Question Bank

SCIENCE/X/QUESTION BANK/2022-23
CHAPTER 1.
CHEMICAL REACTIONS ANS EQUATIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Q.1. Some crystals of copper sulphate were dissolved in water. The color of the solution obtained
would be:
(a) Green (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Brown
Q.2. When Zinc pieces are added to dilute HCl taken in a test tube, then:
(a) No change takes place
(b) The colour of the solution becomes yellow.
(c) A pungent smelling gas gets liberated
(d) Small bubbles of H2 gas appear on the surface of zinc pieces
Q.3. PbS reacts with ozone (O3) and forms PbSO4. As per the balanced equation, molecules of ozone
required for every one molecule of PbS is/are:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
Q.4. Chemically rust is:
(a) Hydrated ferrous oxide (b) Hydrated ferric oxide
(c) Only ferric oxide (d) None of these
Q.5. In the reaction:
PbO + C Pb + CO
(a) PbO is oxidised (b) C acts as an oxidising agent
(c) Carbon acts as a reduction agent (d) Reaction does not represent redox reaction.
Q.6. A substance which oxidizes itself and reduces other is known as:
SCIENCE/X/QUESTION BANK/2022-23 4
(a) Oxidising agent (b) Reducing agent
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these.
Q.7. The reaction between lead nitrate and potassium iodide present in aqueous solution is an
example of
(a) Decomposition Reaction (b) Displacement Reaction
(c) Double Displacement Reaction (d) Neutralisation Reaction
Q.8. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filling? Tick the correct answer
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
(c) No reaction takes place
(d) Iron salt and water are produced
Q.9. A student adds lead and silver to two different test tubes containing an equal amount of Copper
Sulphate solution. The student observes that the color of the solution in the test tube with lead
changes. What explains the change in the color of the solution?
(a) A displacement reaction takes place as lead replaces copper from the solution.
(b) A combination reaction takes place as lead combines with sulphate in the solution.
(c) Decomposition reaction takes place as copper dissociates from sulphate in the solution.
(d) A double displacement reaction takes place as copper dissociates from sulphate and lead
combines with sulphate in the solution.
Q. 10. In an electrolytic cell where electrolysis is carried, cathode has:
(a) Positive change (b) Negative charge
(c) Connected to negative terminal of the battery (d) None of these is correct.
Q.11. In the decomposition of lead (II) nitrate to give lead (II) oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen gas,
the coefficient of nitrogen dioxide (in the balanced equation) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Q.12. Which of the following is not a balanced equation?
(a) Fe + Cl2 FeCl3 (b) Mg + CuSO4 MgSO4 +Cu
(c) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O (d) Zn + S ZnS
Q.13. Dissolving sugar is an example of:
(a) Physical change (b) Chemical change
(c) Redox reaction (d) None of these
Q.14. We store silver chloride in dark colored bottles because it is
(a) A white solid (b) Undergoes redox reaction
(c) To avoid action by sunlight (d) None of the above.
Q.15. The reaction H2 + Cl2  2 HCl represents:
(a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) decomposition (d) combination
Q.16. Copper displaces which of the following metals from its salt solution:
(a) ZnSO4 (b) FeSO4 (c) AgNO3 (d) NiSO4
Q.17. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised
(ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Q.18. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead
nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is
not available, which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate?
(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble) (b) Lead acetate
(c) Ammonium nitrate (d) Potassium sulphate
Q.19. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradu¬ally added to the beaker containing acidified
permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disap¬pears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4.
(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMNO4.
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and de-composes in presence of FeSO4. to a colourless

compound
Q.20. In an electric cell where electrolysis is carried out, anode has:
(a) Positive charge (b) Negative charge
(c) Connected to negative terminal of the battery (d) None of these is correct
ASSERTION- REASON QUESTIONS :
DIRECTION: Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully
and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one
that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
Q.1. Assertion: Stannous chloride is a powerful oxidising agent which oxidises mercuric chloride to
mercury.
Reason: Stannous chloride gives grey precipitate with mercuric chloride, but stannic chloride does
not do so.
Ans : (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
Q. 2. Assertion: Corrosion of iron is commonly known as rusting.
Reason: Corrosion of iron occurs in presence of water and air.
Ans : (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Q. 3. Assertion: In a reaction.
Zn(s) + CuSO4 (aq) ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu(s) Zn is a reductant but itself get oxidized.
Reason: In a redox reaction, oxidant is reduced by accepting electrons and reductant is oxidized
by losing electrons.
Ans: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Q. 4.Assertion: A reducing agent is a substance which can either accept electron.
Reason: A substance which helps in oxidation is known as reducing agent.
Ans : (d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
Q. 5. Assertion: The balancing of chemical equations is based on law of conservation of mass.
Reason: Total mass of reactants is equal to total mass of products.
Ans : (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1. Read the following and answer the questions :
A student was asked to investigate what happens when a piece of shiny magnesium ribbon is added to
copper sulphate solution. The apparatus was set up as shown below. The mass was recorded at the
start and again after one hour.
1.1. Complete the equation:
Mg + CuSO4 →--------- + ---------
(a) MgSO4 + Cu (c) MgS + Cu2O

(b) MgO + Cu (d) Mg SO3 + Cu2O
1.2. Choose from below the name given to this type of reaction:
(a) Combustion (b) Displacement

(c) Corrosion (d) Electrolysis
1.3. Balance the following symbol equation that represents the displacement reaction that takes place
between zinc and silver nitrate solution.
Zn + AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + Ag
(a) Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(b) Zn + 3AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 3Ag
(c) Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + Ag

(d) 2 Zn + AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + Ag
1.4. The experiment was repeated using sodium sulphate solution instead of copper sulphate solution.
No reaction took place. Put the metals copper, magnesium and sodium in order of reactivity.
(a) I. Sodium II Copper III Magnesium
(b) I Magnesium II Copper III Sodium

(c) I. Copper II. Magnesium III. Sodium
(d) I. Sodium II. Magnesium III. Copper
1.5. What will be the mass of the beaker and content after 1 hour?
(a.) More than 80.6 g (b) Equal to 80.6 g
(c) Less than 80.6 g (d) None of the above
Called the reducing agent; when the reaction occurs, it reduces the other species. In other
words, what is oxidized is the reducing agent and what is reduced is the oxidizing agent.
A good example of a redox reaction is the thermite reaction, in which iron atoms in ferric oxide
lose (or give up) O atoms to Al atoms, producing Al2O3.
Fe2O3 (s) +2Al (s)→Al2O3 (s)+2Fe (l)
Redox reactions can occur relatively slowly, as in the formation of rust, or much morerapidly, as in
2.1.
theWhich
case ofofburning
the following is correct
fuel. There code for
are simple X and
redox Y in the following
processes, reaction? of carbon to yield
such as theoxidation
carbon dioxide (CO2BANK/2022-23
SCIENCE/X/QUESTION ) or the reduction of carbon by hydrogen to yield methane (CH 4) ,and more 10
complex processes such as the oxidation of glucose (C6H12O ) In the human body.
2Na(s)+S(s)→2Na2S(s)
(i) x=oxidation reaction, y=reduction reaction

(ii) x=gain of two electrons, y=loss of two electrons,
(iii) x=reduction reaction, y=oxidation reaction
(iv) x=loss of two electrons, y=gain of two electrons
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
2.2. A substance which oxidizes itself and reduces other is known as:
(a) Oxidizing agent
(b) Reducing agent
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
2.3. ‘Thermite is a pyrotechnic composition of metal powder, which serves as fuel, and metal oxide.
When ignited by heat, thermite undergoes a reaction between iron and Aluminum Oxide and
is used in the wielding of railway tracks. The type of reaction is called:
a.) Reduction c.) Redox
b.) Oxidation d.) Decomposition
2.4. “Redox reactions can occur relatively slowly, as in the formation of rust, or much more
rapidly, as in the case of burning fuel”
Rusting and combustion are quite different. Which of the following lines is not the correct
explanation for this?
(a) Rusting occurs at the surface of iron to form a layer of rust.
(b) Rusting gives out lots of heat and light.

(c) Rusting is an example of slow oxidation.
(d) It can be hampered by applying paint.
2.5 . Reduction can be defined as:
(a) Gain of electrons
(b) Gain of Oxygen
(c) Loss of Hydrogen
(d) Loss of electrons
Oxidation is the process of gaining of oxygen, or losing of hydrogen. Reduction is the process of
losing of oxygen or gaining of hydrogen. The substance which undergoes oxidation is the reducing
agent while the substance which undergoes reduction is known as the oxidising agent. Oxidation
and reduction always take place together and these types of reactions are known as redox
reactions. Some of the examples of redox reactions are given below:
3.1. Give two examples of oxidation reaction from your everyday life.
3.2. Write the oxidising agent in the reaction III and VI.
3.3. Which of the following is an oxidising agent?
(a) LiAlH4 (b) Alkaline KMnO4
(c) Acidified K2Cr2O7 (d) Both (b) and (c)
3.4. Out of oxidation and reduction, which reaction takes place at anode?
3.5. Which substance undergoes reduction?
A chemical reaction is a representation of chemical change in terms of symbols and formulae of

reactants and products. There are various types of chemical reactions like combination,
decomposition, displacement, double displacement, oxidation and reduction reactions. Reactions in
which heat is released along with the formation of products are called exothermic chemical
reactions. All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.
4.1. The chemical reaction in which a single substance breaks down into two or more simpler
substances upon heating is known as
(a) thermal decomposition reaction
(b) photo decomposition reaction
(c) electric decomposition reaction
(d) both (a) and (c)
4.2 The massive force that pushes the rocket forward through space is generated due to the
(a) combination reaction (b) decomposition reaction
(c) displacement reaction (d) double displacement reaction
4.3. A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and yellow residue is left behind. The
yellow residue left is of
(a) lead nitrate (b) nitrogen oxide
(c) lead oxide (d) oxygen gas
4.4 Which of the following reactions represents a combination reaction?
(a) CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
(b) CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2(g)
(c) Zn(s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)
(d) 2FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3 (s) +SO2(g) + SO3(g)
4.5. Complete the following statements by choosing correct type of reaction for X and Y.
Statement 1: The heating of lead nitrate is an example of ‘X’ reaction.
Statement 2: The burning of magnesium is an example of ‘Y’ reaction.
(a) X- Combination, Y- Decomposition
(b) X- Decomposition, Y-Combination
(c) X- Combination, Y-Displacement
(d) X- Displacement, Y-Decomposition
Chemical equation is a method of representing a chemical reaction with the help of symbols and
formulae of the substances involved in it. In a chemical equation, the substances which combine
or react are called reactants and new substances produced are called products. A chemical
equation is a short hand method of representing a chemical reaction. A balanced chemical
equation has equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants and products side. An
unbalanced chemical equation has unequal number of atoms of one or more elements in
reactants and products. Formulae of elements and compounds are not changed to balance an
equation.
5.1. Consider the following reaction:
pMg3N2 + qH2O ⇾ rMg(OH)2 + sNH3
When the equation is balanced, the coefficients p, q, r, s respectively is
(a) 1,3,3,2 (c) 1,6,3,2
(b) 1,2,3,2 (d) 2,3,6, 2
5.2. Which of the following information is not conveyed by a balanced chemical equation?
(a) Physical states of reactants and products
(b) Symbols and formulae of all the substances involved in a particular reaction
(c) Number of atoms/molecules of the reactants and products formed
(d) Whether a particular reaction is actually feasible or not
5.3. The balancing of chemical equations is in accordance with
(a) Law of combining volumes (b) Law of constant proportions
(c) Law of conservation of mass (d) Both (b) and (c)
5.4. Which of the following chemical equations is an unbalanced one?
(a)2NaHCO3⟶Na2CO3+H2O+CO2
(b)2C4H10+12O2⟶8CO2+10H2O
(c) 2Al+6H2O⟶2Al(OH)3+3H2
(d) 4NH3+5O2⟶4NO+6H2O
5.5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) A chemical equation tells us about the substances involved in a reaction.
(b) A chemical equation informs us about the symbols and formulae of the substances involved in a
reaction.
(c) A chemical equation tells us about the atoms or molecules of the reactants and products
involved in a reaction.
(d) All the above.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
Q.1. What is a redox reaction?
Ans: A redox reaction can be defined as a chemical reaction in which electrons are transferred
between two reactants participating in it.
Q.2. Why is photosynthesis considered as an endothermic reaction?
Ans: Photosynthesis is considered an endothermic reaction, because during the process of

photosynthesis, energy from the sun or sunlight is being absorbed.
Q.3. In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of the
other electrode?
Ans: The amount of H is double than that of O. The two electrodes collect H2 and O2 separately,
therefore, the volume of gas collected in one electrode is double the volume of gas collected in
the other electrode.
Q.4. What happens when water is added to solid calcium oxide taken in a container? Write a chemical
formula for the same.
Ans: When calcium oxide is added to water it forms calcium hydroxide Called slaked lime.
CaO +H2O →Ca(OH)2 The reaction between water and CaO is an exothermic reaction.
Q.5. Name the compound used for testing CO2 gas.
Ans: Calcium hydroxide solution (freshly prepared), also called lime water, is used to test CO2 gas.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
Q.1 Identify the type of chemical reaction
(i) AB+C
(ii) AB+CDAD+CB
Ans. (i) Decomposition reaction
(ii) Double displacement reaction
Q.2. Why does not silver evolve hydrogen on reacting with dil. H2SO4?
Ans. Silver do not evolve hydrogen on reacting with dil. H2SO4 as silver is less reactive metal than
hydrogen.
Q.3 . Why a combustion reaction an oxidation reaction?
Ans. Combustion reaction because it is always carried out in the presence of air or oxygen for
e.g. CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)  Co2 (g) +2H2O (l)
Q.4. A student took 2-3 g of a substance X in a glass beaker & poured water over it slowly. He observed
bubbles along with hissing noise. The beaker becomes quite hot. Identify X. What type of
reaction is it?
Ans. X = Calcium oxide (Quick lime), Combination reaction.
Q.5 Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Ans. Magnesium ribbon is cleaned before burning to remove the protective layer of basic magnesium
Oxide from the surface of magnesium ribbon.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The
evolved gas was then passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime
water? Write balanced chemical equation for both the change observed?
Ans: When marble (CaCO3 )reacts with dil. HCl, CO2 gas evolved
CaCO3 (s) +2HCl (aq) CaCl2 (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)
When this gas is evolved and is passed through lime water, becomes milky due to the formation of
insoluble Calcium carbonate.
Ca (OH) 2 + CO2 (g) CaCO3 (s) +H2O (l)
But when milkiness disappears i.e. when CO2 gas is passed in excess through CaCO3 (s)
CaCO3 (s) + CO2 (g) +H2O (l)Ca (HCO3)2 (aq.)
Q.2. An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to form Yellow ppt of
compound Q which is used in photography. Q on exposure to sunlight undergoes decomposition
reaction to form metal present in P along with reddish brown gas. Identify P &Q. Write the
chemical reaction & type of chemical reaction and define it?
Ans: P = Ag NO3 Q= AgBr 2AgBr 2Ag+Br2
Photochemical decomposition.
The decomposition reaction that occurs in the presence of light is photochemical reaction.
Q.3. What happens to lime water when CO2 gas is bubbled through it in excess?
Ans: When CO2 gas is bubbled through lime water in excess then initially it becomes milky but after
some time its milkiness disappears. This is because initially calcium carbonate is formed which
causes the lime water to turn milky and when further CO2 is passed calcium bicarbonate is
formed which turns the solution colorless.
Q.4. A substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a reddish-brown metal Y,
the colour of the solution gets discharged. Identify X and Y & also the type of reaction.
Ans: Here, a substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a reddish-brown
metal Y , the colour of the solution gets discharged. Therefore, X is Iron ( Fe ) Y is Copper ( Cu ).
Also, it is a type of a displacement reaction.
Q.5. A compound ‘X’ is used for drinking, has pH =7. Its acidified solution undergoes decomposition in
presence of electricity to produce gases ‘Y ’and ‘Z ’. The volume of Y is double than Z. Y is highly
combustible whereas Z is supporter of combustion. Identify X, Y & Z and write the chemical
reactions involved.
Ans: In the given situation, X= H2O, 2Y =H2 and Z=O2.
The chemical reaction involved is:
2H2O2H2+O2
ANSWER KEY
MCQ
Q1.C Q2.D Q3.A Q4,B Q5.C
Q6.B Q7.C Q8.A Q9.B Q10.A
Q11.D Q12.A Q13.A Q14.C Q15.D
Q16.C Q17.C Q18.B Q19.A Q20.A
ASSERTION AND REASONING
Q1.C Q2.B Q3.A Q4.D Q5.A
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1.1. A 1.2.B 1.3. A 1.4. D 1.5. B
2.1.B 2.2.B 2.3.C 2.4.B 2.5.A
3.1 corrosion & 3.2 CuSO4 in (III) 3.3 D 3.4 oxidation 3.5 oxidizing
rancidity & CuO in(VI) agent
4.1 A 4.2 B 4.3 C 4.4 A 4.5 B
5.1 B 5.2 D 5.3 C 5.4 B 5.5 D
CHAPTER 2
ACID, BASE AND SALTS

MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The colour of phenolphthalein in acidic medium is-

(a) Yellow
(b) Pink
(c) Colourless
(d) Blue
2. The gas which burns with a pop sound –
(a) H2
(b) CO2
(c) O2
(d) CH4
3. Milkiness of limewater disappear when excess CO2 is passed due to the formation of-
(a) Calcium hydroxide
(b) Calcium chloride
(c) Calcium bicarbonate
(d) Calcium carbonate
4. The acid present in tomato is-
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Oxalic acid
(c) Tartaric acid
(d) Methanoic acid
5. The common name for the substance used as antacid-
(a) Washing soda
(b) Plaster of Paris
(c) Bleaching powder
(d) Baking soda
6. Calcium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid to form X, Y ,Z. What areX, Y, Z ?
(a) X:Ca(OH)2,Y:H2O,Z:CO2
(b)X:CaCl2,Y:H2O, Z:CO2
(c) X:Ca(OH)2,Y:H2O,Z:H2
(d)X:CaCl2,Y:H2O,Z:H2
7. When you clean a metal vessel with tamarind the reaction taking place is:
Metaloxide+X-------- Salt+Water. What is X here?
(a) Acid
(b)Base
(c) Hydrogen
(d)Carbon dioxide
8. Brine is an
(a) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(b) aqueous solution of sodium carbonate
(c) aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(d) aqueous solution of sodium bicarbonate
9. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of a
(a) strong acid and strong base
(b) weak acid and weak base
(c) strong acid and weak base
(d) weak acid and strong base
10. Nettle sting is a natural source of which acid?
(a) Methanoic acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Tartaric acid
11. Tooth enamel is made up of
(a) calcium phosphate
(b) calcium carbonate
(c) calcium oxide

(d) potassium
12. Rain is called acid rain when its:
(a) pH falls below 7
(b) pH falls below 6
(c) pH falls below 5.6
(d) pH is above 7
13. Farmers neutralize the effect of Acidity on soil by adding
(a) Slaked Lime
(b) Gypsum
(c) Caustic Soda
(d) Baking Soda
14. In which pH range does our body work to survive in the atmosphere?
(a) 5.5 to 8.5
(b) 7.0 to 7.8
(c) 2.3 to 7.0
(d) 7.5 to 12.5
15. The pH of a solution is 7. How can you increase its pH?
(a) By adding a small amount of acid
(b) By adding a small amount of base.
(c) By adding a small amount of salt.
(d) By passing carbon dioxide gas through it.
16. Which gas is evolved when acids react with metals?

