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SAT Repetitive Reading questions with answers

The document introduces the SAT Repetitive Reading Questions List created by Donobek Qahramonov and SATashkent, aimed at helping students prepare for the Digital SAT exam. It highlights the changes in the exam format and offers a collection of 54 frequently appearing questions to aid test-takers in achieving higher scores. The creator shares personal success in the SAT and encourages users to reach out for assistance through their Telegram channel.

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umrzokadashaliev
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100% found this document useful (2 votes)
3K views

SAT Repetitive Reading questions with answers

The document introduces the SAT Repetitive Reading Questions List created by Donobek Qahramonov and SATashkent, aimed at helping students prepare for the Digital SAT exam. It highlights the changes in the exam format and offers a collection of 54 frequently appearing questions to aid test-takers in achieving higher scores. The creator shares personal success in the SAT and encourages users to reach out for assistance through their Telegram channel.

Uploaded by

umrzokadashaliev
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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You will never walk alone …!
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Introduction
Welcome to the SAT Repetitive Reading Questions List by Donobek Qahramonov & SATashkent.

With the introduction of the Digital SAT exam, the exam structure of the SAT has changed drastically: passages
become shorter, question types become more diverse, genres of passages might vary significantly from question
to question, and total removal of separation between Reading and Writing parts.

In the beginning, many test takers struggled with the brand-new format. However, as time passed test takers and
tutors started developing strategies and tactics to approach question types, which ultimately contributed to the
achievement of high scores on the exam. One of the strategies, we found exceptionally useful, is familiarizing
yourself with certain questions that repetitively appear on the exam. By familiarizing yourself with the content of
such questions, if such a question appears on your test, you would answer the question faster, as you know the
content beforehand, and save more time for more challenging questions. To save your time for researching such
questions, we created SAT REPETITIVE READING QUESTIONS LIST for all SAT learners.

This book contains 54 questions which have been reiterated and reused frequently. By practicing and
familiarizing yourself with the content you would be ready to face the same question on your exam day or
at least be ready for the content of the question in advance if there are some changes within the passage.
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We fully recognize and acknowledge the tests taken from Past Papers of the Digital SAT exams. The sole purpose
of this project is not to sell but to benefit those who are wishing to get higher scores on the exam.

Few words from the creator:

“Hi, there 👋. I am Donobek, a SAT tutor at SATashkent. So far, I have scored 750+ four times in the Reading
and Writing section and a perfect 800 twice in Math. With almost two years of experience with the Digital SAT, I
decided to create this practice file specifically for those whose exam is approaching. It contains 54 of the most
frequently appearing and challenging questions, along with the most accurate answers. If you have any problems
regarding these questions/answers, you can reach out to us through our Telegram channel anytime. We have
included the link at the bottom of each page. Best of luck!”
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“SAT Repetitive Reading Questions List”​
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[1]​ ​


Which finding from the study, if true, would most directly support the
Neurobiologists Laura Cuaya, Raul Hernández-Pérez, and
team’s conclusion?​
colleagues investigated the language detection abilities of

eighteen dogs raised in similar settings. The researchers A) The difference between the pattern of brain activity a dog showed
monitored the brain activity of Sander (a golden retriever), Alma when hearing the language it was accustomed to and the pattern of
(a mixed breed), and other dogs while the animals listened to brain activity it showed when hearing the language it was not
three recordings: one of The Little Prince being read in Spanish, accustomed to was greatest among older dogs.​
the second in Hungarian, and a third made up of short, ​
randomly selected fragments of the first two, scrambled so that B) The similarity between the pattern of brain activity a dog showed in
they didn’t resemble human speech. Each dog was familiar with response to hearing the scrambled recording and the pattern of brain
either Spanish or Hungarian, but not both. The team concluded activity it showed in response to hearing the language it was not
accustomed to was greatest among older dogs.​
that the amount of previous language exposure a dog has

received may influence its ability to distinguish familiar
C) Although the dogs’ general hearing sensitivity declined with age, dogs
languages from unfamiliar ones. of all ages showed more brain activity in response to hearing the
language they were accustomed to than in response to hearing the other
language.​
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​ D) Dogs showed a different pattern of brain activity when hearing the
language they were accustomed to than when hearing the scrambled
​ recording, and the difference in brain activity increased with the age of
the dog scanned.

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[2]​ ​


Growing seasons in Alaska have been extending further into the Which finding, if true, would most directly support the
year as a result of climate changes, potentially enabling researchers’ conclusion?​
increased carbon dioxide (CO2) absorption through greater
productivity of marsh cinquefoil (Comarum palustre) plants and A) Relatively early snow cover reduces the amount of soil
other vegetation, but also potentially enabling increased CO2 moisture available for the growth of plant species such as C.
output through greater heterotrophic respiration (CO2) palustre and lowers the rate of heterotrophic respiration.​
generated by the activity of soil microorganisms). Hydrologist
Yonghong Yi and her colleagues developed a model B) Seasonal snow cover tends to persist longer in areas of
incorporating numerous inputs—years of solar radiation and relatively low vegetation growth and high heterotrophic
snow cover data among them—to evaluate the effects of climate respiration than in areas of relatively high vegetation growth and
changes on the Co balance in Alaska, concluding that net CO2 low heterotrophic respiration.​
is likely to increase if seasonal snow cover arrives earlier
relative to the onset of soil surface freezing. C) The soil insulation provided by snow cover enables
heterotrophic respiration to continue during a period in which
​ plant species such as C. palustre are typically not growing.​

​ D) The effect of solar radiation on the growth of vegetation and
​ on the rate of heterotrophic respiration is stronger during the
​ period of seasonal snow cover than during the period without
​ snow cover.
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[3] ​ ​

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The bird species Myiobius barbatus (the bearded flycatcher), Which finding, if true, would most directly support Martinez and
which forages in relatively dense vegetation, and Platyrinchus colleagues’ hypothesis?​
saturatus (the cinnamon-crested spadebill), which forages in
open areas or low-density vegetation, share territory in French A) When Martinez and colleagues played T caesius alarm calls,
Guiana with Thainnomanes caesius (the cinereous antshrike), M. barbatus and P. saturatus displayed no reaction, whereas T.
which emits a loud alarm call when it detects predators. caesius displayed predator-avoidance behavior.​
Biologist Ari Martinez and colleagues, who studied the
ecological community the species share, hypothesized that B) Many local bird species with similar foraging habits to those
there is an inverse relationship between birds’ field of vision of M barbatus displayed no reaction when Martinez and
while foraging and their sensitivity to alarm calls from colleagues played T. caesius alarm calls, whereas M. barbatus
neighboring species. displayed predator-avoidance behavior.​

​ C) Some individuals of P. saturatus displayed
​ predator-avoidance behavior when Martinez and colleagues
​ played T. caesius alarm calls, whereas nearly all did when M.
​ barbatus alarm calls were played.​

​ D) P. saturatus displayed no reaction when Martinez and
​ colleagues played T. caesius alarm calls, whereas M. barbatus
​ displayed predator avoidance behavior in response to the calls.
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[4] *Find all 6 versions of this question at https://t.me/D7SAT​ ​


Burt Kotler and colleagues showed that high moonlight intensity Which choice best describes the function of the reference to
inhibits the activity of the greater Egyptian gerbil (Gerbillus "heavy reliance on visual foraging" in the text as a whole?​
pyramidum), a finding explicable in terms of benefits and costs: ​
greater lunar intensity may not enable the gerbils to increase A) It emphasizes an attribute of Mohol bushbabies that enables
foraging success enough to offset the higher chance of them to respond to lunar intensity variations more rapidly than
detection by predatory foxes or owls. Though many other greater Egyptian gerbils and many other nocturnal mammals do.​
nocturnal mammals respond to lunar intensity variations ​
similarly to greater Egyptian gerbils, Mohol bushbabies (Galago B) It identifies a characteristic of Mohol bushbabies that explains
moholi) display the opposite pattern, as their heavy reliance on why they do not reduce their activity under high lunar intensity
visual foraging results in a different balance of reward and risk. like greater Egyptian gerbils and many other nocturnal
​ mammals do.​
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​ C) It describes a behavioral pattern displayed by Mohol
​ bushbabies that is inconsistent with how they would be
​ expected to respond to high lunar intensity based on benefits
​ and costs.​
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​ D) It presents a trait of Mohol bushbabies that serves as
​ evidence for the assertion that greater Egyptian gerbils are not
​ the only nocturnal mammals whose activity is inhibited by high
​ lunar intensity.
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[5] *Find all 4 versions of this question at https://t.me/D7SAT ​ ​

