MAITREYI NEET ACADEMY-ONGOLE

Kothapeta , oppo . kondaiah Bunk – Ongole(Girls)

Konijedu Bustand “Y” junction – Ongole (Boys)
Ph.No:-6281583838
(NEET) Date :-20-04-2024
Time:3 hrs 20 min GRAND TEST – 6 Max.Marks:720marks

Topics:-
Physics : FULL SYLLABUS.
Chemistry : FULL SYLLABUS.
Botany : FULL SYLLABUS.
Zoology : FULL SYLLABUS.

 This test will be a 3 hrs test.

 This test consists of physics,chemistry,botany and zoology questions with equal weight age of 180 marks
 Each question is of 4 marks
 There are four parts of question paper, consisting part – I physics (Q.No 1-50), Part-II chemistry (Q. No
51- 100) , part-III botany ( Q .No 101-150) and part- IV zoology (Q. No 151-200) .Each part is devided
into two sections , section A consists 35 multiple choice questions & section B consists of 15 multiple
choice questions , out of these 15 questions candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
 There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question . For each question , 4
marks will be awarded for correct choice , 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice and zero mark
will be awarded for unattempt question.
 Any textual , printed or written material , mobile phones , calculators etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
 All calculations/written work shouldbe done in the rough sheet provide

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i. y = Asin (2πt/T)
PHYSICS
ii. y = Asin (Vt)
SECTION A – 35 QUESTIONS
iii. y = A/T sin(t/A)
1.The following does not give the unit 𝑨
of energy iv) y = (sin 𝝎t + cos 𝝎t)
√𝟐
(1) watt second (1) ii only
(2) Kilowatt hour (2) ii and iii only
(3) newton meter (3) iii only
(4) pascal metre, (4) iii and iv only
2. A book with many printing errors 3.At a given instant of time the position
contains four different vector of a particle moving in a
expressions for the displacement circle with a velocity 3𝒊̂-4𝒋̂+5𝒌̂ is
'y' of a particle executing simple 𝒊̂+9𝒋̂-8𝒌̂. Its angular velocity at
harmonic motion. The wrong that time is:
formula on dimensional basis ̂
13𝑖̂−29𝑗̂ −31𝑘 ̂
13𝑖̂−29𝑗̂ −31𝑘
(1) (2)
√146 146
̂
13𝑖̂+29𝑗̂ −31𝑘 ̂
13𝑖̂+29𝑗̂ +31𝑘
(3) (4)
√146 146
4.A car moving with a speed of 7.The ceiling of a long hall is 20 m high.
50 km/hr can be stopped by What is the maximum horizontal
brakes after at least 6 m. If the distance that a ball thrown with a
car is moving at a speed of 100 speed of 40 ms-1 can go without
km/hr the minimum stopping hitting the ceiling of the hall
distance is same (g=10 ms-2)?
(1) 12 m (2) 18 m (1)138.56cm (2)148.56cm
(3) 24 m (4) 6 m (3)138.65cm (4)184.56cm
5.The displacement-time graph of a 8.The speed of a motor increases from
moving object is shown in figure. 1200 rpm to 1800 rpm in 20S.
Which of the velocity-time How many revolutions does it
graphs shown in figure could make in this period of time?
represent the motion of the same (1) 400 (2) 200
body? (3) 500 (4) 800
9.A rocket of mass 20kg has 180 kg of
fuel. The exhaust velocity of fuel
is 1.6 km/sec. Calculate the
ultimate velocity of the rocket
gained, when the rate of
consumption of the fuel is
2kg/sec. (neglect gravity)
(1) 3.7 km/sec (2) 2 km/sec
(3) 10 km/sec (4) 5 km/sec
10.A block of mass 2kg lying on ice
when given a velocity of 6ms-1 is
stopped by friction in 5s. The
coefficient of friction between
the block and ice is (g=10ms-2)
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.2
(3)0.12 (4) 0.4
11.A 2kg block is dropped from a
height of 0.4m on a spring of
force constant 1960 Nm-1. The
maximum compression of the
spring is
6.The measured mass and volume of a (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
body are 53.63 g and 5.8cm3 (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
respectively , with possible 12.The velocity of a body revolving in a
errors of 0.01 g and 0.1 cm3. The vertical circle of radius 'r' at the
maximum 10 percentage error in lowest point √7gr.The ratio of
density is about maximum to minimum tensions
(1) 0.2% (2) 2% in the string is
(3) 5% (4) 10%
 (1)8:1 (2) 4:1 18.The mass of a planet is half that of
(3) √7:1 (4) 1:√7 the earth and the Radius of
13.A 1kg ball moving at 12ms-1 collides planet is one fourth that of the
headon with a 2kg ball moving in earth. If we plan to send an
the opposite direction at 24 m/s. artificial satellite from the
If the coefficient of restitution is planet, the escape velocity will be
2/3, then the energy lost in the nearly (Ve of earth is 11kms-1)
collision is (1) 11kms-1
(1) 60J (2) 120 J (2) 5.5kms-1
(3) 240 J (4) 480 J (3) 15.5kms-1
14.For a body rolling along a level (4) 7.7kms-1
surface, the translational and 19.The equation of progressive wave is
rotational K.E are equal. The y = 0.01sin(100t-x) where x,y are
body is in meter and t in second, then
(1) Solid cylinder a) Velocity of wave is 50 m/s
(2) disc b)Maximum velocity of particle is1m/s
(3) ring c)Wave length of wave is 27 meter.
