General Measurement Aptitude Test

General Measurement Aptitude Test
GMAT
Most recent psychometric test
Real past questions with detailed answers and explanations for banks, oil
companies, telecommunication companies, multinationals, private companies
and government ministries.
Relevant for Banks, Financial Institutions, Telecom Firms, Marketing Firms,

Oil Companies, Engineering Companies, Health, Educational Firms,
Multinationals and Government Ministries
2018 - 2019 Success Edition
IF YOU PRACTICE WITH THIS BOOK, YOU WILL DISCOVER THAT IN

THE DAY OF YOUR EXAM, THE QUESTIONS ARE THE SAME OR
VERY CLOSE, SO PRACTICE WITH CONFIDENCE
Horebson Resources
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HOW SMART DO YOU THINK YOU ARE?
These days’ organizations have various methods of accessing the suitability of

their prospective employees. These methods are:
Application forms
Written tests and exercises
Group discussions and practical exercises
Oral interviews
They use these methods to choose the most appropriate candidate for each
vacancy. The different methods used provide different kinds of information.
The one method that is perhaps the favorite of all is the written tests or
popularly known as APTITUDE TESTS
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NATURE OF APTITUDE TEST
Aptitude tests are characterized by structured systematic ways of evaluating

how people perform on tasks or react to different situations. It is a standardized
method of administration and scoring with result quantified and compared with
how others have performed at the same tests. They could be online tests or off-
line tests.
Every standard aptitude test contains the following:
QUANTITATIVE REASONING TEST
VERBAL REASONING TEST
SPATIAL REASONING TEST
DIAGRAMMATICAL TEST
GRAPH OR SYMBOL PLUG IN TEST
LOGICAL REASONING TEST
CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST
PROFESSIONAL ABILITY TEST
Let me give a brief explanation to the following tests before we go into the
nitty-gritty of the whole tests.
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These questions test your mathematical abilities. They may include graph,
problem solving, numerical comparison and data interpretation.
You should be aware that it is your skill that is being tested and not your
prowess in making elaborate calculations.
It has been observed that most aptitude tests that feature psychometric tests
always come with verbal reasoning tests, because there are very few graduate
careers which do not require the ability to understand, analyze and interpret
written information, sometimes complex or specialized nature.
This form of aptitude test includes a number of short passages of text followed
by statements based on the information in the given passage. You may be asked
to determine if a statement is TRUE OR FALSE, DEFINITELY TRUE,
DEFINITELY UNTRUE, INSUFFICIENT INFORMATION or whether it is
not possible to say either way. Note, in answering any verbal reasoning test
questions, you are expected to use ONLY INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
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PASSAGE. Never give an answer based on personal knowledge, whether

superior or not, you might have on the given passage.
SPATIAL REASONING OR DIAGRAMMATICAL TEST
They are sometimes called non-verbal reasoning tests. They are often used in
tests for jobs related to engineering, sciences, architecture and any other job
which involves working with diagram or similar visual information.
This test accesses your knowledge of letter sequences and your ability to think
logically and analytically. Scoring high in such test depends on your IQ level
and your ability to reason analytically.
APTITUDE TEST CADAVERS
All aptitude tests usually have the following characteristics. They are
administered under TIMED CONDITIONS. They often take the form of
multiple choice questions with options provided.
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You must not finish the whole test questions, although you may do so if you
know all the questions. Your score relates your performance to a reference
group, so your aptitude, ability or intelligence is compared as a relative value to
it. This is very important to an examiner who wants to know how well you
could perform in relation to other applicants. Your score may be used in diverse
ways; there may be a stipulated pass mark which on achieving, grants you the
oral interview, or the employer might have planned interviewing certain number
of candidates who attains a given score, and provided your score falls into this
group, you then move onto the next stage. Alternatively, your score could
simply be considered alongside other measures, such as oral interviews.
Aptitude tests may take the form of programming especially when it is online
test. Some may use “PSEUDO CODE”, FLOW CHART” OR ASSEMBLY
LANGUAGE”. Personality questions may also be asked in other to determine
your typical reactions and attitudes to a variety of conditions.
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TIPS FOR PASSING JOB APTITUDE TESTS
The following tips, when applied wisely would guarantee success in any job
aptitude tests.
1. Practice makes perfection. It has been evidently suggested that practicing

of tests before the examination day will actually help in improving your
performance for the real test. If you practice with this book, you will
discover that in the day of your examination the questions are the same or
very close to the questions you will encounter.
2. Treat it as you would any other occasion when you visit an employer,
plan your journey to the test venue, arrive on time and be appropriately
dressed. Listen to the instruction you are given and follow them precisely.
Sometimes, before the actual test, you may be given sample questions to
try on, make sure you ask questions at any stage on anything that is not
clear to you. Work quickly during the test, but make sure you pay
attention to SPEED AND ACCURACY. Don’t spend much time on a
particular question, bear in mind that most tests get harder as you
proceed. Educated guesses are worthwhile, in quantitative reasoning tests;
you may be able to use the technique of estimating your answers rather
than working it out exactly to save time. If you have quantitative tests
coming up and you have not had practice on your math skills since you
left school, then brush up on your numerical skills, stop using calculator
and work on your multiplication, division and ability to handle
percentages.
3. Study alone, you will concentrate better when you work by yourself.
Keep a list of questions that you could not answer and points that are not
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clear to you. Plan to exchange ideas at a joint review session just before
the test.
4. Tailor your study to the subject matter. Skim or scan, don’t study
everything in the same manner, obviously, certain areas are more
important than others, give special concentration to your areas of
weaknesses.
Finally, remember to read and listen to instructions, they are the foundation of
your success in your job aptitude tests.
Look at these SAMPLE QUESTIONS and explanation
Although the stock market seems to offer the possibility of great personal gain,
you must understand that to invest in stock is accepting the risk of financial
ruin as well?
a. Is accepting the risk of financial ruin as well

b. Is to accept the risk of financial ruin as well
c. Is to accept the risk of financial ruin
d. Are accepting the risk of financial ruin as well
e. Are to accept the risk of financial ruin
ANSWER SECOND CHOICE
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Explanation: The original sentence suffers from faulty parallelism, to invest is

accepting…….., the second and third choices make the needed correction, the
fourth choice does not, the fourth choice, however change the meaning of the
original sentence, so the fourth choice is wrong. The fifth choice introduces an
error of subject verb agreement by changing is to are, the subject of is to invest,
which requires a singular verb.
a. If 2x + 3y =19,xand y are positive integers, x could be equal to which of the

following?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 7
Answer –third choice

Explanation: you might reason that the only permissible value for x is those
which when multiplied by 2 and subtracted from 19 yield a number that is
divisible by 3. Just test the test, try the first choice, if x is 3, then 2x is 6, and3y
is equal to 13, but then y cannot be an integer, so the first choice is wrong. The
correct answer is the third choice.
(b) In a certain game, a person’s age is multiplied by 2 and then the product is
divided by 3, if the result of performing the operation on John’s age is 12 what
is John’s age?
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a. 2
b.8
c.12
d.18
e.36
ANSWER – FOURTH CHOICE
Explanation: You can set up an equation
2
=12=36÷ 2=18
3x
c. If 6 directors are in a meeting and they shake each other once before the
commencement of their meeting, what will be the total number of handshakes?
a. 6
b.15
c.36
d.120
e.720
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ANSWER – SECOND CHOICE
Explanation: You can use factorial method to arrive at your answer or you use a
diagram—
1st person 5 handshakes
2nd person 4 handshakes
3rd person 3 handshakes
4th person 2 handshakes
5th person 1 handshake
total handshakes = 15
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CONTENTS
HOW SMART DO YOU THINK YOU ARE?
Chapter One: MANAGEMENT AND ARTS SKILL TEST
Chapter Two: ACCOUNTING SKILL TEST
Chapter Three: MARKETING SKILL TEST
Chapter Four: HUMAN RESOURCES TEST
Chapter Five: CRITICAL REASONING TEST
Chapter Six: QUANTITATIVE REASONING TEST
Chapter Seven: VERBAL REASONING TEST
SYNONYMS REASONING TEST
COMPREHENSION
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Chapter Eight: LOGICAL REASONING TEST
Chapter Nine: SCIENCES TEST, MEDICAL LABORATORY TEST
Chapter Ten: PETROLEUM TECHNOLOGY REASONING TEST
Chapter Eleven: ENGINEERING TEST
Chapter Twelve: SYMBOL PLUG IN TEST, DIAGRAMMATICAL AND

SPATIAL REASONING TESTS
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CHAPTER ONE: MANAGEMENT SKILL TEST
FOR: Banks, Financial institutions, Marketing Firms, Oil companies,

Multinationals, Telecom Firms and Government Ministries
PRACTICAL BANKING TEST (60 Questions to be answered in 30 minutes)
INSTRUCTION: Each of the following questionshasoptions; select the best out

of the choices. Good luck-
1. The process of transforming otherwise illiquid financial assets into

marketable capital market instrument is known as ……………….
OPTIONS
a. Securitization
b. Internationalization
c. Arbitrage
d. Program
e. None of the above
2. If a bank has excess reserves of N10,000 and demand deposit liabilities of
N80,000, and if the reserves requirement is 20 percent, then the bank has
actual reserves of …………
a. N16,000
b. N6,000
c. N26,000
d. N20,000
e. N36,000
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3. If a bank has excess reserves of N7,000 and demand deposit liabilities of

N10,000 and if the reserve requirement is 15 percent, then the bank has
actual reserves of ……………
a. N17,000
b. N22,000
c. N27,000
d. N29,000
4. A bank has excess reserve of N1,000, and demand deposit liabilities of

N80,000, when the reserve requirement is lowered to 10 percent, the
bank’s excess reserve will be………
a. N1,000
b. N8,000
c. N9,000
d. N17,000
5. If the required reserve ratio is 20 percent, the simple deposit multiplier is

…………,
a.5.0
b.2.5
c. 4.0
d. 10.0
6. A simple deposit multiplier equal to two implies a required reserve ratio

equal to ………
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a. 100 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 25 percent
d. 0 percent
7. In the simple deposit expansion model, an expansion is checkable

deposits of N1,000 when the requirement reserve ratio is equal to 20
percent implies that the fed………..
a. sold N200 in government bonds
b. sold N500 in government bonds
c. purchased N200 in a government bonds
d. purchased N500 in government bonds
8. The ratio that relate the change in the money supply to a given change in
the monetary base is called the ………..
a. money multiplier
b. required reserve ratio
c. deposit ratio
d. discount rate
9. The money multiplier is …………

a. Negatively related to the currency-checkable deposit ratio
b. Positively related to the required reserve ratio
c. Positively related to holdings of excess reserves
d. Both (a) and (b) of the above
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10. Factors that cause the excess reserves ratio to fall include……..
a. A decline in expected deposit outflows
b. A rise in market interest rates
c. A decline in market interest rates
d. Only (a) and (b) of the above
e. Only (a) and (c) of the above
11. Factors that cause an increase in the money multiplier include………….

a. An increase in the required reserve ratio
b. A decrease in market interest rates
c. An increase in expected deposit outflows
d. None of the above
12. Factors that cause a decline in the money multiplier include………..

a. An increase in the required reserve ratio
b. A decrease in the market interest rate
d. All of the above
e. Only (a) and (b) of the above
13. Factors that cause an increase in the money supply include…………

a. A lowering of the required reserve ratio
b. An increase in the market interest rate
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d. All of the above
14. Factors that cause a decline in the money supply include………..

a. A decrease in the nonborrowed monetary base
b. A decrease in market interest rates
d. All of the above
15.The federal uses three policy tools to manipulate the money supply open
market operations, which affect the …….., changes in the discount rate,
which affect the …………. by influencing the quantity of discount loans;
and changes in reserve requirements which affect the ………..
a. Money multiplier, monetary base, monetary base
b. Monetary base, monetary multiplier, monetary base
c. Monetary base, monetary base, monetary multiplier
d. Money multiplier, money multiplier, monetary base
16.Open market operations as a monetary policy tool have the advantages

that…………..
a. They are flexible and precise
b. They are easily reserved if mistakes are made
c. They can be implemented quickly without administrative delays
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d. All of the above

17. Price stability is desirable because………………

a. Inflation creates uncertainty, making it difficult to plan for the future
b. Everyone is better off when price are stable
c. Price stability increase the profitability of the federation
d. It guarantees full employment
18.Although the goals of high and economic growth are closely related,
policies can be specifically aimed at encouraging economic growth by
……..
a. Encouraging firms to invest
b. Encouraging people to save
c. Doing both (a) and (b)
d. Doing neither (a) nor (b) of the above
19.Which of the following is a potential operating target for the central

bank……….
a. The monetary base
b. The money supply
c. Nominal GNP
d. The discount rate
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20.Interest rates are difficult to measure because………….

a. Data on them are not timely available
b. Real interest rates depend on the hard-to-determine expected inflation
rate
c. They fluctuated too often to be accurate
d. They cannot be controlled by the federal
21.The average number of time that a naira is spent in buying the total
amount of final goods and services produced during a given time period
is known as ………..
a. Gross national product
b. The spending multiplier
c. The money multiplier
d. Velocity
22.The velocity of money……

a. The average number of times that a Naira is spent in buying the total
amount of final goods and services
b. The ratio of the money stock to high powered money
c. The ratio of the money stock to interest rates
23. If the money supply is 500 and nominal income is 3,000 the velocity of
money is…………
a. 60
20
b. 6
c. 1/6
d. Undefined
24. Keynes’s hypothesized that the precautionary component of money

demand was primarily determined by the level of ………..
a. Interest rate
b. Velocity
c. Income
d. Stock market prices
25. Because Keynes’s assumed that the expected return on money was zero,
he argued that…………..
a. People would never hold money
b. People would never hold money as a store of wealth
c. People would never hold money as a store of wealth when the
expected return on bonds was negative
d. People would hold money as a store of wealth only when forced to
buy government policy
26. Keynes argued that the transactions component of the demand for
money was primarily determined by the level of peoples’………..
which he believed were proportional to………….
a. Transactions; income
b. Transaction; age
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c. Incomes; wealth
d. Incomes; age
27. The …………… sensitive the demand for money to interest rates,
the…….. unpredictable velocity will be
a. More; more
b. More; less
c. Less; more
d. Less; less
28. If aggregate demand is less than the level of aggregate output…………..

a. Inventory investment will be unaffected
b. Inventory investment will be positive
c. Inventory investment will be negative
d. Insufficient information to determine the level of inventory investment
29.If aggregate demand less than actual output…………..

a. Unplanned inventory accumulation will cause output to rise
b. Unplanned inventory depletion will cause output to fall
c. Unplanned inventory depletion will cause output to rise
d. Unplanned inventory accumulation will cause output to fall
30.The expenditure multiplies is the ratio of ………….
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a. The change in equilibrium output to a change in the monetary base

b. The change in the money supply to a change in the monetary base
c. The change in the money supply to a change in the autonomous
expenditure
d. The change in equilibrium output to a change in the autonomous
expenditure
31. In a closed economy, aggregate demand is the sum of ……………

a. Consumer expenditure, actual investment spending, and government
spending
b. Consumer expenditure, planned investment spending, and government
spending
c. Consumer expenditure, actual investment spending, government
spending, and net exports
d. Consumer expenditure, planned investment spending, government
spending, and net exports
32.If the consumption function is C=20+0.5YD then an increase in

disposable income by 100 will result in an increase in consumer
expenditure by ……………
a. 25.
b. 70.
c. 50
d. 80
e. 100
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33.The ratio of the change in aggregate output to a change in planned

investment spending is called…………
a. The marginal propensity to consume
b. Autonomous consumer expenditure
c. The expenditure multiplier
d. Unplanned inventory accumulation
34.As interest rate rise, the opportunity cost of holding money ……… and
the demand for money………….
a. Rises, rises
b. Rises, fall
c. Falls, rises
d. Falls, falls
35.Keynes reasoned that consumer expenditure is related to………….

a. Transitory Income
b. Permanent Income
c. Disposable Income
d. Earned Income
36.In deriving the aggregate demand curve a ………… price

level…………… the money supply in real terms, rises interest rates, and
…………..the equilibrium level of aggregate output
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a. Higher, reduces, raises

b. Higher, reduces, lowers
c. Lower, increases, raises
d. Lower, increases, lowers
37.The condition of a continually rising price level is defined as …………

a. Stagflation
b. Stagnation
c. Disinflation
d. Inflation
38.Which of the following is least likely to lead inflationary monetary

policy…………
a. Rising unemployment
b. Expanding federal budget deficits
c. Declining oil price
d. Conflict in the middle East
39. Countries with the highest inflation rates are likely to have ……….
a. The highest rates of money growth
b. Small budget deficits relative to GDP
c. The lowest interest rates
d. All of the above
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40. According to the monetarist view of inflation, an increase in the money

supply will cause…………..
a. Output to increase in the short run, but not in the long run
b. An increase in the price level, but no permanent effect on aggregate
output
c. Government budget deficits to increase
41.If a cost-push inflation occurs because of the push by workers to get

higher wages, then one can infer that the Government ………….
a. Has a high employment target
b. Has pursued an accommodating monetary policy
c. Has chosen to reduce its budget deficit
42.Which of the following is not a primary reason why many people hold
cash……….
a. To undertake transactions
b. To avoid credit
c. To have an emergency reserve
d. To have a store of value
43.Holding cash in a temporary “parking place” is associated with cash

motive…….
a. Undertaking transactions
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b. Holding an emergency reserve

c. Holding a store of value
d. Paying off credit
44.Which of the following is not a characteristic of certificate of deposit

