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Solution (11) (1)

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry problems, each with multiple-choice answers. It covers various topics such as sound speed in water, resonance in tubes, tuning forks, waves, energy, thermal conductivity, and chemical properties. The problems are designed for educational purposes, likely for a physics or chemistry examination.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
71 views51 pages

Solution (11) (1)

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry problems, each with multiple-choice answers. It covers various topics such as sound speed in water, resonance in tubes, tuning forks, waves, energy, thermal conductivity, and chemical properties. The problems are designed for educational purposes, likely for a physics or chemistry examination.

Uploaded by

harshghs.123
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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09-03-2025

5001CMD303001240049 MD

PHYSICS

1) It is found that an increase of 100 kpa causes a certain volume of water to decrease by 5 ×
10–3 percent of its original volume. Then the speed of sound in the water will be – (density of water =
103 kg/ m3)

(1) 330 m/s


(2) 1414 m/s
(3) 1732 m/s
(4) 2500 m/s

2) A tunning fork of frequency 300 Hz is vibrated just above the tube of 120 cm length. (Vsound = 300
m/s)

Max. number of resonance


(P) (A) 3
possible

Minimum water level


(Q) (B) 95 cm
when resonance occurs

Maximum water level


(R) (C) 45 cm
when resonance occurs.

(D) 2
(1) P – A, Q – D, R – B
(2) P – D, Q – B, R – C
(3) P – A, Q – C, R – B
(4) P – D, Q – C, R – B

3) Two tuning forks when sounded together produced 4 beats/sec. The frequency of one fork is 256.
The number of beats heard increases when the fork of frequency 256 is loaded with wax. The
frequency of the other fork is :-

(1) 504
(2) 520
(3) 260
(4) 252

4) For a stationary wave y = 4 sin cos 96 πt, the distance between a node and next antinode is
:- (x & y are in cm and t is in sec)

(1) 7.5 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 22.5 cm
(4) 30 cm

5) The power of a water pump is 2 kW. If g = 10 ms–2, the amount of water it can raise in one minute
to a height of 10 m is

(1) 2000 litre


(2) 1000 litre
(3) 100 litre
(4) 1200 litre

6) A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5cm. The work done in extending it from
5cm to 15cm is

(1) 16 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 24 J

7) Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. Work

done by all the forces on the particle is :-

(1) 400 J
(2) – 400 J
(3) – 200 J
(4) 200 J

8) A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the
figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

(1)

(2) D

(3)

(4)
9) In a system of units if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then
the dimensional formula of energy is :-

(1) FA2T
(2) FAT2
(3) F2AT
(4) FAT

10) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier
scale, which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper, the least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

11) A system of unit in which unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of length is 1 km and time is 1 min. 1 J in
this system is equal to :-

(1) 360
(2) 3.6
(3) 36 × 105
(4) 36 × 10–5

12) Three identical metal rods in dimension A, B and C are placed end to end and a temperature
difference is maintained between the ends of A and C. If thermal conductivity of B is thrice that of C
and half that of A, then effective thermal conductivity of the system is :-

(1) 12K/7
(2) 6K/7
(3) 7K/3
(4) 2K

13) Find out amount of heat required to convert 2 gm ice at –10°C into water at 60°C.

(1) 130 cal


(2) 290 cal
(3) 300 cal
(4) 400 cal

14) For the molecules of an Ideal gas, Which of the following velocity average can not be zero

(1) < v >


(2) < v4 >
(3) < v3 >
(4) < v5 >

15) The efficiency of carnot engine is 50% and temperature of sink is 500K. If temperature of source
is kept constant and its efficiency raised to 60%, then the required temperature of the sink will be :-

(1) 100 K
(2) 600 K
(3) 400 K
(4) 500 K

16) A gap between any two rails each of length L laid on a railway track equals x at 27 °C. When the
temperature rises to 40 °C , the gap closes up. The coefficient of linear expansion of the material of
rail is α. The length of each rail at 27 °C will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

17) A gaseous mixture consist of 4 moles of O2 and 2 moles of Argon gas at temperature T. Find the
total internal energy of the mixture.

(1) 11 RT
(2) 13 RT
(3) 15 RT
(4) 6 RT

18) P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should

correspond respectively to :

(1) He and O2
(2) O2 and He
(3) He and Ar
(4) O2 and N2

19) Heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is.
(1) 107 πJ
(2) 104 πJ
(3) 102 πJ
(4) 10–3 πJ

20) A simple pendulum of mass m swings about point B between extreme positions A and C. Net
force acting on the bob at these three points is correctly shown by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) On the superposition of two harmonic oscillations represented by x1=asin(ωt+ϕ1) and


x2=asin(ωt+ϕ2) a resulting oscillation with the same time period and same amplitude is obtained.
The value of ϕ1 – ϕ2 is :-

(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 15°
22) For any S.H.M., amplitude is 6 cm. If instantaneous potential energy is half the total energy then
distance of particle from its mean position is

(1) 3 cm
(2) 4.2 cm
(3) 5.8 cm
(4) 6 cm

23) Equation of SHM of angular frequency ω and amplitude a, if the particle is situated at at t=0
and is going towards mean position is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A unifrom thin rod of length L and mass m is bent at the middle point O as shown in figure.
Consider an axis passing through its middle point O and perpendicular to the plane of the bent rod.