(4) hallow sphere (1) only a,c are true
15.Two wheels of M.I. 3kg m2 and (2) only a,b are true
5kg m2 are rotating at the rate of (3) only b,c are ture
600 rpm and 800 rpm (4) a,b,c are true
respectively in the same 20.The third overtone of a closed pipe
direction. If the two are coupled is found to be in unison with the
so as to rotate with the same axis first overtone of an open pipe.
of rotation, the resultent speed of Find the ratio of the lengths of
rotation will be (in rpm) the pipe
(1) 725 (2) 850 (1)6:4 (2)7:4
(3) 420 (4) 630 (3)4:7 (4)4:6
16.The time period of a particle 21.The rate of emission of radiation of
performing linear SHM is 12s. a black body at temperature 27°C
What is the time taken by it to is E1. If its temperature is
make a displacement equal to increased to 327°C the rate of
half its amplitude? emission of radiation is E2. The
(1) 1sec (2) 2sec relation between E1 and E2 is
(3) 3sec (4) 4sec (1) E2 = 24 E1 (2) E2 = 16 E1
17.The alttitude at which the weight of (3) E2 = 8 E1 (4) E2 = 4 E1
a body is only 64% of its weight 22.The temperature of 5 moles of a gas
on the surface of the earth is at constant volume is changed
(Radius of the earth is 6400km) from 100°C to 120°C. The change
(1) 1600m (2) 16m in internal energy is 80J. The
(3) 160km (4) 1600km total heat capacity of the gas at
constant volume will be in
joule/kelvin is
 (1)8 (2) 4 28.In Young's double slit experiment
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.4 with a mono- chromatic light of
23.The root mean square speed of wavelength 4000A0, the fringe
oxygen molecule at a certain width is found to be 0.4 mm.
temperature is 600 m/s. If the When the slits are now
temperature is doubled and illuminated with a light of
oxygen gas dissociates into wavelength 5000A° the fringe
atomic oxygen, the 'rms' speed width will be
will become (1) 0.32mm (2) 0.5mm
(1) 120 m/s (2) 150 m/s (3) 0.6mm (4) 0.8mm
(3) 1200 m/s (4) 600 m/s 29.Two polaroids are crossed to each
24.When two capillary tubes A and B other. Now, one of them is
are immersed in water, the rotated through 45°. The
heights of water columns are percentage of incident
found to be in the ratio 2: 3. The unpolarised light that passes
ratio of the radii of tubes A and B through the system will be
is (1) 30% (2) 25%
(1) 2:3 (2) 4:9 (3) 40% (4) 62.5%
(3) 9:4 (4)3:2 30.The electric field in a region of
25.One spherical ball of radius R, space is given by E = (5𝒊̂ +2𝒋̂) N/C.
density d released in a liquid of The electric flux through an area
density d/2 attains a terminal of 2 m2 lying in the YZ plane, in
velocity V. Another ball of radius S.I. units is
2R and density 1.5d, released in (1)10 (2) 20
the liquid will attain a terminal (3) 10 √2 (4) 2√29
velocity 31.A particle of mass m and charge q is
(1) 2V (2) 4V released from rest in an electric
(3) 6V (4) 8V field E. Then the K.E. after time t
26.A convergent lens of power 16D is will be :-
used as a simple microscope. The (1) 2E2t2/mq (2) E2q2t2/2m
magnification produced by the (3) Eq2m/2t2 (4) Eqm/2t
lens, when the final image is 32.Twenty seven charged water
formed at least distance of droplets, each of radius 10-3 m
distinct vision is and having a charge of 10-12 C,
(1) 6 (2) 4 coalesce to form a single drop.
(3) 7 (4) 5 Calculate the potential of the
27.The refractive index of a material of bigger drop.
a plano concave lens is 5/3, the (1)81volts (2)80volts
radius of curvature is 0.3 m.The (3)70volts (4)71volts
focal length of the lens in air is
(1) -0.45m (2) -0.6m
(3) -0.75m (4)-1.0m
33.Three capacitors each of capacity (3) atomic magnetic dipole moment
4 μF are to be connected in such a of ferro- magnet is zero
way that the effective (4) ferromagnet is demagnetised
capacitance is 6 μF. This can be rapidly after moving in magnetising
done by :- field.
(1) connecting all of them in series 38.The magnetic flux through a coil
(2) connecting all of them in perpendicular to its plane is
parallel varying according to the relation
(3) connecting two in series and ϕB = (5t3+4t2+2t-5) weber.
one in parallel Calculate the induced current
(4) connecting two in parallel and through the coil at t = 2 second.
one in series The resistance of the coil is 5Ω.
34.A galvanometer of resistance 100Ω (1)15.6A (2)16.5A
gives full scale deflection for a (3) 11.5A (4)12.5A
current of 10-5 A. Calculate the 39.Calculate the mutual inductance
shunt required to convert it into between two coils when a
an ammeter of 1 ampere range. current of 2A changes to 6A in 2
(1) 10-3Ω (2) 10-8Ω seconds and induces an emf of
(3) 10-4Ω (4) 10-1Ω 20 mV in the secondary coil.
35.Circuit diagram of metre bridge is (1)10Mh (2)11Mh
shown in figure. The null point is (3)15Mh (4)13Mh
found at a distance of 40 cm from 40.In the primary coil of transformer
A. If now a resistance of 12 Ω is current and voltage are 5A and
connected in parallel with S, the 220 volts. In the secondary coil
null point shifts to 64 cm. 2200V voltage produces. Then
Determine the values of R and S. ratio of number of turns in
(1) 40/3,20 (2) 30/4,20 secondary coil and primary coil
(3) 20/2,20 (4) 10/2,20 will be
SECTION – B (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) (1) 1:10 (b) 10:1
36.A horizontal overhead powerline is (3) 1:1 (4) 11:1
at a height of 4m from the ground 41.A metal of work function 4eV is
and carries a current of 100 A exposed to a radiation of
from east to west. The magnetic wavelength 140 x 10-9m. Find the
field directly below it on the stopping potential developed by
ground is :- it.
(1) 2.5 x 10-7 T, southward (1) V0 = 4.86V (2) V0 = 4.66V
(2) 5 x 10-6 T, northward (3) V0 = 4.88V (4) V0 = 3.86V
(3) 5 x 10-6 T, southward 42.Find the ratio of de Broglie
(4) 2.5 x 10-7 T, northward wavelength of molecules of
37.Which statement is true : hydrogen and helium which are
(1)atomic magnetic dipole moment at temperatures 27°C and 127°C
of diamagnet is zero respectively
(2) atomic magnetic dipole moment
of para- magnet is zero
 8 3 47.The output Y of the logic circuit
(1)√ (2) √ shown in figure is
3 8
8 4
(3) √ (4) √
4 3
43.The transition from the state n = 4
to n =3 in a hydrogen like atom
results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be
obtained in the transition from : (1) 𝐴̅+̅̅̅̅̅
𝐵. 𝐶 (2) A+𝐵̅.C
(1) 3→2 (2) 4→2
(3) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴 + 𝐵. 𝐶 (4) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴 + 𝐵̅. 𝐶
(3) 5→4 (4) 2→1
48. Which of the following waves have
44.Calculate the binding energy of an
the maximum wave length?
