penetrate through dense fog?a) He (b) Ne (c) Kr (d) Rn
28. Aquaregia a) 3 parts of con.HCl, one part of con.HNO3b) 1 part of con.HCl, 3 parts of con.HNO3
c) 3 parts of con.HCl, one part of con.H2SO4d) 1 part of con.H2SO4, one part of con.HNO3
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29. Shape of AX7 inter halogen compound
a) Square pyramidal b) pentagonal bipyramidal c) T shaped d) Linear
30. Structure of XeOF4
a) Square pyramidal b) pentagonal bipyramidal c) T shaped d) Linear
31. Hybridisation in XeF4
(a) sp3d (b) sp3d2 (c) sp3d3 (d) sp3
4. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS

EVALUATION:

1. Sc ( Z=21) is a transition element but Zinc (z=30) is not because ……………..
(a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
(b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
(c) last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of zinc
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
2. Which of the following d block element has half filled penultimate d sub shell as well as half filled
valence sub shell? (a) Cr (b) Pd (c) Pt (d) none of these
3. Among the transition metals of 3d series, the one that has highest negative (M2+/ M) standard
electrode potential is …………….. (a) Ti (b) Cu (c) Mn (d) Zn
4. Which one of the following ions has the same number of unpaired electrons as present in V3+?
(a) Ti3+ (b) Fe3+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Cr3+
5. The magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is (a) 5.92BM b) 2.80BM (c) 8.95BM (d) 3.90BM
6. The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly due to
(a) their magnetic behavior (b) their unfilled d orbitals
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states(d) their chemical reactivity
7. The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series ……………..
(a) VO+2 < Cr2O7−2 < MnO4– (b) Cr2O7−2 < VO+2 < MnO4–
(c) Cr2O7−2 < MnO4–< VO+2 (d) MnO4–< Cr2O7−2 < VO+2
8. In acid medium, potassium permanganate oxidizes oxalic acid to ……………..

(a) Oxalate (b) Carbon dioxide (c) acetate (d) acetic acid
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9. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) on passing H2S, through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
(c) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange in colour
(d) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
10. Permanganate ion changes to in acidic medium(a) MnO4−2(b) Mn2+ (c) Mn3+(d) MnO2
11. How many moles of I2 are liberated when 1 mole of potassium dichromate react with
potassium iodide? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
12. The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to oxidize 1 mole of ferrous oxalate(FeC2O4)
is (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 0.6 (d) 1.5
13. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?
(a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
(c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
(d) Ce4+ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in volumetric analysis.
14. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(a) Eu2+ (b) Yb2+ (c) Ce2+ (d) Sm2+
15. Which of the following oxidation states is most common among the
lanthanoids? (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3
16. Assertion: Ce4+ is used as an oxidizing agent in volumetric
analysis. Reason: Ce4+ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. .
17. The most common oxidation state of actinoids is
(a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +4 (d) +6
18. The actinoid elements which show the highest oxidation state of +7 are ……………
(a) Np, Pu, Am (b) U, Fm, Th (c) U, Th, Md (d) Es, No, Lr
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19. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
(c) La is actually an element of transition metal series rather than lanthanide series
(d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
1. Identify the transition metal present in Hemoglobin …………..
(a) Cobalt (b) Iron (c) Manganese (d) Copper
2. Which of the following transition metal is present in Vitamin B12?
(a) Cobalt (b) Platinum (c) Copper (d) Iron
3. The correct electronic configuration of Cr is …………..
(a) [Ar] 3d4 4s2 (b) [Ar] 3d5 (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (d) [Ar] 3d6
4. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of copper?
(a) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 (c) [Ar] 3d9 4s2 (d) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 4p1
5. Which one of the following is the general electronic configuration of transition elements?
(a) [Noble gas] ns2 np6 (b) [Noble gas] ( n – 2 ) f1-14(n-l)d1-10 ns2
(c) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 (n-l)f1-14 ns2 (d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 ns2
6. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature?
(a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Aluminium (d) Tungsten
7. Which one of the following is diamagnetic in nature? (a) Ti3+(b) Cu2+ (c) Zn2+ (d) V3+
8. Which of the following pair has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mn2+, Fe3+ (b) CO3+, Fe2+ (c) Cr3+, Mn4+ (d) Ti2+, V3+
9. Which one of the following is Zeigler – Natta catalyst?
(a) CO2(CO)8 (b) Rh/Ir complex (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 (d) Fe / Mo
10. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the polymerisation of propylene?
(a) V2O5 (b) Pt (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 (d) Fe / Mo
11. Which one of the following oxide is amphoteric in nature?
(a) CrO (b) Cr2O3 (c) Mn2O7 (d) MnO
12. The oxidation state of Chromium in CrO4−2 and in Cr2O7−2 are …………..
(a) +3, +6 (b) +7, +4 (c) +6, +6 (d) +4, +6
13. Which one of the following is the formula of chromyl chloride?
(a) CrOCl2 (b) CrCl3 (c) CrO2 Cl2 (d) CrCl
15
14. Which one of the following geometry is possesed by permanganate ion?
(a) Pyramidal (b) Tetrahedral (c) Octahedral (d) linear
15. Which one of the following is known as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 (b) Chromyl Chloride
(c) Acidified potassium dichromate (d) Acidified potassium manganate
16. Baeyer’s reagent is used to detect unsaturation in an organic compound.
(a) Chloride ion (b) unsaturated organic compound
(c) Sulphate ion (d) Chromate ion
17. Which one of the following is the main cause of lanthanoid contraction?
(a) Poor shielding effect of 5f sub-shell (b) More shielding effect of 4f sub-shell
(c) Poor shielding effect of 4f sub-shell (d) More shielding effect of 5f sub-shell
18. Which of the following pair has more or less same atomic radius due to lanthanide contraction?
(a) Ti and V (b) Fm and Md (c) No and Lr (d) Zr and Hf
19. Which one of the following is more basic in nature?
(a) La(OH)3 (b) Ce(OH)3 (c) Gd(OH)3 (d)
Lu(OH)3
20. Assertion (A) – In transition metal series, the ionization enthalpy increases.
Reason (R) – This is due to increase in nuclear charge corresponding to the filling of d electrons.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
21. Which one of the following elements show high negative electrode potential?
(a) Copper (b) Manganese (c) Cobalt (d) Zinc
22. Which one of the following transition element has maximum oxidation states?
(a) Manganese (b) Copper (c) Scandium (d) Titanium
16
5. COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
EVALUATION:

1. The sum of primary valance and secondary valance of the metal M in the complex [M(en)2(Ox)]Cl
is ……….. (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) -3 (d) 9
2. An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100ml of a 0.01M solution of pentaaquachlorido chromium
(III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be ……………..
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.002 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.2
3. A complex has a molecular formula MSO4Cl. 6H2O. The aqueous solution of it gives white
precipitate with Barium chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is treated with silver
nitrate solution. If the secondary valence of the metal is six, which one of the following correctly
represents the complex? (a) [M(H2O)4Cl] SO2. 2H2O (b) [M(H2O)6] SO4
(C)[M(H2O)5Cl] SO4. H2O (d) [M(H2O)3Cl] SO4. 3H2O
4. Oxidation state of Iron and the charge on the ligand NO in [Fe(H2O)5NO] SO4 are ……………..
(a) +2 and 0 respectively (b) +3 and 0 respectively
(c) +3 and -1 respectively (d) +1 and +1 respectively
5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the name of the complex [CO(en)2(ONO)Cl]Cl is ……………..
(a) chlorobisethylenediaminenitritocobalt (III) chloride
(b chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro k – Ocobaltate (III) chloride
(c) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diammine) nitrito k – Ocobalt (II) chloride
(d) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro k – Ocobalt (III) chloride
6. IUPAC name of the complex K3[Al(C2O4)3] is ……………..
(a) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium (III) (b) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (II)
(c) potassiumtrisoxalatoaluminate (III) (d) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
7. A magnetic moment of 1.73BM will be shown by one among the following ……………..
(a) TiCl4 (b) [COCl6]4- (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
8. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d5 octahedral complex is ……………..
(a) – 0.6∆0 (b) 0 (c) 2 (P – ∆0) (d) 2 (P + ∆0)
9. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of ∆0 will be maximum?
(a) [CO(CN)6]3- (b) [CO(C2O4)3]3- (c) [CO(H2O)6]3+ (d) [CO(NH3)6]3+
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10. Which one of the following will give a pair of
enantiomorphs?
(a) [Cr(NH3)6][CO(CN)6] (b) [CO(en)2Cl2]Cl
(c) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl4] (d) [CO(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
11. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] ?
(a) Coordination isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Optical isomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
12. How many geometrical isomers are possible for [ Pt (Py) (NH3) (Br) (Cl) ]?(a) 3(b) 4(c) 0(d) 15
13. Which one of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
(a) [Cu(NH3)4] [PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] (b) [CO(NH3)5(NO3)]SO4 and [CO(NH3)5(ONO)]
(c) [CO(NH3)4(NCS)2]Cl and [CO(NH3)4(SCN)2]Cl (d) both (b) and (c)
14. Which kind of isomerism is possible for a complex [CO(NH3)4Br2]Cl ?
(a) geometrical and ionization (b) geometrical and optical
(c) optical and ionization (d) geometrical only
15. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?
(a) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ (b) [Pt(NH3)2 Cl2] (C) [CO(NH3)5SO4]Cl (d) [Fe(en)3]3+
16. A complex in which the oxidation number of the metal is zero is ……………..
(a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (b) [Fe(CN)3(NH3)3] (c) [Fe(CO)5] (d) both (b) and (c)
17. Formula of tris (ethane-1, 2-diamine) iron (II) phosphate ……………..
(a) [Fe(CH3 – CH(NH2)2)3] (PO4)3 (b) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3] (PO4)
(c) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3](PO4)2 (d) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3](PO4)2
18. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
(a) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (b) [CO(NH3)6]3+ (c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
19. Facmer isomerism is shown by ……………..
(a) [CO(en)3]3+ (b) [CO(NH3)4(Cl)2]+ (c) [CO(NH3)3(Cl)3] (d) [CO(NH3)5Cl]SO4
20. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Square planar complexes are more stable than octahedral complexes
(b) The spin only magnetic moment of [Cu(Cl)4]2- is 1.732 BM and it has square planar structure.
(c) Crystal field splitting energy (Δ0) of [FeF6]4- is higher than the (Δ0) of [Fe(CN)6]4-
(d) crystal field stabilization energy of [V(H2O)6]2+ is higher than the crystal field stabilization of
[Ti(H2O)6]2+
18
1. What are primary and secondary valency of cobalt in
COCl3.6NH3? (a) 3, 3 (b) 6, 3 (c) 3, 6 (d) 6, 6
2. Consider the following statements.
(i) The outer sphere in coordination compound is called ionisation sphere.
(ii) The primary valences are non directional while secondary valences are directional.
(iii) The primary valances of a metal ion is negative and it is satisfied by positive
ions. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? .
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only
3. Which of the following is called Lewis acid in [Ni (CO)4]? (a) Ni2+(b) CO(c) Ni4+ (d) CO
4. The oxidation state of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]4- is (a) II (b) III (c) VI (d) IV
5. What is the coordination number of Pt in [Pt(NO2)(H2O)(NH3)2]Br?(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
6. Which one of the following is a homoleptic complex?
(a) [CO(NH3)3](Cl3)] (b) [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] (c) [Pt(NO2)(H2O)(NH3)2]Br (d) [Co (NH3)6]Cl3
7. Which one of the following is called as Zeise’s salt?
(а) [Pt (NH3)4] [Pt Cl4] (b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)] (c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (d) [Fe (CO)5]
8. [Pt (NH3)4] [Pt Cl4] is called as ……………..
(a) Zeigler Natta Catalyst (b) Zeises’ salt(c) Magnus’s green salt(d) Mohr’s salt
9. The IUPAC name of K4[Fe (CN)6] is ……………..
(a) Potassium hexacyanido Ferrate (III) (b) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (II)
(c) Potassium ferrocyanide (d) Potassium ferricyanide
10. The IUPAC name of [CO(NH3)4Cl2] Cl is ……………..
(a) Tetramminedichlorido cobalt (III) chloride (b) Dichloridotetrammine cobalt (III) chloride
(c) Tetrammine cobalt (III) trichloride (d) Tetramminedichloridocobaltate (III)
11. The formula of Hexafluorido ferrate (II) ion is ……………..
(a) [Fe F6]4- (b) [Fe F6]3- (c) [FeF6]2- (d) [FeF6]3+
12. [Cr (NH3)4Cl Br]NO, and [Cr (NH3)4Cl NO2] Br are examples of ……………..
(a) Linkage isomerism (b) Ionisation isomerism
(c) Coordination isomerism (d) Hydrate isomerism
13. Square planar complexes have type of hybridisation ……………..
(a) sp3 (b) dsp2 (c) sp3d (d) sp3d2
19
14. In octahedral geometry, the type of hybridisation involved is ……………..
(a) sp3d2 (b) d2sp3 (c) dsp3 (d) a or b
15. The geometry of [Fe (CN)6]3- is …………….. (a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral
(c) Square planar (d) Trigonamal bipyramidal
16. Which is used for the separation of lanthanides, in softening of hard water and also in removing
lead poisoning?(a) [Ni (CO)4] (b) EDTA (c) [Ni(DMG)2] (d) Ti Cl4 + AI (C2H5)3
17. Which complex is used as an antitumor drug in cancer treatment?
(a) Ca – EDTA chelate (b) EDTA (c) Ti Cl4 + Al(C2H5)3 (d) Cis – Platin
18. The IUPAC name of Zeise’s salt is ……………..
(a) Tetramminecopper (II) sulphate (b) FerrousAmmoniumsulphate
(c) Tetracyanocopper (II) Sulphate (d) Potassiumtrichloro (ethene) platinate (II)
19. The CFSE is the highest for ……………..
(a) [CO F4]2- (b) [CO (NCS)4]2- (c) [CO (NH3)]3+ (d) [CO Cl4]2-
20. The hybridization involved in the complex [Ni (CN)4]2- is ……………..
(a) sp3 (b) d2 sp3+ (c) dsp2 (d) sp3d2
21. Assertion (A) – [CO(NH3)4Br2]CI and [CO(NH3)4Cl Br] Br are examples of ionisation isomers.
Reason (R) – The exchange of counter ions with one or more ligands in the coordination entity will
result in ionisation isomers.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A and R are wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
6. SOLID STATE
EVALUATION:
1. Graphite and diamond are (a) Covalent and molecular crystals
(b) ionic and covalent (c) both covalent crystals (d) both molecular crystals
2. An ionic compound Ax By crystallizes in fee type crystal structure with B ions at the centre of
each face and A ion occupying centre of the cube, the correct formula of A B is ………..
(a) AB (b) AB3 (c) A3B (d) A8B6
3. The ratio of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing is ………..
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:4
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4. Solid CO2 is an example of ………..
(a) Covalent solid (b) metallic solid (c) molecular solid (d) ionic solid
5. Assertion: monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal
system. Reason: for a monoclinic system, a ≠ b ≠ c and α = γ = 90° , β ≠ 90°.
6. In calcium fluoride, having the flurite structure the coordination number of Ca2+ ion and F Ion are
(a) 4 and 2 (b) 6 and 6 (c) 8 and 4 (d) 4 and 8
7. The number of unit cells in 8gm of an element X (atomic mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc
pattern is (NA is the Avogadro number)
(a) 6.023 x 1023 (b) 6.023 x 1022 (c) 60.23 x 1023 (d) (6.023×1023/ (8×40)
8. In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and (1/3) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N.
Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.
(a) MN (b) M3N (C) MN3 (d) M3N2
9. The ionic radii of A+ and B– are 0.98 x 10-10 m and 1.81 x 10-10 m , the coordination number of
each ion in AB is ………..(a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4
10. CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm, its inter atomic distance is ………..
(a) 400pm (b) 800pm (c) √3 x 100pm (d) (√3/2) x 400 pm
11. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure, if the radius of the cation is 100pm , the radius of
the anion will be ……….. (a) (100/0.414) (b) (0.732/100) (c) 100 x 0.414 (d) (0.414/100)
12. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is ………..
(a) 48% (b) 23% (c) 32% (d) 26%
13. The radius of an atom is 300pm, if it crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice, the length of
the edge of the unit cell is (a) 488.5pm(b) 848.5pm (c) 884.5pm (d) 484.5pm
14. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a simple cubic is ………..
(a) (π/ 4√2 ) (b) (π/6) (c) (π/4) (d) (π/ √3/2)
15. The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to ………..
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers (b) reflection of light from Cl– ion on the surface
(c) refraction of light from Na+ ion (d) all of the above
21
16. If ’a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc ,bcc, and fcc. Then the ratio of
radii of spheres in these systems will be respectively.
17. If a is the length of the side of the cube, the distance between the body centered atom and
one comer atom in the cube will be (a) (2/√3)a (b) (4/√3)a (c) (√3/4)a (d)
(√3/2)a
18. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbor distance 4.52 A. its atomic weight is
39. Its density will be ……….. (a) 915 kg m-3 (b) 2142 kg m-3 (c) 452 kg
m-3(d) 390 kg m-3
19. Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when ………..
(a) unequal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(b) equal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice
(e) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(d) no ion is missing from its lattice.
20. The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial position, the
defect in the crystal is known as ………..
(a) Schottky defect (b) F center (c) Frenkel defect (d) non-stoichiometric defect
21. Assertion – due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid
decreases. Reason – in Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
22. The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is(a) NaCI (b) FeO (c) ZnO (a) KCI
23. A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different atoms X and Y is shown below. The
black and white squares represent atoms X and Y respectively. The simplest
formula for the compound based on the unit cell from the pattern is
(a) XY8 (b) X4Y9 (c) XY2 (d) XY4