Then moment of inertia about this axis is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) dependent on θ

25) A thin and circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity ω. If another disc
of the same dimensions but of mass M/4 is placed gently on the first disc coaxially, then the new
angular velocity of the system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26) The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of
radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the
holes is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The liquids shown in the U-tube of uniform cross-section are water and mercury If the difference
of the heights of the mercury columns is 2 cm, then the height h of the water column is:

(1) 6.8 cm
(2) 13.6 cm
(3) 27.2 cm
(4) 54 cm

28) Calculate the ratio of the times taken by a uniform solid sphere and a disc of the same mass and
the same diameter to roll down through the same distance from rest on a inclined plane.

(1) 15 : 14
(2)
(3) 152 : 142
(4)

29) If angular velocity v/c time curve of a rotating body is represented by fig. than variation of

angular acceleration with time is properly represented by :-


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A hollow cylinder with inner radius R, outer radius 2R and mass M is rolling with speed of its

axis v. Its kinetic energy is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A book is lying on the table. What is the angle between the action of the book on the table and
the reaction of the table on the book?

(1) 0 rad

(2)
rad
(3)
rad
(4) π rad

32) Find reading of spring balance in given figure:-

(1)
kg-wt

(2)
kg-wt
(3) 10 kg-wt

(4)
kg-wt

33) A block pressed against the vertical wall is in equilibrium, the minimum coefficient of friction is -

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) None of these

34) A particle travels along a straight line in same direction with v1 velocity for time t1 and with v2
velocity for next t2 time. Calculate average velocity :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Particle is projected upward with velocity 100 m/s at an angle of 30° with horizontal. Find the
time when its velocity is perpendicular to the acceleration :-

(1) 10 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 20 s
(4) 15 s

36)

The equation of the path of the projectile is y = 0.5x – 0.04x2. The initial speed of the projectile is

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 12.5 m/s
(4) None

37) A person walks along an east-west street and a graph of his displacement from home is shown in

figure. His average velocity for the whole time interval is :–

(1) 0
(2) 23 m/s
(3) 8.4 m/s
(4) None of above

38) A boy can swim in still water at 1 m/s. he swims across a river flowing at 0.6 m/s which is 336 m
wide. If he travels in shortest possible time then what time he takes to cross the river.

(1) 250 s
(2) 420 s
(3) 336 s
(4) 340 s

39)

The angular speed of rotation of earth for which weightlessness is made at pole, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

40) If R is radius of earth then find the escape speed at a distance R above earth's Surface. (g =
acceleration due to gravity)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Water rises to a height of 2 cm in a capillary tube. If the tube is tilted 60° from the vertical,
water will rise in the tube to a length of :-

(1) 4.0 cm
(2) 2.0 cm
(3) 1.0 cm
(4) Water will not rise at all

42) A certain block weighs 15 N in air. It weighs 12 N when immersed in water when immersed in
another liquid it weighs 13 N, the relative density of the block is :-

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) None

43) When an elastic material with young’s modulus Y is subjected to a stretching stress ‘S’. Elastic
energy stored per unit volume of the material is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Assertion : The centre of mass of a system of two particles is closer to the heavier particle.
Reason : The centre of mass can be outside the body also.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

45) In vertical circular motion of a bob, match the entries of list–I with entries of list–II. Here, v0 is
the velocity of bob at lowest point.
List-I List-II
(speed at lowest point) (possible situation)

(P) v0 = (1) Tension at lowest point = 6mg

(Q) v0 = (2) string will slack for a finite time

(R) v0 = 2 (3) bob will oscillate

(S) v0 = 3 (4) Tension at highest point = 4mg

(1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4


(2) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(3) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(4) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not follow the octet rule ?

(1) H2O
(2) H2S
(3) BF3
(4) CO2

2) In the following electron dot structure, correct calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is

(1) –1, –1, +1


(2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1
(4) +1, –1, +1

3) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above and
below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

4) Which of the following acid is most acidic ?

(1) HCl
(2) HF
(3) HI
(4) HBr

5) Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given
acids :

(1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl


(2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(3) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

6) Select the correct match :-

(1) d-block → transition element


(2) f-block → inner transition element
(3) s & p-block → normal / representative element
(4) all are correct

7) The non-aromatic compound among the following is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

Relative stabilities of the following carbocations will be in the order :

(A) (B) (C)


(1) C > B > A
(2) C < B < A
(3) B > C > A
(4) C > A > B

9) Most stable carbon free radical is :-


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Compare bond length of α, β and γ in given compound :-

(1) α > β > γ


(2) γ > α > β
(3) α > γ > β
(4) β > α > γ

11) Following isomeric pair constitutes an example of :

(1) Functional isomers


(2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Metamers

12) Types of isomerism exhibited by following compounds is :