𝜶-particle. Given that mass of
(1) X-rays (2) I.R rays
Proton =1.0073 u , mass of
(3) UV rays (4) radio waves
neutron = 1.0087 u, and mass of
49.The amplitude of the sinusoidally
𝜶 -particle = 4.0015u.
oscillating electric field of a plane
(1)28.41 MeV (2)28.81 MeV
wave is 60v/m. Then the
(3)24.41 MeV (4)58.41 MeV
amplitude of the magnetic field is
45.If 50% of energy released during
(1) 12 × 107T (2) 6 × 107T
fission would e converted into
(3) 6 × 10-7T (4) 2 × 10-7 Ꭲ
electrical energy, then the umber
of fissions in a second in a 50.A coil having 500 square loops each
nuclear eactor of 6.4MW output of side 10 cm is placed normal to
is (Energy per fission is 200 MeV) a magnetic flux which increases
(1)4x1015 (2) 4×1016 at the rate of 1.0 tesla/second.
(3)4x1017 (4) 4×1018 The induced e.m.f. in volts is
46.In the given circuit, the equivalent (1) 0.1 (2) 0.5
resistance between A and B is (if (3) 1 (4) 5
A has positive potential and B has CHEMISTRY
negative potential) SECTION A – 35 QUESTIONS
51. The radius of second Bohr orbit of
Be+3 in terms of the Bohr radius
a0
(1)2a0/3 (2) 4a0/3
(3) a0 (4) 2a0/9
52. Which among the following has
(1) 11 Ω (2) 34/3 Ω
more number of lone pairs on
(3) 10 Ω (4) 8 Ω
central atom?
(1) XeF4 (2) SiF4
(3) SF4 (4) BF4-
53. Freezing point is least for 57. Which of the following expressions
(1) 0.1 m urea is correct for the rate of reaction
(2) 0.1 m NaCl given below?
(3) 0.1 m 2 BaCl
(4) 0.1 m glucose
54. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : One faraday always
deposits/ liberates one
mole any substance at
appropriate electrode
Statement II : On dilution of acetic acid
solution its molar
conductance
decreaseswhereas its 58.All the following concentration
specific conductance methods are temperature
increases dependent except
(1) Mole fraction
In the light of the above statements.
(2) Normality
Choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given (3) Molarity
𝑊
below. (4) %
𝑉
(1) Both SI & SII are true
(2) SI is false and SII is true 59. Which of the following statements
(3) SI is true and SII is false regarding 𝜶 -amino acids are
(4) Both SI & SII are false correct?
55. The difference between ∆H and ∆U I. Proteins on complete
(∆H – ∆U) when the combustion hydrolysis give 𝜶 − amino acids
of one mole of methane is carried II. All 𝜶 -amino acids contain
out at a room temperature T is NH2 −group in their structure
equal to
III. Amino acids with equal
(1) –4RT (2) 3RT number of amino and carboxyl
(3) 4RT (4) –2RT groups are neutral amino acids
56. 90% of first order reaction is IV. All naturally occurring 𝜶 -
completed in 120 sec. The time amino acids are optically active.
required for 99% of the reaction (1) I & III
to be completed in minutes is (2) I, II & IV
(1) 200 (2) 360 (3) III & IV
(3) 4 (4) 8 (4) II, III & IV
60. Match the Column I and Column II 64. Consider the chemical equation.
and select the correct answer Na+(g) + Cl-(g) → Na+Cl-(s)
using given codes. For 1 mole of NaCl(s)
Lattice enthalpy=+788kJ mol-1
∆hydH0 = -784kJmol-1
The enthalpy of solution is calculated
as
−1
(1) −4𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙
−1
(2) −8𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙
−1
(3) +4𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙
−1
(4) −6𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙
(1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 65.The oxidation potential of hydrogen
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 electrode with pH=10
(4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (1) –0.295V (2) +0.59V
61. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 (3) –0.059V (4) +0.059V
(1) +10 (2) +6 66. I. Bond dissociation enthalpy of
(3) +8 (4) +5 chlorine is greater than that of fluorine
62. Assertion (A) : Fructose is reducing II. Fluorine is a stronger oxidizing
sugar. agent as compared to chlorine in
Reason (R) : Fructose is an aldose. aqueous solution
III. Melting and boiling points are
In light of the above statements,
higher for chlorine as compared to
choose the most appropriate fluorine
answer from the options given
The correct set of statements is
below.
(1) I & II only
(1) Both A and R are correct R is the
correct explanation of A (2) II & III only
(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is (3) I & III only
not the correct explanation of A (4) I, II & III
(3) A is not correct but R is correct 67. Standard enthalpy of formation is
(4) A is correct but R is not correct zero for all the following except
63. Which of following is not an (1) I2(s) (2) Br2(l)
essential amino acid? (3) N2(g) (4) O3(g)
(1) Glycine
68.Which of the following is an
(2) Valine
Extensive property?
(3) Phenyl Alanine
(1) Temperature
(4) Leucine
(2) Density
(3) Enthalpy
(4) Pressure
69. Radio active Lanthanide is carbocation formed in
(1) Th (2) Gd the reaction .
(3) Pm (4) Eu (1) Both A and R are correct; R is the
correct explanation of A
70. Least acidic among the following is
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not
(1) chloroacetic acid
the correct explanation of A
(2) acetic acid
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect
(3) phenol
(4) R is correct; A is incorrect
(4) propanoic acid
71. 74. Which of the following VIA group
hydride is thermally most stable?