(a) O2
(b) CO2
(c) H2
(d) N2
17. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acidic strength?
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid

(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
18. One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogen carbonate, the other constituent is
(a) hydrochloric acid
(b) tartaric acid
(c) acetic acid
(d) sulphuric acid
19. The pH of three solutions X, Y and Z is 6, 4 and 8 respectively. Which of the following is the correct
order of acidic strength?
(a) X > Y > Z
(b) Z > Y > X
(c) Y > X > Z
(d) Z > X > Y
20. What is gastric acid present in the stomach composed of?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Lactic acid
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.1. Assertion (A) : The acid must be added to water with constant stirring.
Reason(R) : Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions per unit volume.
Q.2. Assertion(A): Copper sulphate crystals are wet because it contains water of crystallization.
Reason(R): Water of crystallization is the fixed number of molecules of water present in one
formula unit of salt.
Q.3. Assertion(A): The aqueous solution of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.
Reason(R ): Aqueous solution of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions .
Q.4. Assertion(A): Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason(R ): The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the the concentration of H + ions in it.
Q.5. Assertion(A): Weak acids have low electrical conductivity.
Reason(R ): Strong acids and weak acids have equal concentration of H+ ions in their solutions.
There are many substances which are used to detect the solutions as acidic or basic. They
are called Acid-Base indicators. Depending upon the property of the indicator, we have
different groups of Acid-Base indicators. Some indicators show different colors in acidic or
basic medium and some indicators give different odors in acidic and basic medium. These
indicators are either extracted from the plants or synthesized in the laboratory or industry.
1.1. Which of the following will turn red litmus blue?
A.) Amla juice C.) Soft drink

B.) lemon juice D.) Baking soda
1.2. A solution turns blue litmus red, the pH of the solution is likely to be
A.) 6 C.) 8
B.) 7 D.) 9
1.3. Which one of the following can be used as an acid-base indicator by visually impaired
student?
A.) Turmeric C.) Vanilla
B.) Hibiscus D.) Litmus
1.4. Select the incorrect option.
Indicator Colour in acidic medium Colour in basic

medium
A.) Litmus(Purple) Red Blue
B) Phenolphthalein(Colorless) Pink Colorless
C.)Red cabbage extract (Purple) Red Green
D.) Methyl orange (Orange) Red Yellow
1.5. Which of the following are olfactory indicators?
A.) Onion Extract C.) Clove Oil
B.) Vanilla Extract D.) All are correct

Taj mahal, the seventh wonder of the world, is made of white stone. This white stone
contains the same substance ‘A’ that is present in chalk powder and lime-stone. It is turning
yellow due to polluted air. If it is cleaned by an acidic cleaner, a gas ‘B’ is released, which
when passed through a solution ‘C’, forms the same substance which is present in the white
stone that was used to make Taj mahal.
2.1. The substance A is-
A.) Ca3CO2 C.) Ca(OH)2
B.) CaCO3 D.) CaSO4
2.2. Gas B is-

A..) Hydrogen C.) Chlorine
B.) Nitrogen D.) Carbon di oxide
2.3. Solution C is-
A.) CaCl2 C.) Ca(OH)2
B.) B. CaCO3 D.) CaSO4
2.4. What is the nature of the substance A?
A.) Acidic C.) Neutral
B.) Basic D.) None
2.5. The polluted air around Taj mahal leads to the following problem because of which it is getting
Marble cancer:
A.) Global Warming C.) Green House Effect
B.) Acid Rain D.) All are correct

A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, called pH scale has been
developed. The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. On the pH scale we can
measure pH from 0 to 14. pH should be thought of simply as a number which indicates the acidic
or basic nature of a solution. Higher the hydronium ion concentration, lower is the Ph value.
3.1. Which one of the following will have the highest hydrogen ion concentration?
A.) pH=1.1 C.) pH =3.3
B.) pH = 2.2 D.) pH =4.4

3.2. How is the hydrogen ion concentration and pH related to each other?
A.) They are inversely proportional.
B.) They are directly proportional.
C.) They are equal.
D.) They have no relation.
3.3. A basic solution could have a pH of-
A.)3 C.) 7
B.) 5 D.) 9
3.4. The table provides the pH of four solutions P, Q, R and S:
Solution pH value
P 2
Q 9
R 5
S 11
Which of the following correctly represents the solutions in increasing order of their
hydronium ion concentration?
A.) P> Q>R >S

B.) P>S >Q >R
C.) S<Q <R <P
D.) S< P < Q<R
3.5. If the pH of any solution is 13, then the color obtained on adding universal indicator to it will
be:
A.) Red C.) Green
B.) Orange D.) Purple
The Ph value of any solution is a number which simply represents the acidity and basicity of that
solution. The pH value of any solution is numerically equal to the logarithm of the inverse of the
hydrogen ion(H+) concentration.
4.1. The pH value for distilled water would be:
A.)5 C.)7
B.) 6 D.)10
4.2. Using above picture can you predict the colour of Ph paper when dipped in limejuice:
A.)Dark Red C.) Green
B.) Light Orange D.) Blue

4.3. The nature of toothpaste is:
A.)Neutral C.) Basic
B.) Acidic D.) Can be acidic or basic
4.4. If a solution gives dark blue color and water is added to it, its color will become:
A.)Dark blue C.) Light blue to green
B.) Red D.) Purple
4.5. Universal indicator strip gives green colur when put in our mouth before eating food. This
indicates that:
A.) The pH of saliva is basic in nature
B.) The pH of saliva is near neutral
C.) Saliva is acidic in nature
D.) All are in correct

Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a
salt. Water of crystallization or water(s) of hydration are water molecules that are present inside
crystals. Water is often incorporated in the formation of crystals from aqueous solutions. A salt
with associated water of crystallization is known as a hydrate.
5.1. Which of the following salt does not contain water of crystallisation?
A.) Blue Vitriol C.) Washing soda
B.) Baking Soda D.) Gypsum
5.2. The temperature at which Gypsum (CaSO4. 2H2O) into Plaster of Paris (CaSO4.1/2 H2O
A.) 373K C.)374K
B.) 273K D.)430K
5.3. The formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO4. ½ H2O, it is to be noted that half water molecule is
shown to be attached as water of crystallization. This indicates that
A.) Only half water molecule is present in Calcium Sulphate crystal
B.) Two formula units of Calcium Sulphate share one molecule of water.
C.) Two formula units of calcium Sulphate share two molecules of water
D.) Two formula units of Calcium Sulphate share one and a half molecules of water.
5.4. Given below are some chemicals. Select the one that have 7 molecules of water attached in
hydrated form:
A.) Blue vitriol C.) POP
B.) Green Vitriol D.) Washing Soda
5.5. When blue vitriol is heated its color changes from:
A.) White to Blue ` C.) White to Green
B.) Blue to White D.) Blue to Green
Very short answer type questions

Q.1. Name an olfactory indicator?
Ans- Onion
Q.2. The pH of an aqueous solution decreases from 3 to 2. What will happen to the nature of the
solution ?
Ans- The acidic character of the solution will further increases.
Q.3. What is the chemical name and chemical formula of baking soda?
Ans- Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate or Sodium bicarbonate. Its formula is NaHCO3.
Q.4. Which bases are called alkalies? Give an example.
Ans- Water soluble bases are called alkalies. e.g.- NaOH
Q.5. Name the gas evolved when dilute HCl reacts with sodium bi carbonate? How is it recognized?
Ans- The gas evolved is CO2. When it is passed through lime water, it becomes milky.
Short answer type questions.

Q.1. A sample of bleaching powder was kept in an air tight container. After a month, it lost some of its
chlorine content. How will you account for it?
Ans- Bleaching powder if kept even in an air tight container will slowly decompose of its own and form
calcium chlorate and calcium chloride. The reaction is called auto oxidation. This will result in
decrease in its Chlorine contents.
6CaOCl2 -----Ca(ClO3)2 + 5CaCl2

Q.2. An old man complained of acute pain in stomach. Doctor gave him a small antacid tablet and he
got immediate relief. What actually happened?
Ans- The old man was suffering from acute acidity. Antacid tablet contains NaHCO3. It reacts with the
acid HCl formed because of acidity and neutralizes its effect.
Q.3.The oxide of a metal M was water soluble. When a blue litmus trip was dipped in this solution, it
did not undergo any change in color .Predict the nature of the oxide.
Ans- The metal oxide (MO) is of basic in nature. It dissolves in water to from metal hydroxide as follow.
MO + H2O-----M(OH)2
A blue litmus does not undergo any change in color in the basic medium.
Q.4. A doctor applied surgical bandages on the fractured bones of a patient after making it wet. What
changes are likely to occur?
Ans-Surgical bandages are made from plaster of Paris. When applied on the fractured bones after
making them wet , it changes into a hard mass called Gypsum.
CaSO4.1/2 H2O + 3/2 H2O------- CaSO4.2H2O
Q.5. Fresh milk has pH of 6. When it changes to curd, will its pH value increase or decrease? Why?
Ans- When fresh milk changes to curd, the pH of the solution is likely to decrease. Actually, lactose
present in milk gets converted to lactic acid when curd is formed from milk. Therefore, the
medium becomes more acidic and its pH decreases.
Long answer type questions
Q.1. What will you observe when-
(i) Red litmus paper introduced into a solution of sodium carbonate.
(ii) A methyl orange drop is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
(iii) A drop of phenolphthalein is added to the solution of lime water.
(iv) Blue litmus is introduced into a solution of Ferric chloride.
Ans- (i) The color of litmus paper will change to blue. Sodium carbonate dissolves in to water to form
NaOH and Carbonic acid H2CO3. The solution is basic in nature since NaOH is a strong base and
carbonic acid is a weak acid.
Na2CO3 + H2O ------- 2 NaOH + H2CO3
(ii) In the acidic solution, the color of methyl orange will change to reddish.
(iii) Lime water contains traces of Calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2 . It is therefore basic in nature. The
colour of phenolphthalein will become pink.
(iv) Ferric chloride solution on reaction with water will form ferric hydroxide and HCl. Since the
acid is strong, the solution will be acidic. Therefore the color of blue litmus will change to
red.
FeCl3 + H2O ----------Fe(OH)3+ 3HCl
Q.2. (a) Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
(b) How does the concentration of hydrogen ion changes the solution of an acid is diluted with
water?
(c ) Which has a higher pH value ; a concentrated or dilute HCl?
(d) What would you observe on adding dilute HCl to
(i) Sodium bicarbonate placed in a test tube.
(ii) Zinc metal in a test tube.
Ans- (a) An aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity because in water an acid dissociates to give
ions. Since current is carried by the movements of ions, a.q. solution of acid conduct
electricity.
(b) Upon dilution, more of acid dissociates into ions Therefore concentration of hydrogen ion
increases.
(c ) Although more H+ ions are formed upon dilution , but the number of ions per unit volume
decrease. Therefore, pH will increase upon dilution.
(d) (i) CO2 gas would evolve accompanied by brisk effervescences.
NaHCO3 +HCl ------NaCl + CO2 + H2O
(ii) Hydrogen gas would evolve accompanied by brisk effervescences.
Zn + 2HCl --- ZnCl2 + H2
Q.3. Explain why:
(i) Common salt becomes sticky during the rainy season
(ii) Blue vitriol changes to white upon heating.
(iii) If bottle full of Conc. Sulphuric acid is left open in the atmosphere by accident, the acid
starts flowing out of the bottle of its own.
Ans- (i) Common salt contains the impurity of MgCl2 which is of deliquescent in nature. When exposed
to atmosphere, it becomes moist. Therefore common salt becomes sticky during the rainy
season.
(ii) Blue vitriol (CuSO4.5H2O) upon heating changes to anhydrous copper sulphate which is white
in color.
(iii) Concentrated Sulphuric acid is highly hygroscopic. It absorbs moisture from air and gets
diluted. Since the volume increases, the acid starts flowing out of the bottle.
Q.4. (a) What is the action of red litmus on (i) dry ammonia gas (ii) solution of Ammonia gas.
(b) State the observation you would make on adding ammonium hydroxide to aqueous solution
of (i) Ferrous Sulphate (ii) Aluminium Chloride.
Ans- (a) (i) Red litmus has no action on dry ammonia because it does not has hydroxyl ion.
(ii) When interact with ammonia solution it turns in blue as the solution has hydroxyl ion.
(b) (i) A green ppt of ferrous hydroxide will be formed
FeSO4 + 2 NH4OH -----Fe(OH)2 + (NH4)2SO4
(ii) A white ppt is formed
AlCl3 + 3 NH4OH --- Al(OH)3 + 3 NH4Cl
Q.5. (a) Name the raw materials used in the manufacture of Sodium carbonate in Solvay process?
(b) How is sodium bi carbonate formed during Solvay process separated from a mixture of
NH4Cl and NaHCO3?
(c)How is sodium carbonate obtained from Sodium bi Carbonate?
Ans-(a) The raw materials used are: NaCl, Lime stone or CaCO3 and NH3
(b) NaHCO3 is sparingly soluble or less soluble in water and gets separated as a precipitate while
NH4Cl remains in solution. The filtrate is removed by filtration.
(c ) NaHCO3 is converted to sodium carbonate upon heating.
2NaHCO3 ---- Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
ANSWER KEYS
Q1.C Q2.A Q3.C Q4.B Q5.D
Q6.B Q7.A Q8.C Q9.D Q10.A
Q11.A Q12.C Q13.A Q14.B Q15.B
Q16.C Q17.A Q18.B Q19.C Q20.A
ASSERTION AND REASONING

Q1.B Q2.D Q3.A Q4.B Q5.C

1.1 D 1.2 A 1.3 C 1.4 B 1.5
2.1. B 2.2. D 2.3. C 2.4. B 2.5.B
3.1. A 3.2.B 3.3D 3.4.C 3.5.D
4.1.C 4.2.B 4.3C 4.4C 4.5A
5.1B 5.2A 5.3B 5.4B 5.5B
CHAPTER 3
Metals and Non metals
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium
are responsible for the same?
(i) Good thermal conductivity
(ii) Good electrical conductivity
(iii) Ductility
(iv) High melting point
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
Q.2. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is

(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium
Q.3. The poorest conductor of heat among metals is

(a) Lead (b) Mercury (c) Calcium (d) Sodium
Q.4. Which property of metals is used for making bells and strings of musical instruments like Sitar
and Violin?
(a) Sonorousness
(b) Malleability
(c) Ductility
(d) Conductivity
Q.5. Al2O3 + 2NaOH → …… + H2O

(a) Al(OH)3 (b) Na2O (c) NaAlO2 (d) AlNaO2
Q.6. Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the given metals in ascending order of
their reactivity?
Zinc, Iron, Magnesium, Sodium
(a) Zinc > Iron > Magnesium > Sodium
(b) Sodium > Magnesium > Iron > Zinc
(c) Sodium > Zinc > Magnesium > Iron
(d) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron
Q.7. Which of the following pairs will give dis-placement reactions?

(a) FeSO4 solution and Copper metal
(b) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal
(c) CuSO4 solution and Silver metal
(d) NaCl solution and Copper metal
Q.8. Non-metals form covalent chlorides because

(a) they can give electrons to chlorine
(b) they can share electrons with chlorine
(c) they can give electrons to chlorine atoms to form chloride ions
(d) they cannot share electrons with chlorine atoms
Q.9. Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with
steam?
(a) FeO (b) Fe2O3 (c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe2O3 and Fe2O4
Q. 10. Which of the following are not ionic compounds?

(i) KCl (ii) HCl (iii) CCl4 (iv) NaCl
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Q.11. The electronic configuration of three elements X, Y and Z are as follows: X = 2, 4 Y = 2, 7

Z = 2,1 Which two elements will combine to form an ionic compound and write the correct
formula,
(a) X2Y (b) ZY (c) XZ3 (d) Y2Z
Q.12 Which of the following non-metal is lustrous?

(a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen (c) Nitrogen (d) Iodine
Q.13.The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 12. Which inert gas is nearest to X?
(a) He (b) Ar (c) Ne (d) Kr
Q.14. Example of an amphoteric oxide is:

(a) Na2O (b) K2O (c) Al2O3 (d) MgO
Q. 15. Which one among the following is an acidic oxide?

(a) Na2O (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) Al2O3
Q.16.Composition of aqua-regia by volume is :

(a) Dil HCl (3) : Cone HNO3 (1)
(b) Cone HCl (3) : Dil HNO3 (1)
(c) Cone HCl (3) : Cone HNO3 (1)
(d) Dil HC1 (3) : Dil HNO3
Q.17. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
(a) Gallium (b) Aluminium (c) Zinc (d) Silver
Q. 18.An element X is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept
open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following
(a) Mg (b) Na (c) P (d) Ca
Q.19.Reaction between X and Y forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of
the following properties is not shown by Z?
(a) Has high melting point
(b) Has low melting point
(c) Conducts electricity in molten state
(d) Occurs as solid
Q.20. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8; Y — 2, 8, 7 and Z — 2,

8, 2. Which of the following is correct?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metal
(c) Z is a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
Q.1. Assertion: Al2O3, is an amphoteric oxide.
Reason: Al2O3 reacts with acid as well as base to form salt and water.
Q.2. Assertion: Nitrogen is a non-metal.

Reason: Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons..
Q.3. Assertion: Copper does not reacts with the H2SO4.

Reason: Copper is more reactive than hydrogen.
Q.4. Assertion: Silver becomes black in colour when exposed to atmosphere.

Reason: Silver reacts with H2S gas to form Ag2S which is black in colour.
Q.5. Assertion: iron is found in the free state in nature.

Reason: iron a highly reactive element.

On the basis of reactivity of different metals with oxygen, water and acids as well as displacement
reactions, the metals have been arranged in the decreasing order of their reactivities. This
arrangement is known as activity series or reactivity series of metals.
The basis of reactivity is the tendency of metals to lose electrons. If a metal can lose electrons
easily to form positive ions, it will react readily with other substances. Therefore, it will be a
reactive metal. On the other hand, if a meal loses electrons less rapidly to form a positive ion, it
will react slowly with other substances. Therefore, such a metal will be less reactive.
1.1. Which of the following metals is less reactive than hydrogen?

(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Magnesium
(d) Lead
1.2. Which of the following elements is not present in stainless steel?

(a) Iron
(b) Chromium
(c) Tungsten
(d) Nickel
1.3. Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen?

(a) Zinc
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(d) Copper
1.4. Which of the following represents the correct order of reactivity for the given metals?
(a) Na > Mg > Al > Cu
(b) Mg > Na > Al > Cu
(c) Na > Mg > Cu > Al
(d) Mg > Al > Na > Cu
1.5. Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because HNO 3, is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises the H, produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen
oxides (N2O, NO, NO2). But _____________ and _____________ react with very dilute HNO3 to
evolve H2 gas.
(a) Pb, Cu
(b) Na, K
(C) Mg, Mn
(d) Al, Zn

Metals as we know, are very useful in all fields, industries in particular. Non-metals are no less in
any way. Oxygen present in air is essential for breathing as well as for combustion. Non-metals
form a large number of compounds which are extremely useful, e.g., ammonia, nitric acid,
sulphuric acid, etc.
Non-metals are found to exist in three states of matter. Only solid non-metals are expected to be
hard however, they have low density and are brittle. They usually have low melting and boiling
points and are poor conductors of electricity.
2.1. ____________ is a non-metal but is lustrous
(a) Phosphorus (b) Sulphur (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
2.2. Which of the following is known as 'King of chemicals'?
(a) Urea (b) Ammonia (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Nitric acid
2.3. Which of the following non-metals is a liquid?
(a) Carbon (b) Bromine (c) Iodine (d) Sulphur
2.4. Hydrogen is used
(a) for the synthesis of ammonia (b) for the synthesis of methyl alcohol
(c) in welding torches (d) all of these
2.5. Generally, non-metals are bad conductors of electricity but 'X'which is a form of carbon is a good
conductor of electricity and is an exceptional non-metal. 'X'is
(a) diamond (b) graphite
(c ) coal (d) coke
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1.Name two metals which catch fire if kept in open air.