(1) Positional isomerism


(2) Chain isomerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) They are identical

13) Which of the following is pyridine :-


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The number of hetero atoms and lone pair in given compound is/are :-

(1) 3 and 4
(2) 5 and 6
(3) 3 and 6
(4) 3 and 7

15) Common name of CH3–CN is

(1) Ethyl cyanide


(2) Methyl cyanide
(3) Ethyl isocyanide
(4) Methyl isocyanide

16) The IUPAC name of CH3CH2C(Br)=CHCl is :-

(1) 4-Chloro-3-bromobut-3-ene
(2) 2-Bromo-1-chlorobut-1-ene
(3) 2-Bromo-1-chlorobut-3-ene
(4) 1-Bromo-2-Chloro-1-ethylethene

17) The ratio of velocity of electron in the 1st orbit of the hydrogen atom and velocity of light (c) is
(1) 1 : 1.37
(2) 1 : 137
(3) 137 : 1
(4) 1.37 :1

18) For Z = 24 no. of unpaired electrons :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

19) The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is :

(1) [Ar]3d54s1
(2) [Ar]3d44s2
0
(3) [Ar]3d64s
(4) [Ar]4d54s1

20) The ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J/atom. Calculate the magnitude of energy of the first
stationary orbit of Li2+.

(1) 1.12 × 10–18 J/atom


(2) 4.4 × 10–18 J/atom
(3) 4.41 × 10–17 J/atom
(4) 1.12 × 10–19 J/atom

21) The actual weight of a molecule of water is -

(1) 18 gm
(2) 2.99 × 10–23 gm
(3) both (1) & (2) are correct
(4) None of these

22) In the reaction H3PO4 + NaOH → NaH2PO4 + H2O the equivalent mass of phosphoric acid is:

(1) 98
(2) 49
(3) 196
(4) 24.5

23) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV, and 50 eV, respectively. The relation
between their wavelenghs, i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be:

(1)
λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 2λ2
(4) λ1 = 4λ2

24) The percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) is about :

(1) 38.4
(2) 46.6
(3) 59.1
(4) 61.3

25) The number of sulphate ions present in 100 ml of 0.01 M H2SO4 solution is

(1) 6.02 × 1020


(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 6.02 × 1023
(4) 6.02 × 1025

26) For which reaction will Kp = Kc?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g)


(2) H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g)
(3) C(s) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
(4) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

27) In the gaseous equilibrium A + 2B C + Heat, the forward reaction is favoured :-

(1) Low P, High T


(2) Low P, Low T
(3) High P, Low T
(4) High P, High T

28) At constant pressure the addition of argon to N2+3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 will

(1) Shift the equilibrium in forward direction


(2) Shift the equilibrium in backward direction
(3) Not affect the equilibrium
(4) Stop the reaction

29) The dissociation of CO2 can be expressed as 2CO2 2CO + O2. If 2 moles of CO2 is taken initially
and 40% of the CO2 is dissociated at equilibrium. What is the total number of moles at equilibrium:

(1) 2.4
(2) 2.0
(3) 5
(4) 1.2

30) What is equilibrium constant for the reaction


P4(s) + 5O2(g) ⇌ P4O10(s) :-

(1)

(2)
5
(3) Kc = [O2]

(4)

31) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.25 M HA solution?(Ka = 4 × 10–8)

(1) 10–10
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–4

32) Which of the following solutions will have pH = 10 at 298 K?

(1) 1 × 10–10 M HCl solution


(2) 1 × 10–4 M NaOH solution
(3) 1 × 10–10 M NaOH solution
(4) Both (1) and (2)

33) What is the resultant pH of solution if pH = 3 and pH = 5 same volume solution mix together :-

(1) 3.5
(2) 4
(3) 3.3
(4) 3.8

34) The formula used to evaluate the pH of monobasic weak acid is :-

(1) pH = Cα
(2) pH = 1/2 pKa – 1/2 log C
(3) pH =
(4) pH = pKa + log C

35) What is the pH of 10% dissociated solution ? [H2CO3 ⇌ 2H+ + ]

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

36) Which of the following compound is tribasic acid:-

(1) H3PO2
(2) H3PO3
(3) H3PO4
(4) H3BO3

37)

For which reaction, ΔS will be maximum ?

(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)


(2) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → N2O4(g)

(3)
S(s) + O2(g) → SO3(g)
(4) 2C(s)+ O2(g) → 2CO(g)

38) One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally to ten times of its original volume. The change in
entropy is :-

(1) 0.1 R
(2) 2.303 R
(3) 10.0 R
(4) 100.0 R

39) NH4Cl(s) → NH3(g) + HCl(g) When the above reaction occurs, the entropy :-

(1) remains same


(2) decrease
(3) increases
(4) none of these

40) In thermodynamics, which one of the following is not an intensive property ?

(1) Pressure
(2) Volume
(3) Density
(4) Temperature

41) Which among the following is an exothermic process?