(1) H2Te (2) H2Se
(3) H2S (4) H2O
75. Match List I with List II.

72.Oxidation states of bromine in Choose the correct answer from the

tribromooctoxide (Br3O8) are options given below
(1) +6, +4, +6 (1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, d-ii
(2) +6, +4, +2, (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, d-iii
(3) +4, +6, +2 (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, d-ii
(4) +6, +2, +4 (4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, d-iii
73. Assertion (A) : For a single chiral 76. Non polar molecule with polar
carbon containing alkyl bonds is
halide, substitution (1) Cl2 (2) H2O
takes place at chiral
centre, 'SN1' reaction (3) BF3 (4) N2
leads to racemisation. 77.
Reason (R) : The attack of the
nucleophile may be
accomplished from
either side of the plane
of the intermediate
 (1) 4-methoxy-6-nitrocyclohexene 82. Predict the products in the given
–1 reaction.
(2) 5-methoxy-3-nitrocyclohexene
–1
(3)3-nitro-1methoxycyclohexene-
4-ene
(4)3-nitro-5-methoxycyclohexene
–1
78. Assertion (A) : Nitration of benzene
with nitric acid requires
the use of concentrated
sulphuric acid.
Reason (R) : The mixture of
concentrated sulphuric
acid and concentrated
nitric acid produces the
electrophile, NO2+
(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not 83. Among the following amines, the
the correct explanation of A strongest base is
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect
(4) R is correct; A is incorrect
79. Which among the following is least
electro negative?
(1) B (2) Al
(3) Ga (4) In
80. Iodoform test is not given by
(1) Ethanal
(2) Ethanol
(3) Diphenyl ketone
(4) Dimethyl ketone
81. Which of the following pairs of ions
84.When H2S is passed through a
are isoelectronic and isostructural?
mixture containing Cu+2,Ni+2 and Zn+2
in acidic solution then, the ion that will
precipitate is
(1) Cu+2,Ni+2 only
(2) Ni+2 only
(3) Cu+2,Zn+2 only
(4) Cu+2 only
85. Lassaigne’s test is not applicable to 91.Ksp of AgCl is 8x10-12M2. The molar
(1) NH2CONH2 solubility of AgCl in 0.1M AgNO3
(2) NH2 – NH2 solution is
(3) NH2CSNH2 (1) 8x10-12M (2) 8x10-13M
(4) C6H5NH2 (3) 8x10-10M (4) 8x10-11M
SECTION – B (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) 92. Which of the following graphs
86. Amphoteric oxide among the correctly represent the first
following is order reaction, R→P?
(1) MgO (2) N2O
(3) Al2O3 (4) Cl2O7
87. Incorrect statement among the
following is
(1)
(1) All Bronsted bases are Lewis
bases
(2) Ionic product of water is
temperature dependent
(3) Le-chatelier’s principle is (2)
applicable to both physical and
chemical equilibrium
(4) KC = KP(𝑅𝑇)∆𝑛 is the correct inter
relation
88. The weight of iron which will be
converted into its oxide (Fe3O4) by
the action of 18g of steam on it will (3)
be (Atomic weight of Fe=56)
(1) 168g (2) 84g
(3) 42g (4) 21g
89. A salt solution on treatment with
H2SO4 (dilute) gives out a gas which (4)
turns K2Cr2O7 paper green and lead
93.Write the IUPAC name of the
acetate paper black. The salt
coordination compound Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
contains
(1) Carbonate (2) Chloride (1) Iron (II) hexacyanidoferrate
(II)
(3) Nitrate (4) Sulphide
(2) Iron (III) hexacyanidoferrate
90. Which of the following actinoids (II)
show oxidation states up to +7?
(3) Iron (II) hexacyanoferrate (III)
(1) Am (2) Pa
(4) Iron (II) hexacyanoiron (III)
(3) U (4) Np
94. An organic compound ‘A’ on 98. The correct order of stability of the
treatment with benzene sulphonyl following resonance structures
chloride gives compound B. B is
soluble in dil NaOH solution. The
compound ‘A’ is
(1) (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)2N(C2H 5)
(4) CH3 – NH2
95.Wrong match among the following
is
(1) K2MnO4 – Green, paramagnetic (1) III>II>I (2) I>II>III
(2) K2Cr2O7 – Yellow, diamagnetic (3) II>I>III (4) I>III>II
(3) K2CrO4 – Yellow, diamagnetic 99.The total number of metal-metal
(4) KMnO4 - Purple, diamagnetic bond present in [Co2(CO)8]
96. Assertion (A) : Oxidising power (1) 0 (2) 3
increases in order: VO2+ (3) 2 (4) 1
< Cr2O72- MnO4- 100. Predict the major product of the
Reason (R) : It is due to the increasing following reaction.
stability of lower
species to which they
are easily reduced.
(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not
the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect
(4) R is correct; A is incorrect
97. In the given reaction, I and II are
respectively
 BOTANY generations without any current
SECTION A – 35 QUESTIONS use.
101.Which of the following correctly (4) They are only used for creating
describes the steps required to botanical and zoological gardens.
process hnRNA into mature 104. What are alleles ?
mRNA?
(1) Different symbols used for
(1) Addition of a poly (A) tail at the different genes
5’ end
(2) Slightly different forms of the
(2) Removal exons and addition of a
same gene
cap
(3) Units of inheritance that are
(3) Capping at the 3’ end only
always dominant
(4) Splicing to remove introns, (4) Factors that are always recessive
template independent capping at in nature
the 5’ end with methyl guanosine
and adding a poly (A) tail at the 3’ 105. What is the basis for classifying
end. different families into an order?
(1) The number of species within
102. What are prions responsible for
each family
causing?
(2) Geographic distribution of the
(1) Infectious bacterial diseases in
families
plants
(3) Aggregates of similar characters
(2) Genetic mutations in humans and among the families
animals
(4) The size of organisms within the
(3) Infectious neurological diseases in
families
humans and animals, like mad
cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jakob 106. What is demonstrated by the
disease inheritance of flower color in
(4)Viral infections in aquatic snapdragons (Antirrhinum sp.)?
organisms
(1) Complete dominance, where
103.Why are taxonomic studies of one allele completely masks the
various species important? effect of another.