22
1. Which one of the following is an amorphous solid?
(a) Glass (b) SiO2 (c) NaCl (d) Na
2. Which one of the following is an example for molecular crystals?
(a) Diamond (b) Silica (c) Glass (d) Naphthalene
3. Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?
(a) Glass (b) Diamond (c) Anthracene (d) Glucose
4. In an ionic crystal, both cations and anions are bound together by ………..
(a) Strong electrostatic attractive forces (b) Weak electrostatic attractive forces
(c) Vanderwaals forces of attraction (d) Weak cohesive forces
5. In non polar molecular solids, molecules are held together by ………..
(a) London forces (b) weak vanderwaals forces
(c) Strong electrostatic forces (d) strong cohesive forces
6. Solid NH3 solid CO2 are examples of ………..
(a) Covalent solid (b) polar molecular solids (c) molecular solids (d) ionic solids
7. Each atom in the comer of the cubic unit cell is shared by how many
unit cells? (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 12
8. The number of atoms belongs to fcc unit cell is ……….(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12
9. The atoms the face centre is being shared by ………..(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
10. Which is the packing fraction in simple cubic unit cell?(a) 52.31%(b) 100%(c) 68%(d) 75%
11. The packing fraction in bcc arrangement is ………..(a) 52.3 1% (b) 68%(c) 100% (d) 80%
12. Which is the coordination number in both hcp and ccp arrangements?(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 8
13. The coordination number of zinc sulphide is ………..(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
14. Which one of the following is the coordination number of NaCl?(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
15. Which one of the following is an example for Frenkel defect?
(a) NaCl (b) AgCI (c) AgBr (d) AgNO3
16. Which one of the following is the metal deficiency defect?
(a) FeO (b) ZnO (c) KCl (d) NaCl
17. Which one of the following shows non- stoichiometric defect?
(a) FeO (b) AgBr (c) ZnO (d) Both a and c
18. Which one of the following is the packing efficiency in fcc unit cell?
(a) 74% (b) 52.6 1% (c) 100% (d) 68%
23
7. CHEMICAL KINETICS
EVALUATION:
1. For a first order reaction A → B the rate constant is x min-1. If the initial concentration of A
is 0.01M, the concentration of A after one hour is given by the expression.
(a) 0.01 e-x (b) 1 x 10-2 (1 – e-60x) (c) (1 x 10-2) e-60x (d) none of these
2. A zero order reaction X → Product, with an initial concentration 0.02M has a half life of 10 min.
If one starts with concentration 0.04M, then the half life is …………….
(a) 10 s (b) 5 min (c) 20 min (d) cannot be predicted using the given information
3. Among the following graphs showing variation of rate constant with temperature (T) for a
reaction, the one that exhibits Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is ……………
4. For a first order react ion A → product with initial concentration x mol L-1, has a half life period
of 2.5 hours. For the same reaction with initial concentration mol L-1 the half life is
(a) (2.5 x 2) hours (b) (2.5/2) hours (c) 2.5 hours
(d) Without knowing the rate constant, t1/2 cannot be determined from the given data
5. For the reaction, 2NH3 → N2 +
24
3H2, ifthen the relation between k1, k2 and k3 is
(a) k1 = k2 = k3 (b) k1 = 3 k2 = 2 k3 (c) 1.5k1 = 3 k2 = k3 (d) 2k1 = k2 = 3 k3
6. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction.
It is because the …………….
(a) rate is proportional to the surface coverage
(b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
(d) rate of decomposition is slow
7. For a reaction Rate = k [acetone]3/2 then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction
respectively is (a) (mol L-1 s-1), (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1) (b) (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1)
(c) (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1) (d) (mol L s-1), (mol1/2 L1/2 s)
8. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
(a) Enthalpy (b) Activation energy (c) Entropy (d) Internal energy
9. Consider the following statements:
(i) increase in concentration of the reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
(ii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = o
(iii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = o
(iv) a plot of ln (k) vs T is a straight line.
(v) a plot of In (k) vs (1T) is a straight line with a positive slope.
Correct statements are
(a) (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (v)
10. In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward direction
are respectively – x kJ mol-1 and y kJ mol-1. Therefore, the energy of activation in the backward
direction
is ……….. (a) (v – x)kJ mol-1 (b) (x + y) J mol-1 (c) (x – y) kJ mol-1 (d) (x + y) x 103 J mol-1
11. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised
from 200K to 400K? (R 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
(a) 234.65 kJ mol-1 K-1(b) 434.65 kJ mol-1 K-1(c) 434.65 J mol-1 K-1 (d) 334.65 J mol-1 K-1
12.12.
This reaction follows first order kinetics. The rate constant at particular temperature is
25
2.303 x10-2 hours. The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.25 M. What will be the concentration of
cyclopropane after 1806 minutes? (Log 2 = 0.30 10)
(a) 0.125 M (b) 0.215 M (c) 0.25 x 2.303 M (d) 0.05 M
13. For a first order reaction, the rate constant is 6.909 min-1.The time taken for 75%
conversion in minutes is ………… (a) (32) log 2 (b) (32) log 2 (c)
(32) log (3 (d) (23) log (43)
14. In a first order reaction x → y; if k is the rate constant and the initial concentration of the reactant x is
0.1 M, then, the half life is ……..
(a) (log2k) (b) (0.693(0.1)k) (c) (In2k) (d) none of these
15. Predict the rate law of the following reaction based on the data
given below: 2A + B → C + 3D
(a) rate = k [A]2 [B]
(b) rate = k [A][B]2
(c) rate = k [A][B]
(d) rate = k [A]1/2 [B]3/2
16. Assertion: rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of the reactant is doubles if it is a
first order reaction.
Reason: rate constant also doubles
17. The rate constant of a reaction is 5.8 x 10-2 s-1. The order of the reaction is ………….
(a) First order (b) zero order (c) Second order (a) Third order
18. For the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) +1/2 O2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as
6.5 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1 The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as
(a) (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) and (1.3 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1)
(b) (1.3 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) and (3.25 x 102 mol L-1s-1)
(c) (1.3 x 10-1 mol L-1s-1) and (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1)
(d) None of these
19. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48g O2 is formed per minute at certain
point of time. The rate of formation of water at this point is …………….
(a) 0.75 mol min-1 (b) 1.5 mol min-1 (c) 2.25 mol min-1 (d) 3.0 mol min-1
26
20. If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time for half reaction is also doubled.
Then the order of the reaction is …………(a) Zero (b) one (c) Fraction
(d) none
21. In a homogeneous reaction A ? B + C + D, the initial pressure was P0 and after time t it
was P. Expression for rate constant in terms of P0, P and t will be ……….
22. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction under
the same conditions would be completed in ………
(a) 20 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 35 minutes (d) 75 minutes
23. The half life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 560 days, 1 g of element
will be reduced to (a) 12 g (b) 14 g (c) 18 g (d) 116 g
24. The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that …………
(a) A first order reaction can be catalysed a second order reaction cannot be catalysed.
(b) The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on [A0] the half life of a second
order reaction does depend on [A0].
(c)The rate of a first order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.
(d) The rate of a first order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
second order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations,
25. After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes (116)th of original amount. Then the half life
(in mm) is ………………(a) 60 minutes (b) 120 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 15 minutes
1. Which one of the following is the unit of rate of reaction?
(a) s-1 (b) mol s-1 (c) mol L-1 s-1 (d) mol L s
2. Which of the following is the order of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide catalysed by I–
(a) First order (b) Second order (c) Zero order (d) Third order
27
3. Which one of the following is the unit of rate constant for a first order reaction?
(a) mol-1 L s-1 (b) mol L-1 s-1 (c) s-1 (d) mol L S
4. What is the order of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene?
(a) 1.5 (b) 3/2 (c) 5/2 (d) 1
5. Which one of the following is called pseudo first order reaction?
(a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde (b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester
(c) Isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene (d) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
6. The half life period of first order reaction is 10 seconds. What is the time required for
99.9% completion of that reaction?(a) 20 seconds(b) 1000 seconds(c) 100 seconds (d) 999 s
7. Which one of the following does not affect the rate of the reaction?
(a) Nature of the reactant (b) Concentration of the reactants
(c) Surface area and temperature (d) pressure
8. What is the order of radioactive decay?
(a) first order (b) zero order (c) second order (d) third order
9. t1/2 of the reaction increases with increase in initial concentration of the reaction means the order
of the reaction will be …………
(a) first order (b) zero order (c) second order (d) third order
10. Identify the reaction order if the unit of rate constant is s-1 ……….
(a) zero order reaction (b) second order reaction
(c) first order reaction (d) third order reaction
11. What is unit of zero order reaction?
(a) s-1 (b) mol-1 L-1 s-1 (c) mol L-1 s-1 (d) mol L s-1
12. Polymerisation reactions follows order kinetics.
(a) fractional (b) first (c) zero (d) Pseudo first
13. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by ……….
(a) changing concentration of the reactants
(b) Evaluating rate constants at standard temperature
(c) Evaluating rate constants at two different temperature
(d) Evaluating reIocities of reaction at two different temperature
28
14. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to ………
(a) the decrease in the number of collisions
(b) increase in the number of activated molecules
(c) the shortening of mean free path
(d) the lowering of activation energy
15. The minimum energy of a molecule would possess in order to enter into a fruitful collision
is known as (a) Reaction energy(b) collision energy(c) Activation energy(d) Threshold energy
16. Assertion (A): Powdered calcium carbonate reacts much faster with
dilute HCL than with the same mass of CaCO3 as marble.
Reason (R): For a given mass of a reactant, when the particle size decreases, surface area
increases. Increase in surface area of the reactant leads to more collisions per litre
per second and hence the rate of the reaction also increases.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R arc correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
17. Assertion (A): Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional
Reason (R): We cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
18. Assertion (A): If the activation enery of a reaction is zero, temperature will have
no effect on the rate constant
Reason (R): Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
29
8. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
EVALUATION:

1. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.24
×10-4mol L-1 solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is a) 2.42 ×10-8mol3L-3 b) 2.66 ×10-12
mol3L-3
c) 4.5 ×10-11 mol3L-3 d) 5.619 × 10–12 mol3L-3
2. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH of HCl
different concentrations.
i. 60 mL M/10 HCl + 40mL M/10 NaOH
ii. 55 mL M/10 HCl + 45 mL M/10 NaOH
iii. 75 mL M/5 HCl + 25mL M/5 NaOH
iv. 100 mL M/10 HCl + 100 mL M/10 NaOH
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? a) iv b) i c) ii d) iii
3. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 ×10-3gL-1 at 298K. The value of its solubility
product Ksp will be (NEET -2018). (Given molar mass of BaSO4 =233g mol -1)
a) 1.08 ×10-14mol2L-2 b)1.08 ×10-12mol2L-2
c) 1.08 ×10-10mol2L-2 d) 1.08 ×10-8mol2L-2
4. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The Solubility product of Ca(OH)2
a) 0.5 ×10-15 b) 0.25 ×10-10 c) 0.125 ×10-15 d) 0.5 ×10-10
5. Conjugate base for bronsted acids H O 2 and HF are
a) OH- and H2 FH+ , respectively b) H3O+ and F- , respectively
c) OH- and F- , respectively d) H3O+ and H2F+ , respectively
6. Which will make basic buffer?
a) 50 mL of 0.1M NaOH+25mL of 0.1M CH3COOH
b) 100 mL of 0.1M CH3 COOH+100 mL of 0.1M NH4OH
c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+200 mL of 0.1M NH4OH
d) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+100 mL of 0.1M NaOH
7. Which of the following fluro – compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
a) BF3 b) PF3 C) CF4 d) SiF4
8. Which of these is not likely to act as lewis base? a) BF3 b) PF3 C) CO d) F–
30
9. The aqueous solutions of sodium formate, anilinium chloride and potassium
cyanide are Respectively a) acidic, acidic, basic b) basic, acidic, basic
c) basic, neutral, basic d) none of these
10. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5NH) in a
0.10M aqueous pyridine solution Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 ×10 -9) is
a) 0.006% b) 0.013% c) 0.77% d) 1.6%
11. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 1,2 and 3 are mixed in a vessel. What
will be the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?
a) 3.7 ×10-2 b) 10-6 c) 0.111 d) none of these
12. The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility product 1.6 ×10-10 in 0.1M NaCl solution would be
a) 1.26 × 10-5M b) 1.6 ×10-9M c) 1.6 ×10-11M d) Zero
13. If the solubility product of lead iodide is 3.2 ×10-8 , its solubility will be
a) 2×10-3M b) 4 ×10-4M c) 1.6 ×10-5M d) 1.8 ×10-5M
14. MY and NY3 , are insoluble salts and have the same Ksp values of 6.2 ×10-13 at
room temperature. Which statement would be true with regard to MY and NY3 ?
a) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5M KY than in pure water
b) The addition of the salt of KY to the suspension of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their
solubilities
c) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
d) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
15. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1M NaOH and
0.01M HCl are mixed? a) 2.0 b) 3 c) 7.0 d) 12.65
16. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1×10-3 . In order to prepare a buffer
solution with a pH = 4, the [Acid] / [Salt] ratio should be a) 4:3 b) 3:4 c) 10:1
d) 1:10
17. The pH of 10-5M KOH solution will be
a) 9 b) 5 c) 19 d) none of these
18. H2 PO 4-- the conjugate base of
a) PO43− b) P2O5 c) H3 PO4 d) HPO42-
19. Which of the following can act as lowery – Bronsted acid well as base?
a) HCl b) SO42− c) HPO42− d) Br-
20. The pH of an aqueous solution is Zero. The solution is
a) slightly acidic b) strongly acidic c) neutral d) basic
31
21. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its
salts is given by
a) [H ]+ =Ka [acid] / [salt] b) [H+] = Ka [salt] c) [H+]=Ka [acid] d) [H= ]=Ka [salt] / [acid]
22. Which of the following relation is correct for degree of hydrolysis of ammonium
acetate?a) h = (Kh/C) ½ b) h = (Ka/Kb) ½ c) h = (Kh/KaKb) ½ d) h = (KaKb / Kh) ½
23. Dissociation constant of NH4OH is 1.8 x 10-5 the hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl would be
a) 1.8 ×10-19 b) 5.55 ×10-10 c) 5.55 ×10-5 d) 1.80 ×10-5
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
1. Which of the following is present in an antacid tablet?
(a) NaOH (b) Mg(OH)2 (c) Al(OH)3 (d) either (b) or (c)
2. Which of the following can act as an acid as well as base by Lowry – Bronsted theory?
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) NH4OH (d) Ca(OH)2
3. In the reaction HCI + H2O ⇌ H3O + Cl– which one of the acid-base pair?
(a) HCl + H3O+ (b) HCI + CI– (c) H3O + Cl (d) H2O + Cl–
4. In [Cr(H2O)6]3+ which one of the following acts as Lewis acid?
(a) Cr (b) Cr3+ (c) (HO)6 (d) Cr3-
5. The value of ionic product of water at 25°C is ………………..
(a) 1 x 10-7 (b) 1 x 107 (c) 1 x 10-14 (d) 1 x 1014
6. The pH of 0.001 M HCI solution is ………(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 11
7. Which of the following is not a buffer solution?
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (b) NH4OH + NH4Cl (c) H2CO3 + NaHCO3 (d) NaOH + NaCI
8. The conjugate base of H2O and H2SO4 are …………..
(a) OH– and HSO4 (b) H4O and SO42 -
(c) OH and SO42- (d) H3O and HSO4
9. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1.0 x 10-10. The equilibrium constant for the reaction with
strong base is (a) 1.0 x 10-5 (b) 1.0 x 10-9 (c) 1.0 x 109 (d) 1.0 x 1014
10. The pH of a solution at 25°C containing 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.03 M acetic acid is …………..
(pKa for CH3COOH = 4.57) (a) 4.09 (b) 5.09 (c) 6.10 (d) 7.09
11. A weak acid is 0.1% ionised in 0.1 M solution. Its pH is …………..
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
12. The pH of pure water or neutral solution at 50°C is (pKw = 13.2613 at 50°C)
(a) 7.0 (b) 7.13 (c) 6.0 (d) 6.63
32
13. What is the pH of 1 M CH3COOH solution?. Ka of acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5. K = 10-14 mol2 litre2.
14.14.
15. When solid potassium cyanide is added in water then ……………
16. pH of a solution is 5. Its hydroxyl ion concentration is ………….a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 10-5(d) 10-9
17. Which one of the following is a buffer?
18. By adding a strong acid to the buffer solution, the pH of the buffer solution ……………..
19. The unit of ionic product of water K is ……………
20. What is the correct representation of the solubility product constant of Ag2CrO4?
21. Which pair will show common ion effect?
9. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
EVALUATION:

1. The number of electrons that have a total charge of 9650 coulombs is
a) 6.22 ×1023 b) 6.022 ×1024 c) 6.022 ×1022 d) 6.022 ×10−34
2. Consider the following half cell reactions: Mn2+ + 2e− → Mn E°= -1.18V
Mn2+→ Mn3+ + e- E = -1.51V
The E°for the reaction 3Mn2+→Mn+2Mn3+ , and the possibility of the forward reaction
are respectively. a) 2.69V and spontaneous b) -2.69 and non spontaneous
c) 0.33V and Spontaneous d) 4.18V and non spontaneous
3. The button cell used is watches function as follows
Zn (s) + Ag2 O (s) + H2 O (l ↔) 2 Ag (s) + Zn2+ (aq) + 2OH- (aq)
the half cell potentials are Ag2O (s) + H O (l) + 2e-→ 2Ag (s) + 2 OH- (aq) E° = 0.34V
The cell potential will be a) 0.84V b) 1.34V c) 1.10V d) 0.42V
33
4. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic
conductivity of 5.76 ×10−3 S cm−1at 298 K isa) 2.88 S cm2mol-1 b) 11.52 S cm2mol-1
c) 0.086 S cm2mol-1 d) 28.8 S cm2 mol -1
5.
Calculate Λ°HOAC using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at
infinite dilution in water at 25°C . a) 517.2 b) 552.7 c) 390.7 d) 217.5
6. Faradays constant is defined as
a) charge carried by 1 electron b) charge carried by one mole of electrons
c) charge required to deposit one mole of substance d) charge carried by 6.22 ×1010 electrons.
7. How many faradays of electricity are required for the following reaction to
occur MnO4- → Mn2+ a) 5F b) 3F c) 1F d) 7F
8. A current strength of 3.86 A was passed through molten Calcium oxide for
41minutes and 40 seconds. The mass of Calcium in grams deposited at the cathode is
(atomic mass of Ca
is 40g / mol and 1F = 96500C). a) 4 b) 2 c) 8 d) 6
9. During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce
0.1mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3A is
a) 55 minutes b) 107.2 minutes c) 220 minutes d) 330 minutes
10. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1A
in 60 seconds is (charge of electron = 1.6 ×10−19C )
a) 6.22 ×1023 b) 6.022 ×1020 c) 3.75 ×1020 d) 7.48 ×1023
11. Which of the following electrolytic solution has the least specific conductance
a) 2N b) 0.002N c) 0.02N d) 0.2N
12. While charging lead storage battery
a) PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to Pb b) PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to PbO2
c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb d) PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb
13. Among the following cells I) Leclanche cell II) Nickel – Cadmium cell
III) Lead storage battery IV) Mercury cell
Primary cells are a) I and IV b) I and III c) III and IV d) II and III
34
14. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It
is Because a) Zinc is lighter than iron b) Zinc has lower melting point than iron
c) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
d) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
15. Assertion : pure iron when heated in dry air is converted with a layer of rust.
Reason : Rust has the compositionFe3O4
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.
16. In H2 -O2 fuel cell the reaction occur at cathode is
a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e− → 4OH− (aq) b) H+(aq) + OH− (aq) → H2O
(l) c) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) d) H+ + e- → ½ H2
17. The equivalent conductance of M/36 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 6mho cm2 equivalent -1
and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2 equivalent -1. The dissociation constant of this acid is
a) 1.25 ×10−6 b) 6.25× 10 -6 c) 1.25 ×10−4 d) 6.25× 10 -5
18. A conductivity cell has been calibrated with a 0.01M, 1:1 electrolytic solution (specific
conductance ( k =1. 25 × 10-3 S cm−1) in the cell and the measured resistance was 800 ohm at
25°C . The cell constant is, a) 10−1 c m−1 b) 101 c m−1 c) 1 c m−1 d) 5.7 10 -12
19. Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB (1:1 electrolyte) at 298K is
1.85 ×10−5 S m−1 . Solubility product of the salt AB at 298K (Λ°m)–AB = 14 ×10−3 S m2 mol−1 .
a) 5.7 × 10 -12 b) 1.32 ×10 -12 c) 7.5 ×10 -12 d) 1.74 10 -12
20. In the electrochemical cell: Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01M) || CuSO4 (1.0M) | Cu , the emf of this Daniel
cell is E1. When the concentration of is changed to 1.0M and that CuSO4 changed
to 0.01M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between
E1 and E2? a) E1< E2 b) E1> E2 c) E2≥ E1 d) E1 = E2
21. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf
values as shown in the diagram below: Then the species undergoing disproportional is
a) Br2 b) BrO4− c) BrO3- d) HBrO
35
22. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq) + 2l−(aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + l2 (aq)
E°cell= 0.24V at 298K. The standard Gibbs energy (Δ, G°) of the cell reactions is :
a) -46.32 KJ mol−1 b) -23.16 KJ mol−1 c) 46.32 KJ mol−1 d) 23.16 KJ mol−1
23. A certain current liberated 0.504gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper
can be liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution
a) 31.75 b) 15.8 c) 7.5 d) 63.5
24. A gas X at 1 atm is bubble through a solution containing a mixture of 1MY- and 1MZ-
at 25°C . If the reduction potential of Z > Y > X, then
a) Y will oxidize X and not Z b) Y will oxidize Z and not X
c) Y will oxidize both X and Z d) Y will reduce both X and Z
25. Cell equation : A + 2B- →A2++2B;
A2 + + 2e-→A E° = +0.34 V and log 10 K = 15.6 at 300K for cell reactions find E°forB
+
+ e− → B a) 0.80 b) 1.26 c) -0.54 d) -10.94
1. Electro chemical reactions are generally (a) Reduction reactions (b) oxidation reactions
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(c) Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation (d) Ostwald’s dilution law

9.
36
10. Kohlrausch’s law is applied to calculate
(a) molar conductance at infinite dilution of a weak electrolyte
(b) degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte
(c) solubility of a sparingly soluble salt
(d) all the above
11. The salt bridge used in Daniel cell contains
(a) Na2SO4 + NaCl(b) Agar-Agar gel + Na2SO4(c) Silica gel + CuSO4 (d) ZnSO4 + CuSO4
12. Which one of the following can act as an inert electrode?
(a) Graphite (b) Copper (c) Platinum (d) either a (or) e
13. The emf of Daniel cell Zn(s) + Zn2+aq(1m) || Cu2+aq(1m) | Cu(S) iS equal to …………
(a) – 1.107 Volts (b) 1.107 Volts (c) 3.4 Volt (d) 7.6 Volt
14. The value of EMF of standard hydrogen electrode at 25°C is …………
(a) maximum (b) zero (c) negative (d) positive
15. The electrode used in SHE is made of ………….
(a) graphite (b) copper (c) platinum (d) iron
16. The maximum work that can be obtained from a galvanic cell is ………..
(a) + nFE (b) – nFE (c) 2F (d) 96500 F
17. For all spontaneous cell reactions, the value of ?G should be ………….
(a) constant (b) zero (c) negative (d) positive
18. The value of one Faraday is equal to …………..
(a) 96400 C (b) 96500 C (c) 1 .602 x 10-19C (d) 1 .602 x 1019C
19. Which equation relates the cell potential and the concentration of the species involved in an
electro chemical reaction? (a) Henderson equation (b) Arrhenius equation
(c) Debye HuckelOnsagar equation (d) Nemst equation
37
20. Which one of the following is Nernst equation.
21. Which one of the following represents Faraday’s first law?