(1) Melting of ice


(2) Sublimation of camphor
(3) Condensation of steam
(4) Vapourisation of water

42) If bond dissociation enthalpy of HCl(g), H2(g) and Cl2(g) are 431, 436 and 243 kJ mol–1
respectively then enthalpy of formation of HCl will be

(1) – 248 kJmol–1


(2) – 91.5 kJmol–1
(3) – 463.5 kJmol–1
(4) – 65.7 kJmol–1

43) 10 ml of 10 M H2SO4 is mixed to 100 ml of 1M NaOH solution. The resultant solution will be

(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Weakly alkaline
(4) Strongly alkaline

44) The frequency of a wave is 4 × 1016 s–1. Its wave number would be

(1) 1.3 × 109


(2) 1.3 × 108
(3) 1.3 × 107
(4) 13 × 108

45) Highest priority functional group according to IUPAC is:–

(1) –CN
(2) –COCl
(3) –CHO
(4) –NH2

BIOLOGY

1)

How many ATP and NADPH are required to convert one PGA to one triose phosphate in C3-plant-

(1) 1 ATP & 1 NADPH


(2) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH
(3) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH
(4) 18 ATP & 12 NADPH

2) Euglenoids have flexible body due to the presence of :-


(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Cell wall
(3) Pellicle
(4) Cellulose

3) Choose the incorrect statement about phycomycetes :-

(1) Members are found in aquatic habitats


(2) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
(3) A zygospore is formed by reduction division
(4) They show all type of syngamy

4) The transport of male gametes in bryophytes and pteridophytes occurs through

(1) Wind
(2) Water
(3) Birds
(4) Insects

5) Which of the following is not the basis of classification in algae ?

(1) Pigment
(2) Cell wall composition
(3) Stored food
(4) Place of occurence

6) Which of the following match is incorrect?

(1) Microscopic angiosperm – Wolfia


(2) Tallest gymnosperm – Sequoia
(3) Persist pinnate leaves – Pinus
(4) Coralloid root – Cycas

7) Find out the odd one with respect to structure of chloroplast.

(1) Cristae
(2) Thylakoid
(3) Stroma lamellae
(4) Quantasome

8) Formation of bivalents during meiosis occurs at

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene
9) Which amongst the following layer is contain Calcium and Magnesium pectate & whose function
is to forms the interface between adjacent plant cells and glues them together?

(1) Primary cell wall


(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Middle lamella

10)

Identify the mismatched pair :

Synapsis of homologous
(1) Leptotene
chromosomes
Appearance of recombination Pachytene
(2)
nodule
(3) Transition to metaphase–I Diakinesis
Formation of synaptonemal Zygotene
(4)
complex
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Given below are two statements :


Statement-I : Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activity.
Statement-II : Turgidity of cells help in extension growth.
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect


(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

12) Number of chromosomal pairs at equator in metaphase-I of a diploid plant cell (n = 25


chromosomes) shall be-

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 75
(4) 25

13) Which one is not the function of ER-

(1) Synthesis of lipid


(2) Glycosylation of protein
(3) Conversion of radiation energy
(4) Signaling of protein

14) In all these plant root arise from parts of plant other than radicle except

(1) Monstera
(2) Grass
(3) Banyan
(4) Mustard

15) Epidermis of plant organs is mostly made up of

(1) Sclernchyma
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Meristem
(4) Collenchyma

16) Which sequence correctly illustrates the arrangement of layers from outside to inside in a dicot
stem ?

(1) Hypodermis Endodermis Pericycle Phloem Xylem


(2) Endodermis Hypodermis Pericycle Xylem Phloem
(3) Hypodermis Endodermis Pericycle Xylem Phloem
(4) Endodermis Hypodermis Pericycle Phloem Xylem

17)

Mustard, Salvia, Solanum, Cassia, Tomato in above given plants. How many members have
heterosteminous condition

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

18) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III

Column I Column II Column III

1. Zygomorphic a. Radial
i. China rose
flower symmetry

2. Actinomorphic
b. Irregular ii. Canna
flower

3. Asymmetric c. Bilateral
iii. Datura
flower symmetry

4. Hypogynous d. Superior
iv. Gulmohur
flower Ovary
(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii
(4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i

19) In chemiosmotic hypothesis

(1) Proton get accumulate in the stroma by splitting of water


(2) Primary acceptor of electron located towards the inner side of the membrane
(3) NADH reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of membrane
(4) The gradient is broken down due to movement of electron across the membrane

20) Assertion: Dark reactions are more sensitive for temperature than light reaction.
Reason: Dark reactions are controlled by many enzymes.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21) How many net gain ATP-synthesised at substrate level phosphorylation (SLP) during complete
oxidation1-molecule of glucose (6-c)

(1) 2 ATP
(2) 1 ATP
(3) 6 ATP
(4) 4 ATP

22) Statement A :- Gametophyte of pteridophytes are vascular.


Statement B :- Most of pteridophytes are heterosporous.

(1) Both statement A and B are correct.


(2) Both statement A and B are incorrect.
(3) Statement A correct, B incorrect.
(4) Statement A incorrect, B correct.