(CDS)………….
a. You pay a penalty for early redemption
b. You “lock in” (are guaranteed) the stated interest if you hold the CD
until maturity
c. They are preferred over money market deposit if you expect interest
rates to fall
d. They have a minimum maturity of three years
45.Depositors often cite……….. as the most important consideration in

selecting a particular bank
a. Safety
b. Low charges
c. Size
d. Geographical convenience
46.The least effective method of protecting against overdrafts is to ………..

a. Maintain large – than- normal account balance
b. Arrange for automatic transfers from a savings account
c. Arrange for a credit-card loan to cover the overdrafts
d. Ignore them since banks do not charge for overdraft
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47.Which of the following checks does not guarantee payment………

a. A person check
b. A certificate check
c. A cashier’s check
d. A traveler’s check
48.John savings account ( offering 12% simple interest) showed the

following activity for the month of June:
Opening balance N2,000
6/10 Deposit 1,000
6/20 Withdrawal 800
6/30 Ending balance 2.200
interest earned in June with FIFO method would be ……….
a. N24,00
b. N12,00
c. N18.67
d. N21.33
49.Secured credit card are …………

a. Issued only to those who are the most credit worthy
b. Issued only to corporations that have been operating for at least five
years
c. Useful for those who are trying to overcome a poor credit history
d. Protected by an unlimited lines of credit
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50.A “charge bank” occurs when ……………

a. A credit card holder is charged interest on past purchases
b. A borrower is charged additional interest for early repayment of a loan
c. A consumer returns previously charged merchandise
d. A card issuer charges a disputed amount back to the merchant
51.“Credit blocking” is the industry terms for………….

a. Illegally denying credit to individuals because of their races or gender
b. Reducing your credit limit because of an anticipated charge
c. Legally denying credit to individuals who have a past record of credit
abuse
d. Denying high – risk individuals access to low-cost lines of credit
52.Which of the following are true in general for fixed payment loans……..
a. The borrower repays the entire principal plus interest at the maturity
date
b. Installment loans and mortgages are frequently of the fixed payment
type
c. The borrower repays the loan by making the same payment every
month
d. Both (a) and (b) of the above
e. Both (b) and (c) of the above
53.Which of the following are true in general for coupon bonds………
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a. When a coupon bond is priced at its face value, its yield to maturity
equals its coupon rate
b. The purchase price and yield to maturity for a coupon bond are
negatively related, all else remaining constant
c. For a coupon bond, its yield to maturity is greater than its coupon rate
when its purchase price is below its face value
d. All of the above are true
e. Only (a) and (b) of the above are true
54.In which of the following situations will you refer to be borrowing……..

a. The interest rate is 9 percent and the expected inflation rate is 7
percent
b. The interest rate is 4 percent and the expected inflation rate is 1
percent
c. The interest rate is 13 percent and the expected inflation rate is 15
percent
d. The interest rate is 25 percent and the expected inflation is 50 percent
55.If the expected return on ABC stick falls from 5 to 10 percent and the
expected return on CBN stock is unchanged, then the expected return of
holding CBN stock……………Relative to ABC stock and the demand
for CBN stock……..
a. Rises, rises
b. Rises, falls
c. Falls, rises
d. Falls, falls
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56.If wealth increases, the demand for stocks………….. and the long-term
bonds……….
a. Increases, increases,
b. Increases, decreases
c. Decreases, decreases
d. Decreases, increases
57.If interest rate on Treasury bonds are suddenly expected to shoot up, then
other things equal, the demand for houses will……… and that of
Treasury bonds will………
a. Increase, increase
b. Increase, decrease
c. Decrease, decrease
d. Decrease, increase
58.When the price of a bond is above the equilibrium price, there is an

……… excess for (of) bonds and price will………..
a. Demand, rise
b. Demand, fall
c. Supply, fall
d. Supply, rise
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59.A decrease in the expected rate of inflation will……… the expected

return on bonds relative to that on ……….Assets
a. Reduce, financial
b. Reduce, real
c. Raise, financial
d. Raise, real
60.The poor people have difficulty getting loan because ……..

a. The typically have little collateral
b. They are more likely to be dishonest
c. They are less likely to benefit from access to financial markets
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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ANSWERS
(1) A, (2)C, (3) B, (4) C, (5) A, (6) B, (7) C, (8) A, (9) A, (10) D, (11) B,
(12)D, (13) E, (14) D, (15) C, (16) D, (17) A, (18) C, (19)A, (20) B, (21)
D, (22)A, (23) B, (24) C, (25) C, (26) A, (27)A, (28) B, (29) D, (30)D,
(31) B, (32) C, (33) C, (34) B, (35)C, (36) B, (37) D, (38) C, (39) A, (40)
D, (41) D, (42) B, (43) C, (44)D, (45) D, (46) C, (47) A, (48) A, (49) C,
(50) D, (51) B, (52) E, (53) D, (54) D, (55) A, (56) A, (57) B, (58) C
(59)D, (60) A,
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CHAPTER TWO
ACCOUNTING SKILLS TEST
Relevant for banks, Financial Institution, Marketing Firms, Oil companies,

INSTRUCTION: 30 Questions to be answered in 15 minutes, each question has

options, choose which one is the best answer.
1. For the measurement of net income to be as realistic as possible, it is

desirable that revenue be recognized at the point that……….
a. Cash is collected from customer
b. An order for merchandise or services is received from a customer
c. A deposit or advance payment is received from customer
d. Goods are delivered or services are rendered to customers
2. An accounting principle must receive substantial authoritative support to

qualify as “generally accepted”, many organizations and agencies have
been influential in the development of general accepted accounting
principles, but the most influential leadership has come from the …….
a. New York Stock Exchange
b. American Institute of Certified Public Accountants
c. Securities and Exchanges Commissions
d. American Accounting Association
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3. In which one of the following ways does the declaration and payment of a
cash dividend affect corporate net income………
a. It does not affect net income
b. It reduces net income
c. It increases net income
d. It capitalizes net income
4. Under which one of the following headings of the corporate balance sheet
should the liability for a dividend payable in stock appear……..
a. Current Liabilities
b. Long Term Liabilities
c. Stockholders’ Equity
d. Current Assets
5. In which one of the following is “working capital” most likely to be

found………
a. In “Income Statement”
b. In “Analysis of Retained Earning”
c. In “Computation of Cost of Capital”
d. In “Statement of Funds Provided and Applied
6. Which of the following procedures is not generally mandatory in auditing

a merchandising corporation………….
a. Physical observation of inventory count
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b. Written circularization of accounts receivable

c. Confirmation of banks’ balance
d. Circularization of the Stockholders
7. A company purchased office equipment during 2013 in the total amount

of $1,400 and charged the entire amount to the asset amount. An
inventory of equipment taken on December 31, 2013, shows the cost of
the used equipment to be $250. The entry to record this fact, assuming
the books have not been closed, involves………….
a. Credit to capital
b. Debit to supplies expense
c. Credit to supplies expense
d. Debit to supplies on hand
8. A corporation records show $600,000 (credit) in net sales; $2,000 (debit)

in Allowance for Bad Depts. The company aged schedule of accounts
receivable indicates a probable future loss from failure to collect year-
end receivables in the amount of $6,000, of the following, the most
correct entry to adjust the Allowance for Bad Debts at year-end is ………
a. $1,000 credit
b. $4,000 credit
c. $8,000 debt
d. $8,000 credit
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9. A company reports as income for tax purpose $70,000 and its book
income before the provision for income taxes is $100,000. Assuming a
50% tax a rate, the proper tax expense to be recorded following tax
allocation procedures is ……….
a. $30,000
b. $35,000
c. $50,000
10.The relationship between the total of cash and current receivable to total
current liabilities is commonly referred to by accountants as the ……….
a. acid-test ratio
b. cross-statement ratio
c. current ratio
d. R.O.I. ratio
Each question numbered 11- 15 consist of a description of a transaction

that indicates a two-fold change on the balance sheet. Each of these
transactions may be classified under one of the following categories:
a. Current assets are overstated and Retained Earnings are overstated
b. Current Assets are understated and Retained Earnings are understated
c. Current Liabilities are overstated and Retained Earnings are overstated
d. Current Liabilities are understated and Retained Earnings are
overstated
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11.Goods shipped on consignment –out were not included in the final

inventory, although the entries wereproperly made for such
consignments.
12.A number of cash sales made subsequently to the balance sheet date were
recorded as sales in the prior period before the balance sheet date. The
merchandise was included in inventories.
13.A cash dividend declared December 21, 2013, payable on January 15,
2014, to stockholders of records as of December 28, 2013, had not been
recorded as of December 31, 2013
14.The provision for the allowance for doubtful accounts receivable for the
current period that should have been made had not been recorded.
15.Merchandise received by December 31, 2013, and properly included in

inventory on that date, was not entered as a purchase until January 2014.
Answer questions 16 – 18 on the basis of the information given below –
Ten men work as a group on a particular manufacturing operation. When the

weekly production of the group exceeds a standard number of pieces per hour,
each man in the group is paid a bonus for the excess production; the bonus is in
addition to his wages at the hourly rate. The amount of the bonus is computed
38
by first determining the percentage by which the group’s production exceeds the
standard. One half of this percentage is then applied to a wage rate of 1.25 to
determine an hourly bonus rate. Each man in the group is paid, as a bonus, the
bonus rate applied to his total hours worked during the week. The standard rate
of production before a bonus can be earned is two hundred pieces per hour. The
production record for a given week was:
Hours worked production
Monday 72 17,680
Tuesday 72 17,348
Wednesday 72 18,000
Thursday 72 18,560
Friday 71.5 17.888
Saturday 40. 9,6000
399.5 99,076
16.The rate of the bonus for the week is …..

a. 30%
b. 24%
c. 16%
d. 121/0
39
17.The bonus paid to the 10-man group for the week is…..
a. $59.93
b. $60
c. $100
d. $599.25
18.The total wages of one employee who worked 40 hours at a base rate of 1
per hour are…….
a. $46
b. $52
c. $85
d. $90
19.Suppose you are an Accountant assigned to prepare a report to be read by

all Bureau Chiefs in your agency. The most important reason for avoiding
highly technical accounting terminology in writing this report is to …….
a. ensure the accuracy and relevancy of the text
b. insure winning the readers cooperation
c. make the report more interesting to the readers
d. make it easier for the readers to understand
20.With regard to the requirement of the auditing standard that sufficient and
competent evidential matter be obtained, the term competent primarily
refers to the ……..
a. consistency of the evidence
40
b. relevance of the evidence

c. measurability of evidence
d. dependability of evidence
21.Audit working papers should not …….

a. include any client – prepared papers or documents other than those
prepared by the auditor
b. be kept by the auditor after review and completion of the audit, except
for items required for the income tax return
c. be submitted to the client to support the financial statements and to
provide evidence of the audit work performed
d. by themselves be expected to provide sufficient support for the
auditors operation
22.Mr. John Shea operates a small drug store in New York City as an
individual proprietor. During the past year his books were not kept
properly. He asks you, as a CPA, to give him some advice concerning the
earnings of his business during the calendar year 2013. A review of his
bank accounts and a diary of financial data reveal the information
presented below:
Deposits made during 2013 per bank statements totaled $226,000.
Deposits includes invest made by Mr. Shea as well as the loan he
obtained from the bank for $25,000. Disbursement during 2013 per bank
statements totaled $185,000, included are personal withdrawals of
$15,000 and payments ondebt of $10,000. Net Equity of John Shea at
January 1, 2013 was determined to be $45,000. Net Equity of John Shea
41
at December 31, 2013 was determined to be $75,000. During 2013, fund

invested by John Shea in the business amounted to $6,500, based upon
the “Net Worth” method, net income for the year ended December
31,2013 was………
a. $30,0000
b. $38,000
c. $4,000
d. $45,000
23.Because of past association, a Senior Accountant is convinced of the

competence and honesty of those who prepared the financial information
that he is auditing. He consequently concludes that certain verification
procedures are unnecessary , this conclusion by the Senior Accountant is
ill-advised for the proper performance of his present audit mainly because
the ………..
a. Members of the staff often lack specialized skills and training, without
verification an audit cannot proceed.
b. Verification procedures depend on the materiality of the subject matter
under examination and not upon the personal characteristics of the
individuals involved.
c. Nature of opinion expressed in the report issued by the Senior
Accountant at the end of his audit is grounded on personal
considerations.
d. Quality of Senior Accountant independence and his objective
examination of the information under review is impaired.
42
24.Of the following statement ratios, the one that represents a growth ratio
is………
a. working capital ratio
b. acid-test ratio
c. long- term debt to total capitalization
d. dollar earnings per share
25.Adjustments to correct the inventory figure will reflect a net adjustment

so as to
a. reduce it by $5,000
b. increase it by $6,500
c. reduce to $8,000
d. increase it by $10,000
26.adjustment to correct the sales figure will result in a net adjustment to

sales of a (n)
e. increase by $3,000
f. decrease by $5,200
g. increase by $6,300
h. decrease by $4,510
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27. A junior accountant reported to his senior that had performed the
operation listed below, which one of following statements about these
operation correctly describes the operation -----------------
a. vouchered the amount of petty cash
b. vouchered the receivable ledger accounts with the sales register
c. Analyzed the fix asset account
d. checked all entries in the general Journal to original evidence
28. Sales during July 2013 for the lesser company operating in New York
City were $267,500 of which $170,000 was on account. the sales figure
presented to you includes the total sales tax charge to retail customer
(assure) a sales tax rate of 7% the sales tax liability that should be shown
at the end July 2013 is ------------------------
a. $7,500
b. $10,500
c. $17,500
d. $20,500
Answer questions 29 & 30 0n the basis of the information given below
During the audit record of the long corporation for the year ended December 31
2013, the auditor was presented with the following information:
The finished goods inventory consisted of 22,000 units carried at a cost of

$17,600 at December 31 2013.
The finished goods inventory at the beginning of the year (January 7 2013)
consistent of 24,000 units, priced at a cost of $16,800 during the year, 4000 unit
manufactured at a cost of $3,600 and 6,000 units were sold.
44
29. To properly reflect the cost the finished goods inventory of December
31,2013 if the FIFO method was used, assuming there was no work in
process inventory, would require an adjustment of -------------------------
a. $1,4000 credit
b. $1,400 debt
c. $1,600 credit
d. $1,600 debt
30. To properly reflect the cost of the finished goods inventory at December
31,2013 if the LIFO method was used, assuming there was no work-in-
process inventory, would require an adjustment of------------------------
a. $2,200 debt
b. $2,200 credit
c. $4,200 credit
d. $4,200 debt
45
ANSWERS
(1) D (2)B (3)A (4)C (5)D (6)D (7)B (9)C (10)A (11)B (12)A (13)D (14)A
(15)D (16)D (17)D (20)C (21)C (22)B (23)D (24)D (25)B (26)A (27)C
(28)C (29)A (30)B
46
CHAPTER THREE
MARKERTING TEST
Relevant for Banks, Financial Institutions, Marketing Firms, Oil Companies

Multinationals, Engineering Firm, Health Firms, Telecom Firms and
Government Ministries.
30questions to be answered in 15minutes
INSTRUCTION: Each of the question or incomplete statement below is

followed by options or incompletion, in each case, select the one that is the best
choice offered and then mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet
1.
a. strengths working open threat
b. strength weakness open threats
c. strengths weakness opportunities tacked
d. strengths weakness opportunities threats.
2. A soft drink manufacturer is interested in trading out which of its range of

drinks are preferred by people over the age of 40. which of the following
method would be most suitable ------------------------
a. use government publication
47
b. conduct primary research

c. consult secondary market research
d. use the electoral register
3. A person conducting desk research would do all of the following