(a) m = Zit (b) m = Z/It (c) m = It/Z (d) Z = mIt
22. When 1 coulomb of electric current is passed the amount of substance deposited or liberated is
known as (a) equivalent mass (b) electro chemical equivalent
(c) molar mass (d) 1 Faraday
23. Which one of the following is used in cell phone, dry cell in flashlight?
(a) Zn – Cu battery (b) Li – ion battery (c) Ag – Cu battery (d) Na, NaCI battery
24. The primary batteries are ………..
(a) rechargeable (b) non – rechargeable (c) reversible (d) renewable
25. The anode and cathode used in Leclanche cell are respectively.
(a) Zinc, Graphite rod with MnO2 (b) Graphite rod in MnO2 and Zinc container
(c) Zn container and copper rod (d) Copper container and Zinc rod
26. Which electrolyte is used in Leclanche cell?
(a) ZnSO4 + CuSO4 (b) NH4CI + ZnCl2 (c) NaCI + CuSO4 (d) MnSO4 + MnO2
27. Which one of the following is used as cathode in Mercury button cell?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Zinc amalgamated with mercury (d) HgO mixed with graphite
28. Which one of the following is used as anode in Mercury button cell?
(a) HgO mixed with graphite (b) Zinc amalgamated with mercury
(c) Copper amalgamated with Mercury (d) HgO mixed with Copper
29. The value of cell emf of Mercury button cell is ………..
(a) 1.35V (b) – 076V (c) 0.34V (d) 100V
30. The electrolyte used in Mercury button cell is (a) Paste of kOH and ZnO
(b) CuSO4 + ZnSO4 (c) NaCl + MgCl2 (d) NH4CI + ZnCl2
38
31. Which of the following is an example of secondary batteries?
(a) Mercury button cell (b) Leclanche cell (c) Lead storage battery (d) Daniel cell
32. Which of the following act as cathode and anode in Lead storage battery?
(a) Lead plate bearing PbO2, spongy Lead (b) Spongy lead, lead plate bearing PbO2
(c) Lead Copper (d) Mercury oxide, PbO
33. Which one of the following is used as an electrolyte in H2O2 fuel cell?
(a) Aqueous CuSO4 (b) Aqueous CoO2 (c) Aqueous KOH (d) NH4CI + ZnCI2
34. The formula of rust is ………..
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe2O3.xH2O (c) FeO (d) FeO.xH2O
35. The electro plating of Zinc over a metal is called …………..
(a) Electrolysis (b) Redox reaction (c) Galvanisation (d) Passivation
36. Which amount of chlorine gas liberated at anode, if 1 ampere current is passed for 30 minutes
from NaCI solution? (a) 0.66 moles (b) 0.33 moles (c) 0.66 g (d) 0.33 g
10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY
EVALUATION:

1. For freudlich isotherm a graph of log x/mis plotted against log P. The slope of the line
and its y – axis intercept respectively corresponds to
a) 1/n, k b) log 1/n, k c) 1/n, log k d) log 1/n, log k
2. Which of the following is incorrect for physisorption?
a) reversible b) increases with increase in temperature
c) low heat of adsorption d) increases with increase in surface area
3. Which one of the following characteristics are associated with adsorption? (NEET)
a) ΔG and ΔHare negative but ΔS is positive b) ΔGandΔS are negative but ΔH is positive
c) ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive d)ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative.
4. Fog is colloidal solution of a) solid in gas b) gas in gas c) liquid in gas d) gas in liquid
5. Assertion : Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Na+ .
Reason : greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause
precipitation
39
6. Statement : To stop bleeding from an injury, ferric chloride can be applied. Which comment
about the statement is justified? a) It is not true, ferric chloride is a poison.
b) It is true, Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol
c) It is not true; ferric chloride is ionic and gets into the blood stream.
d) It is true, coagulation takes place because of formation of negatively charged sol with Cl-.
7. Hair cream is a) gel b) emulsion c) solid sol d) sol.
8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Emulsion – Smoke
b) Gel – butter
c) foam – Mist
d) whipped cream – sol
9. The most effective electrolyte for the coagulation of As2 S3Sol is
a) NaCl b) Ba (NO3) 2 c) K3 [Fe(CN)6] d) Al2 (SO4) 3
10. Which one of the is not a surfactant? a) CH3 (CH2)15 N+ (CH3)2 CH2Br
b) CH3 (CH2) 15 NH2 c) CH3( CH2 ) 16 CH2 OSO2 - Na+ d) OHC (CH2) 14 CH2 COO- Na+
11. The phenomenon observed when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution is
a) Cataphoresis b) Electrophoresis c) Coagulation d) Tyndall effect
12. In an electrical field, the particles of a colloidal system move towards cathode.
The coagulation of the same sol is studied using K2 SO4 (i), Na3 PO4 (ii),K4 [Fe(CN6) ]
(iii) and NaCl (iv) Their coagulating power should be
a) II > I>IV > III b) III > II > I > IV c) I > II > III > IV d) none of these
13. Collodion is a 4% solution of which one of the following compounds in alcohol – ether
mixture? a) Nitroglycerine b) Cellulose acetate c) Glycoldinitrate d)
Nitrocellulose
14. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?
a) manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process b) manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact
process c) hydrogenation of oil d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of all HCl
40
15. Match the following
A) V2O5 - i) High density polyethylene
B) Ziegler – Natta - ii) PAN
C) Peroxide - iii) NH3
D) Finely divided Fe - iv) H2 SO4
A B C D
a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
16. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation
of As2S3 are given below (I) (NaCl)=52 (II) ((BaCl2 )=0.69 (III) (MgSO4 )=0.22
The correct order of their coagulating power is
a) III > II > I b) I > II > III c) I > III > II d) II > III>I
17. Adsorption of a gas on solid metal surface is spontaneous and exothermic, then
a) ΔH increases b) ΔS increases c) ΔG increases d) ΔS decreases
18. If x is the amount of adsorb ate and m is the amount of adsorbent, which of the
following relations is not related to adsorption process?
a) x/m=f(P) at constant T b) x/m=f(T) at constant P
c) P = f(T) at constant m/x d) x/m= PT
19. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?
a) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion. b) Size of the ion alone
c) the magnitude of the charge on the ion alone d) the sign of charge on the ion alone.
20. Match the following
A) Pure nitrogen - i) Chlorine
B) Haber process - ii) Sulphuric acid
C) Contact process - iii) Ammonia
D) Deacons Process - iv) sodium azide (or) Barium azide
41
Which of the following is the correct option?
A B C D
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
1.
released is nearly equal to
2. Consider the following statements:

(i) In chemisorption, heat of adsorption is high
(ii) Monolayer of the adsorbate is formed during chemisorption
(iii) Physisorption increases with increase in
temperature. Which of the above statement is / are not
correct’?
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) only (c) (ii) only (d) (i) only
3. Which of the following gases is not a permanent gas?
(a) NH3 (b) H2 (c) N2 (d) O2
4. Which is employed in the softening of hardwater to absorb Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions?
(a) Alumina (b) Silica gel (c) Permutit (d) Charcoal
5. Which of the following is used in petroleum refining and refining of vegetable oils?
(a) Charcoal (b) Silica gel (c) Pcrmutit (d) Nickel
6. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils to obtain vanaspathi is …………
(a) Iron (b) Molybdenum (c) Nickel (d) Copper
7. The catalyst and promoter used in Haber’s process are respectively ………..
(a) Mo, Fe (b) Fe, Mo (c) Pt, H2S (d) Pt, V2O5
8. Which method is used for identification, detection and estimation of many substances even if
they are in micro quantities?(a) Lassaigne’s test(b) Canus method(c) Kjeldhals method(d)
Chromatography
9. Which one of the following is an example for heterogeneous catalysis?
(a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde by I2 catalyst
(b) Decomposition of H2O2 in the presence of Pt catalyst
(c) Acid hydrolysis of ester (d) Hydrolysis of cane sugar with mineral acid
42
10. The catalyst poison in contact process of manufacture of SO3 is …………
(a) As2O3 (b) H2S (c) CO (d) As2S3
11. In Haber’s process of manufacture of ammonia, the Fe catalyst is poisoned by the pressure of
(a) Mo (b) Co (c) H2S (d) As2O3
12. In the reaction 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O acts as a catalytic poison for Pt catalyst.
(a) Co (b) Mo (c) As2O3 (d) H2S
13. The negative catalyst in the decomposition of H2O2 is …………..
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Ethanoic acid (d) Methanol
14. The energy required for the reactants to reach the activated complex is called …………
(a) threshold energy (b) activation energy(c) internal energy (d) Gibbs free energy
15. Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of glucose into ethanol?
(a) maltase (b) invertase (c) diastase (d) zymase
16. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the conversion of Lindane to cyclohexane?
(a) Fe°/Pd° (b) Ni (c) Zn + HCl (d) LiAIH4
17. An example of liquid aerosol is ……….(a) Soda water (b) Milk (c) Fog (d) Inks
18. Which method is used to prepare metal sols?
(a) ultrasonic dispersion (b) mechanical dispersion (c) Bredigs arc method (d) peptisation
19. Which method is used to prepare mercury colloid?
(a) peptization (b) mechanical dispersion (c) ultrasonic dispersion (d) Bredig’s arc method
20. The conversion of a precipitate into colloid is called …………..
(a) coagulation (b) hydrolysis (c) condensation (d) peptisation
21. The process of conversion of colloidal solution into precipitate is known as …………..
(a) peptisation (b) dispersion (c) coagulation (d) decomposition
22. Which of the following is the size of the colloidal particle?
(a) 100 μm diameter – 1000 μm diameter (b) 1 mμ to 1 μm diameter
(c) 1 mμ to 100 μm diameter (d) 1 μm to 1 μm diameter
23. The shape of tungstic acid W3O5 sol is ………….
(a) spherical (b) disc (c) plate like (d) rod like
24. Which one of the following colloid has spherical shape?
(a) AS2S3 (b) Fe(OH)3 (c) W3O5 (d) dust
25. Tyndall effect is possible in colloid due to ……………
(a) absorption of light (b) adsorption of light (c) scattering of light (d) reflection of light
43
26. The migration of sol particles under the influence of electric field is called ……………
(a) electro osmosis (b) electro dialysis (c) electrophoresis (d) dialysis
27. The movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric potential is called ………….
(a) Electrophoresis (b) Cataphoresis (c) Electro osmosis (d) Electro dialysis
28. Which one of the following is not used to identify the types of emulsion?
(a) dye test (b) viscosity test (c) conductivity test (d) Tollen’s test
29. Which one of the following is used in the purification of drinking water?
(a) silver sol protected by gelatin (b) milk of magnesia
(c) Alum containing Al3+ (d) Argyrol
30. Which one of the following is used in tanning of leather?
(a) chromium salt (b) colloidal Au (c) Argyrol (d) Fe (OH)3
31. Which one of the following is used to distinguish Natural honey and artificial honey?
(a) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (b) Fehling’s solution (c) Arsenic suiphide sol (d) gelatin
32. Gold number gives ………………..
(a) the amount of gold present in the colloid
(b) the amount of gold required to break the colloid
(c) the amount of gold required to protect the colloid
(d) the measure of protective power of a lyophillic colloid
11. HYDROXY COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS
EVALUATION:

1. An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in victormayer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with
metallic sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the
possible structure of X? a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3 b) CH3 – CH (OH) – CH3
c) CH3 – C (OH) – (CH3) 2 d) CH3- CH2 –CH (OH) – CH2 – CH3
2. Which of the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide will give
tertiary alcohol. a) benzaldehyde b) propanoic acid c) methyl propanoate d) acetaldehyde
44
3.
4. In the reaction sequence, . A and X respectively are

a) Chloroethane and NaOH b) ethanol and H2SO4
c) 2 – chloroethan -1-ol and NaHCO3 d) ethanol and H2O
5. Which one of the following is the strongest acid
a) 2 - nitrophenol b) 4 – chlorophenol c) 4 – nitrophenol d) 3 – nitrophenol
6. on treatment with Con H SO 2 4, predominately gives
7. Carbolic acid is a) Phenol b) Picricacid d) benzoic acid d) phenylacetic acid

8. Which one of the following will react with phenol to give salicyladehyde after hydrolysis.
a) Dichlo methane b) trichloroethane c) trichloro methane d) CO2
𝐶𝑜𝑛 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4
9. (CH3) 3 - C - CH(OH) CH3 X (major product)
a) (CH3) 3 CCH = CH2 b) (CH3 ) 2 C = C (CH3 ) 2
c) CH2 = C(CH3 )CH2 – CH2 - CH3 d) CH2 = C (CH3 ) – CH2 – CH2 - CH3
10. The correct IUPAC name of the compound,
a) 4 – chloro – 2,3 – dimethyl pentan – 1-ol
b) 2,3 – dimethyl – 4- chloropentan -1-ol
c) 2,3,4 – trimethyl – 4- chlorobutan -1-ol
d) 4 – chloro – 2,3,4 – trimethyl pentan – 1-ol
45
11. Assertion : Phenol is more acidic than ethanolReason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
c) assertion is true but reason is false
d) both assertion and
reason are false.
12. In the reaction
The ‘Z’ isa) ethane b) ethoxyethane c) ethylbisulphite d) ethanol
13. The reaction Can be classified as
a) dehydration b) Williams on alcoholsynthesis

c) Williamson ether synthesis d) dehydrogenation of alcohol
14. Isoprophylbenzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives
a) C6H5COOH b) C6 H5 COCH3 c) C6 H5 COC6 H5 d) C6 H5 - OH
15. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized byresonance.
16. HO CH2CH2 – OH on heating with periodic acid gives
a) methanoic acid b) Glyoxal c) methanol d) CO2
17. Which of the following compound can be used as artireeze in automobile rediators?
a) methanol b) ethanol c) Neopentyl alcohol d) ethan -1, 2-diol
18. The reactions is an example of
a) Wurtz reaction b) cyclic reaction
c) Williamson reaction d) Kolbe reactions
19. One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C3 H8 O reacts completely with
two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the
iodoform test. The compound (A) is
a) propan – 2-ol b) propan -1-ol c) ethoxy ethane d) methoxy ehane
46
20. Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hotHI?
21. Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an /

a) SN1 reactions b) SN2 reaction
c) electrophilic addition d) electrophilic substitution
22. On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives
a) red colour b) violet colour c) dark green colour d) no colouration.
1. Which one of the following is named as sorbital?
2. Which one of the following is a primary alcohol?
3. Which of the following is a dihydric alcohol?