23) Which of the following processes make direct use of oxygen ?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Fermentation
(3) Electron transport
(4) Krebs citric acid cycle

24) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(I) IAA (A) Terpenes


(II) GA (B) Indole compounds

(III) ABA (C) Adenine derivatives

(IV) Kinetin (D) Carotenoid derivatives


The correct match is :-
(1) I - B, II - D, III - A, IV - C
(2) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(3) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
(4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

25) Given below are two statements


Statement - I : Cytoskeleton are lipid like structures.
Statement - II : Sedimentation coefficient is directly a measurement of size.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect


(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I & II are correct
(4) Both Statement I & II are incorrect

26) The removal of shoots tips (decapitation) means loss of apical dominance and it is widely applied
in :-

(1) Tea plantation


(2) Hedge making
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Bolting

27) The type of growth, in which only one daughter cell among the two (produced by the division of
meristem cell) retain the ability to divide, shows which of the following growth curves ?

(1) Linear curve


(2) Sigmoid curve
(3) J-shape curve
(4) Bell shape curve

28) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Mesosomes Oxidative Enzyme Cell respiration

(ii) Capsule Loose nature Protein Synthesis

(iii) Flagella Flagellin Protein Help in genetic recombination


(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) Only (i)

29) Statement-I : The breaking of C-C bond of complex compound through oxidation within the
cells, leading to release of considerable amount of energy is called photosynthesis.
Statement-II : During oxidation within a cell, all the energy contained in respiratory substrates is
released in a single step.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct


(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

30) The following figure is taken from :

(1) Ventral side showing thyroid gland (a)


(2) Ventral side showing parathyroid glands (a)
(3) Dorsal side showing thyroid gland (a)
(4) Dorsal side showing parathyroid glands (a)

31)

I. Sleep-wake cycle
II. Body temperature
III. Pigmentation
IV. Metabolism
V. Defence capability

All of the above written activities are influenced/regulated by :-


(1) Pineal gland
(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Adrenal gland

32) A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine during pregnancy causes defective
development and maturation of the growing babies is

(1) Simple goitre


(2) Myxoedema
(3) Cretinism
(4) Hyperthyoridism

33) I am a protein hormone and have no iodine in my structure. I can manage normal Ca2+ level in
your body and my source gland is thyroid, What am I ?
(1) Thymosin
(2) Collips hormone
(3) Thyroxine
(4) TCT

34)

Which of the following hormone is not synthesized by pituitary gland

(1) Prolactin/ Lactotrophs


(2) G.H./ Somatotrophs
(3) MSH (Melanocyte stimulating hormone)
(4) ADH/ Vasopressin

35) Addison's disease is caused by :-

(1) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland


(2) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland
(3) Hypersecreton of pineal gland
(4) Hyposecretion of pituitary gland

36) The number of vertebro chondral ribs in human is/are :

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 14
(4) 6

37) Hormones are –

(1) Nutrient chemicals secreted from endocrine glands


(2) Non-nutrient chemicals produced in trace amount
(3) Non-nutrient chemicals act as intra cellular messengers.
(4) All are correcty associated with hormones.

38) In the given list, how many hormones are included in steroid hormones.
Insulin, cortisol, estradiol, glucagon, progesterone

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

39) Statement-I : In Monocot stem, peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than
centrally located ones.
Statement-II : Vascular bundles of dicot leaves are conjoint, collateral and closed.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

40) The indicative of Diabetes mellitus is :-

(1) Glycosuria
(2) Polyurea
(3) Ketonuria
(4) All of the above

41)

Study the given figure and identify the kind of phyllotaxy :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Alternate Opposite Opposite

(2) Alternate Opposite whorled

(3) Opposite Alternate whorled

(4) Opposite whorled Alternate


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42)

Growth hormone (GH) is primarily responsible for:

(1) Regulating blood sugar levels


(2) Promoting growth and development of bones and tissues
(3) Controlling the body's metabolism
(4) Regulating sleep-wake cycles

43) ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is secreted by :-

(1) Atrial wall of heart


(2) Ventricular wall of heart
(3) J.G. cells of kidney
(4) G-cells of GIT

44) Anal styles are found in :-

(1) Male cockroach, on 10th tergum


(2) Female cockroach, on 9th sternum
(3) Male and female cockroach on 10th tergum
(4) Male cockroach, on 9th sternum

45) Heart of cockroach is :-

(1) 13 chambered and dorsally situated


(2) 13 chambered and ventrally situated
(3) 13 chambered and myogenic
(4) 13 chambered and rod like

46) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following

conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it become constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

47) Which of the following option is incorrect :-

(1) Ulna do not participate in formation of elbow joint


(2) Glenoid cavity is present in scapula
(3) Palm bones are 5 in number
(4) Digital formula for phalanges is 23333

48) GFR in a healthy individual is:-


(1) 125 mℓ/min.
(2) 150 ℓ/day
(3) 125 mℓ/sec.
(4) 135 ℓ/day

49) Deposition of uric-acid crystals within the synovial joint causes :-

(1) Gout
(2) Paralysis
(3) Osteoarthritis
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis

50) Read the options carefully and choose the correct option :-

(1) Comb plates in ctenophora help in reproduction


(2) Alternation of generation is represented by Aurelia
(3) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion in platyhelminthes.
(4) Ctenoplana posses high regeneration power

51) Tendon which attach skeletal muscle to bones and ligaments which attach one bone to another
are examples of which tissue ?