(1) They are solely for academic (2) Incomplete dominance, where
interest and have no practical the heterozygote exhibits a
application. phenotype that is intermediate
(2) They assist in the correct between the phenotypes of the
classification and identification of two homozygotes.
organisms, which is fundamental (3) Codominance, where both
to agriculture, forestry, industry, alleles in the heterozygote are
and understanding biodiversity. fully expressed.
(3)They focus exclusively on (4) Polygenic inheritance, where
preserving specimens for future multiple genes determine the
phenotype of a trait.
 107. What signals the beginning of 110. Match the regions of the root with
the translation process on the their functions:
mRNA? List – I List – II
(1) The stop codon A) Root Cap 1) Protects the tender
(2)The ribosome binding to a UTR apex of the root as
(3)When the smaller subunit of it makes its way
ribosome encounters an mRNA through the soil.
(4) Charging of rRNA with amino B) Region of 2) Characterized by
acids Meristem cells that are very
108. Which classification system for atic small,thin-walled,
flowering plants considers both Activity with dense
external and internal features, protoplasm,and
like ultra-structure, anatomy, divide repeatedly.
embryology and C) Region of 3) Cells undergo rapid
phytochemistry? Elongatio elongation and
(1) The system given by Linnaeus n enlargement,
(2)The earliest systems of responsible for the
classification growth of the root
(3) The classification system in length.
developed by George Bentham D) Region of 4) Cells differentiate
and Joseph Dalton Hooker Maturatio and mature , and
(4) Artificial classification systems n some epidermal
cells form root
109. In brown algae, how is asexual
hairs for absorption
reproduction most commonly of water and
achieved? minerals
(1) Through the production of (A) (B) (C) (D)
non-motile spores (1) 1 2 3 4
(2) By biflagellate zoospores that (2) 2 4 1 3
are pear-shaped with two,
(3) 4 2 3 1
laterally attached, unequal flagella
(4) 1 4 3 2
(3) By simple cell division similar
111. Assertion (A) : In mint and
to binary fission
jasmine, slender lateral
(4) Through fragmentation of the
branches grow aerially
frond
before arching
downwards to touch the
ground and form new
plants.
Reason (R) : This growth pattern is a 114. Match the types of vascular
strategy for asexual bundles with their descriptions:
reproduction, enabling List – I List – II
the plant to spread
efficiently in its habitat. A) Open 1) Found in
Vascular dicotyledonous
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
Bundles stems, contain
correct explanation of A
cambium between
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not
xylem and phloem,
the correct explanation of A
and have the ability
(3) A is true, but R is false. to form secondary
(4) A is false, but R is true. tissues.
112. Which type of venation is
B) Closed 2) Do not have
characteristic of most
Vascular cambium, hence do
monocotyledonous plants?
Bundles not form secondary
(1) Reticulate venation tissues, commonly
(2) Parallel venation found in
(3) Cross venation monocotyledons.
(4) Netted venation C) Radial 3) Xylem and phloem
113.Assertion(A):Intercalary Vascular are arranged on
meristems are found in grasses Bundles different radii,
and help in the regeneration of typically found in
parts removed by grazing. roots.
Reason (R) : These meristems are D) Conjoint 4) Xylem and phloem
primary meristems that occur Vascular are situated at the
between mature tissues and Bundles same radius, with
contribute to the plant’s ability to phloem usually
regrow quickly. located on the
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is outer side of xylem,
the correct explanation of A common in stems
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is and leaves.
not the correct explanation of A (A) (B) (C) (D)
(3) A is true, but R is false. (1) 1 2 3 4
(4) A is false, but R is true. (2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
115.How do guard cells regulate the
process of transpiration and
gaseous exchange in plants?
(1)By elongating and forming a
continuous layer
 (2)By secreting substances that (3) The enzyme permanently binds to
attract water molecules the substrate, forming a complex.
(3)By changing shape to open or close (4) The substrate is broken down into
the stomatal pore its constituent molecules without the
(4)By producing a waxy layer to cover involvement of the enzyme.
the stomatal pore 120.What is the role of hydrolases in
116.What is the characteristic enzymatic reactions?
arrangement of vascular bundles in (1) Catalysing the removal of
a young dicotyledonous stem? groups to form double bonds.
(1) Scattered throughout the stem (2) Catalysing the hydrolysis of
(2) Arranged in a ring ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C-
(3) Present only at the center of the C, C-halide, or P-N bonds.
stem (3) Catalysing the inter-
(4) Lacking in young stems conversion of isomers.
(4) Linking two compounds
117. What is the primary function of
together.
lysosomes in eukaryotic cells?
(1) Synthesizing hydrolytic enzymes 121. Which of the following is a
(2) Digesting carbohydrates, proteins, cofactor for the proteolytic
lipids, and nucleic acids with enzyme carboxypeptidase?
hydrolytic enzymes (1) Vitamin niacin (2) Zinc
(3) Transporting substances into the (3) Haem (4) NAD
cell 122.What is the significance of the
(4) Converting glucose into energy
pachytene stage in prophase I of
118. What distinctive feature does the meiosis?
inner membrane of a (1)Homologous chromosomes
mitochondrion possess? begin to separate.
(1) It forms a number of infoldings (2)Crossing over and
called cristae. recombination of genetic material
(2) It contains chlorophyll for occur.
photosynthesis. (3)Chromosomes start to
(3) It is the site for DNA replication. condense and become visible.
(4) It is the site for Protien synthesis. (4)Chiasmata terminalisation
119. What occurs immediately after an takes place.
enzyme-substrate complex is 123.What marks the G1 phase in the
formed? cell cycle?
(1) The enzyme releases the substrate (1) The period between cell
without any change. division and DNA replication
(2) The substrate induces the enzyme where the cell is metabolically
to alter its shape for a tighter fit. active and grows.
 (2) The phase where DNA is 128. Which complex in the electron
replicated. transport chain is involved in the
(3) The interval just before cell transfer of electrons from reduced
division. ubiquinone to cytochrome c?