(a) Ethenol (b) Ethanol ] (c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol (d) Propan – 2 – ol
4. Which one of the following is an example of secondary (2°) alcohol?
(a) Propan – 2 – ol (b) Phenyl methanol (c) Ethenol (d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol
5. Which acts as an additive to petrol?
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethanol (c) Phenol (d) Methanol
6. The IUPAC name of
47
(a) 1 – methyl – 2 – propanol (b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol
(c) Tertibutyl alcohol (d) 2 – propanol
7. The TUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH2OH is …………
(a) Allyl alcohol (b) Propenc – 2 – ol (c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI (d) Isopropyl alcohol
8. Which one of the following is named as Baeyer’s reagent?
(a) acidified K2Cr2O7 (b) acidified KMnO4 (c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 (d) LiAlH4
9. Which one of the following is called Lucas reagent?
(a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous A1CI3
(c) LiAIH4 + H2O (d) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4
10. Which colour is given by secondary alcohol in Victor Meyer’s test?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Yellow
11. Which mechanism is followed in the conversion of ethanol to bromoethane by HBr?
(a) SN1 mechanism (b) SN2 mechanism (c) E1 mechanism (d) E2 mechanism
12. Which one of the following is the correct order of relative reactivities of alcohols in the
dehydration reaction? (a) 1° < 2° < 3° (b) 2° < 1° < 3° (c) 3° < 2° < 1° (d) 3° < 1° <
2°
13. Which reaction is used to convert alcohol to ketone / aldehyde in the presence of DMSO?
(a) Lucas test (b) Swern oxidation (c) Biological oxidation (d) Kolbe’s reaction
14. What is the name of the reaction between ethanol and ethanoic acid?
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification (c) Ethenfication (d) Hydroxylation
15. What is the product formed when ethylene glycol is heated at 773 K?
(a) Ethanal (b) Ethene (c) Ethane (d) Oxirane
16. Which one of the following is formed when ethane – 1, 2 – diol is treated with Conc. H2 SO4?
(a) 1, 4 – dioxane (b) Ethanal (c) Ethanoic acid (d) Ethene
17. Which one of the following is formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?
(a) Methanal (b) Methanol (c) Ethanol (d) Ethanal
18. Identify the product formed when glycerol is treated with nitric acid and conc. H2SO4?
(a) Nitroglycerine (b) Glyceryl triacetate (c) Prop – 2 – enal (d) Glyceric acid
19. Oxidation of glycerol with dil.HNO3 gives ………
(a) Meso oxalic acid (b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid
(c) Glycerose (d) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxy acetone
48
20. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidity in alcohol?
(a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol (b) 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol
(c) 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol > 3° alcohol (d) 3° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol
21. The other name of 1 , 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is called ……….
(a) Pholoroglucinol (b) Quinol (c) Pyrogallol (d) Hydroxy quinol
22. The IUPAC name of Catechol is known as ………..
(a) 1 , 3 – dihydroxy benzene (b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene
(c) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene (d) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene
23. The reaction of chiorobenzene with NaOH is known as ………..
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Riemcr – Ticmann reaction (c) Dow’s process (d) Cumene synthesis
24. What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with zinc dust?
(a) Cumene (b) Toluene (c) Ethyl benzene (d) Benzene
25. The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ……….
(a) Dow’s process (b) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(c) Reimer – Tiemann reaction (d) Williamson ether synthesis
26. Which one of the following is formed when phenol reacts with a mixture of Conc. HNO3 and
Conc.H2SO4? (a) Ortho nitro phenol (b) Para nitro phenol
(c) 1, 2 – dinitro phenol (d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol
27. The conversion reaction of phenol of salicylic acid is known as
(a) Schottan – Baumann reaction (b) Riemer – Ticmann reaction
(c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction (d) Williamson’s synthesis
28. What is the name of the reaction of phenol with chloroform and aqueous alkali?
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Cumene synthesis
(c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction (d) Schottan – Baumann reaction
29. Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with chloroform and sodium
hydroxide. (a) Chiorobenzene (b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Salicylic acid (d) Aniline
30. Which one of the following is formed when Phenol reacts with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) P – hyclroxy diazo phenol (b) P – hydroxy azo benzene
(c) O – hydroxy benzene (d) O – hydroxy azo benzene
31. Bakelite is formed when phenol reacts with ………..
(a) Methanol (b) Methanal (c) Ethanal (d) Ethanol
49
32. Which one of the following is an example for mixed ether?
(a) Methoxy methane(b) Phenoxy benzene(c) Methoxy benzene (d) Ethoxy ethane
33. Identify the product formed when ethanol is treated with Conc.H2SO4 at 413 K?
(a) Ethene (b) Ethane (c) 2 – butanol (d) Diethyl ether
34. The mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis is …………
(a) E1 (b) E2 (c) SN2 (d) SN1
35. Anisole undergoes bromination with Br2 in acetic acid in the absence of catalyst, the major
product formed is (a) O – bromoanisole (b) P – bromoanisole
(c) Benzyl bromide (d) Bromo benzene
36. Which one of the following is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery?
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethoxy ethane (c) Methoxy ethane (d) Methoxy propane
37. Oxygen atom in ether is …………
(a) very active (b) replacable(c) comparatively inert (d) less active
12. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS
EVALUATION:

1. The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction (NEET)
2. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of

a) nucleophilic substitution b) electrophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition d) Nucleophilic addition
3. Reaction of acetone with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition
followed by elimination of water. The reagent is a) Grignard reagent b) Sn / HCl
c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution d) hydrocyanic acid
4. In the following reaction,
50
Product ‘X’ will not give
a) Tollen’s test b) Victor meyer test c) Iodoform test d) Fehling solution test
5.
a) Formaldelyde b)diacetoneammonia c) hexamethylenetetraamine d) oxime

6. Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions
7. Assertion: 2,2 – dimethyl propanoic acid does not give HVZ reaction.
Reason: 2 – 2, dimethyl propanoic acid does not have – - hydrogen atom
8. Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds
9.
a) anilinium chloride b) O – nitro aniline
c) benzene diazonium chloride d) m – nitro benzoic acid
𝑃𝑏 /𝐵𝑟 2
10 . Ethanoic acid −−−−→2 – bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is called
a) Finkelstein reaction b) Haloform reaction
c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction d) none of these
11 .
a) acetylchloride b) chloro acetic acid c) α- chlorocyano ethanoic acid d) none of these
12. Which one of the following reduces tollens reagent a) formic acid b) acetic acid
51
c) benzophenone d) none of these
13.

a) but – 3- enoicacid b) but – 1- ene-4-oicacid
c) but – 2- ene-1-oic acid d) but -3-ene-1-oicacid
15.15.
16.
17. Assertion : p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin

condensation Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing
52
18. Which one of the following reaction is an example of disproporationation reaction
a) Aldol condensation b) cannizaroreaction c) Benzoin condensation d) none of these
19. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to
give the corresponding alcohol and acid a) Phenylmethanal b)
ethanal
c) ethanol d) methanol
20. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
a) Tollens reagent b) Fehling’s solution c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine d) semicarbazide
21. Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y.
X reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are
a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol
c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate d) none of these
22. In which of the following reactions new carbon – carbon bond is not formed?
a) Aldol condensation b) Friedel craft reaction c) Kolbe’s reaction d) Wolf kishner reduction
23. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn – H2O gives propanone and ethanol in equimolar
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product
“B” is
24. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols
of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their (NEET)
a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
b) formation of carboxylate ion
c) formation of intramolecular H-bonding d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding
1. The IUPAC name of Acrolein is (a) Prop – 2 – enal (b) Propanal
(c) Ethenal (d) 1 – butanal
53
2. The conversion of acetyl chloride to acetaldehyde by the action of Pd/BaSO4 is called ………………..
(a) Perkin’s reaction (b) Stephens reaction (c) Clemmenoon reduction (d) Rosenmund reduction
3. In Rosenmunds reduction, the action of BaSO4 is …………….
(a) Promoter (b) Catalyst poison (c) Positive catalyst (d) Negative catalyst
4. The conversion reaction of Benzene to Benzaldehyde is known as ……………..
(a) Rosenmund reduction (b) Stephen reduction
(c) Gattermann koch reaction (d) Friedel – crafts reaction
5. The product formed when Benzoyl chloride reacts with benzene is ………….
(a) Benzyl benzoate (b) Benzophenone (c) Benzyl chloride (d) Benzyl alcohol
6. Which one of the following is used as catalyst in Friedel Crafts reaction?
(a) Anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Anhydrous CuCl2 (c) Anhydrous AlCl3 (d) Androus CaCl2
7. Which one of the following is formed when methanal reacts with ammonia?
(a) Tetramethylene hexamine (b) Hexamethylene tetramine
(c) Formaldehyde ammonia (d) Aldimine
8. Which one of the following is used as, an urinary antiseptic?
(a) Urotropine (b) Urea formaldehyde (c) Formalin (d) Aldimm
9. Which one of the reactions gives an explosive RDX? (a) Nitration of phenol(b) Nitration of glycol
(c) Nitration of urotropine (d) Nitration of glycerol
10. The product formed when Acetone is subjected to Clemmenson reduction is ……………..
(a) Acetic acid (b) Propanoic acid (c) Propane (d) Propanal
11. The reaction of phenyl methanal and ethanal in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as ……
(a) Cannizaro reaction (b) Aldol condensation
(c) Claisen – schmidt condensation (d) Perkin’s reaction
12. Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with alcoholic KOH?
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Potassium henzoate (c) Benzoin (d) Benzoic acid
13. What is the name of the reaction between Benzaldehyde and acetic anhydride?
(a) Peridn’s reaction (b) Knoerenagalreaction(c) Cannizaro reaction(d) Kolbe’s reaction
14. Which one of the following is the formula of Schiff’ s base’?
(a) C6H5 – NH NH2 (b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5(b) Perkin’s reaction (d) Aldol condensation
15. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in Knoevenagal reaction?
(a) Pyrimidine (b) Pyridine (c) PCC (d) CdCl2
54
16. Which one of the following is used to test ketones?
(a) lodoformtest (b) Tollen’s reagent test (c) Fehling’s solution test (d) Benedict’s solution test
17. Which one of the following is used as a hypnotic?
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Formalin (c) Paraldehyde (d) Formaldehyde
18. Which one of the following is used as nail polish remover?
(a) CH3CHO (b) HCHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) C6H5COCH3
19. The reaction of acetic acid with Cl2 and red phosphorous is named as ………………
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(c) HeII – volhard – zelinsky reaction (d) Knoevenagal reaction
20. Which is one the correct order of strength of
carboxylic acid?
21. The correct increasing order acid strength of carboxylic acid is …………
(a) F – CH2 – COOH > I – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2 – COOH > Br – CH2 – COOH
(b) Br – CH2 – COOH > F – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH > Cl – CH2 – COOH
(c) F – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH
(d) Br – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2 – COOH > I – CH2COOH > F – CH2COOH
22. The conversion of Ethyl acetate to propyl acetate by the action of propyl alcohol is named as
(a) Esterification (b) Transesterfication
(c) Acid hydrolysis of ester (d) Alkaline hydrolysis of ester
23. Which one of the following is used as food preservative?
(a) Sodium formate (b) Sodium acetate (c) Sodium benzoate (d) Acetamide
24. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of medicine like aspirin and phenacetin?
(a) Acetyl chloride (b) Acetic acid (c) Acetamide(d) Acetic anhydride
25. Which of the following will not give iodoform test?
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Ethanol (c) Eth anal (d) Benzyl alcohol
55
26. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of reaction.
(a) N ucleophilic substitution (b) Electrophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic addition (d) Electrophilic substitution
27. The molecular formula of Urotropine is …………..
(a) (CH2)6N4 (b) (CH2)4N6 (c) (CH2)2N2 (d) (CH2)6N6
13. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
EVALUATION:

1. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline
a) Sn / HCl b) Zn,Hg / NaOH c) LiAlH4 d) All of these
2. The method by which aniline cannot be prepared
is
a) degradation of benzamide with Br2 / NaOH
b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis
with aqueous NaOH solution.
c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with acidic solution d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn / HCl
3. Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction
a) CH3CONHCH3 b) CH3 CH2 CON2 c) CH3 CONH2 d) C6 H5 CONH2
4. Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic
acid Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide.
5.
a) bromomethane b)α - bromo sodium acetate c) methanamine d) acetamide

6. Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid
56
NaOH
7. Aniline + benzoylchloride−−−→C6 H5 - NH - COC6 H5 this reaction is known as
a) Friedel – crafts reaction b) HVZ reaction
c) Schotten – Baumann reaction d) none of these
8. The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a prmary amine (NEET)
a) carboxylic acid b) aromatic acid c) schiff ’s base d) ketone
9. Which of the following reaction is not correct.
10. When aniline reacts with acetic anhydride the product formed is
a) o – aminoacetophenone b) m-aminoacetophenone
c) p – aminoacetophenone d) acetanilide
11. The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is
12.
13.13.
14. Nitrobenzene on reaction with Con.HNO3 / H2SO4at 80-100°C forms which one of the following
57
products? a) 1,4 – dinitrobenzene b) 2,4,6 – tirnitrobenzene
c) 1,2 – dinitrobenzene d) 1,3 – dinitrobenzene
15. C5H13 N reacts with HNO2 to give an optically active compound – The compound is
a) pentan – 1- amine b) pentan – 2- amine
c) N,N – dimethylpropan -2-amine d) N – methylbutan – 2-amine
16. Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form
a) red solution b) blue solution c) green solution d) yellow solution
17. Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?
a) t – butylamine b) ethylamine c) diethylamine d) triethylamine
18. Which one of the following is most basic?
a) 2,4 – dichloroaniline b) 2,4 – dimethyl aniline
c) 2,4 – dinitroaniline d) 2,4 – dibromoaniline
19. When is reduced with Sn / HCl the pair of compounds formed are
a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide

c) Ethanol, .NH2OH d) C3 H5 NH2 , H2 O
20. IUPAC name for the amine
a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane
b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3- amino pentane
c) 3 – N,N – trimethyl pentanamine
d) 3 – (N,N – Dimethyl amino) – 3- methyl pentane
21. 2
1
.
22. Ammonium salt of benzoic acid is heated strongly with P2O5and the product so
formed is reduced and then treated with NaNO2 / HCl at low temperature. The final
compound formed is a) Benzene diazonium chlorideb)
Benzyl alcohol
58
c) Phenol d) Nitrosobenzene
23. Identify X in the sequence give below.
24. Among the following, the reaction

that proceeds through an electrophilic
substitution, is :
25. The major product of the following reaction
Additional Questions :
1. Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?
(a) Pyridoxine (b) Histamine (c) Dopamine (d) Cyanocobalamine
2. Which one of the following is an example of primary nitro alkane?
(a) 2 – nitropropane (b) Ethyl nitrite (c) Nitro ethane (d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
59
3. Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ……………
(a) Position isomerism (b) chain isomerism (c) metarnersm (d) Tautomerism
4. Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?
(a) Nitro methane (b) Nitro propane (c) Nitro benzene (d) Nitro ethane
5. On direct nitration of nitro benzene gives ………………
(a) 0 – dinitro benzene (b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) p – dinitro benzene (d) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrobenzene
6. Which one of the following is formed when nitro methane reacts with chlorine and NaOH?
(a) CH3CI (b) CH3COCl (c) CCI3NO2 (d) CHCI2NO2
7. What is the IUPAC name of
(a) Tertiary butyl amine (b) Trimethyl amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine(d) N – methyl ethanamine