EXCEPT
a. gather existing sales figure
b. gather fresh data
c. use government statistics
d. use secondary research figure
4. Which of the following is likely to provide primary research data for an

organization --------------------------
a. government trade figure
b. surveys
c. internal sales figures
d. marketing journal
5. Where a researcher chooses people from different social classes, age

groups, income etc. for research, which sampling method is being used
a. random sampling
b. stratified sampling
c. quota sampling
d. cluster sampling
48
6. Say whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F)
i. A perfectly random sampling technique means that every person has
an equal chance of appearing in the sample
ii A random sampling technique means that older people are more likely
to be selected compared with younger people
a. (i) T (ii)T
b. (i) T (ii)F
c. (i) F (ii)T
d. (i) F (ii) F
7. Which research method is most likely to be used to find out how people
react to a display in a supermarket……..
a. telephone research
b. observation
c. postal questionnaire
d. panel research
8. A company has launched a new product on the market and after three
months it wants to know what people think about it, which method is
likely to be used to cover the widest geographical area in the shortest
possible time……..
a. interview in person
b. interview over the phone
49
c. postal questionnaire
d. panel discussion
9. Many companies get their name or product advertised by having sports

stars wear the company logo, how do they get the stars to wear it……
a. by lobbying them
b. by sponsoring them
c. by issuing press releases
d. by improving community relations
10.Many companies make substantial donations to charities and other good

causes, what benefit might they derive from this……..
a. increased sponsorship
b. improved public images
c. increased investment
d. improved lobbing
11.Which of the following would be considered to be publicity………

a. money – off coupon
b. special offers
c. product review
d. an advert in a magazine
50
12.Where consumers react to an advertisement on television and order the

product by phone, which direct marketing technique is being
employed…….
a. direct mail
b. off – page selling
c. off- screen selling
d. telesales
13.Which direct selling method involves a salesperson recruiting other

salespeople, who in turn recruit even more salespeople………
a. party selling
b. telesales
c. networking selling
d. catalogue selling
14.A manufacturer finds that it has a number of items which have minor
defects and hence cannot be sold through the usual retailers, which of the
following would be suitable for selling these “second” quality goods……
a. telesales
b. pyramid selling
c. factory shop
d. cold calling
51
15.A double glazing company sells its products mainly through cold calls,
which of the following would be the most cost effective in terms of
covering a wide geographical area in a short space of time……..
a. telesales
b. pyramid selling
c. factory shop
d. catalogues
16.Say whether each of the following statement is true (T) or false (F)
(i) The purpose of credit control is to ensure that all transactions are
on a cash- only basis
(ii) The purpose of delivery schedules is to ensure that the right goods
are sent to the right person at the right time
a. (i) T (ii)T
b. (i)T (ii)F
c. (i)F (ii)T
d. (i)F (ii)F
17.A business person is visiting another country and sees a craze for new
product, he decided to import the product for resale in this country, which
marketing principle is he using……….
a. generating income
b. satisfying customer expectations
c. anticipating market needs
d. enhancing customer perception of the business
52
18.Marketing involves promoting products using various methods, which of

the following would be least likely to be used for a product that is sold
nationally…..
a. posters in shops
b. local newspapers
c. national television
d. shop window postcard
19.A company is conducting research into the spending habits of pensioners

by postal questionnaires, which type of research is this ……..
a. primary research
b. secondary research
c. desk research
d. using government statistics
20.Which of the following is most likely to give publicity to an

organization……?
a. money – off coupon
b. charitable donation
c. advert in a magazine
d. loyalty incentives
53
21.A company launches a new shampoo, which of the following methods

will be the most effective in getting people to try it…………
a. give 50 percent discount
b. money – off coupon in magazines
c. free trial size sachets
d. poster adverts
22.Which direct marketing technique is being employed when consumers

tear out coupon from newspapers and magazines………….
a. direct mail
b. off- page selling
c. off- screen selling
d. telesales
23.Which of the following is an example of direct selling……?

a. factory sales
b. retail co-operatives
c. franchised outlets
d. agencies
24.Which sales administration function is concerned with chasing clients

who have not brought their accounts up to date within a specified
period…….
a. credit clearance
b. credit control
54
c. order processing
d. security
25.A waiter in a restaurant is presented with a credit card by a customer, to

pay for the meal, which of the following functions will the waiter carry
out…………
a. issue a credit note
b. credit rating
c. credit clearance
d. credit customers account
26.Rasheed owns a boutique, selling both ladies and gents fashion wear,
during the autumn he purchased a large amount of winter stock which did
not sell too well, so in the spring he decides to have a sale, which
marketing principle is he using by having a sale…………………
a. generating cash flow
b. anticipating market needs
c. a SWOT analysis
d. utilizing technology development
27.To avoid being stuck with unwanted stock again, what should Rasheed do
when buying new stock……….
a. anticipate future needs
b. improve customer perceptions
c. meet customer needs
55
d. improve his cash flow
28.Rasheed wants to ensure the continued growth of his business; how best
could he do this……….
a. by reducing staff
b. by reducing product range
c. by reducing customer service
d. by reducing wastage
29.How can Rasheed make sure that his business is profitable and keep tabs
on stock levels…………
a. sales monitoring
b. marketing research
c. credit clearance
d. security
30.Rasheed wants to diversify by opening a new type of shop, specializing in

selling toys, which marketing principle should he carry out first……..
a. sales monitoring
b. marketing research
c. implement marketing mix
d. satisfy customer requirements
56
ANSWERS
(1) D (2) B (3) B (4) B (5) B (6)B (7) B (8)B (9) B (10) B (11) C (12) C (13)
C (14) C (14) C (15)A (16) C (17) C (18) D (19) A (20) B (21) C (22)B
(23) A (24) B (25) C (26) A (27) A (28) D (29) A (30) B
57
CHAPTER FOUR
HUMAN RESOURCES TEST
Relevant for Banks, Financial Institution, Marketing Firms, Oil Companies,

Multinationals, Telecom Firms, Health and Government Ministries.
21 questions to be answered in 10 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Each of the question or incomplete statement below is

followed by options; choose the best of the choices offered.
1. The Human Resources Manager will be mainly concerned with which of

the following……
a. implementing policy decision
b. day to day running of the company
c. formulating policies
d. hiring and firing
2. The managing director of a company recognizes the importance of

employee co-operation and participation in running the firm, which of the
following is not a participative management technique
a. joint consultation
b. quality circles
58
c. team meetings
d. a management directive
3. Employers and employees have certain expectations of each other, which

of the following would an employer find not acceptable in an employee
a. not to discriminate
b. not to be honest
c. not to be abusive
d. not be disobedient
4. Below are reasons why an employer may dismiss an employee, which

one would be unfair
a. sexual harassment
b. racial harassment
c. joining a union
d. physical violence
5. Employers can gain the co-operation of employees in a number of ways,

which of the following is not a participative management technique
a. joint consultation
b. quality circles
c. team meetings
d. a management directive
59
6. A managing director will be mainly concerned with which of the

following
a. implementing policy decision
b. day to day running of the company
c. formulating policies
d. hiring and firing
7. Which of the following would provide the details of a job role

a. job analysis
b. job evaluation
c. job description
d. recruitment and selection
8. The employees working within a human resources department in an

organization would deal with all of the following except
a. manpower planning
b. staff welfare
c. production innovation
d. recruitment and selection
9. A press release would normally be issued by someone working in one of

the following department
a. Human Resources
b. Accounts
c. Public Relations
60
d. Customer Relations
10.Upsolution limited is a company making beds, whose responsibility will

it be to look after the workshop
a. an operative
b. a supervisor
c. manager
d. a director
11.A curriculum vitae would not include one of the following, which
a. family details
b. career history
c. detailed reference
d. educational background
12.A job description includes all except:-

a. an individual’s attributes
b. an outline of the main purpose involved
c. a detailed list of the main duties and responsibilities
d. the title of the job concerned
13.The employer would provide two of the following to a job applicant,

which two
61
(i) job analysis

(ii) job evaluation
(iii) job description
(iv) person specification
a. i & ii
b. ii &iii
c. iii &iv
d. ii & iv
14.The recruitment process could involve all of the following except

a. application form
b. short listing
c. letter of application
d. appraisal interview
15.An ethnic restaurant owner advertises for a waiter/waitress and specifies

that the waiter/waitress must be from the same cultural background as the
restaurant
a. this is legally allowed
b. this is not legally allowed
c. it is allowed if no one from another culture applies
d. it is allowed if not one object
16.Which of the following would give an interviewer a ‘picture’ of the type

of individual that would be suitable for the job?
62
a. job design
b. job evaluation
c. job description
d. curriculum vitae
17.A manufacturing company decides to utilize its machinery more

efficiently to this end, it wants to introduce a night shift, thus changing
the terms and conditions of work, what is the best way forward to gain
the co-operation of staff?
a. write a letter to each worker telling them of the change
b. arrange a meeting of all workers and tell them of the change
c. meet with workers representatives to discuss the change
d. issue a directive of the changes that will take place
18.Many employers choose to train and develop their employee, which of

the following is not an employee development technique?
a. job enrichment
b. job rotation
c. job design
d. job enlargement
19.An employer would be well within his rights to sack an employee without
warning for one of the following reasons
a. joining a trade union
b. becoming a stop steward
63
c. being late
d. gross misconduct
20.The employees working within human resources department in an

organization would deal with all the following except
a. manpower planning
b. staff welfare
c. recruitment and selection
d. product promotion
21.A chief executive of a large business organization would, on the whole,

be concerned with which of the following levels of business operation
a. operational
b. tactical
c. strategic
d. shop floor activities
64
ANSWERS
(1) D (2) D (3)B (4)C (5)D (6)C (7)C (8)C (9)C (10)B (11)A (12)A (13)C
(14)D (15)A (16)D (17)C (18)C (19)D (20)D (21) C
65
CHAPTER FIVE
CRITICAL REASONING TEST
Relevant for Banks, Financial Institution, Marketing Firms, Oil companies,

Engineering Firms, Health, Educational Industries, Multinationals, Telecom
Firms and Government Ministries
INSTRUCTION: 11 questions to be answered in 10 minutes, the following

questions ask you to analyze and evaluate the reasoning in short passages. For
some questions, all the options seems to be the questions asked, but you should
select the best answer to the question, that is, an answer that does not require
you to make assumptions which violate common-sense standards by being
implausible, irrelevant or inconsistent.
PASSAGE 1.
Studies of trauma victims suggest that shock brought on by violent or life

threatening situations causes damage to the hippocampi, structures in the brain
that play a crucial role in learning and memory. Researchers found that in
combat veterans suffering from post-traumatic stress symptoms, which include
nightmares and vivid flashbacks, the hippocampi were eight percent smaller in
volume than in combat veterans who suffered no such symptoms. The
researchers concluded that the hippocampi had lost cell mass as a result of
trauma.
66
1. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the

researcher’s conclusion drawn above
a. In another study, subjects who had experienced the death of close
relatives were found to have no reduction in the volume of their
hippocampi when compared to those whose close relatives were all
still living.
b. In the study, the traumatized veterans were compared with other
veterans of similar background, body size, and other characteristics
that might have a bearing on brain size.
c. Some individuals are born with hippocampi whose volume is smaller
than average, and this reduced volume makes them more susceptible
to post- traumatic stress on brain symptoms.
d. Combat veterans who experience post – traumatic stress symptoms
perform significantly worse on tests of verbal memory compared with
veterans who suffer no such symptom.
e. Further study revealed that veterans who had seen more intense
combat and had more serve post-traumatic symptoms exhibited even
greater reduction in the volume of their hippocampi.
PASSAGE 2
In order to promote off-season business Rat Lodge made the following

“Welcome Back” offer to their winter guest: guests who rent a room for at least
a week during ski season can come back during the summer and get 25% off the
standard summer price of any room they rent. After the summer passed, the
owners of the lodge determined that the majority of the guests had taken
67
advantage of the “Welcome Back” offer and paid the reduced rates. However,
they were surprised to find they still managed to rent more rooms at full price
than they did at the discount rate.
QUESTION- which of the following, if true, most help to explain the apparent
discrepancy in the passage?
a. Most of the guests who stayed at Rat Lodge during the winter did not stay
for a full week.
b. Those guests taking advantage of the “Welcome Back” discount were
more likely to bring their families with them, than those guests who were
paying full price.
Some of the quests who received their “Welcome Back” discount

also received a 10% rate reduction through their auto club.
In order to pay for the construction of a new gymnasium and a new

pool, the owners of the lodge raised their summer prices
considerably.
On average, guests who took advantage of the “Welcome Back”

discount spent more money at the hotel on additional goods and
services than guests who paid full price for their rooms.
PASSAGE 3
Candidates: I am worried about the effects that the recent media coverage of
any personal life will have my chances of gaining office. Even though the
68
reports are not true, some voters interviewed on television, in response to these
reports, have already expressed doubts regarding my ability to lead.
Campaign Manager: Your concern is unfounded, of 1,000, people in this city

randomly surveyed by e-mail; only 25 have responded that their perception of
your ability to lead has been negatively impacted by the recent media coverage.
Question:
The campaign manager’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the

ground that it fails to acknowledge the possibility that..
a. Future media reports that follow up on the story of the candidate’s

personal life will further damage the public perception of the candidate’s
ability to lead.
b. The candidate’s main opponent will use the opportunity created by the
recent media coverage to conduct her own survey to assess the damage
done to her opponents credibility
c. The voting public would understand that its reaction to the recent media
coverage of the candidate’s personal life was the intended primary focus
of the survey.
d. Opinions expressed in television interviews are not always the most
reliable indicator of how interviewees are likely to act in given situations.
e. Many of those surveyed who are skeptical of the candidate’s ability to
lead due to the recent reports did not respond to the survey.
69
PASSAGE 4
Tsumi bats are a rare breed of omnivorous bat found only in highly temperate
climates. Most Tsumi bats living in captivity develop endocrine imbalances
from their normal zoo diets, which consist of fruits and berries. The healthiest
way feed the bats, therefore, is to provide them primarily with nuts, grubs, and
vegetables and only minimal amounts of fruits and berries.
Question:
Which of the statement below does NOT reflect an assumption upon which the
argument depends?
a. Those who care for Tsumi bats in captivity should avoid feeding them
diets that produce endocrine imbalances.
b. Tsumi bats living in captivity will not be malnourished on diets that
contain minimal fruits and berries.
c. Tsumi bats living in captivity will consume diets that consist of nuts,
grubs, and vegetables but no fruits or berries.
d. Tsumi bats living in captivity will be adequately nourished on a diet that
consists primarily of nuts, grubs and vegetables.
70
e. For Tsumi bats living in captivity, no health problem stemming from

diets consisting mostly of nuts grubs, and vegetables would surpass in
severity the health problem associated with endocrine imbalances.
PASSAGE 5
A wave of incidents of unusual violence, from murder to acts of self-

destruction, plagued the small medieval town for a period of five years, nearly
wiping out the population. At the same time, there was an unusual in the area’s
weather pattern. Rainfall was so heavy and continuous that the wheat crop
probably tells pray to the ergot fungus, when eaten, grain thus affected can
cause egotism, a disease associated with hallucinations and other disturbing
psychological side effects. In the end we can conclude that the violence was the
result of freakish weather conditions.
Question:
Which of the following is the most effective rebuttal to the contention made
above?
a. It is based upon a series of plausible suppositions rather than upon

contemporary evidence.
b. No clear distinction is drawn between cause and effects
c. Explanations of historical events cannot be convincing when too great a
role is assigned to chance or the irrational
d. The author makes no distinction between probable occurrence and actual
occurrence
71
e. Such crucial terms as “unusual violence” are not adequately defined in

regard to the specific historical events.
PASSAGE 6&7
Read this passage and answer question 6 and 7
A consumer survey of independent feature films revealed that the percentage of

action films that received the survey’s highest rating was greater than the
percentage of romance films that received the highest rating. Yet, the survey
organizers were probably erroneous in their conclusion that subject matter
determines a feature films popular appeal, since the action films were all
directed by filmmakers with at least one hit film to their credit, while the
romance films were directed by newer filmmakers, many of whom had not
produced a previous film.
Question:
The statements above, if true, support which of the following inferences?
a. Fewer romance films than action films received the survey’s highest
rating
72
b. There is no relationship between the popular appeal of the feature films

evaluated in the survey and any previous successes of the directors of
those films
c. If consumers were surveyed regarding their impressions of big-budget
mainstream films, the percentage of romance films that would receive the
survey’s highest rating would be lower than the percentage of action
films that would receive the highest rating.
d. Experienced filmmakers are more likely to produce hit films than are new
filmmakers.
e. Among directors with the same number of hit films hit films to their
credit, differences in the subject matter of their feature films may not
affect the way the films are popularly rated.
Question 7
Each of the following, if true, support the author’s contention that the organizer
misinterpreted the survey data EXCEPT
a. The fact that one has directed a previous hit film is a possible indicator of
that director’s filmmakers’ talent.
b. Consumer ratings of a new film are influenced by the previous history of
success of the film’s director.
c. Action films generally require larger budgets than romance films and are
thus prohibitive for many first time film directors.
d. It is rare for the films of first-time directors to attain the popular appeal of
films directed by filmmakers with at least one hit film to their credit.
73
e. Directors who have produced a previous hit film generally obtain the
largest budgets and attract the most talented and well-known actors for
their subsequent films.
PASSAGE 8
A career in dermatology is still a safe bet for medical school graduates. in the
u.s., the number cases of skin cancer linked to ultraviolet (uv) radiation in
sunlight has remained relatively constant every year even though far fewer
adults are intentionally exposing themselves to uv sunlight, now than were
doing so at the height of the suntan craze 20 years ago
Question 8:
Each of the following, if true, could explain the relative stability in the
incidences of skin cancer each year despite the decrease in intentional exposure
to UV sunlight EXCEPT?
a. Because of decreasing levels of ozone in the upper atmosphere, more

people are now exposed accidently to excessive UV sunlight.
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b. People who continue to intentionally expose themselves to UV