(4) The phase where the cell (1) Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
divides its cytoplasm and (2)ComplexII (Succinate
organelles. dehydrogenase)
124. What significant event marks the (3) Complex III (Cytochrome bc1
completion of prophase during complex)
mitosis? (4) Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase
(1) The nuclear envelope complex)
disintegrates and mitotic 129. How many molecules of NADH are
chromosomes become visible. produced for each acetyl CoA
(2) Chromosomes align at the molecule entering the TCA cycle?
metaphase plate. (1) One (2) Two
(3) Sister chromatids separate (3) Three (4) Five
and move towards opposite poles. 130. During glycolysis, at which step is
(4) The cell divides into two NADH + H+ formed from NAD+?
daughter cells. (1)Conversion of glucose into glucose-
125. Which pathogen is known for its 6- phosphate
ability to deliver a piece of DNA, (2)Conversionoffructose-6-phosphate
transforming normal plant cells into a to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
tumor? (3)Conversionof 3-
(1) Retrovirus phosphoglyceraldehyde into 1,3-
(2) Agrobacterium tumifaciens bisphosphoglycerate
(3) E. coli (4)Conversion of
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvic
126.Who provided evidence for the acid
production of glucose in green 131. Assertion (A) : Redifferentiated
parts of plants and its storage as cells form secondary
starch? permanent tissues in
(1) Joseph Priestley plants.
(2) Jan Ingenhousz Reason (R) : Redifferentiation involves
(3) Julius von Sachs the development of
secondary permanent
(4) T.W Engelmann
tissues from
127. How many molecules of CO2 are dedifferentiated cells to
required to produce one molecule perform specific
of glucose in the Calvin cycle? functions.
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) Both A and R are true, and R is
(3) 12 (4) 18 the correct explanation of A
 (2) Both A and R are true, but R is (1) Albuminous seeds have a
not the correct explanation of A residual endosperm, while non-
(3) A is true, but R is false. albuminous seeds do not.
(4) A is false, but R is true. (2) Non-albuminous seeds have
132. Ethylene, a gaseous plant growth two cotyledons, while albuminous
seeds have one.
regulator, is largely considered as:
(3) Albuminous seeds are found
(1) A growth promoter involved in
flowering and fruiting only in legumes, while non-
albuminous seeds are found in
(2) An inhibitor of growth
cereals.
activities
(4) Non-albuminous seeds contain
(3) Only involved in response to a part of the nucellus, known as
biotic stresses perisperm, while albuminous
(4) A promoter of cell division seeds do not.
133. Which of the following statements SECTION – B (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
about cytokinins is incorrect? 136. What significant contribution to
(1) Kinetin is a natural cytokinin biology was made by Gregor
found in all plant species. Mendel in the mid-nineteenth
(2) Cytokinins are involved in century?
promoting cell division and lateral (1) Discovery of DNA
shoot growth. (2)Development of genetic
(3) They are synthesized in areas engineering
of the plant where cell division (3) Proposal of the laws of inheritance
occurs rapidly, such as root apices. (4) Introduction of the theory of
(4) Cytokinins can help delay leaf evolution
senescence by promoting nutrient 137. Which of the following is not an
mobilization. example of an insectivorous plant ?
134. In artificial hybridisation, what is (1) Venus Flytrap (2) Pitcher plant
the purpose of bagging a flower after (3) Sunflower (4) Sundew.
emasculation?
138. Which of the following statements
(1) To ensure the flower receives
about Ascomycetes is incorrect?
adequate sunlight
(1) All ascomycetes are unicellular
(2) To protect the stigma from
organisms like yeast.
unwanted pollen
(2) The mycelium of ascomycetes is
(3) To increase humidity around
branched and septate.
the flower
(3) Ascomycetes produce sexual
(4) To speed up the flower’s
spores called ascospores inside
growth
asci.
135. What distinguishes albuminous (4) Some ascomycetes, such as morels
seeds from non-albuminous seeds? and truffles, are edible and
considered delicacies.
139. Which gene in the lac operon (2) Har Gobind Khorana
codes for the protein that increases (3) George Gamow
the cell’s permeability to β- (4) Marshall Nirenberg
galactosides?
144. Who were awarded the Nobel
(1) z gene (2) y gene
Prize in 1945 for the discovery of
(3) a gene (4) i gene Penicillin?
140. Identify the diagram given below (1) Alexander Fleming alone
(2) Ernest Chain and Howard
Florey alone
(3) Alexander Fleming, Ernest
Chain, and Howard Florey
(4) George Gamow and Marshall
Nirenberg
145. What is the purpose of primary
(1) Laminaria (2) Fucus treatment in sewage treatment plants?
(3) Chara (4) Chlamydomonas (1) To add beneficial microbes
141. Why are there no tRNAs for stop into the sewage
codons? (2) To chemically treat the sewage
(1) Because stop codons do not water
code for amino acids. (3) To physically remove particles
(2) Because tRNAs can only bind from sewage through filtration
to the start codon. and sedimentation
(3) Because ribosomes ignore (4) To directly release the treated
stop codons during translation. water into rivers
(4) Because mRNA does not 146. How are DNA fragments
contain stop codons. visualized after gel electrophoresis?
142. How is the codon read in mRNA (1) By heating the gel.
during the process of translation? (2) By staining with ethidium
(1) In a fragmented manner with bromide and exposure to UV
punctuations between codons. radiation
(2) In a contiguous fashion (3) By adding alcohol to the gel.
without any punctuations. (4) By exposing the gel to sunlight
(3) By skipping every other codon 147. Why is formulation important in
to ensure diversity. the production of biotechnological
(4) In reverse order to ensure products?
correct protein formation. (1) It helps in altering the genetic
143. Whose cell-free system for composition of the product.
protein synthesis helped in (2) It involves adding preservatives to
deciphering the genetic code? enhance the product’s shelf life.