Ans: Sodium and Potassium
Q.2.Which of the following metals neither reacts with cold nor with hot water?
Sodium, Magnesium, Zinc, Iron, Calcium
Ans: Zinc and Iron
Q.3. Name two metals which can form hydrides with hydrogen.
Ans: Sodium and Calcium
Q.4. Name the element which shows non-metallic properties but is also present in the activity series
of metals.
Ans: Hydrogen
Q.5. What is rust ? Write its chemical formula.
Ans: Rust is brown, flaky substance. Its chemical formula is Fe2O3.xH2O
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. A non-metal X exists in different forms Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance, whereas Z is a
good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z.
Ans: X –Carbon, Y – Diamond, X – Graphite
Q.2. State reasons for the following:
(i) Electric wires are covered with rubber-like material.
(ii) From dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc can liberate hydrogen gas but copper cannot.
Ansr:(i) It is because rubber is an insulator and does not allow current to flow through it.
(ii) Zinc is is placed above hydrogen in the reactivity series of metals while copper is placed below
it. Metals placed above hydrogen can displace hydrogen from water and acids while those
below it cannot. Therefore, zinc can displace hydrogen from dilute HCl whereas copper cannot.
Q.3. Give the formulae of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by the combination of
the following pairs of elements.
(a) Mg and N2
(b) Li and O2
(c) Al and Cl2
(d) K and O2
Ans:
(a) Mg3N2 (b) Li2O (c) AlCl3 (d) K2O
Q.4. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water, but reacts with
heated steam to produce hydrogen gas.
Ans: Iron
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
Q.5. Complete the chemical equation.
Ans:
Q.1. A metal E is stored under kerosene. When a small piece of it is left open in air, it catches fire.
When the product formed is dissolved in water, it turns red litmus to blue.
(i) Name the metal E.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction when it is exposed to air and when the product
is dissolved in water.
(iii) Explain the process by which the metal E is obtained from its molten chloride.
Ans: (i) The available information suggests that the metal (E) is sodium (Na).
The solution is basic and it turns red litmus blue.

(iii) The metal is obtained by the process of electrolytic reduction.
Q.2. A student has been collecting silver coins and copper coins. One day, she observed a black coating
on silver coins and a green coating on copper coins. Which chemical phenomenon is responsible
for these coatings? Write the chemical name of black and green coatings.
Ans: The name of the phenomenon is corrosion. The chemical name of black coating is silver sulphide
(Ag2S) formed due to attack of H2S gas present in the atmosphere on silver and that of green
coating is basic copper carbonate formed due to attack of moist air (CO 2, O2 and H2O vapours) on
copper.
Q.3. (a) Name the main ore of mercury. How is mercury obtained from its ore?
(b) Give balanced chemical equation.
(c) What is thermite reaction? How is it used to join the railway tracks or cracked machine parts?
(d) Name the method used to extract metals of high reactivity.
Ans: (a) Cinnabar

(b)Mercury is obtained from its ore by roasting.
HgS + O2 → Hg + SO2
(c) When aluminium is heated with Fe2O3 to get molten iron, it is called thermite reaction.
Fe2O3 + 3Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
Molten iron is used to weld broken railway tracks.
(d) Electrolytic reduction
Q.4..Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by reduction process:
(i) Metal X which is low in reactivity series
(ii) Metal Y which is in the middle of the series
Give one example of each type.
Ans: (i) Metals which are low in reactivity series can be obtained by heating their compounds. For
example, mercury is obtained by heating its ore, cinnabar (HgS), in air.
HgS + O2 → Hg + SO2
(ii) Metals which are in the middle of the series are generally obtained by heating their compounds
with some reducing agent such as carbon. For example, iron is obtained from haematite (Fe 2O3)
by reduction with carbon.
2Fe2O3 + 3C → 4Fe + 3CO2
Q.5. Explain the following:

(a) Reactivity of Al decreases if it is dipped in cone. HNO3
(b) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Mg.
(c) NaCl is not a conductor of electricity in solid state whereas it does conduct electricity in
aqueous solution as in molten state
(d) Iron articles are galvanised.
Ans: (a) When Al metal is dipped in cone. HNO3 for sometime, it is oxidised initially to aluminium
oxide (Al2O3). The oxide gets deposited on the surface of the metal and forms a protective
coating on the surface. The metal is said to become passive towards air, acids and alkalies. Its
reactivity therefore, decreases.
(b) Both Na and Mg are more reactive than carbon. Therefore, carbon is not in a position to
reduce the oxides of these metals.
(c) NaCl is an ionic compound. Its electrical conductivity is due to the mobility of Na + and Cl– ions.
These ions cannot move in the solid state. However, they can do so either in molten state of
the salt or when it forms and aqueous solution in water.
(d) Iron has a tendency to get rusted in atmosphere by reacting with oxygen and water vapours
present in air. In order to check rusting, iron articles are generally coated with zinc. This
process is known as galvanization.
ANSWER KEY
1 d 11 b
2 b 12 d
3 a 13 c
4 a 14 c
5 c 15 c
6 d 16 c
7 b 17 c
8 b 18 b
9 c 19 b
10 b 20 d
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS
1. –a 2. –b 3. – c 4. – a 5. --d
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
1. (1.1) –a (1.2) – c (1.3) – c (1.4) – a (1.5) –c
2. (2.1) – d (2.2) –c (2.3) – b (2.4) – d (2.5) --b
CHAPTER -4
Carbon And Its Compound
Q.1. The electronic configuration of an element is found to be 2, 4. How many bonds can one
carbon atom form in a compound?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
Q.2. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valance electrons with four univalent
atoms, e.g hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic
configuration of
(a) helium (b) neon (c) argon (d) krypton
Q.3. The image represents the structure of a few hydrocarbon compounds.
Which of these compounds can be classified as alkynes?
(a) only (A) (b) only (B)
(c) both (A) and (D) (d) both (B) and (C)
Q.4. The image represents a chemical reaction where ethanol is oxidized using potassium
dichromate and sulphuric acid.
Which option represents the product “X”?
(a) CH2O (b) CH3OH (c) CH3H2O (d) CH3COOH
Q.5. The image represents the structure of a carbon compound known as ethane.
Which option explains the naming of ethane?
(a) the presence of functional group connected with a single bond
(b) as it contains two carbon atoms and a single bond connects the carbon atoms
(c) carbon compound with a total number of eight atoms are named as ethane
(d) as it contains six hydrogen atoms and a single bond connects the carbon and hydrogen atom
Q.6. The image represents a carbon compound.
Which functional group is present in the compound?
(a) alcohol (b) aldehyde (c) carboxylic acid (d) ketone
Q.7. A carbon compound contains two atoms of carbon. Which name should the carbon compound
bear?
(a) Butane (b) Ethane (c) Methane (d) Propane
Q.8. The chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine gas to hydrocarbon in the presence of
sunlight.
CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl
How does chlorine react to a hydrocarbon compound in the presence of sunlight?
(a) it adds hydrogen into the compound
(b) it adds an oxygen atom into the compound
(c) it substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound
(d) it breaks double and triple bonds into a single bond
Q.9.Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are-
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) saturated compounds
(c) aliphatic compounds (d) differ from each other by a CH2 group
Q.10. Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes?
C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4
(a) C6H6 (b) C2H6 (c) C2H4 (d) C3H4
Q.11. The gas evolved when ethanol reacts with sodium metal is
(a) H2 (b) CO2 (c) H2O (d) CO
Q.12. While cooking ,if bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that
(a) The food is not cooked properly

(b) The fuel is not burning properly
(c) The fuel is wet
(d) The fuel is burning completely
Q.13. When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol a sweet smelling product is formed . The functional
group present in the product is
(a) Aldehyde
(b) Ketone
(c) Alcohol
(d) Ester
Q.14. Glacial acetic acid is a
(a) Frozen acetic acid

(b) 5-8% of solution of acetic acid in water
(c) Mixture of acetic acid and alcohol
(d) None of these
Q.15. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Vinegar → carboxylic acid

(b) C2H6 → alkane
(c) Ethanol → alcohol
(d) Methanol → ketone
Q.16. The number of structural isomers for alkane with a molecular weight 72 is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c)4
(d) 5
Q.17. The carbon exist in the atmosphere in the form of
(a) Carbon monoxide only

(b) Carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(c) carbon dioxide only
(d) coal
Q.18. The property of carbon atom by virtue of which it forms bond with other carbon atom is called
(a) chemical bonding

(b)polymerization
(c) catenation
(d)carbonization
Q.19. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst forms fats. This
is an example of
(a) addition reaction

(b) substitution reaction
(c) displacement reaction
(d) oxidation reaction
Q.20. The hetero atoms present in CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH2-Cl are
(i)oxygen (ii) carbon
(iii ) hydrogen (iv) chlorine
(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c)(iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best
describes the two statements.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q.1. Assertion(A) : Carbon is the only element that can form large number of compounds.
Reason (R) : Carbon is tetravalent and shows the property of catenation.
Q.2. Assertion(A) : If the first member of a homologous series is methanal, its third member will be
propanal.
Reason (R) : All the members of a homologous series show similar chemical properties.
Q.3. Assertion(A) : Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
Reason (R) : Some elements can have several different structural forms while in the same physical
state. These forms are called allotropes.
Q.4. Assertion(A) : Soaps are not suitable for washing purpose when water is hard.
Reason (R) : Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
Q.5. Assertion(A) : Carbon compounds can form chain, branched and ring structures.
Reason (R) : Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.
Q.6. Assertion (A) : Carbon monoxide is extremely poisonous in nature.

Reason (R) : Carbon monoxide is formed by complete combustion of carbon.

The compounds which have the same molecular formula but differ from each other in physical or
chemical properties are called isomers and the phenomenon is called isomerism. When the
isomerism is due to difference in the arrangement of atoms within the molecule, without any
reference to space, the phenomenon is called structural isomerism. In other words. structural
isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas,
i.e., they are different in the order in which different atoms are linked. In these compounds,
carbon atoms can be linked together in the form of straight chains, branched chains or even
rings.
1.1. Which of the following sets of compounds have same molecular formula?
(a) Butane and iso-butane
(b) Cyclohexane and hexene
(C) Propanal and propanone

(d) All of these
1.2. In order to form branching, an organic compound must have a minimum of carbon atoms
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
1.3. Which of the following is an isomeric pair?

(a) Ethane and propane
(b) Ethane and ethene
(c) Propane and butane
(d) Butane and 2-methylpropane
1.4. Among the following the one having longest chain is

(a) neo-pentane
(b) iso-pentane
(C) 2-methylpentane
(d) 2,2-dimethylbutane
1.5. The number of isomers of pentane is

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Food, clothes, medicines, books, or many of the things are all based on this versatile element
carbon. In addition, all living structures are carbon based. The earth’s crust has only 0.02%
carbon in the form of minerals. The element carbon occurs in different forms in nature with
widely varying physical properties. Both diamond and graphite are formed by carbon atoms, the
difference lies in the manner in which the carbon atoms are bonded to one another. Carbon has
the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large molecules. This
property is called catenation.
2.1. From the given alternatives, whose chemical and physical properties are not same?
(a) Graphite and Diamond
(b) Phosphorous and Sulphur
(c) Carbon and Hydrogen
(d) Methyl alcohol and Acetic acid
2.2. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Graphite is much less dense than diamond
(b) Graphite is black and soft
(c) Graphite has low melting point
(d) Graphite feels smooth and slippery
2.3. Which of the following are isomers?

(a) Butane and isobutene
(b) Ethane and ethene
(c) Propane and propyne
(d) Butane and isobutane
2.4. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?

(a) Soot (b) Graphite (c) Diamond (d) Carborundum
2.5. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has

(a) 5 covalent bonds (b) 12 covalent bonds
(c) 16 covalent bonds (d) 17 covalent bonds
Q .1. Draw the electron dot notation of O2 molecule.

Ans:
Q.2.Identify the functional group present in the following compound:
Ans:-Aldehyde.
Q.3.Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula
CnH2n
Ans:- CnH2n : Alkene , 2nd member = C3H6 (propene)
Q.4. Write the molecular formula of an alkyne containing 10 atoms of hydrogen.

Ans:- C6H10.
Q.5. What is the function of conc. H2SO4 in the formation of ethene from ethanol?
Ans: Dehydrating agent
Q.1.Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling point. Why?

Ans: Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points because the forces of attraction
between molecules of covalent compounds are very weak. On applying a small amount of heat
these molecular forces break.
Q.2. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three
characteristic properties.
Ans: Covalent compounds are those compounds which are formed by sharing of valence electrons
between the atoms e.g., hydrogen molecule is formed by mutual sharing of electrons between
two hydrogen atoms.
They are different from ionic compounds as ionic compounds are formed by the complete
transfer of electrons from one atom to another e.g., NaCl is formed when one valence electron
of sodium gets completely transferred to outer shell of chlorine atom. The characteristic
properties of covalent compounds are:
(i) They are generally insoluble or less soluble in water but soluble in organic solvents.
(ii) They have low melting and boiling points.
(iii) They do not conduct electricity as they do not contain ions.
Q.3. What are covalent bonds? Show their formation with the help of electron dot structure of . Why
are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of electricity?
Ans: Covalent bonds are those bonds which are formed by sharing of the valence electrons between
two atoms. Electron dot structure of methane is shown in the figure.
Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity because they do not have tree
electrons or ions.
Q.4. Give reasons for the following:

(i) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
(ii) Diamond has high melting point.
(iii) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
Ans: (i) As carbon has four valence electrons and it can neither lose nor gain four electrons thus, it
attains noble gas configuration only by sharing of electrons. Thus, it forms covalent
compounds.
(ii) In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms forming a rigid three-
dimensional structure. This makes diamond the hardest known substance. Thus, it has high
melting point.
(iii) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds in the
same plane giving a hexagonal array. Thus, only three valence electrons are used for bond
formation and hence, the fourth valence electron is free to move. As a result, graphite is a
good conductor of electricity.
Q.5. Write the next homologue of each of the following:

(i) C2H4
(ii) C4H6
Ans :(i) C2H4 belongs to alkene series having general formula, CnH2n.
Thus, next homologue will be C3H2×3 = C3H6
(ii) C4H6 belongs to alkyne series having general formula, CnH2n-2.
Thus, next homologue will be C5H2×5-2 = C5H8
Q.6. Name the following compounds:

(a) CH3 – CH2 – OH
Ans: (a) CH3 – CH2 – OH : Ethanol
Q.7. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule.
Ans :An alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule is propanol. The structure of propanol is
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
Q.1. Why carbon and its compounds are used as fuels for most applications?
Ans: Carbon and its compounds give large amount of heat on combustion due to high percentage of
carbon and hydrogen. They have high optimum ignition temperature with high calorific values
and are easy to handle and their combustion can be controlled. Therefore, carbon and its
compounds are used as fuels.
Q.2. What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane. Explain why we cannot
have isomers of first three members of alkane series?
Ans: Isomers are compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures. Since
branching is not possible, isomers are not possible for the first three members of alkanes series.
The two isomers of butane, C4H10 are:
Q.3. State the reason why carbon can neither form C+4 cation nor C-4 anions but forms covalent
compound.
Ans: Carbon has atomic number 6. This means that it has 4 electrons in its outermost shell. It needs to
gain or lose 4 electrons to achieve noble gas configuration. But it cannot form C +4 cation because
the removal of 4 electrons requires a large amount of energy. And also, cannot form C -4 anion as it
would be difficult for its nucleus with 6 protons to hold on to 10 electrons. Therefore, Carbon
atoms share electrons and form covalent compounds
Q.4. What is a homologous series? List any of its two features.
Ans: A homologous series is a series of carbon compounds that have different numbers of carbon
atoms but contain the same functional group.
Characteristics of homologous series:
1. The members of the homologous series can be represented by a general formula.
2. The successive members differ from each other in the molecular formula by a CH₂ unit.
Q.5.The element carbon forms a very large number of compounds. Give reason for this fact.
Ans: Carbon forms large number of compounds because of tetravalency and catenation property.
Tetravalency- Carbon has valency 4 to attain noble gas configuration carbon shares its valence
electrons with other elements like hydrogen chlorine etc.
Catenation-Carbon also shows the property of self-linking in which it forms long

branched or cyclic chains to form large number of compounds.
Q.6. List Any three difference between soap and detergent.
Ans:
soap detergent
i) Soaps are sodium salts of fatty Detergents are sodium salt of

acids. sulphonic acids.
ii) Soaps clean well in soft water but detergents clean well with both with
do not clean well in hard water hard and soft water
Soaps are biodegradable and do not Some detergents are non-

cause pollution. biodegradable and cause of pollution
Answer key
MCQs
Q.1. C Q.6. D Q.11. A Q.16. B
Q.2. B Q.7. B Q.12. B Q.17. B
Q.3. C Q.8. C Q.13. D Q.18. C
Q.4. D Q.9. D Q.14. B Q.19. A
Q.5. B Q.10. D Q.15. D Q.20. D
Assertion (A) and Reason(R) Questions
Q .1 –d Q.2 –b Q.3 - a Q .4 –b Q .5 -a Q.6 --c

Case study Based Question
Q.1. 1.1 – d 1.2 – c 1.3 –a 1.4 – c 1.5 – b
Q.2. 2.1 – d 2.2 – c 2.3 –d 2.4 – d 2.5 – c
CHAPTER – 6 LIFE PROCESSES
1. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
(a) cytoplasm. (b) mitochondria. (c) chloroplast. (d) nucleus.
2. During cellular respiration one molecule of glucose is first broken down into two molecules of
(a) Acetic acid (b) Pyruvic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) None of the above
3. Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is incorrect?
(a) They synthesise carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and
chlorophyll
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains
4. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following
(a) trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d) trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
5. Choose the correct path of urine in our body
(a) kidney →ureter →urethra →urinary bladder
(b) kidney →urinary bladder →urethra →ureter
(c) kidney →ureters →urinary bladder →urethra
(d) urinary bladder →kidney →ureter →urethra
6.The parts shown as A and B in the given diagram are
The parts shown as A and B in the given diagram are
(a) A is epidermal cell, B is stomatal pore (b) A is guard cell, B is stomatal pore
(c) A is epidermal cell, B is guard cell (d) A is guard cells, B is epidermal cell
7. In normal expiration, the diaphragm is
(a) Arched (b) Flattened (c) Perforated (d) None of these
8. Villi present on the inner lining of the intestinal wall
(a) Secretes enzymes for digestion (b) Secretes hormones
(c) Decreases the surface area for absorption (d) Increases the surface area for absorption
9. The correct pathway of blood in circulatory system is
(a) atria → ventricles → arteries → veins
(b) ventricles → atria → veins → arteries
(c) ventricles → veins → arteries → atria
(d) veins → ventricles → atria → arteries
10. Respiration is a process in which
(a) Energy is stored in the form of ADP (b) Energy is released and stored in the form of ATP
(c) Energy is used up (d) Energy is not released at all.
11. Full form of ATP?
(a) Adenosine Triphosphate (b) Adenosine Tetraphosphate
(c) Adenine Triphosphate (d) Adinosine Tripolymer
12.The xylem in plants are responsible for
(a) transport of water. (b) transport of food.
(c) transport of amino acids. (d) transport of oxygen
13.Why blood is red?
(a) due to presence of oxygen (b) due to presence of haemoglobin
(c) due to presence of CO2 (d) due to presence of WBC
14.If kidney fails to reabsorb water, the tissues would
(a) remain unaffected (b) shrink to shrivel
(c) absorb water from blood (d) take more oxygen from blood
15.The autropic mode of nutrition requires
(a) carbon dioxide and water. (b) chlorophyll. (c) sunlight. (d) all of the above
16.The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
(a) cytoplasm. (b) mitochondria. (c) chloroplast. (d) nucleus.
17.Chyme is ____.
(a) Digestive enzyme secreted by stomach. (b) Hormone secreted by islets of Pancreas
(c) food which enters into intestine from stomach. (d) Part of bile juice which stores in gall
bladder
18. Haemoglobin is a type of
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Skin Pigment (c) Vitamin (d) Respiratory Pigment
19.Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth →stomach →small intestine →oesophagus →large intestine
(b) Mouth →oesophagus →stomach →large intestine →small intestine
(c) Mouth →stomach →oesophagus →small intestine →large intestine
(d) Mouth →oesophagus →stomach →small intestine →large intestine
20.The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid. Choose the
correct one
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
Q.2.1 Assertion (A): Diffusion does not meet high energy requirements of multi-cellular organisms
Reason (R) : Diffusion is a fast process but occurs at the surface of the body.
Q.2.2 Assertion (A): The purpose of making urine is to filter out undigested food from intestine
Reason (R): Kidneys filter the waste and produce urine,
Q.2.3 Assertion (A): The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called
villi.
Reason (R) : The villi increase the surface area for absorption.
Q.2.4 Assertion (A) : Photosynthesis takes place in green parts of the plants.
Reason (R) : Photosynthesis always takes place in leaves.
Q.2.5 Assertion (A) : Ureters are the tubes which carry urine from kidneys to the bladder.
Reason (R): Urine is stored in the urethra.
CASE STUDY QUESTION