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Arthurian legends (tales related to the character of King Arthur) Which choice most logically completes the text?​
derive from many sources, such as Preiddeu Annwfn,
composed around 900, and Perceval, the Story of the Grail from A) Geoffrey of Monmouth’s accounts of Arthurian legends in
around 1181. Sir Thomas Malory’s 15th-centruy text Le Morte History are more similar overall in content to the accounts in
d’Arthur was an attempt to compile these stories into a coherent Perceval, the Story of the Grail than they are to the account in
narrative. Many of Malory’s sources derive from Geoffrey of Le Morte d’Arthur.​
Monmouth’s History of the Kings of Britain, written in the 1130s.
While neither History nor any works that predate it mention B) Malory encountered the Round Table in a version that
Arthur’s famous Round Table at which his knights assembled, Geoffrey of Monmouth was not familiar with when writing his
Le Morte d’Arthur does, suggesting that ________ History.​

​ C) Le Morte d’Arthur is more historically accurate than History,
because Perceval, the Story of the Grail had not been written
​ when Geoffrey of Monmouth was writing his work.​

​ D) When a version of an Arthurian legends contradicted the
​ version in History, Malory preferred to include Geoffrey of
​ Monmouth’s version in Le Morte d’Arthur.
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[6]​ ​

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Scholars cite One Hundred Years of Solitude, the 1967 novel by Which quotation from a literary scholar would most directly
Colombian author Gabriel Garcia Márquez, as a foundational support the claim in the underlined portion of the text?​
text of magical realism, the Latin American style of fiction in
which antirealistic plot devices—often borrowed from the A) “Like many works in the Latin American magical realist
folkloric traditions of Indigenous and colonial societies in the tradition, Primeval and Other Times is indebted to antirealistic
Americas—are deployed in an otherwise realistic mode of elements in the folkloric tradition of Poland.”​
representation typical of the modern novel. This style has
exerted a decisive influence on authors around the world, B) “The logic of the realistic plot of Primeval and Other Times is
including Olga Tokarczuk, whose 1996 novel Primeval and repeatedly and productively disrupted by the presence of
Other Times resembles classic magical realist novels in its imagery and situations drawn from Polish folklore.”​
juxtaposition of literary realism with folklore—namely, that of
Poland. C) “While Primeval and Other Times alternates between realistic
​ and antirealistic modes of representation, details suggesting the
​ influence of Polish folklore nevertheless occur throughout the
​ novel.”​

​ D) “Although Polish folklore clearly informs the style and
​ occasionally antirealistic plot of Primeval and Other Times, the
​ novel also shows the inarguable influence of the magical realist
​ tradition of Latin America.”
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[7]​ ​


Exclusively inhabiting tropical countries such as Liberia, wild Which choice most logically completes the text?​
chimpanzees lack adaptations to seasonal variations in ​
ultraviolet B (UVB) irradiance from sunlight; since UVB A) giving zoo chimpanzees in Belgium and other mid-latitude
exposure enables vertebrates to synthesize vitamin D, this countries unlimited outdoor access during spring may help offset
raises questions about how chimpanzees in mid-latitude zoos the effect of reduced UVB irradiance relative to summer.
are affected by the seasonal variations in UVB irradiance that
occur in those locations. In a study of zoo chimpanzees in B) adaptations to seasonal variations in UVB irradiance may be
Belgium and other mid-latitude countries, Sophie Moittié and emerging in zoo chimpanzees with unlimited outdoor access in
colleagues found that vitamin D levels are lower in spring than Belgium and other mid-latitude countries.
in summer, paralleling UVB irradiance, but also that regardless
of season, chimpanzees with unlimited outdoor access have C) the amount of outdoor access received by zoo chimpanzees
higher vitamin D levels than chimpanzees with limited outdoor in Belgium and other mid-latitude countries affects those
access. These findings suggest that ______ chimpanzees’ vitamin D levels more than do seasonal variations
in UVB irradiance.

​ D) in mid-latitude countries such as Belgium, zoo chimpanzees
​ with unlimited outdoor access tend to synthesize more vitamin D
​ per unit of UVB irradiance in summer than they do in spring.​



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[8]​ ​

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Saeed M.Z.A. Tarabieh conducted a study of consumer attitudes Which choice most logically completes the text?​
toward Jordanian food and beverage companies and found that
for consumers who value environmental conservation, their A) the new piece of furniture is more appealing to suburban
likelihood of purchasing a product decreased when their residents than other similar products on the market are.​
perception of the product’s risk of causing environmental harm
increased. Subsequently, other researchers conducted a study B) suburban residents might be less likely than participants in
of various demographic groups in Greece, investigating the other demographic groups to purchase the piece of
participants’ intentions to purchase a new piece of furniture, and furniture.​
found that, on average, suburban residents had the highest
perception among all the demographic groups in the study of C) there is not a meaningful difference in the average likelihood
the environmental risks of the piece of furniture. Assuming that of purchasing environmentally friendly products among the
the results of Tarabieh’s study are broadly applicable, this demographic groups included in the study.​
finding suggests that _____
​ D) suburban residents likely prioritize other factors over a
​ product’s environmental sustainability when making purchasing
​ decisions.
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[9]​ ​

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All stainless steel contains varying amounts of iron, carbon, and Which choice most logically completes the text?​
corrosion-inhibiting chromium. However, ferritic stainless steel,
often used for cooking utensils, contains a higher percentage of A) cooking utensils will have a face-centered cubic crystalline
chromium (at least 10.5%) than does austenitic stainless steel structure.​
and a higher concentration of iron, which is responsible for its
magnetic properties. Unlike ferritic stainless steel, austenitic B) mining and chemical equipment will have a concentration of
stainless steel has a face-centered cubic crystalline structure chromium lower than 10.5%, while stainless steel used for
resulting from the addition of nickel to the alloy. Austenitic washing machines will not.​
stainless steel has two subtypes: the 200 series, often used for
washing machines, and the 300 series, which has more nickel C) cooking utensils will have greater magnetic properties than
than the 200 series and is often used for mining and chemical stainless steel used to manufacture mining and chemical
equipment or compensators. Thus, stainless steel used to equipment will.
manufacture ________
D) compensators will likely have a similar crystalline structure to
stainless steel used to manufacture cooking utensils.
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[10]​ ​


Indigenous Songs and Ecological Knowledge Text: Which choice most logically completes the text? ​
Ethnographers have spent decades analyzing the traditional
songs of Indigenous peoples around the world. Only recently, A) reconsider their view that the transmission of ecological
however, have ethnographers started to recognize that many knowledge is an important function of some Indigenous songs. ​
Indigenous songs encode and transmit valuable ecological
knowledge—citing, for instance, songs of the Kwakwaka’wakw B) reexamine some of their earlier analyses of Indigenous
people in British Columbia, Canada, that share vital information peoples’ songs in light of this new perspective.​
about clam gardens, and those of the Sakha people in Siberia,
Russia, that address the effects of climate change on local C) explore the possibility that the Kwakwaka’wakw people were
ecosystems. It seems likely, therefore, that ethnographers may influenced by the songs of the Sakha.
want to _______. ​
D) place greater emphasis on the use of Indigenous songs by
individuals than on the songs’ roles in society.

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[11]​ ​

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Students in a biology class investigated why individual house Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the students’
mice (Mus musculus) can differ from one another in their conclusion?​
susceptibility to cataracts in old age. The students compared
wild-type mice and knockout mice, which are mice with specific A) Some wild-type mice were very similar to the knockout mice
genes deactivated, when mice of each type were raised in with regard to cataract frequency but showed a wide variety of
similar naturalistic environments and periodically tested for levels of expression of Aasdh.​
cataracts. Finding that knockout mice with the gene Aasdh
deactivated tended to develop cataracts more frequently than B) The level of expression of Aasdh does not appear to affect
did wild-type mice, the students concluded that differences in the functioning of any other genes in house mice.​
cataract frequency among house mice in nature are solely
attributable to variations in the level of expression of Aasdh. C) A sampling of house mice captured in natural settings shows
​ that individual mice can differ from one another in the level of
​ expression of Aasdh.​

​ D) The mice with Aasdh deactivated were identical to the
​ wild-type mice except with regard to cataract frequency.
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[12]​ ​


Amazon’s introduction of the AWS cloud-computing platform in Which finding, if true, would most directly support the conclusion
2002 is an instance of brand extension—the company put forward by Grasby et al.?​
leveraged its brand recognition as an online retailer to enter a
new product category. To understand consumer responses to A) Extended-brand pairs with high product-category similarity
extended brands, Alicia Grasby et al. identified 30 ratings tended to be in categories that are similar to bread and
extended-brand pairs (e.g., the brand of automobile and bagels, whereas extended-brand pairs with low similarity ratings
lawnmower) in household purchasing data and, for each pair, tended to be in categories that are similar to mozzarella cheese
had consumers rate the similarity of the pair’s product and ice cream.​
categories. Pairs of product categories such as bread and ​
bagels were rated as similar, whereas those such as mozzarella B) Consumers were more likely to purchase both products in
cheese and ice cream were rated as dissimilar. Grasby et al. extended-brand pairs with ratings comparable to those of bread
concluded that category similarity positively affects the and bagels than they were to purchase both products in
probability of cross-category purchases of the same brand. extended-brand pairs with ratings comparable to those of
mozzarella cheese and ice cream.​