(1) Severo Ochoa
 (3) It reduces the cost of downstream ZOOLOGY
processing. SECTION A – 35 QUESTIONS
(4) It simplifies the separation 151. Select the organism possessing
process. mesoglea in between ectoderm and
148. Which enzyme is used to remove endoderm.
RNA during the isolation of DNA? (1) Ascaris (2) Struthio
(1) DNA ligase (3) Physalia (4) Pheretima
(2) Ribonuclease 152.Match the column–I and column–II
(3) Lipase COLUMN - I COLUMN – II
(4) Amylase A Ring Worm I Streptococcus
B Pneumonia II Salmonella
149. How do C3 plants respond to
C Filariasis III Microsporum
increased CO2 concentrations
D Typhoid IV Wuchereria
compared to C4 plants under
optimum light intensity conditions? ABCD
(1) C3 plants show decreased (1) IV I III II
photosynthesis rates. (2) III I IV II
(2) C3 plants show saturation at lower (3) III IV I II
CO2 concentrations than C4 plants (4) I IV II III
(3) C3 plants respond to increased CO2 153.The major function of the
concentrations with increased epithelium lining the moist surface of
photosynthesis rates and show the buccal cavity is
saturation beyond 450 μlL-1. (1) Forming a diffusion boundary
(4) C3 and C4 plants do not show any (2) Assisting in the movement of
difference in response to CO2 particles or mucus in a specific
concentration. direction
150. What does the term “Biopiracy” (3) To provide protection against
refer to? chemical and mechanical stresses
(1) The conservation of biodiversity (4) Absorption and secretion
by multinational companies 154. Which hormone is at its lowest
(2) The use of bio-resources by concentration in the bloodstream
multinational companies without during the 10th to 14th day of the
proper authorization and without menstrual cycle?
compensatory payment (1) LH
(3) The legal use of traditional (2) Estrogen
knowledge by the indigenous (3) Progesterone
people
(4) FSH
(4) The sharing of benefits from
genetic resources fairly between 155. The cause of Klinefelter’s
all countries syndrome in humans is
(1) absence of Y-chromosome
(2) absence of X-chromosome
 (3) an extra copy of an autosome (2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) an extra copy of X- (3) Golgi complex
chromosome (4) Ribosomes
156. Assertion (A) : Barrier methods 160. Which of the following hormone
such as condoms prevent the physical decreases the blood glucose levels?
meeting of ovum and sperm. (1) Thymosin (2) Insulin
Reason (R) : Condoms are used just (3) Aldosterone (4) Melatonin
before coitus to prevent the entry of
161. Which of the following organisms
ejaculated semen into the female
possesses collterial glands?
reproductive tract.
(1) Frog (2) Cockroach
(1) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A. (3) Earthworm (4) Human
(2) Both A and R are true and R is 162. During the process of glomerular
not the correct explanation of A. filtration, all of the given
(3) A is true, but R is false. constituents of plasma can pass on
(4) A is false, but R is true to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule,
except
157.Which of the following is an
(1) Amino acids (2) Glucose
autosomal recessive disorder?
(3) Large proteins (4) Minerals
(1) Colour blindness
(2) Sickle cell anaemia 163. Which of the following is a
(3) Haemophilia method of ex situ conservation?
(4) Myotonic dystrophy (1) Botanical gardens
(2) Biosphere reserves
158. Statement–A : Neurotransmitters
(3) National parks
are involved in the
(4) Wildlife sanctuaries
transmission of
impulses at electrical 164. Which of the following do(es) not
synapses. provide the sites for the interaction of
mature lymphocytes with antigen?
Statement–B : Chemical synapses are
rare in our system. (1) Peyer’s patches
(1) Both statement A and B are (2) Spleen
correct. (3)Thymus gland
(2) Both statement A and B are false. (4) Lymph nodes
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is 165. Which of the following is the most
correct. species rich taxonomic group among
(4) Statement A is correct, B is the animals?
incorrect. (1) Crustaceans
159. During muscle contraction, the (2) Echinoderms
calcium ions are released into the (3) Molluscs
sarcoplasm by (4) Insects
(1) Nissl’s granules
166.Statement–I:Angiotensin–II A B CD
activates the cortex of the adrenal (1) IV III I II
gland to release aldosterone. (2) V III I II
Statement–II : ANF acts as a check on (3) IV V I III
renin-angiotensin mechanism. (4) III IV V II
(1) Statement I is incorrect, II is 170. Select the correct statement
correct regarding mutation theory of
(2) Both statement I and II are evolution.
false (1) This theory was proposed by
(3) Statement I is correct, II is Alfred Wallace.
incorrect (2) Mutations are small directional
(4) Both statement I and II are changes.
correct (3) Single-step large mutation is a
167. Which of the following is an IUD cause of speciation.
that makes the uterine cervix hostile to (4) Mutations are large differences
sperm? that arise gradually in a
(1) Cu-T population.
(2) Multiload-375 171. Study the following statements
(3) LNG-20 and choose the correct ones.
(4) Lippes loop i) Contraction of external
168.HGP was closely associated with intercostal muscles increases
the rapid development of a new area in the volume of the thoracic
biology called cavity in the dorsoventral axis.
(1) bioprospection ii) Contraction of internal
(2) biomagnification intercostal muscles increases
the volume of the thoracic
(3) bioinformatics
cavity in the anteroposterior
(4) biogeography axis.
169. Match the List – I with List – II.
iii) Human beings have the ability
List – I List – II to increase the strength of
A Sacred groves I Alien species inspiration and expiration with
B Zoological II Lungs of our the help of additional muscles
park planet in the abdomen.
C Nile perch III Ex situ
iv) The diaphragm becomes flat
conservation
due to the relaxation of external
D Amazon IV Khasi hills in intercostal muscles.
forest meghalaya
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, iii only
V High degree of
endemism (3) Only i (4) i, iii, iv
172. The biological response modifiers 176. The type of joint between the flat
used for cancer patients include skull bones, which are fused end to
(1) vinblastin end, is
(2) 𝛼–interferons (1) Fibrous joint
(3) X–rays (2) Cartilaginous joint
(4) chemotherapeutic drugs (3) Ball and socket joint
173. Statement-A : Parturition is (4) Pivot joint
induced by a complex 177. Statement-I : Blood vascular
neuroendocrine system of cockroach is of open type.
mechanism.
Statement-II : In an open circulatory
Statement-B : The signals for system, blood is pumped out of the
parturition originate heart and the cells and tissues are
from the fully developed directly bathed in it.
foetus and the placenta.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
(1) Statement A is correct, B is statement II is correct.
incorrect.