(a) Methyl iso propyl amine (b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine (d) propan – 1 – amine
9. In which reaction acetamide is changed to methylamine by the action of Br2/KOH?
(a) Gapriel phthalimide synthesis (b) Hoffmann degration reaction
(c) Mendius reaction (d) Mustard oil reaction
10. Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?
(a) Hoffmann ammonolysis (b) Rosenmund’s reduction
(c) Carbylamine reaction (d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
11. The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with Alumina is
(a) HVZ reaction (b) Sabatier – mailhe method
(c) Carbylamine reaction (d) Mendius reaction
12. The relative basicity of amine follows the order as ………….
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine> Arylamine
(b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amine > N – aralkylamine
(c) Arylamine Alkyl amine N – aralkylanilne
(d) N – aralkylamine< Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine
60
13. Identify the name of the reaction in which aniline reacts with Benzoyl chloride to form N – Phenyl
benzamide? (a) Hoffmann degradation reaction (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction (d) Mustard oil reaction
14. The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as …………
(a) Carbylamme reaction (b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation (d) Sand meyer’s reaction
15. Which one of the following reaction is used to identify primary amines?
(a) Schotten – Baumann reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction (d) Gattermann reaction
16. The reaction between methylamine and CS2 is known as ……………
(a) mustard oil reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction (d) Gabriel phthalirnide synthesis
17. The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride into chlorobenzene is known as …………
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer reaction (d) Coupling reaction
18. What is the name of the reaction in which benzene diazonium chloride react with benzene to give
Biphenyl? (a) Sandmeyer’s reaction (b) Gomberg reaction
(c) Gattermann reaction (d) Baltz – schiemann reaction
19. Chloropicrin is used as (a) antiseptic (b) analgesic (c) insecticide (d) fertilizer
20. Replacement of diazonium group by fluorine is known as …………..
(a) Gattennann reaction (b) Sandmeyer reaction
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction (d) Comberg reaction
21. Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Trimethyl amine (c) Dimethyl amine (d) methyl amine (b) Aniline
22. Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing ………….
(a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine (c) 3° amine (d) all the above
23. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of …………
(a) aliphatic 2° amine (b) Aromatic 1° amine
(c) Aliphatic l amine (d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine
14. BIOMOLECULES
EVALUATION:
61
1. Which one of the following rotates the plane polarized light towards left?
(NEET Phase – II) a) D(+) Glucose (b) L(+) Glucose (c)D(-) Fructose d) D(+) Galactose
2. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given
below Respectively is, (NEET Phase – I)1551
a) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose,
D-Threose b)D-Threose,D-Erythrose, L-Threose,
L-Erythrose, c)L-Erythrose, L-Threose,
D-Erythrose, D-Threose
d) D-Erythrose, D-Threose, L-Erythrose, L-Threose
3. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? (NEET Phase – I)
a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) maltose d) Lactose.
4. Glucose(HCN) Product (hydrolysis) Product (HI + Heat) A, the compound A is
a) Heptanoic acid b) 2-Iodohexane c) Heptane d) Heptanol
5. Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on
hydrolysis in the presence of little hydrochloric acid, it becomes
levorotatory. (AIIMS)
Reason: Sucrose hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this
change in sign of rotation is observed.
a)If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) if both assertion and reason are false.
6. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from
a) Amino acids Protein DNA
b) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
c) DNA RNA Proteins
d) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
7. In a protein, various amino acids liked together by (NEET Phase – I)
a) Peptide bond b) Dative bond c) α - Glycosidic bond d) β - Glycosidic bond
8. Among the following the achiral amino acid is (AIIMS)
a) 2-ethylalanine b) 2-methylglycine c) 2-hydroxymethylserine d) Tryptophan
9. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is (NEET Phase – I)
a) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinos and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
b) the sugar component in RNA is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
62
c) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in
DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
10. In aqueous solution of amino acids mostly exists in, a) NH2-CH(R)-COOH b)
NH2-CH(R)-COO c)H3N+-CH(R)-COOH d) H3N+-CH(R)-COO-
11. Which one of the following is not produced by body?
a) DNA b) Enzymes c) Harmones d) Vitamins
12. The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose are respectively
a) 1 and 4 b) 4 and 2 c) 5 and 1 d) 1 and 5
13. Vitamin B2 is also known as
a) Riboflavin b) Thiamine c) Nicotinamide d) Pyridoxine
14. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are a) Cytosine and Adenine b) Cytosine and Guanine
c) Cytosine and Thiamine d) Cytosine and Uracil
15. Among the following L-serine is
16. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone b) hydrophobic interaction
c) sequence of α-amino acids d) α-helical backbone.
17. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
18. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
a) L-Glucose b) D-Fructose c) D-Ribose d) D-Glucose
19. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
c) Denaturation makes protein more active
d) Insulin maintains the sugar level of in the human body.
20. Glucose is an aldose. Which one of the following reactions is not expected with glucose?
a) It does not form oxime b) It does not react with Grignard reagent
c) It does not form osazones d) It does not reduce tollens reagent
21. If one strand of the DNA has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, then the sequence
of complementary strand would be
a) TACGAACT b) TCCGAACT c) TACGTACT d) TACGRAGT
63
22. Insulin, a hormone chemically is
a) Fat b) Steroid c) Protein d) Carbohydrates
23. α-D (+) Glucose and β-D (+) glucose are
a) Epimers b) Anomers c) Enantiomers d) Conformational isomers
24. Which of the following are epimers
a) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Galactose (b) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Mannose
c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
25. Which of the following amino acids are achiral?
a) Alanine b) Leucine c) Proline d) Glycine
1. How many isomers are possible for glucose that have 4 asymmetric carbon atoms?
(a) 8 isomers (b) 16 isomers (c) 2 isomers (d) 4 isomers
2. How many asymmetric carbon atoms are in glucose?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
3. Which one of the following will reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution?
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Sucrose (d) Maltose
4. The specific rotation of pure α and β (D) glucose are respectively.
(a) 18.7°, 112° (b) 112°, 18.7° (c) 90°, 90° (d) 120°, 20°
5. Sugar differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre is known as ……………….
(a) epimers (b) isomers (c) anomers (d) monomers
6. Which is the product formed when fructose undergoes partial reduction with sodium amalgam and
water? (a) Sorbital + mannitol (b) D – mannose + D – galactose
(c) Gluconic acid + saccharic acid (d) Aldehyde + ketone
7. How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in
fructose? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 6
8. Two monosaccharides are linked by to form a disaccharide.
9. The enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is .
(a) zymase (b) invertase (c) diastase (d)
maltase
10. Which one of the following is an example of non – reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose (b) Dextrose (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
64
11. Which one of the following gives blue colour with amylose and purple colour with amylopectin?
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Fehling’s solution (c) Iodine solution (d) Bromic water
12. Which of the amino acid is optically inactive?
(a) Alanine (b) Valine (c) Glycine (d) Proline
13. Which one of the following is an example for globular protein?
(a) Kerating (b) Myoglobin (c) Collagen (d) Etastin
14. The chemical name of vitamin B9 is …………….
(a) biotin (b) folic acid (c) niacin (d) thiamin
15. The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is …………….
(a) thymine (b) cytosine (c) guanine (d) adenine
16. Which one of the following is a protein hormone?
(a) Insulin (b) Androgen (c) Cortisol (d) Estrogen
17. Which one of the following is a steroid?
(a) Insulin (b) Epinephrine (c) mutin (d) Estrogen
18. A nucleotide consists of (a) base and sugar (b) base and phosphate
(c) sugar and phosphate (d) base, sugar and phosphate
19. Which one is fouñd in ATP ribonucleotide?
(a) Guanine (b) Uracil (c) Adenine (d) Inulin
20. In nucleic acid, the correct sequence is ……………..
(a) base – phosphate sugar (b) phosphate – base – sugar
(c) sugar – base – phosphate (d) base – sugar – phosphate
21. In DNA, the complementary bases are
(a) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine (d) adenine and guanine; thymine and uracil
22. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains ……………
(a) Ribose sugar and tymine (b) Ribose sugar and uracil
(c) Doxyribose sugar and thymine (d) Deoxy ribose sugar and uracil
23. Haemoglobin is (a) an enzyme (b) a globular protein
(c) a vitamin (d) carbohydrate
24. The number of essential amino acid in man is (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 18
25. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
65
15. CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
EVALUATION:

1. Which of the following is an analgesic?
a) Streptomycin b) Chloromycetin c) Asprin d) Penicillin
2. Dettol is the mixture of
a) Chloroxylenol and bithionol b) Chloroxylenol and α-terpineol
c) phenol and iodine d) terpineol and bithionol
3. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms.

Identify which of the following statement is not true.
a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.
b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues.
c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.
d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants.
4. Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from
a) cellulose b) toluene c) cyclohexene d) starch
5. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
a) antagonists b) agonists c) enzymes d) molecular targets
6. Aspirin is a/an
a) acetylsalicylic acid b) benzoyl salicylic acid c) chlorobenzoic acid d) anthranilic acid
7. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?
8. Natural rubber has

a) alternate cis- and trans-configuration b) random cis- and trans-configuration
66
c) all cis-configuration d) all trans-configuration
9. Nylon is an example of
a) polyamide b) polythene c) polyester d) poly saccharide
10. Terylene is an example of
a) polyamide b) polythene c) polyester d) polysaccharide
11. Which is the monomer of neoprene in
the following?
12. Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?

a) HDPE b) PVC c) Nylon 6 d) PHBV
13. Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is
a) ethane b) prop-2-enenitrile c) chloroethene d) 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane
14. Assertion: 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerisation.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
15. An example of antifertility drug is
a) novestrol b) seldane c) salvarsan d) Chloramphenicol
16. The drug used to induce sleep is
a) paracetamol b) bithional c) chloroquine d) equanil
17. Which of the following is a co-polymer?
a) Orlon b) PVC c) Teflon d) PHBV
18. The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is
a) polystyrene b) PAN c) polyester d) polythene
19. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
67
20. A mixture of chloroxylenol and terpinecol acts as (NEET)
a) antiseptic b) antipyretic c) antibiotic d) analgesic
1. Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin (b) atenolol (c) amlodipine (d) propranolol
2. Which one of the following is an example tbr antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol (b) amoxicillin (c) cefixime (d) tetracycline
3. Which one of the following inhibits the bacterial growth?
(a) p – amino benzoic acid (b) sulphanilamide (c) folic cid (d) sodium benzoate
4. Which of the following is needed by many bacteria to produce folic acid?
(a) PABA (b) DHPS (c) TNB (d) GTN
5. Which one of the following binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function?
(a) antacids (b) antioxidant (c) antibiotics (d) antagonists
6. Which one of the following is used as an antacid?
(a) magnesium hydroxide (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) ranitidine (d) all the above
7. Which one of the following is used as painkiller?
(a) lodoform (b) chloropicrin (c) morphine (d) coffeine
8. Which one of the following is used to treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disorder and
schizopherenia?
(a) Tranquilizer (b) antibiotic (c) analgesic (d) opioids
9. Which one of the following is an example for tranquilizer?
(a) cimetidine (b) diazepam (c) histamine (d) PABA
10. Identify the medine that is used to treat stress, anxiety. depression and schizophrenia.
(a) valium (b) cimetidinc (c) chiorofom (d) adenosine
11. Which one of the following is used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation?
(a) antibiotic (b) antiseptic (c) antioxidant (d) antipyretic
12. Which of the following are used for post operative pain and pain of terminal cancer?
(a) morphine, codeine (b) ibuprofen, aspirin
(c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid (d) histidine, ranitidine
13. Which one of the following is an local anaesthetic?
(a) lidocaine (b) Propofol (c) iso flurane(d) ibuprofen
68
14. Which one of the following is an example of general anaesthetic?
(a) propofol (b) isoflurane (c) ranitidine (d) omeprazole
15. Identify the intraveneous general anaesthetics?
(a) milk of magnesia (b) lidocaine (c) omeprazole (d) iso fharane
16. Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine (b) ampicillin (c) erythromycin (d) milk of magnesia
17. Which of the following is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract and
skin infections?
(a) ampicillin (b) penicillin (c) terfenadine (d) azithromycin
18. Which one of the following is used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery?
(a) povidone – iodine (b) ethynylestradiol
(c) norethindrone (d) acetyl salicylic acid
19. Which one is used as preservatives for fresh vegetables and fruits?
(a) Palmitic acid (b) Palm oil (c) sodium meta suiphite (d) sulphur dioxide
20. Sodium salt of long chain allyl benzene sulphomc acids are called ……………….
(a) soap (b) detergent (c) disinfectant (d) antiseptic
21. Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) cellulose, silk (b) PVC, Polythene (c) Buna – N, Buna – S (d) Bakelite, Nylon 6,6
22. Which one of the following catalyst is used in the preparation of high density polyethylene?
(a) benzoyi peroxide (b) zeiglernatta catalyst
(c) ammonium per sulphate (d) hydrogen peroxide
23. Identify the zeiglarnatta catalyst.
(a) TiCI4 + (C2H5)3AI (b) (C2H5)4Pb + TiCl4 (c) AICl3 + HCI (d) ZnCI2 + Cone. HCI
24. Which one of the following is used as glass reinforcing material in safety helmets?
(a) nylon (b) Bakelite (c) terylene (d) orlon
25. Which one of the following is used to prepare combs and pens?
(a) navolac (b) soft Bakelite (c) hard Bakelite (d) neoprene
26. Which one of the following is used for making unbreakable crockery?
(a) phenol formal dehyde (b) melamine formal dehyde
(c) urea formal dehyde (d) navolac
69
27. What are the raw materials required to prepare Buna – S rubber?
(a) phenol + methanol (b) melamine + methanal
(c) styrene + butadiene (d) adipic acid + methanal
28. Which one of the following element is used in vulcanization of rubber?
(a) oxygen (b) nitrogen (c) carbon (d) sulphur
----ALL THE BEST----
ANSWER KEY
1. METALLURGY 16. c) Mg 5. c) froth flotation