C) The probability that consumers would purchase both

products in extended-brand pairs was highest when those

products were similar to other products of different brands in the

same categories and was lowest when those products were

dissimilar to other products of different brands in the same

categories.​


D) For extended-brand pairs with high similarity ratings, there

was a strong positive correlation between the probability that

only one product in the pair would be purchased and that

particular brand’s level of brand recognition.​


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[13]​ ​

​ ​
Psychologists Gregory Bryant, Dorsa Amir, and colleagues Which quotation from a psychologist not involved in the team’s
investigated cross-cultural perceptions of spontaneous (real) study would most directly weaken the team’s conclusion?​
laughter and volitional (fake or forced) laughter. Study
participants from 21 societies, including those in Austria and A) “Recent studies in communications have shown that certain
Turkey, listened to randomized recordings of 18 spontaneous acoustic features of spontaneous laughter, such as pitch and
laughs taken from natural conversations between pairs of intensity, are consistent both within and across societies.”​
women and 18 volitional laughs produced separately by 18
different women in response to an experimenter’s instruction to B) “Although the team considered the average size of
laugh. Analysis of the participants’ evaluations of the laughs communities in each society in the study, that demographic
prompted the team to conclude that the ability to distinguish factor was found to have no effect on listeners’ identifications of
between spontaneous and volitional laughter appears to be laughter as spontaneous or volitional.”​
universal across cultures.
​ C) “Judgments of spontaneous laughter are often associated
​ with acoustic features such as greater intensity variability and
​ higher pitch.”​

​ D) “When an individual chooses to produce volitional laughter in
​ a natural social context, the laughter often shares certain
​ acoustic qualities, such as pitch and fluctuation of intensity, with
​ spontaneous laughter.”
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[14]​ ​


Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to
complete the example?​

A) P6's rating for abstract and cubist paintings would equal one
another​

B) P6 would derive less aesthetic pleasure from abstract


paintings than from cubist paintings.​

C) P6's ratings for abstract and cubist paintings would differ


from one another​

​ D) P6 would derive more aesthetic pleasure from abstract
Neuroscientist Kiyohito ligaya and colleagues developed a paintings than from cubist paintings.
computational model to predict how much a person will enjoy a ​
particular work of art on a scale from 1 (not at all) to 4 (very ​
much). They then recruited participants to use the same scale to ​
rate several sets of paintings in various styles and calculated ​

the correlation between the ratings predicted by the model and

those reported by the participants. Assuming participant P6

gave equal ratings to the abstract and cubist paintings, the data ​
in the graph indicate the model predicted that_____​ ​
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[15]​ ​

​ ​
A creole language is an amalgam of a lexifier, or primary Which statement, if true, would best illustrate the challenge
contributor of grammar and vocabulary, with one or more described in the text?​
substrates, or secondary contributors. English-lexifying creoles
in the Caribbean, such as Vincentian Creole, rely on West A) The usage of the Hawaiian Pidgin verb “ste” to convey a
African substrates, while Hawaiian Pidgin relies on ‘Olelo temporary state, as in the statement “da watah ste cold” (the
Hawai’i, the Polynesian language of the Native Hawaiian water is cold), most nearly resembles that of the ‘Olelo Hawaii
people, with further contributions from Okinawan and other East verb noho, though the Portuguese verb ficar and the Spanish
Asian languages, Portuguese, and Spanish. This is a verb estar have similar usages and may also exert an influence
heterogeneous situation, even for a creole language. Moreover, on “ste.”​
numerous similarities are found among the East Asian
substrates, as well as between Portuguese and Spanish. Thus, B) As is also the case with some first-language speakers of
it can be challenging to credit certain words or features of Vincentian Creole, many first-language speakers of Hawaiian
grammar or pronunciation to any one substrate. Pidgin align their pronunciation, word choice, and syntax more
​ closely with English in certain conversational contexts than in
​ others.​

​ C) Hawaiian Pidgin’s substitution of “d” for the voiced “th”
​ consonant (as used in “that”) and of “t” for the unvoiced “th”
​ consonant (as used in “thick”) can be credited to the absence of
​ “th” consonants in ‘Olelo Hawaii, though most other Polynesian
​ languages lack “th” consonants too.​

​ D) Stative structures in which verbs modify subjects and serve a
​ descriptive function comparable to that of adjectives are
​ hallmarks of Hawaiian Pidgin as well as of East Asian
​ languages such as Okinawan, yet the syntax of Hawaiian
​ Pidgin’s stative structures confirms their origin in ‘Olelo Hawai’i.

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[16]​ ​

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Text 1 ​ ​
The poet Audre Lorde once claimed that poetry is the most Based on the texts, Lorde (Text 1) and the author of Text 2
inexpensive of art forms to practice. While people who pursue would most likely disagree about the answer to which of the
other art forms—sculpture, architecture, theater—require large following questions?​
blocks of uninterrupted time as well as money to complete their
work, poets can write, as Lorde said, "between shifts, in the A) Is working a full-time job a major impediment to practicing the
hospital pantry, on the subway, and on scraps of surplus paper." art of poetry? ​
So poets can practice their art even if they must earn their living
in another way. ​ B) Does professional training in poetry affect the quality of
​ poets' work?​
Text 2 ​
Any assessment of the state of contemporary poetry must C) Do other art forms than poetry require substantial
reckon with the professionalization of the field. While it is investments of time and money?​
possible in theory for anyone to publish in Poetry, Ploughshares,
or a similar major poetry outlet, many people who do so have D) Should poets try to gain experience working in nonartistic
professional training in poetry and extensive practice writing it, fields as a way of improving their poetry?
which requires time not often available to those who must also ​
work full-time jobs. Thus, financial security indirectly affects ​
which people become poets. ​
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[17]​ ​


The data in the graph best support which conclusion about
organizations that filed Form 4720 in 2005?​

A) Those that filed Form 4720 in 2005 because they engaged in


self-dealing collectively paid a larger percentage of the total
penalty assessed that year than those that filed Form 990 but
also filed Form 4720 for the same reason.​

B) Those that filed Form 4720 because they had excess


holdings in a business enterprise paid, on average, a larger
penalty than those that filed Form 4720 because they engaged
in self-dealing.​


C) Those that filed Form 4720 because they engaged in
While US public charities, like Habitat for Humanity
self-dealing paid an increasing percentage of the total penalty
International, must file Form 990 yearly with the IRS, private
each year from 2003 to 2005.​
foundations, such as Lilly Endowment Inc., must file a different
form, 990-PF. In addition, foundations that engage in certain
D) Those that filed Form 4720 in 2003 because they failed to
prohibited activities must also file Form 4720 and pay a penalty
meet the minimum charitable distribution requirement
tax on the money involved. Private foundations are prohibited
collectively paid a larger percentage of the total penalty
from holding excess interests in a business enterprise,
assessed that year than those that filed Form 4720 in 2005 for
"self-dealing" (conducting activities that benefit foundation
the same reason.
insiders), making taxable expenditures such as grants to

noncharitable entities, and failing to cross a required threshold ​
in making charitable distributions from income. Out of the ​
organizations that filed Form 990-PF in the years 2003–2005, ​
_______​ ​

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[18]​ ​

​ ​
As complex life cycle parasites, Anisakis sp. and Capillaria Which choice most logically completes the text?​
parophrysi require multiple host species throughout their
development. Extrapolating from parasite counts on walleye A)​ population size and density of the eight fish species
pollock and seven other fish species collected from Puget examined in the study wered likely largely unaffected by
Sound from 1880 to 2019, Chelsea Wood et al. found that the rising sea temperatures.​
abundance of three-host parasites, such as Anisakis sp.,
negatively correlated with rising average annual sea B)​ although Anisakis sp. and C. parophrysi both require
temperatures; the abundance of two- host parasites, such as C. walleye pollock as a host, C. parophrysi was more
parophrysi, was largely stable. Noting that fish and other marine adversely affected by warming-driven changes in the
vertebrates are especially vulnerable to climate change, Wood walleye pollock population than Anisakis sp. was.​
et al. observed that all three-host parasites in the study depend
on at least two vertebrate species, while all two-host parasites C)​ a parasite’s sensitivity to warming temperatures is
depend on only one, suggesting that _______ negatively correlated with the number of unique
​ vertebrate species it depends on throughout its life cycle.​