(1) Loose connective tissue


(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) Specialised connective tissue

52) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column I Column II Column III


(i) Skeletal muscles Striped Voluntary
(ii) Visceral muscles Non straited Myocardial muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles Branched Never-Fatiguable
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii)

53) Read the following statements. How many are correct for coelenterata ?
(a) Mostly marine, sessile or free swimming & radial symmetrical
(b) Cnidoblast are present on tentacles and body surface
(c) Digestion both extracellular and intra cellular
(d) Only sexual reproduction take place.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

54) T-wave ECG represents :-

(1) Return of ventricles from excited to normal state


(2) Atrial repolarisation
(3) Ventricular depolarisation
(4) Return of atria from excited to normal state

55) Assertion :- Inner part of cerebral hemisphere gives an opaque white appearance hence is
called white matter.
Reason :- The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex, which
gives greyish appearance.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

56) Centre of urge for eating and drinking in brain is

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Cerebrum

57) Which of the following is least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three— dimensional folding
of most proteins?

(1) Ester bonds


(2) Hydrophobic interaction
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Electrostatic interaction

58) Bidder's canal present in :

(1) Kidney of female frog


(2) Kidney of male frog
(3) Testis in frog
(4) Ovary in frog

59) The ability of frog to change the colour to hide them from their enemies is called -

(1) Camouflage
(2) Hibernation
(3) Aestivation
(4) Amplexus

60) Assertion : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason : The notochord is replaced by a cartilagenous or bony vertebral column in the adult
invertebrates.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Which statement is correct with regarding to the cardiac cycle ?

The interval between the end of the second heart sound and the beginning of the first heart
(1)
sound coincides with ventricular diastole
(2) During ventricular systole, atrioventricular valves open and semilunar valves close
(3) From the atria nearly 70% of the blood flows into the ventricles during atrial systole
(4) The first heart sound is of shorter duration and created by the closure of the semilunar valves.

62) Identify the correct sequence of events in a cardiac cycle:

(1) Joint diastole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole


(2) Atrial systole, ventricular diastole, ventricular systole
(3) Atrial systole, ventricular systole, joint diastole
(4) Ventricular diastole, Joint diastole, ventricular systole, atrial systole

63) In pulmonary vein and pulmonary artery what is value of PO2 and PCO2 respectively ?

(1) 45 mmHg and 40 mmHg


(2) 95 mmHg and 45 mmHg
(3) 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg
(4) 40 mmHg and 95 mmHg

64) What will be the effect on exchange of gases if pO2 in alveolar space becomes 40 mm Hg instead
of 104 mm Hg ?

(1) No net diffusion of oxygen will take place at alveolar capillary.


(2) More oxygen will diffuse from alveoli to alveolar capillary.
(3) Oxygen will diffuse from alveolar capillary to Alveoli.
(4) No change in diffusion rate will be observed.

65) In collecting duct, selective secretion occurs of some ions. These are :-

(1) NH3 only


(2) H+ & K+
+
(3) NH3 & K only
+
(4) NH3 & H only

66) Some amount of urea may be retained in the kidney matrix. Why some of animal have this
special capability?

(1) For complete excretion


(2) For more removal of ammonia
(3) For maintain ion concentration
(4) For maintain osmolarity

67) With continuously increasing substrate concentration enzymatic activity :-

(1) Continuously increases


(2) Continuously decreases
(3) First increases then decreases
(4) First increases then become constant

68) Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is :

(1) Permanent and stable


(2) Transient but stable
(3) Permanent but unstable
(4) Transient and unstable

69) The Michaelis constant Km is

(1) Numerically equal to ½ Vmax


(2) Dependent on the enzyme concentration
(3) Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half maximal velocity
(4) Increased in the presence of non-competitive inhibitor

70) When a neuron is conducting impulse the axonal membrane is more permeable for ___(i)___,
V.G.C. closed for ___(ii)___ and impermeable for ___(iii)____:-

(1) Na+, K+, negatively charged protein molecules


(2) K+, Na+, negatively charged protein molecules
(3) K+, negatively charged protein molecules,Na+,
(4) Na+, negatively charged protein molecules,K+

71) Neurons are excitable cells because their membrane are in which state :-

(1) Hyperpolarised
(2) Depolarised
(3) Polarised
(4) Repolarised

72) Neurotransmitter is released by :-

(1) Dendrites
(2) Synaptic knobs
(3) Pre synaptic membrane
(4) Both (2) and (3)

73) Centre of sensory and motor signaling is :-

(1) Medulla oblongata


(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus & pons
(4) Cerebellum

74) Which of the following statements are/is incorrect about synapses ?


