Biology Support Material

CLASS XII
TERM I 2021-22
केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन, एनााकुलम क्षेत्र

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN,
ERNAKULAM REGION
MR. R. SENTHIL KUMAR
Deputy Commissioner
KVS RO Ernakulam
MRS. DEEPTI NAIR MR. SANTHOSH KUMAR N MR. VIJAYAN T

Asst. Commissioner Asst. Commissioner Principal
KVS RO Ernakulam KVS RO Ernakulam KV Kannur
Ms. Leena K
Ms. Muthulakshmi
Ms. Vidya Unnikrishnan
Mr. Jafar Sadik
Ms. K M Bindu
Ms. Sreekala Ravindran
Ms. Akhileswari K P
Ms. Latha Kumari T K
Mr. Pramod B
Ms. Sherly
Ms. Maria Parvathy
आर सेन्दिल कुमार dsUnzh; fo|ky; laxBu]
उपायुक्त {ks=h; dk;kZy;] ,j.kkdqye
R. Senthil Kumar KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
REGIONAL OFFICE,
ERNAKULAM,
KOCHI – 682 020
Ph. No.0484- 2205111(DC), 2203091(Fax))
Website: www.roernakulam.kvs.gov.in
Email : dcernakulamregion@gmail.com
F.31/Acad/KVS(EKM) Dated: 01.11.2021
Message
I feel immense pleasure to publish the study material for class XII ( BIOLOGY ). This
support material is prepared incorporating all the recent changes in curriculum and
assessment process made by CBSE. I am sure it will definitely be of great help to class XII
students of all Kendriya Vidyalayas.
Getting acquainted with the latest changes will help students to prepare well for the
board examination and enable students to face case based and Multiple-Choice Questions with
confidence. This support material has been prepared by a team of dedicated and veteran
teachers with expertise in their respective subjects.
The Support material contains all the important aspects required by the students- the
design of question paper, term wise split up syllabus, summary of all the chapters, Sample
question papers, problem solving and Case study questions.
I hope that this Support Material will be used by students and teachers as well and will
prove to be a good tool for quick revision.
I would like to express my sincere gratitude to the In- charge principal and all the
teachers who have relentlessly worked for the preparation of this study material. Their
enormous contribution in making this project successful is praiseworthy.
Meticulous planning blended with hard work, effective time management and
sincerity will help the students to reach the pinnacle of success.
Wish you all the best
( R Senthil Kumar )
Mr. T Vijayan
Principal
Kendriya Vidyalaya
Kannur
BIOLOGY
(Code No. 044)
COURSE STRUCTURE CLASS XII
(2021 - 22)
EVALUATION SCHEME
Theory
Units Term – I Marks
VI Reproduction: Chapter - 2, 3 and 4 15
VII Genetics and Evolution: Chapter – 5 and 6 20
Units Term - II Marks
VIII Biology and Human Welfare: Chapter – 8 and 10 14
IX Biotechnology and its Applications: Chapter – 11 and 12 11
X Ecology and Environment: Chapter – 13 and 15 10
Total Theory (Term – I and Term – II) 70
Practicals Term – I 15
Practicals Term – II 15
Total 100
THEORY
TERM I
Unit-VI Reproduction
Chapter-2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Flower structure; development of male and female gametophytes; pollination -
types, agencies and examples; outbreeding devices; pollen-pistil interaction;
double fertilization; post fertilization event- development of endosperm and
embryo, development of seed and formation of fruit; special modes- apomixis,
parthenocarpy, polyembryony; Significance of seed dispersal and fruit
formation.
Chapter-3: Human Reproduction

Male and female reproductive systems; microscopic anatomy of testis and
ovary; gametogenesis- spermatogenesis and oogenesis; menstrual cycle;
fertilisation, Embryo development upto blastocyst formation, implantation;
pregnancy and Placenta formation(elementary idea); parturition(elementary
idea); lactation (elementary idea).
Chapter-4: Reproductive Health

Need for reproductive health and prevention of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
(STDs); birth control - need and methods, contraception and medical
termination of pregnancy (MTP); amniocentesis; infertility and assisted
reproductive technologies - IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (elementary idea for general
awareness).
Unit-VII Genetics and Evolution
Chapter-5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Heredity and variation: Mendelian inheritance; deviations from Mendelism –
incomplete dominance, co-dominance, multiple alleles and inheritance of
blood groups, pleiotropy; elementary idea of polygenic inheritance;
chromosome theory of inheritance; chromosomes and genes; Sex
determination - in human being, birds and honey bee; linkage and crossing
over; sex linked inheritance - haemophilia, colour
blindness; Mendelian disorders in humans- thalassemia; chromosomal
disorders in humans; Down's syndrome, Turner's and Klinefelter's syndromes.
Chapter-6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA
and RNA; DNA packaging; DNA replication; Central Dogma; transcription,
genetic code, translation; gene expression and regulation- lac operon; Genome,
Human and rice genome projects; DNA fingerprinting.
TERM II
Unit-VIII Biology and Human Welfare
Chapter-8: Human Health and Diseases

Pathogens; parasites causing human disease (malaria, dengue,Chikungunya,
filariasis, ascariasis, typhoid, pneumonia common cold, amoebiasis,
ringworm) and their control; Basic concepts of immunology- vaccines; cancer,
HIV and AIDS; Adolescence - drug and alcohol abuse.
Chapter-10: Microbes in Human Welfare
Microbes in food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment,energy
Generation and microbes as biocontrol agents and bio-fertilizers. Antibiotics;
production and judicious use.
Unit-IX Biotechnology and itS Applications

Chapter-11: Biotechnology - Principles and Processes
Genetic Engineering (Recombinant DNA Technology).
Chapter-12: Biotechnology and its Application

Application of biotechnology in health and agriculture: Human insulin and
vaccine production, stem cell technology, gene therapy; genetically modified
organisms - Bt crops; transgenic animals; biosafety issues, biopiracy and
patents.
Unit-X Ecology and Environment
Chapter-13: Organisms and Populations
Organisms and environment: Habitat and niche, population and ecological
adaptations; population interactions - mutualism, competition, predation,
parasitism; population attributes - growth, birth rate and death rate, age
distribution.
Chapter-15: Biodiversity and its Conservation
Biodiversity - Concept, patterns, importance; loss of biodiversity; biodiversity
conservation; hotspots, endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book,
Sacred Groves, biosphere reserves, national parks, wildlife, sanctuaries and
Ramsar sites.
PRACTICALS
Max. Marks: 15 for each Term
Evaluation Scheme
TERM - I TERM - II MARKS
Part A
One Major Experiment Experiment No. – 1 Experiment No. - 3 4
One Minor Experiment Experiment No. - 2 Experiment No. – 4, 5 3
Part B
Spotting B.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B.6, 7, 8 3
(3 Spots of 1 mark each)
Practical Record + Investigatory Project & Record + Viva Voce 5
Total 15
Practicals should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes.
A. List of Experiments
TERM - I:
1. Isolate DNA from available plant material such as spinach, green pea seeds,
papaya, etc.
2. Prepare a temporary mount to observe pollen germination.
TERM - II:
1. Prepare a temporary mount of onion root tip to study mitosis.

2. Collect water from two different water bodies around you and study them for
pH, clarity and presence of any living organism.
3. Collect and study soil from at least two different sites and study them for
texture, moisture content, pH and water holding capacity. Correlate with the
kinds of plants found in them.
B. Study/observation of the following (Spotting)
TERM - I:
B.1 Flowers adapted to pollination by different agencies (wind, insects, birds).
B.2 Identification of stages of gamete development, i.e., T.S. of testis and T.S.
of ovary through permanent slides (from grasshopper/mice).
B.3 Meiosis in onion bud cell or grasshopper testis through permanent slides.
B.4 T.S. of blastula through permanent slides (Mammalian).
B.5 Prepared pedigree charts of any one of the genetic traits such as rolling of
tongue, blood groups, ear lobes, widow's peak and color blindness.
TERM – II:
B.6 Common disease - causing organisms like Ascaris, Entamoeba,

Plasmodium, any fungus causing ringworm through permanent slides,
models or virtual images. Comment on symptoms of diseases that they
cause.
B.7 Two plants and two animals (models/virtual images) found in xeric
conditions. Comment upon their morphological adaptations.
B.8 Two plants and two animals (models/virtual images) found in aquatic
conditions. Comment upon their morphological adaptations.
SPLIT UP SYLLABUS
XII – BIOLOGY
SL NO. CHAPTER PERIODS MONTH
1 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering 12 April-June
Plants
2 Human Reproduction 11 July
3 Reproductive Health 4 July
4 Principles of inheritance and Variation 16 August
5 Molecular basis of inheritance 17 September
6 Human Health and Diseases 7 October
7 Microbes in Human Welfare 6 October
8 Biotechnology - Principles and 11 November

Processes
9 Biotechnology and its Application 10 December
10 Organisms and Populations 5 January
11 Biodiversity and its Conservation 4 January

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
SUMMARY

Sexual reproduction is the process of fusion of haploid gametes, resulting in the production
of a diploid zygote, which ultimately develops into a new organism. All flowering plants
show sexual reproduction.
Flowers
Site of sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Parts of a flower:
A flower has following parts arranged in four whorls, i.e. calyx (sepals), corolla (petals),
androecium (male reproductive organs) and gynoecium (female reproductive organs). These
are attached to the central axis called thalamus.
Flowers may contain both male (stamens) and female (carpels or pistils) reproductive
parts or organs in it and is called bisexual. In unisexual flowers, only either of the
reproductive parts are present, e.g. corn, the tassels represent the male flowers (stamens)
and the ears or silk represent the female flower (styles and stigma).
Stamen is the male reproductive unit of angiosperm.

It consists of the following two parts:
(i) The long and slender stalk called the filament.
(ii) The terminal generally bilobed structure called the anther.
Anther is bilobed has four microsporangia. Each anther lobe has two theca, therefore
dithecous. In a cross section, it is a four sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four
microsporangia, located at the corners, two in each lobe. Microsporangia develop and
become pollen sacs. Pollen sacs contain pollen grains.
Microsporangium contains of following features in a transverse section:

Appears nearly circular in outline.It is surrounded by four wall layers.
The outer three layers are epidermis, endothecium and middle layers They are protective in
function and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen. The fourth and innermost
layer called the tapetum nourishes developing pollen grains. It contains cells with dense
cytoplasm and more than one nuclei.
A sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium in a young anther.Each
cell of sporogenous tissue undergoes meiosis to form microspore tetrads. Each cell of the
tetrad is known as the microspore mother cell.
Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell
through meiosis
Microspore mother cell(2n) Meiosis
4 Microspore tetrad(n) Mitosis
Pollen grains (n)
Vegetative cell Generative cell
(2 male gametes)
Mature pollen grain comprises two layers.

(a) Outer Exine made up of one of the most resistant organic materials sporopollenin. .The
regions on the exine where sporopollenin is absent are called germ pores. It helps in the
formation of pollen tubes, while the pollen grain germination on stigma.
(b) Inner thin, continuous layer Intine made up of cellulose and pectin.
A mature pollen grain contains two cells.

(a) Vegetative cell (The nucleus is large and irregular.)
(b) Generative cell (Refer fig2.7 of textbook) It is smaller cell usually spindle-shaped or
spherical with thin dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei. It divides mitotically to form two
non-motile male gametes, prior to release of pollen grain.
Pistil/Gynoecium It is the female reproductive unit of flower. A flower may be
monocarpellary (having one pistil) or multicarpellary (having more than one pistil). Pistils
may be syncarpous (fused together) or apocarpous (free).
The main parts of pistil are:
(i) Stigma receives pollen grains.
(ii) Style is the elongated slender part beneath the stigma.
(iii) Ovary the bulged part at the base of style.
Megasporangia, commonly called ovules arise from the placenta. Ovule is attached to the
placenta by a stalk called funicle. The number of ovules in an ovary may be one (wheat,
paddy and mango) to many (papaya, watermelon and orchids).
The main parts of megasporangium (ovule) are:
(i) Hilum is a junction between ovule and funicle.
(ii) Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments.
Micropyle is an opening present at the tip where integument is absent.
Chalaza is opposite to the micropylar end representing the basal part of the ovule.
The integuments encloses a mass of cells called the nucellus which have food reserves.
Embryo sac or female gametophyte is located in the nucellus (generally one formed from
megaspores through reductional division)
A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule
Megasporogenesis is the process of formation of megaspores from the Megaspore Mother

Cell (MMC). The MMC is a large cell with dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus. It
undergoes meiosis resulting in the production of four megaspores.
Megaspore mother cell (2n) Meiosis
4 Megaspores (n) (Megaspore tetrad)
3 Megaspore degenerate.1 remains functional
Functional megaspore (n) Nucleus divide 3 times by mitosis
8 Nucleated embryo sac formed
2 polar nuclei at centre

( n each)
3 cells at chalazal end
called antipodals (n)
3 cells group at micropylar end
the egg cell(n) 2 synergids(n)
Ref fig 2.7 & 2.8 of textbook

POLLINATION – Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
Autogamy (Same flower)

Geitonogamy (Different flowers on the same plant)
Xenogamy (Flowers on another plant of same species)
Chasmogamous flower: Open flower with exposed anther and stigma
Cleistogamous flower: Flowers do not open. Assured seed set even in the absence of
pollinators
Oxalis, Commelina and Viola produce both Chasmogamous Cleistogamous flowers
VIOLA
Agents of pollination
Wind pollination (Anemophily): Pollen grains are light, non-sticky and numerous. Well
exposed stamens. Large and feathery stigma. Eg: Paddy, Corn
Water pollination (Hydrophily): pollen grains are long ribbon-like. Mucilaginous covering
for pollen Eg: Vallisnaria, Hydrilla, Zostera
Insect pollination (Entomophily): Flowers are large colourful,fragrant rich in nectar .Floral
rewards in providing safe places to lay eggs. Eg: Amorphophallus, Yucca
Outbreeding Devices:
1.Non-synchronisation of pollen release and stigma receptivity
2.Anther and stigma at different positions
3.Self incompatibility
4. Unisexual flower
Pollen - pistil interaction The pistil has the ability to recognize the pollen, whether it is the
right type (Compatible) or of the wrong type (incompatible). If it is compatible, the pistil
accepts the pollen.
Artificial Hybridisation:
Double fertilisation:
1 Fusion of one male gamete with egg (Syngamy)
2 Fusion of fusion product of polar nuclei with second male gamete (Triple fusion)
Refer fig:2.13 NCERT
Post Fertilisation:
Endosperm: Endosperm develops before the embryo. Primary endosperm nucleus
repeatedly divides to give rise to free nuclear endosperm. Cell wall formation occurs next
to form cellular endosperm.
Endosperm may be either fully consumed by the growing embryo (as in pea and beans) or
retained in the mature seed (as in coconut and castor)
Embryo: Zygote gives rise first to the pro-embryo, and then to the globular, heart shaped
mature embryo with radicle, plumule and cotyledons.
Dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons
In monocot embryos there is only one cotyledon. In the grass family the cotyledon is called
scutellum.
Mature ovaries become fruit. Walls of the ovary transform into the walls of the fruit
(pericarp)
True Fruit develops only from the ovary Eg. mango, tomato
False Fruit develops from parts of the flower other than the ovary Eg: apple, peach
Parthenocarpic fruit develops without fertilisation Eg: banana
Mature ovule becomes seed.
Seeds are of two types
i) Albuminous (endosperm present as in wheat, rice maize etc)
ii) Non albuminous (endosperm absent as in pea and groundnut)
Some seeds have remnants of nucellus known as perisperm Eg: Black pepper
Some seeds can remain alive for hundreds of years. The oldest is that of a lupine, Lupinus
arcticus. 2000 year old viable seed of the date palm , Phoenix dactylifera.
Special mechanism of reproduction
Apomixis: Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

where seed are formed without fertilisation.
Polyembryony: Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed. e.g. Orange, lemon, onion,
mango, ground nut.
Reasons of polyembryony: More than one egg may be formed in the embryo sac. More
than one embryo sac may be formed in an ovule
MCQ
1. Match the following ovular structure with post fertilization structure and select the
correct alternative.
a. Ovule 1. Perisperm
b. PEC 2. Endosperm
c. Nucellus 3. Fruit
d. Ovary 4. Seed
A. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

B. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
C. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
2. Find the correct combination with reference to pollen viability
a. Pollen viability depends on prevailing temperature and humidity
b. In rice, pollen viability loses within 30 hours of release
c. Solanaceae can maintain viability for months
d. Pollen viability depends on prevailing temperature and atmospheric pressure
A. a & b are correct, c & d are incorrect
B. a & c are correct, b & d are incorrect
C. a & d are correct, b & c are incorrect
D. a & b are incorrect, c & d are correct
3. The functions related with outer three wall layers of microsporangium
A. Nourishment and protection
B. Protection and dehiscence of anther
C. Protection and nourishment
D. Protection, dehiscence of anther and nourishment
4. Identify A, B & C
A. A – Scutellum B – Plumule C. Radicle
B. A – Plumule B – Radicle C. Scutellum
C. A – Radicle B – Scutellum C. Plumule
D. A - Plumule B – Scutellum D – Radicle
5. Find the wrong combinations of plants in terms of consumption of endosperm during
embryonic development
A. Castor, Coconut & Groundnut
B. Castor, Coconut & Beans
C. Castor, Coconut & Maize
D. Castor, Coconut & Pea
6. In citrus and mango polyembryony occurs due to the development of multiple embryos
from cells of
A. Embryo sac
B. Nucellus
C. Integuments
D. Micropyle
7. Find the odd combination of plants with reference to development of fruits
A. Apple, Strawberry & Cashew
B. Apple, Mango & Strawberry
C. Apple, Cashew & Mango
D. Apple, Orange & Mango
8. Observe the diagram and find the wrong option

A. Marked parts are 1- Funicle, 2- Nucellus ,3- Hilum 4- Chalaza
B. 4 represents the tip of ovule
C. 1 helps in holding the ovule
D. 2 is a nutritive tissue
9. Find the incorrect statement
A. Intine is a thin and continues layer composed of cellulose and lignin
B. Vegetative cell is bigger and has abundant food reserve
C. Generative cell is small and floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell
D. Generative cell is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm
10. The chromosome number in an angiosperm is 40 (2n). Number of chromosomes in
its PEC is
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 60
11. When the seed matures
a. Its water content is reduced
b. General metabolic activity slows down
c. Embryo enter into a state of inactivity
A. a & b are correct but c is incorrect
B. a & c are correct but b is incorrect
C. b & c are correct but a is incorrect
D. All are correct
12. The plants that produces both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are
A. Oxalis, Commelina, Mirabilis
B. Viola, Commelina, Oxalis
C. Oxalis, Mirabilis, Commelina
D. All are correct
13. Identify P, Q & R. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through ‘P’
and then enters one of the ‘Q’ through the ‘R’
A. P- Chalaza, Q – Polar Nuclei, R – Egg apparatus
B. P- Micropyle, Q – Synergids, R – Filiform apparatus
C. P- Micropyle, Q –Synergids, R – Egg apparatus
D. P- Chalaza, Q – Polar Nuclei, R – Filiform apparatus
14. In crossing experiments, pollination by desired pollen grains and protection of
stigma from contamination are achieved by
A. Emasculation & Bagging
B. Emasculation
C. Bagging
D. Emasculation, bagging and re-bagging
15. Number of meiotic divisions takes place during gametogenesis in an angiosperm for
the production of 200 seeds
A. 100
B. 150
C. 200
D. 250
16. Coconut water from tender coconut and white kernel respectively are
A. Cellular endosperm and free nuclear endosperm respectively
B. Free nuclear endosperm and cellular endosperm respectively
C. Helobial type endosperm and cellular endosperm respectively
D. Helobial type endosperm and free nuclear endosperm respectively
17. Match the following ovular structure with post fertilization structure and select the
correct alternative.
a. Lupinus arcticus 1. Fruits having thousands of seeds
b. Phoenix dactylifera 2. Apomixis
c. Orobanche 3. Seed dormancy period about 10000 years
d. Asteraceae 4. 2000 years old viable seed
A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

B. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
C. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
18. The correct sequence in the embryonic development in angiosperm
A. Proembryo – Globular Embryo – Heart shaped embryo – Mature embryo
B. Globular Embryo – Proembryo – Heart shaped embryo – Mature embryo
C. Globular Embryo – Heart shaped embryo –Proembryo- Mature embryo
D. Proembryo – Heart shaped embryo– Globular embryo – Mature embryo
19. Find the wrong statement with reference to pollen-pistil interaction
a. Pistil has the ability to recognize the pollen
b. If the pollen is of the right type, the pistil accepts it
c. Pollen-pistil interaction is mediated by chemical components of pollen and
pistil
D. a & b & c are correct
20. Find P, Q, R, S & T. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and
bronchial afflictions in some people often leading to chronic respiratory disorders –
‘P’, ‘Q’, etc. It may be mentioned that ‘R’ or carrot grass that came into India as a
contaminant with imported ‘S’, has become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes ‘T’.
A. A. P- Asthma Q – Bronchitis R – Parthenium S – Rice T – Pollen allergy
B. B. P- Pneumonia Q – Bronchitis R – Parthenium S – Wheat T – Pollen allergy
C. P- Asthma Q – Bronchitis R – Parthenium S – Wheat T – Pollen allergy
D. P- Asthma Q – Pneumonia R – Parthenium S – Rice T – Pollen allergy
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
C. Assertion is true but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false but Reason is true
21. Assertion: Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Reason: Cells of the tapetum generally have more than one nucleus
22. Assertion: In some plants, pollen grains are shed at two-celled condition
Reason: The vegetative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth
of the pollen tube in the stigma.
23. Assertion: Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit
Reason: In banana fruit is developed from thalamus
24. Assertion: It is advantages to make hybrids apomicts
Reason: There is no segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny.
25. Assertion: A typical angiosperm anther is dithecous
Reason: A transverse groove runs lengthwise separating the theca.
26. Assertion: Exine cannot withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali
Reason: Exine is composed of sporopollenin
27. Assertion: Pollen grains can be used as pollen banks similar to seed banks in crop
breeding programmes
Reason: It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in
liquid hydrogen
28. Assertion: In angiosperms development of embryo is monosporic
Reason: Embryo sac is formed formation from a single megaspore
29. Assertion: Mitotic divisions that takes place during megasporogenesis are free nuclear
Reason: Nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation
30. Assertion: In angiosperms, double fertilization occurs
Reason: In double fertilization two male gametes fuse with two eggs simultaneously
31. Assertion: Oxygen and water enter into the seed during germination
Reason: In angiosperms the micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat
32. Assertion: The transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit proceeds
simultaneously
Reason: The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called pericarp
33. Assertion: Mango is a fleshy fruit
Reason: In mango nucellus is persistent
34. Assertion: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless
Reason: Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones
35. Assertion: Distribution of bryophytes and pteridophytes are limited
Reason: Bryophytes and pteridophytes need water for the transport of male
gametes and fertilization
36. Assertion: A typical angiosperm embryo sac is 8 nucleate and 7- celled
Reason: The large central cell of embryo sac has a big nucleus
37. Assertion: Complete autogamy is rare
Reason: Autogamy requires synchronisation in the release of pollen and receptivity
of stigma
38. Assertion: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Reason: There is no chance of cross pollen landing on stigma
Read the passage and answer the questions
Pollination is one of the most important mechanisms in the maintenance and promotion of
biodiversity and, in general, life on Earth. Many ecosystems, including many
agro-ecosystems, depend on pollinator diversity to maintain overall biological diversity.
Pollination also benefits society by increasing food security and improving livelihoods.
Pollinators are extremely diverse, with more than 20,000 pollinating bee species and
numerous other insect and vertebrate pollinators. Therefore, pollinators are essential for
diversity in diet and for the maintenance of natural resources. The assumption that
pollination is a "free ecological service" is erroneous. It requires resources, such as refuges
of natural vegetation. Where these are reduced or lost they become limiting, and adaptive
management practices are required to sustain livelihoods.
39. Find the correct combination
a. Vallisneria - Hydrophily – Pollen grains are protected by mucilaginous covering
b. Amorphophallus – Entamophily – Provide a safe place for pollinators to lay eggs
c. Grass – Anemophily – Feathery stigma