​ D)​ warming-induced population changes among Puget
​ Sound vertebrates may have suppressed some parasite
​ populations, but there were no changes among the eight
​ studied host species that affected two-host parasite
​ abundance.
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[19]​ ​

​ ​
Mongolia, which, according to international indices, has Which choice most logically completes the text?​
relatively strong democratic institutions and low intranational
income inequality, experienced an inflation rate of 4.30% in A) speculations about the relative inability of democratic
2017, whereas Cameroon, which shows the opposite pattern on institutions to counteract inflation are based on measures that
such indices, had an inflation rate of only 0.64% that year. Such tend to exaggerate the levels of inflation in strongly democratic
comparisons have engendered speculation that by diluting countries such as Mongolia.
control over the economy, democratic institutions inhibit states’
ability to counteract inflationary pressures. To test this possibility B) it would be a mistake to treat the relative inflation rates of
systematically, Raj Desai et al. examined democratic strength, Mongolia and Cameroon as indicative of an inherent
international inequality, and inflation in more than 100 countries, shortcoming in democratic institutions with regard to control
finding that democratic strength, if associated with low over inflation.​
inequality, restrains inflationary pressures, suggesting that​
_______ C) the factors that contributed to Mongolia’s elevated inflation
​ rate relative to Cameroon’s have less to do with the countries’
​ political institutions than with the countries’ levels of income
​ inequality.​

​ D) the difference between Mongolia and Cameroon with regard
​ to democratic institution strength may have been greater in
​ 2017 than was represented by international indices.
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[20]​ ​

​ ​
Text 1​ ​
Based on the texts, which choice best describes a point on
In separate studies, Stephen Meding and Robert J. Zasoski and
which the author of Text 1 and the author of Text 2 would most
Xinhua He and colleagues examined whether plants transfer likely agree?​
nutrients to one another using a common mycorrhizal network
(CMN) —a lattice of fungal strands in the soil. Meding and A) Meding and Zasoski’s study effectively excluded any
explanation for nutrient transfer other than via a CMN.
Zasoski excluded all pathways other than the CMN by using

barriers to keep the plants’ root systems separate while allowing B) Excluding root-to-root transfer of nutrients between plants is
mycorrhizal strands through—a crucial step He and colleagues’ sufficient to ensure that any observed nutrient transfer must
study did not take. involve a CMN.


C) He and colleagues’ study was not designed in a way that
Text 2 would allow it to produce compelling evidence that nutrient
Meding and Zasoski took the necessary precaution of transfer occurred via a CMN.​
separating the plants’ root systems (thereby excluding ​
D) A barrier that is impervious to both roots and fungal strands
root-to-root transmission). However, any barrier used must allow
is necessary to evaluate nutrient transfer via a CMN.
the thread-like hyphae of a CMN to pass through, and this ​
permeability would also allow liquids through. Thus, the ​
researchers’ experimental design cannot ensure that any ​
nutrient transfer observed can be attributed to a CMN and not to ​

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[21]​ ​

​ ​
The phrase usa-don sonda is a future-oriented expression used Which finding, if true,would most directly support Núñez and
by members of the Yupno, an Indigenous group in Papua New colleagues’ claim?​
Guinea, that translates to “next week.” Rafael Núñez and
colleagues recorded Yupno speakers explaining several of A) Yupno speakers were observed making temporal gestures
these temporal-related words and phrases and coded each both indoors and outdoors, though with greater frequency when
speaker’s manual gestures. Previous research has found indoors.
evidence of Spanish speakers referring to the left/right axis to ​
describe events in time, and many researchers believe that this B) When outdoors and referring to the future, Yupno speakers
tendency to make temporal distinctions along imagined linear facing uphill gesture in front of themselves, whereas those
axes is universal. However, Núñez and colleagues claim that facing downhill gesture behind themselves.​
this tendency is not in fact ubiquitous. ​
​ C) Yupno speakers typically use their left hand to make
​ temporal gestures regardless of whether the gestures are past
​ oriented or future oriented.​

​ D) Some Yupno grammatical structures used when talking
​ about time are also used in Spanish.

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[22]​ ​

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In North Macedonia, use of solid fuel (e.g, coal, wood) as a Based on the text, which choice best explains why the author
share of total household fuel use fell by 25 percent between characterizes the energy ladder as “reductive”?​
2000 and 2019; such shifts are typically explained by appeal to
the energy ladder, a model holding that fuel choice is mediated A) The energy ladder attributes household fuel choice primarily
mainly by household income (specifically, high-technology fuels to a single characteristic of households, but Heltberg's study
displace solid fuels as incomes rise). Rasmus Heltberg's study showed that multiple circumstances can affect household fuel
of fuel use in Nicaragua shows how reductive this model is, choice.​
however: household fuel use was heterogeneous, flexible, and
influenced by several factors, including local electrical and B) The energy ladder asserts that households only consider one
plumbing infrastructure. aspect of fuel when making fuel choices, but Heltberg's study
​ showed that households ignore that characteristic of fuel and
​ evaluate several other factors instead.​

​ C) The energy ladder assumes that the same factor influences
​ household fuel choice in all locations, but Heltberg's study
​ showed that fuel choice in Nicaragua is influenced by different
​ factors than is fuel choice in North Macedonia.​

​ D) The energy ladder holds that the adoption of one type of fuel
​ means that another type of fuel must be displaced, but
​ Helthberg's study showed that several different fuel types are
​ typically used in equal proportion.
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[23]​ ​

​ Which finding, if true, would most directly support the conclusion
Shampoo and conditioner are complementary products, put forward by Grasby et al?​
meaning that they serve different purposes but are typically
used together, whereas cooking oil and butter are substitutable A) Although consumers were more likely to purchase
products, meaning that one product can be used for the same complementary extended brands than substitutable extended
purpose as the other. Alicia Grasby et al. investigated whether brands, the difference in purchasing probability reduced to zero
complementarity and substitutability influence consumers' when shampoo and conditioner were removed from
purchasing of extended brands — products of different types consideration.
sold under the same brand name — by comparing purchases of ​
extended-brand products that are complementary with those B) Although consumers spent about as much money on
that are substitutable. They concluded that although complementary extended brands as on substitutable extended
complementarity appears to benefit extended brands more than brands, reclassifying cooking oil and butter as complementary
substitutability does on average, this may be due to an outlier in shifted spending significantly in favor of complementary
the complementary product data.​ extended brands.​

​ C) Although consumers purchased complementary extended
​ brands more frequently than substitutable extended brands,
​ removing cooking oil and butter from the data led to an equal
​ purchasing frequency of complementary and substitutable
​ products.​

​ D) Although consumers were about equally likely to purchase
​ complementary extended brands and substitutable extended
​ brands, removing shampoo and conditioner from the data
​ increased the likelihood that consumers would purchase
​ complementary extended brands.
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[24]​ ​

​ ​
Kirsten Bos and other researchers studying the history of Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?​
organisms have long utilized ancient DNA — DNA recovered
from ancient organic material that has been preserved under A) It provides an overview of a technique traditionally used by
natural conditions. However, Maria C. Avila-Arcos and scientists, then asserts that an alternative technique is superior
colleagues’ 2013 study of the evolutionary trajectory of the koala to it.​
retrovirus instead relied on historical DNA (hDNA) — genomic
data incidentally preserved in specimens that are housed in B) It compares two distinct methods of analyzing genomic data,
natural history collections — thus capitalizing on the research then explains why the second method is relatively underused.​
potential offered by a vast but hitherto relatively underutilized
source of insight into the biological past. C) It describes two different approaches used by researchers,
​ then emphasizes how promising one of those approaches is.​

​ D) It summarizes previous research on a topic, then illustrates
​ how a group of scientists used a new method to challenge
​ findings produced by that research.
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[25]​ ​


Over time, marine mollusks called nautilids continually add Which finding, if true, would most directly support the
segments to their shells, and the chemical composition of each researchers’ conclusion?​
segment is influenced by the available materials in the
surrounding water when the segment forms. Paleontologist A) In nautilids, sex predicts septa growth rate more strongly
Amane Tajika and colleagues analyzed the septa (the walls than does oxygen-18 concentration in the surrounding water.​
between shell chambers) of one male (samples labeled “M”)
and one female (samples labeled “F”) nautilid, finding that B) Among nautulids, there is no effect of sex on the uptake of
sample F07 had the same concentration of oxygen-18 as did oxygen-18 from water or its deposition in septa.
water approximately 135 meters deep and that the oxygen-18 ​
concentration in sample M28 matched that of water at C) Male nautilids tend to show higher concentrations of
approximately 365 meters deep, Tajika et al, concluded that oxygen-18 than do female nautilids inhabiting the same point in
sample F07 formed at a higher point in the water column than the water column.​
did M28.
​ D) Regardless of sex, nautilids spend most of their lives at
​ depths of 50 meters or greater, where oxygen-18 concentrations
​ typically differ from those higher in the water column.
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[26]​ ​