1.Read the following paragraph and answer the questions:
Rishi experienced muscular cramps during the training session for his upcoming football match.
Mr. Sen, his coach advised him on a schedule of some aerobic exercises to overcome his problem
of muscularcramps. Rishi followed his coach’s advice and did not face the problem of muscular
cramps again during his match.
1.1. Which life process is depicted by the above passage?
(a) Respiration (b) Digestion (c) Nutrition (d) Excretion
1.2. Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps due to
(a) Conversion of pyruvate to ethanol (b) Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
(c) Conversion of pyruvate to glucose (d) Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
1.3. Lactic acid is produced by ________ respiration in yeast.
(a) aerobic (b) anaerobic (c) oxidative (d) none of these
1.4. Why there is an increase in lactic acid concentration in the blood at the beginning of the exercise?
(a) Lack of oxygen (b) Excess of oxygen (c) Lack of carbon dioxide (d) Excess of carbon
dioxide
1.5. What else can be done for quick relief from muscular cramps ?
(a) Massage (b) by applying heating pad or an ice pack (c) painkillers (d) all of these
2. TRANSPORT OF WATER AND MINERALS IN PLANTS
Plants absorb water and minerals by the roots. The roots have root hair. The root hair increase the
surface area of the root for the absorption of water and mineral nutrients dissolved in water. The root
hair is in contact with the water present between the soil particles. Plants have pipe-like vessels to
transport water and nutrients from the soil. The vessels are made of special cells, forming the vascular
tissue. A tissue is a group of cells that perform specialized function in an organism. The vascular tissue
for the transport of water and nutrients in the plant is called the xylem.The xylem forms a continuous
network of channels that connects roots to the leaves through the stem and branches and thus
transports water to the entire plant. One thing is very interesting here that when gravity pulls every-
thing downwards, then how the water can rise up against gravity. There are only two possibilities,
either the water is being pushed from below or the water is being pulled from the top of the plant.
Now the question is which force is strong. It is very similar to the principle behind the sipping of soft
drink from a bottle with a straw.
2.1 Name the force responsible for upward pulling of water.
(a) Gravitational force (b) Magnetic force (c) Muscular force (d) Suction pull
2.2 Group of cells that transport food in plants is called?
(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) tissue (d) all of these
2.3 The process in which water is lost as water vapour from the aerial parts of the plants through
stomata is called
(a) evaporation (b) transpiration (c) translation (d) sucking
2.4 Plants wither when
(a) xylem stops (b) the epidermis is removed (c) cortex is removed (d) phloem stops
2.5 What type of water absorption takes place in plants by the process of more transpiration?
(a) Active absorption (b) Passive absorption (c) none of these (d) both A And b
3. BLOOD
Blood transport food and waste materials in our bodies. It consists of plasma as a fuid medium. A
pumping organ is required to push the blood around.The blood fows through the chambers of the
organ in a specific manner and direction. While flowing throughout the body, blood exert a pressure
against the wall or a
vessel.
3.1. Which life process is depicted by the above passage?
(a) Respiration (b) Digestion (c) Transportation (d) Excretion

3.2. Name the blood pumping organ.
(a) Lungs (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Liver
3.3. Oxygenated blood from lungs enters left atrium through ...........
(a) Vena cava (b) Pulmonary artery (c) Pulmonary vein (d) Aorta
3.4. Deoxygenated blood leaves through the right ventricle through ..........
(a) Vena cava (b) Pulmonary artery (c) Pulmonary vein (d) Aorta
3.5. Which of the following statements is true about heart?
(i) It is a hollow muscular organ.
(ii) It is a four chambered having three atria and one ventricle.
(iii) It has different chambers to prevent the oxygen - rich blood from mixing with the blood
containing carbon dioxide.
(iv) Arteries always carry blood away from the heart.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
4. EXCRETION
Excretion is a necessary life process both in plants and animals. Plants use a variety of techniques to get
rid of waste material. For example, waste material may stored in the cell vacuoles or as a gum and resin,
removed in the falling leaves, or excreted into the surrounding soil.
4.1. Excretion is the removal of
(a) Glucose (b) Salts (c) Amino acids (d) Metabolic wastes
4.2. Many plant waste products are stored in cellular _______
(a) Enzymes (b) Vacuoles (c) Golgi bodies (d) Phloem
4.3. Plants excrete through ..........
(a) soil (b) transpiration (c) dead leaves (d) All of the above
4.4. The main waste products in plants is
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Water vapour (c) Oxygen (d) All of the above
4.5. Function of xylem tissue is
(a) Collection of food material (b) Conduction of absorbed water
(c) To take out water from cells (d) All of the above
5. NUTRITION IN AMOEBA
Amoeba is an animal having no fixed shape ingests food particles by formation of temporary finger-like
projections. The food vacoule inside amoeba breaks down the food into small and soluble molecules.
The digested food is thrown out by the amoeba by the rupture of cell membrane and it goes on for the
search of next food particle.
5.1. Which type of organism is Amoeba? ?
(a) Unicellular (b) Microscopic (c) Multicellular (d) Both a and b
5.2. What are the temporary projections made in amoeba called ?
(a) walking legs (b) limbs (c) Pseudopodia (d) None of the above
5.3. What type of nutrition is followed by amoeba?
(a) Parasitic (b) Holozoic (c) Saprotrophic (d) Autotrophic
5.4. The process of throwing out of undigested food in Amoeba is called
(a) Egestion (b) Digestion (c) Nutrition (d) None of the above
5.5. Give an example of organism which follows same mode of nutrition in amoeba.
(a) Vertebrates (b) Fungi (c) Tapeworm (d) Cuscata plants
ANSWER KEY
Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ANS B B C D B B A D A B
Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS A A B B D B B D D B
Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5
ANS C D A C C A D B A D
Q.NO. 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5
ANS D B B A B C B C B D
Q.NO. 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5
ANS D B D B B D C B A A
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Q.1. Name one accessory pigment and one essential pigment in photosynthetic plants.
Ans. Accessory pigment – Carotene/Xanthophyll
Essential pigment – Chlorophyll
Q.2. Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of gases
between their body and their environment.
Ans. In unicellular organisms the entire body of the organism is in contact with the environment
hence exchange of materials can take place but, in multicellular organisms the entire body of the
organism is not in contact with the environment and hence simple diffusion is not helpful.
Q.3. Name the intermediate and the end products of glucose breakdown in aerobic respiration.
Ans.
Q.4. State two differences between arteries and veins.
Ans. Arteries: Arteries carry oxygenated blood, away from the heart except pulmonary artery. These
are thick-walled, highly muscular except arteries of cranium and vertebral column.
Valves are absent. Blood in arteries moves with pressure.
Veins: Veins carry deoxygenated blood, towards the heart except pulmonary veins. These are
thin-walled. Valves are present which provide unidirectional flow of blood. Blood in veins
moves under very low pressure.
Q.5. (i) Write the balanced chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis,
(ii) When do the desert plants take up carbon dioxide and perform photosynthesis ?
Ans.(i) Photosynthesis can be represented using a chemical equation. The overall balanced equation
is
(ii) Desert plants open up their stomata during night and take in CO2. Stomata remains close
during the day time to prevent the loss of water by i transpiration. They store the CO2 in
their cells until the sun comes out and they can carry on with photosynthesis during the day
time.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Q.1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the structure of a chloroplast.
Ans:
Q.2.. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidneys, ureters on it.
Ans.
Q.3. List three characteristics of lungs which make it an efficient respiratory surface.
Ans. These features which particularly make our lungs efficient for gas exchange.
i. Thin: the air sac walls are very thin so that gases can quickly diffuse through them. Oxygen is
absorbed in to the blood and carbon dioxide is given out in to the lungs to be exhaled
out.
ii. Moist: the air sacs are moist with mucus so that gases can dissolve before diffusing.
iii. Large surface area: The surface area for gases to diffuse through in human lungs is roughly
the same as a tennis court. The alveoli help to increase the surface area
for absorption of oxygen.
iv. Good blood supply:The air sacs or the alveoli have a large capillary network so that large
volumes of gases can be exchanged. More the flow of blood more
exchange.
Q4. (a) “The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange of gases is a continuous process”.
Justify this statement.
(b) What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory system develops a leak? State in brief, how
could this be avoided?
(c) How opening and closing of stomata takes place?
Ans.(a) The breathing cycle involves inhalation and exhalation of air due to alternate expansion
and contraction of thoracic cavity. Thus it is a rhythmic process. But exchange of gases
is a continuous process as it takes place between the blood and each and every cell, by
diffusion.
(b)The circulatory system will become inefficient if it develops a leak. This could be
avoided by maintaining a normal blood pressure.
(c) When water flows into the guard cells, the guard cells swell and the stomatal pore
opens up. When water moves out the guard cells shrinks and the stomatal pore
closes.
Q5. Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell
Ans. The processes of breakdown of glucose in a cell are as follows:
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q.1. State the role of the following in human digestive system :
(I) Digestive enzymes (II) Hydrochloric acid ( III) villi
Ans. Digestive enzymes – Foods need to be broken into their small or simpler molecules so that they
can be absorbed into the bloodstream. However, the physical breakdown of food is not enough.
Enzymes are hence needed for the chemical breakdown of food and speeding up the digestive
process. The products of digestion can hence be small enough to be absorbed.
Hydrochloric acid – Hydro chloric acid helps to kill the germs which might have entered in
to the system through food. It creates acidic medium for the pepsin to act on food to
breakdown proteins.
Villi – Villi are finger like projections in the small intestine. They help to increase the surface
area for absorption of the digested food. Villi are richly supplied with blood vessel which
help to absorb digested food in to the blood stream.
Q2. (a) Draw a diagram to show open stomatal pore and label on it:
(i) guard cells (ii) chloroplast
(b) State two functions of stomata.
(c) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pore?
Ans.(a)
(b) Two functions of stomata are:
(i) Exchange of gases between the plant and the atmosphere takes place through stomata.
(ii)Transpiration in plants takes place through stomata.
(c) Opening and Closing of Stomatal Pore: The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the
guard cells. The guard cells swell when water flows into them causing the stomatal pore to
open. Similarly, the pore closes if the guard cells shrink. As large amount of water is lost
through these stomata, the plant closes these pores when it does not require carbon dioxide
for photosynthesis
Q.3.(a)Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and

carbon dioxide during transportation of blood in human beings and label on it:
Lung capillaries, Pulmonary artery to lungs, Aorta to body, Pulmonary veins from lungs.
(b) What is the advantage of separate channels in mammals and birds for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood?
Ans.(a) A schematic representation of transportation and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
during transportation of blood in human beings
(b) It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds
because they need high energy and large amount of oxygen. The separation of oxygenated
and deoxygenated blood provides high oxygen supply to the organs.
Q.4. (a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it – Aorta, Right ventricle and
Pulmonary veins.
(b) State the functions of the following components of transport system: (i)blood (ii)lymph
Ans:
(b) The functions of blood and lymph are as follows:
Blood
Oxygen is transported by the blood to the tissues of the body for the breakdown of
digested food.
Carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs by the blood plasma.
The digested and absorbed nutrients are transported by blood to the tissues.
Nitrogenous wastes are transported to the kidneys.
It regulates the body temperature and maintains the pH of the body tissues.
It transports various hormones from one region to another and bring about the coordination.
It maintains water balance to constant level.
The lymphocytes produce antibodies against the invading antigens and protect from
diseases.
It helps in rapid healing of wounds by forming a clot at the site of injury.
Lymph
It cleans the cellular environment.

It returns proteins and tissue fluids to the blood (drainage)

It provides a pathway for the absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins into the
bloodstream.
It defends the body against disease.
Q.5.(a) Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems, roots
and leaves.
(b) How are water and minerals transported in plants?
Ans.(a) In plants, there are tiny pores called stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem which facilitate
the exchange of gases. CO2 is taken in and O2 given out (during photosynthesis) and vice-
versa during respiration.
(b) Mechanism of Transport of Water and Minerals in a Plant
The vessels and tracheids of roots, stems and leaves in xylem tissue are interconnected to
form a continuous system of water-conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant. The
cells of the roots in contact with the soil actively take up ions which creates a difference in
the ion concentration between the root and the soil.Thus, there is steady movement of
water into root xylem from the soil, creating a column of water that is pushed upwards.
Plant uses another strategy to move water in the xylem upwards to the highest points of
the plant body. The water which is lost through the stomata is replaced by water from the
xylem vessels in the leaf. Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a
suction which pulls water from the xylem cells of roots. This loss of water is transpiration
which helps in the absorption and upward movement of water and minerals dissolved in it
from roots to the leaves. Transpiration becomes the major driving force in movement of
water in the xylem during the day when the stomata are open. This mechanism is also
known as cohesion of water theory or transpiration pull.
CH.7. CONTROL AND COORDINATION

Q .1. Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
Q .2. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

(a) Dendrite axon → axonal end → cell body
(b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
(c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
(d) Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
Q 3. In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from

(a) dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end of another neuron
(b) axon to cell body of the same neuron
(c) cell body to axonal end of the same neuron
(d) axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron
Q.4. In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in

(a) cell body (b) axonal end (c) dendritic end (d) axon
Q. 5. Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

(a) Receptors → Muscles → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Spinal cord
(b) Receptors → Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Muscle
(c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
Q. 6. Which of the following statements are true about the brain?

(i) The main thinking part of the brain is hind brain.
(ii) Centers of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc. are located in fore brain.
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure is controlled by the medulla in
the hind brain.
(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
Q. 7. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by
(a) cerebrum (b) cerebellum (c) medulla (d) pons
Q.8. Spinal cord originates from
(a) cerebrum (b) medulla (c) pons (d) cerebellum
Q.9. The movement of shoot towards light is
(a) geotropism (b) hydrotropism (c) chemotropism (d) phototropism
Q.10. The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to
(a) increase the length of cells (b) promote cell division
(c) inhibit growth (d) promote growth of stem
Q.11. Which of the following is not associated with growth of plant?
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellins (c) Cytokinins (d) Abscisic acid
Q. 12. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
(a) Adrenaline (b) Thyroxin (c) Auxin (d) Insulin
Q.13. Choose the incorrect statement about insulin
(a) It is produced from pancreas (b) It regulates growth and development of the
body
(c) It regulates blood sugar level (d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause
diabetes
Q.14. Select the mis-matched pair:
(a) Adrenaline: Pituitary gland (b) Testosterone: Testes
(c) Estrogen: Ovary (d) Thyroxin: Thyroid gland
Q.15. The shape of guard cells changes due to change in the
(a) protein composition of cells (b) temperature of cells
(c) amount of water in cells (d) position of nucleus in the cells
Q.16. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to
(a) effect of light
(b) effect of gravity
(c) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support
(d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
Q.17.The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to

(a) hydrotropism (b) chemotropism (c) geotropism (d) phototropism
Q.18. The movement of sunflower in accordance with the path of Sun is due to
(a) phototropism (b) geotropism (c) chemotropism (d) hydrotropism
Q.19. The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is due to
(a) auxin (b) gibberellin (c) abscisic acid (d) cytokinin
Q.20.Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by
(a) medulla in fore brain (b) medulla in mid brain
(c) medulla in hind brain (d) medulla in spinal cord
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
Q.1. Assertion (A) : Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
Reason (R) : Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes.
Q.2. Assertion (A) : Animals can react to stimuli in different ways.
Reason (R) : All animals have a nervous system and an endocrine system involving hormones.
Q.3. Assertion (A) : The effect of auxin hormone on the growth of root is exactly opposite to that
on a stem.
Reason (R) : Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth in root and decreases the rate of
growth in stem.
Q.4. Assertion (A) : A receptor is a specialized group of cells in a sense organ that perceive a
particular type of stimulus.
Reason (R) : Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.
Q.5. Assertion (A) : The brain is also known as the central nervous system.
Reason (R) : Central nervous system controls and regulates the voluntary actions.

Q.1. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
All the living organisms (plants and animals) respond and react to changes in the environment
around them. The changes in the environment to which the organisms respond and react are
called stimuli (singular: stimulus). The living organisms show response to stimuli such as light,
heat, cold, sound, smell, taste, touch, pressure, pain, water, and force of gravity, etc. The response
of organisms to a stimulus is usually in the form of some movement of their body parts. For
example, if a man touches a very hot utensil accidently, he quickly pulls his hand away from the
hot utensil. Here, heat is the stimulus and the man reacts by moving his hand away from the hot
utensil. Similarly, when the Sun is bright, we close our eyes. In this case, light is the stimulus and
we react by closing the eyes.
Q.1.1. Human respond to changes in their surrounding environment. The changes are known as _
a. activity b. stimuli c. action d. coordination
Q.1.2. You close your eyes when your friend point the torchlight towards your eye. Which sensory
organ is involved?
a. Skin b. Eyes c. Nose d. Tongue
Q.1.3. A baby cried when hears the thunder. What is the stimuli that is involved?
a. smell b. sound c. taste d. light
Q.1.4. Based on the situation below, which situation shown human respond to stimuli?
I- A boy pulls his hand when touching a hot object.
II- A girl is reading a book.
III- A girl closes her ear when hearing the thunder.
IV- A boy is walking to school.
a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d.II and IV
Q.1.5. A response is ____
a. A change in the environment that causes a reaction b. Something you write on a test
c. A reaction to a change in the environment d. The way plants communicate
Q2. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
The control and coordination in plants is done by plant hormones. The plant hormones
coordinate the activities of the plant by controlling one or the other aspect of the growth
of the plant. So, the plant hormones are also known as plant growth substances. The growth
of a plant can be divided into three stages B cell division, cell enlargement and cell
differentiation (or cell specialization), and these stages have particular locations in a plant.
These three stages of plant growth as well as promotion of dormancy, breaking of dormancy,
stomata control, falling of leaves, fruit growth, ripening of fruits and ageing in plants are
controlled by the various plant hormones.
Q.2.1. By which hormone the control and coordination of plants is done?
a. Photohormones b. Phytohormones c. adrenal hormones d. growth hormones
Q. 2.2. Which hormone promotes cell division?
a. Auxins b. Gibberellins c. Cytokinins d. Abscisic acid
Q. 2.3. Which hormone promotes cell the dormancy in seeds and buds?
Q. 2.4. Which hormone promotes the wilting and falling of leaves?
Q.2.5. Plant hormones are
a. Physical substances b. chemical substances
c. photo chemical substances d. both a and b
Q.3. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
The human body contains a large number of cells A which are very long and branched, and look
like electric wires. The longest branch of this cell is B whereas there are many small branches C.
Any two A cells do not join to one another completely in the human body. There is a
microscopic gap D between every pair of adjacent A cells through which electric impulse can
pass by the release of a chemical substance.
Q.3.1. What are cells A?
a. neurons b. axon c. body cell d. dendrites
Q.3.2. What is the name of (i) branch B, and (ii) branches C ?
a. synapse and neurons b. axon and body cell c. axon and dendrites d. none of these
Q.3.3. What is the microscopic gap D known as?
a. synapse b. fluid c. gap zone d. axon
Q.3.4. Which part of a neuron is responsible for receiving information?
a. axon b. terminal fibre c. dendrite d. body cell
Q.3.5. The cells A are of ___ types.
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4
Q 4. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
A gland P is located just below the stomach in the human body. The gland P secretes a hormone Q.
The deficiency of hormone Q in the body causes a disease W in which the blood sugar level of a
person rises too much. person having high blood sugar is called X.
Q.4.1. Name gland P.
a. Pancreas b. Adrenal c. Thyroid d. Hypothalamus
Q.4.2. Name hormone Q.
a. Insulin b. Thyroxine c. Adrenaline d. Growth hormone
Q.4.3. What is disease W?
a. Diabetes b. Obesity c. Asthma d. Arthritis
Q.4.4. Name the person X.
a. Obese person b. Diabetic person c. Cancerous person d. Asthmatic person
Q.4.5. Which is the target organ of both adrenaline and insulin?
a. Heart b. Kidney c. Liver d. Pancreas
Q 5. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
The organ A which is located inside the skull of our body is protected by a bony box B and it is
surrounded by three membranes C. The space between the membranes are filled with a liquid D which
protects the organ A from mechanical shocks. The organ A in combination with another organ E makes
up the central nervous system.
Q.5.1. What is organ A?
a. Brain b. Heart c. Spinal cord d. Kidneys