D. a & b & c are correct
40. Genetic similarity is maintained between
A. Autogamy & Geitonogamy
B. Autogamy & Xenogamy
C. Xenogamy & Geitonogamy
D. None of the above
41. Ecosystem will loss the balance if all the pollinators get extinct
A. Strongly agree
B. Agree
C. Disagree
D. Strongly disagree
42. Aquatic plants that are pollinated by insects are
A. Water lily & Hydrilla

B. Water lily & Water hyacinth
C. Water hyacinth & Hydrilla
D. Water hyacinth & Water lily & Hydrilla
43. Observe the diagram and answer the questions

Find the incorrect statement with reference to the diagram
a. Z is monoecious
b. X & Y are dioecious
c. In Z only autogamy occurs
d. In X and Y autogamy and geitonogamy occur
A. a & b are correct but c & d are incorrect
B. a & c are correct but b & d are incorrect
C. a & d are correct but b & c are incorrect
D. c & d are correct but a & b are incorrect
44. In castor and maize
a. Male and female flowers are present on the same plant
b. Male and female flowers are present on different plants
c. Both autogamy and geitonogamy takes place

d. Only geitonogamy takes place
A. a & b are correct but c & d are incorrect
B. a & c are correct but b & d are incorrect
C. a & d are correct but b & c are incorrect
D. b & d are correct but a & c are incorrect
45. Self-incompatibility involves
A. Inhibition of pollen tube development
B. Inhibition of fertilization
C. Inhibition of embryonic development
D. None of the above
6. Male and female flowers are present in different plants in

A. Papaya & Castor
B. Castor and Maize
C. Papaya & Maize
D. Papaya
7. With reference to the product shown below answer the questions
1. Pollen grains are
a. Female gametophyte
b. Produced in anther
c. Rich in nutrients
A. Only a & b are correct
B. Only b & c are correct
C. . Only a & c are correct
D. All are correct
48. The diameter of pollen grains is about
A. 25-50 micrometres
B. 25-50 millimeters
C. 25-50 nanometers
D. 25-50 picometer
49. Pollen tablets are used as
A. Food
B. Food supplement
C. Medicines
D. Fodder
50. The relation between bee and a flowering plant is
A. Parasitism
B. Commensalism
C. Mutualism
D. ammensation
ANSWERS
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
1 C 11 D 21 B 31 A 41 A
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 B 42 B
3 B 13 B 23 C 33 C 43 A
4 A 14 D 24 A 34 B 44 C
5 C 15 D 25 A 35 A 45 A
6 B 16 A 26 D 36 C 46 D
7 A 17 A 27 C 37 A 47 B
8 B 18 A 28 D 38 A 48 A
9 A 19 D 29 A 39 D 49 B
10 D 20 C 30 C 40 A 50 C
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
SUMMARY
The Human Reproductive System mainly consists of:
The Male Reproductive System:
● The male reproductive system is positioned in the pelvis region and comprises a
pair of testes in addition to the accessory glands, ducts, and the external genitalia.
● A pouch-like structure known as scrotum encloses the testes located outside the
abdominal cavity
● Each testis has close to 250 testicular lobules(compartments). These lobules
comprise 1-3 seminiferous tubules wherein the sperms are produced. the lining of
these tubules consists of two types of cells – male germ cells and sertoli cells
● The exterior of these tubules consist of spaces containing blood vessels and Leydig
cells
● Male sex accessory ducts comprises rete testis, vasa efferntia, epididymis and vas
deferens
● The urethra opens externally to the urethral meatus
● The male external genitalia, the penis is covered by foreskin which is a loose fold
of skin.
The Female Reproductive System

The female reproductive system is made up of the internal and external sex organs, which
consists of a pair of ovaries and oviducts, cervix, uterus, vagina and the external genitalia
situated in the pelvic region. Along with the mammary glands, these female reproductive
organs are combined both structurally and functionally in order to support the complete
processes of reproduction including ovulation, fertilization, pregnancy, and the birth of a
child.
The female accessory ducts are constituted by the oviducts, vagina and uterus
● The section closer to the ovary is funnel-shaped infundibulum that possesses the
fimbriae – finger-like projections facilitating the assimilation of ovum post
ovulation
● The infundibulum directs to a wider section of oviduct known as ampulla.
● The last section of the oviduct, isthmus, has a narrow lumen joining the uterus
● Uterus is also known as the womb
● The cervical cavity is known as the cervical canal which goes into form the birth
canal along with the vagina
● Female external genitalia comprises – mons pubis, labia minora, labia majora,
clitoris and hymen
Both the male and female reproductive systems play an important role in the process of
reproduction. Other than these reproductive organs, there are sex hormones which are
produced by the respective glands and are mainly involved in the development of
secondary sexual characteristics and proper functioning of the reproductive tracts.
Process of Reproduction
The process of reproduction in all humans are carried out phase-wise:
Pre-fertilization – Gametes are formed and transferred
Gametogenesis: It is the process by which the primary male and female sex organs like the
testes in males and the ovaries in the female produce gametes.
Spermatogenesis: This is the process by which the immature male germ cells also known
as spermatogonia produce mature sperm cells in the testis.
Oogenesis: Oogenesis is the process by which the immature oogonia in the ovaries
produces a mature ovum.
Spermatogenesis: The spermatogenesis process starts at puberty and proceeds as follows:
● First of all, the spermatogonia multiply by mitosis to increase in number.
● They are present inside the inner wall of seminiferous tubules where they multiply
by mitotic division.
● Each spermatogonium is diploid in nature and contains 46 chromosomes.
● Some spermatogonia known as the primary spermatocytes occasionally undergo
meiosis to form two equal, haploid cells.
● These cells are called secondary spermatocytes. Due to their haploid nature, they
contain 23 chromosomes.
● The secondary spermatocytes further undergo second meiotic division and produce
four haploid spermatids that also contain 23 chromosomes.
● The spermatids then undergo spermiogenesis to produce sperms (spermatozoa).
The heads of the sperms are embedded in the Sertoli cells.
● The sperms are finally free from the seminiferous tubules by the process of
spermiation.
Hormones Affecting Spermatogenesis:
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH): Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is the
hypothalamic factor. The levels of this hormone increase mainly at puberty. The secretion
of GnRH stimulates the release of two gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary – Follicle
Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): This hormone acts on the Sertoli cells where it
stimulates the release of some factors that play an important role in the process of
spermatogenesis.
Luteinizing Hormone (LH): LH is important in regulating the function of testes and
ovaries. It acts on the Leydig cells where it stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
androgens.
Structure of Sperm:
● Sperm is a male reproductive cell that is made up of a head, neck, middle piece,
and tail.
● The whole body of the sperm is covered by a plasma membrane
● Head: The head portion of the sperm contains an elongated, haploid nucleus
● The anterior portion of the head contains an acrosome which contains some
enzymes that help in dissolving the membrane of the egg cell and help in
fertilization of the ovum.
● Middle Piece: It comprises several mitochondria that provide energy for the
vigorous motility of the tail. The movement of the tail is essential for fertilization
because it helps sperm to move towards the ovum.
● Approximately 200-300 million sperms are released during ejaculation. Out of
these, at least 60% of them should have normal size and shape and at least 40%
should show vigorous motility.
● Semen: It is a milky white organic liquid that is released by the penis at the time of
ejaculation. It includes sperms and the fluids secreted by the accessory ducts and
the accessory glands like epididymis, vas deferens, prostate, seminal vesicles, and
the bulbourethral glands.
● The testicular hormones also known as androgens maintain the functions of the
male accessory ducts and glands.
Oogenesis:
The process of formation of a mature female gamete is known as Oogenesis. It is
introduced during the embryonic development stage. At this stage, a few million gamete
mother cells or oogonia are formed in the fetal ovary. After birth, no more oogonia are
formed or added.
● The oogonia form primary oocytes that form by the process of meiosis and get
arrested at the stage of Prophase.
● Each primary follicle is formed by primary oocytes which are surrounded by a
layer of granulosa cells.
● Between birth to puberty, a large number of primary follicles get degenerated.
Therefore, there are only about 60,000-80,000 primary follicles available in the
ovary at the time of puberty.
● These remaining primary follicles get surrounded by a few more layers of
granulosa cells as well as a new theca to form the secondary follicle.
● The tertiary follicle is formed by the secondary follicle. It is characterized by the
presence of a fluid-filled space called an antrum and two layers of the theca. The
layers of theca are arranged into two layers-inner theca interna and the outer theca
externa. The primary oocyte increases in size and completes its first meiotic
division. This division is an unequal division that forms a large secondary oocyte
and a tiny first polar body.
● Secondary oocyte consists of much of the nutrient-rich cytoplasm and it also
develops a thick covering known as zona pellucida.
● The tertiary follicle is finally converted into the mature Graafian follicle.
● This Graafian follicle now ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte or ovum
from the ovary. The process of release of the ovum is called ovulation.
HORMONAL CONTROL OF OOGENESIS:
Menstrual Cycle:
● Menstrual Cycle: This is the reproductive cycle that starts from one menstruation till the
next one. It mainly occurs in female primates like monkeys, apes, and human beings. The
cycle repeats at an interval of 28-35 days and normally releases one egg per cycle. This
cycle is important for the production of oocytes and for the preparation of the uterus for
pregnancy.
● Menstruation: In this process, the blood and mucosal tissue are regularly discharged in a
periodic manner. It occurs due to the breakage of the inner lining of the uterus. This
process takes place once a month and is called a period.
● Menarche: Menarche is the first menstruation for a human female that begins at puberty.
● Menopause: Menopause is defined as the permanent ceasing of the menstrual cycle in
females.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle:

The menstrual cycle follows four phases:
1. Menstrual phase: menstrual flow takes place. The flow naturally lasts for 3-5 days.
2. Follicular phase: In this phase, maturation of Graafian follicle occurs.
3. Ovulation: This is the phase where the release of the ovum from the ovary takes place.
4. Luteal Phase: This is the phase of formation of the corpus luteum and it is also known
as the secretory phase.
Fertilisation and Implantation: SERIES OF EVENTS AS FOLLOWS

● Insemination,
● The motile male gamete swims rapidly through the cervix, enters into the uterus,
and finally reaches the site of fertilization which is in the ampullary region of the
fallopian tube.
● The ovum which is released by the ovary is also transferred to the ampullary
region of the fallopian tube.
● Fertilization takes place in the fallopian tube only when the ovum and sperms are
simultaneously transferred into the site of fertilization.
● Fertilization: It is the fusion of the haploid male gamete or sperm and the haploid
female gamete or egg. At the time of fertilization, the sperm makes changes in the
zona pellucida layer of the ovum to block the entry of other sperms. This ensures
that only one sperm can fertilize a single ovum.
● The secretions of the acrosome make easy the entry of the sperm to the ovum by
the zona pellucida and the plasma membrane.
● This phenomenon induces the secondary oocyte to complete meiosis. This is again
an unequal division and forms a second polar body and a haploid ovum.
● The haploid nucleus of the sperm and the ovum fuse together and form a diploid
zygote. Hence, a zygote contains 46 chromosomes.
Sex Determination:
● The sex chromosome in the sperm is the factor that determined the sex of the
fetus. As the female is XX the ovum will always carry the X chromosome,
however, Males are XY and therefore, the sperm can contain either X or Y. Hence,
half of all the sperms carry the X chromosome, and the remaining half carry the Y
chromosome.
● The zygote that carries an XY would develop into a male while XX would
develop into a female.
Embryo Development:
● The zygote is divided by the mitotic division which starts as it moves along the
isthmus of the oviduct towards the uterus and forms 2, 4, 8, and 16 daughter cells
known as blastomeres.
● Morula: The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is known as a morula.
● It continues its division as it moves further along into the uterus.
● The blastomeres are arranged into two layers. First is the outer layer called the
trophoblast and the other is the inner cell mass which is attached to the
trophoblast.
● The trophoblast layer then attaches to the endometrium of the uterus.
● The inner cell mass differentiates to cover the blastocyst.

● The cells of the blastocyst embedded in the uterine wall. This phenomenon is
called implantation which leads to pregnancy.
● Fertilization- formation of zygote after a sperm fertilizes the egg
● Post-fertilization- Mitotic division of zygote leading to the formation of an embryo.
This reproductive stage is referred to as embryogenesis.
Duration and Stages of Pregnancy
Human gestation lasts for an average of 266 days or 38 weeks or 9 months and these
intervals are called trimesters.
● 1st trimester (1st 3 months or week 1 – 12) – pre embryonic and embryonic
development.
● 2nd trimester (next 3 months: week 13 – 24) – The fetal development begins.
● 3rd trimester (next 3 months: week 25 – birth) – At this stage the baby continues to
grow and mature.
Parturition:
● Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
● The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and the placenta
which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
● This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
● Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions,
which in turn stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
● The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion
continues resulting in stronger and stronger contractions. This leads to expulsion of
the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal – parturition.
Lactation:
● The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and
start producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation.
This helps the mother in feeding the newborn.
● The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum
which contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the
new-born babies.
● Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by
doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
MCQ
1. Which part of sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane
a) Allosome
b) autosome
c) Tail
d ) acrosome
2. How many sperms are formed from four primary spermatocytes
a) 4
b )16
c) 1
d )32
3. Where is the testis located in a human male?

(a) Abdominal cavity
(b) Dorsal side of the abdominal cavity

(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) Scrotal sac
4. Which hormone is released from testes?

(a) Testosterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Progesterone
(d) Relaxin
5. Which hormone is released from ovaries?

(a) Testosterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Progesterone
(d) (b) and (c) both
6. Which of the following glands is seen in the male reproductive system?

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Bulbourethral gland
(d) All of these
7. How much lower is the temperature of the scrotal sac than the body temperature?
(a) 2 degree celsius
(b) 4 degree celsius
(c) 5 degree celsius
(d) 6 degree celsius
8. What is the size of the testis?

(a) 6 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter
(b) 5 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter
(c) 5 cm length and 3.5 cm diameter
(d) 6 cm length and 3.5 cm diameter
9. Which connective tissue surrounds the testis?

(a) Fibrous tissue
(b) Spongy connective tissue
(c) Tunica albuginea
(d) None of them
10. Seminiferous tubules in the testis are lined with which type of cells?
(a) Germinal cells
(b) only germinal cells
(c) Sertoli cell
(d) Both a and c
11. In testis, which cells produce sperms?

(a) Germinal cells
(b) Epithelial cell
(c) Sertoli cell
(d) Both a and c
12. Which cells provide nutrition to the sperms?

(a) Germinal cells
(b) Epithelial cell
(c) Sertoli cell
(d) None of them
13. In tests, which cells are present in the interstitial space between seminiferous tubules?
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Germinal cells
(c) Leydigs cells
(d) (a)and(b)both
14. Which cells secrete testosterone?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Germinal cells
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) (a)and(b)both
15. Where do the seminiferous tubules of each lobe empty their sperms?
(a) Vas deferens
(b) Vasa efferentia
(c) Epididymis
(d) Seminal vesicles
16. What is the location of the epididymis?
(a) External surface of the testis

(b) Above the testis
(c) Below the testis

(d) Internal surface of the testis
17. After delivery, the mammary gland starts producing milk. In milk, which necessary
substance is present for immunity?
(a) Lactose
(b) Protein
(c) Fat
(d) Antibodies
18. Function of the epididymis is

(a) A temporary storage site
(b) For the immature sperms to complete their maturation process
(c) Gain the ability of swimming (motility)
(d) All of these
19. When are sperms transported from the epididymis to the vas deferens?
(a) Male is not sexually stimulated

(b) Male is sexually stimulated
(c) The walls of the epididymis contract
(d) First b and after c process occurs
20. The signals for parturition originate from

(a) Fully developed foetus
(b) placenta
(c) Uterus
(d) (a) & (b) both
21. Through which of the following vas deferens runs upward from the epididymis and enters
the abdominal cavity?
(a) Ejaculatory duct
(b) Inguinal canal
(c) Urethra
(d) (a)and(b)both
22. The distal end of vas deferens is expanded and in this region the opens?
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Bulbourethral gland
(c) Seminal vesicle

(d) Ejaculatory duct
23. What is the region present between the part of the seminal vesicle and duct of the urinary
bladder called?
(a) Ejaculatory duct
(b) Duct of urinary
(c) Urethra
(d) Seminal vesicle duct
24. Duct of which gland joins with urethra before it passes through penis?
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Bulbourethral gland
(c) Seminal vesicle gland

(d) (a) and (b) both
25. In male accessory reproductive glands which is incorrect?

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Urinary bladder
(d) Bulbourethral gland
26. The seminal vesicles are located at?

(a) Over urinary bladder
(b) Base of the urinary bladder
(c) Near urinary bladder
(d) Besides urinary bladder
27. What percentage of semen is produced by seminal vesicles?

(a) 50%
(b) 55%
(c) 60%
(d) 65%
28. Which substances present in seminal vesicles are thick and yellowish secretion?
(a) Sugar
(b) Vitamin c
(c) Fat
29. What is provided to sperms by secretion of seminal vesicles?

(a) Nourishment
(b) Activating
(c) Lubricant
(d) (a) and(c) both
30. Where is the prostate gland located?

(a) Over urinary bladder
(b) Base of the urinary bladder
(c) Posterior region of the urinary
(d) Side of the urinary bladder
31. What is provided to sperm by secretion of the prostate gland?

(a) Nourishes
(b) Activating
(c) Lubricant
(d) (a)and (c) both
32. Where is the bulbourethral gland located?

(a) Beneath the prostate
(b) Lateral side of the urethra
(c) Over urinary bladder
33. Which gland secretes alkaline fluid?

(a) Seminal vesicle gland
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Bulbourethral gland
34. What is the function of bulbourethral gland secretion?

(a) Nourishes sperms
(b) role in activating sperms
(c) Serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse
(d) Enhancing the motility of sperms
35. Which of the following constitute semen?
(a) Sperms
(b) Secretion of accessory glands
(c) Organic substance
(d) Both a and b
36. What is the pH of semen?

(a) 7.3 to 7.7
(b) 7.2 to 7.6
(c) 7.4 to 7.8
(d) 7.5 to 7.9
37. What is the pH of vaginal fluid?

(a) 3.5 to 4.0
(b) 3.6 to 4.1
(c) 3.7 to 4.2
(d) 3.8 to 4.3
38. The average volume of semen for each ejaculation is

(a) 3 to 4 ml
(b) 3.5 to 4.5 ml
(c) 4 to 5 ml
(d) 4.5 to 5.5 ml
39. Internally the penis is

(a) Composed of three cylindrical mass of connective tissue bound together
(b) Composed of three cylindrical mass of tissue bound together by fibrous tissue
(c) Composed of three cylindrical mass of epithelium tissue bound together
(d) Composed of three mass of tissue only
40. When does the penis get erect?

(a) If masses of tissue filled with air
(b) If masses of tissue filled with blood
(c) If masses of tissue filled with hormones
(d) (b) and (c) occurs both
41. Which is an accessory part of the female reproductive system?

(a) Vulva
(b) Pudendum
(c) Mammary gland
(d) Vagina
42. What is the size of ovaries?
(a) 3 c.m long, 2 c.m wide, 1 c.m thick
(b) 2 c.m long, 2 c.m wide, 1 c.m thick
(c) 3 c.m long, 2 c.m wide, 2 c.m thick
(d) 2 c.m long, 2 c.m wide, 2 c.m thick
43. Where are ovaries situated?

(a) In the upper pelvic cavity
(b) Below pelvic cavity
(c) At one on each side of the uterus
(d) (a) and (c) both
44. The ovaries maintain their position by

(a) Series of ligaments
(b) Connective layer
(c) Epithelium layer
(d) Muscular filament
45. What is the entry point for blood vessels and nerves into the ovaries called?
(a) Cortex
(b) Hilus
(c) Medulla
(d) None of them
46. Which tissue layer covers the ovary?

(a) Columnar epithelium
(b) Squamous epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Ciliary epithelium
47. What is the surrounding layer of the ovary called?

(a) Germinal epithelium
(b) Tunica albuginea
(c) Stroma
(d) Collagenous
48. What is called a capsule of collagenous connective tissue immediately after the
germinal epithelium of ovaries?
(a) Stroma
(b) Tunica albuginea
(c) Ovarian epithelium
(d)None of them
49. Which tissue layer of tunica albuginea
(a) Connective tissue
(b) Collagenous connective tissue
(c) Epithelial tissue
(d) Collagenous epithelium tissue
50. What is called a region of connective tissue deep to the tunica albuginea?
(a) Stroma
(b) Follicular epithelium
(c) Graffian follicles
(d) Corpus luteum
51. Ovarian stroma is composed by?

a) Cortex
(b) Medulla
(c) Follicles
52. Stroma of ovarian cortex contains

(a) Ovarian follicles
(b) Corpus luteum

53. What is the structure consisting of ova and their surrounding tissues in various stages
of development called?
(a) Primary follicle
(b) Ovarian follicles
(d) Corpus luteum
54. What is the structure consisting of the mature ovum and its surrounding tissues called?
(a) Mature ovum
(b) Ovarian follicles
(c) Graffian follicle
(d) Corpus luteum
55. Graffian follicle after ovulation produces a glandular body, it is called

(a) Graffian follicle
(b) Corpus luteum
(c) Mass of Graafian follicle
(d) both a and b
56. Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum?