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In a 2018 study, Deepak Jaiswal and Rishi Kant found that Which choice most logically completes the text?​
consumers’ knowledge of environmental issues had no effect on
the likelihood that the consumers would purchase A) a sample size of 202 may be sufficient to make reliable
environmentally friendly products. Since this study was based conclusions about the relationship between knowledge of
on fewer than 400 young adults in India, however, doubts have environmental issues and purchasing decisions.​
been raised about how reliable and representative the findings
are. To better understand the issue, Wencan Zhuang and B) concerns about the broad applicability of Jaiswal and Kant’s
colleagues analyzed the results of 54 studies of eco-friendly conclusion were justified.​
consumer behavior, such as a 2018 study from Indonesia that
included 916 participants and a 2018 study from India with 202 C) the number of participants in Jaiswal and Kant’s study was
participants. Taking all 54 studies together, Zhuang and far below the number of participants in most studies of
colleagues found a significant positive effect of environmental purchasing decisions.
knowledge on eco-friendly purchasing decisions, suggesting ​
that ________ D) Jaiswal and Kant’s methodology was more precise than the
​ methodology used in the 2018 study from Indonesia.
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[27]​ ​

​ ​
Over 600 languages are spoken in New York City in addition to Which choice most logically completes the text?​
English-one can find Bengali spoken in the neighborhood of
Parkchester, or Fujianese in Sunset Park. Most speakers of A) languages tend to change more rapidly in areas where many
Chinese languages reside in the neighborhood of Flushing (part languages are spoken than in areas where few languages are
of New York City’s borough of Queens) and in Chinatown, in the spoken.​
borough of Manhattan. New immigrants from north China,
where Mandarin is the primary first language, tend to settle in B) there is a positive correlation between the physical size of a
Queens, while new immigrants from south China, where many country and the number of languages spoken in that country.​
people speak Cantonese or Fuzhounese as a first language,
tend to settle in Manhattan. It can therefore be inferred that C) correlations in a country between languages and regions
________ where they are spoken can replicate themselves in a new
​ country to which the original country’s citizens emigrate.​

​ D) languages spoken by immigrant peoples can differ
​ significantly in vocabulary and pronunciation from those same
​ languages in their country of origin.
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[28]​ ​

Which choice most logically completes the text?​
The Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) is an expanse of abyssal
plain and seamounts (underwater mountains) between Hawai’i A) more likely to properly distinguish between morphologically
and Mexico in which mining is permitted, but the area’s similar but distinct invertebrate species than is the method used
biodiversity is poorly understood. The vast majority of to identify Prionospio branchilucida.
invertebrate species found in a recent survey of the CCZ were ​
hitherto unknown to scientists, and sampling for animal life has B) more frequently used for identifying species with
been highly concentrated in the eastern part of the zone. Some physiological characteristics like those of Ledella knudseni than
species like Ledella knudseni were identified both morphological analysis is.​
morphologically and molecularly (using DNA analysis), whereas
Prionospio branchilucida and other species for which molecular C) better suited to distinguishing Prionospio branchilucida from
sampling was impracticable were identified solely based on morphologically similar species than to distinguishing Ledella
physical morphology. Since molecular analysis does not require knudseni from morphologically similar species.​
distinguishing subtle physiological differences, it is _______
D) capable of providing greater physiological detail about a
​ species than is the method used for Prionospio branchilucida.
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[29]​ ​

Like all species of baleen whales, the humpback whale feeds on Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?​
tiny creatures known as krill by filtering water through bristlelike
keratin structures called baleen plates. In this way, baleen A) It draws a distinction between the sizes of the humpback
whales can eat up to 30 percent of their total mass per day. And whale and the fin whale and then presents a feature that they
while no one would call the humpback whale small — it can have in common.​
have a mass as high as 30,000 kg — it is one of the smaller
baleen whales and is much smaller than the fin whale, which B) It details a relationship between humpback and fin whales
can weigh a whopping 80,000kg and consume as much as and krill and then discusses an unexpected consequence of a
24,000kg of krill per day. change in baleen whale populations.
​ ​
​ C) It discusses a unique feature of the humpback whale and
​ how the lack of that feature in the fin whale explains differences
​ in the two species’ behavior.
​ ​
​ D) It describes a characteristic shared by all baleen whales and
​ then illustrates a difference between the humpback whale and
​ the fin whale that is relevant to that characteristic.

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[30]​ ​

​ ​
In the aquatic kingdom, three species of fish exhibit distinct Which of the following experimental findings, if true, would most
head and mouth morphology: the Broadface Chromis latus, the directly challenge the scientist's hypothesis?
Mediumface Chromis mediocris, and the Narrowface Chromis
angustus. Historically, it has been observed that under low A) The Chromis latus, with the widest head and mouth,
visibility conditions in water, the Narrowface Chromis exhibits successfully evades half of the obstacles.​
the highest sensitivity to changes in water pressure, indicating a
high ability to sense waves and pressure changes. It is followed B) Some Narrowface Chromis angustus exhibited a lower
by the Mediumface Chromis and then the Broadface Chromis. A success rate at avoiding obstacles than other Chromis
scientist hypothesized that in vortex conditions where rapid angustus.​
water movement significantly affects all fish's visual capabilities,
the fish with a stronger ability to sense water waves and C) Despite their low sensitivity to water pressure, some
pressure can better evade obstacles in the water than other fish, Broadface Chromis latus successfully circumvented all of the
effortlessly avoiding obstructions. To test this hypothesis, obstacles.​
researchers placed the three species into a vortex environment,
introduced a series of obstacles, and recorded the success rate D) The Mediumface Chromis mediocris and the Broadface
at which each species avoided the obstacles.​ Chromis latus showed similar rates of collisions with obstacles,
​ both struggling to avoid obstructions.
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[31]​ ​

​ ​
The Arapaho language of the Plains region in the United States Which finding, if true, would best support the researcher's
has 16 vowel and consonant sounds. In contrast, the Hadza hypothesis?​
language of eastern Africa has 70. Why would languages differ
in this way? One researcher has hypothesized that when A) Languages that emerged in northwestern North America tend
modern humans arose in Africa, they spoke a single language, to have more sounds than languages that emerged in East Asia
but as humans gradually spread throughout Africa and then do, even though northwestern North America is farther away
around the globe, that language developed into new languages. from Africa than East Asia is.​
Those developed into still more languages as small bands of
humans spread even farther, with each new language retaining B) Languages that emerged in Eastern Europe tend to have
fewer sounds from humanity's original language. more sounds than languages that emerged in East Asia do, and
​ Eastern Europe is closer to Africa than East Asia is.​

​ C) Languages that emerged in Western Europe tend to have
​ fewer sounds than languages that emerged in East Asia do, and
​ Western Europe is closer to Africa than East Asia is.​

​ D) Languages that emerged in Southeast Asia tend to have
​ more sounds than languages that emerged in East Asia do,
​ even though the two regions are roughly the same distance
​ from Africa.
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[32]​ ​

​ ​
In a 2014 study that took place in Laos, Stéphane Guédron, Which choice most logically completes the text?​
Delphine Tisserand, and colleagues found a negative
association between levels of dissolved organic carbon and A) few of the studies conducted in North America have been
mercury in bodies of fresh water. It may seem reasonable to be able to measure dissolved organic carbon and mercury levels
skeptical of this finding, since most other studies, such as with the same level of precision as in Guédron, Tisserand, and
research conducted in 2015 in Canada by Stéphanie Hamelin colleagues’ study.​
and colleagues, have found that dissolved organic carbon and
mercury levels rise together. Like the latter study, however, most B) the mercury levels reported in Guédron, Tisserand, and
studies of the topic have been conducted in North America, and colleagues’ study were much higher than those reported in the
many of those study sites have similar characteristics to one study by Hamelin and colleagues even though the dissolved
another, suggesting that ___________ organic carbon levels reported in the two studies were
​ approximately the same.​

​ C) Guédron, Tisserand, and colleagues’ study may have
​ inadvertently measured a different characteristic of bodies of
​ fresh water than their levels of dissolved organic carbon and
​ mercury.​

​ D) Guédron, Tisserand, and colleagues’ finding may differ from
​ the findings of other studies due to a difference in environmental
​ circumstances that affects the relationship between dissolved
​ organic carbon and mercury in fresh water.
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[33]​ ​