Q.5.2. What are B and C?
a. Spinal cord and hypothalamus b. Cranium and cerebrum
c. Cranium and meninges d. Neurons and brain
Q.5.3. While walking barefooted, if we happen to step on a sharp piece of stone, we immediately lift
our foot up. Which of the two organs, A or E, is directly involved in this action?
a. A b. E c. Both A and E d. None of these
Q.5.4. Name the organ E.
a. Meninges b. Cranium c. Spinal cord d. Medulla
Q.5.5. What is D ?
a. Blood plasma b. Cranium fluid c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Medulla
ANSWER KEY
Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ANS a c d b d c b b d c
Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS d b b a c c b a c c
ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS:

Q.NO. 6 7 8 9 10
ANS a a c b d

Q.NO 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5
ANS b b b a c b c d d b
Q.NO. 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5
ANS a c a c c a a a b C
Q.NO. 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5
ANS a c b c c

Q.1. Name two specialised tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular
organisms.
Ans. Nervous and muscular tissues.
Q. 2. List two body functions that will be affected if cerebellum gets damaged.
Ans. a. Walking in a straight line.
b. Picking up a thing from the ground.
Q. 3. Which part of the nervous system controls reflex arcs?
Ans. Spinal cord.
Q.4. Which gland secretes growth hormone in human beings?
Ans. Pituitary gland.
Q. 5. Name the sensory receptors found in the nose and on the tongue.
Ans. Olfactory receptors, gustatory receptors.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q.1. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function
of each:
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas
Ans. a. Thyroid: Secretes Thyroxine. It regulates metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
b. Pituitary: Secretes growth hormone. Growth hormone regulates growth and
development of body.
c. Pancreas: Secretes insulin. Insulin lowers blood sugar level.
Q.2. How does chemical coordination occur in plants? Explain with the help of three examples.
Ans. In plants, chemical coordination occurs through various Phytohormones.

a. Auxins secreted by growing tissues. They provide growth of plants.
b. Gibberellins cause stem elongation, seed germination and flowering.
c. Cytokinin’s present in areas of actively dividing cells like fruits, seeds. Promote cell
division.
d. Abscisic acid inhibits growth and respond to environmental stress.
Q.3. (a) An old man is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet. Name the disease from
which the man is suffering. Mention the hormone due to imbalance of which he is
suffering from this disease. Which endocrine gland secretes this hormone?
(b) Name the endocrine gland which secretes growth hormone. What will be its effect on a
person if there is: (i) Deficiency of growth hormones
(ii) Excess secretion of growth hormones?
Ans. a. The man is suffering with the disease Diabetes. Insulin is the hormone which is
responsible for this disease. Pancreas secretes this hormone.
b. Pituitary gland.
(i) Deficiency of growth hormone causes dwarfism.
(ii) Excess secretion of growth hormone cause gigantism in a person.
Q.4. Draw and label a Neuron. Explain how it carries messages.
Ans. Information from the environment is detected by dendritic tip of a neuron located in the
sense organ. A chemical reaction sets off here and it creates an electrical impulse which
travels from dendrite to cell body and then along the axon to its endings where it sets off
the release of some chemicals. The chemicals cross the synapse and set off a similar
electrical impulse in dendrites of next neuron.Another synapse at the end of its axon
delivers the impulse to the other cells like muscles cells / glands (effector organs) which
react to perform the action.
Q.5. (a) Name the part of brain which controls :

(i) voluntary action (ii) involuntary action.
(b) What is the significance of the peripheral nervous system? Name the components of
this nervous system and distinguish between the origin of the two.
Ans .a.(i) Voluntary actions - cerebellum; (ii) Involuntary action — medulla oblongata.
b. The communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the
body is facilitated by the peripheral nervous system. Cranial nerves arise from the
brain; spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord.
LONG ANSWER QUESTION

Q.1. Draw a labelled diagram of human brain. Discuss functions of cerebrum, cerebellum and
medulla.
OR
Draw and describe the role of various parts of human brain.
Ans . Human brain has three major parts:
a. Fore-Brain contains mainly cerebrum b.Mid-brain c. Hind-brain
Functions: a. Cerebellum which controls posture, balance of body and accurate voluntary
movements.
b. Pons regulates respiration
c. Medulla oblongata which controls involuntary actions like blood pressure,
salivation, vomiting etc.
Q. 2. Give the function(s) of the following plant hormones:

a. Auxins b. Gibberellins c. Cytokinins d. Abscisic acid e. Ethylene
Ans .a. Auxins promote cell elongation, root formation, cell division, etc. It also promotes fruit
growth.
b. Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation, seed germination and flowering.
c. Cytokinins help in breaking the dormancy of seeds and buds. They delay ageing in leaves.
They also promote the opening of stomata.
d. Abscisic acid promotes falling of leaves and fruits.
e. Ethylene promotes ripening of fruits
Q3. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label the following on it:
Nucleus, Dendrite, Cell body and Axon.
(b) Name the part of neuron :
(i) Where information is acquired.
(ii) Through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
Ans. (a)
b. (i) Dendrite (ii) Axon

Q. 4. Describe an activity to illustrate the phenomenon of phototropism and explain why does
this occur.
Ans .
a. Take a plant and make such an arrangement that it receives the light coming from a
window as shown in the figure and observe it for few days.
b. Now,turn the flask so that the shoots are away from light and the roots towards light.
Leave it undisturbed in this condition for a few days.
c. Again, observe carefully to find the difference in the movement.
d. When growing plants detect light, auxin, synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to
grow longer. Auxin always diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This
concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is
away from light. Thus, the plant appears to bend towards light.
Q.5. (a) What is Phototropism and Geotropism? With labelled diagrams describe an activity to
show that light and gravity change the direction that plant part grows in.
(b) Mention the role of each of the following plant hormones:
(i) Auxin (ii) Abscisic acid.
Ans. a. Phototropism It is tropic movements in the direction of light or away from it e.g.
shoots bend towards light while roots grow away from it. Hence shoot is positively
phototropic and root is negatively phototropic.
Geotropism: Growth of roots downward towards the earth hence positively geotropic
whereas stem grows upward, away from earth, hence it is negatively geographic.
b. Auxins: Synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer.
Abscisic acid: Inhibits growth, causes wilting and falling of leaves.
CHAPTER- 8
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

Q.1. The two oviducts in a human female unite into an elastic bag like is known as
a. Vagina b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Cervix
Q.2. Which of the following disease is transmitted sexually?
a. Kala azar b. Jaundice c. Cholera d. Syphilis
Q.3. Which of the following is a contraceptive?
a. Copper t b. Condom c. Diaphragm d. All of these
Q. 4. When a animal is cut into pieces and each piece grows into a complex organism. What is the
process?
a. Budding b. Fragmentation c. Spore formation d. Regeneration
Q. 5. Which is the portion on which grafting is done it provides the roots?
a. Stock b. Scion c. Both a and b d. None of these
Q.6. Where does fertilization occur in human females?
a. Uterus b. Cervix c. Oviduct d. None of these
Q.7. Growing fetus derive nutrition from mother’s blood through
a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. placenta d. cervix
Q. 8. What is the puberty age in human males?
a. 8-10 b. 10-12 c. 12-14 d. 14-16
Q.9. Fruits are formed from
a. Stamen b. Stigma c. Ovary d. Ovule
Q. 10. IUCD is for
a. Vegetative propagation b. Contraception
c. Increasing fertility d. Avoiding miscarriage

Q. 11. Which among the following is a unicellular organism that reproduces by budding?
(a) Hydra (b) Planaria (c) Yeast (d) Spirogyra
Q.12. Which among the following does not reproduce by spore formation:
(a) Penicillium fungus (b) Yeast fungus (c) Mucor fungus (d) Rhizopus fungus
Q. 13. The rapid spreading of bread mould on slices of bread are due to:
(i) Presence of large number of spores in air
(ii) Presence of large number of thread-like branched hyphae
(iii) Presence of moisture and nutrients
(iv) Formation of round shaped sporangia
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
Q.14. The asexual reproduction in the Spirogyra involves:
(a) Breaking up of filaments into smaller bits
(b) Division of a cell into many cells
(c) Division of a cell into two cells
(d) Formation of a large number of buds
Q. 15. Reason for the greater similarities among the off springs produced by asexual reproduction, is:
(i) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) Asexual reproduction involves two parents
(iii) Asexual reproduction involves gametes
(iv) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(a) (i) and (ii (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
Q. 16. The process of the division of cell into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is termed
as:
(a) Fragmentation (b) Budding (c) Multiple fission (d) Binary fission
Q. 17. The number of chromosomes in parents and off springs of a particular species remains constant
due to:
(a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
Q.18. A Planaria worm is cut horizontally in the middle into two halves P and Q such that the part P
contains the whole head of the worm. Another Planaria worm is cut vertically into two halves R
and S in such a way that both the cut pieces R and S contain half head each. Which of the cut
pieces of the two Planaria worms could regenerate to form the complete respective worms?
(a) Only P (b) Only R and S (c) P, Rand S (d) P, Q, R and S
Q. 19. The number of chromosomes in both parents and off springs of a particular species remains
constant because:
(a) Chromosomes get doubled after zygote formation
(b) Chromosomes get doubled after gamete formation
(c) Chromosomes get halved during gamete formation
(d) Chromosomes get halved after gamete formation
Q. 20. An organism capable of reproducing by two asexual reproduction methods one similar to the
reproduction in yeast and the other similar to the reproduction in Planaria is:
(a) Spirogyra (b) Hydra (c) Bryophyllum (d) Paramecium
ANSWERS :- 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5(a) . 6. (c)7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12 . (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS:-
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d)A is false but R is true.
Q.1. .Assertion (A): Spores are unicellular bodies.
Reason(R) : The parent body simply breaks up into smaller pieces on maturation.
Q.2. Assertion(A) : Asexual reproduction is a primitive type of reproduction.
Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic cell division.
Q.3. Assertion(A) : The offspring produced by sexual reproduction is likely to adjust better in
environmental fluctuation.
Reason (R) : During the fusion of gametes there is mixing of genetic material from Two parents.
Q.4. Assertion (A): Testes lie in penis outside the body.
Reason (R): Sperms require temperature lower than the body temperature for development
Q.5. Assertion (A): Unisexual flowers have separate male and female flowers whereas a typical
monocot embryo comprises an embryonal axis with single cotyledon.
Reason (R): Cucumber, pumpkin and water melon are example of unisexual flowers.
ANSWERS - 1 .(c) 2 .)b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
Q.1. Read the following and answer the questions:
Preeti is very fond of gardening. She has different flowering plants in her garden. One Day few
naughty children entered her garden and plucked many leaves of Bryophyllum plant And threw
them here and there in the garden. After few days, Preeti observed that new Bryophyllum plants
were coming out from the leaves which fell on the ground.
1.1. .What does the incidence sited in the paragraph indicate?
(a). Bryophyllum leaves have special buds that germinate to give rise to new plant.
(b). Bryophyllum can propagate vegetatively through leaves.
(c). Bryophyllum is a flowering plant that reproduces only asexually
(d). Both (a) and (b).
1.2..Which of the following plants can propagate vegetatively through leaves like Bryophyllum?
(a) Guava (b) Begonia (c) Ginger (d) Mint
1.3 .Do you think any other vegetative part of Bryophyllum can help in propagation? If yes, then
which part?
(a) Roots (b) Stems (c) Flowers (d) Fruits
1.4. Which of the following plant is artificially propagated (vegetatively) by stem cuttings in
horticultural practices?
(a). Potato (b) Snake plant (c) Rose (d) Water hyacinth
ANSWERS:
1.1. (d), 1.2. (b), 1.3. (b), 1.4. (c)
Menstrual cycle is the cycle of events taking place in female reproductive organs, under the
control of sex hormones, in every 28 days. At an interval of 28 days, a single egg is released from
either of two ovaries. Regular Menstrual cycle stopped abruptly in a married women. She got
herself tested and was happy to discover that she is pregnant with her first baby.
2.1. Why menstruation stops in a pregnant female?
(a)The egg gets fertilised so need not to be expelled out of body
(b) Ovulation stops during pregnancy and so do menstruation
(c) Thick uterine lining is needed for proper development of embryo, so that it is retained
(d) All of these
2.2. Select the correct sequence of acts that leads to pregnancy in a female.
A. Fertilisation of egg
B. Ovulation
C. Formation of zygote
D. Implantation
(a) D ⇒⇒C ⇒⇒B ⇒⇒A
(b) B⇒⇒ A⇒⇒C⇒⇒D
(c) A ⇒⇒ B⇒⇒ C⇒⇒ D
(d) D⇒⇒ C⇒⇒ A ⇒⇒B
2.3. How is a zygote different from embryo?
(a) Zygote is formed by repeated division of embryo
(b) Zygote is formed by fusion of sperm and egg whereas embryo is formed by fusion of zygote with
other zygote
(c) Zygote is single celled but embryo is multicellular
(d) Zygote is formed by fertilisation but embryo is formed without fertilization
2.4. What change takes place in the uterus of a pregnant female?
(a) Uterine lining becomes thick and vascular
(b) Placenta develops which links the embryo to mother through umbilical cord
(c) Uterus lining containing lots of blood capillaries breaks down
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answers - 2.1. (d) 2.2. (b) 2.3. ( c ) 2.4. (d)
The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth
and death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which
organisms increase their population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual
and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation
does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing
up children. Various contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size of
population.
3.1. What are common signs of sexual maturation in boys
a) Broadening of shoulders
b) Development of mammary glands
c) Broadening of waist
d) High pitch of voice
3.2. Common sign of sexual maturation in girls is
a) Low pitch voice b) Appearance of moustaches and beard
c) Development of mammary glands d) Broadening of shoulders
3.3. Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body
a) Condoms b) Diaphragms
c) Oral pills d) Both a) and b)
3.4. What should be maintained for healthy society
a) Rate of birth and death rate b) Male and female sex ratio
c) Child sex ratio d) None of these
ANSWERS : - 3.1. (a) 3. 2. (c) 3.3. (c) 3.4. (b)
The male reproductive system consist of portions which produce the germ-cells and other portions
that deliver the germ-cells to the site of fertilisation. Testes are located outside the abdominal
cavity in scrotum because sperm formation requires a lower temperature than normal body
temperature.
It also has a role of secretion of male sex hormone which brings changes in appearance seen in
boys at the time of puberty. Vas deferens unites with a tube coming from urinary bladder. Urethra
is a common passage for sperms and urine. Prostate gland and seminal vesicles add their
secretions so that sperms are now in fluid.
4.1. Name the sex hormone associated with males.

(a) Testosterone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Oestrogen
(d) None of these
4.2. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) Sperms are present in a fluid
(b) Fluid provides nutrition to sperms
(c) Fluid makes easier transportation of sperms
(d) Fluid helps to bind the sperms together
4.3. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because
(a) sperms formation requires higher temperature than body temperature
(b) sperms formation requires lower temperature than body temperature
(c) it is easier to transport sperms from the scrotum
(d) None of these
4.4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) Sperms and urine has a common passage from urethra.
(b) Sperms have long tail that helps them to move forward.
(c) Sperms contain genetic material.
(d) Sperms formation requires 1–3°C higher temperature than normal body temperature.
4.5. What is the nature of semen?

(a) slightly acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Slightly basic
(d) Strongly basic
ANSWERS – 4.1. (a) 4. 2. (d) 4.3. (b) 4.4. (d) 4. 5. (c)
Reproduction is necessary for living things because it enables them to create offspring and
continue their population. Through reproduction, they pass on their genetic information to the
next generation. This ensures that their species continues to exist on Earth. The DNA copying
mechanism is very necessary for the reproduction process as the copying of DNA can help in the
transfer of the characters or information from the parents to the offspring. It can also generate
the variations at the time of sexual reproduction. This variation is the reason behind the evolution.
The DNA is the information site for making proteins and each specific type of protein leads to a
specific type of body design and if DNA is not copied properly then offspring might face some
serious abnormalities or might not even develop.
5.1. Incorrect DNA copying mechanism can lead to

a. Abnormalities of body.
b. Speeding the process of reproduction
c.Formation of same blueprint of body design
d. Production of same type of proteins
5.2. Choose the correct statements:

i. Human beings are bisexual organisms.
ii. Bisexual flower has both pistil and stamen.
iii. Plants bearing unisexual flower has only one type of flowers
iv. Both eggs and sperms are produced in one individual in hermaphrodite animal
a. i) and ii)
b. ii) and iii)
c.ii) and iv)
d. iii) and iv)
5.3. Monoeciousspecies have both male and female sexual organs or flowers. These male and female
parts are located at different locations on the plant. Dioecious species have separate male and
female plants. They do not have the male and female flowers on the same plant.
Choose the correct statement
Assertion: Monoecious and Dioecious plant bears unisexual flowers.

Reason: Monoecious species has only one type of plant and dioeciousspecies has two types of
plant.
a. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
c. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
d. If both the assertion and reason are false.
5.4. Hari planted 100 Papaya plants. After few years he observed 75 plants have different pattern of
flowering from the other 25 plants. He also found out that 75 plants having the same flowering
pattern bear papaya fruits while the other 25 plants having the same pattern of flowering do not
produce fruit. What may be the reason?
ANSWER – 5. 1. (a) 5.2. (c) 5. 3. (b)
5.4. Papaya plant is a dioecious plant having male and female reproductive organs in
separate individuals. 75 papaya plants bear pistillate flowers and hence bear fruits
while the remaining 25 plants bear staminate flowers and do not bear fruit.
Very Short answer type question -

Q. 1. Define vegetative propagation.
Ans - Vegetative propagation is an asexual method of plant reproduction that occurs in its leaves,roots
and stem.
Q.2. What are the agents of pollination?
Ans - Pollinating agents can be animals such as insects, birds, and bats; water; wind; and even plants
themselves,
Q. 3. Name the vegetative parts used in Bryophyllum and sugarcane for propagation.
Ans - Reproduction in Bryophyllum occurs asexually through vegetative propagation by leaves. The
leaf of Bryophyllum is broad and has notches at its margins. ...
Sugarcane has a thick, tillering stem which is clearly divided into nodes and internodes.

Q.4. Name any two organisms that reproduce by spores.
Ans - Rhizopus, mushroom etc., reproduce by spore formation
Q. 5. Name two sex hormones.
Ans - The two main sex hormones — estrogen and testosterone
Short answer type question –

Q.1. Define the terms unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
Ans - Unisexual is the plant whose flowers contain either stamens or carpels but not both. Example
Papaya, watermelon.
Bisexual is the plant whose flowers contain both stamens and carpels. Example : Hibiscus,
Mustard.
Q. 2. How does leishmania and Planaria reproduce differently ?
Ans- Leishmania reproduces by binary fission and Plasmodium reproduce by multiple fission.
ii ) Binary fission- It occurs under favourable conditions and gives rise to two individuals .
multiple fission - It occurs under both favourable and unfavourable conditions and forms
several individual.
Q. 3. How does bryophyllum produce new plants?
Ans- Bryophyllum can be reproduced by vegetative propagation by using either a piece of its stem
or leaves. The leaves of a Bryophyllum plant have special buds in their margins which may get
detached from the leaves, fall to the ground and then grow to produce a new plant.
Q. 4..How does rhizopus reproduce?
Ans -Fungi and some algae reproduce asexually through spores. Rhizopus is a fungus and is
commonly called bread mould.
Rhizopus grows as fine thread-like projections known as hyphae. Present on the top of hyphae
is a blob-like structure, called sporangia. Sporangia produce numerous reproductive bodies
called spores. Spores germinate under moist conditions to grow into new Rhizopus species.
Q.5. Exlain how human embryo get nourished in mother body?
Ans - The embryo gets nourishment inside the mother body through a special tissue called
placenta. The embryo grows inside the mother's womb and gets nourishment from mother's
blood through the tissue called placenta. The placenta is a temporary organ that develops in
the uterus during pregnancy.
Long answer type questions -

Q.1. Draw a human male reproductive system of a human and label the parts. Mention the function
of vas deferens and ureter?
Ans-
Vas deferens:The vas deferens is a long, muscular tube that travels from the epididymis into the
pelvic cavity, to just behind the bladder. The vas deferens transports mature
sperm to the urethra in preparation for ejaculation.
The ureters are the part of the urinary system, whose function is to filter blood and create urine
as a waste product. The ureters' role in the process is to carry urine from the kidneys to the
bladder.
Q.2. Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts?
Ans -
Q. 3. Describe various methods of asexual reproduction in organisms with suitable examples?
Ans - Asexual reproduction:
1. It is a form of reproduction in which a single parent produces a new offspring.