(2) Both statement I and
(2) Both statement A and B are false. statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is (3) Statement I is correct but
correct. statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both statement A and B are (4) Both statement I and
correct. statement II are correct.
174. Which of the following is a 178.Match the column–I with columnII
limbless amphibian? Column – I Column – II
(1) Struthio A Datura I Interferes
(2) Ornithorhynchus with the
(3) Alligator transport
(4) Icthyophis of
175. Assertion (A) : CAD is dopamine
characterised by a decrease in blood B Poppy plant II Used to
supply to heart muscles treat
Reason (R) : Deposition of calcium, fat, insomnia
cholesterol and fibrous tissue in C Erythroxylum III Halluciogen
coronary arteries makes the lumen of coca
arteries narrower. D benzodiazepines IV Sedative
(1) Both A and R are true and R is and pain
the correct explanation of A. killer
(2) Both A and R are true and R is ABCD
not the correct explanation of A. (1) III II IV I
(3) A is true, but R is false (2) II IV I III
(4) A is false, but R is true (3) III IV I II
(4) II I III IV
179. Prolonged deficiency of iodine in 184. Assertion (A) : Net primary
our diet results in productivity is the
(1) hyperthyroidism available biomass for
(2) enlargement of thyroid gland the consumption to
(3) high blood calcium level herbivores and
decomposers.
(4) depigmentation
Reason (R) : The rate of
180. Which of the following is a part of formation of new organic matter
the hindbrain with a highly by consumers is called net
convoluted surface for the primary productivity.
accommodation of more neurons? (1) Both A and R are true and R is
(1) Cerebrum the correct explanation of A.
(2) Pons (2) Both A and R are true and R is
(3) Medulla not the correct explanation of A.
(4) Cerebellum (3) A is true, but R is false.
181. Which of the following is the (4) A is false, but R is true.
integral form of the exponential
185. The first clinical gene therapy was
growth equation?
given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl with
___ deficiency.
(1) tyrosin kinase
(2) adenosine deaminase
(3) carbonic anhydrase
(4) enterokinase
SECTION – B (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
186.The process of evolution of
different species in a given
geographical area starting from a point
182. If gene migration happens
and literally radiating to other areas of
multiple times, there would be a
geography is called
(1) gene silencing
(1) adaptative radiation
(2) gene therapy
(2) convergent evolution
(3) gene knockout
(3) analogy
(4) gene flow
(4) industrial melanism
183. Which of the following is called
187.During the coagulation of blood,
the pacemaker of human heart?
inactive fibrinogen is activated by
(1) Atrioventricular node (AVN)
(1) thrombokinase
(2) Purkinje fibres (PF)
(2) prothrombin
(3) Bundle of His (BH)
(3) thrombin
(4) Sinoatrial node (SAN)
(4) fibrin
188.At least how many secondary d) Ovum collected from a donor is
spermatocytes are required to form transferred into the fallopian
400 million spermatozoa? tube of another female.
(1) 50 million Choose the correct statements
(2) 100 million regarding test tube baby
(3) 200 million programme.
(4) 400 million (1) a and d only
189. Which of the following chemical (2) b and d only
reactions are catalysed by the enzyme (3) a, b, c only
carbonic anhydrase? (4) a, b, c, d
192.The correct pathway for the
passage of sperm in male frogs is
(1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney
→ Bidder’s canal → Urinogenital
(1) i and ii only duct → Cloaca
(2) i and iii only (2) Testes → Vasa efferentia →
(3) ii and iii only Bidder’s canal → Ureters →
(4) i, ii and iii Kidney → Cloaca
190. Statement-A : Hepatitis-B vaccine (3) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Vasa
is produced from yeast. efferentia → Kidney → Cloaca →
Statement-B : Antitoxins, when Ureters
introduced into the (4) Testes → Vasa efferentia →
human body, provide Ureters → Kidney → Cloaca →
artificial passive Bidder’s canal
immunisation. 193. Match column – I with column – II
(1) Both statement A and B are w.r.t hyposecretion of hormones.
correct. Column – I Column – II
(2) Both statement A and B are false. A Thyroxine I Diabetes
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is insipidus
correct. B Corticoids II Cretinism
(4) Statement A is correct, B is C ADH III Diabetes
incorrect. mellitus
D insulin IV Addison’s
191.Consider the following statements. disease
a) Zygote is formed by in vitro
Select the correct option.
fertilisation.
ABCD
b) Zygote could be transferred into
the fallopian tube. (1) IV III I II
c) Embryos with more than 8 (2) II IV III I
blastomeres are transferred (3) II III IV I
into the uterus. (4) II IV I III
194. Assertion (A) : Pouched mammals 198. A pregnant woman undergoes a
survived and flourished in Australia. spontaneous abortion. The foetus
Reason (R) : Pouched mammals of expelled through her body had
Australia did not face competition eyelashes and eyelids that are
from other mammals because separated. The abortion would
continental drift isolated them. probably have occurred in which of the
(1) Both A and R are true and R is following time periods of pregnancy?
the correct explanation of A. (1) At the beginning of the first
(2) Both A and R are true and R is trimester
not the correct explanation of A. (2) At the end of 12th week
(3) A is true, but R is false. (3) At the end of 24th week
(4) A is false, but R is true. (4) At the end of 5th month
195. During decomposition, water- 199. Which of the following animals
soluble inorganic nutrients go down does not have a larval stage in its life
into the soil horizon and get history?
precipitated as unavailable salts by the (1) Ascidia (2) Asterias
process of (3) Clarias (4) Sycon
(1)Fragmentation 200. Female heterogamety is seen in
(2) Humification (1) grasshoppers (2) humans
(3) Leaching (3) fruitflies (4) birds
(4) Catabolism
196. Statement-A : In emphysema, the
surface area of gaseous exchange is
reduced.
Statement-B : Due to excessive
smoking, the walls of the alveoli are
damaged.
(1) Both statement A and B are
correct.
(2) Both statement A and B are
false.
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is
correct.
(4) Statement A is correct, B is
incorrect
197. Lichens represent an example for
(1) commensalism
(2) mutualism
(3) parasitism
(4) amensalism