sunlight are absorbing larger doses of the harmful radiation than the
average sunlight tanner did in the past
c. Levels of UV radiation from sources other than sunlight are increasing
every year.
d. While fewer women are intentionally exposing themselves to UV
sunlight, the number of men doing so has increased significantly
e. In most victims, skin cancer is linked to exposures to UV sunlight that
occurred up to 30 years before the onset of the disease.
PASSAGE 9
Over the past seven years, private college tuition rates have increased, resulting
in a large decrease in private college attendance across the country. Private
college revenues, however, have progressively increased in each of the seven
years during this period, and researchers predict further increase in the years to
come.
Question:
Which of the following, if true, offers the best explanation for the situation
described above?
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a. Most private colleges increase tuition rate approximately once every two
years.
b. Attendance at vocational school generally exceeds attendance at private
colleges in most cities.
c. The increase in tuition rates at private colleges has influenced many
prospective students to seek a state scholarship to attend a public
university.
d. The decrease in students attending private colleges over the last seven
years has been more than offset by the increase in tuition.
e. Private colleges gain a large percentage of their revenue from alumni
contributions than do public universities.
PASSAGE 10
A team of pediatricians recently announced that dogs are more likely to bite
children under age 13 than any other age group. Their finding was based on a
study showing that the majority of all dog bites requiring medical attention
involved children under 13. The study also found that the dogs most likely to
bite are German Shepherds, males and non-neutered dogs.
Question:
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the pediatricians conclusion
that dogs are more likely to bite children under 13 than any other age group?
a. More than half of dog bites not requiring medical attention, which exceed
the number requiring such attention, involve people aged 13 and older.
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b. The majority of dog bites resulting in the death of the bitten person
involve people aged 65 and older.
c. Many serious dog bites affecting children under age 13 are inflicted by
female dogs, neutered dogs that are not German Shepherds.
d. Most dog bites of children under age 13 that require medical attention are
far less serious than they initially appear.
e. Most parents can learn to treat dog bites effectively if they avail
themselves of a small amount of medical information.
PASSAGE 11
A certain laboratory is studying the incidence of fatal liver damage in rats. Sixty
– five percent of all rats whose environment exposed them to low levels of the
toxin sulfur dioxide died of liver disorder. Ninety percent of all rats who died of
liver disorder, however, were not exposed to any environment toxins.
Question:
Which of the following would provide a feasible explanation for the statistics
above?
a. Environment and none- environment causes of liver disease in rats are

mutually exclusive.
b. There is only one cause of fatal liver disease in rats.
c. Environment toxins are not particularly dangerous to the livers of rats.
d. Only a small portion of the entire group of rats studied was exposed to
environment sulfur dioxide.
77
e. Most rats will not suffer from exposure to low levels of sulfur dioxide.
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATION
(1) option C
Explanation: From the question we are looking for something that would
weaken the argument, and also a classic way of attacking cause –and
effect which is illustrated by option c, which points out that the cause and
effect could actually be working in reverse, it could be that the symptoms
are the result of the small hippocampi, rather than vice versa.
(2) Option B
Explanation: One of the toughest things about this question is full
understanding of puzzling phenomenon described. Here is the
discrepancy we are asked to resolve; how can it be that most winter guest
availed themselves of discounted pricing.
Yet the lodge nevertheless rented more rooms at full price, clearly
speaking, it is a numerical mystery, which all require a numerical
78
solution. Option b provides such an answer – if the discounted folks were

comprised mainly of families, packing in more guests per room, while the
full price guests tended to come solo with fewer guest per room, then its
easier to explain how there could be lots of discounted guests wandering
around the hotel but more rooms rented at full price.
(3) Option E
The fact that only 25 responded negatively does not necessarily mean that
the other 975 are okay with the reports and have confidence in the
candidate’s ability to lead, although this is the interpretation the campaign
manager implies. Option E picks up on this problem in the campaign
manager’s argument: If the skeptics were disinclined to respond to the
survey, then the conclusion that the candidate need not worry may be
unfounded and the candidate’s concern may be legit, therefore option E is
the correct answer.
(4) Option C
Explanation: The conclusion states that the bats will feed a minimal
amount of fruits and berries, while this choices says they will eat none ,
must that be a necessary part of this argument? No, it is too extreme, the
author says straight away that some fruits and berries are okay, so it need
not be assumed that the bats are denied these foods altogether.
(5) Option D
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Explanation: This option treats the probable occurrence of the fungus as

if it was an actual occurrence, and therein lies the scope shift as well; the
author argues from probability in the evidence to a clear – cut, definite
statement of actual causation in the conclusion. In arguing against this
reasoning, it will be perfectly appropriate to point out that the author
misses the distinction described in option d, so the d option is the correct
answer.
(6) Option E
Explanation:
Option E gives the author’s suggestion that having a previous hit film to
the director’s credit is more important subject matter in determining
ratings, so it logically follows that subject matter may not be significant
factor in the popular rating of films made by directors with an equal
number of previous, the author’s argument certainly allows for the
possibility that subject matter may have no effect on the ratings.
(7) Option C
Explanation: Why many first time directors don’t make action films have
impact on this argument is the fact that films in this particular survey, the
action films were made by more experienced directors, while the
romances were made by novices, and the author uses this fact to counter a
previous conclusion. Option C gives us one possible explanation for this
fact is used by the author, which after all constitutes the crux of her
80
argument. Therefore, this is the only choice that does not strengthen the
author’s argument, so it is the right choice.
(8) Option D
Explanation: This option is the one that does not help to resolve the
paradox, even if the number of men who are intentionally exposing
themselves to UV sunlight has increased, we still know from the stimulus
that far fewer adults altogether are intentionally exposing themselves. So
the mystery remains that the rate of skin cancer among adult altogether
should be decreasing even though we are told is not so, the correct answer
is the d option.
(9) Option D
Explanation: Tuition has increased at private universities leading to a
decrease in enrollment, so that is logical. However, revenues at these
universities have continued to increase despite the decrease in enrollment.
The correct answer therefore should offer some sources of revenues that
compensates for the decrease in revenues created by the lower
enrollment, so that is why option d is the correct answer. If the tuition
hikes have brought in more revenue than the loss of enrollment has taken
away, then, it is easy to see how both trends discussed in the stimulus can
simultaneously exist.
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(10) Option A
Explanation: This option gives the conclusion that it is about dogs biting
children under 13, but the evidence is based on dogs’ bites requiring
medical attention, so this option weakens the argument by addressing this
scope shift. It basically says that many dog bites that don’t require
medical attention (bites that are within the scope of the conclusion)
happen to people over 13. Now, this does not disprove the argument, it
merely weakens the links between the stated evidence and the stated
conclusion. The pediatricians counted up all the people bitten by dog who
came in for medical attention, found most of them to be under age 13, and
concluded from this alone that dogs are more likely to bite children under
13, this general conclusion is based on evidence about a very specific
group. So, if it is true, as option a says that many who don’t seek
treatment are over 13, the argument is weakened.
(11) Option D
Explanation: The 65% figure represents all rats expose to sulfur dioxide,
90% represents the percentage of all rats that died of liver disorder, this
option points this out. If only a small number of rats were exposed to
sulfur dioxide, then it is not surprising that 90% of the rats that died of
liver damage died of something other than sulfur dioxide exposure, after
all, only a small number of them were exposed to sulfur dioxide in the
first place.
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CHAPTER SIX

Relevant for Banks, Financial Institutions, Marketing Firm, Oil
Companies, Engineering Firms, Health Firms, Educational Industries,
50 QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED IN 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTION: Each question in this test involves a certain amount of
logical reasoning and thinking on your part, read each question carefully
and choose the correct answer.
(1) To fill a number of vacancies, an employer must hire 3 programmers

from 6 applicants, and 2 managers from among 4 applicants. What is
the total number of ways in which he can make his selection?
a. 1,490
83
b. 132
c. 120
d. 60
e. 23
(2) If the average (arithmetic mean) of the set of numbers above is equal
to the median of the same set of numbers above, then what is the value
of y?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 10
d. 15
e. 17
(3) Set X contain 10 consecutive integers, if the sum of the 5 smallest

members of Set X is 265, then what is the sum of 5 largest members
of Set X?
a. 290
b. 285
c. 280
d. 275
e. 270
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(4) At a certain school, 60% of the senior class is female, if among the
members of the senior class, 70% of the females and 90% of the males
are going on the senior trip, then what percentage of the senior class is
going on the senior trip?
a.82%
b. 80%
c. 78%
d. 76%
e. 72%
(5) During a certain two –week period, 70% of the movies rented from a
video store were comedies, and of the remaining movies rented, there
were 5 times as many dramas as action movies. If no other movies
were rented during that two- week period, and there were A action
movies rented, then how many comedies in terms of A were rented
during that two-week period?
A
a. 14
5A
b. 7
7A
c. 5
d. 14A
e. 35A
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(6) There is enough food at a picnic to feed 20 adults or 32 children. If

there are 15 adults at the picnic, how many children can still be fed?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
e. 18
(7) In a certain company, 55% of the workers are men. If 30% of the
workers are full-time employees and 60% of these are women, what
percentage of the full-time workers in the company are men?
a. 12%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 662/3%
e. 777/9%
(8) How many digits are there in the square root of a perfect square of 12
digits?
a. 10
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6
e. 5
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(9) A is 15 years old. B is one –third older. How many years ago was B
twice as old as A?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7.5
d. 8
e. 10
(10) A gasoline tank is ¼ full. After adding 10 gallons of gasoline, the

gauge indicates that the tank is 2/3 full. Find the capacity of the tank
in gallons?
a. 15
b. 18
c. 24
d. 30
e. 20
(11) If the radio of X:Y is 9:7, what is the value of X+Y?

a. 2
b. 14
c. 16
87
d. 63
e. none of the above
(12) A 15 gallon mixture of 20% alcohol has 5 gallons of water added

to it. The strength of the mixture, as a percent, is approximately what?
a. 121/2
b. 131/2
c. 15%
d. 161/2
e. 20
(13) Village A has a population of 6,800 which is decreasing at a rate of

120 per year. Village B has a population of 4,200, which is increasing
at a rate of 80 per year. In how many years will population of the two
villages be equal?
a. 9
b. 11
c. 13
d. 14
e. 16
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(14) Of 60 employees at the Upsolution Manufacturing company, x

employees are female, if 2/3 of the remainder are married, how many
unmarried men work for this company?
a. 40_2/3x
b. 40_1/3x
c. 40+1/3x
d. 20_2/3x
e. 20_1/3x
(15) If 3 copier machines can copy 300 sheets in 3 hours, assuming the
same rate, how long (in hours) will it take 6 such copiers to copy 600
sheets?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
e. 2
(16) If m men can paint a house in d days, how many days will it take
m+2 men to paint the same house?
a. d+2
b. d-2
m+ 2
c. md
md
d. m+ 2
89
md+2 d
e. m
(17) A math class has 27 students in it, of those students, 14 are also
enrolled in history and 17 are enrolled in English. What is the
minimum percentage of the students in the math class who are also
enrolled in history and English?
a. 15%
b. 22%
c. 49%
d. 63%
e. 91%
(18) The distance from city A to city B is 150 miles and the distance
from city A to C is 90 miles, therefore, is it necessarily true that…
a. the distance between B to C is 60 miles
b. Six times the distance from A to B to C
c. the distance from B to C is 240 miles
d. the distance from A to B exceeds by 30 miles twice the distance
from A to C
e. three times the distance from A to C exceeds by 30 miles twice the
distance from A to B.
90
(19) A merchant sells a certain item for a price that is a whole number
of Naira, if the cost of the item to her is N50, then which of the
following could be her profit as a percentage of her cost?
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 331/2%
d. 40%
e. 75%
(20) If the price of an item is increased by 10% and then decreased by

10%, the net effect on the price of the item is?
a. an increase of 99%
b. an increase of 1%
c. no charge
d. a decrease of 1%
e. a decrease of 11%
(21) While researching a term paper, a student read pages 7 through to

49, and pages 101 to 157 of a particular source book, altogether, how
many pages from this book did this student read?
a. 98
b. 99
c. 100
91
d. 101
e. 102
1
(22) If 3 people working together at the same rate can do a job in 5 2
days, what fraction of that job can two of these people do in one day?
a. 1/16
b. 1/8
c. 3/16
d. ½
e. 2/3
(23) If one half of the female students in a certain college eat in the
cafeteria, and one-third of the male students eat there, what fractional
part of the student body eats in the cafeteria?
a. 5/12
b. 2/5
c. ¾
d. 5/6
e. none of the above
(24) 3,5,-5….
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The first term in the sequence of numbers shown above is 3. Each

even-numbered term is two more than the previous term and each odd-
numbered term after the first is -1 times the previous term, for
example, the second term is 3+2, and the third term is (-1) x5, what is
the 55th term of the sequence?
a. -5
b. -3
c. -1
d. 3
e. 5
(25) If interest on a savings account is paid monthly at an annual rate of

6 ¼ percent and if the interest is not reinvested, then in how many
years will the total amount of interest earned equal the amount of
money saved in the account?
a. 36
b. 24
c. 18
d. 16
e. 12
93
(26) Two ships leave from the same port at 11.30 am, if one sails due
east at 20 miles per hour, how many miles apart are the ships at 2.30
pm?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 80
e. 85
(27) In career Links Ltd, the ratio of upper management to middle

management personnel is 4.3, if 75% of upper management has
experience in the production line, what is the greatest proportion of
the total of upper and middle management personnel who could have
experience in the production line?
a. 5/7
b. ¾
c. 6/7
d. 7/6
e. 7/4
(28) Let the “OPIUM” of a number be defined as three less than three
times the number, what number is equal to its “OPIUM”
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
94
c. 3.5
d. 1.0
e. 2.5
(29) If 15 cans of food are needed for seven adults for two days, the
number of cans needed to feed four adults for seven days is what?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
e. 35
(30) There are x cookies in a jar, one child eats ¼ of all the cookies, a
second child eats 1/3 of the remaining cookies, if the remaining
cookies are distributed among four other children, what fraction of the
original number of cookies did each of the four children received?
a. 7/12
b. ½
c. 5/12
d. 1/6
e. 1/8
95
(31) John is now three time Pats age. Four years from now John will be
x years old. In terms of x, how old is Pat now?
x+ 4
a. 3
b. 3x
c. x+4
d. x-4
x−4
e. 3
(32) On an income of N15,000 a year, a clerk pays 15% in federal taxes

and 10% of the remainder in state taxes. How much is left?
a. N9,750
b. N11,475
c. N12,750
d. N13,500
e. N14,125
(33) At Career Links High School, the ratio of girls to boys is 2.1, if 3/5
of the boys are on a team and the remaining 40 boys are not, how
many girls are in the school?
a. 50
96
b. 200
c. 150
d. 100
e. 250
(34) If each of the dimensions of a rectangle is increased 100%, the

areas is increased…..?
a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 300%
d. 400%
e. 500%
(35) If a discount of 20% off the marketed price of a jacket results in a

savings of N15, what is the discounted price of the jacket?
a. N35
b. N60
c. N75
d. N150
e. N300
97
(36) The sum of an odd number and an even number is?