2. The new individuals developed are exact copies of their parents.
3. They are clones of their parents.
Various methods of asexual reproduction:

Vegetative propagation
1. In vegetative propagation, new plants are produced from roots, stems, leaves, and buds.
2. It is a form of asexual reproduction.
3. Examples- Tuber of potato, the rhizome of ginger.
Budding
1. Bud is a small outgrowth that grows and gets detached from the parent body.
2. The new detached bud grows, matures, and produces more buds.
3. Examples- Hydra
Fragmentation
1. In this mode of reproduction, the growth is done by rapidly breaking down into more
fragments.
2. When resources (water and nutrients) are available these fragments grow into new individuals.
3. Examples- Algae
Fission
1. Unicellular organism splits into new organisms.

2. There are two types of fission:
i. Binary fission (Amoeba, paramecium, etc.)

ii. Multiple fission (Plasmodium)
Spore Formation
1. Reproduction is done by spores.
Under favorable conditions germinate and develop into a new individual.
Q.4. Name and explain any three methods of contraception?
Ans - Three different methods of contraception:
1. Barrier method: Physical devices like condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps are used. The
prevent entry of sperm in female genital tract, so, act as a barrier between them.
2.Chemical method: They act by changing hormonal balance of body so that eggs are not released
and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for preventing
pregnancies, that is oral pills and vaginal pills.
Oral pills has hormones that stop ovaries from releasing ovum into fallopian tube. It is also called
oral contraceptives. Other contraceptive devices are loop or copper-T, are placed in uterus to
prevent pregnancy.
3. Surgical method: They are carried out in males and females. In males, a small portion of the
sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. It prevents the
eggs to reach the uterus.
In females, fallopian tubes are cut and tied.
Q. 5. Mention the site and product of fertilization in a flower. Draw labelled diagram of a pistil
showing the following parts: Stigma, Style and Ovary.
Ans -
Site of fertilization: Ovary

Product of fertilization: Zygote

CHAPTER -9
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
VSA (MCQ)
1.The process where characteristics are transmitted from parent to offspring’s is called:
(a) Variation
(b) Heredity
(c) Gene
(d) Allele
2.In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired
chromosome is/are
(i) large chromosome (ii) small chromosome (iii) Y-chromosome (iv) X-chromosome
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
3. A trait in an organism is influenced by

(a) paternal DNA only
(b) maternal DNA only
(c) both maternal and paternal DNA
(d) neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA
4. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes then the numbers of
chromosomes in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:
(a) 60
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 40

5. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants as:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait
(b) Shortness is the dominant trait
(c) Tallness is the recessive trait
(d) Height of plant is not governed by gene t or t
6. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to
pure short plants in F2 generation will be:
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
7. Which of the following determines the sex of a child?

(a) The length of the mother’s pregnancy
(b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation
(c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum
(d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm
8. Which is the one characteristic of the parents that can be inherited by their children?
(a) Deep scar on chin
(b) Snub nose
(c) Technique of swimming
(d) Cut nose
9. What is the ancient name for all human beings?

(a) Monkey
(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Invertebrates

10.Which part of the DNA provides information for a protein?

(a) Chromosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) RNA
(d) Gene
11.The genetic constitution of an individual organism is known as its

(a) phenotype (b) homozygous (c) genotype (d) allele
12.The characters which can be observed in an organism is known as its

(a) dominant traits (b) phenotype (c) genotype (d) recessive traits
13. Which chromosome is not in a perfect pair in human males?

(a) Chromosome 13 (b) X chromosome (c) Y chromosome (d) Both (b) and (c)
14. In human sex determination, a zygote which has inherited an X- chromosome from father will be
(a) a male child (b) a female child (c) twins (d) either male or female.
15. When a tall pea-plant (TT) was crossed with a short pea-plant (tt), the progenies were all tall plants
because
(a) tallness is the recessive trait. (b) shortness is the dominant trait.
(c) height of pea-plant is not governed by gene T or t. (d) tallness is the dominant trait.
16. Dihybrid cross is related to the law of

(a) dominance (b) segregation (c) independent assortment (d) none.
17. A tall pea plant was crossed with a dwarf plant and two types of progenies tall and dwarf are
produced in the ratio of 1:1. What are the genotypes of the parents?
(a) TT and tt (b) Tt and TT (c) Tt and Tt (d) Tt and tt

18. Which of the following is totally impossible outcome of Mendel’s Experiment?

(a) 3 tall 1 short plant (b) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(c) 8 tall and 0 short plants (d) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant.
19. Mendel went on to study science and mathematics at the:-

(a) University of Vienna
(b) University of Austria
(c) University of Australia
(d) None
20. In pea plants, the pods may be inflated (I, dominant) or constricted (i, recessive). What proportion
of the offspring would be expected to be inflated, if (Ii) is crossed with (ii)?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
VSA (1 Marks Questions)

1. “Each organism has its own identity” Explain….
2. What is F2 generation?
3. What is the genetic constitution of human sperm?
4.What is genetics?
5.What is the probability that a human progeny wiil be a boy?
SA (2 Marks Questions)
1.List two differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive traits.
2.What are genes? Where are these located?
3. An elephant learns a trick at the circus. Will his offspring’s also know the trick by birth? Support your
answer with reasons.
4.Why we humans are not exact copy of one of the parents?
5.Traits acquired during lifetime of an individual are not inherite(d)
6.What indication do we get by reappearance of dwarf plant in F2 generation?
7. Give an example where sex is determined by the environmental factors.
8.Why did Mendal choose garden pea for his experiments? Write two reasons.

SA ( 3 Marks Questions)
1.How do Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently?
2.How the genes, chromosomes and DNA are inter related to each other?
3. A body builder builds his muscles. Will his child will born with strong muscles? If not, why strength of
muscles didn’t pass on next generation?
4.How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
5. (a) Why did Mendel carry out an experiment to study inheritance of two traits in garden pea?
(b) What were his findings with respect to inheritance of traits in F 1 and F2 generation?
(c) State the ratio obtained in the F2 generation in the above mentioned experiment.
Case based study questions
1. Reproduction results in variation from one generation to the next. The variation produced in the
organisms during the successive generation gets accumulated over a long period of time in an
organism. After several generation these variations comes up in the organisms and the organisms
starts showing up different characteristics and hence leads to the appearance of new species. The
main advantage of variation in a species is that it increases the chance of its survival in a changing
environment. The organisms which shows positive variation, survives. Those who do not show
variations get extinct.
a) What are variations?
b) Why the variations are accumulated over generations?
c) What are the positive variations?
2. The following picture shows the inheritance of gene forms (alleles) for blood group in humans.
a) If blood group of father is A and of mother is B, what are the possible blood groups of their offspring?
b) What will the blood group of child if both parents have “O” blood group?
c) Which allele is recessive in the above case?
Answers 1 Marks VSA-MCQ Questions

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. b b c B a c d b c d
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. c b d b d c d d d b
Answers 1 Marks VSA Questions
1.(i)The DNA of each organism is different from others.

(ii)The DNA of each organism is specific within the same species with specific number to chromosomes
/genes.
2.The generation produced by the offsprings of F1 generation i.e. first generation as parent is called F2
generation.
3. The genetic constitution of sperm is 22+ X chromosome or 22 + Y chromosome.
4. Genetics is a branch of biology concerned with the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in
organisms.
5. 50% probability
ANSWERS. 2 Marks Questions
1. Differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive traits.
Dominant trait Recessive trait
(i) It is the trait controlled by dominant allele. It is the trait controlled by recessive allele.
(ii) It is the trait which is expressed in It is the trait which remains suppressed in
F1 generation. F1 generation and appears in F2 generation.
2. The basic functional unit of heredity are called genes. They are also the structural unit of heredity.
They are located on chromosomes and their locations are called loci (singular-locus). Genes could be
the sequence of DNA in some organisms and those of RNA in some others.
3. Learning a trick at the circus is not an inherited trait. It is an acquired trait which cannot be
transferred into the progeny. So, his offspring’s will not know the trick by birth.
4. Some of the people resemble one of their parents because of genes. Every person has two copies of
each gene inherited from each parent. The dominant gene form is expressed in their body.

5.These are acquired traits that do not make any change to the DNA of an organism.
6.After obtaining progeny in F2 generation in a di hybrid cross, Mendal concluded that when two pairs
of traits are combined in a hybrid, one pair of character segregates independently of the other pair of
character.
7. In some snails and turtles sex is determined by the environmental factors like temperature of water.
8. Mendal choose garden pea for his experiments because
(1)Pea plant is a small and easy to grow
(2)Short life cycle
Answers 3 Marks Questions
1.If a body builder builds his muscles, this trait is acquired trait and restricted to muscles only these
changes don’t affect the DNA of germs cells hence don’t pass on to next generation.
2.Genes are segments of DNA , which is wound compactly into chromosomes.DNA is genetic material
of an organism, genes are the functional part of this material and chromosomes are the vehicles of
heredity as they carry genes.
3.If a body builder builds his muscles, this trait is acquired trait and restricted to muscles only these
changes don’t affect the DNA of germs cells hence don’t pass on to next generation.
4.Equal genetic contribution of male and female parents in the progeny is ensured by the equal inheritance
of chromosome from each parent. Human possesses 23 pairs of chromosomes, of which 22 pairs are
autosomes and 1 pair is the sex chromosomes. The two sex chromosomes in human are X and Y. Females
have 2 X chromosomes and males have a X and Y chromosome. During the process of fertilization, a haploid
sperm fuses with a haploid ovum to produce a diploid zygote. Zygote receives equal amount of genetic
material from each parent and thus, retains the diploid nature on fertilization.
5.(a) Mendel carried out crosses with two traits to see the interaction and basis of inheritance
between them. In a dihybrid cross given by Mendel, it was observed that when two pairs of characters
were considered each trait expressed independent of the other.
(b) For example, a cross between round yellow and wrinkled green parents.

(C) In F1 generation, all plants are with round yellow seeds. But in F2 generation, we find all types of
plants : Round yellow, Round green, Wrinkled yellow, Wrinkled green.F2 generation ratio : Round-
yellow = 9 : Round- green = 3 : Colour of stem in F1 progeny Wrinkled- yellow = 3 : Wrinkled-green = 1
(9:3:3:1)
Answers of Case based questions

1.a) The difference in the characteristics of individual in a population is called variation.
b) Due to their inheritance
c) Variations that provides survival advantage to an organism
2.a)A, B, AB, O
b) O
c) O

CHAPTER 10
LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
Q.1. Rays from sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should
an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(c) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror
Answer- (b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
Q.2. To determine the focal length of a concave mirror by forming image of a distant
object, the screen should be placed
(a) in any direction (b) inclined at angle of 45°
(c) at right angle to the plane of mirror (d) parallel to the plane of mirror
Answer- (d) parallel to the plane of mirror
Q.3. You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media, a
ray of light incident obliquely at same angle would bend the most?
(a) Kerosene (b) Water (c) Mustard oil (d) Glycerine
Answer- (d) Glycerine
Q.4. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the upper half of the lens is
wrapped with a black paper?
(a) The size of the image is reduced to one-half.

(b) The upper half of the image will be absent.
(c) The brightness of the image is reduced.
(d) There will be no effect
Answer- (c) The brightness of the image is reduced.
Q.5. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through
the holes C and D respectively, as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be
inside the box?
(a) A rectangular glass slab (b) A convex lens
(c) A concave less (d) A prism
Answer- (a) A rectangular glass slab
Q.6. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is
formed behind the mirror. This image is:
(a) real (b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted (d) virtual and erect
Answer- (d) virtual and erect
Q.7. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using:
(a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror (d) both concave as well as plane mirror

Answer- (b) a convex mirror
Q.8. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in
front of it.
Answer- (a) is less than one
Q.9. A student determines the focal length of a device 'X' by focusing the image of a
distant object on a screen placed 20 cm from the device on the same side as the
object. The device 'X' is
(a) Concave lens of focal length 10 cm (b) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm (d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
Answer- (d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
Q.10. A small bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens. When the bulb is
switched on, the lens produces:
(a) a convergent beam of light (b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light (d) a patch of coloured light
Answer- (b) a parallel beam of light

ASSERTION AND REASON
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a

statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Q.11. Assertion: A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path.
Reason: In reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
Answer- (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
Q.12. Assertion: Higher is the refractive index of the medium, lesser is the velocity of light in
that medium.
Reason: Refractive index of a medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of
light.
Answer- (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Q.13. Assertion: When a concave mirror is held in water, its focal length will decrease.
Reason: The focal length of a concave mirror depends on the density the medium in
which it is placed.
Answer- (d) If both assertion and reason are false

Q.14. Assertion: A convex lens is made of two different materials. A point object is placed
on the principal axis. The number of images formed by the lens will be two.
Reason :The image formed by convex lens is always virtual.
Answer- (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Q.15. Assertion: Full length image of a distant object, such as a tall building, can be seen in a
convex mirror.
Reason: A convex mirror has a greater focal length than a concave mirror of the same
aperture.
Answer- (c) If assertion is true but reason is false
CASE BASED QUESTIONS ( Que no 16 to 17)
Q.16. Light is a form of energy which induces sensation of vision to our eyes. It becomes
visible when it bounces off on surfaces and hits our eyes. The phenomenon of
bouncing back of light rays in the same medium on striking a smooth surface is called
reflection of light.
If parallel beam of incident rays remains parallel even after reflection and goes only
in one direction is known as regular reflection. It takes place mostly in plane mirrors
or highly polished metal surfaces. The mirror outside the driver side of a vehicle is
usually a spherical mirror and printed on such a mirror is usually the warning "vehicles
in this mirror are closer than they appear."
(i) Which type of mirror is used outside the driver's side of a vehicle?
a) Plane mirror (b) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror (d) Magic mirror

(ii) No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror
can be
(a) Plane (b) Concave
(c) convex (d) Either plane or convex
(iii) Which of the following diagrams represents the image formation in above case?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c ) (iii) (d) (iv)
(iv) If an object is placed at 10 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 60 cm,

then find the position of image.
(a) 4 cm (b) 7.5 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 12.5 cm
(v) The focal length of mirror is 12 cm. The radius of curvature is
(a) 12 cm (b) 24 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 36 cm

Q.17. The refractive index of a medium with respect to vacuum is called absolute refractive
index of the medium. It is
given by, μ = sin i/sinr
Absolute refractive indices of some of the materials A, B, C and D are given in the
following table :
Medium Refractive Index
A 1.54
B 1.33
C 2.42
D 1.65
i) How is absolute refractive index related to speed of light?
(a)µ = C/vm (b)μ=cvm
(c)μ=Vm (d)vμ=c
(ii) In which of the materials given in the above table, light travels fastest?
(a) A b) B (c) C (d) D
(iii) The speed of light in air is 3x108 ms-1 and that in medium A is 2.5 x 10 ms-1. The
refractive index of A will be

(a) 1.2 (b) 0.5
(c)4.5 (d)1.5
(iv) When light travels from air to glass,
(a) angle of incidence > angle of refraction
(b) angle of incidence < angle of refraction
(c) angle of incidence = angle of refraction
(d) Can't say
(v) The refractive index of P with respect to Qis 2. Find the refractive index of Q with
respect to P.
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.2
(c)2 (d)2.5
ANSWERS:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D D C A D B A D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
A A D C C (i) c (i)
(ii) d a
(iii) d (ii) b
(iv) b (iii)a
(V) (iv) a
b (V) a

Q.18. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front
of it is always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray
diagram to support your answer.
Answer- If the image formed by a spherical mirror is always erect and diminished then it is
convex mirror.
Q.19. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -1. Analysing this value
state the (i) type of mirror and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of
the mirror. Draw any diagram to justify your answer.
Answer- (i) Concave mirror because the image is real, inverted.

(ii) Object is placed at C.
Q.20. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term absolute refractive index of a
medium’ and write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
Answer- (a) Laws of refraction of light:

(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two
transparent media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is
constant, for the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media.
This law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.

sini/sinr = constant,
where i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction.
This constant value is called refractive index of the second medium with respect to
the first when the light travels from first medium to second medium.
⇒ constant = n21 = v1/v2 ∴sini/sinr = v1/v2
If n is the absolute refractive index of the medium, c is the velocity of light in vacuum
and v is the speed of light in a given medium, then n = c/v.
Q.21. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b)
virtual image of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in
each diagram.
Answer-
(b) Ray diagrams of an object placed between F1 and optical centre O of lens can be
drawn as follows:
(i) The image formed is virtual and erect.

(ii) Image is formed in front of the lens.
(iii) Image formed is enlarged.

Q.22. State the two laws of reflection of light.
Answer- Laws of reflection of light states that

(i) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
(ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the mirror at the point of
incidence all lie in the same plane.
Q.23. A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror should
a 4 cm tall object be placed so that it forms an image at a distance of 30 cm from the
mirror? Also calculate the size of the image formed.
Answer- Given f = -20 cm v = -30 cm, u = ?

Using 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
1/u = 1/f – 1/v = 1/(−20) – /(−30) = (−3+2)/60
⇒ u = -60 cm
∴ Object placed at 60 cm from the mirror.
Also magnification, m = h′/h = −v/u
⇒ h’ = −(−30)/−60 × 4 = -2 cm
∴ The size of the image is 2 cm.
Q.24. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -1.
If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed?
Where would the image be if the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State
reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your
answer.
Answer- Since the image formed by the mirror is real and inverted, therefore the mirror is
concave and magnification of the mirror will be
m = –v/u ⇒ -1 = –v/u ⇒ v = u
i.e., object and image both are formed at the centre of curvature, i.e., 40 cm from the
mirror.

Now, if the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror, the object will be at the focus
of the mirror and therefore the image will be formed at infinity.
Q.25. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3
respectively. If speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.
Answer-
Q.26. (a) Water has refractive index 1.33 and alcohol has refractive index 1.36. Which of the
two medium is optically denser? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a ray of light passing obliquely from water
to alcohol.
(c) State the relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refraction in the
above case.
Answer- (a) Here, alcohol is optically denser medium as its refractive index is higher than that
of water. When we compare the two media, the one with larger refractive index is
called the optically denser medium than the other as the speed of light is lower in this

medium.
(b) Since light is travelling from water (rarer medium) to alcohol (denser medium), it
slows down and bends towards the normal.
where i = angle of incidence and r = angle of refraction.

(c) According to Snell’s law,
sini/sinr=μalcohol /μwater =1.36/1.33 = 1.0225
∴ sin i = 1.0225 × sin r
Q.27. What is meant by power of a lens? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal
length 40 cm and another of -20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.
Answer- Power is the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens.
It is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
i.e., P = 1/f
Given that: Focal length of lens A, fA = +40 cm

Focal length of lens B, fB = -20 cm
Lens A is converging. Lens B is diverging.
Q.28. Rishi went to a palmist to show his palm. The palmist used a special lens for this
purpose.
(i) State the nature of the lens and reason for its use.
(ii) Where should the palmist place/hold the lens so as to have a real and magnified
image of an object?