(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
57. What is the length of the fallopian tube?

(a) 10 c.m
(b) 10 m.m
(c) 12 c.m
(d) 12 m.m
58. The uterine tube from the side runs forwards and becomes associated with
(a) Vagina
(b) Uterus
(c) Urethra
(d) Ovary
59. Where does ovum fertilization occur?

(a) Vagina
(b) Uterus
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Infundibulum
60. Where is the uterus situated?

(a) Between the urinary bladder and rectum
(b) Between the urinary bladder and urethra
(c) Between the urinary bladder and ovary
(d) Between the urinary bladder and intestine
61. What is the shape of the uterus?

(a) Inverted apple-shaped
(b) Inverted pear-shaped
(c) Inverted mango shaped
(d) None of this
62.The wall of the uterus is made of __________number of layers

(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) one
(d) Four
63. A fertilized egg is implanted in the uterus?

(a) Endometrium
(b) Myometrium
(c) Perimetrium
(d) None of this
64. It is a middle layer of the uterus and it plays an active role during the delivery of a
baby
(a) Endometrium
(b) Myometrium
(c) Perimetrium
(d) None of this
65. The distal narrow end of the uterus is called
(a) Vagina
(b) Cervix
(c) Hymen
66. Which part is connected to the uterus through the cervix?

(a) Vagina
(b) Hymen
(c) Mucosal membrane
67. It is a fold at the distal end of the vagina

(a) Hymen
(b) Mucosal membrane
(c) Cervix
(d) Clitoris
68. What is called cushion of fatty tissue in female external genitalia?

(a) Mons pubis
(b) Labia majora
(c) Labia minora
(d) Clitoris
69. Which region of the vulva is located below the mons pubis?
(a) Labia majora
(b) Labia minora
(c) Clitoris
(d) None of this
70. What is called a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two
labia minora
(a) Penis
(b) Clitoris
(c) Mons
(d) Pubis
71. Which is part of the vulva is considered equivalent to the male penis
(a) Clitoris
(b) Hymen
(c) Mons
(d) Pubis
72. During the puberty stage, which sex hormone stimulates the enlargement of the breast?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Testosterone
73. What is called the process of gamete formation in sexually reproducing animals?
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) oogenesis
(c) Gametogenesis
(d) None of this
74. Which cells produce spermatids

(a) Secondary germinal cells
(b) Primary germinal cells
(c) Spermatogonium
(d) Spermatocytes
75. Name the process involved in the multiplication phase of spermatogenesis?

(a) Mitotic
(b) Meiosis
(c) Amitosis
76. In spermatogenesis, which cells are produced at the end of the multiplication phase?
(a) Primary spermatocyte
(b) Spermatogonia
(c) Secondary spermatocyte
(d) Spermatids
77. In spermatogenesis, which cells are produced at the end of the growth phase?
(b) Spermatogonia

(d) Spermatids
78. In spermatogenesis, which processes occur for secondary spermatocytes?

(a) Mitotic
(b) Meiosis
(c) Amitosis
79. In spermatogenesis, which cells are produced at the end of the maturation phase?
(b) Spermatogonia
(d) Spermatids
80. The metamorphosis of the spermatids into the sperms is known as

(a) Multiplication phase
(b) The growth phase
(c) The maturation phase
(d) Spermiogenesis
81. These form a middle piece of the sperm

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Golgi Complex
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Nucleus
82. In oogenesis, which cells are produced at the end of the multiplication phase?
(a) Primary oocyte
(b) Secondary oocyte
(c) First polar body
(d) Secondary polar body
83. In oogenesis, which cells are produced at the first division of primary oocytes in the
maturation phase?
(a) Secondary oocyte
(b) First polar body
(c) Secondary polar body
84. A cell at ovulation is at which stage

(a) Secondary oocyte
(b) First polar body
(c) Secondary polar body
(d) Primary oocyte
85.When sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte during its unequal meiotic division, how
many polar body (bodies) is/are produced?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of this
86. The events of the menstrual cycle are the cyclic changes in the
(a) Endometrium
(b) Myometrium
(c) Perimetrium
(d) All of this
87.The events of the menstrual cycle are comprised of how many days
(a) 27 days
(b) 28 days
(c) 29 days
(d) 30 days
88. In the menstrual cycle, which period is known as the menstrual phase?
(a) 1 to 5 days
(b) 6 to 14 days
(c) 15 to 28 days
(d) 14 to 15 days
89.Which period of the menstrual cycle is known as a proliferative phase?

(a) 1 to 5 days
(b) 6 to 14 days
(c) 15 to 28 days
(d) 14 to 15 days
90. On which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
(a) on 12th day
(b) on 13th day
(c) on 14th day
(d) on 15th day
91. During which days of the menstrual cycle do estrogen levels rise?
(a) 1 to 5 days
(b) 6 to 14 days
(c) 14 to 15 days
(d) 15 to 28 days
92. On which days of the menstrual cycle do progesterone levels rise?

(a) 1 to 5 days
(b) 6 to 14 days
(c) 14 to 15 days
(d) 15 to 28 days
93. The sperms emptied in the vagina start moving towards oviducts through the uterus
which is helpful in their locomotion
(a) Contraction of uterine wall
(b) Contraction vagina passage
(c) The slimy secretion of oviduct wall
(d) All these
94. In fertilization, which part of sperm enters the secondary oocyte?

(a) Tail
(b) Head
(c) Middle part
95. During movement of zygote into oviduct the division of zygote in 2 to 16 daughter
cells. This process called
(a) Cleavage
(b) Gastrulation
(c) Morula
96. The embryo with 16 cells is called

(a) Blastocyst
(b) Blastomeres
(c) Morula
(d) Cleavage
97. The fluid within the blastocyst is formed by the cells of

(a) Blastomere
(b) Trophoblast
(c) Inner layer of blastocyst
(d) None of this
98. Which hormones are not produced by placenta?

(a) hcG
(b) hpL
(c) estrogens
(d) relaxin
99. Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic division in zygote and forms blastula, The 2 4 8
16 daughter cells are called blastomeres Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as
blastocyst and has blastocoel cavity .Blastocyst gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to
pregnancy
1) Solid mass of cells with 16 blastomere is called
a) morula
b) Blastula
c) gastrula
d) Zygote
2) At which stage of embryonic development trophoectoderm develops ?
a) zygote
b) morula
c) blastula
d) gastrula
3) Site of implantation is
a) endometrium of uterus
b) Cervix
c) uterine fundus
d) infundibulum of oviduct
4) Correct sequence of various structure formed during embryonic development is
a) morula ---embryo -- gastrula --- blastula
b) zygote -- embryo--- morula--- blastula
c) blastula--- morula---- gastrula ----embryo
d) zygote ---morula ---blastula ---gastrula
1. Assertion: In human male testis are extra abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs
Reason: Scrotum act as thermoregulator and keeps testicular temperature lower by two
degree Celsius for normal spermatogenesis
2. Assertion: Ovum retains most of the content of primary oocyte and is much larger than a
Reason: Ovum needs energy to go about in search of a spermatozoa for fertilization
3. Assertion: Interstitial cells that are present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule
are called interstitial space.
Reason: Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli cells.
100. Read the following and answer any four questions:

Oogenesis is the process of formation of ovum in ovaries. It consists of three phases:
multiplication,Growth and maturation.Oogenesis is controlled by hormones GnRH,
LH,FSH. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary
gland to secrete LH and FSH.
1. What is the function of hormone FSH?
a) it inhibits the formation of oestrogen.
b) it induces the release of secondary oocytes.
c) it stimulates the growth of graffian follicles.
d) it causes ovulation.
2. Which hormone induces the rupture of mature Graffian follicles?
a ) follicle stimulating hormone
b) gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c) progesterone
d) luteinizing hormone
3. Which cell division is involved in the formation of secondary oocytes?
a) mitosis b) meiosis I c) Amitosis d) meiosis II
4. Identify the functions of LH?
a) release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle
b) stimulates Corpus luteum to secrete progesterone
c) stimulates oestrogen formation
d) promotes development of egg to form secondary oocyte
a) A and B only
b) B and C only
c) A,C and D only
d) B only
ANSWERS
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
1 D 21 B 41 C 61 B 81 A
2 B 22 C 42 A 62 A 82 A
3 D 23 A 43 B 63 A 83 D
4 A 24 B 44 A 64 B 84 A
5 D 25 C 45 B 65 B 85 C
6 D 26 B 46 C 66 A 86 A
7 A 27 C 47 A 67 B 87 B
8 B 28 D 48 B 68 A 88 A
9 C 29 A 49 B 69 A 89 B
10 D 30 C 50 A 70 B 90 C
11 A 31 B 51 D 71 A 91 B
12 C 32 D 52 A 72 B 92 D
13 C 33 D 53 B 73 C 93 D
14 C 34 C 54 C 74 B 94 D
15 B 35 D 55 B 75 A 95 A
16 A 36 B 56 B 76 B 96 C
17 D 37 A 57 A 77 A 97 B
18 D 38 A 58 B 78 B 98 C
19 D 39 B 59 C 79 D 99 ---
20 D 40 B 60 A 80 D 100 ---
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
SUMMARY
Reproductive health: problems and strategies
A reproductively healthy society with people having physically and functionally normal
reproductive organs and normal emotional and behavioural interaction among them in all
sex- related aspects.
Programmes involved in maintaining reproductive health:

Family planning programmes
● Reproductive and child health care (RCH)
AIMS OF REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH PROGRAMMES
● To provide sex education in the schools to safeguard young school girls from myths
and misconceptions about sex- related issues.
● To prevent and control sexually transmitted disease (STDs) by providing proper
information about reproductive organs, adolescence and safe and hygienic sexual
practices.
● To educate the fertile couples and those in marriageable age-groups about birth
control measures, prenatal and postnatal care of mother and child, importance of
breastfeeding for a few months etc.
● To provide medical facilities and support.
● To manage disorders related to reproductive systems.
● To lessen the problems of infertility by promoting assisted reproductive activities.
Population explosion
● Increased health facilities and improvement in technology leading to better living
conditions, have an explosive impact on the growth of population.
The probable reason are:
● Decline in death rate
● Decline in maternal mortality rate (MMR)
● Decline in infant mortality rate (IMR)
● Increase in the no. of people in the reproductive age.
Methods to control over population

● Education
● Age of marriage
● Family planning methods
Methods of birth control

The contraceptive methods are grouped into the following categories:
● Natural method
● Barrier methods
● Intra- uterine devices (IUDs)
● Oral contraceptives
● Injectable and Implants
● Surgical Methods.
Amniocentesis:
A sample of amniotic fluid from the womb of a pregnant woman is taken during the early
stage of Foetal development and the cells are cultured and analysed.
● By this method the chromosomal abnormalities, the sex of the Foetus and
developmental disorders could be detected.
● It is misused, for destroying a normal female Foetus. (female foeticide) Intra-
uterine devices
● These are the devices introduced into the uterus.IUDs are of the following types
● Non-Medicated IUDs Example Lippes loop.
● Copper releasing IUDs example .CuT, Cu-7, Multiload-375
● Hormone releasing IUDs Example . Progestasert, LNG-20,They delay, alter/ inhibit
ovulation and implantation or conception in the following ways.
i. By increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
ii. By suppressing sperm motility and thereby suppressing the fertilizing ability of
sperm by Cu ion released by some IUDs.
iii. Hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
cervix hostile to the sperms.
Medical termination of pregnancy(MTP)

● MTP is essential where pregnancy could be harmful to the mother or the
Foetus or both.
● MTP are safe during the first trimester (upto 12 weeks of pregnancy) Sexually
Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
● Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are
collectively called STDs or venereal disease (VD) or reproductive tract infections
(RTI).
● Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis,
hepatitis B and AIDS are some of the common STDs.
THE EARLY GENERAL SYMPTOMS INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING IN THE GENITAL
REGION.
• Itching
• Fluid discharge
• Slight pain
• Swelling
These infections could be avoided / prevented by following practices:
• Avoiding sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
• Using condoms during coitus every time.
• Seeking medical help in case of doubt and getting it completely cured.
Infertility
● It is the inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected
sexual relation.
● The reasons for infertility could be physical, congenital disease, use of certain
drugs, immunological reactions or even physiological reactions.
● Where corrective treatments are not available, there are special techniques called
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs) to help the couple to produce children.
They are as follows:
1. Test tube baby programmes:
● In this method, ova from the wife or a donor female and sperm from the husband or
donor male are allowed to fuse under stimulated conditions (as that of the body) in
the laboratory. This is called in vitro fertilization (IVF).
● The zygote or early embryo is transferred into the uterus or fallopian tube for
further development. This process is called embryo transfer (ET) and can be done
in following ways: (i) Zygote/ Embryo up-to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the
fallopian tube, it is called zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT).
(ii) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus, it is
called intrauterine transfer (IUT).
2. Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
This method involves the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor female into
another female who cannot produce ova but can provide suitable conditions for
fertilization and further development of the Foetus through parturition.
3. Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
In this method, the sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in
the laboratory and then embryo transfer is carried out.
4. Artificial Insemination (IUI).
In this method, the sperm collected from the husband or healthy donor is artificially
introduced into the vagina or into the uterus. It is called Intra uterine insemination.
MCQ
1. Saheli was developed by
a. CDRI
b. CCMB
c. ICMR
d. FDTRC
2. An ideal contraceptive should be
a. User friendly
b. effective
c. cause least side effects
d. all the above
e. both a & c
3. A rapid rise in Indian population was due to
a. Increase in MMR
b. increase in number of people in reproducible age
c. decline in IMR
d. both b & c
e. All the above
4. In periodic abstinence, couples avoid coitus from
a. day 10-17 of menstrual cycle
b. day 12-15 of menstrual cycle
c. day 5-10 of menstrual cycle
d. Day 16-24 of menstrual cycle
5. Use of condoms has increased in recent years as
a. It prevents conception
b. Protects the user from contracting STD
c. Gives privacy to the user
d. All the above
6. The oral pills for contraception are effective as they
a. Inhibit ovulation
b. Inhibit implantation
c. Retard entry of sperms
Choose the correct option from the above
i. a
ii. a and b
iii. a,b and c
Iv. b& c
7. Symptoms of STD include
a. Itching & fluid discharge in genital areas
b. PID
c. Infertility
d. Abortions
Choose the correct options from the above
i.a
ii. a&b
iii.b&c
iv. c&d
v. a,b,c&d
8. A test tube baby programme involves
a. IVF
b. ET
c. IUT
d. ZIFT
CHOOSE the correct option
i. a&b
ii. b&c
iii. a.b.c&d
iv. c&d
9. Match the following
A B
1.syphilis a.multiload 375
2. non medicated IUD b. VD
3. Hormone releasing IUD c. lippes loop
4. Cu releasing IUD d. LNG20
a. 1-b,2-c,3-d,4-a
b. 1-d,2-a.3-b, 4-c
c. 1-b, 2-d,3-c,4-a
d. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b,4-a
10. Natural methods of contraception are
a. Highly effective
b. Have no side effects
c. Work on the principle of avoiding chance of ovum & sperm meeting
d. No devices are used in this method
Choose the incorrect option among the following
11. In-vitro fertilization involves transfer of ________________ into the fallopian tube.
(a) Embryo up to eight cell stage
(b) Embryo of thirty two cell stage
(c) Zygote
(d) Either zygote or embryo up to eight cell stage
12. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in Assisted Reproductive
Technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
13. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) Suppression of gonadotropins
(b) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(c) Suppression of gametic transport
(d) Suppression of fertilisation
14. Choose the right one among the statements given below.
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
15. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
Choose the correct option.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
16. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does
not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea
(d) Genital warts
17. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above
18. Which of the following is/are a barrier method of contraception?
(a) Rhythm method/Periodic abstinence
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Withdrawal method
(d) None of these
19. Amniocentesis is a process to
(a) Grow of cells on the culture medium
(b) Determine any hereditary disease of the embryo
(c) Know about the diseases of the brain
(d) Determine any disease of heart
20. A couple went to a doctor for the regular checkup of the developing foetus. The doctor
ran some tests and found that the developing foetus had chromosomal abnormalities and
suggested the couple to undergo abortion, the technique used by doctor to check the
abnormalities is
(a) Vasectomy
(b) ICSI
(c) Amniocentesis
(2) ZIFT
21. A male is infertile which is due to very low sperm count production. What technique
would you suggest for correcting his infertility?
(a) Artificial insemination
(b) GIFT
(e) ZIFT
(d) IVF
22. Which IUD would you suggest to promote cervix hostility to sperms?
(a) LNG-20
(b) CUT
(c) Cu 7
(d) Multiload 375
23. Which of the following ARTs would you suggest to form an embryo in laboratory
conditions without a donor for a couple in which the male partner can inseminate normally
but mobility of sperms is very low?
(a) IUD
(b) ICSI
(c) GIFT
(d) None of these
24. Vaults are one of the barrier methods that
(a) Prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperm through cervix
(b) Release Cu ions
(c) Are not reversible
(d) Release progesterone
25. What is extracted from the developing foetus to test the presence of genetic disorders?
(a) Yolk sac
(b) Endometrium
(c) Amniotic fluid
(d) Placenta
26. Hormone containing structures which are placed under the skin are called
(a) Vaults
(b) Implants
(c) Cervical cap
(d) Pill
27. Birth control pills are taken for a period of _days daily
(a) 7
(b) 31
(c) 21
(d) 10
28. Which of the following statements is true about pills?
(a) They are very effective.
(b) They have less side effects,
(c) They are widely accepted by females. (d) All of these
29. Choose the odd one out.
(a) Cut
(b) Diaphragms
(c) Pills having vasopressin
(d) Vasectomy
30. Medical Termination of Pregnancy is safe up to
(a) 8 weeks of pregnancy
(b) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 18 weeks of pregnancy
(d) 24 weeks of pregnancy
ANSWERS
1.a 2.d 3.d 4.a 5.d 6.iii 7.v 8.iii 9.a 10.a
11.d 12.c 13.a 14.b 15.c 16 b 17.d 18.d 19.b 20.c
21. a 22 a 23 b 24.a 25.c 26.b 27.c 28.d 29.c 30.c
SECTION B: ASSERTION REASONING TYPE
These questions consist of two statements- Assertion and Reason. While answering
choose any one of the following four responses
A- assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
B- assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
C- Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false
1. Assertion: Mother should not be blamed for the birth of girls in the family.
Reason: Father is responsible for the sex of the child.
2. Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason: Amniocentesis is meant for determining the genetic disorders in the foetus, but
it is being us determine the sex the foetus so that female foetus may be aborted.
3. Assertion: Human population now doubles every 35 years as against 200 years in
1600-1800.
Reason: Rapid increase is due to better health facilities and food resources.
4. Assertion: IVF helps couples with infertility to have children
Reason: a couple who are unable to beget children within a year have to visit an
infertility clinic
5. Assertion: Infertility may be because the male partner has low sperm count
Reason: This can be corrected by AI or ICSI.
6. Assertion: IUT is the transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
Reason: IUT is a very popular method of forming embryos in vivo.
7. Assertion: Syphilis, gonorrhea and AIDS are some common STDs.

Reason: STDs are transmitted through sexual intercourse..
8. Assertion: Saheli is an oral contraceptive pill for females containing nonsteroidal

preparation.
Reason: It is a ‘once in a day’ pill with very few effects.
9. Assertion: Diaphragms and cervical caps are barriers made of rubber.
Reason: They block the entry of sperms through the cervix.
10. Assertion: In barrier methods of contraception ovum and sperms are prevented from
physical meeting.
Reason: Barrier methods are used during coitus to prevent entry of sperms into the
female reproductive tract.
11. Assertion: Lactational amenorrhea is a natural method of contraception.
Reason: Ovulation does not take place during the period of intense lactation following
childbirth.
12. Assertion: ICSI is an assisted reproductive technique.
Reason: In ICSI sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in vitro.
13. Assertion : Subcutaneous implants involve implantation of synthetic progesterone

under the skin.
Reason: Implants block ovulation and thickens the cervical mucus to prevent sperm
transport.
14. Assertion : Oral contraceptive pills check ovulation.
Reason : Oral pills always contain a combination of progesterone and estrogen.
15.Assertion : Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus.
Reason : Coitus from day 5-10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation.
ANSWERS
1. b 2.a 3.a 4.c 5.b
6. c 7.a 8.c 9.b 10.a
11. a 12.a 13.b 14. C 15. c

SECTION B
1. An intrauterine device (IUD) is a small contraceptive device that is put into the
uterus (womb) to prevent pregnancy. The 2 types available -the copper IUD and the
hormonal IUD.The copper IUD is designed to stay in place for up to 10 years and
the hormonal IUD for 5 years. Both can easily be removed sooner, if needed. Both
copper and hormonal IUDs are more than 99% effective at preventing pregnancy.
Advantages of IUDs include:

● They last for a long time –hormonal IUD’s can last for 5 years, and the copper
IUD can last for 10 years.
● They are safe to use if you are breastfeeding.
● No medications stop them from working.
● The device can be taken out at any time by an appropriately trained doctor or
nurse.
● Your chance of getting pregnant will go back to normal as soon as the copper or
hormonal IUD has been taken out.
1. Choose the most apt answer-

New mothers prefer IUD for contraception as
a. they prevent unwanted pregnancy
b. Do not affect the new-born as no medicines/hormones enter the
bloodstream.
c. it is 99% effective
d. they last for a long time
2. Analyse the graph and pick out all the choices that are correct with reference to it.
a. IUD’s have become popular among the female community

b. Modern women are now aware of the types of contraceptives available.
c. IUD’s are effective contraceptive devices
d. IUD’s are cost effective
1. a &b
2. b& c
3. c &d
4. a,b,c & d
3. ASSERTION: Copper T is an effective IUD used by females

REASON: Copper T prevents STD’s.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (B) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false .
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
4. Use of IUD’s may initially show side effects like spotting, tender breasts, headaches,
skin changes and mood changes.
AGREE DISAGREE
ANSWERS
1.b 2. 4 3.c 4. AGREE
2.
1. What is the other term for MTP?