a. sometimes an even number
b. always divisible by 3 or 5 or 7
c. always an odd number
d. always a prime number (not divisible)
e. always divisible by 2
(37) Three times the first of three consecutive and integers is 3 more
than twice the third, find the third integer..?
a. 7
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13
e. 15
(38) The vertices of a triangle are (3,1) (8,1), and (8,3). what is the area
of this triangle?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
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e. 20
(39) If Chi has N5 more than Mpi, and if Mpi has N2 more than Oge,
which of the following exchanges will ensure that each of the three
has an equal amount of money?
a. Chi must give Oge N3 and Mpi N1
b. Mpi must give Chi N4 and Chi must give Oge N5
c. Oge must give Chi N1 and Chi must give Mpi N1
d. Chi must give Oge N4 and Mpi must give Oge N5
e. Either Chi or Oge must give Mpi N7
(40) A person is standing on a staircase, he walks down 4 steps, up 3

steps, down 6 steps, where is he standing in relation to the step on
which he started?
a. 2 steps above
b. 1 step above
c. the same place
d. 3 steps below
e. 4 steps above
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(41) An item costs 90% of its original price. If 90k is added to the
discount price, the cost of the item will be equal to its original price,
what is the original price of the item?
a. N.09
b. N.90
c. N9,00
d. N9.90
e. N9.99
(42) On a certain day, a news vendor began the day with P papers,
between evening and noon, he sold 40 percent of the papers, and
between noon and closing he sold 60 percent of the papers which
remained, what percent of the original P papers did he sell?
a. 0%
b. 20%
c. 24%
d. 76%
e. 100%
(43) If the result obtained by multiplying a number x by a number less

than itself is 4 less than multiplying x by itself, then x =?
a. 1
b. 2
100
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
(44) Mr. Ade grosses N2,000 per month from his mail-order business. If
40 percent of that amount goes for business expenses and 10 percent
of the remainder is reinvested in the business, how much of the gross
receipts is reinvested in the business?
a. N80
b. N100
c. N110
d. N120
e. N200
(45) Tunde is 67, His son Seun is 29, in how many years will Seun be
exactly half of his father’s age?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
e. 12
101
(46) If the numerator of a fraction decreased 25 percent and the

denominator of that fraction is increased 25 percent, then the
difference between the resulting and the original fractions represents
what percentage decrease?
a. 40%
b. 45%
c. 50%
d. 60%
e. 75%
(47) A boy bought some packets of biscuits for N120, if the biscuits had
been 3 naira a packet cheaper, he would have received 2 more packets
for his money, how many packets did he buy?
a. 12
b. 8
c. 6
d. 10
e. 15
(48) The distance from Owerri to Enugu is 160km, if a commercial bus

were 16km/hour slower, it would take 20 minutes longer on the
journey, what is the average speed of the bus?
a. 80
102
b. 45
c. 74
d. 96
e. 120
(49) In an office with 21 staff members, 1/3 are men and 2/3 are
women, to obtain a staff in which ¼ are men, how many women
should be hired?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
(50) From March 1 to March 31, the price of a certain commodity fell
by 1/4 , and from April 1 to April 30, the price fell by 1/3, by what
percentage would the price of the commodity have to increase during
the month of May to bring it back up to the level of March 1?
2
a. 14 10 %
b. 25%
103
c. 50%
2
d. 66 3 %
e. 100%
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
(1) Option C
Explanation: In this combination problem, the employer’s choice of a
6 x5 x 4
programmer can be written as 3 x 2 x 1 20
4x3
The employer’s choice of a manager can be written as 2 x 1 6
So to find the total number of ways he could make his selection, multiply
the respective number of possibilities –
6 times 20 = 120
104
(2) Option D
Explanation: Let us test the options, assuming that the third option which
is 10 is the correct answer, now just substitute 10 for y in the problem, the
average of the number (3,5,9,13,10) is 8, but the median of those number
is 9, eliminate it, can you tell which way to go – up or down? If you are
not sure, just pick a direction and try. Let us assume that the correct
answer is choice d which is 15, the average of the number(3,5,9,13,15) is
9, and the median of those number is also 9 , so it is correct.
(3) Option A
Explanation: If we assign x to represent the smallest integer in the set,
then x+ (x + 1)+ (x+2)+ (x+3)+ (x+4)= 265, so 5x + 10=265, 5x +255,
and x-51, the five smaller consecutive integers, which must be 56 through
60, our total is 290
(4) Option C
Explanation: Since the answers are percentages, let us plug in 100 for the
total number of senior, that means we have 60 females of whom 7o% or
42 are going on the senior trip, they will be joined by 90% of the 40
males, which gives us 36 males on the trip, that is a total of 42 + 36 = 78
105
students who are going on the trip, seventy- eight of our senior class of
100 is of course 78%, therefore the correct answer is C.
(5) Option D
Explanation: If a total of 100 videos were rented within two week period,
then 70 were comedies, of the remaining 30, there were 5 times as many
dramas as action movies, so that means 25 dramas and 5 action movies.
We know both our value for a, 5, and our target answer 70, and only
option d yields 70 when 5 is plugged in for A, so it is correct.
(6) Option B
Explanation: If 15 adults are fed, ¾ of the food is gone, ¼ of the food will
feed ¼ x 32, or 8 children.
(7) Option B
Explanation: This question can be solved using a table
The table show the possibilities, lets begin to fill in the individual
squares, by using the provided table
106
But we know that the total labor force is 100%, and this means that the
percentages for full time and part time must equal 100 and that the
percentages for men and women must equal 100. So we can fill in some
further information:
Now, since we have totals indicated, we can use arithmetic to find the
missing information:
Notice that all totals check out, the final step is to use the information to
men full−time=.12=2
answer the question – total full−time.30 5=40 %
(8) Option D
Explanation: For every pair of digits in a number, there will be one digit
in the square root so the answer is D which is 6
107
(9) Option E
Explanation:
A = 15
B = 15+ 1/3 (15) = 20
15 – n is A’s age n years ago
20 – n is B’s age n years ago
(20-n) =2 (15-n)
20 – n = 30 – 2n
n = 10
(10) Option C
Explanation: Let x = capacity of tank
10 gallons is 2/3 – ¼ of the tank
8−3
2/3 – ¼ = 12 =5/12
5/12x = 10
5x = 120
x = 24
(11) Option E
108
Explanation: Remember, a ratio is a fraction, if x is 18 and y is 14, the

ratio x:y is 9:7, but x +y is 32, the point of this problem is that x and y
can take on many possible values, it is not possible here to establish one
definite value for the sum of x and y.
(12) Option C
Explanation: The new solution is 3/20 pure alcohol or 15%
(13) Option D
Explanation: Let x = no of years for 2 of the populations to be equal
Then 6920 – 120x =4120+80x
2800= 200x
x= 14 years
(14) Option E
Explanation: 60 – x employees are male
1/3 of these are unmarried
1/3 (60- x) = 20- 1/3x
(15) Option B
109
Explanation: The number of sheets is directly proportional to the number

of machines and also directly proportional to the amount of time.
Mathematically this can be expressed as:
SheetsSheets
(Number of machines) (time) =(Number of machines) time
300
600
3 (3 )=¿ ¿
6¿¿
300 600
=
9 6+¿ ¿
Reduce the fractions and then cross-multiply
100= ¿ ¿
100
3=¿ ¿
1
100t = 300
t = 3
(16) Option D
Explanation: This is inverse variation
m x d = (m + 2 )Xx
md
=x
m+ 2
110
(17) Option A
Explanation: 14 + 17 =31, So, there are 4 students who must be enrolled
in all three courses, 4/27 is slightly larger than 4/28, the answer must be
2
slightly larger than 1/7, which is 14 1 %
(18) Option B
Explanation: Cities A, B, and C need not be on a straight line, therefore,
one cannot add or subtract miles. Six times the distance between A and B
is 150x6 = 900, which is 10 times the distance between A and C, 10x90
=900
(19) Option D
Explanation: Since the question stem has the form, which of the
following could be ……? the proper approach is to test each choice until
you find the one that works, since her cost is N50, we test a:
x
= 15
N 50
x = N7,50
But a naira profit or make up of N2,50 would generate a selling price of

N57.50 which is not whole number . (b) (c) and (e) also yield fractional
amount, option d, however, yields a makeup of N20 for a whole naira
selling price.
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(20) Option D
Explanation: If we wish to compute the answer, let us start by saying that
the original price of the item is x, a 10% increase in that price will be
one-tenth of x, or 1x, when we increased price is 1.1x, we must then take
away 10% of that, ten percent of 1.1x is .11x, and subtracting .11x from
1.1x, we get .99x, we started with x, we ended with .99x, so we lost .01x,
which is 1%.
(21) Option C
Explanation: This problem cannot be solved by simply doing subtraction,
to give an example; if you read pages 1 and 2 of a book, how many pages
have you read? The answer is 2, we can conclude then that we do not
obtain the answer by subtracting 1 from 2, instead we subtract 1 from 2
and add 1.
49-7 + 1 =43
157 – 101 + 1 =57
43 + 57 = 100
(22) Option B
1
Explanation: If 3 people take 5 3 days, then one person would take 3
times alone, or 16 days, thus one person can do 1/16 of a job in a day, two
people can do twice as much of a job, or 1/8, in a day.
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(23) Option E
Explanation: There is no indication as to the exact percentage of students
who eat in the cafeteria, since we do not know how many boys or girls
there are.
(24) Option A
Explanation: From the analysis of the question, the sequence is 3,5,-5,-3,
2
3,5,-5,-3…… It is obvious that each four term is continuous: - 55/4 = 13 4
term
¾ is the 3rd term and also the 55th term =-5
(25) Option D
Explanation: We simply want to find how long it will take to amass
interest equal to 100 percent of the original amount saved, so we must
divide 100 percent by the rate of interest per year, 6 ¼ percent to get the
100
number of years: 6 1 = 16
2
(26) Option C
Explanation: In 3 hours, one ship went 60 miles, the other 45 miles. This
is a 3-4-5 triangle as 45=3 (15), 60 = 4 (15), the hypotenuse will be 5(15),
or 75
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(27) Option C
Explanation: First of all, option d and e are impossible on logical grounds

since they are greater than 1, and the proportion of something that has a
characteristic cannot be greater than 1, that would be like saying, we need
the total of upper and middle management with production line experience.
The ratio 4:3 tells us that the total number of middle and upper management
personnel in the company can be divided into 7 equal parts, with 4 of them in
upper management, 75% or ¾, have experience on the production line. Three
quarters of 4 part amount to 3 part (3/7 of the total). You are not told how
many of the middle management personnel have production line experience,
but the key word ‘greater’ tells you that you should consider all of the
middle management personnel as having production line experience. This
means that there are 3 parts from the upper management personnel who have
production line experience and that there are 3 more part from the middle
management personnel that are assumed to have production line experience,
for a total of 6 parts out of 7, or 6/7.
(28) Option A
Explanation:
“OPIUM” = 3n-3
n = 3n-3
-2n = -3
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n = 3/2 = 1.5
(29) Option D
Explanation: Each adult needs 15 cans /7 adults =15/7
Cans in two days, or (1/2) (15/7) = 15/14 cans
per adult per day, multiply this by the number of adults and by the
number of days (15/14) ( 4 adults) ( 7 days) = 30 cans of food.
(30) Option E
Explanation: The first child leaves ¾ of the cookies, the second child eats
1/3 of ¾ and that leaves ½, if the ½ is divided among four children, then
½ divided by 4 is 1/8.
(31) Option B
Explanation: Lets substitute J for John and P for Pat
(J is times P) J = 3p
(J in four years) X =J – 4
x−4
P = x−4 = 3 p (since J = 3P)
3
(32) Option B
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Explanation: After the 15% deduction, N12, 750 is left,

After the 10% is deducted from N12,750, N11, 475 is left, note that you
cannot simply deduct 25% from the N15,000
(33) Option B
Explanation: 2/5 (Boys) = 40
Boys = 100
There are twice as many girls as boys
girls = 200
(34) Option C
Explanation: If each of the dimensions is doubled, the area of the new
rectangle is four times the size of the original one, the increase is three
times, or 300%
(35) Option B
Explanation: Let x = amount of market price, then
1/5 x = 15
x =7
(36) Option C
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Explanation: If 2n is an even number, 2n+ 1 is odd.
(37) Option E
Explanation: Let x = first integer
x + 2 = second integer
x + 4 = third integer
3 (x) = 3 + 2 (x +u)
3x = 3 + 2x + 8
x = 11
:- Third integer = 11 + 4 = 15
(38) Option A
Explanation:
(39) Option A
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Explanation: Let Oge have Nx

:- Mpi has N (x+2)
and Chi has N ( x + 2 + 5) = N(x + 7)
x+ x +2+ x +7
average = 3
3 x +9
= 3
Each person gets N (x + 3 )

Chi must give Oge N3 and Mpi N1 so that each person has N(x +3)
(40) Option A
Explanation: Probably the easiest way to solve this problem is just to
count the steps on your fingers, but the same process can be expressed
mathematically, let those steps he walk down be assigned negative
values, and those steps he walk up be positive, we then have :- -4 +3 – 6
+2+9-2 = +2. So the person comes to rest two steps above where he
started, Person comes to rest two steps above where he started
(41) Option C
Explanation: Let original amount = x
cost of item = 0.9x (90%)
If 90k is added
.9x + 0.9 = x
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:- x – 0. 9x =o.9
0.1x =0.9
0.9
x = 0.1
x = N9.00
(42) Option D
Explanation: Between opening and noon he sold 0.4p, Remaining 0.6p,
Between noon and closing he sold 0.6 of 0.6p = 0.36p
Total sales = 0.4p +0.36p=0.76p

0.76 p
% sales = p x 100%
=76%
(43) Option D
Explanation: Translated into algebra, the question reads:
x (x) – x (x-1) 4
x2 – x2 + x = 4
x=4
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(44) Option D
Explanation: 40 percent of N2,000, or N800, goes for business expenses,
that leaves N1200,10
percent of the remaining N1200, or N120, is reinvested
(45) Option D
Explanation: In x years ago
Tunde ages 67-x
Seun’s age 29-x
For Seun to be half his father’s age
2(29-x) = 67 – x
58- 2x =67 –x
2x –x =67 -58
x=9
(46) Option A
Explanation: Let the original fraction = 4/8
:- Original numbering = 4
Original denominator = 8
Decreased numerator (0.75 of 4 ) = 3
Increased denominator (1.25 of 8) =10
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:- New fraction = 3/10

4 3 1
Difference = 8 - 10 = 5
1 8
% decrease = 5 x 4 x 100%
=40%
(47) Option B
Explanation: Let x be number bought for N1.20
120
:- 1 packet = x
120
3 naira cheaper = x - 3
but he would then have received (x+ 2) packets,
120
so each would have cost = x+2 ¿
¿
120 120
equating these two prices = x - 3 = x+2
:- x = 8 or – 10
a negative answer is unacceptable 50 x= 8 packets of Biscuits.
(48) Option D
Explanation: Let the speed = xkm/h
160
The time taken to travel 160km = x hours
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But this is 20 minutes or 1/3 hours

more than traveling at xkh/h
160 160 1
- =
x−16 x 3
x = 96 or - 80
The negative speed is not acceptable, so the average speed = 96km/h
(49) Option A
Explanation: If the office has 21 staff members, there are 7 men, and 14
women, since the office did not have more men
:- ¼ of the new staff total =7
1
ie 4 =7
x = 28
28 -7= 21 women
since there are 14 women already, 7 more will be hired
(50) Option E
Explanation: One way of answering the question is to assign an arbitrary
number to represent the price of the commodity on March 1, let us
assume it was N100, first, the price falls by ¼, from N100 to N75, then it
falls another 1/3 to N50, to return to its original level, the price must
increase by N50, and N50 is 100% of N50.
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CHAPTER SEVEN
Relevant for Banks, Financial Institutions, Marketing Firms, Oil
Companies, Telecom Firms, Engineering Firms, Multinationals and
Government Ministries.
VERBAL REASONING TEST (PART ONE)

20 Questions to be answered in 10 minutes
INSTRUCTION In each problem below, either part or the entire sentence
is underlined. The sentence is followed by options of writing the
underlined part. Option A repeats the original; the other answers vary, if
you think that the original phrase is the best, choose a, if you think one of
the other answers is best, select that one.
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(1) By observing the techniques of medicine men, such as physical

manipulation and the application of herbs, one has the capacity to
learn things about the human body not normally taken into
consideration by practitioners of Western Medicine.
a. By observing the techniques of medicine men, such as physical
manipulation and the application of herbs, one has the capacity to
learn things
b. By observing the techniques of medicine men, such as physical
manipulation and the application of herbs, one can learn things
c. If you observe the techniques of medicine men, such as physical
manipulation and the application of herbs, one can learn things
d. Observing the techniques of medicine men, such as physical
manipulation and the application of herbs, the capacity is given to
one to learn things
(2) Scientists have created a new substance that is so transparent as to be

almost invisible.
a. so transparent as to be
b. so transparent it has it has been
c. so transparent that it was
d. transparent enough so as to be
(3) Like most religions, the teachings of Sikhism are codified in a book
124
a. Like most religions, the teachings of Sikhism are codified in

b. Like most other religions, the teachings of Sikhism are codified in
c. Sikhism’s teachings, like those of most other religions, are codified
in
d. For their codification, like the teachings of most religions, Sikhism
has
e. Like those of most religions, Sikhism has codified its teachings in
(4) Blood banks can only make a donation useful to a hospital by testing
them quickly for a variety of illnesses and before they expire,
distributing them .
a. by testing them quickly for a variety of illnesses and before they
expire, distributing them.
b. by testing it quickly for a variety of illness and distributing it
before expiration
c. by quickly testing it for a variety of illness and distributing it
before it expires
d. by quickly testing it for a variety of illnesses and by, before they
expire, distributing them
e. by quickly testing it for a variety of illness and to distribute it
before it expires
125
(5) Certain gerontologists have reported that the more older people
continue to challenge their brains with reading, writing and other
thought provoking exercises, their cognitive functions are less likely
to diminish
a. their cognitive functions are less likely to diminish
b. the less likely are their cognitive functions to be diminish
c. the less are they likely to have diminish cognitive function
d. the less likely their cognitive function will diminish
e. they are less likely to have diminish cognitive function
(6) Archaeologists believe that the Dead Sin scrolls, discovered in
Khirbet Qumran between 1947 and 1967 are estimated at almost 2000
years old, provided rare insightinto first century C.E religious
communities.
a. are estimated at almost 2000 years old, provided rare insight
b. and estimated at almost 2000 years old, provided rare insight
c. and estimated to be almost 2000 years old, to provide rare insight
d. and estimated to be almost 2000 years old, provided rare insight
e. and they estimated them to be almost 2000 years old, providing
rare insight
(7) Recent indication of weakness in the economy have led consumers to

be more conservative with their purchases, so depressed have sales
figures been as a result that the government has launched several
initiatives to actively encourage consumer spending.
a. so depressed have sales figures been as a result that
b. the sales figure have been so depressed as a result that
c. as a result, so depressed has the sales been that
126
d. the resulting sales figures having been so depressed that

e. the sales figures have been so depressed that, as a result
(8) Proponents of the theory of spontaneous generation argued that

simple living organisms sprang to life not through a recognizable
reproductive process, but came to lifeindependently from non-living
matter.
a. sprang to life not through a recognizable reproductive process, but
came to life
b. did not spring to life through a recognizable reproductive process
and came to life
c. did not spring to life through recognizable reproductive process but
came to life
d. sprang to life not through a recognizable reproductive process,but..
e. did not spring to life through a recognizable system of reproduction
but had come to life
(9) The first decision to be made by a person being considered for