(iii) If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm, the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from
the palm, use lens formula to find the position and size of the image.
Answer- (i) The lens used here is a convex lens and it is used as a magnifying glass because at
close range, i.e., when the object is placed between optic centre and principal focus it
forms an enlarged, virtual and erect image of the object.
(ii) When this lens is placed such that the object is between the centre of curvature
and the principal focus, the palmist obtain a real and magnified image.
(iii) Given focal length, f = 10 cm and u = -5 cm According to lens formula,
Thus, the image will be formed at 10 cm on the same side of the palm and the size of
the image will be enlarged.
Q.29. (a) A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the
position, nature and size of the image formed.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing object distance, image distance and focal
length in the above case.
Answer- (a) Given, h = 5 cm, f = 20 cm, u = -30 cm

Using lens formula, 1/v – 1/u = 1/f
1/v=1/u+1/f=1/(−30)+1/20=(−2+3)/60=1/60
⇒ v = 60 cm
Now, magnification, m = h′/h = v/u
⇒ h’ = v/u × h = 60/(−30) × 5 = -10 cm
Hence, the image formed at 60 cm, which is real and magnified.

Q.30. A convex lens can form a magnified erect as well as magnified inverted image of an
object placed in front of it”. Draw ray diagram to justify this statement stating the
position of the object with respect to the lens in each case. An object of height 4 cm is
placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. Use lens
formula to determine the position of the image formed.
Answer- Magnified erect image:
Magnified inverted image:

Given that h = 4 cm, u = -20 cm, f = -10 cm

Lens formula:
1/v – 1/u = 1/f ∴ 1/v – 1/(−20) = 1/(−10)
or 1/v=−1/10−1/20=(−2−1)/20=−3/20 or v = −20/3 cm
Q.31. Size of image of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to be

reduced to 1/3rd of its size. At what distance the object has been placed from the
mirror? What is the nature of the image and the mirror?
Answer-
Therefore the mirror is convex and the image is virtual, erect, and diminished.
Therefore, the mirror is concave and the image is real, inverted and diminished.
Q.32. (i) A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5 D. Find the focal length of
the lens. Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging?
(ii) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How
far is the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
Answer- (i) Power of lens (P) = 1/f

P = 1.5D
f = 1/1.5 = 10/15 = 0.66 m
A convex lens has a positive focal length. Therefore, it is a convex lens or a converging
lens.
(ii) Focal length of concave lens (OF1), f = – 15 cm
Image distance, v= – 10 cm
According to the lens formula,
The negative value of u indicates that the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens.
This is shown in the following ray diagram.

CHAPTER- 10 (HUMAN EYE AND COLORFUL WORLD)

Q. 1. Colour of sky appears blue, due to the
(A) atmospheric refraction (B) presence of plants in water
(C) scattering of light (D) none of these
Q. 2. Colour of sun appears white During the day time beacase

(A) Blue colour scatter most (B) Red colour scatter most
(C) All colours of white light scattered away (D) white colour is least scattered
Q. 3. Red colour is used as danger sign as
(A) red colour scattered least by smoke (B) red colour scattered most by smoke
(C) Red colour absorbs by the smoke (D) red colour moves fast in air
Q. 4. Phenomenon on which human eye is working-
(A) refraction (B) reflection (C) total internal refraction (D) ciliary muscles
Q. 5. Which colour of light refracts most when passes through a prism-
(A) yellow (B) Red (C) orange (D) indigo
Q. 6. Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the eye
(A) pupil (B) iris (C) cornea (D) lens
Q. 7. Which type of image formed on the retina of human eye
(A) Real and Inverted (B) Virtual and Inverted
(C) real and erect (D) virtual and erect
Q. 8. The change of focal length of eye lens is caused by the action of the
(A) ciliary muscles (B) iris (C) cornea (D) pupil

Q. 9 The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye
lens. This is due to
(a) Presbyopia (b) accommodation
(c) near – sightedness (d) far – sightedness
Q. 10 The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a) 25 m (b) 2.5 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 2.5 m
ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS ( Que no 11 to 15 )
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(C) A true but R is false
(D) A false but R is true
Q. 11. Assertion- A beam of white light gives a spectrum on passing through a prism.
Reason- Speed of light outside the prism is different from the speed of light inside the
prism.
Q. 12. Assertion- myopia is called far-slightness
Reason- myopia is corrected by using a concave lens in front of eye lens
Q. 13. Assertion- by using Tyndall effect we can identify the colloidal solutions
Reason- In true solution the path of light is not visible.
Q. 14. Assertion- atmospheric refraction is responsible for advance sunrise and delayed sunset.
Reason- This is happening due to the temperature difference between the layers of air.
Q. 15. Assertion- cataract can be corrected by using bi-focal lens.

Reason – The crystalline lens of old peoples become milky and cloudy; this is due to the age
of person.
Case study-based Questions- ( Que 16 to 20)

When a ray of light incident on a prism it will split in seven colours that is called dispersion of
light. A prism is a transparent refracting body bounded by plane faces which are inclined to each
other at a particular angle called angle of prism denoted by A . When a ray of light passes through
a prism, it suffers refraction twice and hence the ray deviates through a certain angle from its
original path. The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray is called angle of deviation.
Q 16. For which colour the angle of deviation is minimum?
A. Red B. Blue C. Violet D. Yellow
Q 17. When a white light falls on a prism, the ray at its surface suffers:
(A) Refraction only (B) dispersion only
(C) deviation only (D) all of above
Q 18. In nature, dispersion of light is happening in
(A) Blue colour of sky (B) Formation of rainbow
(C) Twinkling of stars (D) advance sunrise
Q 19. The cause of dispersion of light is –
(A) All colours of light travel with the speed more than the speed of light
(B) All colours have different angle of deviation
(C) All the colours of light do not travel with same speed
(D) All the colours have same wavelength
Q 20. The following diagram, the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism is shown
below.

In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation
respectively, are
(a) X, R and T (b) Y, Q and T
(c) X, Q and P (d) Y, Q and P
Answer key
1 (C) 11 (A)
2 (C) 12 (D)
3 (A) 13 (A)
4 (B) 14 (A)
5 (D) 15 (D)
6 (B) 16 (A)
7 (A) 17 (D)
8 (A) 18 (B)
9 (b) 19 (C)
10 (c) 20 (d)
VSA ( Que 21 to 25)
Q.21. What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye ?
Answer: The power of accommodation of the eye is the maximum variation of its power for
focusing on near and far (distant) objects.
Q.22. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be the
type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision ?

Answer: Concave lens.
Q. 23. What is the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision ?
Answer: For a human eye with normal vision the far point is at infinity and near point is 25 cm
from the eye.
Q. 24. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be
the defect the child is suffering from ? How can it be corrected?
Answer: The child is suffering from myopia. The child should use concave lens of suitable focal
length.
Q. 25. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the front row. What could be
the defect the child is suffering from ? How can it be corrected?
Answer: The child is suffering from hypermetropia. The child should use convex lens of suitable
focal length.
Short answer Type questions ( Que 26 to 30)
Q.26. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object
from the eye ?
Answer: The eye lens of a normal eye forms the images of objects at various distances on the
same retina. Therefore, the image distance in the eye remains the same.
Q. 27. Why do stars twinkle?
Answer: Stars appear to twinkle due to atmospheric refraction. The light of star after the entry of
light in earth’s atmosphere undergoes refraction continuously till it reaches the surface
of the earth. Stars are far away. So, they are the point source of light. As the path of light
coming from stars keep changing, thus the apparent position of stars keep changing and
amount of light from stars entering the eye keeps twinkling. Due to which a star
sometimes appear bright and sometimes dim, which is the effect of twinkling.
Q. 28. Explain why the planets do not twinkle?
Answer: The planets are much nearer to the earth than stars and because of this they can be
considered as large source of light. If a planet is considered to be a collection of a very
large number of point sources of light, then the average value of change in the amount of
light entering the eye from all point size light sources is zero. Due to this the effect of
twinkling is nullified.
Q. 29.Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning?
Answer: The light coming from the sun passes through various denser layers of air in the
earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes near the horizon. Most of the part of blue
light and light of small wavelength gets scattered by dust particles near the horizon. So,
the light reaching our eyes is of large wavelength. Due to this the sun appears reddish
at the time of sunrise and sunset.
Q. 30.Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Answer: As an astronaut moves away from the atmosphere of earth, the atmosphere becomes
thin. Due to the absence of molecules (or dust particles) in air, the scattering of light
does not take place. Thus, sky appears dark in the absence of scattering.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( Que 31 to 35)
Q 31. Draw the sketch diagram of human eye. And explain about the different parts of eye.
Answer: -
The human eye is the most sensitive part of the human body. By closing our eyes, we can sense
some objects with their smell, taste, sound they make or by touching them but we cannot identify
the colour without opening our eyes.
Parts of human eyes: -
•Cornea- the outermost part of the eye, light enters from this part.

• Eye lens- it is a convex lens its curvature is controlled by ciliary muscles.
•Iris- The part of the eye which controls the size of the pupil.
Pupil- The aperture of the pupil varies with the help of the iris. Pupil regulates and controls the
amount of light entering the eye.
•Retina- The light-sensitive screen, where the image of any object is formed
Q. 32 . How can we see objects?
Answer: - First light enters in our eye from cornea. If the light is very bright, the iris contracts the
pupil to allow less light to enter the eye and in dim light the iris expends pupil to allow
more light in the eye. This light incident on the eye lens and image is formed at the
retina. The optic nerves transmit electrical impulses to the brain and we get
information about the object.
Q.33. What do you mean by the defect hypermetropia in human eye, how it can be
corrected? Draw suitable ray diagrams.
Answer: -
(i) a person can’t see – nearby objects

clearly
a person can see –distant objects

clearly
(ii) Defect arises due to
-Focal length of eye lens increased (

power decreased)
- Shortening of eyeball
(iii) Defect correction by
Using a convex lens of suitable power

Q.34. What do you mean by the defect myopia in human eye, how it can be corrected? Draw
suitable ray diagrams.
(i) a person can see – nearby

objects clearly
a person can’t see –distant
objects clearly
(ii) Defect arises due to
-Focal length of eye lens
decreased (power increased)
-Elongation of eyeball
(iii) Defect correction by
Using a concave lens of suitable
power
Q.35 . What is dispersion of light? Explain it with a suitable diagram. Draw the necessary
diagram, and show the recombination of light by using glass prisms.
Answer: - Dispersion of light by a glass prism: - The splitting of light into its component colours
is called dispersion of light. A prism can split the incident white light into a band of
colours. The sequence of colours is Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red.
We remember it with “VIBGYOR”.
 The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called its spectrum.
 Red light bends least and violet most.

Recombination of spectrum: - Isaac Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the
spectrum of sunlight. By using one prism light splits in seven colours and by using another prism
in inverted position with respect to the first prism, we found a beam of white light emerging from
the other side of the second prism. So here first prism is splitting second is recombining.

CHAPTER-12
ELECTRICITY
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1.When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.
(b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.
(d) against the direction of the current. (ANS -b )
Q.2. Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its thickness (b) its shape
(c) nature of the material (d) its length
ANS -c
Q.3. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
(a) Joules (b) Kilojoules
(c) Kilowatt-hour (d) Watt-hour
ANS -c
Q.4. The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:
(a) copper (b) nichrome (c) aluminium (d) iron
ANS -b
Q.5. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire
with resistances R1 , R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is true?

(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1 (d) R2 > R3 > R1
ANS -C
Q.6. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6 V
battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J
ANS -c
Q.7. Coulomb is the SI unit of:
(a) Charge (b) current (c) potential difference (d) resistance
ANS-a
Q.8. Work of 14 J is done to move 2 C charge between two points on a conducting wire. What is the
potential difference between the two points?
(a) 28 V (b) 14 V (c) 7 V (d) 3.5 V
ANS -c
Q.9. Calculate the current flow through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.
(a) 1.2 A (b) 0.6 A (c) 0.2 A (d) 2.0 A

ANS - b
Q.10. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W, respectively operating 220 V,
then
(a) R1 < R2 (b) R2 < R1 (c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 ≥ R2
ANS- b
Q.11. Two resistors connected in series give an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in
parallel, give 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance is
(a) each of 5 Ω (b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω (c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω (d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω
ANS-b
Q.12. The resistance of a wire of length 300 m and cross-section area, 1.0 mm² made of material of
resistivity 1.0 x 10⁻⁷ Ω is:
(a). 2 Ω (b). 3 Ω (c). 20 Ω (d). 30 Ω
ANS d
Q.13. Which of the given statements is true regarding ammeter and voltmeter?
(a). Ammeter is connected in series with the required device, Voltmeter in parallel
(b). Both ammeter and voltmeter are connected in series with required device
(c). The voltmeter is connected in series with the device, Ammeter in parallel
(d). They can be connected in any way
ANS -a
Q.14. The obstruction offered by material of conductor to the passage of electric current is known as :
(a) Resistance (b) Conductance (c) Inductance (d) None of these
ANS - a

Q.15. The unit of potential difference is :
(a) Volt (b) Ohm (c) Ampere (d) Faraday
ANS -a
Q.16. The instrument used for measuring electric current is :
(a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer (c) Voltmeter (d) Potentiometer
ANS- a
Q.17. While a cell is being charged, energy is converted into energy.
a. mechanical, electrical b. electrical, chemical
c. heat, electrical d. chemical, heat
ANS -b
Q.18. Copper is not preferred to make fuse wire because it .
a. is a good conductor of electricity b. has a low melting point
c. has a high melting point d. is not easily available
ANS -b
Q.19. Identify the correct circuit diagram:

(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
ANS-d
Q.20. The unit of resistivity is:
(a) V A (b) V A (c) V m /A (d) VA/m
ANS-c
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
Q.1. Assertion (A) : Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have lesser resistance.
Reason (R) : Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.-
ANS - c
Q.2. Assertion (A) : Tungsten metal is used for making filaments of incandescent lamps.
Reason (R) : The melting point of tungsten is very low.
ANS -c

Q.3. Assertion (A) : Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electrical iron, toasters
etc.
Reason (R) : Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures.
ANS -a
Q. 4. Assertion (A) : Bending a wire does not affect electrical resistance.
Reason (R) : Resistance of a wire is proportional to resistivity of material.
ANS – b
1.Electrical resistivities of some substances, at 20°C are given below in the table. Study the table and
answer the given questions.
1. Which is a better conductor of electric current ?
(A) Silver (B) Copper (C) Tungsten (D) Mercury
Ans. Option (A) is correct. Explanation: Silver is a better conductor because it has lower resistivity.
2. Which element will be used for electrical transmission lines ?
(A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Tungsten (D) mercury U
Ans. Option (B) is correct. Explanation: Copper, because it is economical, less oxidative than other
metals and has low resistivity.
3. Nichrome is used in the heating elements of electric heating device because:

(A) It has high resistivity
(B) It does not oxidise readily at high temperature
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above U
Ans. Option (C) is correct. Explanation: Nichrome, as it has very high resistivity / as it is an alloy, it does
not oxidize readily at high temperature.
4. Series arrangement is not used for domestic circuits because:
(A) Current drawn is less
(B) Current drawn is more
(C) Neither of the above
(D) Both of the above
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: In series arrangement, same current will flow through all the appliances which is not
required and the equivalent resistance becomes higher, hence the current drawn becomes less.
2. In the given circuit, three identical bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are connected in parallel with a battery of 4.5
V. Study the diagram and answer the questions given below:
1. What will happen to the other two bulbs if the bulb B3 gets fused ?
(A) They will also stop glowing.

(B) Other bulbs will glow with same brightness.
(C) They will glow with low brightness.
(D) They glow with more brightness.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Other bulbs will glow with same brightness because glowing of bulbs depend upon power
and potential difference, and resistance remain same for other bulbs
2.If the wattage of each bulb is 1.5 W, how much readings will the ammeter A show when all the three
bulbs glow simultaneously?
(A) 1.1 A
(B) 2.1 A
(C) 1.5 A
(D) None of the above
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: When the bulbs are in parallel, wattage will be added (4.5 W) and the ammeter reading
would be, I = P/V = 4.5 /4 = 1.1 A
3. Find the total resistance of the circuit.
(A) 1.0 Ω
(B) 4.1 Ω
(C) 1.5 Ω
(D) 2.0 Ω
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Ammeter reading = 1.1 A, V = 4.5 V, R = V/I = 4.5/1.1 = 4.1 Ω

4. How many resistors of 88 Ω are connected in parallel to carry 10 A current on a 220 V line ?
(A) 2 resistors
(B) 1 resistors
(C) 3 resistors
(D) 4 resistors
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Ohm’s law, V = I Rp , 220 =10 x Rp, Rp = 220/10 =22 Ω For parallel connection 1/ Rp =1/
R1+1/ R2+1/ R3+ -----+ 1/ Rn Here R1 = R2=R3---------------= Rn
ie, 1/ Rp = n/R , Rp = R/n , 22 = 88/n , n=4 resistors.
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS
Q.1.Calculate the number of electrons that would flow per second through the cross- section of a wire
when 1 A current flows in it.
Ans :
Given: I = 1A , t = 1 s , Q = It , Q =1Ax 1s = 1C But Q = ne or n = Q/e = 1 /1.6x10-19
= 6.25 x 108 electrons
Q.2. Define the following terms:
(a) one ampere (b) 1 volt.
Answer:
One Ampere: The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). One ampere is the electric current when one
coulomb of charge flows through a conductor in one second.
One Volt: The SI unit of potential difference is volt (V). One volt is the potential difference between
two points in an electric circuit when one joule of work is done to move a charge of one coulomb from
one point to the other.
Q.3. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. By how much
does the current change?
Answer:
V = IR or V/R= l ,
Since the resistance and the current are inversely proportional, the current will become half.
Q.4. How much work is done in moving a charge of magnitude 3 C across two points having a potential
difference of 12 V?
Answer:
Given : Q = 3 C, V = 12 V
To find: W , as V = W/Q or W = VQ = 12 × 3 = 36 J
Q.5. Define electric power. Write an expression relating electric power, potential difference and
resistance.
Ans. Electric power : It is the amount of electric energy consumed in a circuit per unit time. Expression
: P = V2 /R Where, P = Electric Power, V = Potential difference, R = Resistance
Q.6.Give reason for the following:
a. Tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamp.
b. Why do we use copper and aluminium wires for transmission of electric current?
Ans :
a. Tungsten is used in making the filament of electric lamp because it has high resistivity and high
melting point.
b. The copper and aluminium have low resistivity and high conductivity.
Q.7. List in a tabular form two differences between a voltmeter and an ammeter.

Q.8.Write the factors on which heat produced in a resistor depends
Ans: heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional to
• Square of current (I2)
• Resistance of the resistor (R) and
• Time for which the current flows through the resistor. (t)
H = I2Rt joules , hence By Ohm’s law, we get H = VIt joules = V2 t/R joules
Q.9.Distinguish between resistances in series and resistances in parallel.
Answer:
Resistances in series:
1. If a number of resistances are connected in such a way that the same current flows through each
resistance, then the arrangement is called resistances in series.
2. The current across each resistance is same.
3. The equivalent resistance in series combination is greater than the individual resistances.
4. This combination decreases the current in the circuit.
Resistances in parallel:
1. If a number of resistances are connected between two common points in such a way that the
potential differences across each of them is the same, then the arrangement is called resistances in
parallel.

2. The voltage across each resistance is same.
3. The equivalent resistance in parallel combination is smaller than each of the individual resistances.
4. This combination increases the current in the circuit.
Q.10.What is the better way of connecting lights and other electrical appliances in domestic wiring?
Why?
Answer: The better way of connecting lights and other electrical appliances in domestic wiring is
parallel connection because of the following advantages:
• In parallel circuit, if one appliance stops working due to some defect, then all other appliances keep
working normally.
• In parallel circuit, each electrical appliance has its own switch due to which it can be turned on or off,
without affecting other appliances.
• In parallel circuit, each electrical appliance gets the same voltage (220 V) as that of the power supply
line.
• In parallel circuit, the overall resistance of the domestic circuit is reduced due to which the current
from the power supply is high.
Q.11. Two students perform experiments on series and parallel combinations of two given resistors R1
and R2 and plot the following V-I graphs.