a) Induced abortion
b) Forced death
c) Pregnancy-induced sterilization
d) Unwanted pregnancy
2. What restriction has been posed by the Government of India on the use of MTP?
a) Illegal female foeticide
b) Illegal male foeticide
c) Illegal drug smuggling
d) Illegal use of narcotics
3. Which of the following is not the correct reason for the use of MTP?
a) Get rid of unwanted pregnancy
b) Terminate pregnancies that are fatal to mother
c) Terminate pregnancies that are fatal to foetus
d) Female foeticide
4. The primary purpose of MTP is to prevent the population rise.
a) True
b) False
5. What period of pregnancy are the MTPs safest?
a) First trimester
b) Second trimester
c) Third trimester
d) Fourth trimester
ANSWERS
1.a 2. a 3. d 4. b
3. Read the following and answer the questions given below:
Amniocentesis is a technique for detection of foetal abnormalities such as Down's

syndrome, cystic fibrosis. It is performed between 16 and 20 weeks of the pregnancy. It is
based on the chromosomal pattern in the cells present in amniotic fluid surrounding the
developing embryo. The amniotic fluid contains cells from foetal tissues. The amniotic
fluid is sampled from the amniotic sac surrounding the foetus. The foetal cells and foetal
DNA is examined to identify some abnormalities in the number of chromosomes and to
detect certain genetic abnormalities. It can also be used to determine sex of the infant.
These prenatal examinations can prove helpful to expectant guardians as they allow for
evaluating the foetal health status and feasibility of treatment. However nowadays it has
been responsible for female foeticide. The normal female foetus is aborted in want of a
male child who is preferred over the female in most of the ignorant families.
(1) Amniocentesis can be used for
(a) Determination of chromosomal abnormalities
(b) Detection of genetic disorders
(c) Detection of sex of infant
(d) all of these
(ii) Amniocentesis has been banned as it has promoted
(a) Foeticide
(b) Homicide
(c) Female foeticide
(d) Male foeticide
(iii) The technique of amniocentesis was developed mainly for
(a) Detection of chromosomal abnormalities
(b) Detection of foetal sex
(c) Detection of metabolic disorders
(d) all of these
(iv) Which of the following option(s) is correct regarding amniotic fluid?
(a) It is a fluid enclosed within an amniotic sac.
(b) It is a fluid surrounding foetus.
(c) It is a fluid containing cells from foetal tissue.
(d) All of these
(v) Assertion: Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique.
Reason: It is done to detect chromosomal disorders and genetic disorders in foetuses.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is correct explanation of
assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
ANSWERS:
i) d ii) c iii) a iv) d v) a
4. Read the following and answer questions from 4(i) to 4(v) given below:
Overpopulation causes a number of family problems. Strategies like birth
control methods help to control population explosion. Natural methods of birth
control do not involve medications or devices to prevent pregnancy but rather rely
on behavioural practices and/or making observations about the menstrual cycle.
(i) Which method helps in contraception by temporary absence of sex?
(a) Coitus interruptus
(b) Withdrawal method
(c) Rhythm method
(d) Lactational amenorrhea method
(ii) Assertion : The effectiveness of coitus interruptus method is limited.
Reason: Some sperms may pass into vagina before ejaculation.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(iii) Why is lactational amenorrhea effective for about 4-5 months after parturition?
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovulation does not occur during intense lactation.
(C) This method inhibits motility of sperm.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(iv) Which fact is not the basis of the periodic absence method of birth control?
(a) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(b) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(C) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) Alteration in uterine endometrium
(v) On which days of menstrual cycle should coitus be avoided to prevent fertilisation?
(a) 10-17
(b) 6-13
(C) 1-5
(d) 15-28
ANSWERS:
i) c ii) a iii) b iv)d v) a
5. Intrauterine devices are the most widely accepted methods of contraception. These are
used by females and are inserted by doctors or nurses in the uterus through vagina.
However these devices are not recommended for those who eventually intend to conceive.
(i) How does cutting prevent conception?
(a) Cu ions make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(b) Cu ions make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
(C) Cu ions suppress sperm motility.
(d) Cu ions inhibit ovulation.
(ii) Which of the following IUDs makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation?
(a) LNG-20
(b) Multiload 375 (c) Cu7
(d) Lippes loop
(iii) Identify the correct statement for IUDs.
(a) They slowly release synthetic progesterone in the body.
(b) They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(c) They block the entry of sperm through the cervix.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(iv) Select the correct matched pair.
(a) Hormone releasing IUD - LNG-20
(b) Non-medicated IUD - Progestasert
(c) Copper releasing IUD - Lippes loop
(d) None of these
(v) Assertion : IUDs can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
Reason: IUDs can perforate uterus.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
ANSWERS:
i) C ii) a iii) b iv)a v) b
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
SUMMARY
Mendel’s laws of inheritanceGregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on
garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living
organisms
1. Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two
opposing traits.
2. Mendel conducted artificial pollination/cross pollination experiments using several
true-breeding (produced by continuous self-pollination, shows the stable trait
inheritance and expression for several generations) pea lines.
3. Types of genetic crosses
Definition Phenotypic ratio Genotypic ratio
Monohybrid Cross Cross between parents differing F1: 100% F1: All
in only one trait or in which only dominant trait heterozygous
one trait is being considered F2: 3:1 F2: 1:2:1
Dihybrid Cross Cross between parents differing F1: 100% F1: All heterozygous
in two pairs of contrasting dominant trait F2: 1:2:1:2: 4:2:1:
characters are studied F2: 9:3:3:1 2:1
simultaneously
Test Cross Cross between an organism with Organism with

unknown genotype and a unknown genotype
recessive parent. It is used to is
determine whether an individual ❖ Homozygous
is homozygous or heterozygous All offsprings
for a trait resemble unknown
❖ Heterozygous
50% resemble
unknown parent
and 50% resemble
recessive parent
4. Law of Dominance
(i) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
(ii) Factors occur in pairs.
(iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant)
the other (recessive)
5. Law of segregation
Allele pairs separate or segregate during gamete formation and the paired
condition is restored by the random fertilization of gametes.
6. Law of independent assortment
If the inheritance of two or more genes is considered at a time, their distribution
in the gametes and in the progeny of subsequent generation is independent of
each other
7. Allelic interaction
Type Interaction Example
ncomplete dominance A cross between organisms with Flower colour in

two different phenotypes (RR X rr snapdragon
) produces offspring with third Starch grain size in
(Rr) phenotype pea
One allele is incompletely
dominant
b. Multiple alleles Existence of more than two allele ABO blood group
Heterozygotes express both system in humans
dominant phenotypes -
Codominance
8. Pleiotropy: Multiple effect of a gene

Example In Drosophila white eye mutation leads to depigmentation in many
other parts of the body.
Phenylketonuria is characterized by mental retardation and a reduction in hair
and skin pigmentation.
9. Polygenic Inheritance: Phenotype is influenced by three or more gene and each type of
allele in the genotype would determine the phenotype
Example A - B - C gene control human skin
In 1900, three Scientists (de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak) independently
rediscovered Mendel’s results on the inheritance of characters
10. Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri noted that the behaviour of chromosomes
was parallel to the behaviour of genes
1. Both chromosomes and genes occur in pairs
2. Segregate at the time of gamete formation such that only one of each pair is
transmitted to a gamete
3. Independent pairs segregate independently of each other
Chromosome theory of inheritance states that individual genes are found at

specific locations on particular chromosomes, and that the behaviour of
chromosomes during meiosis can explain inheritance of genes according to
Mendel’s laws
11. Thomas Hunt Morgan worked with fruit flies; Drosophila melanogaster
He coined the term linkage to describe this physical association of genes on a
chromosome and the term recombination to describe the generation of
non-parental gene combinations.
Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on
the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and
‘mapped’ their position on the chromosome.
12. Sex determination
Henking (1891) traced a specific nuclear structure in 50 per cent of the sperm
received after spermatogenesis in a few insects and named it X body. X body
was later renamed as X chromosome
Type Male Female Example

Males
XO X0 XX Insects-
heterogamety
Grasshopper
XY XY XX Human, Fruit fly
ZW ZZ ZW Birds Females
heterogamety
Haplodiploi Haploid Diploid Bees ------------

dy
13. Mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences leading to
changes in the genotype and the phenotype of an organism. Chemical and physical
factors that induce mutations are referred to as mutagens.
14. Pedigree analysis involves study of traits in several generations of a family.
a. Determine if the pedigree chart shows an autosomal or X linked disease.
Autosomal X linked
50/50 ratio between affected men and Most of the males in the pedigree are affected
women
b.Determine whether the disorder is dominant or recessive.
Dominant Recessive
One of the parents must be affected. Neither parent would be affected
c.
Autosomal Recessive Autosomal Dominant
Appears in both sexes with equal Appears in both sexes with equal frequency.
frequency Both sexes transmit the trait to their offspring
skip generations Does not skip generations
Affected offspring are usually born to Affected offspring must have an affected
unaffected parents parent
d.
X linked dominant X-Linked Recessive
Both males and females are affected; often More males than females are affected
more females than males are affected
Affected sons must have an affected mother Affected sons are usually born to unaffected
mothers, thus the trait skips generations.
Affected daughters must have either an
affected mother or an affected father.
15. Genetic disorders
Mendelian disorders Chromosomal disorders
Due to alteration or mutation in the single chromosomal disorders on the other hand
gene are caused due to absence or excess or
abnormal arrangement of one or more
chromosomes.
Two types
Transmitted to the offspring on the same lines

as in the principle of inheritance of Mendel Aneuploidy Polyploidy
Can be traced in a family by pedigree analysis Failure of Failure of

segregation of cytokinesis after
chromatids during telophase stage of
cell division cycle cell division results
results in the gain or in an increase in a
loss of a whole set of
chromosome(s) chromosomes
16. Examples of Mendelian disorders
Name of disorder Type Cause Symptoms
Colour Blindness Sex-linked mutation in certain genes failure to

recessive present in the X discriminate
chromosome between red
and green
colour
Haemophilia Sex linked A single protein that is a part Simple cut will
recessive of the cascade of proteins result in
involved in the clotting of non-stop
blood is affected bleeding.
Sickle-cell anaemia Autosome linked Point mutation in the beta Mutant

recessive globin gene of Hb, Valine haemoglobin
molecule
substitution glutamic acid at undergoes
sixth position polymerisation
under low
oxygen tension
causing the
change in the
shape of the
RBC
Phenylketonuria Autosomal Lacks an enzyme (phenyl Accumulation

recessive trait alanine hydroxylase) that of phenyl
converts the amino acid pyruvic acid in
phenylalanine into tyrosine brain results in
mental
retardation
Thalassemia Autosomal
recessive trait
α thalassemia Mutation or deletion of Reduced
genes HBA1 and HBA2 on production of α
β thalassemia chromosome 16 globin chain
Mutation HBB on Reduced
chromosome 11 production of β
globin chain
17. Examples of chromosomal disorder
Name of the disorder Karyotype Symptoms
Down’s Syndrome 47, Due to an additional copy Short stature with small
of the chromosome number round head, furrowed
21 (trisomy of 21). tongue and partially
open mouth. Palm is
broad with characteristic
palm crease. Physical,
psychomotor and mental
development is retarded.
Klinefelter’s Syndrome 47, XXY Overall masculine
development, however,
the feminine
development is
expressed
(Gynaecomastia), sterile
Turner’s Syndrome 45, XO Females are sterile as

ovaries are rudimentary
besides other features
including lack of other
secondary sexual
characters
MCQ
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true
1. Assertion: Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to a point mutation.

Reason: The mRNA produced from the HbS gene has GUG instead of GAG.
Ans. A
2. Assertion: The possibility of a human male becoming haemophilic is extremely
rare.
Reason: Mother of such a male should be normal and the fathers should be
haemophilic.
Ans. D
3. Assertion: In dog flowers F1 plants produce pink flowers.
Reason: It is due to the codominance of flower colour alleles with both genes
expressing themselves equally.
Ans. C
4. Assertion: XO type of sex determination is found in large number of insects.
Reason; 50 % of sperms contain X chromosome and the other 50% contain “O”
chromosome.
Ans. C
5. Assertion: A test cross is used to determine the phenotype of an organism.

Reason: F2 generation of a monohybrid test cross produces one or two phenotypes
depending upon the genotype of the unknown organism.
Ans. D
6. Assertion: Mendel used true-breeding pea lines for artificial pollination
experiments for his genetic studies.
Reason: For several generations, a true-breeding line shows the stable trait
inheritance and expression.
Ans. A
7. Assertion: Cross of F1 individual with recessive homozygous parent is test cross.
Reason: No recessive individual is obtained in the monohybrid test cross progeny.
Ans. C
8. Assertion: In monohybrid cross, at F2 stage, both parental traits are expressed in 3 :
1 proportion.
Reason: At F2 stage, the contrasting parental traits show blending.
Ans. C
9. Assertion: Gametes receive only one allele of a gene.
Reason: During gamete formation, mitosis takes place leads to formation of haploid
cells.
Ans. C
10. Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is the ABO blood group system.
Reason: When I A and IB are present together in the ABO blood group system, they
both express their own types.
Ans. B
1. Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to disjoin correctly during

meiosis. It leads to the formation of a new cell with an abnormal amount of genetic
material. A number of clinical conditions are the result of this type of chromosomal
mutation. This results in the production of gametes containing a greater or lesser
chromosomal amount than normal ones. Consequently, the individual may develop a
trisomy or monosomy syndrome. Nondisjunction can occur in both Meiosis I and
Meiosis II of the cellular division. Non disjunction can occur in both Meiosis I and
Meiosis II of the cellular division. It is also the main cause of many genetic disorders;
however, its origin and process remain vague. Although it results in the majority of cases
from errors in the maternal meiosis II, both paternal and maternal meiosis I do influence
it. The maternal age is considered a risk factor of trisomy’s, as well as recombination
alterations and many others that can affect the chromosomal segregation.
1. Which of the following conclusions can be true regarding aneuploidy?

i. It is the presence of an extra chromosome in a diploid cell.
ii. An aneuploid cell differs from other cells only in size.
iii. There can be less number of chromosomes in a diploid cell.
iv. Aneuploidy always affects female individuals.
a. i only
b. both i and iii
c. both ii and iii
d. i, iii and iv.
2. Considering the different phases of meiosis, select the correct
statements from the following.
i. Errors in meiosis I is the only cause of aneuploidy
ii. Aneuploidy always affects sex chromosomes.
iii. Most of the aneuploidy results from errors in cell division involved in
egg formation.
iv. Nondisjunction in meiosis I can lead to more abnormal cells
than disjunction in meiosis II.
a. i only
b. both i and iii
c. both iii and iv
d. i, iii and iv.
3. By interpreting the graph of Down syndrome frequency and mothers age,
select the best conclusion (s) from the following options.
i. Aneuploidy is not influenced by mother’s age.
ii. Delivery before 30 years of age can decrease the incidence of aneuploidy in
most cases
iii. The chance of aneuploidy increases up to 22 years of age.
iv. There is a dramatic increase in aneuploidy if maternal age exceeds 30
a. i only
b. both i and iii
c. both ii and iv
d. i, iii and iv.
4. The type of genetic disorders mainly caused by chromosomal nondisjunction is
a. Chromosomal disorders
b. Mendelian disorders
c. Incomplete dominance
d. All the above
5. Assertion: All types of genetic disorders are caused by chromosomal
nondisjunction Reason: Chromosomal nondisjunction always affects
female individuals.
a. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion
b. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
c. Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
d. Both Assertion and reason are incorrect.
ANSWERS
1 B
2 C
3 C
4 A
5 D
4. The word parthenogenesis originates from the Greek language meaning virgin birth.
In honeybees, the drones are entirely derived from the queen, their mother.
Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction where the unfertilized egg will develop into a
DRONE BEE while fertilized eggs will hatch into the WORKER BEES. This type of
reproduction occurs in various species in nature. Fertilized eggs will develop into
QUEEN BEES or WORKER BEES. It will depend on the size and type of the cells and
on the composition of food fed by WORKER BEES to BEE LARVAE. The DRONE
BEES are always born from unfertilized eggs. Drones produce sperm cells that contain
their entire genome, so the sperm are all genetically identical except for mutations. The
male bees' genetic makeup is therefore entirely derived from the mother, while the
genetic makeup of the female worker bees is half derived from the mother, and half
from the father. The QUEEN BEES mate with numerous DRONE BEES high in the air.
This polyandry and the phenomenon of parthenogenesis in honey bees create a
super-organism in the beehive populations. The WORKER BEES who share the same
father and mother are called SUPER SISTERS because they are more closely related to
each other than their sisters who have different fathers.
i. Identify the members of a bee colony which possess the same chromosome number.
a. Drone and Queen
b. Drone and Worker
c. Queen and Worker
d. Both a and c.
ii. The cell division involved in the formation of egg and sperm in honey bees
respectively
a. Mitosis and meiosis
b. Mitosis only
c. Meiosis and mitosis
d. Meiosis only.
iii. In a honey bee colony, the queen is different from workers in
a. Chromosome number
b. The way of production in sexual or asexual method
c. The type of gametes involved in production
d. The type of food given in the larval stage.
iv. Some of the members in a honey bee colony have no father but have
grandfather, they are
a. Workers
b. Drones
c. Queen
d. Both drones and workers.

v. What can be the advantage of parthenogenesis for species survival?
a. It leads to much variation in offspring
b. It helps isolated female individuals to reproduce.
c. It helps to evolve clones
d. It conserves the same chromosome number in generations.
ANSWERS
i c
ii c
iii d
iv b
v b
5. In 1911, while studying the chromosome theory of heredity, biologist Thomas Hunt
Morgan had a major breakthrough. Morgan occasionally noticed that "linked" traits would
separate. Meanwhile, other traits on the same chromosome showed little detectable
linkage. Morgan considered the evidence and proposed that a process of crossing over, or
recombination, might explain his results. Specifically, he proposed that the two paired
chromosomes could "cross over" to exchange information. When proposing the idea of
crossing over, Morgan also hypothesized that the frequency of recombination was related
to the distance between the genes on a chromosome, and that the interchange of genetic
information broke the linkage between genes. Morgan imagined that genes on
chromosomes were similar to pearls on a string; in other words, they were physical
objects. The closer two genes were to one another on a chromosome, the greater their
chance of being inherited together. In contrast, genes located farther away from one
another on the same chromosome were more likely to be separated during recombination.
Therefore, Morgan correctly proposed that the strength of linkage between two genes
depends upon the distance between the genes on the chromosome. This proposition
became the basis for construction of the earliest maps of the human genome
i. The traits which are found tightly linked in Morgan’s experiments were
a. Body colour and wing size
b. Eye colour and wing size
c. Body colour and eye colour
d. Body size and wing size.

ii. Which of the following conditions favours linkage?
a. Genes are on the same chromosome and are closely placed.
b. Genes on different chromosomes and distantly placed.
c. Genes on the same chromosome but distantly placed
d. Genes present on different autosomes.
iii. How does the concept of linkage help in gene mapping?
a. Distance between the linked genes can be measured by frequency of

recombination.
b. Linked genes express the characters easily than non-linked genes
c. Linked genes are larger in size
d. Position of linked genes can be observed in ultra-microscopy.
iv. The linked genes behave differently in the way that
a. Linked genes assort easily and enter different gametes
b. Linked genes don’t segregate easily and inherit as a unit
c. Linked genes lead to high crossover and recombination
d. Linked genes segregate only at the time of cell division

v. In Morgan’s experimental crosses, the white eyed flies were all males. The
clue that it gives

a. White eye colour is X-linked dominant trait
b. White eye colour is Y linked dominant trait
c. White eye colour is X-linked recessive trait
d. White eye color is a Y- linked dominant trait.
ANSWERS
i c
ii a
iii a
iv b
v c
1. Which law of Mendel has universally accepted?

a) Law of dominance
b) Law of segregation
c) Law of independent assortment
d) None of these
Ans: b. Law of segregation
2. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use

a) seed shape
b) flower position
c) seed colour
d) Pod length.
3. Ans: d.Pod length.According to Mendelism, which character shows dominance?
a) Terminal position of flower
b) Green pod colour
c) Green colour in seed coat
d) Wrinkled seeds
Ans: b.Green pod colour

4. In hybridisation, Tt × tt gives rise to the progeny of ratio
a) 2 : 1
b) 1 : 2 : 1
c) 1 : 1
d) 1 : 2.
Ans: c.1 : 1
5. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in

a) both homozygous and heterozygous states
b) second generation
c) heterozygous combination only
d) homozygous combination only
Ans: a. both homozygous and heterozygous states
6. In a cross Bb X Bb, the percent of offspring with the same genotype as parents is
a) 20 %
b) 25 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %
Ans: d. 50 %
7. In garden pea plants, round seeds are dominant over wrinkles. If a heterozygous
round seeded plant is crossed with a wrinkled seeded plant, then the ratio of both
round and wrinkled plants appeared in the F1 progeny
a) 50: 50
b) 25:75
c) 25:50:25
d) 3:1
Ans: a. 50: 50
8. Which one of the following does not account for the Mendelian conclusion?
a) Dominance
b) Purity of gametes
c) Linkage
d) Independent assortment
Ans: c. Linkage
9. Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in the same
proportion?
a) TT x tt
b) Tt x tt
c) TT x Tt
d) tt x tt
Ans: b. Tt x tt
10. A true breeding line is one, that:-

a) Having crossed with superior quality.
b) Only superior quality.
c) The best out of inferior quality.
d) Having undergone continuous self-pollination.
Ans: d. Having undergone continuous self-pollination.
11. Based on the monohybrid cross, Gregor Mendel formulated

a) Law of dominance
b) Law of independent assortment
c) Law of segregation
d) Both a and c
Ans: d. Both a and c
12. The percentage of Gr type gametes produced by a parent with the genotype GgRr will
be
a) 50
b) 25
c) 75
d) 100
Ans: b. 25
13. Which of the following is / are recessive traits selected by Mendel in Pisum sativum?
i. Terminal flower
ii. Inflated Pod
iii. Wrinkled seed
iv. Yellow seed
a. i only
b. i and iii
c. iii and iv
d. i and ii
Ans: b. i and iii
14. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Starch synthesis in Pea plant: Multiple alleles
b. AB Blood group: Co-dominance
c. Flower colour in snapdragon: Incomplete Dominance

d. T. H. Morgan : Linkage
Ans: a. Starch synthesis in Pea plant: Multiple alleles
15. In which way is incomplete dominance different from Mendelian pattern?
a) It never obeys law of segregation

b) It shows typical Mendelian inheritance
c) It shows same phenotype in F1 and F2
d) Phenotypic and genotypic ratios in F2 are the same.
Ans: d. Phenotypic and genotypic ratios in F2 are the same
16. Who rediscovered the mendel's work:-
a. Correns
b. Hugo de Vries
c. Tschermak
d. All of the above
Ans:d. All of the above
17. Pleiotropy , can be defined as:-
a. When one gene controls one trait

b. When one gene exhibits multiple traits
c. When multiple genes control one trait
d. When multiple genes control multiple traits.
Ans: b. When one gene exhibits multiple traits