employment at Rochas Foundation is if to submit to a drug test
a. being considered for employment at Rochas Foundation is if to
submit
b. considered for employment at Rochas Foundation is if he or she
should submit
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c. being considered for employment at Rochas Foundation is whether

submission
d. considered for employment at Rochas Foundation is whether, when
submitted
e. considered for employment at Rochas Foundation is whether to
submit
(10) The basic needs of the average Cat are simple and largely
inexpensive: food, water, affection, and occasional visit to the
veterinarian
a. and occasional visit to the veterinarian
b. with occasional veterinarian visit
c. with occasional visits to the veterinarian
d. yet occasionally visiting the veterinarian
e. but some occasional visit to the veterinarian are needed.
(11) The doctor observed the butterfly rash on her patient’s arm and the
patient’s evident fatigue, which was consistent with symptoms of
Lupus
a. which was consistent with symptoms
b. which were consistent with symptoms
c. that were consistent with those
d. which symptoms were consistent with symptoms
e. symptoms were consistent with those
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(12) A report released by the American Diabetes association maintains

that much of the increase in cases of type ii diabetes can be attributed,
to the poor eating and exercise habits of young Americans
a. much of the increase in cases of type II diabetes can be attributed
b. many of the increase in cases of type II diabetes are attributed
c. they can attribute much of the increase in cases of type II diabetes
d. doctors attributes much of the increase in cases of type II diabetes
e. many of the cases of increase type II diabetes can be attributed
(13) Although some parents believe that the local all-girls school should
begin to admit boys, others claim that girls would participate actively
in class only if they had all-girls classes
a. that girls would participate actively in class only if they had all-
girls classes
b. that girls will only participate actively in a class if it is all-girls
c. that girls will only participate actively in an all-girls class
d. that girls would participate actively only in a class that were all-
girls
129
e. that girls in all-girls classes will participate actively in that

situation only
(14).
With the assistance of informants, cases can often be made against otherwise
elusive criminals
a. with the assistance of informants, cases can often be made against

otherwise elusive criminals
b. cases can often be made against otherwise elusive criminals with the aid
of of
of informants
c. with the assistance of informants, we can often make cases against
otherwise elusive criminals
d. otherwise elusive criminals can often have cases made against them with
the assistance of informants
e. with the assistance of informants, litigators can often make cases against
otherwise elusive criminals.
(15) A new initiative requires that cable companies report to their new
customers all the costs, including taxes that they will be expected to
pay.
130
a. to their new customers all the costs, including taxes that they will
be expected to pay
b. to their new customers all the costs, including taxes that the
customers will be expected to pay
c. to its new customers all the costs, including taxes that they will
have to pay
d. to the companies new customers all the costs, including taxes, that
the companies have paid
e. to their new customers all the costs, including taxes that its
customers will be expected to pay
(16) Imperceptible to the eye or the ear, carbon monoxide is formed from
materials containing carbon, or carbonaceous materials, are only
partially combusted.
a. carbon monoxide is formed from
b. carbon monoxide is formed by
c. the formation of carbon monoxide is when
d. carbon monoxide is formed when
e. carbon monoxide forms when its
(17)Galileo’s theory that ours was indeed a solar system, in which Earth
and other planets revolves around the sun, reinforced those of
Copernicus.
a. ours was indeed a solar system, in which Earth and other planets
revolves around the sun, reinforced those of Copernicus
131
b. our was indeed a solar system, in which Earth and other planets
revolves around the sun, reinforced that of Copernicus
c. our solar system was indeed solar for Earth and the others
d. Earth and the other planets revolve around the sun in our solar
system reinforces that of Copernicus
e. Earth and the other planets revolve around the sun in our solar
system reinforces which of Copernicus.
(18)A result of the recent election is realizing that in this increasingly

urban area, there is now more worry about crime than health care.
a. realizing that in this increasingly urban area, there is now more
worry about crime than health care
b. the realization that in this increasingly urban area, they now
worry more about crime
c. the realization that in this increasingly urban area, voters now
worry more about crime
d. a realizing that in this increasingly urban area, there is now more
concern about crime
e. the realization that in this increasingly urban area, concerns about
crime are greater.
(19) Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton nevertheless
composed Paradise Lost, considered by many to be the greatest
English epic.
a. having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain
b. with his sight lost to sustained eyestrain
132
c. blinded by sustained eyestrain

d. having been blinded by excessive eyestrain
e. blinded with sustained eyestrain
(20) One benefit of learning to speak a language while learning to read it

rather than separately is that the student can more effectively apply
his or her knowledge in social settings.
a. rather than separately
b. rather than independently
c. instead of separately
d. instead of as separate processes
e. rather than in a separate process
(1) Option B
Explanation: The statement started with ‘by’ so first and foremost
eliminate option d and e because the original (by) in the sentence is
necessary in order for the end of the sentence to make sense. Option c
introduces an error pronoun, option a and b maintained the point, but b
133
option is the correct answer because one can learn is far more direct than
one has the capacity to learn.
(2) Option A
Explanation: While the standard idiom is so… that, so….as can also be
used in certain situation, but so…. it is never correct. Eliminate option b,
eliminate option c for a verb tense error, the sentence begins in the
present tense ( is … transparent) and has no reason to switch from is to
the past tense was at the end. Option d and e are not idiomatic,
transparent enough has to be followed by to be in this situation and
transparent enough so as to ne combine incompatible idioms. Even
though the original sentence is rather clumsy, option a is still the best
answer to the question.
(3) Option C
Explanation: Since this sentence creates a comparison, apply what you
know about comparisons to it, comparisons need to involve objects, so
religions need to be compared to religions and teachings to teachings,
only option c is correct.
(4) Option C
Explanation: First of all, the subject for the underlined portion is a
donation, since the subject is singular; the pronouns that refer to it need to
be singular as well. Eliminate option a and d for using they or them rather
134
than it. Compare option b, c, and e eliminate e because testing and to

distribute are not parallel, since both are in parallel situations, each
describing what the blood banks need to do, they need to have the same
structure. Finally, option c is better than b because quickly testing it is
more direct than testing it quickly and because before expiration at the
end of b is less clear than before it expires, so c is correct.
(5) Option D
Explanation: The beginnings of the five choices present you with three
options, forcing you to decide whether the less or they/have is correct.
The non-underlined portion makes the decision for you, since it contains
the phrase the more, the correct answer needs to parallel that structure in
a parallel location and begin with less. Eliminate a and e, comparing the
remaining choices, you see that you have the less are they likely and the
less likely their. The second phrasing is grammatically correct and
parallel while the first by separating less and likely, is unidiomatic, that
leaves you with option d as the correct answer.`
(6) Option D
Explanation: The phrase estimated at is unidiomatic, so even if you are
not sure how to fix it, you can eliminate a and b, the remaining choices
provide only one option, estimated to be, so think no more on the issue
and look for another problem. To provide in c is wrong, try reading it into
the sentence to see that this verb tense does not work in context. Option d
and e present significantly different options, option e switches the
135
subordinate and declarative phrase of d, and the original sentence but it is

wrong because the original estimated to be is in a subordinate phrase and
is parallel with discovered in. The phrase has to remain subordinate based
on its position in the sentence. Also, by making provided into providing,
e option subordinates the final phrase and deeply distorts the meaning of
the original sentence so d option is correct.
(7) Option A
Explanation: There is nothing strictly wrongwith the original sentence, it
uses the so…. that idiom correctly, the verb tenses are fine, and it makes
sense. Scan the answer choices for better options. You can eliminate c
because its subject sales and verb has been do not agree, option d creates
a sentence fragment since it make every phrase after the semicolon
subordinate (remember that a semicolon is only used correctly when the
pieces on both sides of it could function as grammatically correct and
complete sentences on their own). Finally, as a result functions as a
modifier that refers to the sales slump. Choices b and e misplace the
modifier and unnecessarily distort the original meaning of the sentence,
that leaves a as the right option.
(8) Option D
Explanation: The two things compared here are two processes by which
“organisms” might have come to life. To keep them parallel, we must say
it sprang to life not (through one process), but (through an alternate
process) and since the two verbs mean the same things, it is needlessly
wordy to say both “sprang” and come to life”, option b uses the wrong
136
conjunction, since the two processes are contrasted. Option c is parallel,

but does not correct the wordiness. E is even wordier and shifts tense
inappropriately, so option D is concise and parallel, it is correct.
(9) Option E
Explanation: We are told that this highly suspicious company requires its
potential employees to have drug tests and the first decision that the
answer choices ask you to make is whether being considered or
considered is the better option. The being is unnecessary so eliminate a
and c, next, should the underlined portion contain if or whether? since the
sentence is describing options rather than a hypothetical situation,
whether is correct, eliminate b, finally d makes no sense in the context so
e is correct.
(10) Option C
Explanation: To deal with the sentence successfully you first need to
consider its meaning. The sentence lists five items, four of which support
the claim that cats needs are “simple and largely inexpensive”, you know
that the fifth item, the trips to the vet, are not part of this list and should
not be parallel with it because, first the and before shelter suggest that the
initial list ends with shelter, and second, trips to the vet are not
inexpensive. Therefore, the final item needs to be expressed as an
exception. Eliminate a, at this point, the primary problem is one of
expression. Veterinarian d, we have a dangling modifier, who is
137
occasionally visiting the vet; finally, e is a passive and much wordier

option than c, so c is correct.
(11) Option E
Explanation: The largest problem in the original sentence is which
because, as the sentence originally stands, it is not clear what which refers
to (the observation or the symptoms). It more likely refers to the
symptoms, but symptoms have not even been discussed yet at this point
in the sentence. Thus, for a few reasons, which on its own is an unclear
pronoun? Eliminate a, b and c. Notice that c makes the situation no better
which symptoms in d is not common idiom and the rest of the choices is
too wordy, so option e is correct.
(12) Option A
Explanation: First of all, much is better than many because an increase is
not countable and therefore, requires much. Eliminate b, notice that you
can’t yet eliminate e because it changes the subject of many cases, since
you can count cases, many is correct. Next, the original sentence contains
the passive expression active , but adds the entirely unclear pronoun they,
option d does the same by adding doctors, but the addition alters the
meaning of the original sentence, the original sentence does not suggest
that doctors are the intended subject or that they are actually attributing
diabetes to such causes. Therefore, keep the passive expression (it is not
always wrong) in order to preserve the meaning of the sentence, finally,
138
eliminate e because cases of increased type II diabetes is not a phrase that

uses an idiomatic word order, so a is correct.
(13) Option C
Explanation: The initial sentence is a mess in terms of word order and
clarity. Break down the different options, first of all, would participate is
the incorrect tense, the verbs up to this point in this sentence have been in
the simple present tense and there is no reason to switch into the
conditional would, eliminate a and d, next, in an all-girls class is far more
succinct than in a class, if it is all-girls so take away b, finally c is the best
of your remaining options because it is less repetitive and is more
consistent with the meaning of the original sentence than e, so go with c.
(14) Option E
Explanation: The original phrase, with the assistance of informants is a
modifier, based on the structure of the original sentence, it appears to
modify cases but does not really make sense for a case an inanimate,
abstract thing to be assisted by the people. What is more logical is that the
people who are building the case are assisted by the informants. Since
those people are not mentioned in the original sentence, the modifier
dangles and needs something concrete subjects. Option c is out because
we not logical, there is no indication that we are making cases, e is your
best option.
139
(15) Option B
Explanation: With two pronouns underlined, this sentence is likely to test
your knowledge of proper pronoun usage. The pronoun their, should refer
to cable companies. Both items are plural and the referent of the pronoun
is clear so far. Eliminate c, next, you have they in the final phrase of the
sentence, now, at this point, you have been given a lot of plural nouns,
including companies, costs, taxes, and customers. While it is logical that
customers are the intended referent of they, the sentence itself allows for
some ambiguity, (technically speaking, the companies could be the ones
expected to pay these costs). Where a pronoun is ambiguous, a pronoun is
used incorrectly. Eliminate a, and take out e as well since it certainly does
not help matters and what singular subject could its logically and usefully
refer to? Of your remaining options, you can remove d from
consideration because changing the verb to have paid unnecessarily
distorts the meaning of the original sentence, so option b is correct.
(16) Option D
Explanation:This sentence begins with a modifier, and this modifier is
correctly used because it does indeed modified carbon monoxide.
Eliminate c for creating an error where there was none. Next, you need to
decide whether from, by, or when should and the underlined section,
when you originally read the sentence, you probably noticed that
something was very wrong, since you cannot changed the end of the
sentence, you need to alter the underlinedportion in order to make the
140
sentence grammatically correct, only when does that (try reading them
in), so eliminate a and b, finally d is better than e because in this case the
passive if formed is more accurate than forms and because the its in e is
unnecessary, so go with option d.
(17) Option B
Explanation: The sentence creates a parallel between Galileo’s theory and
Copernicus’s theory, as you can see when you simplify the sentences
structure; Galileo’s theory….. reinforced those of Copernicus. The
original sentence is right to try to compare theory to theory but those is
the incorrect pronoun, since theory is singular, the pronoun that refers to
it needs to be that, so eliminate a and d, next, reinforced needs to be in the
past tense like was earlier in the sentence, eliminate e, finally c presents a
less clear and less direct alternative to b, leaving b as the best choice.
(18) Option C
Explanation: First of all, realizing in the original sentence is wrong
because it does not really describe a result. Instead, the participle defines
a process. Even though the phrasing may sound strange, the realization is
correct because, as a noun, realization can logically describe a result,
eliminate a and d, option b introduces its own unique error with the
entirely vague they, since we don’t know what they refers to, the pronoun
is incorrect. Option c and e remains. E sound fine when read on its own,
but if you read it into the sentence you will see the problem, concerns
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about crime are greater than (those about) health care, without those
about, the sentence misuses ellipsis, so c is correct.
(19) Option C
Explanation: None of the choices is overtly wrong in terms of grammar,
so focus on expression. Having lost sight, with his sight lost, and having
been blinded accurately captures the same ideas, you can eliminate a, b,
and d, option e uses the wrong preposition with suggests that eyestrain
constitute blindness, that it is the same thing as blindness rather than a
cause of it, so c is the correct answer.
(20) Option E
Explanation: The problem with the original sentence is separately.
Separately is an adverb but in this context it is not clear exactly which
verb it is modifying, b and c options share the same problem. D and e
both bring out the parallelism in the sentence, which you can see if you
rewrite the sentence. “One benefit of learning to speak a language while
learning to read it rather than as/in a separate process is”. You will notice
that d changes process to the plural processes and undermines the
parallelism; the underline portion should refer to only process, that of
learning to speak a language, in order to create a parallel alternative to
while learning to read it, so option e is the correct answer.
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VERBAL REASONING TEST (PART TWO)

Relevant for Banks, Financial Institutions, Marketing Firms, Engineering
Firms, Oil Companies, Multinationals and Government Ministries
INSTRUCTIONS: Each passage is accompanied by some statements
relating to the information or arguments it contains. Assuming that what
is stated is true; even if it contradicts what you know or believe to be the
case in reality, decide on this assumption whether the statement is (a)
DEFINITELY TRUE (b) DEFINITELY UNTRUE (c) INSUFFICIENT
INFORMATION.
From this passage answer question 1-4
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Parts can be only be drawn on the basis of property completed dockets,

which are issued by the Engineering Department for jobs which are
currently in progress, any request for materials or spares will be
prioritized in accordance with the urgency of the order, as determined by
the Chief Engineer’s office. Only in the case of emergency call-out where
spares or materials are needed immediately will these be made available
without such explicit authorization.
Questions
(1) The procedure for identify for parts has become more rigorous
a. The statement is DEFINITELY TRUE , or would be a reasonable
conclusion to draw from the passage
b. The statement is DEFINITELY UNTRUE, or would not be a
reasonable conclusion to draw
c. I have INSUFFICIENT INFORMATION to answer either of the
above with any certainty
(2) The issue of spaces for emergency repairs has no priority over parts
for planned project work.
a. The statement is DEFINITELY TRUE, or would be a reasonable
b. The statement is DEFINITELY UNTRUE, or would be a
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(3) The issue of parts is normally subject to an assessment of urgency

b. The statement is DEFINITELY UNTRUE, or would be a
(4) Material cannot be issued from the store without the express approval
of the Chief Engineer.
above with any certainty.
From this passage answer question 5-7
Asbestos is the name given to a group of six different fibrous

minerals that occur naturally in the environment. One of these,
namely Chtysolite, belong to the serpentine family of minerals
while all of the others belong to the amphibole family. All forms of
asbestos are hazardous and can cause cancer, but amphibole forms
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of asbestos are considered to be more hazardous. Chtysolite, also

known as white asbestos is the predominant commercial form of
asbestos.
Asbestos fibers do not dissolve in water or evaporate and are

resistant to heat, fire, chemical and biological degradation, because
of this, asbestos have been used in a wide range of manufactured
products mostly building materials.
Questions
(5) All forms of asbestos are equal harmful
reasonable conclusion to draw.
above with any certainty.
(6) More individuals, who in the past have worked with materials
containing asbestos, have developed cancer than those who have not
been exposed to the substance.
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(7) Asbestos come in the form of hazardous manmadefibers

that we used predominantly in building materials.
b. The statement is DEFINITELY UNTERUE, or would not be a
From this passage answer question 8 - 10
A few ‘safe as Houses’ alarms have been re-designed in an attempt to reduce

the large number of complaints where alarms have sounded by accident. One of
the new types of alarm is less sensitive than its predecessors. Studies have
shown that these newer alarms are rarely activated for any apparent reason.
‘Safe as Houses’ still sells a number of the original sensitive alarm systems,
because the increase in threshold for motion detection means that the new style
alarms may fail to register break-in where limited forces is being used.
Questions
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(8) All the company’s alarm system are now less sensitive
c. I have INSUFFICIENT INFORMATION, to answer either of the
(9) The new alarm system should reduce the number of accidental
sounding by at least a half.
c. I have INSUFFICIENT INFORMATION, to answer either of the
(10) All the company’s alarm systems are now effective.