​ ​
The Federalist Papers are a collection of essays written by Based on the text, which choice best explains why it is
Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison and challenging to confidently assign authorship of the essay The
published pseudonymously in the Daily Advertiser and other House of Representatives?​
New York newspapers in 1787-88. Though the authorship of
most of the essays is certain, that of some is obscure: for A) The evidence that would indisputably prove that either
instance, while No. 15, The Insufficiency of the Present Hamilton or Madison was the sole author of The House of
Confederation to Preserve the Union, was surely penned by Representatives has been lost.​
Hamilton, No. 52 The House of Representatives may have been
written by either Hamilton or Madison. The difficulty of B) It is most likely that The House of Representatives was the product
determining No. 52’s author arises not from a lack of evidence of a collaborative effort between Hamilton and Madison.​
but from too much contradictory evidence.
C) Support can be found for a strong case that either Hamilton or
Madison was the sole author of The House of Representatives.
​ ​
​ D) Evidence shows that two versions of The House of
​ Representatives, one authored by Hamilton and another
​ authored by Madison, appeared in different New York
​ newspapers.
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[34] ​

​ ​
Like many other genera of wild bees, bumblebees have in Which choice most logically completes the text?​
recent decades experienced population collapse caused by,
among other factors, habitat destruction and climate variation. A) Although bumblebees have been more extensively studied
Bumblebees are also one of the most researched bee genera, than most wild bees, researchers should not use bumblebees to
second only to honeybees. As a result, ecologists have gained draw conclusions about the decline of other wild bees, even
much of their insight about wild-bee declines from bumblebees. ones with feeding patterns and levels of sociability that are
In a 2021 paper, zoologist Guillaume Ghisbain notes that similar to those of bumblebees.​
bumblebees are among the relatively few wild-bee genera that
display social behaviors and dietary generalism (ability to obtain B) Because bumblebees and other bees with generalist diets
nectar and pollen from a diversity of plant species), two traits are less negatively affected by environmental stress than bees
that are associated with increased resilience to some specific with specialized diets are, they are less likely to experience
environmental changes. Ghisbain therefore contends that major population changes in the future than bees with
_______ specialized diets are.​

​ C) Because the responses of bumblebees and other wild bees
​ to environmental threats are not always comparable,
​ researchers need to exercise caution when extrapolating
​ information about wild-bee population declines from
​ bumblebees.
​ ​
​ D) Although bumblebees and many other wild bees have
​ experienced similar population declines in the past, compared
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[35]​ ​

​ ​
The following text is from Mary Shelley’s 1818 novel Which choice best describes the function of the underlined
Frankenstein. Victor Frankenstein, who is narrating this portion sentence in the text as a whole?​
of text, describes the state of scientific knowledge as he began
his own study of the natural world. A) It explains what can be gained from a scientific approach to
The untaught peasant beheld the elements around him and was understanding natural phenomena.​
acquainted with their practical uses. The most learned
B) It describes an intensely debated scientific controversy that
philosopher knew little more. He had partially unveiled the face Victor dedicated his life to resolving.​
of Nature, but her immortal lineaments were still a wonder and a
mystery. He might dissect, anatomise, and give names; but, not C) It undermines the idea that a practical approach to
understanding natural phenomena is inferior to a scientific
to speak of a final cause, causes in their secondary and tertiary
approach.
grades were utterly unknown to him. I had gazed upon the ​
fortifications and impediments that seemed to keep human D) It suggests that Victor did not discover what he wanted to
beings from entering the citadel of nature, and rashly and know from the scientific research available to him.

ignorantly I had repined.


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[36]​ ​

​ ​
The following text is from Anthony Trollope’s 1855 novel The Which choice best states the function of the phrase “if he had
Warden. Charles James is the son of a high-ranking clergy one” in the text as a whole?​
member.
Charles James was an exact and careful boy; he never A) It concedes that Charles James’s attempts to gain the
committed himself; he well knew how much was expected from approval of those who know him are sometimes to little avail.​
the eldest son of the Archdeacon of Barchester, and was
therefore mindful not to mix too freely with other boys. He had B) It signals a shift in focus from describing Charles James’s
not the great talents of his younger brothers, but he exceeded fine traits to criticizing his tendency to excessively fear being the
them in judgment and propriety of demeanour; his fault, if he source of conflict.​
had one, was an over-attention to words instead of things; there
was a thought too much finesse about him, and, as even his C) It acknowledges that the qualities in Charles James the
father sometimes told him, he was too fond of a compromise. narrator goes on to describe may not actually be undesirable
characteristics.

D) It anticipates readers’ objections to the narrator’s criticism of


​ Charles James’s faults.
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[37]​ ​

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Hypothesizing that lullabies, characterized by their slow tempos, Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the critic’s
are universally calming to infants, Constance M. Bainbridge and claim?​
colleagues played a lullaby sung in the Scottish Gaelic language
and a non-lullaby sung in the Seri language to a group of A) Blinking,which indicates attention, was equally frequent
infants. The team found that the infants’ heart rates decreased whether infants were listening to the song in Scottish Gaelic or
more during the lullaby than during the non-lullaby. Since a the song in Seri.​
decrease in heart rate is associated with relaxation, the team
concluded that the lullaby relaxed the infants. Noting that B) The infants’ pupils were smaller when the infants were
reduced heart rate can also be associated with increased listening to lullabies than when they were listening to
attention, one critic argues that instead, the lullaby simply non-lullabies.
attracted the infants’ attention. Bainbridge and colleagues also ​
measured pupil size, as pupils typically become larger when a C) Neither the Scottish Gaelic language nor the melody of its
stimulus captures a person's attention. relevant Scots lullaby was familiar to the infants in the study.​

D) Parents of infants in the study chose the lullaby over the
​ non-lullaby when asked which song they would use to calm their
​ child.
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[38]​ ​

​ ​
The Underdogs is a 1915 novel by Mariano Azuela, originally Which quotation from a translation of The Underdogs most
written in Spanish. In the novel, Azuela depicts a traveling group effectively illustrates the claim?​
of soldiers as having a renewed sense of agency and authority
as they set off on a new stage of their journey: ________ A) “All day long (the soldiers) rode through the canyon, up and
down the steep, round hills, dirty and bald as a man’s head, hill
​ after hill in endless succession. At last, late in the afternoon,
​ they descried several stone church towers in the heart of a
​ bluish ridge, and, beyond, the white road with its curling spirals
​ of dust and its gray telegraph poles.”​

​ B) “Some women, traveling with the soldiers, occupy two or
​ three seats with baggage, dogs, cats, parrots.”
​ ​
​ C) “Amid the stark rocks and dry branches, roses bloomed like a
​ white offering to the sun as smoothly, suavely, it unraveled its
golden threads, one by one, from rock to rock.”​
​ ​
​ D) “The men threw out their chests as if to breathe the widening
​ horizon, the immensity of the sky, the blue from the mountains
​ and the fresh air, redolent with the various odors of the sierra.
​ They spurred their horses to a gallop as if in that mad race they

laid claims of possession to the earth.”













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[39]​ ​

​ ​
Text 1 ​
In 2012 Jeonju, South Korea, was named a City of Gastronomy Which choice best describes a difference in how the authors of
the texts view the benefits of being named a City of
by UNESCO in recognition of the city’s unique food culture. The
Gastronomy?​
honor is well known among both residents of the city and
tourists who visit. Simply by selecting Jeonju, UNESCO has A) The author of Text 1 states that the benefits are automatic,
helped bring awareness to local recipes, cooking practices, and while the author of Text 2 states that effort is required to fully
achieve the benefits.​
chefs and has provided a significant boost to the city’s tourism
industry. B) The author of Text 1 assumes that a city’s restaurant owners
and chefs are most likely to benefit from a city being named a
Text 2 City of Gastronomy,but the author of Text 2 states that the honor
most affects tour guides and tour operators.
Many people in Jeonju’s restaurant industry hoped that food

tourism would increase after the city was chosen as a City of C) The author of Text 1 views Jeonju’s status as a City of
Gastronomy in 2012. However, as researcher Eerang Park and Gastronomy as having been beneficial for the city, but the
colleagues argue, cities must still create effective marketing author of Text 2 questions whether there’s been a benefit.​

strategies to benefit fully from being named a City of
D) The author of Text 1 considers the effects of Jeonju's City of
Gastronomy. Without the intentional effort that was made to Gastronomy status to be less permanent than the author of Text
promote the city’s food scene, many current and potential 2 considers them to be.
visitors to Jeonju would not even be aware that it’s home to ​

uniquely delicious food. ​


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[40]​ ​

​ ​
Some herbicides contain copper oxide nanoparticles Which finding, if true, would most directly support the hypothesis
(CuO-NPs), which can leach into waterways and soils via presented in the text?​
wastewater. In a 2012 study, Chengfang Pang and colleagues
found that CuO-NPs can accumulate in the bodies of New A) Compared with X. laevis, P. antipodarum can tolerate
Zealand mud snails (Potamopyrgus antipodarum). While significantly higher CuO-NP concentrations without displaying
bioaccumulation of manufactured nanoparticles may be any negative effects.​
inherently worrisome, it has been hypothesized that CuO-NP
bioaccumulation in invertebrates like P. antipodarum could serve B) It is easier to detect low and harmless concentrations of Cuo-
a valuable proxy role, obviating the need for manufacturers to NPs in P antipodarum than it is to detect high and harmful
conduct costly and intrusive sampling of vertebrate concentrations of CuO-NPs in X. laevis.
species—such as African clawed frogs (Xenopus laevis), ​
commonly used in regulatory compliance testing—for C) CuO-NP concentrations in P. antipodarum tend to vary more
nanoparticle bioaccumulation, as environmental protection laws from individual to individual than do CuO-NP concentrations in
currently require. X. laevis when the species are exposed to similar levels of
CuO-NPs.​

​ D) In comparable environments, P. antipodarum and X. laevis
​ display comparable rates of CuO-NP uptake.