18. In a monohybrid cross involving incomplete dominance, the phenotypic ratio equals
the genotypic ratio in F2 generation. The ratio is
a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 1:1:1:1
d. 2:3
Ans: b. 1:2:1
19. A pea plant parent having violet colour flowers with unknown genotype was crossed
with a plant having white colour flowers, in the progeny 50% flowers were violet and 50%
were white. The genotypic constitution of the parent having violet colour flower was-
a. Homozygous
b. Merozygous
c. Heterozygous
d. Hemizygous
Ans: c.Heterozygous
20. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood
groups.
a. The gene (I) has three alleles.

b. A person will have only two of the three alleles.
c. When IA and IB are present together, they express the same type of sugar
d. Allele i does not produce any sugar
Ans: c. When IA and IB are present together, they express the same type of sugar.
21. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IA IB and IA i. Among the blood types of
their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
a. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
b. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
c. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
d. 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
Ans: b. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes22.
22. Which idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the
parents?
a. Inheritance of one gene
b. Co-dominance
d. Complete dominance
Ans: b. Co-dominance
23. Allele A is dominant over allele a. What will be the genotype of the offspring
obtained from the mating Aa X aa?
a. AA and aa
b. Aa and aa
c. AA and Aa
d. All Aa
Ans: b. Aa and aa
14. In a Mendelian cross, F2 generation showed that both genotypic and phenotypic
ratios are the same as 1: 2: 1. It represents a case of
a. Co-dominance
b. Dihybrid cross
c. Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
d. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance.
Ans:d. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance.
15. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the
possible blood groups of their offspring?
a. A, B, AB and O
b. O only
c. A and B only
d. A, B and AB only
Ans: a.A, B, AB and O
16. Common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

a. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
b. Crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. Crossing of F1 progeny with a homozygous dominant parent.
d. Crossing of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent.
Ans: d.Crossing of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent.
17. When two alleles of a character express together, it is called

a. Codominance
b. Dominance
d. Pseudo dominance.
Ans: a.Co-dominance
18. A child’s blood group is ‘O’. The parent’s blood groups cannot be
a. A and B
b. A and A
c. AB and O
d. B and O.
Ans: c.AB and O
19. A child of an O-group has a B-group father. The genotype of father will be
a. IiIi
b. IB IB
c. IA IB
d. IBIi
Ans: IBIi
20. What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group?
a. AB only
b. A,B and AB
c. A,B,AB and O
d. A and B only
Ans: b.A, B and AB
21. If the children of a husband and wife represent the four types of blood group,
what would be the genotypes of the parents concerned with the blood group?
a. Option a
b. Option b
c. Option c
d. Option d
Ans: d.Option d
22. How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism who is
heterozygous for 4 loci?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
Ans:c. 16
23. What type of allelic inheritance do you find in the blood group of humans?
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Codominance
c. Multiple allelism
d. Both b and C
Ans: d.Both b and C
24. For finding the possible gametes from a typical Mendelian garden pea plant, one
has to cross the suspected plant, having the genotype AaBb, to another plant with
the genotype.
a. AABB
b. Aabb
c. aaBb
d. Aabb
Ans: b. aabb
25. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of

a. Point mutation
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Codominance
d. Chromosomal aberration.
Ans: b. Polygenic inheritance
26. In humans, ABO blood group is determined by three alleles. When a man with A
blood group marries a woman with B blood group, 50 % of their children were with
A blood group and the remaining 50 % with AB blood group. The possible
genotypes of the parents are:
a. IB IB and IA i
b. IB i and IA IA
c. IA i and IB i
d. IA IA and IA IB
Ans: IA IA and IA IB
27. In a cross between a pure tall pea plant with yellow seed and a pure short plant with
green seeds out of 16, what proportion is expected to be dwarf yellow in the second
filial generation?
a. 9/16
b. 3/16
c. 2/16
d. 1/16
Ans: b.3
28. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene ‘I’. It has three alleles –
IA, IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are
possible. How many phenotypes can occur?
a. Three
b. One
c. Four
d. Two
Ans: c.Four
29. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having
the genotype AABbCC?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Nine
Ans: a.Two
30. In Pisum sativum, violet flower colour (W) is dominant over white (w) and tallness
(T) is dominant to dwarfness (t). A cross between two parents produces 4 types of
offspring in equal proportion. What will be the genotypes of the parents?
a. Rrtt and RRTT
b. RrTt and rrtt
c. RrTT and rrtt
RRTT and rrtt
Ans: b.RrTt and rrtt
31. The possibility of full dominant and recessive offsprings in the F2 generation
of dihybrid cross involving two true breeding parents is
a. 2/16th each
b. 1/16th each
c. 3/16th each
d. 3/4th each
Ans: b.1/16th each
32. In a certain plant, two genes leaf shape and fruit colour. A leaf with smooth margin
(R) is dominant to a leaf with incised margin (r), the green colour of fruit (G) is
dominant over white colour of fruit (g). A true breeding plant with smooth leaf
margin and green colour fruit is crossed with another plant with incised leaf margin
and white fruit. What will be the genotypes of the plants involved in this cross?
a. RRGg X RrG
b. RRGG X rrgg
c. RRGG X rrGg
d. RrGg X rrgg
Ans: b.RRGG X rrgg
33. Which of the following statements is true when a cross between RrYy x RRYY is
made?
a. All the offspring are recessive
b. Dominant and recessive is in 9: 7 ratios
c. Dominant and recessive in 1:1 ratio
d. All offspring are dominant.
Ans: d.All the offspring are dominant.
34. Which of the following is/ are not relevant to linkage?

a. Linkage reduces the possibility of producing variability in offspring.
b. Linkage reduces the chance of production of non-parental combinations.
c. Linked genes do not show independent assortment.
d. The main cause of genetic variation in organisms is linkage.
Ans: d.The main cause of genetic variation in organisms is linkage.
35. Two genes very close on a chromosome will show-

a. More recombination
b. High crossing over
c. Less recombination
d. Only double crossing over
Ans: c. Less Recombination
36. The frequency of recombination between genes present on the same chromosome as
a measure of the distance between genes was explained by
a. Sutton Boveri
b. T.H. Morgan
c. Gregor J Mendel
d. Alfred Sturtevant.
Ans: d.Alfred Sturtevant.
37. The tendency of genes located on the same chromosome to inherit together is known a
a. Mutation
b. Nondisjunction
c. Linkage
d. Crossing over.
Ans:c.Linkage
38. The characters which are identified by T H Morgan in drosophila as linked are
a. Yellow body and broad wing
b. White eye and broad wing
c. Brown body and broad wing
d. Yellow body and white eyes.
Ans: d. Yellow body and white eyes.
39. Choose the correct statement (s) only

a. Linkage is a common phenomenon seen in recombination
b. Genetic map can be used for the identification of genetic disorders and sex
c. Linked genes are situated in non-homologous chromosomes.
d. Complete linkage results in more parental progeny than recombinants.
Ans: d.Complete linkage results in more parental progeny than recombinants.
40. In a complete linkage phenomenon, the possible phenotypic ratio in the F2

generation of a dihybrid cross is
a. 7:1:1:7
b. 4:4:4:4
c. 1:7:7:1
d. 1:1:1:1
Ans: a.7:1:1:7
41. The distance between the genes is generally measured by

a. Angstrom
b. map unit
c. Dobson unit
d. Millimeter
Ans: b.map unit
42. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining
the sex?
a. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
b. XO type of sex chromosomes determines male sex in grasshopper.
c. XO condition in humans as found in Turner’s syndrome, determines female sex.
d. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
Ans: b.XO type of sex chromosomes determines male sex in grasshopper.
43. The X body of Henking was observed in

a. 100 % sperms during spermatogenesis
b. 100 % eggs during oogenesis
c. 50 % sperms during spermatogenesis
d. 50 % eggs during oogenesis.
Ans: c. 50 % sperms during spermatogenesis
44. Which of the following pair (s) is /are correct?
i. Henking – X body detection
ii. Sturtevant – Genetic map
iii. HbA HbS – Carrier person
iv. T.H Morgan – Mutation in Drosophila
a. i only
b. i and iii
c. i, ii, iii and iv
d. ii and iii.
Ans: c.i, ii, iii and iv
45. In most of the birds, reptiles and fishes

a. Males are homogametic
b. Males are heterogametic
c. Females are heterogametic
d. Both a and C
Ans: a.Males are homogametic

46. Number of autosomes present in skin cell of a human male is
a. 22 autosomes
b. 22 pairs
c. 23 autosomes
d. 23 pairs
Ans: b. 22 pairs
47. In a certain species of insects some have17 chromosomes and the others have 18
chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms are
a. males and females respectively

b. females and males respectively
c. all males
d. all females
Ans: a.males and females respectively
48. Sex of the child in human beings is determined by chromosomes of father

a. Chromosomes in egg
b. Chromosomes of both the parents
c. Chromosomes of mother
Ans: a.chromosomes of father
49. Which of the following groups possess Homogametic male?

a. Birds
b. Grasshopper
c. Man
d. Drosophila
Ans: a.Birds
50. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by

a. the ratio of number of X-chromosome to the sets of autosomes
b. X and Y chromosomes
c. the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
d. Whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically.
Ans: b. X and Y chromosomes

51. In the following figure, the type of cell division represented by ‘A’ and the
chromosome of the drone respectively
a. Mitosis, 32 chromosomes
b. Meiosis, 32 chromosomes
c. Mitosis, 16 chromosomes
d. Meiosis, 16 chromosomes.
Ans: c.Mitosis, 16 chromosomes
52. Male heterogametic condition is found in: -

a. Human being
b. Drosophila
c. Both A & B
d. Birds
Ans: c.Both A & B
53. Match the items in column I with column II and choose the correct option.
a. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
b. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
c. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
d. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
Ans: d.a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

54. The disorder is caused due to the absence of one X-chromosome i. e. 45 with XO
such females are sterile. Identify the syndrome
a. Turner’s syndrome
b. Down’s syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. Edward syndrome
Ans: Turner’s syndrome
56. The Royal disease is
a. Colour Blindness
b. Haemophilia
c. Phenyl pyruvic idiocy
d. Sickle cell anaemia
Ans: b.Haemophilia
57. Name the inborn error of metabolism that is inherited as an Autosomal recessive
trait, the disease is characterized by the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase in
affected individual
a. Thalassemia
b. Phenylketonuria
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Colour blindness.
Ans: b. Phenylketonuria
58. Which of the following Amino acid substitution is responsible for causing Sickle cell
anemia?
a. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the alpha globin chain at the sixth position
b. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the Beta-globin chain at the seventh

position
c. Glutamic acid is substituted by valine in the alpha chain at the sixth position
d. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the Beta-chain at the sixth position
Ans: d. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the Beta-chain at the sixth

position
59. Which of the following diseases belong to autosomal recessive disorder-?
a. Colour blindness
b. Haemophilia
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. All of the above
Ans: c.Cystic fibrosis
60. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
a. Recessive trait can only be expressed in the homozygous condition

b. Recessive trait can always be expressed in the heterozygous condition
c. Dominant trait is expressed only in the homozygous condition
d. Dominant traits cannot be expressed in the heterozygous condition.
Ans: a.Recessive trait can only be expressed in the homozygous condition
61. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine
development, gynecomastia and is sterile?
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Turner’s syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. Edward syndrome
Ans: c.Klinefelter’s syndrome
62. Which of the following is not related to the genetic disease, haemophilia?
a. Sex linked recessive disease
b. Y-linked character
Transmitted from father to grandson through his daughter
a. Common in men but rare in women.
Ans: b.Y-linked character

63. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule
synthesis. Select the correct statement.
a. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
b. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
c. Sickle cell anaemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules.

d. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
Ans: b.Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.
If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour

vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 1
Ans: a.0
55. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease called
b. Sickle cell anaemia
c. Thalassaemia
d. Night blindness.
Ans: b.Sickle cell anaemia
56. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

a. Chromosomal disorder
b. Dominant genetic disorder
c. Recessive genetic disorder
d. X-linked recessive genetic disorder
Ans: d.X-linked recessive genetic disorder

57. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be
a. all colour blind
b. all with normal vision
c. one-half colour blind and one-half with normal vision
d. three-fourths colour blind and one-fourth with normal vision.
Ans: a.all colour blind

58. A woman with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is
characterised by
a. Super femaleness
b. Triploidy
c. Turner’s syndrome
d. Down’s syndrome.
e. Ans: d.Down’s syndrome.
59. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because
a. a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
b. the disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
c. the disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
d. The disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation.
Ans: c.the disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
60. Sickle-cell anaemia is

a. caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of
haemoglobin
b. caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
c. characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
d. an autosomal linked dominant trait.
Ans: b.caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
61. Down’s syndrome is due to

a. crossing over
b. Linkage
c. sex-linked inheritance
d. Non-disjunction of chromosomes.
Ans: d. Non-disjunction of chromosomes.
62. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes

b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Thalassemia
d. Turner’s syndrome
Ans: d.Turner’s syndrome
63. β- thalassemia in human is controlled by
a. HBA2 gene on chromosome 16

b. HBB gene on chromosome 11
c. HBA1 gene on chromosome 15
d. HBA1 and HBA2 gene on chromosome 8
Ans: HBB gene on chromosome 11

63. A haemophilic man marries a normal woman. What is the probability that
their son will be haemophilic?
a. No chance
b. 100 % Chance
c. 50 % Chance
d. 25 % Chance
Ans: a.No chance
64. Which of the following is a sex- linked disorder?

a. Sickle cell anaemia
b. Phenylketonuria
c. Turner’s syndrome
d. Colour blindness.
Ans: d.Colour blindness.
65. Woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This

chromosome can be inherited by
a. only daughters
b. only sons
c. only grandchildren
d. both sons and daughters.
Ans: d.both sons and daughters.
66. A normal-vision man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a
colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this
couple will be colour blind?
a. 25 %
b. 0 %
c. 75 %
d. 50 %
Ans: a.25 %
67. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex complement is

a. XO
b. XY
c. XX
d. XXY.
Ans: b. XY
68. Find the wrongly matched pair
a. Sickle cell anaemia – Abnormal haemoglobin in RBCs
b. Phenylketonuria – Defective form of blood clotting factors
c. Turner’s Syndrome – Absence of one X chromosome.
d. Aneuploidy – Gain or loss of chromosome (s) from the usual chromosome
complement number.
Ans: b. Phenylketonuria – Defective form of blood clotting factors
69. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to
only some of the male progeny the disease is
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex-linked dominant
d. Sex-linked recessive
Ans: d. Sex-linked recessive
70. A female child inherited a particular genetic trait from his normal father and
mother. The trait can be
a. Sickle cell anaemia
b. Muscular dystrophy
c. Haemophilia
d. Colour blindness
Ans: a.Sickle cell anaemia
71. In genetics, trisomy means

a. Presence of 3 sets of chromosomes.
b. Presence of an extra chromosome in a diploid cell
c. Lack of a single chromosome out of a diploid nucleus.
d. Lack of 3 chromosomes in a diploid nucleus.
Ans: b.Presence of an extra chromosome in a diploid cell
72. In sickle cell anemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the
following triplet codes is for valine?
a. GGG
b. AAG
c. GUG
d. GCA
Ans: c. GUG
73. If a normal man marries a woman whose father was haemophilic, then the
possibility of haemophilic children being born to the couple at a time is
a. 50 %
b. 25 %
c. 100 %
d. 75 %
Ans: b. 25 %
74. In Sickle cell anaemia, at which position of beta chain, the amino acid gets changed: -
a. Fourth position
b. Fifth position
c. Sixth position
d. Seventh position
Ans: c. Sixth position
75. Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree
analysis is correct?
a. Unaffected individual
b. Female
c. Consanguine marriage
d. Mating
Ans: b. Female
76. In the given pedigree, which of the following seems to be the most
appropriate mode of inheritance?
a. Simple Mendelian recessive trait.

b. Codominance
c. X linked recessive
d. Y linked
Ans: c. X linked recessive
77. In the following human pedigree chart of haemophilia, the filled symbols represent
the affected individuals. Identify the genotype of the male and female parents
respectively
a. XX and XhY
b. XXh and XhY
c. XhXh and XY
d. XhXh and XhY
Ans: b.XXh and XhY
78. Given below is the pedigree chart of a family in which the black shades represent an
autosomal dominant trait. What will be the genotypes of mother and father?
a. Mother Aa and father aa
b. Mother AA and father aa
c. Mother aa and father Aa
d. Mother aa and father AA
Ans: a.Mother Aa and father aa
79. The given pedigree chart shows the inheritance of sickle cell anaemia in a family. What
can be the probable genotypes of member 5 in generation II and member 6 in generation
III respectively?
a. HbAHbA and HbAHbA
b. HbAHbA / HbAHbS and HbAHbA
c. HbAHbS and HbSHbS
d. HbAHbS and HbAHbA / HbAHbS
Ans: HbAHbS and HbAHbA / HbAHbS
80. Inheritance of muscular dystrophy is represented in the given pedigree chart.

Identify the genotype of the parents of offspring in the third generation.
a. Mother MM and father Mm
b. Mother Mm and father Mm
c. Mother Mm and father mm
d. Mother mm and father mm
Ans: c.Mother Mm and father mm

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
SUMMARY
THE DNA: DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.
● The length of the DNA depends on, number of nucleotide pairs present in it.
● Characteristics of the organism depend on the length of the DNA.
● Bacteriophage ø174 has 5386 nucleotides.
● Bacteriophage lambda has 48502 base pairs
● Escherichia coli have 4.6 X 106 base pairs.
● •Human genome (haploid) is 3.3 X 109 bp
Structure of polynucleotide chain:
● A nucleotide has three component:-

• A nitrogen base
• A pentose sugar ( ribose in RNA and deoxyribose in DNA)
• A phosphoric acid.
● There are two types of nitrogen bases:
• Purines ( Adenine and Guanine)
• Pyrimidines ( Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine)
● Adenine, Guanine and Cytosine are common in RNA and DNA.
● Uracil is present in RNA and Thymine is present in DNA in place of Uracil.
● Pentose sugar is ribose in RNA and Deoxyribose in DNA.
● A nitrogen base attached to the pentose sugar at C1 of pentose sugar by
● Phosphoric acid attached to the 5’ OH of a nucleoside by Phosphodiester linkage a
corresponding nucleotide is formed. (Ribonucleotide or deoxyribonucleotides depending
on the sugar unit).
● Two nucleotides are joined by 3’-5’ Phosphodiester linkage to form dinucleotide.
● More than two nucleotides joined to form a polynucleotide chain.
● Polynucleotide chain has a free phosphate moiety at 5’ end of sugar, which is referred to
as 5’ end.
● In the other end of the polymer with 3’-OH group called 3’ end.
● The backbone of the polynucleotide chain is sugar and phosphate.
● Nitrogen bases linked to the sugar moiety project from the backbone.
● In RNA every nucleotide has an additional –OH group at 2’ of ribose.
● In RNA Uracil is found in place of thymine.

● 5-methyl uracil is the other name of thymine
History of DNA:
● DNA is an acidic substance in the nucleus that was first identified by Friedrich Meischer
in 1869. He named it as ‘Nuclein”.
● 1953 double helix structure of DNA was given by James Watson and Francis Crick, based
on X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin.
● Hallmark of their proposition was base pairing between two strands of polynucleotide
chains. This was based on the observation of Erwin Chargaff.
● Chargaff ’s observation was that for a double stranded DNA, the ratio between Adenine
and Thymine, and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equal.
Salient features of Double helix structure of DNA:
● Made of two polynucleotide chains.

● Sugar and phosphate forms the backbone and bases projected to the inside.
● Two chains have antiparallel polarity.
● Two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds present in between bases.
● Adenine of one strand pairs with Thymine of another strand by two hydrogen bonds and
vice versa.
● Guanine of one strand pairs with Cytosine of another strand by three hydrogen bonds and
vice versa.
● A purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This generates approximately uniform distance
between the two strands of the helix.
● The two chains are coiled in a right – handed fashion.
● The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm or 34 A0.
● There are roughly 10 bp in turn.
● The distance between the bp in a helix is 0.34nm or 3.4 A0 .
● The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in a double helix.
● H-bond confers stability of the helical structure of the DNA.
● Central dogma of flow of genetic information: DNA→ RNA→ Protein.
Packaging of DNA Helix:
● Distance between two conjugative base pairs is 0.34nm, the length of the DNA in a typical
mammalian cell will be 6.6 X109 bp X 0.34 X10-9 /bp, it comes about 2.2 meters.
● The length of DNA is more than the dimension of a typical nucleus (10-6m).
Packaging in prokaryotes:
● They do not have a definite nucleus.
● The DNA is not scattered throughout the cell.
● DNA is held together with some proteins in a region called ‘nucleoid’.
● The DNA in the nucleoid is organized in large loops held by proteins.
Packaging in Eukaryotes:
● In eukaryotes the packaging is more complex.

● There is a set of positively charged, basic proteins called Histones.
● Histones are positively charged due to being rich in basic amino acids like Lysines and
arginines.
● Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.
● Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
● A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.
● Nucleosome constitutes the repeating unit of a structure in the nucleus called chromatin,
thread like stained bodies seen in the nucleus.
● The nucleosomes are seen as a ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed under electron
microscope.
● The chromatin is packaged to form chromatin fibers that are further coiled and condensed
at the metaphase stage to form chromosomes.
● Packaging at a higher level required an additional set of proteins called Non-histone
Chromosomal (NHC) proteins.
● In a typical nucleus some loosely coiled regions of chromatin (light stained) is called
euchromatin.
● The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark are called Heterochromatin.
● Euchromatin is transcriptionally active chromatin and heterochromatin is inactive.
The Search of genetic material: Transforming principle:
● Given by Frederick Griffith in 1928.

● His experiment was based on Streptococcus pneumoniae (caused pneumonia).
● There is a change in the physical form of bacteria.

● There are two colonies of bacteria:
● Smooth shiny colonies called S strain.
● Rough colonies called R strain.
● S-strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat.
● R-strain does not have a mucous coat.
● S-strain is virulent and causes pneumonia in mice and dies when infected.
● R-strain is non-virulent and does not cause pneumonia in mice when infected.
● Heat killed S-Strain is non-virulent and does not cause pneumonia.
● The heat killed S-Strain mixed with live R-Strain injected into mice; the mice developed
pneumonia and died.
● He recovered live S-Strain bacteria from the dead mice.
Biochemical characterization of transforming principle:
● Biochemical nature of transforming principle was discovered by Oswald Avery, Colin

Macleod and Maclyn McCarty. (1933-44)
● Prior to their work genetic material was thought to be protein.
● They worked to determine the biochemical nature of the ‘transforming principle’ of
Griffith’s experiment.
● They purified biomolecules (proteins, DNA and RNA) from the heat-killed S cells to see
which one could transform live R cells to S cells.
● Heat killed S-Strain + protease + Live R-Strain → transformation.
● Heat killed S-Strain + RNase + Live R-Strain → transformation.
● Heat killed S-Strain + DNase + Live R-Strain → No transformation.
Conclusion of the experiments:
● Protein of heat killed S-Strain is not the genetic material.