b. The statement is DEFINITLY UNTRUE, or would not be a
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ANSWERS
(1) C (2) B (3) A (4) A (5) B (6) C (7) B (8) C (9)C (10)B
VERBAL REASONING PART THREE
SYNONYMS TEST
Relevant for Banks. Financial Institutions, Marketing Firms, Oil
Companies, Multinationals and Government Ministries.
INSTRUCTION: Select the word or phrase closest in meaning to the
given word.
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(1) PEDAGOGUE
a. Demagogue
b. Peddler
c. Bicyclist
d. Teacher
e. pupil
(2) DECOROUS
a. Adorned
b. Ugly
c. Insane
d. Proper
e. Childish
(3) ONEROUS
a. Possessive
b. Proud
c. Droll
d. Burdensome
e. Shy
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(4) EXPEDIENT
a. Precise
b. Expert
c. Expendable
d. Advisable
e. Erratic
(5) SUCCULENT
a. Asking help
b. Wicked
c. Anxious
d. Concise
e. Juicy
(6) NEPOTISM
a. Favoritism
b. Poor
c. Philosophical
d. Rule of despondent
e. Hedonism
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(7) PROPENSITY
a. Inclusion
b. Intellectualism
c. Probity
d. Dishonesty
e. Act
(8) TOWARDY
a. Refined
b. Yellow-orange
c. Ancient
d. Forward
e. Gaudy
(9) INCULCATE
a. Corroborate
b. Lack
c. Teach
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d. Destroy
e. Avenge
(10) TORTUOUS
a. Winding
b. Sadistic
c. Cruel
d. Like a turtle
e. Carefree
(11) MOLLIFY
a. Sweeten
b. Appease
c. Applaud
d. Worry
e. Discourage
(12) REGIME
a. Military group
b. Summary
c. Rule
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d. Estimate
e. Manor
(13) TENACITY
a. Persistence
b. Game played on grass
c. Large town
d. Indifference
e. Ecstasy
(14) PROFESSEDLY
a. Meekly
b. Cruelly
c. Bravely
d. Pedantically
e. Ostensibly
(15) RETROSPECT
a. Special kind of telescope
b. Microscope
c. Prism
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d. Review of the past

e. Forecast of future events
(16) IMPECCABLE
a. Poverty-Stricken
b. Faultless
c. Dirty
d. Criminal
e. Impervious
(17) ABETTOR
a. Gambler
b. Slaughter-house
c. Encourage
d. Factor
e. Author
(18) DEBILITATE
a. Argue
b. Engage
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c. Remove hair
d. Sooth
e. Enfeeble
(19) JUNTO
a. Junction
b. Jungle
c. Small boat
d. Secret faction
e. Embrace
(20) HARASS
a. Annoy
b. Harness
c. Invoke
d. Injured
e. Consider
(21) ERUDITE
a. Rough
b. Unpolished
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c. Scholarship
d. Magnificent
e. Onate
(22) ABRADE
a. Rub off
b. Bleed
c. Embellish
d. Erase
e. Poison
(23) INANE
a. Lifeless
b. Senseless
c. Hopeless
d. Faithless
e. Crazy
(24) CULPABLE
a. Free
b. Guilty
c. Vindicate
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d. Wholesome
e. Vindictive
(25) INGENUOUS
a. Sophisticated
b. Clever
c. Cunning
d. Naïve
e. Artificial
(26) FEALTY
a. Sense of touch
b. Loyalty
c. Anger
d. Anxiety
e. Personality
(27) COGENT
a. Geared
b. Formidable
c. Weak
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d. Convincing
(28) EXPUNGE
a. Rationalize
b. Purge
c. Exhale
d. Eradicate
e. Assign
(29) INDIGENOUS
a. Wealthy
b. Having stomach trouble
c. Scholarship
d. Native
e. Bald
(30) FORTIUTOUS
a. Lucky
b. Accidental
c. Rich
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d. Prearrange
e. Concerted
ANSWERS
(1) D (2) D (3) D (4) D (5) E (6) A (7) A (8) E (9) C (10) A (11) B (12) C
(13) A (14) E (15) D (16) B (17) C (18) E (19) D (20) A (21) C (22) A
(23) B (24) B (25) D (26) B (27) E (28) D (29) C (30) B
VERBAL REAONING FOUR
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COMPREHENSION REASONING TEST
INSTRUCTION: Read the following passage and answer the questions

carefully, you are expected to use 10 minutes only.
All warm – blooded animals are incredibly helpless at first. Young birds and
young bats must be taught to fly. Thousands of young seals and young sea lions
are drowned every year. They never learn to swim ‘naturally’, the mother has to
take them out under her flipper and show them how. Birds sing without
instruction, but they do not sing well unless they have had an opportunity of
hearing older and more adept members of their species. Older harvest mice
build better nests than beginners. It is said that the young elephant does not
seem to know at first what his truck is for; it gets in his way and seems more of
a hindrance than help until parents show him what to do with it, Insects, indeed
seem to start life completely equipped with all necessary reflexes, but even then
the concept of ‘instinct’ seems to require some modification, for they improve
their talents with practice. Young spiders, for example, ‘begin by making quite
primitive little webs, and only attain perfection in their art in course of time’,
and older spiders, if deprived of their spinnerets, will take to hunting.
Questions
(1) What is the topic sentence in this paragraph ?
(2) From the passage fill in the following columns in the manner shown here:
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Name of Animals Skills to be Developed
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3) Use these words to fill in the blanks in the sentences given below:
drowned, adept, incredibly, hindrance, deprived
a. Human bodies are ………….. helpless at birth
b. Ram was ………… at playing the sitar
c. The black South Africans are being ……….. of their rights by the
white minority government
d. A number of people get ……… every year because they don’t know
how to swim
e. Lack of money is a real …………. to Rita’s plans for travelling
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ANSWERS
(1) The Natural History of Nonsense
(2) Names of Animals Skills to be developed
(i) Young birds and bats Learn to fly

(ii) Young seals and sea lion Learn to swim
(iii) Young elephants Learn to make truck
(iv) Young spiders Learn to make web
(3) a. incredibly
b. adept
c. deprived
d. drowned
e. hindrance
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CHAPTER EIGHT
Relevant for Banks, Financial Institution, Marketing Firms, Engineering

Firms, Oil Companies, Multinationals, Telecom Firms, Health and
Government Ministries
INSTRUCTION: Each question is based on a passage, in answering some

of them, it may be useful to draw rough diagram and select the best
answer and you have ONLY 10 MINUTES to answer the questions.
From the passage answer question 1-6
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Seven people Steve, Tom, Unger, Violet, Willy, Xania and Yolanda are
riding the late train home after work. They all leave the train at different
stops, according to the following conditions:
Steve leaves the train before Unger,

Violet and Tom both leave after Unger,
Willy leaves the train third
Questions:
(1) Which of the following could be the order in which Passengers leave
the train from first to last?
a. Steve, Xania, Willy, Violet, Yolanda, Unger, Tom
b. Yolanda, Steve, Unger, Violet, Yolanda, Willy, Xania
c. Xania, Steve, Willy, Unger, Yolanda, Tom, Violet
d. Tom, Xania, Willy, Steve, Unger, Yolanda, Violet
e. Xania, Yolanda, Willy, Steve, Tom, Unger, Violet
(2) All of the following could be in which the passengers leave the train,
from first to last EXCEPT
a. Steve, Xania, Willy, Unger, Tom, Violet
b. Xania, Yolanda, Willy, Steve, Unger, Tom, Violet
c. Yolanda, Steve, Willy, Xania, Violet, Tom, Unger
d. Xania, Yolanda, Willy, Steve, Tom, Unger, Violet
e. Steve, Unger, Willy, Tom, Xania, Violet, Yolanda
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(3) Which of following could never be the last one off the train?
a. Tom
b. Unger
c. Violet
d. Xania
e. Yolanda
(4) Which of the following is a complete list of everyone who could not
be the first person off the train?
a. Tom, Unger, Violet
b. Steve, Tom, Unger
c. Steve, Tom, Unger, Violet
d. Tom, Unger, Violet, Willy
e. Tom, Unger, Violet, Willy, Xania
(5) If Willy leaves the train before both Unger and Xania, which of the
following statement must be true?
a. Xania leaves the train last
b. Yolanda leaves the train after Steve
c. Tom and Xania both leave the after Unger
d. Tom and Violet both leave the train after Yolanda
e. Steve leaves the train first
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(6) If Steve is not the first person to leave the train, which of the
following statement must be false?
a. Unger leaves the train before Willy
b. Tom leaves the train after Xania
c. Xania leaves the train before both Willy and Yolanda
d. Willy leaves the train before both Tom and Violet
e. Tom leaves the train first
From this passage answer questions 7 – 10
Six people, Alan, Betty, Charles, David, Elmer and Faith, compete in
a cooking contest at the orientation camp, their finishing positions at
the end of the contest are as follows:
Alan finishes neither first nor last

Betty finishes ahead of both Charles and David
Elmer finishes in third place
Questions
(7) Which of the following could be the finishing order?
a. Betty, Faith, Elmer, Alan, David, Charles
b. Betty, Elmer, Charles, David, Alan, Faith
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c. Alan, Faith, Elmer, Betty, Charles, David

d. Faith, Charles, Elmer, Betty, Alan, David
e. Betty, Faith, Elmer, Charles, David, Alan
(8) All of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the
finishing order of the six contestants EXCEPT:
a. Betty, Faith, Elmer, Alan, David, Charles
b. Betty, Alan, Elmer, Faith, Charles, David
c. Faith, Alan, Elmer, David, Charles, Betty
d. Faith, Betty, Elmer, Alan, Charles, David
e. Betty, David, Elmer, Charles, Alan, Faith
(9) Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of all

contestants who could finish first?
a. Betty or Elmer
b. Betty or Faith
c. Betty, Charles or David
d. Betty, Charles or Faith
e. Betty, Charles, David
(10) Which of the contestants could finish either first or last?
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a. Betty
b. Charles
c. David
d. Elmer
e. Faith
From this passage answer questions 11 – 15
Six Newspapers, the Globe, the Tattler, the Imprint, the Newmag, the Spectator
and the Dialer compete for subscription customers at Lagos City, the following
information has been found to be true about the circulation of the six
Newspapers:
The Tattler has more subscribers than any other Newspaper
The Imprint has more subscribers than the Globe
The Newsmag has more subscibers than at least two other

Newspapers
Whenever the Imprint gets more subscriber than the Spectator, then
the Dialer will also have more subscribers than Spectator.
No two Newspapers ever have the same number of subscribers.
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Questions
(11) Which of the following is a possible listing of the six Newspapers

in order from fewest subscribers to most?
a. Globe, Newsmag, Spectator, Imprint, Dialer, Tattler
b. Imprint, Dialer, Spectator, Dialer, Globe, Imprint, Tattler
c. Newsmag, Spectator, Dialer, Globe, Imprint, Tattler
d. Dialer, Spectator, Newsmag, Globe, Imprints, Tattler
(12) Which of the following Newspaper could have the fewest

subscribers?
(i) Spectator
(ii) Globe
(iii) Dialer
options
a. I and ii
b. ii and iii
c. I ii and iii
d. I iii and iv
e. I, ii, and iv
(13) If Spectators have more subscribers than Dialer, then which of the
following statements must be true?
170
a. Globe has the fewest subscribers

b. Newsmag has more subscribers exactly three other Newspapers
c. Spectator has more subscribers than Imprint
d. Spectator has the second most subscribers
e. Dialer has the third most Subscribers
(14) If the Globe has the third most subscribers, then which of the
following statements could be false?
a. Dialer has the fifth most subscriptions
b. Spectator has the fewest subscriptions
c. Newsmag has more subscriptions than Globe
d. Imprint has more subscriptions than any paper EXCEPT Tattler
e. Imprint has more subscriptions than Dialer
(15) If only two Newspapers had lower circulations than Imprint, all of
the following could be true EXCEPT:
a. Newsmag has the second subscriptions
b. Globe has the fewest subscription
c. Globe has more subscriptions than Dialer
d. Globe has more subscriptions than Newsmag
e. Newsmag has the fewer subscriptions than Spectator
171
From this passage, answer questions 16-20
Six students of foreign languages – Annie, Betty, Clinton, Dennis, Edmund, and
Frieda are seated together. They do not all speak the same language, but most of
them speak the same language that they can translate for each other.
Annie and Dennis speak only English, French and Spanish
Betty speaks only English, French and Swedish.
Clinton speaks only German and Spanish
Edmund speaks only Spanish,
Frieda speaks only Swedish
Questions
16. Which language is spoken by the most students?
a. English
b. French
c. German
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d. Spanish
e. Swedish
17. Which of the following students could talk to each other?
a. Annie and Frieda
b. Betty and Clinton
c. Betty and Edmund
d. Edmund and Frieda
e. Betty and Frieda
18. Who could act as a translator for a conversation between Betty and Clinton?
I Annie
ii Dennis
iii Edmund
iv Frieda
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a. I only
b. I and ii
c. I, ii, iii
d. ii, iii and iv
e. I, ii, and iv
19. If Clinton and Frieda wish to talk to each other, what is the fewest number
of translators they would need?
a. 0
b. 7
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
20. Frieda will always talk to which of the following without translation?
a. Annie and Dennis
b. Betty and Edmund
c Dennis and Annie
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d Betty and Annie
e Betty only
Discussion: This is a ranking problem, your task is to arrange or rank the people
according to the order that they leave the train. This is similar to placing them to
seat in order where there is one-to-one match, the one-to-one match is created
by the rule that people “all get off at different stops, when you create an initial
diagram, you can see the following:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Willy
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1. Option C
Explanation: Check each of the list of answers against your initial
diagram and the initial rules to see which answer violets any of the rules,
option a is incorrect because Violet is not after Unger, option b is also
incorrect because it does not show Willy to be third, option c is correct
because all the rules are satisfied, option d and e are not correct because
Tom may not get off before Unger.
2. Option C
Explanation: This is just the opposite of the preceding question, your task
for this question is to find the one list of people that does not follow all
the rules, the one that does not violet the rule is option c, other answers
are possible arrangements so are incorrect.
3. Option B
Explanation: The best way to answer this question is to analyze the initial
rules and consider which people must get off before any of the others, the
initial rules tell you that Steve gets off before someone and Unger gets off
before someone, Willy is specifically placed third, so, neither Steve,
Unger, nor Willy may never be the last. The only one of these that is an
answer is Unger which is option b.
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4. Option D
Explanation: The analysis for this question is basically the same as for the
preceding question, with different focus, because Willy is third, he can
never be the first. It is easy to see that neither Unger, Tom, nor Violet
may ever be first. There is not enough information to decide whether
Steve, Xania or Yolanda is first, but they could be first, so the correct
answer is option d which includes Tom, Unger, Violet and Willy.
5. Option D
Explanation: You already know that Willy is the third, so if Willy gets off
before Unger, then Unger must be either fourth or fifth. Also two people
Tom and Violet get off after Unger, so Unger must be either fourth or
fifth, the final four positions, fourth, fifth, sixth and seventh must be
taken by either Unger, Xania, Tom, and Violet, with these four people
accounted for and Willy getting out third the two remaining people Steve
and Yolanda must be first and second though not necessarily mentioned.
Look at this diagram:
1 2 3 4567
Steve or Steve or Willy Unger,Tom,Violet,Xania
Yolanda Yolanda
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If you check in this order, the analysis of the diagram, option d is the only
statements that “must be true”, all the remaining statements can be seen
in the diagram as possibilities, but they are not statements that ‘must be
true’.
6. Option E
Explanation: Steve cannot be the first, based on the initial rule, also Steve
cannot be the third, so if Steve gets off before Unger, Violet and Tom
both leave after Unger, so the statements that must be false is option e,
which states Tom to be the first to leave the train, so it is false.
ANSWER 7 – 10
ILLUSTRATION: This is another ranking problem, which can be