(a) In Electrical synapses, impulse transmission is very similar like conduction of axon
(b) Electrical synapses involves chemical substances like neurotransmitters
(c) Electrical synapses are rare in our system
(d) Pre and post synaptic membranes are in very close proximity in electrical synapses

(1) a, b & d are incorrect


(2) b, c & d are incorrect
(3) only d is incorrect
(4) only b is incorrect

75) A peptide hormone produced by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney which stimulate RBC's
production is :-

(1) Erythropoietin
(2) Renin
(3) Secretin
(4) Cholecystokinin

76) How many of the following are primary metabolites ?


Glucose, Alanine, Morphine, Adenine, Abrin

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

77) Water cavity in xylem, scattered V.B., sclerenchymatous Hypodermis, parenchymatous


epidermis, conjoint V.B. In above given feature, how many features are exclusive for monocot stem-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

78) If ovum has 20 pg of DNA, then what would be the DNA content in its meiocyte at G2 phase?

(1) 120 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 40 pg
(4) 80 pg

79) Analogous variant Cr-Jacob disease in human has all except-

(1) Protein
(2) Amino acid
(3) Nitrogen
(4) DNA

80) Most of the viruses are/have

(1) Enveloped nucleo-protein structure


(2) Nucleo - protein structure
(3) Infectious protein particles
(4) Double stranded DNA as well as RNA

81) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are found in seeds of

(1) Maize, rice and tobacco


(2) Mustard, castor and wheat
(3) Wheat, oat and maize
(4) Mango, Pea, Apple

82)
In above given floral formula of tobacco, which one is incorrect-

(1) Bicarpellary ovary


(2) Five polyandrous stamen
(3) Epipetalous condition
(4) Superior ovary

83) Heterosporous pteridophytes always produced

(1) Dioecious sporophyte


(2) Dioecious gametophyte
(3) Homothallic, exosporic gametophytes
(4) Monoecious gametophyte

84) How many times C3 cycle will run to synthesize a disacchride molecule in photosynthesis?

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 3
(4) 18

85) How many ATP molecules are required to activate 2 molecules of glucose during glycolysis?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 10

86) Which PGR is present in coconut milk and yeast extract DNA?

(1) C2H4
(2) IBA
(3) Cytokinin
(4) NAA

87) Measure of growth in an algal filament is

(1) Increase in diameter


(2) Increase in volume
(3) Increase in number of cell
(4) Increase in surface

88) How many decarboxylation reactions take place in aerobic respiration?

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

89) PEP case enzyme is present in the

(1) Chloroplast of mesophyll cells


(2) Chloroplast of Bundle sheath cells
(3) Cytosol of mesophyll cells
(4) Cytosol of bundle sheath cells

90) Which of the following sexual spores are produced exogenously?


(1) Coniddia
(2) Ascospores
(3) Basidiospores
(4) Zoospore
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 4 4 1 3 4 2 3 1 3 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 2 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 1 4 2 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 3
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) v = nλ
300 = 300 (d)

Third resonance =
Minimum liquid level = 120 – 75 = 45 cm
Maximum liquid level = 120 – 25 = 95 cm

3) Suppose two tuning forks are named A and B with frequencies nA = 256 Hz (known), nB = ?
(unkonwn), and beat frequency x = 4 bps.

Frequency of unknown tuning fork may be


nB = 256 + 4 = 260 Hz
or = 256 – 4 = 252 Hz
It is given that on sounding waxed fork A (fork of frequency 256 Hz) and fork B, number of
beats (beat frequency) increases. It means that with decrease in frequency of A, the difference
in new frequency of A and the frequency of B has increased. This is possible only when the
frequency of A while decreasing is moving away from the frequency of B.
This is possible only if nB = 260 Hz.

4) λ = = 60 cm Distance b/w node and antinode =

5)

= 20 litre/sec
∴ in 1 minute V = 20 × 60 = 1200 litre

6)

7)

Initial KE =

= × 2 × (20)2 = 400
Final KE = 0
∴ Work done = – 400 J

8) As body is at rest initially, i.e., speed = 0.


At point A, speed = v
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical energy will remain constant
(T.M.E.)i = (T.M.E.)f

or
For completing the vertical circle,

9) E = KFa Ab Tc

a = 1, a + b = 2 ⇒ b = 1
and – 2a – 2b + c = – 2 ⇒ c = 2
∴ E = KFAT2

10) 20 VSD = 16 MSD

LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD = 1 MSD –

11)
n2 = 1
= 10–1 × 10–6 × (60)2
= 36 × 10–5

12)

Req =

Req =

Req =

=
Keq = 2K

13)
Q = 10 + 160 + 120 = 290 cal.

14) Even power will not give zero value.

15) η1 = 50 % ⇒ T2 = 500 K
η2 = 60 % ⇒ T'2 = ?