● RNA of heat killed S-Strain is not the genetic material.
● DNA of heat killed S-Strain is the genetic material, because DNA digested with DNase
mixed with R-strain unable to transform R-Strain to S-Strain.
Conclusion of experiment:
● R – Strain bacteria had somehow been transformed by the heat killed S-Strain bacteria.
● Some ‘transforming principle’, transferred from heat-killed S-Strain bacteria, had enabled
the R-Strain to synthesize smooth polysaccharide coats and become virulent (S-Strain).
● The transformation of R-Strain to S-Strain is due to transfer of Genetic material.
● However the biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined from his experiment.
The Genetic Material is DNA:
● ‘DNA is the genetic material’ is proved by Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952).
● They worked on the virus that infects bacteria called bacteriophage.
● During normal infection the bacteriophage first attaches the bacteria cell wall and then
inserts its genetic material into the bacterial cell.
● The viral genetic material became an integral part of the bacterial genome and
subsequently manufactured more virus particles using host machinery.
● Hershey and Chase worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the viruses
that entered the bacteria.
● Experiment :( blenders experiment)
● They grew some viruses on a medium having radioactive phosphorus and some others
on a medium having radioactive sulfur.
● Viruses grown in radioactive Phosphorus have radioactive DNA but not radioactive
protein because Phosphorus present in DNA not in protein.
● Viruses grown in radioactive sulfur have radioactive protein not radioactive DNA
because sulfur is present in protein but not in DNA.
● Infection: radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E.coli bacteria; the phages
transfer the genetic material to the bacteria.
● Blending: the viral coats were separated from the bacteria surface by agitating them in
a blender.
● Centrifugation:The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them
in a centrifuge machine.
● Observation:
● Bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive and had no
radioactivity in the supernatant.
● Bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive protein were not radioactive, but
radioactivity found in the supernatant.
● Conclusion of Experiment:
DNA is the infecting agent that makes the bacteria radioactive hence DNA is the genetic
material not the protein.
Properties of genetic material(DNA versus RNA):
Criteria for genetic material:
● It should be able to generate its replica (replication).

● It should be chemically and structurally stable.
● It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
● It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Character’.
● Protein does not fulfill the criteria hence it is not the genetic material.
● RNA and DNA fulfill the criteria.
● RNA is unstable:
● 2’-OH group present at every nucleotide (ribose sugar) in RNA is a reactive group and
makes RNA liable and easily degradable.
● RNA is also now known as catalyst, hence reactive.
● RNA is unstable and mutates faster. Consequently the viruses having RNA genome and
having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
● DNA is more stable:
● Stability as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s
‘transforming principle’ itself that heat, which killed the bacteria at least, did not destroy
some of the properties of genetic material.
● Two strands being complementary if separated by heating come together, when
appropriate conditions are provided.
● Presence of Thymine in place of uracil confers additional stability to DNA.
● DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA.
● Therefore among the two nucleic acids the DNA is a better genetic material. Better genetic
material (DNA or RNA).
● Presence of thymine at the place of uracil confers more stability to DNA.
● Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.
● In fact RNA being unstable mutates at a faster rate.
● RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence easily expressed.
● DNA however depends on RNA for protein synthesis.
● The protein synthesis machinery has evolved around RNA.
● Both RNA and DNA can function as genetic material, but DNA being more stable is
preferred for storage of genetic information.
● For the transmission of genetic information RNA is better.
RNA World:
● RNA is the first genetic material.

● Essential life processes evolved around RNA.
● RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as catalyst.
● But RNA being the catalyst was reactive and hence unstable.
● Hence DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more
stable.
● DNA being double stranded and having complementary strands further resists changes by
evolving a process of repair.
Types of RNA:
● In prokaryotes there are three major types of RNAs: mRNA (messenger), tRNA (transfer),
and rRNA(ribosomal).
● All three RNAs are required to synthesize protein in a cell.
● The mRNA provides the template and has genetic information in the form of genetic code.
● The tRNA brings the amino acids and reads the genetic code of mRNA.
● The rRNA is the structural part of the ribosome and also has a catalytic role during the
process of translation.
Replication: The Process
● Watson and Crick proposed a scheme for replication of DNA.

● The Original statement that “It has not escaped our notice that the specific pairing we have
postulated immediately suggests a possible copying mechanism for the genetic material
(Watson and Crick, 1953).
● The scheme suggested that the two strands would separate and act as template for the
synthesis of new complementary strands.
● New DNA molecule must have one parental strand and one new strand.
● This scheme of replication is called the Semiconservative type of replication.
● Experimental Proof of semiconservative nature of replication:
● It is now proved experimentally that replication is a semiconservative type.
● It was first shown in Escherichia coli and subsequently in higher organisms.
● Mathew Messelson and Franklin Stahl performed the following experiment in 1958.
● Steps:
● They grew E.coli in 15NH4Cl medium for many generations. (15N is heavy nitrogen,
not a radioactive element).
● The result was that 15N was incorporated into newly synthesized DNA and other
nitrogen-containing compounds as well.
● This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from normal DNA by
centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.
● Then they transferred the E.coli into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and let them
grow.(E.coli divides in 20 minutes).
● They took samples at definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted the
DNA that remained as double-stranded helices.
● Various samples were separated independently on CsCl gradients to measure the
densities of DNA.
● The DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the transfer from
15N to 14N medium had a hybrid or intermediate density.
● DNA extracted from the culture after another generation (after 40 min.) was
composed of equal amounts of this hybrid DNA and of ‘light ‘DNA.
● Experiment by Taylor and colleagues:
● Used radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the
chromosomes.
● They performed the experiment on Vicia faba (faba beans) in 1958.
● They proved the semiconservative nature of DNA replication in eukaryotes
Replication Machinery and Enzymes:
● In all living cells such as E.coli replication requires a set of enzymes.

● E.coli completes the replication of its DNA within 38 min.
● The average rate of polymerization has to be approx. 2000 bp per sec.
● The polymerization process must be accurate; any mistake during replication would result
in mutation.
● Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP) serve dual purposes:
● Provide energy for polymerization.
● Acts as substrates for polymerization.
● The replication process occurs within a small opening of the DNA helix called replication
fork.
● The region where, replication fork formed is called the origin of replication.
● The replication fork is formed by an enzyme called helicase.
● Two separated strands are called template strands.
● Main enzyme is DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, since it uses a DNA template to
catalyze the polymerization of deoxyribonucleotides.
● DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization only in one direction i.e. 5’→3’.
● On one strand (template with 3’→5’ polarity) the replication is continuous hence called
the leading strand.
● In another strand (template with 5’→3’ polarity) the polymerization takes place in the
form of a short fragment called Okazaki fragment.
● The short fragments are joined by DNA ligase, hence called lagging strand. • In
eukaryotes replication takes place in the S-phase of the cell cycle.
● A failure of cytokinesis after replication results in polyploidy.
TRANSCRIPTION:
● ‘The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is
termed as transcription’.
Transcription vs. Replication:

● Principle of complementarity governs the process of transcription except Adenine of
DNA forms base pair with the Uracil instead of thymine. During replication Adenine pairs
with thymine instead of uracil.
● During replication once started the whole DNA is duplicated, whereas transcription takes
place only a segment of DNA.
● In replication both strand acts as template, whereas in transcription only one strand acts as
template to synthesize RNA.
● In replication DNA copied from a DNA, whereas in transcription RNA copied from the
DNA.
● Why both strands of DNA not copied during transcription:
● If both strands of DNA act as a template, they would be translated into two RNA of
different sequences and in turn if they code for proteins, the sequence of amino acids
in the protein would be different. Hence one segment of DNA would be coding for
two different proteins.
The two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to each other,
hence will form double stranded RNA. This would prevent RNA translation into protein.
Transcription unit:
● A transcription unit in DNA consists of three regions:

● A promoter
● The structural gene
● A terminator.
● DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization in only one direction that
is 5’→3’.
Structural gene:
● The DNA strand having polarity 3’→5’ is called template strand for transcription.
● The other strand of DNA having polarity 5’→3’ is called the coding strand.
● The sequences of nitrogen bases in the RNA transcribed from the template strand are the
same as the coding strand of DNA except having Thymine in place of Uracil.
● All the reference points defining a transcription unit are made with the coding strand only,
not the template strand.
● Promoter and Terminator present on either side of the structural gene.

● The promoter is located towards the 5' end (upstream) of the structural gene.
● It is a short sequence of DNA that provides binding sites for RNA polymerase. (mostly
TATA , Commonly called TATA box)
● Presence of the promoter defines the template and coding strands.
● If the position of promoter is changed with terminator the definition of coding and
template strand will be reversed.
Terminator:
● The terminator is located towards the 3' end (down stream) of the coding strand.
● It terminates the process of transcription.
● It is also a short segment of DNA which recognizes the termination factor. (ρ-factor)
Transcription unit and the gene:
● Gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance.

● Genes are located on the DNA.
● The DNA sequence coding for tRNA and rRNA molecules also defines a gene.
● Cistron: a segment of DNA (structural gene) coding for a polypeptide.
● Monocistronic: most eukaryotic structural gene codes for single polypeptide.
Polycistronic:
● Most prokaryotic structural gene code for more than one polypeptide. In eukaryotes the
monocistronic structural genes have interrupted coding sequences, the genes are said to be
split gene:
● The coding sequences or expressed sequences are called Exons.
● Exons are interrupted by Introns.
● Exons are said to be those sequences that appear in mature or processed mRNA.
● Introns never appear in the mature or processed mRNA. They are spliced out Process of
transcription: prokaryotes.
● There is a single DNA dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription or
synthesis of all three types of RNAs in prokaryotes.
● The process of transcription completed in three steps:
● Initiation:
● RNA polymerase binds to the specific site of DNA called promoter.
● Promoter of the DNA is recognized by initiation factor or sigma (σ).
● RNA polymerase along with initiation factor binds to the promoter.
● Elongation:
● RNA polymerase unzips the DNA double helix and forms an open loop.
● It uses ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerizes in a DNA
template following the rule of complementarity.
● Only a short stretch of polymerized RNA remains binds with the enzyme.
● The process of polymerization continues till the enzyme reaches the terminator
gene.
● Termination:
● RNA polymerase recognizes the terminator gene by a termination-factor called
rho (ρ) factor.
● The RNA polymerase separated from the DNA and also the transcribed RNA.
Additional complexities in eukaryotes:
There are three different types of RNA polymerases in the nucleus:
● RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA (28S, 18S, and 5.8S)

● RNA polymerase II transcribes heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA).
● RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA.
Post transcriptional processing: (occurs inside the nucleus)
(a) Splicing:
● The primary transcript (hn RNA) contains both exons and introns and is required to be
processed before translationally active (mRNA).
● The introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order.
● This process is catalyzed by SnRNP, introns removed as spliceosomes.
(b) Capping: an unusual nucleotide called methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end of
hnRNA.
(c) Tailing: Adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3’ end of hnRNA in a template
independent manner.
● The processed hnRNA is now called mRNA and transported out of the nucleus for
translation.
GENETIC CODE:
Contribution to discovery:
● The process of replication and transcription based on complementarity.
● The process of translation is the transfer of genetic information from a polymer of

nucleotides to a polymer of amino acids. There is no complementarity between
nucleotides and amino acids.
● If there is change in the nucleic acid (genetic material) there is change in amino acids in
proteins.
● There must be a genetic code that could direct the sequence of amino acids in proteins
during translation.
● George Gamow proposed the code should be a combination of bases, he suggested that in
order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code should be made up of three nucleotides. •
Har Govind Khorana enables instrumental synthesizing RNA molecules with desired
combinations of bases(homopolymer and copolymers).
● Marshall Nirenberg’s cell – free system for protein synthesis finally helped the discovery
of genetic code.
● Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) was also helpful in polymerizing
RNA with desired sequences in a template independent manner (enzymatic synthesis of
RNA)
Salient features of genetic code:
● The codon is a triplet. Three nitrogen base sequences constitute one codon.
● There are 64 codons, 61 codes for amino acids and 3 codons are stop codons.
● One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence it is unambiguous.
● Degeneracy: some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
● Comma less: the codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion. There is no
punctuation.
● Universal: From bacteria to human UUU codes for phenylalanine.
● Initiation codon: AUG is the first codon of all mRNA. And also it codes for methionine
(met), hence has dual function.
● Non-overlapping: The genetic code reads linearly
● Direction: the code only reads in 5’ → 3’ direction.
● Anticodon: Each codon has a complementary anticodon on tRNA.
● Nonsense codon: UAA, GUA, and UAG do not code for amino acids and have no
anticodon on the tRNA.
Mutation and Genetic code:
● Relationships between DNA and genes are best understood by mutation.
Point mutation:
● It occurs due to replacement nitrogen base within the gene.

● It only affects the change of particular amino acids.
● Best understood the cause of sickle cell anemia.
Frameshift mutation:
● It occurs due to insertion or deletion of one or more nitrogen bases in the gene.
● There is change in the whole sequence of amino acids from the point of insertion or
deletion.
● Best understood in β-thalasemia.
tRNA-the Adaptor molecule:
● The tRNA is called sRNA (soluble RNA)

● It acts as an adapter molecule.
● tRNA has an anticodon loop that is complementary to the codon.
● It has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds with amino acid.
● Each tRNA binds with specific amino acids i.e 61 types of tRNA found.
● One specific tRNA with anticodon UAC called initiator tRNA.
● There is no tRNA for stop codons. (UAA, UGA, UAG)
● The secondary structure is like clover-leaf. • The actual structure of tRNA is compact, and
looks like an inverted ‘L’.
Translation:
● It refers to polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide.

● The number and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the
mRNA.
● The amino acids are joined by peptide bonds.
● Amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their specific tRNA is
called charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.
● Ribosome is the cellular factory for protein synthesis.
● Ribosomes consist of structural rRNA and 80 different proteins.
● In inactive state ribosome(70S) present in two subunits:-
● A large subunit 50S.
● A small subunit 30S.
Initiation:
● The process of translation or protein synthesis begins with attachment of mRNA with a
small subunit of ribosome.
● The ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG).

● AUG is recognized by the initiator tRNA.
Elongation:
● Larger subunit attached with the initiation complex.
● Larger subunit has two sites, ‘A’ site and ‘P’ site.
● Initiator tRNA accommodates in the ‘P’ site of a large subunit, the subsequent
amino-acyl-tRNA enters into the ‘A’ site.
● The sub subsequent tRNA selected according to the codon of the mRNA.
● Codon of mRNA and anticodon of tRNA are complementary to each other.
● Formation of peptide bond between two amino acids of ‘P’ and ‘A’ site, catalyzed by
ribozyme, (23S rRNA in bacteria)
● The moves from codon to codon along the mRNA are called translocation.
Termination:
● Elongation continues until a stop codon arrives at ‘P’ site.

● There is no tRNA for stop codon.
● A release factor binds to the stop codon.
● Further shifting of the ribosome leads to separation of polypeptide.
● An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated called untranslated
regions (UTR).
Regulation of gene expression:
● Regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes takes place in different level:

● Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript)
● Processing level (regulation of splicing)
● Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm.
● Translational level.
● In prokaryotes control of rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for
control of gene expression.
● The activity of RNA polymerase at the promoter is regulated by accessory proteins, which
affects its ability to recognize the start site.
● The regulatory proteins can acts both positively (activators) or negatively (repressor)
● The regulatory proteins interact with a specific region of DNA called the operator, which
regulates the accessibility of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
Lac operon:
● Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod first to describe a transcriptionally regulated system of
gene expression.
● A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by common promoter and regulatory genes.
Such a regulation system is common in bacteria and is called operon.
Lac operon consists of:-
● One regulator gene ( i-gene).

● Three structural genes (z,y,a).
● Operator. (binding site of repressor protein).
● Promoter.(binding site of the RNA polymerase).
● The i-gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon.
● The structural gene consists of three genes (z, y and a).
● ‘z’-gene codes for beta-galactosidase, which hydrolyzes lactose into Galactose and
glucose.
● ‘y’ –gene codes for permease, which increases the permeability of bacterial cells. to
lactose.
● ‘a’-gene codes for transacetylase.
● All three genes are required for the metabolism of lactose in bacteria.
● Inducer: lactose is the substrate for β- galactosidase and it regulates the switching on and
off of the lac operon. Hence it is called inducer.
● In the absence of glucose, if lactose is added in the growth medium of the bacteria, the
lactose is transported into the cell by permease.
● Very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present in the cell all the time;
otherwise lactose cannot enter the cell.
● Mechanism of regulation of lac operon:
● The repressor protein is synthesized from i-gene (all time constitutively)
● In the absence of the inducer i.e. lactose the active repressor binds to the operator
and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural gene
● In the presence of the inducer such as lactose or allolactose, the repressor is
inactivated by interaction with the inducer.
● This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds.
● The regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.
Human Genomic project:
● Genetic make-up of an organism or an individual lies in the DNA sequences.

● Two individuals differ in their DNA sequences at least in some places.
● Finding out the complete DNA sequence of the human genome.

● Sequencing the human genome was launched in 190.
Goals of HGP:
● Identify all the approximately 20.000 – 25000 genes in human DNA.

● Determine the sequence of all 3 billion chemical base pairs.
● Store this information in databases.
● Improve tools for data analysis.
● Transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industries.
● Address the ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project.
Methodology:
● To identify all the genes that expressed as RNA referred asExpressed Sequence Tags
(ETSs).
● Simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding
sequence, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions
calledSequence Annotation.
● The commonly used hosts for sequencing were bacteria and yeast and vectors were called
BAC (bacterial artificial chromosome) and YAC (yeast artificial chromosome). Salient
features of
Human Genome:
● The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.

● The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
● The largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
● The total number of genes is estimated at 30.000.
● 99.9 percent nucleotide base sequences are the same in all peoples.
● The function of 50% of genes discovered is unknown.
● Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins.
● Repeated sequences make up a very large portion of the human genome.
● Chromosome I has the most genes (2968) and the Y has the fewest (231).
● About 1.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences (SNPs – single nucleotide
polymorphism) occur in humans.
DNA Fingerprinting:
● DNA fingerprinting is a very quick way to compare the DNA sequences of any two
individuals.
● DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA
called repetitive DNA,because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated
many times.
● During centrifugation the bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are
called satellite DNA.
● Depending on base composition (A:T rich or G:C rich), length of segment, and number of
repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many types, such as mini –satellite and
micro – satellite.
● These sequences do not code for any proteins.
● These sequences show a high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA
fingerprinting.
● Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of genetic mapping of the human genome as
well as of DNA fingerprinting.
● Polymorphism (variation at genetic level) arises due to mutations. • If an inheritable
mutation is observed in a population at high frequency it is referred to as DNA
polymorphism.
The process:
● DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.

● He used satellite DNA as the basis of DNA fingerprinting that shows a very high degree
of polymorphism. It was called as Variable Number Tandem Repeats.(VNTR).
Different steps of DNA fingerprinting are:-
● Isolation of DNA.
● Digestion of DNA by restriction of endonucleases.
● Separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis.
● Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon.
● Double stranded DNA made single stranded.
● Hybridization using labeled VNTR probes.
● Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by autoradiography.
● The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as minisatellite.
● The size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20 kb.
● After hybridization with the VNTR probe the autoradiogram gives many bands of
different sizes. These bands give a characteristic pattern for an individual DNA. It differs
from individual to individual.
● The DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting.
Applications:
● Test of paternity.
● Identify the criminals.
● Population diversity determination.
● Determination of genetic diversity.
(1) MIND MAPS
(2) HISTONE OCTAMER

(3) DNA STRUCTURE
(4) REPLICATION FORK

(5) LAC OPERON
MCQ
1. In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by
(a) glycosidic bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) peptide bonds
(d) hydorgen bonds.
Answer: (b) phosphodiester bonds
2. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is
(a) both positive
(b) both negative
(c) negative and positive, respectively
(d) zero.
Answer: (c) negative and positive, respectively
3. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
(a) It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
(b) It is a molecular disease.
(c) It confers resistance to acquiring malaria.
Answer: (d) All of the above.
4. The first genetic material could be
(a) Protein
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) DNA
(d) RNA.
Answer: (d) RNA.
5. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are
respectively
(a) chromosome 21 and Y
(b) chromosome 1 and X
(c) chromosome 1 and Y
(d) chromosome X and Y.
Answer: (c) chromosome 1 and Y
6. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the
double helix model for the structure of DNA ?
(a) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Erwin Chargaff
(d) Meselson and Stahl
Answer: (b) Maurice Wilkins
7.Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

(a) Initiation
(b) Elongation
(c) Termination
Answer: (d) All of the above
8. Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

(a) DNA-replication
(b) transcription
(c) translation
(d) none of the above.
Answer: (b) transcription
9. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

(a) Chromosome 1
(b) Chromosome 11
(c) Chromosome 21
(d) Chromosome X
Answer: (a) Chromosome 1
10. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as a template. Such a DNA is called
(a) A – DNA
(b) B – DNA
(c) cDNA
(d) rDNA.
Answer: (c) cDNA
11. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’
– ATG ATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
(a) 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
(b) 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
(c) 5’ – CAU CAU – 3’
(d) 5’ – GUAGUA – 3’.
Answer: (d) 5’ – GUAGUA – 3’.
12. The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes

(a) the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region.
(b) the promoter and the terminator region
(c) the structural gene and the terminator region
(d) the structural gene only.
Answer: (b) the promoter and the terminator region
13. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing
with it must be
(a) 5’ – UAC – 3’
(b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
(c) 5’-AUG – 3’
(d) 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer: (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
14. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

(a) 5’- end
(b) 3’ – end
(c) anticodon site
(d) DHUloop.
Answer: (b) 3’ – end
15. To initiate translation, the m RNA first bind to

(a) the small ribosomal subunit
(b) the large ribosomal subunit
(c) the whole ribosome
(d) no such specificity exists.
Answer: (a) the small ribosomal subunit
16. In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(b) repressor binds to operator
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer: (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
17. In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

(a) glycosidic bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) peptide bonds
(d) hydrogen bonds.
Answer: (b) phosphodiester bonds
18. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in
it ?
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 60%
Answer: (c) 30%
19. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGTCA, what would be the
sequence of bases on a complementary strand ?
(a) ATGCATGTCA
(b) AUGCAUGCA
(c) TACTACGT
(d) UACGUACGU
Answer: (c) TACTACGT
20. How far is each base pair from the next one in the DNA double helix model ?
(a) 2 nm
(b) 3.4 nm
(c) 34 nm
(d) 0.34 nm
Answer: (d) 0.34 nm
21. Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

(a) central dogma reverse
(b) reverse transcription
c) feminism
(d) all of these.
Answer: (d) all of these.
22. Histone proteins are

(a) basic, negatively charged
(b) basic, positively charged
(c) acidic, positively charged
(d) acidic, negatively charged
Answer: (b) basic, positively charged
23. The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron
microscope are called
(a) nucleotides
(b) nucleosides
(c) histone octamer
(d) nucleosomes.
Answer: (d) nucleosomes.
24. Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

(a) It is densely packed
(b) It stains dark.
(c) It is transcriptionally active.
(d) It is late replicating.
Answer: (c) It is transcriptionally active.
25. They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
(a) transposons by Barbara Me Clintock
(b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
(d) biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer: (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
26.The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes ?