identified because the initial rules are giving you information about the
finishing order of the contestants and your task is to rank their finishing
order.
7. Option A
Explanation: Option a is the only one that complies with all of the rules
about the finishing order, option b is incorrect because Elmer is not in
third position, option c and e are incorrect because Alan may not finish
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first or last, d is also incorrect because Betty must finish before Charles
and David.
8. Option C
Explanation: Betty finished before both Charles and David, all other
options present possible finishing orders.
9. Option B
Explanation: Alan specifically cannot finish first or last, Betty may finish
first, Charles and David may not finish first because they must finish
behind Betty. Elmer may not finish first because he must finish third,
Faith may finish in any position apart from third position, so either Betty
or Faith could finish first.
10.Option E
Explanation: Based on the previous question, only Betty or Faith may
finish first, so the only possible option to this is e because Betty finished
before Charles and David, so Betty will never be last.
ILLUSTRATION: This is a ranking problem, since you have to rank the six
newspapers according to subscription levels, the rules specify that ‘no two
newspapers ever had the same number of customers’, so you are assured of a
‘one to one match, which is one of the key elements of a ranking problem, your
179
best way to succeed is to diagram the rules as much as possible, look at this
diagram and follow the rule:
least Most
11. Option D
Explanation: The best approach for a question like this is to check each
answer to see if it violets any of the rules, option a and c are incorrect
because Newsmag must be greater than at least two others, option b is
incorrect because Imprint must be greater than Globe, option e is
incorrect because Imprint is greater than Spectator, therefore option is the
correct answer.
12.Option E
Explanation: Whenever you have a question like this with the “ Roman
numerals choices”, first consider each of them individually like single
“true/ false” questions and then match those responses to the five answers
based on the diagram, the only information that is clear is that neither
Tattler nor Newsmag could ever have lowest subscription, other than that,
any other paper is possible, therefore, the possible answers are I ii and iv
so option e is correct.
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13.Option C
Explanation: The only initial rule relating to Spectator and Dialer is the
fourth rule, which says that “whenever Imprint gets more subscribers than
Spectator, then Dialer will also have more subscriptions than Spectator”.
as this question now adds, Spectator is greater than Dialer, then it would
be logically impossible for Imprint to have more than Spectator, (if
Imprint were to have more than Spectator, then Dialer would also have
more than spectator, and you would be caught with impossibility) so
option c is the statement that must be true, although it is stated in the
negative (if Imprint cannot have more than Spectator), this is the same as
saying that Spectator must have more than Imprint, which is option c.
(14) Option D
Explanation: The best step when you are given a specific bit of
information as in the question is to add that information to your
diagram and then see what other conclusions you can draw:
Least Most
Globe Newsmag Newsmag Tattler
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Because of the rule that Imprint must have more than the Globe, then
Imprint must be either second or third, with Newsmag taking the spot
not taken by Imprint
Least Most
Globe Imprint or Newsmag Tattler
Newsmag or Imprint
Least Most
Spectator Dialer Globe Imprint or Tattler
Newsmag
Now the final spaces must be taken by Dialer and Spectator, in either
position, Imprint will have more subscriptions than Spectator, so Dialer
must also have more subscription than Spectator. Therefore, Spectator
must be last, and Dialer second to last, just check the answer for a
statement that matches this diagram. It is evident that answers a, b, c and
e are all statements that must be true, the only one that could be false is
answer d, which could be either true or false, depending on the placement
of Imprint and Newsmag as second or third, therefore option d is correct
(15) Option D
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Explanation: As with the preceding question, the best approach is to

add the new information that there are only two spaces lower than
Imprint into a diagram:
Least Most
Imprint Newsmag Newsmag Tattler
Now, because Imprint must have more than Globe, you can mark
Globe must be in one of the last two spaces
Most
Globe Globe Imprint Newsmag Newsmag Tattler
You don’t have enough detail completed as with the preceding question, but
there is nothing more that can be concluded. Since the question asks you to find
the one statement that could NOT be true, you are looking for a statement that
must be false, from the diagram answer a, and b clearly could be true, and so are
incorrect, answer c is not evident from the diagram, either true or false. For that
reason, it is smart test- making strategy to skip it for now, and go on to see if
you find another answer that clearly must be false. Option d shows that it must
be false, since the diagram shows that either of the two positions for Globe are
both lower than either of the two possible positions for Newsmag, therefore
option d must be false and is correct.
ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS 16 – 20
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DISCUSSION: This is a hybrid type of problem, which does not fit into any of
the five primary categories, when faced with a problem type that is otherwise
unidentifiable, your best method of success is to read the initial set of rules very
carefully and pay close attention to the details.
(16) Option D
Explanation: Counting the languages spoken by the individual people
reveals that A, C, D, and E speak Spanish; no other language has four
people.
(17) Option E
Explanation: The only two people listed who share a common
language are B and F, who could speak to each other in Swedish; none
of the other pairs of people have a common language.
(18) Option B
Explanation: Both A and D could talk to B in English and then
translate to C in Spanish. E and B have nothing in common, so E
could not translate, F and C have no language in common, so F could
not translate, therefore, the correct answer is B option.
(19) Option C
184
Explanation: The only person who can talk directly to F is B, in

Swedish, so there must be at least this one translator. However, B and
C cannot talk directly to each other, so another translator is needed,
based on the previous question, B and C need only one translator,
either A or D, so the fewest number of translators necessary between
C and F is two, therefore, the c option is correct.
(20) Option E
Explanation: Like the preceding rule, the only person who can talk
directly to F is B, so the only option that is correct is e.
CHAPTER NINE
MEDICAL LABORATORY (PROFESSIONAL ABILITY TEST)
185
Relevant for Hospitals, Health firms, Chemical firms, and Manufacturing

Companies.
INSTRUCTION: Each of the questions have options, select the best choices,
you have only 10 minutes to answer all.
1. Ratio of 3.8% trisodium citrate to blood for estimation ESR by

Westergren is?
a. 1:4
b. 1:9
c. 4:1
d. 9:1
2. Which of the following is kept at 4 degree centigrade?

a. Turk’s fluid
b. Hayem’s fluid
c. 1% Amm Oxalate
d. Drabkin’s fluid
186
3. For mitotic chromosomal study colcemid is added to peripheral blood

culture to
a. Stimulates mitosis
b. Lyse cells
c. To stop division at mitotic phase
d. Peripheral blood have very few proliferating cells
4. What is the percentage of formalin used in routine fixation of tissues?

a. 4%
b. 10%
c. 40%
5. Bouin’s fluid contains formaldehyede, glacial acetic acid and……….

a. Lodine
b. Mercuric chloride
c. Alcohol
d. Picric acid
6. Which of the following substances help in decalcification?

a. Alcohol
b. Acetic acid
187
c. Formic acid-sodium citrate

d. Xylene
7. Which substance can be used for reducing silver in Von Kossa stain?
a. Sunlight
b. Acetone
c. Nitric Acid
d. Xylene
8. Which of the following is a fat stain?

a. Carmine
b. Masson’s trichromatic
c. Oil Red O
d. Iodine
9. Papanicolaou stain requires which of the following fixation?

a. Air dry + methanol
b. Vet fixation in ethanol
c. 50% acetone + 50% methanol
d. Formalin vapors
188
10.During routine pathological autopsy body is opened by which incision?

a. Y Shaped
b. S Shaped
c. H Shaped
11.Blood is stored in blood bank in……

a. CPD Solution
b. EDTA
c. Oxalate
d. Heparin
12.Person with malaria can donate blood after……

a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 4 years
d. Always unfit
189
13.Absorbance ‘A’ in colorimetric is …….

a. Directly proportional to concentration of a substance
b. Inversely proportional toconcentration
c. Not affected by concentration
14.Which amino acids give yellow color in ninhydrin test?

a. Proline and Hydroxyproline
b. Valine and Histidine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Tyrosine
15.Creatinine is preferred over urea as renal function test because….

a. Urea excretion is dependent of diet
b. Creatinine excretion is dependent of diet
c. Urea is difficult to measure
16.Hyperuricemia is caused by….

a. Liver failure
b. Gout
190
c. Diabetes
d. Anemia
17.Hemolytic jaundice shows a rise in ….

a. Direct bilirubin
b. In directive bilirubin
c. Both
d. None
18.Using Folin Wu method, normal range for fasting blood sugar in venous
blood is …..
a. 50 – 80mg/dl
b. 140 – 160 mg/dl
c. 90m – 120mg/oil
d. 140 – 180 mg/dl
19.Which is the most specific method for blood glucose estimation?

a. Folin Wu test
b. Glucose Oxidase test
c. Glucose tolerance test
d. Glucose oxidase peroxidase test
191
20.Raised levels of serum sodium are indicative of …..

a. Extreme sweating
b. Severe burns
c. Pyloric stenosis
d. SIADH
ANSWERS
(1). A (2) C (3) C (4) B (5) D (6) C (7) A (8) C (9) B (10) A (11) A (12)A
(13) A (14) A (15) B (16)B (17)B (18) C (19)B (20) A
192
CHAPTER TEN
PETROLEUM TECHNOLOGICAL TEST

Relevant for Oil
Companies, Engineering Companies. Multinationals
INSTRUCTION: You have only 5 minutes to answer the questions.
1. The injection of fluid such as water and gas to displace the oil is
called….?
2. …………….. methods are used to recover residual oil left behind by

increasing the volume of the reservoir contacted.
3. The categories found in tertiary recoveries are …………
193
4. Chemicals are used to enhance recovery by improving the ……….
5. Gas recovery efficiency are in excess of ………………….
194
ANSWERS
1. Secondary Recovery
2. Tertiary Recovery
3. (a) Miscible fluid displacement, e.g. Alcohol H2o co+oil
(b) Thermal recovery e.g. injecting o2 or steam
(c) Chemical recovery e.g. polymers and surfactants
4. Sweep efficiency
5. 80%
CHAPTER ELEVEN
ENGINEERING TEST
195
INSTRUCTION: You have only 10 minutes to answer the questions.
1. The ultraviolet Lyman alpha line of hydrogen with wavelength 121.5

nanometers is emitted by an astronomical object. An observer on earth
measures the wavelength of the light received from the object to be 607.5
nanometers. The observer can conclude that the object is moving with a
radial velocity of ..
a. 2.4 x 10 m/s toward Earth
b. 2.8 x 10 m/s toward Earth
c. 2.4 x 10 away from Earth
d. 2.8 x 10 away from Earth
e. 12 x 10 m/s away from Earth
2. Two identical blocks are connected by a spring, the combination is

suspended at rest, from a string attached to the ceiling; as shown in the
figure above, the string breaks suddenly. Immediately after the spring
breaks, what is the downward acceleration of the upper blocks?
a. 0
b. g/2
c. g
d. √ 2 g
196
e. 2g
3. For the system consisting of the two blocks shown in the figure above,
the minimum horizontal force f is applied so that block B does not fall
under the influence of gravity. The masses of A and B are 16.0 kilograms
and 4.00 kilograms, respectively, the horizontal surface is frictionless and
the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.50, the magnitude of F
is mostly nearly…..
a. 50N
b. 100N
c. 200N
d. 400N
e. 1,600N
4. The mean kinetic energy of the conduction electrons in metals is

ordinarily much higher than kT because….
a. electrons have many more degree of freedom than atoms do
b. the electrons and the lattice are not in thermal equilibrium
c. the electrons form a degenerate Fermi gas
197
d. electrons in metals are highly relativistic

e. electrons interact strongly with phonons
5. An ensemble of system is in thermal equilibrium with a reservoir for

which kT= 0.025 eV, state A has an energy that is 0.1 eV above that of
state B, if it is assumed the systems obey Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
and that the degeneracies of the two states are the same, then the ratio of
the number of systems in state A to the number in state B is …..?
a. e+4
b. e+0.25
c. 1
d. e-0.25
e. e-4
ANSWERS
(1) D (2) E (3) D (4) C (5)
198
ENGINEERING TEST (PART TWO)
INSTRUCTION: You have only 10 minutes to answer the questions
1. In a framed structure, as shown fig. 1.47, the force in the member AC is

….
a. w√ 3 (compression)
b. w√ 3 (tension)
c. 2w√ 3 (compression)
d. 2w√ 3 (tension)
199
2. In a framed structure, as shown in fig. 1.48, the force in the member AB

is …….. the force in member AC………
a. √ 3 w (tensile) and 2w (Compressive)
b. 2 w (tensile) and √ 3w (Compressive)
c. 2 √3 w (tensile) and 2√ 3 w (compressive)
d. ¿
3. Two bodies of masses m, and m, are hung from the ends of a rope,
passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in fig. 1.49, the acceleration of
the string will be …
g (mi−m2)
a. =i
m 1+ m2
2 g(1−m2)
b.
m1+m 2
c. g ¿ ¿
2 g( mi+m 2)
d.
mi−m 2
200
4. Two blocks a and b of masses 150kg and 50kg respectively are connected
by means of a string as shown in fig. 1.50, the tension in all the three
strings…….. be same
a. will
b. will not
5. A block of mass 20kg lying on a rough horizontal plane is connected by

light string passing over a smooth pulley to another mass 5kg, which can
move freely in the vertical direction, as shown in fig. 1.51, the tension in
the string will…… with the increase in coefficient of friction…
201
a. increase
b. decrease
c. not be effected
ANSWERS
(1) D (2) A (3) A (4) A (5) A
202
CHAPTER TELVE
DIAGRAMMATICAL, SPATIAL AND SYMBOL PLUG IN TESTS
Relevant for Oil Companies, Engineering Firms, Multinational Firms,

Architecting Firms.
Pattern Series questions test your ability to spot the relationship governing a
group of pattern, so that you are able to choose the next term in the series. Each
question consists of a series of four pattern of the left half of the page. Next, to
these are six other pattern labeled A, B, C, D, E, F,. Study the first four patterns
to determine what is happening in the series. Then select the one lettered
symbol that best continues the series.
In each item you can see two matrices, these two matrices were logically
organized but someone has exchanged two squares…. you must indicate which
pair of square (one square a matric) was permuted.
X X X
X X X
Y X X
203
OTHER BOOKS BY THE AUTHOR
1. Achieving Greatness Through Positive Influence

2. How to Turn Ideas Into Profit (Entrepreneurs Guide)
3. How to Pass Job Interview
4. ABC of Transforming Young Lives
5. How to Have a Good Relationship
6. Divine Revelation To The Church
204
SPEAKER AUTHOR, TRAINER AND CAOCH
HOREBSON Is available for speaking engagements and training programs. We

address thousands of people every year in seminars and workshops, our topics
include:
- Different ways of making money and starting a business from the scratch
- Discovering, developing and maximizing potentials
- How to start and grow a business fast
- Getting Jobs easier and faster in a competitive labor market
- High performance selling strategies, Public speaking and core customer
service training
- Making money online through autopilot Internet Income System
For more information, visit www.horebson.org, or call: 08082538744
205
WE WOULD LIKE TO HEAR FROM YOU
If this book has been useful to you or if you have any comments send to us,
your reactions will help us improve in our future editions.
To: info@horebson.org
horebson@gmail.com
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General Measurement Aptitude Test

General Measurement Aptitude Test

Most recent psychometric test

Relevant for Banks, Financial Institutions, Telecom Firms, Marketing Firms,

2018 - 2019 Success Edition

IF YOU PRACTICE WITH THIS BOOK, YOU WILL DISCOVER THAT IN

HOW SMART DO YOU THINK YOU ARE?

These days’ organizations have various methods of accessing the suitability of

Written tests and exercises

Group discussions and practical exercises

NATURE OF APTITUDE TEST

Aptitude tests are characterized by structured systematic ways of evaluating

Every standard aptitude test contains the following:

QUANTITATIVE REASONING TEST

VERBAL REASONING TEST

SPATIAL REASONING TEST

GRAPH OR SYMBOL PLUG IN TEST

LOGICAL REASONING TEST

CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST

PROFESSIONAL ABILITY TEST

QUANTITATIVE REASONING TEST

VERBAL REASONING TEST

PASSAGE. Never give an answer based on personal knowledge, whether

SPATIAL REASONING OR DIAGRAMMATICAL TEST

LOGICAL REASONING TEST

APTITUDE TEST CADAVERS

TIPS FOR PASSING JOB APTITUDE TESTS

1. Practice makes perfection. It has been evidently suggested that practicing

Look at these SAMPLE QUESTIONS and explanation

VERBAL REASONING TEST

a. Is accepting the risk of financial ruin as well

ANSWER SECOND CHOICE

Explanation: The original sentence suffers from faulty parallelism, to invest is

QUANTITATIVE REASONING TEST

a. If 2x + 3y =19,xand y are positive integers, x could be equal to which of the

Answer –third choice

ANSWER – FOURTH CHOICE

Explanation: You can set up an equation

ANSWER – SECOND CHOICE

1st person 5 handshakes

2nd person 4 handshakes

3rd person 3 handshakes

4th person 2 handshakes

5th person 1 handshake

HOW SMART DO YOU THINK YOU ARE?

Chapter One: MANAGEMENT AND ARTS SKILL TEST

Chapter Two: ACCOUNTING SKILL TEST

Chapter Three: MARKETING SKILL TEST

Chapter Four: HUMAN RESOURCES TEST

Chapter Five: CRITICAL REASONING TEST

Chapter Six: QUANTITATIVE REASONING TEST

Chapter Seven: VERBAL REASONING TEST

SYNONYMS REASONING TEST

Chapter Eight: LOGICAL REASONING TEST

Chapter Nine: SCIENCES TEST, MEDICAL LABORATORY TEST

Chapter Ten: PETROLEUM TECHNOLOGY REASONING TEST

Chapter Eleven: ENGINEERING TEST

Chapter Twelve: SYMBOL PLUG IN TEST, DIAGRAMMATICAL AND