17. b) van Arkel process 6. d) fractional
1. b) Al2O3.nH2O 18. d) Both (a) and (c) crystallizatio
2. c)SO2 19. d) In the metallurgy of n
3. c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 gold, the metal is leached 7. b)roasting
4. b) Al2O3 with dilute sodium 8. b) CuCO3Cu(OH)2
5. a) Al chloride solution 9. a)ZnS
6. d) Carbon and hydrogen 20. b) Impure copper 10. c) Sulphur
are suitable reducing 21. c) ΔGo/ΔT is negative 11. a) ΔGo = -nFEo
agents for metal sulphides 22. b) ΔGo Vs T 12. d) Flux
7. c) A – (iv) , B – (ii) , C – (iii) 23. b) Al2O3 + 2Cr → Cr2O3 + 13. c) Sulphide
, D – (i) 2Al 14. c) Smelting
8. d) Electromagnetic 24. b) The graph for the 15. a)Carbon blocks
separation formation of CO2 is a 16. a) Collector
9. b) Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) → straight line almost 17. c) Leaching
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) parallel to free energy 18. d) Magnetic separation
10. c) Sodium axis. 19. d) Calcination
11. b) Infusible impurities to 20. b) Liquation
soluble impurities ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 21. b) Zinc oxide
12. c) Galena 1. b) Zn 22. b) Chrome steel
13. a) Lower the melting point 2. d) Malachite 23. c) both (a) and (b)
of alumina 3. c) Zone refining 24. b) Na2[Zn(CN)4]
14. a) Carbon reduction 4. c)Copper (I)sulphide 25. a) NaCN
15. c) Displacement with zinc (Cu2S) 26. c) acid leaching
70
2. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – I 14. (c) Borazole 6. (a) Ostwald’s process
15. (d) (i) and (ii) 7. (c) Nitronium ion
1. (c) basic.
16. (b) hexagonal 8. (a) AgNO3
2. (d) accepts OH– from
17. (b) producer gas 9. (b) Firearms
water, releasing proton
18. (b) CO + 10. (a) phosphorescence
3. (a) B2H6
H2 19. (c)31°C 11. (c) Phosphine
4. (a) Aluminium 20. (c) Neso silicates 12. (d) sp3
5. (c) four 21. (b) Beryl 13. (c) Calcium carbide
6. (c) Lead 22. (a) Zeolite + calcium
7. (c) sp2 23. (c) Quartz phosphide
hybridised 8. (a) +4 14. (c) bent shape
9. (d) (SiO4)4- 15. (c) 2.2 times
16. (b) Lead chamber process
10. 1. (a) Nessler’s reagent 17. (c) V2O5
2. (d) ability to form pπ – pπ 18. (a) Cl2
bonds with itself 19. (b) Cu2Cl2
11. (a) Me3SiCl 3. (d) 1s22s22p63s23p3 20. (b) CaOCl2
12. (a) dry ice 21. (a) HF
4. (b) P4(white) and PH3
13. (a) Tetrahedral 22. (c) HF
5. (a) H3PO3
14. (d) Feldspar is a three 23. (d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF
6. (a)
dimensional silicate 24. (b) T-shape
H3PO3 7. (b) 2
15. (a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 25. (d) HClO4
8. (a) 6N
16. (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg 26. (b) Distorted octahedron
9. (d) Both assertion and
17. (a) Metal borides 27. (c) Kr
reason are false. The
18. (a) Al < Ga < In < Tl 28. a) 3 parts of con.HCL,
converse is true.
10. (b) F2 one part of con.HNO3
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 29. b) pentagonal bipyramidal
11. (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
1. (c) -1
12. (d) NeF2 30. a) Square pyramidal
2. (d) ns2np6
13. (c) He 31. (d) sp3
3. (b) stable electronic
14. (c) XeO3
configuration
15. (a) HI 4. Transition and
4. (b) stable electronic Inner Transition
16. (d) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
configuration Elements
17. (d) HCIO < HClO2 <
5. (a) Fluorine
HClO3 < HClO4
6. (b) 1. (c) in case of Sc, 3d orbital
18. (c) CU(NO3)2 and NO2
allotropism 7. (c) 6 are partially filled but in
8. (c) borax Zn these are completely
9. (a) diborane ADDITIONAL QUESTONS filled
10. (c) Sodium 1. (b) Fractional distillation 2. (a) Cr
borate 11. (a) 10B5 2. (a) Liq 3. (a) Ti
12. (a) H3BO3 N2 3. (a) 4. (c) Ni2+
13. (d) B3N3H6 10-30 4. (d) 5. (a) 5.92BM
107° 6. (c) their ability to
5. (c) Pyramidal adopt variable
71 oxidation states
7. VO+2 < Cr2O2−7 < MnO–4
8. (b)Carbondioxide 17. (c) Poor shielding effect of [V(H2O)6]2+ is is higher
9. (b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred 4f sub-shell than the crystal field
over K2Cr2O7 in 18. (d) Zr and Hf stabilization of
volumetric analysis 19. (a) La(OH)3 [Ti(H2O)6]2+
10. (b) Mn2+ 20. (a) Both (A) and (R) are ADDITIONAL
11. (c) 3 correct and (R) explains QUESTONS
12. (c) 0.6 (A). 1. (c) 3, 6
13. (c) All the lanthanons are 21. (d) Zinc 2. (c) (iii) only
much more reactive than 22. (a) Manganese 3. (a) Ni2+
aluminium 4. (a) II
14. (6) Yb2+ 5. (b) 4
15. (d) 3 6. (d) [Co (NH3)6]Cl3
16. (a) Both assertion and 7. (b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
reason are true and reason 1. (d) 9 8. (c) Magnus’s green salt
is the correct explanation 2. (b) 0.002 9. (b) Potassium
of assertion. 3. (c) [M(H2O)5Cl]SO4. H2O hexacyanido Ferrate (II)
17. (c) +4 4. (d) +1 and +1 respectively 10. (a)
18. (a) Np, Pu, Am 5. (d) chloridobis (ethane-1, Tetramminedichloridocob
19. (a) La(OH)2 is less basic 2-diamine) nitro k – alt (III) chloride
than Lu(OH)3 Ocobalt (III) chloride 11. (a) [Fe F6]4-
6. (d) 12. (b) Ionisation isomerism
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS potassiumtrioxalatoalumin 13. (b) dsp2
1. (b) Iron ate (III) 14. (d) a or b
2. (a) Cobalt 7. (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ 15. (b) Octahedral
3. (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 8. (b) 0 16. (b) EDTA
4. (b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 9. (a) [CO(CN)6]3- 17. (d) Cis – Platin
5. (d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1- 10. (b) [CO(en)2Cl2]Cl 18. (d)
10 ns2 11. (d) Geometrical Potassiumtrichloro
6. (b) isomerism 12. (a) 3 (ethene) platinate(II)
Silver 7. (c) 13. (c) [CO(NH3)4(NCS)2]Cl 19. (d) [CO Cl4]2-
Zn2+ and [CO(NH3)4(SCN)2]Cl 20. (c) dsp2
8. (a) Mn2+, Fe3+ 14. (a) geometrical and 21. (b) Both A and R are
9. (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 ionization correct and R is the
10. (c)TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3 15. (d) [Fe(en)3]3+ correct explanation of A.
11. (b) 16. (c) [Fe(CO)5]
Cr2O3 12. (c) 17. (d) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 –
+6, +6 NH2)3](PO4)2 6. Solid State
13. (c) CrO2 Cl2 18. (c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
14. (b) Tetrahedral 19. (c) [CO(NH3)3(Cl)3] 1. (c) both covalent crystals
15. (a) Cold dilute alkaline 20. (d) crystal field 2. (b)
KMnO4 stabilization energy of AB3 3. (b)
16. (b) unsaturated organic 1:2
compound 4. (c) molecular solid
72
5. (a) Both assertion and 12. (a) 12 18. (c) (1.3 x 10-1 mol L-1s-1)
reason are true and reason 13. (b) 4 and (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-
is the correct explanation 14. (c) 6 1)
of assertion 15. (c) AgBr 19. (d) 3.0 mol min-1
6. (c) 8 and 4 16. (a) FeO 20. (a)
7. (b) 6.023 x 1022 17. (d) Both a Zero 21.
8. (d) M3N2 and c 18. (a) 74%
19. (d) 8 22. (b) 30
9. (c) 6
20. (a) ρ = nm / a3NA minutes 23. (d)
10. (d) (3√2) x 400 pm
21. (b) d = nλ / 2sinθ 116 g
11. (a) (1000.414)
22. (c) non polar molecular 24. (b) The half life of a
12. (c) 32%
solid first order reaction
13. (b) 848.5pm
does not depend on
14. (b) (π6)
7. Chemical Kinetics [A0]; the half life of a
15. (a) excitation of electrons
second order reaction
in F centers
1. (c) (1 x 10-2) e-60x does depend on [A0]
16.
2. (c) 20 min 3. 25. (c) 30 minutes
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
17. (d) (3√2)a
1. (c) mol L-1 s-1
18. (a) 915 kg m-3
2. (a) First
19. (b) equal number of anions 4. (d) Without knowing the
order 3. (c) s-1
and anions are missing rate constant, t1/2 cannot
4. (d) 1
from the lattice be determined from the
5. (b) Acid hydrolysis of
20. (c) Frenkel defect given data
an ester
21. (d) Both assertion and 5. (c) 1.5k1 = 3 k2 = k3
6. (c) loo seconds
reason are false 6. (c) rate is independent of the
7. (d) pressure
22. (b) FeO surface coverage
8. (a) first order
23. (a) XY8 7. (b) (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol
9. (b) zero order
L-1 s-1)
10. (c) first order reaction
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 8. (b) Activation energy
11. (c) mol L-1 s-1
1. (a) Glass 9. (a) (ii) only
12. (a) fractional
2. (d) Naphthalene 10. (d) (x + y) x 103 J mol-1 11.
13. (c) Evaluating rate
3. (b) Diamond (c)434.65 J mol-1 K-1
constants at two
4. (a) Strong electrostatic 12. (b) 0.2 15 M
different temperature
attractive forces 13. (b) (32) log 2 14. (b) increase in the
5. (a) London forces 14. (c) (In2k) number of activated
6. (b) polar molecular 15. (b) rate = k [A][B]2 molecules
solids 7. (a) 8 16. (c) Assertion is true but 15. (a) Threshold energy
8. (a) 2 reason is false
9. (c) 2 16. (a) Both A and R are
17. (a) First order
10. (a) 52.3 1% correct and R is the
11. (b) 68% 73 correct explanation of A.
17. (a) Both A and R are
correct and R is not correct
explanation of A
18. (b) Both A and R are
correct but R is not correct
explanation of A 3. (b) HCI + CI– 6. (b) charge carried by one
ANSWER KEY mole of electrons
4. (b) Cr3+
7. (a) 5F
8. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM 5. (c) 1 x 10-14 8. (b) 2
6. (a) 3 9. (b) 107.2 minutes
1. (d) 5.619 x 10-12 mol3 L-3 10. (c) 3.75 x 1020
2. (d) (iii) 75 mL M5 HCI + 25 7. (d) NaOH + NaCI
11. (b) 0.002N
mL M5 NaOH 8. (a) OH– and HSO4 12. (c) PbSO4 on anode
3. (c) 1.08 x 10-10 mol2 L2 is reduced to Pb.
9. (c) 1.0 x 109
4. (a) 0.5 x 10-15 13. (a) I and IV
5. (c) OH– and F–, 10. (b) 5.09 14. (d) Zinc has
respectively 11. (c) 4 higher negative
6. (c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCI + electrode
12. (d) 6.63
200 mL of 0.1M NH4OH potential than
7. (b) PF3 13. (a) 9.4
iron
8. (a) BF3 14. (c) 11 15. (d) both assertion
9. (b) basic, acidic, 15. (a) pH will increase and reason are false.
basic 10. (b) 0.013% 16. (a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e–
16. (d) 10-9
11. (a) 3.7 x 10-2 → 4OH–(aq)
12. (b) 1.6 x 10-9 M 17. (a) CH3COOH + 17. (b) 6.25 x 10
13. (a) 2 x 10-3M CH3COONa -6
14. (d) The molar solubility of 18. (c) 1 cm-1
18. (a) remains constant
MY in water is less than 19. (d) 1.74 x 10-12
that of NY3 19. (d) mol2 L-2 20. (b) E1 > E2
15. (d) 12.65 20. (a) [Ag+]2 [CrO4-2] 21. (d) HBrO
16. (d) 1:10 22. (a) – 46.32 KJ mol-1
21. (c) NH4OH + NH4CI
17. (a) 9 23. (b) 15.8
18. (c) H3PO4 24. (a) Y will oxidize X and
9. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
19. (c) HPO42- not Z
20. (b) strongly acidic 1. (c) 6.022 x 1022 25. (a) 0.80
21. 2. (b) – 2.69 and non
22. C spontaneous ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
23. (b) 5.55 x 1010 3. (c) 1.10V 1. (c) Redox reactions
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 4. (b) 11.52 S cm2 mol-1 2. (b) Ω m
1. (d) either (b) or (c) 5. (c) 390.7 3. (a) Ohm metre
2. (a) H2O 4. (b)
Siemen (S) 5. (d)
Ohm-1m-1
6. (a) Sm2g equivalent-1
74
7. (b) wheat stone bridge 2. (b) increases with increase 9. (b) Decomposition of
8. (c) Debye-Huckel and in temperature H2O2 in the presence of
Onsagar equation 3. (d) ∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are Pt catalyst
negative. 10. (a) As2O3
9. 4. (c) liquid in gas 11. (c) H2S
10. (d) all the above 5. (a) if both assertion and 12. (a) Co
11. (b) Agar-Agar gel + Na2SO4 reason are true and reason 13. (a) Ethanol
12. (a) either a (or) c is the correct explanation 14. (b) activation energy
13. (b) 1.107 Volts of assertion 15. (c) diastase
14. (b) zero 6. (b) It is true, Fe3+ ions 16. (a) Fe°/Pd°
15. (c) Platinum coagulate blood which is a 17. (c) Fog
16. (b) – Nfe negatively charged sol 18. (c) Bredigs arc method
17. (c) 7. (b) emulsion 19. (c) ultrasonic dispersion
negative 18. (b) 8. (b) Gel – 20. (d) peptisation
96500 C butter 9. (d) AI3+ 21. (c) coagulation
19. (a) Nernst equation 10. (b) CH3 – (CH2)15 – NH2 22. (b) 1 mμ to 1 μm diameter
11. (d) Tyndall effect- 23. (d) rod like
20. scattering of light 24. (a) AS2S3
21. (a) m = Zit 12. (b) III > II > I > IV 25. (c) scattering of light
22. (b) electro chemical 13. (a) Nitrocellulose 26. (c) electrophoresis
equivalent 14. (a) Hydrolysis of sucrose in 27. (c) Electro osmosis
23. (b) Li – ion battery presence of all HCl 28. (d) Tollen’s test
3+
15. (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 29. (c) Alum containing Al
24. (b) non – rechargeable
16. (a) III > II > I 30. (a) chromium salt
25. (a) Zinc, Graphite rod with
MnO2 17. (a) ∆S decreases – ∆S is –ve 31. (a) Ammoniacal AgNO3
18. (d) x/m = mPT 32. (d) the measure of