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[41]​ ​
​ ​
​ ​
The following text is from Anne Spencer’s 1922 poem Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?​
"Translation."​
A) It depicts a feeling of unspoken connection between the
We trekked into a far country, speaker and her friend.​
My friend and I.
Our deeper content was never spoken, B) It describes differences between the speaker's translation of
But each knew all the other said. a literary work and another translation of the same work.
He told me how calm his soul was laid ​
By the lack of anvil and strife. C) It lists the sights that the speaker and her friend encounter
“The wooing kestrel,” I said, “mutes his mating-note while on a long hike.​
To please the harmony of this sweet silence.” ​
D) It conveys the speaker’s sense that nature is both grand and
​ frightening.
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[42] ​


Although the language of the Olmec civilization, which Which choice most logically completes the text?​
flourished in southern Mexico circa 1500 BCE-400 BCE, hasn’t
been identified, it likely belonged to the Mixe-Zoquean family, a A) North Central Mixe and the other languages of the Mixe
group of related languages whose present-day representatives branch likely supplanted the languages of the Zoque branch
are spoken in an area corresponding to ancient Olmec sites. sometime before 1500 BCE.​
The family can be subdivided into a Zoque branch, which
includes Francisco Leon Zoque, and a Mixe branch, which B) the language of the Olmec civilization was likely the founding
includes North Central Mixe. Many words in the Mayan language of the family that includes Mayan languages.
languages—languages spoken in the region but otherwise ​
unrelated to the Mixe-Zoquean family—are Mixe-Zoquean in C) the Mixe-Zoquean family had already diverged into the Mixe
origin and were likely borrowed during the period when the and Zoque branches by the time the Olmecs became the
Olmecs dominated the entire area. Tellingly, all those words prevailing power in the region.​
derive from the Zoque branch, suggesting that ________ ​
D) the language of the Olmec civilization contributed words not
only to Mayan languages but also to other languages in the
Mixe-Zoquean family.​
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[43]​ ​

​ ​
Northern Texas's Carson County is among the most rural Which finding, if true, would most directly support Valerio and
counties in the United States: the US Census Bureau classified colleagues' conclusion?​
it as 95.2% rural in 2010. Researchers have struggled to recruit
residents of counties like Carson for inclusion in studies. Noting A) Snowball sampling yielded significantly more participants
this problem, Melissa Valerio and colleagues tested two than would be expected if researchers contacted people without
recruitment techniques in rural counties: purposive sampling, in regard to those people's characteristics.​
which researchers contact many potential participants who have
the characteristics desired for a given study, and snowball B) Most participants recruited through snowball sampling had
sampling, in which researchers recruit a few people with the different characteristics than the initial participants who recruited
desired characteristics and ask them to recruit additional them.
participants. Valerio and colleagues concluded that the latter ​
approach may be superior. C) Participants recruited through snowball sampling were more
likely to have taken part in previous studies than were
participants recruited through purposive sampling.​
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​ D) Snowball sampling yielded significantly more participants
​ with the desired characteristics than purposive sampling did.
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[44]​ ​

​ ​
Anna Linderholm and other researchers probed the evolutionary Which finding, if true, would most directly support the
history of size variation in canids (wolves, foxes, dogs, and their researchers’ conclusion?​
close relatives). The researchers found that small domestic
dogs (e.g., Pomeranians) as well as small wild canids (e.g., A) The T allele is more common among wild canids native to
foxes) tend to have a particular variant, known as the C allele, of cold regions, whereas the C allele is more common among wild
the gene IGF1, a growth-related gene found in all mammals. canids native to warm regions.​
Large canids (e.g., grey wolves, German shepherds), however,
tend to have a different variant, known as the T allele, of IGF1. B) Many domestic dogs and wild canids are heterozygous with
The researchers concluded that the T allele is the more recent regard to IGF1, meaning that they carry both the C and T
of the two alleles to emerge. alleles.

C) The C allele but not the T allele is found in both bears and
​ ferrets, which share a relatively recent common ancestor with
​ canids.​
​ ​
​ D) Domestic dogs are descended from populations of wild
​ canids in which the C allele was more prevalent than the T

allele.























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[45]​ ​

​ ​
Conventional theories of rhetoric hold that presenting Which choice most logically completes the text?​
information as coming from credentialed experts increases that
information's credibility. When communications researcher A) participants regarded the experiences of both the doctors
Sungkyoung Lee and her colleagues tested messages seeking and former trial volunteers as relevant to the subject of clinical
volunteers for clinical trials, however, they found that trials but were skeptical of the doctors' status as credentialed
participants in their study judged recruitment messages from experts.​
former trial volunteers as significantly more credible than
messages from doctors (i.e., credentialed experts). One reason B) the fact that former trial volunteers went through the same
for this may be that the doctors’ status as credentialed experts experience that participants were contemplating while doctors
wasn't ignored but rather was outweighed by participants' views did not was more important to participants than the doctors'
of the experiential relevance of the two types of messengers; status as credentialed experts was.
that is, participants may have reacted the way they did because ​
______ C) messages from former trial volunteers depicted clinical trials
as being more positive experiences than did messages from
doctors.​
​ ​
​ D) participants did not have enough experience to evaluate the
​ credibility of the doctors' messages but did have enough
​ experience to evaluate the credibility of former trial volunteers'
​ messages.
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[46]​ ​

​ ​
The dogbane tiger moth, a large-bodied moth, defends itself Which choice most logically completes the text?​
against Allen's big-eared bat and other insect-eating bats, which
use echolocation to hunt, by emitting ultrasonic clicks that can, A) ultrasound production is only one of a diverse range of
for instance, startle the bats and thus deter their attacks. To effective strategies moths employ to evade bat attacks.​
investigate moths’ defensive ultrasound — which researchers
had thought was exclusive to tiger moths, hawkmoths, and one B) anti-bat ultrasound production may be a more prevalent
species of geometer moths — Juliette J. Rubin et al. recorded defense strategy among large-bodied moths than previously
the responses of moths from 252 genera, representing most known to researchers.
families of large-bodied moths, to audio playback of bat ​
echolocation. The researchers found that 52 of the genera, C) unlike the 52 moth genera that emit ultrasonic clicks, most
including several genera belonging to the geometer family, moth genera have likely not developed defenses specifically
produced defensive ultrasonic clicks. This result suggests that against bat attacks.​
______ ​
D) some genera of large-bodied moths may use ultrasonic
signaling for purposes other than avoiding capture by predators
​ such as Allen's big-eared bat.
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[47]​ ​

​ ​
To combat predation by Arizona myotis and other insectivorous Which choice most logically completes the text?​
bats, many moth species, including Cycnia tenera, emit
ultrasonic pulses that, in some cases, disrupt the echolocation A) most genera of moths that produce ultrasound capable of
bats rely on for foraging. Some scientists have hypothesized disrupting bat echolocation do so primarily for purposes other
that this capability evolved because it imposes a lower than evading capture by Arizona myotis and other predators.​
metabolic cost than does the alternative mechanism of
producing chemicals that render moths noxious to bats. B) the hypothesis about the development of this ultrasonic
Nicholas T. Homziak et al. investigated the acoustic properties defense likely does not account for all instances of the trait in
of moths’ ultrasonic responses to audio of bat echolocation and moths.
then assessed the palatability of the ultrasound- producing ​
moths. They found that several moth genera that emit ultrasonic C) although previous findings about Cycnia tenera are
pulses capable of disrupting bat echolocation are unpalatable to consistent with the hypothesis about the low metabolic cost of
bats, suggesting that ______ producing noxious chemicals, the ability to disrupt bat
echolocation and unpalatability are not mutually exclusive traits.​
​ ​
​ D) further investigations into moths’ ability to protect themselves
​ by disrupting bat echolocation will likely find that moth genera
​ relying on this mechanism are also generally inedible to bats.
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[48]​ ​