⇒ T1 = 1000 K ......(i)
for η = 60%

⇒ T2' = 400 K

16) Two gaps will be filled equally by each rails


so, ΔL = L0 α Δθ
x = L0 α 13

L0 =
17) U = n CvT

=4× R × T = 10 RT

UAr = 2 × R × T = 3 RT
UTotal = 13 RT

18)

|slope| ∝ γ
γ ↑ atomicity ↓

19)

ΔU = 0

⇒ ΔQ = W = π
⇒ π(10) (10) = 100πJ = 102πJ

20) Velocities at extreme positions A and C are zero. So there is only tangential force and no
centripetal force, and also at B it has centripetal force.

21) Resultant amplitude =


a2 = 2a2 + 2a2cos(ϕ1 – ϕ2)

cos(ϕ1 – ϕ2) =

ϕ1 – ϕ2 = 120° or rad

22) If at any instant displacement is y then it is given that

23) Let at t=0,

x= , so ,

But at t = 0, v < 0 so is rejected hence


24)
I0 = I1 + I2

I = + =

25)

I1ω1 = (I1 + I2) ω2

ω2 = ω

26)
Av = constant

27) md

28)

29)

Slope = = dan 60° = =α

30)
Where so

31) Action and reaction are always opposite to each other.

32)

T = 2T1 =

= kg-wt

33)


µ = 0.5

34)

35) Velocity will be perpendicular to acceleration at highest point.

36)

∵ y = 0.5 x – 0.04 x2
by comparing it with :

y = x tan θ –
∵ tan θ = 0.5 =

∴ cos θ =

∴ u2 =

∴ u2 = ,

∴u= = 12.5 m/s

37)

Average velocity = =

38)

t=

39) Magnetic field of earth is along polar axis to equitorial plane thus horizontal component
is zero. As metal satellite moves in horizontal field free plane, hence no induced effect in it.

40)

41) Since water rises to height of 2 cm in a capillary

If tube is at 60°, in this case height must be equal to

h = 2 cm ⇒ cos60° =

∴ℓ= = 4 cm

42)
=5

43)

Energy density = × stress × strain

= × stress × =

44) About COM


If m1 > m2
r1 < r2

45)

For ,
the bob will complete a vertical circular path
For

At lowest point,
For
At highest point, v2 = v02 – 4gℓ = 5gℓ

⇒ T = 4mg

For <v< , the bob will execute projectile motion


For v < , the bob oscillates

CHEMISTRY

47)

48) Z = 103 is an actinide

49)

Acidic strength order


HF < HCl < HBr < HI

56)
Position of substituents are different so they are position isomers.

64) 3d-subshell filled with 5 electrons (half-filled) is more stable than that filled with 4
electrons. 1, 4s-electron jump into 3d-subsehll for more stability.

67)

71)

Kp = Kc (RT)Δng
If Δng = 0 Kp = Kc

86) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.


171

87) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.


177

BIOLOGY

92) NCERT Pg. # 21

96) NCERT XI Pg # 32, 34

101) NCERT-IX, Pg # 244

104) NCERT XI Pg.# 61, 2nd para 5.3.3

105)

NCERT Page No. 89

106) NCERT Pg : 74, 75 (new)

108)

NCERT XIth Pg.#72-73(E & H)

109) NCERT_213and 214_2021-22

110) NCERT Pg. # 150


115) NCERT Pg # 136

116)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 175

117) NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 243 (2nd Para)

119) NCERT-XI Pg#227, PARA-14

120) NCERT Pg# 334

121)

NCERT Page # 242

122) NCERT Pg. # 333

123)

NCERT_XI_Pg.No: 243

125)

NCERT Pg. No 336

126) NCERT Pg. No.# 310, Para- 20.3

127)

NCERT_XI_Pg.No: 239

128)

129) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 76

130)

131) NCERT Pg. # 71 (Fig. 5.9)

132)
NCERT Page no. 332

133)

NCERT Pg. No. 247

134) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 50

135) NCERT XI Pg # 113

136) NCERT-XI Page no. 107

137) Module 8 Pg. # 139

138) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 293

139) NCERT Pg.# 312

140) NCERT XIth Pg # 51, para-4.2.4

141) NCERT XI Page # 103, Para # 12 (E/H)

142) NCERT Pg. # 303, para - 20.2

143) NCERT-XI, Page No. #50

144) NCERT XI, Pg # 286

145)

NCERT Pg. No 321

146) NCERT(plus one) page No: 321

147)

Ester bonds are found in lipids.

148)

NCERT Pg.#119
149) NCERT XIth Pg. # 116

150) NCERT XI Page No. # 55

151)

NCERT Pg. # 284-285

152) NCERT XI, Page # 199

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 273 (H), Last table.

154) NCERT, Pg. no. # 273

155) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 295, para-1

156) NCERT Page No. 292

157) Problem Statement : Asking About :


Substrate Concentration effect on enzyme activity.

Solution/Explanation :

With the increase in –


Substrate concentration the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rises at first. The reaction
ultimately reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further rise in
concentration of the substrate.

158)

Old NCERT #XI 156


159)

160) NCERT Pg. # 317, para 2

161)

NCERT Pg. No. 233

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 317

163) NCERT Pg. # 321 para 1

164)

NCERT Pg. # 234

165) NCERT-XI Pg. # 338

166)

NCERT Page no. 146

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