A. DNase
B. RNase
C. Peptidase
D. Lipase
(a) A, B
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) B, C, D
(d) A, B, C
Answer: (c) B, C, D
27. The three codons which result in the termination of polypeptide chain synthesis are
(a) UAA, UAG, GUA
(b) UAA, UAG, UGA
(c) UAA, UGA, UUA
(d) UGU, UAG, UGA
Answer: (b) UAA, UAG, UGA
28. Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

(a) phenylalanine and arginine
(b) tryptophan and methionine
(c) valine and proline
(d) methionine and arginine.
Answer: (b) tryptophan and methionine
29. Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
(b) Genetic code is degenerate.
(c) Genetic code is universal.
(d) Genetic code is non-overlapping.
Answer: (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
30. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the genetic code is
(a) overlapping
(b) degenerate
(c) wobbled
(d) unambiguous.
Answer: (d) unambiguous.
31. The mutations that involve addition, deletion or substitution of a single pair in a gene are
referred to as
(a) point mutations
(b) lethal mutations
(c) silent mutations
(d) retrogressive mutations.
Answer: (a) point mutations
32. Sickle cell anaemia results from a single base substitution in a gene, thus it is an example
of
(a) point mutation
(b) frame-shift mutation
(c) silent mutation
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer: (a) point mutation
33. Select the incorrectly matched pair.

(a) Initation codons – AUG,GUG
(b) Stop codons – UAA, UAG, UGA
(c) Methionine – AUG
(d) Anticodons – mRNA
Answer: (d) Anticodons – mRNA
34. Amino acid acceptor end of tRNA lies at

(a) 5’ end
(b) 3’ end
(c) T VC loop
(d) DHUloop.
Answer: (b) 3’ end
35. Which RNA carries the amino acids from the amino acid pool to mRnA during protein
synthesis ?
(a) rRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) tRNA
(d) hn RNA
Answer: (c) tRNA
36. During translation, activated amino acids get linked to tRNA. This process is commonly
called as
(a) charging of tRNA
(b) discharging of tRNA
(c) aminoacylation of tRNA
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer: (b) discharging of/RNA
37. To prove that DNA is the genetic material, which radioactive isotopes were used by
Hershey and Chase (1952) in experiments ?
(a) 33S and 15N
(b) 32P and 35S
(c) 32P and 15N
(d) 14N and 15N
Answer: (d) 14N and 15N
38. RNA is the genetic material in

(a) prokaryotes
(b) eukaryotes
(c) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
(d) E.coli.
Answer: (c) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
39. Which one among the following was the first genetic material ?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Protein
(d) Nuclein
Answer: (b) RNA
40. Which of the following life processes evolved around RNA ?

(a) Metabolism
(b) Translation
(c) Splicing
(d) All of these
Answer: (b) Translation
41. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.
(a) (i) equally, (ii) equally
(b) (i) less, (ii) more
(c) (i) more, (ii) less
(d) (i) more, (ii) equally
Answer: (c) (i) more, (ii) less
42. Which of the following phenomena was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl ?
(a) Transformation
(b) Transduction
(c) Semi-conservative DNA replication
(d) Central dogma
Answer: (c) Semi-conservative DNA replication
43. First experimental proof for semi-conservative DNA replication was shown in
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Neurospora crassa
(d) Rattus rattus.
Answer: (b) Escherichia coli
44. Select the correct match of enzyme with its related function.
(a) DNA polymerase – Synthesis of DNA strands
(b) Helicase – Unwinding of DNA helix
(c) Ligase – Joins together short DNA segments
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
45. Other than DNA polymerase, which are the enzymes involved in DNA synthesis ?
(a) Topoisomerase
(b) Helicase
(c) RNA primase
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
46. DNA replication takes place at _________ phase of the cell-cycle

(a) G1
(b) S
(c) G2
(d) M
Answer: (b) S
47. The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA to RNA is termed as
_________ .
(a) replication
(b) transcription
(c) translation
(d) reverse transcription
Answer: (b) transcription
48. The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation reaction in
___________direction.
(a) only 5’ → 3’
(b) only 3’ → 5’
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer: (a) only 5’ → 3’
49. If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of
bases in mRNA will be
(a) TAAGCTAC
(b) UAAGCUAC
(c) ATTCGATG
(d) AUUCGAUG.
Answer: (d) AUUCGAUG.
50. If the sequence of bases in DNA is GCTTAGGCAA then the sequence of bases in its
transcript will be
(a) GCTTAGGCAA
(b) CGAATCCGTT
(c) CGAAUCCGUU
(d) AACGGAUUCG.
Answer: (c) CGAAUCCGUU
51. Transcription unit

(a) starts with TATA box
(b) starts with palledorous regions and ends with rho factor.
(c) starts with promoter region and ends in terminator region
(d) starts with the CAAT region.
Answer: (c) starts with promoter region and ends in terminator region
52. During transcription, the site of DNA molecule at which RNA polymerase binds is called
(a) promoter
(b) regulator
(c) receptor
(d) enhancer.
Answer: (a) promoter
53. Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA) usually occurs in

(a) bacteria
(b) prokaryotes
(c) eukaryotes
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)
54. In transcription in eukaryotes, heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is described by

(a) RNA polymerase I
(b) RNA polymerase II
(c) RNA polymerase II
(d) all of these.
Answer: (b) RNA polymerase II
55. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in a process of

(a) splicing
(b) capping
(c) tailing
(d) none of these
Answer: (b) capping
56. In eukaryotes, the process of processing of primary transcript involves

(a) removal of introns
(b) capping at 5’end
(c) tailing (polyadenylation) at 3’ end
(d) all of these.
Answer: (b) capping at 5’end
57. In a n/RNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) are present at

(a) 5’ – end (before start codon)
(b) 3’ – end (after stop codon)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) 3’- end only.
Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)
58. UTRs are the untranslated regions present on

(a) rRNA
(b) hnRNA
(c) mRNA
(d) hnRNA.
Answer: (c) mRNA
59. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ribosomes ?

(a) Most of a cell’s DNA molecules are stored there.
(b) Complete polypeptide is released from there.
(c) mRNAs are produced there.
(d) DNA replication takes place there.
Answer: (b) Complete polypeptide is released from there.
60. Regulation of gene expression occurs at the level of

(a) transcription
(b) processing/splicing
(c) translation
(d) all of these.
Answer: (d) all of these.
61. During expression of an operon, RNA polymerase binds to

(a) structural gene
(b) regulator gene
(c) operator
(d) promoter.
Answer: (d) promoter.
62. The sequence of structural genes in lac operon is

(a) Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z
(b) Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y
(c) Lac Y, Lac A, Lac A
(d) Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A
Answer: (d) Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A
63.Which of the following cannot act as an inducer ?

(a) Glucose
(b) Lactose
(c) Galactos
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)
64. Human genome consists of approximately

(a) 3 × 109 bp
(b) 6 × 109 bp
(c) 20,000 – 25,000 bp
(d) 2.2 × 104 bp.
Answer: (a) 3 × 109 bp
65. Estimated number of genes in human beings is

(a) 3,000
(b) 80,000
(c) 20,500
(d) 3 × 109
Answer: (c) 20,500
CASE STUDY
CASE-1
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
RNA or Ribo Nucleic Acid is a single chain polynucleotide which functions as
carrier of coded genetic or hereditary information from DNA to cytoplasm for
taking part in protein and enzyme synthesis. Six types of RNA are ribosomal.
transfer, messenger, genomic, small nuclear and small cytoplasmic RNA. Out of
these r RNA and m RNA are major classes of RNA, that are involved in gene
expression.
1. Which one is referred to as a soluble RNA
a) m RNA
b) t RNA
c) r RNA
d) hn RNA
2. The RNA that picks up specific amino acid from amino acid pool in the
cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis is
a) r RNA
b) m RNA
c) t RNA
d) hn RNA
3. Which of the following is found in both DNA and messenger RNA?
a) Double helix structure
b) Ribose
c) Thymine
d) Sugar-phosphate chain
4. Which of the following statements regarding RNA is correct?
5. In studying a virus, you find the following proportions of nitrogenous

base present: adenine 23%, guanine 37%cytosine:23% and uracil 17%.
Which of the following statement (s) regarding this virus is/are correct?
I. It probably uses RNA as its genetic material
II. The genetic material of this virus is probably single stranded
III. Base pairing rules in virus include adenine: cytosine
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II and III only
d) All of the above
Answer key:
1 t RNA
2 t RNA
3 Sugar-phosphate chain
4 Messenger RNA carries coded information for synthesis of
polypeptide
5 I and II only
CASE- 2
Read the following passage and answer the following questions
DNA replication is a complex multistep process that requires enzymes, protein
factors and metal ions. DNA replication in eukaryotes occurs in the nucleus
during the S phase of the cell cycle. It is semi discontinuous in eukaryotes. In
prokaryotes replication takes place in the cytoplasm. DNA replication in
bacteria occurs prior to fission. Nucleoid or viral chromosome is a single
molecule of nucleic acid, it may be linear or circular. Nucleic acid in a virus is
either DNA or RNA but never both.
1. In Viral DNA how many origin of replication are present?
a) Single
b) Two
c) Multiple
d) None
2. Select the main enzyme involved in DNA replication.

a) DNA ligase
b) Helicase
c) DNA dependant DNA polymerase
d) Topoisomerase
3. Read the given statement and select the option that correctly fill in the
blanks. Enzyme ------------(i) acts over the ori site and unwind the two
strands of DNA by destroying -------(ii) bonds
a) (i)Helicase, (ii)glycosidic
b) Helicase (ii) Hydrogen
c) (i)Unwindase (ii) glycosidic
d) (i) helicase (ii) phosphodiester
4. DNA strand build-up of Okazaki fragments is called
a) lagging strand
b) leading strand
c) complementary strand
d) parental strand
Answer key:
1. Single
2. DNA dependant DNA polymerase
3. Helicase (ii) Hydrogen
4. lagging strand
CASE-3
DNA fingerprinting is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of
certain areas of DNA which are unique to each individual. Each person has a
unique DNA finger print. Each fingerprint is the same for every cell, tissue and
organ of a person. DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing in case of
disputes.
1. The technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA
restriction analysis is known as
a) DNA profiling
b) RFLP
c) DNA finger printing
d) Both (a) and (b)
2. For DNA finger printing, DNA is obtained from
a) Blood
b) Hair root cells
c) Semen
d) All of the above
3. During DNA finger printing radioactive probes
a) Hybridise with DNA sample to form double stranded structure
b) Degrade the DNA
c) Create positive charge on DNA
d) Cut the DNA sample at various sites
4. In India DNA finger printing technique was developed by
a) Dr Lalji Singh
b) Alec Jeffreys
c) Dr Khorana
d) None of the above
Answer key:
1. DNA finger printing
2. All of the above
3. Hybridise with DNA sample to form double stranded structure
4. Dr Lalji Singh
CASE-4
Mutation explains relationship between gene and DNA. The effects of large
deletions and rearrangement in a segment of DNA results in loss or gain of gene
and its function . Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading
frame from the point of insertion or deletion. A classical example of point
mutation is a change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin that results in
change of amino acid residue glutamate to valine and results into a diseased
condition called sickle cell anaemia.
1. A mutation is a change produced by an alteration in the genetic
mechanism and
a) may arise spontaneously
b) Is always induced by the environment
c) Is never advantageous
d) Is not inherited
2. The DNA code for glutamic acid is CTC or CTT. The code for valine is
CAA or CAT. In sickle cell haemoglobin, valine is present instead of
glutamic acid.
Assuming a single base pair substitution has occurred, what is the
mRNA code in the affected mutant?
a) CUU
b) GAA
c) GAG
d) GUA
3. A mutation involving the substitution of one nitrogenous base for another
has altered the base sequence of a DNA molecule ,coding for four amino
acids ,a shown below:
Normal: A-G-C-A-T-G-G-A-T-C-C-T
Mutant: A-G-C-A-T-G-C-A-T-C-C-T
The table shows six codons and the corresponding amino acids into
which each is translated.
M RNA codon Amino acid
AAG Lysine
CUA Leucine
GGA Glycine
GUA Valine
UAC Tyrosine
UCG Serine
The mutation has changed amino acid
a) Leucine to valine
b) Lysine to glycine
c) Serine to leucine
d) Tyrosine to lysine
4. Assertion: Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases, insert or
delete one or multiple codons and so one or multiple amino acids
Reason: Reading frame remains unaltered with insertion or deletion of
three or its multiple bases.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
5. Part of the amino acid sequence in normal and sickle cell haemoglobin
are shown
Normal haemoglobin Sickle cell haemoglobin
Thr-Pro-Glu-Glu Thr-Pro-Val-Glu
mRNA codons for these amino acids are

Glutamine (Glu) GAA GAG
Proline (Pro) CCU CCC
Threonine (Thr) ACU ACC
Valine (Val) GUA GUG
Which transfer RNA molecule is involved in the formation of this part of
the sickle cell haemoglobin?
a. tRNA with anticodon GUG
b. tRNA with anticodon CAU
c. t RNA with anticodon UGC
d. t RNA with anticodon GAG
Answer key:
1. may arise spontaneously
2. GUA
3. Leucine to valine
4. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
5. tRNA with anticodon CAU
CASE-5
In prokaryotes, DNA is circular and present in cytoplasm but in eukaryotes,
DNA is linear and mainly confined to the nucleus, DNA or deoxyribonucleic
acid is a long polymer of nucleotides, In 1953,the first correct double helical
structure of DNA was worked out by Watson and Crick. Based on X ray
diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin It is
composed of three componentise A phosphate group, a deoxy ribose sugar and a
nitrogen base, Different forms of DNA are B-DNA, Z-DNA, A-DNA, C-DNA,
and D-DNA
1. Name the linkage present between the nitrogen base and pentose sugar in
DNA
a) Phospho-diester bond
b) Glycosidic bond
c) Hydrogen bond
d) None of the above
2. The double chain of B -DNA is coiled in helical fashion. The spiral
twisting of B DNA duplex produces
a) right and left part
b) major and minor grooves
c) upper and lower sides
d) linear and circular part
3. Assertion: The two strands of DNA helix have uniform distance between
them.
Reason: A large sized purine always paired opposite to a small sized
pyrimidine
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Both assertion and reason are false
4. Which of the following describes the structure of B –DNA
a) Polynucleotide chains are parallel, 5 base pairs per complete turn of
helix
b) Polynucleotide chains are antiparallel, 10 base pairs per complete turn
of the helix
c) Polynucleotide chains are parallel, 15 base pairs pr turn of helix
d) Polynucleotide chains are antiparallel, 20 base pairs per complete turn
of the helix
Answer key:
1. Glycosidic bond
2. major and minor grooves
3. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
4. Polynucleotide chains are antiparallel, 10 base pairs per
complete turn of the helix
CASE 6
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a
polymer of nucleotides to synthesise a polymer of amino acids. The
relationship between the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide and
nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA is called genetic code. George
Gamow suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, code
should be made up of three nucleotides.
1. What is a codon?
a) A length of DNA which codes for a particular protein
b) A part of the tRNA molecule to which specific amino acid is
attached
c) A part of the tRNA molecule which recognises the triplet code
on the messenger RNA
d) A part of the messenger RNA molecule that has sequence of
bases coding for an amino acid
2. Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule provide the code for
each amino acid in a protein molecule. What is the maximum number
of different triplet that could occurs?
a) 16
b) 20
c) 24
d) 64
3. Identify the stop codon among the following
a) UCG
b) AUG
c) UAA
d) UGG
4. Listed below are some amino acids and their corresponding m RNA
triplets. Phenyl alanine-UUU Lysine-AAG Arginine-CGA
Alanine-GCA . Which DNA sequence would be needed to produce
the following polypeptide sequence? Alanine-Arginine-Lysine-Phenyl
alanine
a) CGT GCT TTC AAA
b) CGT GCT TTC TTT
c) CGU GCU UUC AAA
d) CGU GCU UUC TTT
5. A polypeptide is made using synthetic mRNA molecules as shown.
Synthetic mRNA used is UUUAAAUUUAAA. The polypeptide
produced is Phenyl alanine-lysine-phenyl alanine-lysine. What are the
DNA segment codes for amino acids phenyl alanine and lysine?
a) Phenyl alanine -AAA , Lysine-UUU
b) Phenyl alanine-AAA , Lysine- TTT
c) Phenyl alanine- GGG , Lysine- CCC
d) Phenyl alanine- TTT , Lysine- GGG
Answer key:
1. A part of the messenger RNA molecule that has sequence of
bases coding for an amino acid
2. 64
3. UAA
4. CGT GCT TTC AAA
5. Phenyl alanine-AAA , Lysine- TTT
DIAGRAM BASED CASE STUDY

1. Study the following crime case in which DNA finger print of two individual
suspects A and B obtained from their DNA sample and DNA sample from the
crime scene has the DNA fingerprint C to answer the following questions
1. The technique to obtain separate bands of DNA fragments

a) PCR
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Southern blotting
d) DNA finger printing
2. These short tandem repeats are present in
a) Satellite DNA
b) any part of DNA
c) Homologous DNA
d) Single strand DNA
3. This technique relies on which characteristics of DNA polymorphisms:
i. they are variable
ii. they are inheritable
iii. they are different from individual to individual
iv. they are short DNA fragments
a) only a
b) b, c and d
c) b and c
d) all of the above
Answer key:
1. Gel electrophoresis
2. Satellite DNA
3. all of the above
2.
1. The number of nucleosomes present in human cell is

a) 3.3X10 7
b)
1.1 X 10 7
c)
6.6X10 7
d)
indefinite
2. Which amino acids are present in histones?
a) Lysine and histidine
b) Valine and histidine
c) Arginine and Lysine
d) Arginine and histidine
3. Linker DNA is
(a) a part of nucleosome
(b) a part that joins two octamer cores
(c) ss DNA
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates
a) transcription is occurring
b) DNA replication is occurring
c) the DNA condensed into a chromatin fibre
d) the DNA double helix is exposed.
Answer key:
1. 3.3X10 7
2. Arginine and Lysine
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. the DNA condensed into a chromatin fibre
ASSERTION REASONING TYPE
These questions consist of two statements each, typed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
C. If Assertion is true and the Reason is false
D. If both assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: hn RNA is larger than mRNA

Reason: hn RNA has non-translating introns which are not required for translation
Ans: Option A
2. Assertion: DNA is considered to be better genetic material than RNA for most organisms
Reason: 2'OH group present in DNA makes it labile and less reactive
Ans: Option C
3. Assertion: Replication and transcription occurs in Nucleus but translation occurs in

cytoplasm.
Reason: mRNA transferred from nucleus to cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are
available for protein synthesis
Ans: Option A
4. Assertion: For DNA replication RNA primer is needed

Reason: Synthesis of new DNA chain is initiated by DNA polymerase
Ans: Option C
5. Assertion: Synthesis of daughter or new strand occurs continuously along the parent 3'---5'
strand
Reason: DNA polymerase can polymerase nucleotides in 3'--5' direction on 5'--3'strand
Ans: Option C
6. Assertion: UAA, UAG, UGA terminate protein synthesis

Reason: They are not recognized by t RNA.
Ans: Option A
7. Assertion: Lac operon is seen in E.coli

Reason: E. coli lacks a definite nucleus
Ans: Option B
8. Assertion: Constitutive genes are continuously being expressed

Reason: Constitutive genes are frequently needed for various metabolic functions.
Ans: Option A
9. Assertion: No lac mRNA is made in the presence of glucose.

Reason: In the presence of glucose, activity of lac operon is not needed.
Ans: Option A
10. Assertion: Lac operon is an inducible operon
Reason: Lac operon Can be switched off due to non-requirement of metabolite.
Ans: Option C
11. Assertion: a very low level expression of lac operon has to be present in the cell always
Reason: In Lac operon, lactose when added enters the cells by the action of enzyme permease
Ans: Option A
12. Assertion: Polycistronic mRNA, found in prokaryotes specify a number of polypeptides

Reason: Monocistronic mRNA ,found in eukaryotes specify only a single polypeptide
Ans: Option B
13. Assertion: In Hershey and Chase experiment, absence of 32P radioactivity in the supernatant
proves that DNA is the genetic material.
Reason: DNA contains phosphorus but proteins does not.
Ans: Option A
14. Assertion: The DNA strand having polarity 3’-5’ replicated continuously whereas the strand
with polarity 5’- 3; replicated discontinuously.
Reason: The DNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation only in one direction
Ans: Option A
15. Assertion: In Prokaryotes the DNA is localised at the specific place in the cytoplasm called
nucleoid.
Reason: Histone proteins play an important role in the packaging of DNA
Ans: Option B
16. Assertion: VNTRs are used as probes for hybridisation in DNA Fingerprinting.
Reason: DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of Polymorphism in DNA sequences
Ans: Option A
17. Assertion: Histones are basic in nature.

Reason: Histones are rich in amino acids lysine and arginine
Ans: Option A
18. Assertion: Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.

Reason: It is loosely packed.
Ans: Option C
19. Assertion: In a DNA molecule, A–T rich parts melt before G–C rich parts.
Reason: In between A and T there are three H–bond, whereas in between G and C there are
two H-bonds
Ans: Option C
20. Assertion: Genetic code is polar

Reason: Each codon has its specific 5' end and 3'end
Ans: Option A
21. Assertion: Sequence of bases in one polynucleotide chain of DNA can determine the
sequence of bases in the other chain
Reason: In a DNA amount of adenine equals that of thymine and amount of guanine equals
that of cytosine i.e., A=T and C=G
Ans: Option B
22. Assertion: The subunits of ribosome come together only at the time of protein formation.
Reason: Mg 2+ causes their association and dissociation.
Ans: Option B
23. Assertion: For every cell, tissue and organ of a person, the DNA fingerprint is the same
Reason: For treatment of inherited disorders like Huntington’s disease, Alzheimer's and
Sickle cell anaemia DNA fingerprint is used.
Ans: Option C
24. Assertion: Heterochromatin is genetically inactive.