​ ​
Mauricio Drelichman and Hans-Joachim Voth’s research on the What does the text most strongly suggest about the value of
fiscal vulnerability of Philip II (who ruled not only Spain but other Drelichman and Voth’s research to their discipline?​
regions including Milan from 1556 to 1598) builds on other
studies of European early modern state finance, including A) Drelichman and Voth’s research builds on earlier work about
Hoffman and Norberg’s work on the relationship between state a particular aspect of European early modern state finance by
finance and political development. But Drelichman and Voth’s Hoffman and Norberg and corrects errors in that earlier work.
unique contribution is their reconstruction of the earliest extant ​
set of annual fiscal records for any sovereign state, which B) Drelichman and Voth’s research revealed the role of Philip
demonstrate that Philip's defaults were caused by short-term II’s debt defaults in exacerbating short-term liquidity crises.
liquidity crises, not long-term unsustainable debts. ​
C) Drelichman and Voth’s research uses newly compiled
evidence to eliminate one possible reason Philip II defaulted on
​ his debts and to affirm another.​
​ ​
​ D) Drelichman and Voth’s research presented a novel body of
​ evidence supporting Hoffman and Norberg’s hypothesis
​ regarding why Philip II defaulted on several loans.
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[49]​ ​

​ ​
Veronica L. Bura, Akito Y. Kawahara, and Jayne E. Yack Which finding, if true, would most directly challenge the second
investigated the evolution and function of sound production in team’s claim?​
silk moth and hawk moth caterpillars. They found that during
harmless simulated attacks on caterpillars, 33% of the tested A) Among the caterpillar species that produced sound in
species produced sound, which ranged from clicks in Antheraea response to simulated attacks, no individuals produced sound in
pernyi to whistles in Phyllosphingia dissimilis. A second the minute before the attacks, but the vast majority of individuals
research team has claimed that caterpillars use these sounds produced sound once the simulated attacks began.
primarily to communicate with other members of their species.
B) Most of the caterpillar species that were found to not produce
sound in response to simulated attacks have been observed
​ producing sound during encounters with other members of their
​ species.
​ ​

C) Caterpillars that were found to produce sounds in response

to simulated attacks are typically solitary and were tested in

isolation.​

​ ​
​ D) The sounds caterpillars produced in response to the
​ simulated attacks lacked acoustic characteristics that would
​ make them audible to bats, lizards, or birds, some of the most
​ frequent predators of caterpillars.
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[50]​ ​

​ Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to
complete the conclusion?

A) capacity for multiple broods, number of parental incubators,


and incubation duration are equally associated with the use of
broken-wing display.

B) incubation duration and capacity for multiple broods are more
strongly associated with the use of broken-wing display than the
number of parental incubators is.

C) broken-wing display is most often observed in species with


less opportunity to reproduce in a year due to longer incubation
periods.​

D) among species with more than one parental incubator, the
use of broken-wing display is associated with greater incubation
In an extensive review of existing literature, Lena de Framond duration.
and team cataloged the prevalence of broken-wing display—a
defensive behavior observed in Haematopus longirostris (pied

oystercatcher) and many other species—throughout the Aves

class. Documentation of the display in 285 species across 52

families suggests the behavior likely evolved independently ​
multiple times, prompting the team to consider ecological and ​
life history characteristics with hypothesized associations to the ​
behavior's emergence, including traits related to reproduction ​
investment and future reproduction potential. Based on their ​
review of those traits, the team concluded that_________​ ​

t.me/satashkent ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ t.me/D7posts

[51]​ ​

​ ​
The Yellow Admiral, first published in 1996, is a novel in Patrick Which choice best states the main idea of the text?​
O'Brian's Aubrey/Maturin series, which includes twenty books
plus an unfinished fragment of a twenty-first. Like the rest of the A) Over time, the Aubrey/Maturin series has acquired the same
books in the series, The Yellow Admiral has a rather abrupt eminence among critics as orks like In Search of Lost Time that
ending, but the following book, The Hundred Days, picks up have similar structures.​
neatly where The Yellow Admiral leaves off. Thus, the sudden
ending is only an issue if one considers the books as B) A certain understanding of the structures of the novels in the
independent texts—the Aubrey/Maturin series is best thought of Aubrey/Maturin series is helpful if one wishes to appreciate the
as a single incredibly long work, similar to other multivolume series.​
stories, such as Marcel Proust's In Search of Lost Time.
C) Many readers find the Aubrey/Maturin novels to be
remarkably entertaining despite flaws in the novels' structures.
​ ​
​ D) The Yellow Admiral and The Hundred Days are two of the
​ most complex of O'Brian's novels due in part to their
​ unconventional structures.
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[52]​ ​

​ ​
In what is now Washington state, the Tulalip Tribes operate the Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?​
Hibulb Cultural Center. Relying on traditional knowledge to
guide the design of exhibits, this institution presents Tulalip A) It describes how tribal cultural centers designed exhibits of a
history and culture to the tribes’ citizens. The Turtle Mountain particular set of artifacts, then analyzes how non-Indigenous
Band of Chippewa, a tribe in North Dakota, employs a similar institutions designed exhibits of the same artifacts.​
strategy in its own cultural center. Both centers contrast with
museums that aren’t Indigenous-led; when displaying B) It examines how tribal citizens respond to exhibits at tribal
Indigenous artifacts, such museums tend to anticipate mainly cultural centers, then speculates how non-Indigenous audiences
non-Indigenous audiences and rely on Euro-centric strategies would respond to the same exhibits.​
for designing exhibits.
​ C) It discusses two cultural centers operated by tribes, then
​ compares them with non-Indigenous institutions that present
​ Indigenous exhibits.
​ ​
​ D) It outlines an early strategy for exhibit design used by one
​ tribal cultural center, then explains a newer strategy used by a
​ different tribal cultural center.
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[53]​ ​

​ ​
The Museum of Modern Art (MOMA) in New York City has an Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?​
exhibition of video games that includes Snake from 1997, which
museum visitors can play on site, and SimCity 2000 from 1994, A) It provides a claim about video games as art that both MOMA
which visitors can see only in a video presentation. MOMA and the author accept as true.
claims the video presentations are only for games that would be ​
impractical to display in a playable form, but video games are an B) It presents a view about treating video games as art that the
inherently interactive medium, a feature that is grossly absent in author criticizes in the remainder of the sentence.
a video-only presentation.​
​ C) It describes a characteristic shared by many video games but
not by some of the games in MOMA’s exhibition.
​ ​
​ D) It identifies a feature of video games that is central to the
​ author’s criticism of MOMA’s decision to use video-only
​ presentations for some games.


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[54]​ ​
​ ​

British professional soccer team Arsenal Football Club, whose Which choice most logically completes the text?​
home uniform color is mainly red, won more than half its home
matches between 1947 and 2003. This is a higher proportion A) would likely have remained roughly the same if its players
than the proportion of home matches won by Watford Football had been wearing red uniforms.​
Club, whose home uniform color is not red, during the same
period. According to a study by Martin J. Attrill and colleagues, B) may have influenced other teams to change their uniform
the color red can cause people to respond with fear and colors.
hesitation, which the researchers think helps explain Arsenal’s ​
success. Nadav Goldschmied and colleagues reanalyzed the C) was directly tied to its players’ general satisfaction with their
published data from this study, however, and found no evidence uniform color.
that red-uniformed teams are more likely than other teams to ​
win, suggesting that Watford’s home-match win percentage D) was likely influenced by its players’ associations with the
________ color red.

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ANSWERS: ​

1. A ​ 21. B ​ 41. A ​
2. C ​ 22. A ​ 42. C ​
3. D ​ 23. A ​ 43. D ​
4. B ​ 24. C ​ 44. C ​
5. B ​ 25. B ​ 45. B ​
6. B ​ 26. B ​ 46. B ​
7. A ​ 27. C ​ 47. B ​
8. B ​ 28. A ​ 48. C ​
9. C ​ 29. D ​ 49. C ​
10. B ​ 30. C ​ 50. B ​
11. A ​ 31. B ​ 51. B ​
12. B ​ 32. D ​ 52. C ​
13. D ​ 33. C ​ 53. D ​
14. C ​ 34. C ​ 54. A
15. A ​ 35. D ​
16. A ​ 36. C ​
17. D ​ 37. B ​
18. D ​ 38. D ​
19. B ​ 39. A ​
20. C ​ 40. D ​
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