26. (b) NH4Cl + ZnCl2
19. (a) Both magnitude and protective power of
27. (c) Zinc amalgamated with
sign of the charge on the a lyophillic colloid
mercury
28. (a) HgO mixed with ion.
graphite. 20. (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
29. (a) 1.35 V
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 11. HYDROXY
30. (a) Paste of kOH and ZnO
31. (c) Lead storage battery 1. (c) 400 kJ/mole COMPOUNDS
32. (a) Lead plate bearing 2. (b) (iii) only
AND
PbO2, Spongy lead 3. (a) NH3
4. (c) Permutit ETHERS
33. (c) Aqueous KOH
34. (b) Fe2O3.xH2O 5. (b) Silica gel
6. (c) Nickel 1. (a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3
35. (c)
7. (b) Fe, Mo 2. (c) methyl propanoate
Galvanisation 36. (c)
8. (d) Chromatography 3. A
0.66 g
4. (c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 –
ol and NaHCO3
10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY 5. c) 4 – nitrophenol
1. (c) 1/n, log k
75
6. b 10. (c) Blue 3. (c) hydrazine in
7. (a) Phenol 11. (c) E1 presence of slightly
8. (c) trichloro methane mechanism 12. (a) 1° acidic solution
(Riemer Tiemann reaction) < 2° < 3° 4. (b) Victor meyer
9. (b) (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2 13. (b) Swern oxidation test 5. (c)
10. (a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 – 14. (a) Esterification hexamethylenetetraamlne
dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol 15. (d) Oxirane 6. A
11. (a) if both assertion and 16. (a) 1, 4 – dioxane 7. (a) if both assertion and
reason are true and reason 17. (a) Methanal reason are true and
is the correct explanation 18. (a) Nitroglycerine reason is the correct
of assertion. 19. (b) Glyceric acid and explanation of assertion.
12. (d) ethanol tartronic acid 8. (a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH
20. (a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > > BrCH2COOH
13. (c) Williamson ether
3° alcohol > CICH2COOH
synthesis
21. (c) Pyrogallol 9. (c) benzene
14. (a) C6H5 – OH (phenol)
22. (b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy diazonium chloride
15. (a) if both assertion and
benzene 10. (c) Hell – Volhard
reason are true and reason
23. (c) Dow’s process – Zelinsky
is the correct explanation
24. (d) Benzene reaction
of assertion.
25. (b) Schotten – Baumann 11. (a) acetylchloride
16. (c) methanol
17. (d) ethan -1, 2-diol reaction 12. (a) formic acid
18. (c) Kolbe reactions 26. (d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol 13. B
19. (d) methoxy ehane 27. (c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction 14. (a) but – 3 – enoicacid
20. A 28. (c) Rlemer – Tiemann 15. D
21. (b) SN2 reaction reaction 16. A
22. (b) violet colour 29.29. 17. (b) if both assertion and
30.30. reason are true but
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS benzene reason is not the correct
31. (b) Methanal explanation of assertion.
1.
32. (c) Methoxy benzene 18. (b) cannizaro reaction
33. (d) Diethyl ether 19. (a) Phenylmethanal
2. 34. (c) SN
2 20. (b) Fehling’s solution
3. (c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol 21. (c) phenyl methanol
35. (b) P – bromoanisole
4. (a) Propan – 2 – ol and sodium benzoate
36. (b) Ethoxy ethane
5. (b) Ethanol 22. (d) Wolf kishner reduction
37. (c) comparatively inert
6. (b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 23. C
– ol 24. (d) formation of
7. (c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – Oi intermolecular H –
8. (c) Cold dilute alkaline
12. CARBONYL bonding
KMnO4
COMPOUNDS
9. (a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
ZnCl2 1. A 1. (a) Prop – 2 – enal
2. (d) Nucleophilic addition 2. (d) Rosenmund reduction
76 3. (b) Catalyst poison
4. (c) Gattermann koch 4. (d) both assertion and 8. (b) N – methyl propan – 1
reaction reason are false – amine
5. (b) Benzophenone 5. (c) 9. (b) Hoffmann
6. (c) Anhydrous AlCl3
methanamine 6. (c) degration reaction
7. (b) Hexamethylene (CH3)3CNO2 – 10. (d) Gabriel
tetramine 30 nitroalkane phthalimide synthesis
8. (a) Urotropine 7. (c) Schotten – Baumann 11. (b) Sabatier –
9. (c) Nitration of urotropine reaction mailhe method
10. (c) Propane 8. (c) schiff ‘s base 12. (a) Alkyl amines >
11. (d) Cannizaro reaction 9. B Aralkyl amines >
12. (c) Claisen – schmidt 10. (d) Ammonia > N –
condensation acetanilide 11. (d) aralkylamine>
13. (c) Benzoin N(CH3)2H > Arylamine
14. (b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5
N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)3 > 13. (c) Schotten –
15. (b) Pyridine NH3 Baumann reaction
16. (a) lodoform test 12. (a) H3PO2 and H2O 14. (c) Diazotisation
17. (c) Paraldehyde 13. (a) C6H5 – OH 15. (b) Carbylamine reaction
18. (c) CH3COCH3 14. (d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene 16. (a) mustard oil reaction
19. (c) HeII – volhard – 15. (d) N – methylbutan – 2 – 17. (c) Sand meyer reaction
zelinsky reaction amine 18. (b) Gomberg reaction
16. (b) blue solution 19. (c) insecticide
20.20. 17. (d) triethyl amine 20. (c) Baltz –
21. (c) F – CH2 – COOH > CI – (3°amine) Schiemann reaction
CH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH 18. (b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline 21. (c) Dimethyl amine
> I – CH2COOH 19. (a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine 22. (b) 2° amine
22. (b) Transesterfication hydrochloride 23. (d) both aliphatic
23. (c) Sodium benzoate 20. (d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl and aromatic 1°
24. (d) Acetic anhydride amino) – 3 – methyl amine
25. (d) Benzyl alcohol pentane 14. BIOMOLECULES
26. (c) Nucleophilic 21. B
1. (c) D(-) Fructose
addition 27. (a) (CH2)6N4 22. (b) Benzyl alcohol 2. (d) D – Erythrose, D –
23. A Threose, L – Erythrose, L
13. ORGANIC NITROGEN 24. B – Threose
COMPOUNDS 25. B 3. (b) Sucrose
1. (a) Sn / HCl 4. (a) Heptanoic acid
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 5. (a) If both accretion and
2. (b) potassium salt of
1. (c) Dopamine reason are true and
phthalimide treated with
2. (c) Nitro reason is the correct
chlorobenzene followed by
ethane 3. explanation of assertion
hydrolysis with aqueous
4. 6. (c) DNA RNA Proteins
NaOH solution
3. (a) CH3CONHCH3 5. (b) m – dinitro benzene 7. (a) Peptide
6. (c) CCI3NO2
bond 8. (c) 2 –
7. (c) N, N – dimethyl hydroxymethylserine
methanamine
77
9. (d) the sugar component in 16. (a) Insulin 17. (d) PHBV
RNA is ribose and the sugar 17. (d) Estrogen 18. (b) PAN
component in DNA is 2’ – 18. (d) base, sugar and 19. (d) They contain
deoxyribose phosphate strong covalent bonds
10. (d) H3N+ – CH(R) – COO– 19. (c) Adenine in their polymer chain
11. (d) Vitamins 20. (d) base – sugar – 20. (a) antiseptic
12. (d) 1 and 5 phosphate
13. (a) Riboflavin 21. (b) Adenine and thymine; ADDITIONAL QUESTONS
14. (c) Cytosine and Thiamine guanine and cytosine 1. (a) erythromycin
15. C 22. (b) Ribose sugar and uracil 2. (a) atenolol
16. (d) α – helical backbone 23. (b) a globular 3. (b) sulphanilamide
17. (b) Vitamin K protein 24. (b) 10 4. (a)
18. (d) D – Glucose 25. (c) 8 PABA 5.
19. (c) Denaturation makes 6.
protein more active 15. CHEMISTRY IN 7. (c) morphine
20. (b) It does not react with EVERYDAY LIFE 8. (a) Tranquilizer
Grignard reagent 1. (c)Asprin 9. (b) diazepam
21. (a) TACGAACT 2. (b) Chioroxylenol and a – 10. (a) valium
22. (c) Protein terpineol 11. (d) antipyretic
23. (b) Anomers 3. (a) dilute solutions of boric 12. (a) morphine, codeine
24. (d) Both (a) and (b) acid and hydrogen peroxide 13. (a) lidocaine
25. (a) Alanine are strong antiseptics 14. (b) isoflurane
4. (b) toluene 15. (d) iso fharane
ADDITIONAL QUESTONS 16. (a) cetrizine
5. (a) antagonists
1. (b) 16 isomers 17. (d) azithromycin
6. (a) acetylsalicylic acid
2. (a) 4 18. (a) povidone – iodine
7. D
3. (a) Glucose 19. (c) sodium meta suiphite
8. (c) all cis – conflguration
4. (b) 112°, 18.7° 20. (b) detergent
9. (a) polyamide
5. (a) epimers 21. (a) cellulose, silk
10. (c) polyester
6. (a) Sorbital + 22. (b) zeiglernatta catalyst
11. A
mannitol 7. (b) 3 23. (a) TiCI4 +
12. (d) PHBV
8. (a) glycosidic linkage (C2H5)3AI 24.
13. (d) 1, 1, 2, 2 –
9. (b) invertase 25.
tetrafluoroethane
10. (d) Sucrose 14. (c) assertion is true but 26. (b) melamine
11. (c) Iodine solution reason is false formal dehyde
12. (c) Glycine 15. (a) novestrol 27. (c) styrene + butadiene
13. (b) Myoglobin 16. (d) equanil 28. (d) sulphur
14. (b) folic acid
15. (c) guanine
*****
78

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XII - Chemistry

11 Hydroxy Compounds and Ethers 44

12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 50

13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 56

15 Chemistry in Everyday Life 65

I. Choose the correct answer:

a) Liquation b) van Arkel process c) Zone refining d) Mond’s process

I. Choose the correct answer:

15. Match items in column – I with the

16. Duralumin is an alloy of …………

I. Choose the correct answer:

4. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS

I. Choose the correct answer:

8. In acid medium, potassium permanganate oxidizes oxalic acid to ……………..

I. Choose the correct answer:

(a) XY8 (b) X4Y9 (c) XY2 (d) XY4

I. Choose the correct answer:

5. For the reaction, 2NH3 → N2 +

I. Choose the correct answer:

19. The unit of ionic product of water K is ……………

21. Which pair will show common ion effect?

I. Choose the correct answer:

a) Br2 b) BrO4− c) BrO3- d) HBrO

(c) Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation (d) Ostwald’s dilution law

21. Which one of the following represents Faraday’s first law?

10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY

I. Choose the correct answer:

2. Consider the following statements:

11. HYDROXY COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS

I. Choose the correct answer:

4. In the reaction sequence, . A and X respectively are

7. Carbolic acid is a) Phenol b) Picricacid d) benzoic acid d) phenylacetic acid

a) dehydration b) Williams on alcoholsynthesis

21. Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an /

2. Which one of the following is a primary alcohol?

3. Which of the following is a dihydric alcohol?

12. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS

I. Choose the correct answer:

2. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of

a) Formaldelyde b)diacetoneammonia c) hexamethylenetetraamine d) oxime

14. The IUPAC name of

17. Assertion : p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin

13. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS

I. Choose the correct answer:

a) bromomethane b)α - bromo sodium acetate c) methanamine d) acetamide

a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide

24. Among the following, the reaction

25. The major product of the following reaction

8. The IUPAC name of

I. Choose the correct answer:

3. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms.

8. Natural rubber has

12. Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?

----ALL THE BEST----

1. METALLURGY 16. c) Mg 5. c) froth flotation

MnO2 17. (a) ∆S decreases – ∆S is –ve 31. (a) Ammoniacal AgNO3

18. (d) x/m = mPT 32. (d) the measure of

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