Reason: Heterochromatin lacks genes
Ans: Option C
25. Assertion: Viruses having RNA genome have shorter life span and mutate faster.
Reason: RNA is unstable and thus mutates faster
Ans: Option A
26. Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote.
Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal
Ans: Option C
27. Assertion: The sugar phosphate backbone of two chains in DNA double helix show
anti-parallel polarity.
Reason: The phosphodiester bonds in one strand go from a 3' carbon of one nucleotide to a 5'
carbon of adjacent nucleotide, whereas those in complementary strand go vice versa
Ans: Option A
28. Assertion: A Lac operon given by Jacob and Monad is repressible operon.
Reason: The system of regulation in lac operon is always a negative control.
Ans: Option D
29. Assertion: The genetic code is degenerate.

Reason: Most amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
Ans: Option A
30. Assertion: DNA fingerprinting is applied in paternity testing in case of disputes.

Reason: It employs the principle of polymorphism in DNA sequences as the polymorphisms
are inheritable from parent to children.
Ans: Option A
31. Assertion: In transcription, the strand with 3'-5' polarity acts as the template strand. Reason:
The RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation in only one direction that is 5'-3'
Ans: Option A
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (TERM I) 2021-22
Time: 90 Minutes
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION - A
Section – A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The
first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
1 The structure of bilobed anther consists of
A. 2 thecae, 2 sporangia
B. 4 thecae, 4 sporangia
C. 4 thecae, 2 sporangia
D. 2 thecae, 4 sporangia
2 In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose the correct
option for the characteristic distribution of cells within the typical
embryo sac
Number of cells at chalazal end

Number of cells at micropylar end
Number of nuclei left in central cell
A323
B332
C233
D224
3 The coconut water from tender coconut is
A. cellular endosperm.
B. free nuclear endosperm.
C. both cellular and nuclear endosperm.
D. free nuclear embryo.
4 Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of presence of
A. sporopollenin
B. cellulose
C. lignocellulose
D. pectocellulose
5 Which of the following statements are true related to Seed X and
Y?
SEED X SEED Y
(i) Seed X is dicot and endospermic or albuminous.
(ii) Seed X is dicot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.
(iii) Seed Y is monocot and endospermic or albuminous.
(iv) Seed Y is monocot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.

Choose the correct option with respect to the nature of the seed
A. (i), (iii)
B. (ii), (iii)
C. (i), (iv)
D. (ii), (iv)
6 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to hormones secreted
by placenta?
(i) Placenta secretes relaxation during later stages of pregnancy.
(ii) Placenta secretes a high amount of FSH during pregnancy.
(iii) Placenta secretes relaxation during the initial stage of pregnancy.
(iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during pregnancy.
A. (i) and (iv)
B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

7. Figure A shows the front view of the human female reproductive system and Figure
B shows the development of a fertilized human egg cell
Figure A
Figure B.
\
Identify the correct stage of development of human embryo (Figure B) that takes place at
the site X, Y and Z respectively in the human female reproductive system (Figure A).
Choose the correct option from the table below:
X Y Z
A Morula Fertilized egg Blastocyst
B Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Morula
C Blastocyst Fertilized egg Unfertilized egg
D Fertilized egg Morula Blastocyst

8 Penetration of the sperm in the ovum is followed by
A. formation of first polar body.
B. completion of meiosis II.
C. first meiosis.
D. dissolution of zona pellucida.
9 The correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of

menstruation is
A. FSH, progesterone, estrogen.
B. estrogen, FSH, progesterone.
C. FSH, estrogen, progesterone.
D. estrogen, progesterone, FSH.
10 In the dioecious aquatic plant shown, identify the characteristics of the male
flowers that reach the female flowers for pollination:
Size of the flower

Colour of pollen grain
Characteristic feature of flower
A. Small brightly light weight and non-sticky coloured
B. Large colourless large and sticky
C. Small white small, covered with mucilage
D. Large colourless non sticky
11 The thalamus contributes to the fruit formation in
A. Banana.
B. Orange.
C. Strawberry.
D. Guava.
12 How many types of gametes would be produced if the genotype of a parent is

AaBB? A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
13 Which of the following statements indicates parallelism in genes and

chromosomes? (i) They occur in pairs
(ii) They segregate during gamete formation
(iii) They show linkage
(iv) Independent pairs segregate independently
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
14 Which of the following amino acid substitution is responsible for causing

sickle cell anemia?
A. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the α globin chain at the sixth

position B. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the β globin chain at
seventh position C. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the α globin
chain at the sixth position D. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the
β globin chain at the sixth position
15 In human beings, where genotype AABBCC represents dark skin colour,
aabbcc represents light skin colour and AaBbCc represents intermediate skin
colour; the pattern of genetic inheritance can be termed as:
A. Pleiotropy and codominance
B. Pleiotropy and incomplete dominance
C. Polygenic and qualitative inheritance
D. Polygenic and quantitative inheritance
16 Which of the following combination of chromosome numbers represents the

correct sex determination pattern in honey bees?
A. Male 32, Female 16
B. Male 16, Female 32
C. Male 31, Female 32
D. Female 32, Male 31
17 Rajesh and Mahesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. Rajesh
Has too few globin molecules while Mahesh has incorrectly functioning globin
molecules.Identify the disorder they are suffering from.
18 Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfil to act as a genetic
material? (i) It should not be able to generate its replica
(ii) It should chemically and structurally be stable
(iii) It should not allow slow mutation
(iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian

Characters A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)
19 The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at A. 3′
(downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription
unit B. 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the
transcription unit C. the 5′ (upstream) end of the transcription unit
D. the 3′ (downstream) end of the transcription unit
20 Which of the following is correct about mature RNA in eukaryotes?
A. Exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
B. Exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
C. Introns appear, but exons do not appear in the mature RNA.
D. Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA.
21 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when
A. lactose is present and it binds to the repressor.
B. repressor binds to operator.
C. RNA polymerase binds to the operator.
D. lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

22 Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty used enzymes to purify
biochemicals such as proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S cells to
see which ones could transform live R cells into S cells in Griffith's experiment.
They observed that
A. Proteases and RNases affected transformation.
B. DNase inhibited transformation.
C. Proteases and Lipases affect transformation.
D. RNases inhibited transformation.
23
AUG on the mRNA will result in the activation of which of the following
RNA having correct combination of amino acids:
Site A Site B
A. UAC Methionine
B. Methionine UAC
C. Methionine AUG
D. AUG Methionine
24 Short stretches of DNA used to identify complementary sequence in a

sample are called
A. probes
B. markers
C. VNTRs
D. primers
SECTION - B
Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No.25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions
from this section. The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
Question No. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason

(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false

D. A is False but R is true
25 Assertion: Lactational amenorrhea is the natural method of

contraception. Reason: It increases the phagocytosis of sperm.
26 Assertion: Saheli, an oral contraceptive for females, contains a steroidal

preparation. Reason: It is a "once a week" pill with very few side effects.
27 Assertion: Parturition is induced by a complex neuro endocrine mechanism.

Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary releases
prolactin which causes uterine contractions.
28 Assertion: When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same
chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations is much higher
than non parental type.
Reason: Higher parental gene combinations can be attributed to crossing over

between two genes.
Concentration of which of the following substances will decrease in the
maternal blood as it flows from embryo to placenta through the umbilical
cord?
i. Oxygen
ii. Amino Acids
iii. Carbon dioxide
iv. Urea
A. i and ii
B. ii and iv
C. iii and iv
D. i and iv
30 In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in

A. antipodal, zygote and endosperm
B. zygote, nucellus and endosperm
C. endosperm, nucellus and zygote.
D. antipodals, synergids and integuments
31 A botanist studying Viola (common pansy) noticed that one of the two flower
types withered and developed no further due to some unfavorable condition, but
the other flower type on the same plant survived and it resulted in an assured
seed set. Which of the following will be correct?
A. The flower type which survived is Cleistogamous and it always exhibits
autogamy
B. The flower type which survived is Chasmogamous and it always exhibits
geitonogamy.
C. The flower type which survived is Cleistogamous and it exhibits both
autogamy and geitonogamy.
D. The flower type which survived is Chasmogamous and it never exhibits
autogamy.
32 During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and

child birth has to be fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone that can
A. increase the metabolic rate.
B. release glucose in the blood.
C. stimulate the ovary.
D. activate smooth muscles.
33 A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked fallopian tubes. The technique
by which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the
female for further development is
A. ZIFT
B. GIFT
C. IUT
D. AI
34 The mode of action of the copper ions in an IUD is to

A. increase the movement of sperms.
B. decrease the movement of the sperms.
C. make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
D. make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
35 To produce 400 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions
required will be A. 400
B. 200
C. 500
D. 800
36 A cross is made between tall pea plants having green pods and dwarf pea plants
having yellow pods. In the F2 generation, out of 80 plants how many are likely to
be tall plants?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 45
D. 60
37 In Antirrhinum, RR is phenotypically red flowers, rr is white and Rr is pink.

Select the correct phenotypic ratio in F1 generation when a cross is performed
between RR X Rr: A. 1 red: 2 Pink: 1 white
B. 2 Pink: 1 white
C. 2 Red: 2 Pink
D. All Pink
38 What would be the genotype of the parents if the offspring have the phenotypes in
1:1 proportion?
A. Aa X Aa
B. AA X AA
C. Aa X AA
D. Aa x aa
39
What is the pattern of inheritance in the above pedigree chart?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex -linked dominant

D. Sex -linked recessive
40 A couple has two daughters. What is the probability that the third child will
also be a female?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
41 Genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is obtained in a cross between
A. AB X AB
B. Ab X Ab
C. Ab X ab
D. ab X ab
42 Total number of nucleotide sequences of DNA that codes for a hormone is 1530. The
proportion of different bases in the sequence is found to be Adenine = 34%, Guanine
= 19%, Cytosine = 23%, Thymine = 19%.
Applying Chargaff’s rule, what conclusion can be drawn?
A. It is a double stranded circular DNA.
B. It is a single stranded DNA.

C. It is a double stranded linear DNA.
D. It is a single stranded DNA coiled on Histones.
43 A stretch of an euchromatin has 200 nucleosomes. How many bp will there be in

the stretch and what would be the length of the typical euchromatin?
A. 20,000 bp and 13,000 x10-9 m

B. 10,000 bp and 10,000 x10-9 m
C. 40,000 bp and 13,600 x10-9 m
D. 40,000 bp and 13,900 x10-9 m
44 Observe structures A and B given below. Which of the following statements

are correct?
A. A is having 2 '-OH group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable,
whereas B is having 2'-H group which makes it more reactive and unstable. B. A is
having 2'-OH group which makes it more reactive and structurally unstable, whereas
B is having 2'-H group which makes it less reactive and structurallystable.
C. A and B both have -OH groups which make it more reactive and structurally
stable.
D. A and B both are having -OH groups which make it less reactive and structurally
stable
45 If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for sixth generations in bacteria, the
ratio of Heavy strands 15N/15N :Hybrid15N/14N : light 14N/14N containing DNA in the
sixth generation would be
A. 1:1:1
B. 0:1:7
C. 0:1:15
D. 0:1:31
46 Two important RNA processing events lead to specialized end sequences in most
human mRNAs: (i) at the 5’ end, and (ii) at the 3’ end. At the 5’end the most
distinctive specialized end nucleotide, (iii) is added and a sequence of about 200 (iv)
is added to the 3’ end.
A. (i) Initiator codon (ii) Promotor (iii) Terminator codon (iv) Release
factors B. (i). Promotor (ii) Elongation (iii) Regulation (iv) Termination.
C. (i) Capping (ii) Polyadenylation (iii) mGppp (iv) Poly(A).
D. (i) Repressor (ii) Co repressor (iii) Operon (iv) sRelease factors
47 What are minisatellites?
A. 10-40 bp sized small sequences within the genes
B. Short coding repetitive region on the eukaryotic genome

C. Short non-coding repetitive sequence forming large portion of eukaryotic
genome D. Regions of coding strands of the DNA
48 There was a mix-up at the hospital after a fire accident in the nursery division.
Which of these children belong to the parents?
A. All
of the children
B. Children 2, 3 & 6
C. Children 1 & 3
D. Children 2 & 4
SECTION - C
Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.No.49
to 54). Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this
section. The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.
Cas To answer the questions, study the graphs below for Subject 1 and 2
e showing differentlevels of certain hormones.
49 The peak observed in Subject 1 and 2 is due to
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. luteinizing hormone
D. follicle stimulating hormone
50 Subject 2 has higher level of hormone B, which is
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. luteinizing hormone
D. follicle stimulating hormone
51 If the peak of Hormone A does not appear in the study for Subject 1, which of
the following statements is true?
A. Peak of Hormone B will be observed at a higher point in the graph B. Peak of

Hormone B will be observed at a point lower than what is given in the graph
C. There will be no observed data for Hormone B
D. The graph for Hormone B will be a sharp rise followed by a plateau
52 Which structure in the ovary will remain functional in subject 2?

A. Corpus Luteum
B. Tertiary follicle
C. Graafian follicle
D. Primary follicle
53 For subject 2 it is observed that the peak for hormone B has reached the
plateau stage.After approximately how much time will the curve for hormone
B descend? A. 28 days
B. 42 days
C. 180 days
D. 280 days
54 Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
A. Subject 1 is pregnant
B. Subject 2 is pregnant
C. Both subject 1 and 2 are pregnant
D. Both subject 1 and 2 are not pregnant
55 The gene that controls the ABO blood group system in human beings has three
alleles -IA, IBand i. A child has blood group O. His father has blood group A and
mother has blood group B. Genotypes of other offsprings can be:
i. IBIB
ii. IAi
iii. IBi
iv. IAIB
v. ii
A. i, ii, iii, v
B. ii, iii ,iv, v
C. iii, iv, v
D. iv, iii, i
56 Placed below is a karyotype of a human being..
On the basis of this karyotype, which of the following conclusions can be

drawn: A. Normal human female
B. Person is suffering from Colour Blindness
C. Affected individual is a female with Down’s syndrome
D. Affected individual is a female with Turner’s syndrome
57 Given below is a dihybrid cross performed on Drosophila.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of this cross?
When yellow bodied (y), white eyed (w) Drosophila females were hybridized
with brown bodied (y+), red eyed males (w+) and F1 progenies were
intercrossed, F2 generation would have shown the following ratio:
A. 1:2:1 because of linkage of genes
B. 9:3:3:1 because of recombination of genes
C. Deviation from 9:3:3:1 ratio because of segregation of genes

D. Deviation from 9:3:3:1 ratio because of linkage of genes
58 Which cellular process is shown below?
A. DNA Replication
B. Translation - Initiation
C. Translation - Elongation
D. Translation – Termination
59 Origin of replication of DNA in E. coli is shown below, Identify the labelled parts
(i),(ii), (iii) and (iv)
A. (i)- discontinuous synthesis , (ii)- continuous synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv)

5’end B. (i)- continuous synthesis , (ii)- discontinuous synthesis (iii) 5’
end (iv) 3’end C. (i)- discontinuous synthesis, (ii)- continuous synthesis
(iii) 5’ end (iv) 3’end D. (i)- continuous synthesis , (ii)- discontinuous
synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv) 5’end
60 Transcription unit is represented in the diagram given below.
Identify site (i), factor (ii) and Enzyme (iii) responsible for carrying out the
process. A. (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Rho factor (iii) RNA polymerase
B. (i) Terminator Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA polymerase
C. (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA polymerase

D. (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) DNA polymerase
***
Questions in lieu of diagram based questions for VI candidates
Total Alternative Questions - 20
Section - A
2. During megasporogenesis, potential megaspore mother cell undergoes

following cell divisions to form gametophyte female
A. two meiotic divisions and three mitotic division
B. one meiotic and one mitotic divisions
C. one meiotic and three mitotic divisions

D. one meiotic and two mitotic divisions
5. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from:
A. diploid Egg
B. synergids
C. nucellus
D. antipodal cells
7. Choose the correct option wherein, the correct stages of the development of
human embryo takes place.
10. On observing the pollen grain under the microscope, it was found to be
long and ribbon shaped. The flower bearing these pollen grain will be
pollinated by:
A. Insects
B. Water
C. Air
D. Birds
23. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement for a t

RNA molecule? i. It is an adapter molecule
ii. Previously called as sRNA (soluble RNA)
iii. tRNA has a codon loop that has bases complementary to the code,
iv. It also has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to
amino acids. v. It is non-specific for each amino acid.
A. i , ii and iii
B. ii, iii and iv
C. i, ii, and iv
D. i, iv and v
Section - B
29. Which of the following is not a function of placenta?
A. secretes relaxin
B. facilitates removed of Co2 and waste products

C. secretes oxytocin
D. supplies oxygen and nutrients
39. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement with regard to pedigree
analysis?
A. It verifies that DNA is the carrier of genetic information.

B. It helps to understand whether the trait depicted in the chart is dominant
or recessive. C. It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome.
D. It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait.
44. In order to form a dinucleotide during DNA synthesis which functional

group at 3' must be free?
A. Methyl group
B. Phosphate group
C. Carboxylic acid
D. Hydroxyl
48.. The DNA fingerprinting pattern of child is
A. Exactly similar to that of both the parents
B. 100% similar to the father’s DNA print

C. 100% similar to the mother’s DNA print
D. 50% bands similar to father and rest similar to mother
Section – C
Case A biology student after studying about the different levels of hormones during
the menstrual cycle was comparing 2 subjects (Patients). A table was created
after looking at the levels of hormones A and B for Subject 1 and 2. Read the
information in the table and answer the questions that follow (Q49 to 54):
49. The peak observed in Subject 1 and 2 is due to
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Luteinizing Hormone
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
50. The Subject 2 has higher level of hormone B, which is
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Luteinizing Hormone
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
51. If the peak of Hormone A does not appear in the study for Subject 1, which of
the following statement is true
A. Peak of Hormone B will be observed at a higher point in the graph
B. Peak of Hormone B will be observed at a point lower than what is given

in the graph C. There will be no observed data for Hormone B
D. The Hormone B will show a sharp rise followed by a plateau
52. Which structure in the ovary will remain functional in subject 2?
A. Corpus Luteum
B. Tertiary follicle
C. Graafian follicle
D. Primary follicle
53. For subject 2 it is observed that the peak for hormone B has reached the plateau
stage. After approximately how much time will the curve for hormone B descend?
A. 28 days
B. 42 days
C. 180 days
D. 280 days
54. Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
A. Subject 1 is pregnant
B. Subject 2 is pregnant
C. Subject 1 and 2 both are pregnant
D. Subject 1 and 2 both are not pregnant
56. Domestic wheat, which has 42 chromosomes, is probably hexaploid (6n),

whereas the haploid number in the ancestral ones was 7. Find out the right
reason as to how such plants are produced?
A. Due to failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle
B. Due to the gain of extra copy of chromosome
C. Due to failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division
D. Due to the loss of extra copy of chromosome

57. The following are results of crossing a female fly (AaBb) with a
male fly (aabb). AaBb 1005
aabb 1000
Aabb 200
aaBb 210
Which two genotypes are the recombinant offspring?
A. AaBb & Aabb
B. AaBb & aaBb
C. Aabb & aaBb
D. AaBb & aabb
58. On the ribosome, mRNA binds ____________ and two sites in the ________ for
subsequent amino acids to bind to be close enough to each other for the formation
of a peptide bond.
A. between the subunits; on the large subunit.
B. to the large subunit; on the small subunit.
C. to the small subunit; on the large subunit.
D. to the small subunit; between the subunits.
59. The main reason for the presence of both a leading and a lagging strand
during DNA replication is,
A. DNA polymerase can read and synthesize only in the direction
of 3'-to-5'
B. DNA polymerase can only synthesize one strand at a time
C. Only one strand is available to be read at any given time
D. There are not enough RNA primers to have both strands be synthesized
simultaneously
60. In a cell, DNA transcription is halted when

A. RNA polymerase falls off of the DNA.
B. The end of the DNA is reached.
C. When a rho site is reached.
D. When a stop codon is reached.
***

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CLASS XII

केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन, एनााकुलम क्षेत्र

MRS. DEEPTI NAIR MR. SANTHOSH KUMAR N MR. VIJAYAN T

F.31/Acad/KVS(EKM) Dated: 01.11.2021

Wish you all the best

Chapter-2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Chapter-3: Human Reproduction

Chapter-4: Reproductive Health

Unit-VII Genetics and Evolution

Chapter-5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Unit-VIII Biology and Human Welfare

Chapter-8: Human Health and Diseases

Unit-IX Biotechnology and itS Applications

Chapter-12: Biotechnology and its Application

Practicals should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes.

1. Prepare a temporary mount of onion root tip to study mitosis.

B. Study/observation of the following (Spotting)

B.6 Common disease - causing organisms like Ascaris, Entamoeba,

6 Human Health and Diseases 7 October

7 Microbes in Human Welfare 6 October

8 Biotechnology - Principles and 11 November

10 Organisms and Populations 5 January

11 Biodiversity and its Conservation 4 January

Stamen is the male reproductive unit of angiosperm.

Microsporangium contains of following features in a transverse section:

4 Microspore tetrad(n) Mitosis

Pollen grains (n)

Vegetative cell Generative cell

Mature pollen grain comprises two layers.

A mature pollen grain contains two cells.

A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule

Megasporogenesis is the process of formation of megaspores from the Megaspore Mother

Megaspore mother cell (2n) Meiosis

4 Megaspores (n) (Megaspore tetrad)

3 Megaspore degenerate.1 remains functional

Functional megaspore (n) Nucleus divide 3 times by mitosis

8 Nucleated embryo sac formed

2 polar nuclei at centre

the egg cell(n) 2 synergids(n)

Ref fig 2.7 & 2.8 of textbook

Autogamy (Same flower)

Chasmogamous flower: Open flower with exposed anther and stigma

Oxalis, Commelina and Viola produce both Chasmogamous Cleistogamous flowers

2.Anther and stigma at different positions

1 Fusion of one male gamete with egg (Syngamy)

Refer fig:2.13 NCERT

Dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons

Parthenocarpic fruit develops without fertilisation Eg: banana

Mature ovule becomes seed.

Seeds are of two types

i) Albuminous (endosperm present as in wheat, rice maize etc)

ii) Non albuminous (endosperm absent as in pea and groundnut)

Special mechanism of reproduction

Apomixis: Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

A. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

8. Observe the diagram and find the wrong option

A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Read the passage and answer the questions