Which of the graphs is (are) correctly labelled in terms of the words ‘Series and parallel’? justify your
answer.
In case of series combination, the effective resistance = R1 + R2 is more, hence slope of V – I graph will
be more. It is otherwise in case of I – V graph. So, series and parallel are correctly marked in graph (ii).
Q.12. A bulb is rated at 5.0 V, 100 mA. Calculate its (a) power and (b) resistance.
Ans: Rating of bulb, V = 5 0. Volt, I = 100 mA = 100 x10-3 A = 0.1A
a. Power of bulb P = V x l or P = 5 .0 x 0 .1 = 0.5W
b. V = IR or R =V/l = 5/0.1 = 50 Ω
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
Q.13.(a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give
reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
Ans: a. Factors on which resistance of a wire depends:
i. Resistance is directly proportional to length (l)
ii. Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross-section(A).
i.e. R α l, R α 1/A or R α l/A
or R = ρ l/A, here ρ is the resistivity of the material at a particular temperature (ie, resistivity
depends on material and temperature)
b. Metals are good conductors due to having large number of free electrons and their low
resistivity. Glass is a bad conductor because it has no free electrons and its resistivity is higher.
c. Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices due to their high resistivity and high
melting point.

Q. 14. A nichrome wire has a resistance of 10 Ω. Find the resistance of another nichrome wire, whose
length is three times and area of cross-section four times the first wire.
Ans: we have resistance R = ρ l/A
For first wire length L1= l, Area of cross section A1= A
So, for first wire resistance R1= ρ l/A = 10 Ω
For second wire length L2 = 3l, Area of cross section A2 = 4A
So, for second wire resistance R2 = ρ 3l/4A
Q.15. State the formula co-relating the electric current flowing in a conductor and the voltage applied
across it. Also, show this relationship by drawing a graph. What would be the resistance of a
conductor, if the current flowing through it is 0.35 ampere when the potential difference across
it is 1.4 volt?
Ans: potential difference V = IR where I is electric current and R, resistance of conductor
ie, V α l
If we plot a graph b/w V and I, it is a straight line.
Graph b/w V and I:

Given current l = 0.35 A, potential difference V = 1.4 V
Resistance R = = 𝑉/𝐼 , R = 1.4 / .35 = 4 Ω
Q. 16.Calculate the total cost of running the following electrical devices in the month of September, if
the rate of 1 unit of electricity is Rs. 6.00. (i) Electric heater of 1000 W for 5 hours daily. (ii)
Electric refrigerator of 400 W for 10 hours daily
Ans. P1 = 1000 W = 1kW, t1= 5h,
P2 = 400 W = 400 /1000 kW = 0.4KW, t2 = 10h
No. of days in September, n = 30
E1 =P1 × t1 × n = 1 kW × 5h × 30 = 150 kWh
E2 =P2 × t2 × n = 0.4kW x 10h x 30 = 120kWh
‫ ؞‬Total energy = (150 + 120) kWh = 270 kWh ,so Total cost = 270 x 6 = Rs. 1620/-
Q. 17.(i) Consider a conductor of resistance ‘R’, length ‘L’, thickness ‘d’ and resistivity ‘ρ’. Now this
conductor is cut into four equal parts. What will be the new resistivity of each of these
parts? Why?
(ii) Find the resistance if all of these parts are connected in:
(a) Parallel (b) Series
(iii) Out of the combinations of resistors mentioned above in the previous part, for a given
voltage which combination will consume more power and why?
Ans. (i) Resistivity will not change as it do not depend on the dimensions of the conductor. It depends
on the nature of material of the conductor.
(ii) The length of each part become L/4, ρ is constant and R = ρL/A

(ii) We know that Power P given as P=V.I =V²/R ( V= IR)
For given voltage parallel connection consume more power because it have low equivalent
resistance.
Q.18. Two bulbs A and B are rated as 90W–120V and 60W–120V respectively. They are connected in
parallel across a 120V source. Find the current in each bulb. Which bulb will consume more
energy?
Ans: First Bulb: 90 W–120 V.
Resistance of first bulb R1= V2 /P1 = 120 𝑋 120/90 = 160 Ω
Current in first bulb I1 = V/R1 = 120 /160 = .75 A
Resistance of second bulb R2 = V2 /P2 = 120 𝑋 120/60 = 240 Ω
Current in second bulb I2 = V/R2 = 120 /240 = .50 A
Power of first bulb is more than second bulb, so first bulb will consume more energy.
Q.19. In the given circuit, A, B, C and D are four lamps connected with a battery of 60 V.

Analyse the circuit to answer the following questions.
(i) What kind of combination are the lamps arranged in (series or parallel)?
(ii) Explain with reference to your above answer, what are the advantages (any two) of this
combination of lamps?
(iii)Explain with proper calculations which lamp glows the brightest?
(iv) Find out the total resistance of the circuit R
Ans. (i) The lamps are in parallel.
(ii) Advantages: If one lamp is faulty, it will not affect the working of the other lamps. They will
also be using the full potential of the battery as they are connected in parallel. (ii) The lamp
with the highest power will glow the brightest. Since P=VI and In this case, all the bulbs
have the same voltage. But lamp C has the highest current.
Hence, for Lamp C, power P = 5 × 60 Watt = 300 W. (the maximum).
(iii) The total current in the circuit = 3+4+5+3 A = 15A , Voltage = 60V
R = V/I = 60/15 = 4 Ω

CHAPTER-13
Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
PART-1 MCQS
Q:1 Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire.
Q:2 The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is

(a) the process of charging a body.
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the
coil.
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Q:3 The device used for producing electric current is called a

(a) generator. (b) galvanometer.
(c) ammeter. (d) motor.
Q:4 The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Q:5 At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit.
(a) reduces substantially. (b) does not change.
(c) increases heavily. (d) vary continuously.
Q:6 The rating of a fuse connected in the lighting circuit is __________.
(a) 5 A (b) 15 A (c) 0 A (d) 10 A
Q:7 The core of electromagnet is:
(a)Soft iron (b) Nickel (c) copper (d) Steel
Q:8 An electric charge in uniform motion produces:

(a) an electric field only (b) a magnetic field only
(c) both electric and magnetic fields (d) both electric and magnetic fields
Q:9 The magnetic field lines always begin from
(a) N-pole and end on S-pole.
(b) S-pole and end on N-pole.
(c) start from the middle and end at N-pole.
(d) start from the middle and end at S-pole.
Q:10 The magnetic field is the strongest at

(a) middle of the magnet. (b) north pole. (c) south pole. (d) both poles.

Q:11 A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside
the solenoid
(a) will become zero. (b) will increase.
(c) will decrease. (d) will remain unaffected
Q:12 A magnetic field directed in north direction acts on an electron moving in east direction.
The magnetic force on the electron will act
(a) vertically upwards. (b) towards east.
(c) vertically downwards. (d) towards north
Q:13 The direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming’s left-hand rule. (b) Fleming’s right-hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule. (d) Left hand thumb rule.
Q:14 Switches are connected to

(a) live wire. (b) neutral wire. (c) earth wire. (d) anyone.
Q:15 The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-
circuiting or Overloading is
(a) earthing (b) use of stabilizers
(c) use of fuse (d) use of electric meter
Q:16 A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when
the keys is ON. The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and on the
axis of the coil) is anticlockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point
from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the faces close to
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large.
Q:17 Choose the incorrect statements from the following regarding magnetic lines of field.
(a) the direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north
pole of a magnetic compass needle points
(b) magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) if magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
(d) relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
Q:18 If the key in the arrangement figure given below is taken out (the circuit is made open) and
magnetic. field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are

(a) concentric circles (b) elliptical in shape

(c) straight lines parallel to each other (Due to earth’s magnetic field)
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it.
Q:19 A constant current flow in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as
shown in the figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be North to South
(a) directly above the wire
(b) directly below the wire

(c) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the north side of the wire
(d) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the wire
Q:20 In the arrangement shown in the figure there are two coils wound on a non-conducting
cylindrical rod. Initially the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed.
Then
(a) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero throughout.

(b) there is a momentary deflection in the galvanometer but it dies out shortly and there is
no effect when the keys are removed.
(c) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are
in the same direction.
(d) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflection are
in opposite directions.
ANSWER 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) C

13) A 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) D

PART-II
Assertion-Reason Type Questions (1 Mark) For question numbers 6 and 10, two
statements are given-one labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.

Q:1 Assertion: Magnetic field lines do not intersect.
Reason: Magnetic field lines are closed curves

Q:2 Assertion: A compass needle gets defected when electric current is passed through the
nearly metallic wire.
Reason: The S.I unit of magnetic field strength is Oersted

Q:3 Assertion: A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.
Reason: When soft iron is placed inside the solenoid it can also be magnetised.
Q:4 Assertion: Compass is a small magnet and gives direction of magnetic field lines. Reason: It
gets deflected when brought near a bar magnet.
Q:5 Assertion: Galvanometer is used to detect current.
Reason: Ammeter is used measure current generated in A.C. generator

ANSWER 1) B 2) C 3) B 4) B 5) B
PART-III CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions 11 to 15 on the basis of your understanding of the

following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
Paragraph I: the phenomenon of generation of an electric current in a circuit from

magnetic effects, i.e., by changing the magnetic flux linked with it is called electromagnetic
induction. This phenomenon is widely used to construct generation which produce large
scale electric power for domestic and industrial use.

The magnetic field reparented by Fig. 4.39 (a) is due to:

(a) A source of uniform magnetic field
Q:1 (b) A source of non-uniform magnetic field
(c) A bar magnet
(d) A straight current-carrying conductor
Q:2 The magnetic field represented by Fig. 4.39 (b) is/due to:
(a) A circular coil
(b) A solenoid
(c) Uniform
(d) A straight conductor
The magnetic field represented by Fig. 4.39 (c) is/due to:

(a) A bar magnet
(b) Non-uniform magnetic field
(c) A straight current-carrying conductor
Q:3 (d) Uniform magnetic field
Q:4 The magnetic field lines Fig. 4.39 (d) represented the magnetic field due to:
(a) A straight current-carrying conductor
(b) A circular coil
(c) A solenoid
(d) A source of uniform magnetic field
Q:5 Two organs where magnetic field is produced are
(a) Heart and lungs
(b) Heart and brain
(c) Brain and lungs
(d) Heart and Liver
ANSWER 1) D 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B

PART-IV VSA
Q:1 What is meant by magnetic field?
ANS: Magnetic field: It is defined as the space surrounding the magnet in which magnetic force can
be experienced.
Q:2 Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. Name the device which is used to draw
magnetic field lines.
ANS:
Compass needle is used to draw magnetic field lines.
Q:3 Write one application of Flemings left hand rule.
Flemings left hand rule is used to find the direction of force on a current carrying conductor
ANS: placed in a magnetic field acting perpendicular to the direction of current.
Q:4 What is the function of a galvanometer in a circuit?
Galvanometer is an instrument that can detect the presence of electric current in a circuit
ANS:
Q:5 Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
ANS: A compass needle behaves like a small bar magnet when it is brought near a bar magnet. Its
magnetic field lines interact with that of bar magnet. Hence compass needle gets deflected.
Q:6 Explain why magnetic field lines are closed curves?
ANS: They are continuous closed curves because they diverge from the north pole of a bar magnet
and converge to its south pole.
Q:7 Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other?
No two magnetic field lines intersect each other because if they did, it would mean that at the
ANS: point of intersection, the compass needle would point towards two directions, which is not
possible.
Q:8 What type of core is used to make electromagnets?
ANS: Soft Iron
Q:9 When is the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
greatest?
When the current in the conductor flows perpendicular (90°) to the direction of the magnetic
ANS:
field, maximum force is generated.
Q:10 A beam of alpha particles enters a chamber moving along the magnetic field. What is the
magnetic force experienced by the beam?
Zero, it is because beam is moving parallel to the magnetic field.

ANS:
Q:11 What is the pattern of field lines inside a solenoid? What do they indicate?
ANS: The magnetic field is in the form of parallel lines. It indicates a uniform magnetic field because
magnetic field lines are parallel.
Q:12 How is magnetic field produced in a solenoid used?
ANS: It is used to magnetise a soft iron bar to form an electromagnet.
Q:13 What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right-hand thumb rule?
ANS: The thumb indicates the direction of current in the straight conductor held by curved fingers of
our hand.
Q:14 Suggest one way to distinguish a wire carrying current from a wire carrying no current.

ANS: The magnetic compass needle will get deflected near the wire current carrying but not near
the wire with no current
Q:15 Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron beam,
moving horizontally from the back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong
magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
ANS:
The direction is vertically downwards
SHORT ANSWER
Q:1 The given magnet is divided into three parts A, B and C as: A B C Name the part when the
strength of magnetic field is:
(i)maximum, (ii) minimum. How will the density of magnetic field lines differ at these parts?
ANS: (i) Maximum of magnetic field strength is at ‘A’ and ‘C’
(ii) Minimum of magnetic field strength is at ‘B’.
At ‘A’ and ‘C’ magnetic field lines are crowded whereas these are spread out at ‘B’.
Q:2 A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation for the
following cases, and give reason for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is displaced
away from the wire.
ANS:
(a) Observation: The compass needle is deflected more. Reason: Current carrying wire
produces magnetic field, (B α I). (b) Observation: The deflection of magnetic needle decreases.
Reason: The strength of magnetic field decreases with increase in distance from the wire. (B∝
1/d)
Q:3 The magnetic field associated with a current carrying straight conductor is in anticlockwise
direction. If the conductor was held along the east-west direction, what will be the direction of

current through it? Name and state the rule applied to determine the direction of current.
ANS:
When the observer observes the direction of magnetic field from west then the direction of
current is from east to west and if observer is at east side then the direction of current is from
west to east. Right hand thumb rule: If we hold a current carrying conductor in our right hand
in a such a way that stretched thumb is along the direction of the current, then curls of fingers
around the conductor represents the direction of magnetic field lines.
Q:4 (a) In a pattern of magnetic field lines due to bar magnet, how can the regions of relative
strength be identified?
(b) Compare the strength of magnetic field near the poles and the middle of a bar magnet.
ANS:
(a) The closeness of lines measures the relative strength of magnetic field.
(b) The strength of magnetic field is highest near the poles whereas minimum in the middle of
bar magnet.
Q:5 Why and when does a current carrying conductor kept in magnetic field experiences force?
List the factors on which direction of force will depend.
ANS:
The movement of electrons takes place in the conductor in a particular direction when current
is passed through it. These charged particles are moving in the magnetic field which
experiences force. The current carrying conductor has its own magnetic field, when it
superimposes the magnetic field of magnet. Due to this, current carrying conductor
experiences a force. Thus, conductor experiences a force when placed in a uniform magnetic
field.
Factors on which direction of force depends: (i) The direction of force depends upon the
direction of magnetic field.
(ii) It also depends upon the direction of current flowing through the conductor.
(iii) The strength of magnetic field is directly proportional to the strength of current.
Q:6 State how the magnetic field produced by a straight current carrying conductor at a point
depends on:
(a) current through the conductor.
(b) distance of point from conductor.
ANS: Strength of magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying wire at a given point is
(a) directly proportional to the current passing through it.
(b) inversely proportional to the distance of that point from the wire.
Q:7 Distinguish between a bar magnet and an electromagnet.
ANS:
Q:8 Find the direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying circular coil held:
(i) vertically in North – South plane and an observer looking it from east sees the current to
flow in anticlockwise direction,
(ii) vertically in East – West plane and an observer looking it from south sees the current to
flow in anticlockwise direction,
(iii) horizontally and an observer looking at it from below sees current to flow in clockwise
direction.
ANS:
According to right hand rule, the direction of magnetic field is
(i) west to east
(ii) north to south
(iii) into the paper.
Q:9 What is solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of

(i) a current carrying solenoid and
(ii) a bar magnet.
List two distinguishing features between the two fields.
ANS
(i) Solenoid: A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped in the shape of
cylinder is called solenoid.

The pattern of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid indicates that the magnetic field is the
same at all points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform inside the solenoid.
(ii) Magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Following are the distinguishing features between the two fields.

(a) A bar magnet is a permanent magnet whereas solenoid is an electromagnet, therefore field
produced by solenoid is temporary and stay till current flows through it.
(b) Magnetic field produced by solenoid is stronger than magnetic field of a bar magnet.
Q:10 (a) Fuse acts like a watchman in an electric circuit. Justify this statement.
(b) Mention the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to (i) lights and fans (ii)
appliance of 2 kW or more power.
(a)
ANS: When an unduly high electric current flows through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to
joule heating effect and breaks the circuit. Hence, it keeps an eye on the amount of current
flowing and also stops the current if exceeds the maximum value. So, fuse acts like a
watchman in an electric circuit. (b) (i) A fuse of rating 5A is usually used
for lights and fans.
(ii) A fuse of rating 15 A is usually used for appliance of 2 kW or more power.
LONG ANSWERS
Q:1 What is a solenoid? Draw a diagram to show field lines of the magnetic field through and
around a current carrying solenoid. State the use of magnetic field produced inside a solenoid.
List two properties of magnetic lines of force.
ANS: Solenoid: A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped in the shape of cylinder
is called solenoid. The pattern of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid indicates that the
magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform inside the
solenoid. Solenoid is used to form strong but temporary magnet called electromagnets. These
electromagnets are used in wide variety of instruments and used to lift heavy iron objects. (a)
Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other. (b) Magnetic field are closed curves.

Q:2 (a) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. With the help of a labelled
diagram state what would be seen if a bar magnet with its south pole towards one face of this
coil is
(i) moved quickly towards it,
(ii) moved quickly away from it,
(iii) placed near its one face?
(b) Name the phenomena involved in the above cases.
(c) State Fleming’s right-hand rule.
ANS: (a) If a coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer and a bar magnet with south pole is
moved towards one face of the coil then, given situation is shown in the figure.
(i) Moved quickly towards the coil: A current is induced in clockwise direction in the coil with
respect to the side facing the north pole of the magnet and needle of galvanometer will deflect
in one direction from zero position.
(ii) Moved quickly away from coil: A current is induced in anti-clockwise direction in the coil with
respect to the side facing the north pole of the magnet and the needle of the galvanometer will
deflect in opposite direction from (i).
(iii) Placed near its one face : No deflection of the needle of galvanometer is observed.
(b) The phenomena involved is called electromagnetic induction.
(c) Fleming’s right-hand rule: Stretch the right hand such that the first finger, the central finger
and the thumb are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the first finger points along the
direction of the field (magnetic field) and the thumb points along the direction of motion of the
conductor, then the direction of induced current is given by the direction of the central finger.
Q:3 A current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field now answer the following.
(i) List the factors on which the magnitude of force experienced by conductor depends.
(ii) When is the magnitude of this force maximum?
(iii) State the rule which helps in finding the direction of motion of conductor. (iv) If initially this
force was acting from right to left, how will the direction of force change if: (a) direction of
magnetic field is reversed?
(b) direction of current is reversed?
(i) When a current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a magnetic force
ANS: that depends on (a) current flowing in the conductor (b) strength of magnetic field (c) length of
the conductor (d) angle between the element of length and the magnetic field. (ii) Force
experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest when the
direction of current is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. (iii) The rule used in
finding the direction of motion of the conductor placed in a magnetic field is Fleming’s left-hand
rule.
Fleming’s left-hand rule is as follows: Stretch out the thumb, the forefinger, and the second
(middle) finger of the left hand so that these are at right angles to each other. If the forefinger
gives the direction of the magnetic field (N to S), the second (middle) finger the direction of
current then the thumb gives the direction of the force acting on the conductor. (iv) (a)
Direction of force will be reversed when direction of magnetic field is reversed, i.e., now force
on conductor will act from left to right. (b) Direction of force will be reversed, if the direction of
current is reversed, i.e., the force on the conductor will act from left to right.
Q:4 Describe an activity with labelled diagram to show that a force acts on current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field and its direction of current through conductor. Name the
rule which determines the direction of this force.
A small aluminium rod suspended horizontally from a stand using two connecting wires. Place a
strong horseshoe magnet in such a way that the rod lies between the two poles with the
magnetic field directed upwards. For this, put the north pole of the magnet vertically below and
south pole vertically above the aluminium rod.

ANS:
Connect the aluminium rod in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat. Pass a current through
the aluminium rod from one end to other (B to A). The rod is displaced towards left. When the
direction of current flowing through the rod is reversed, the displacement of rod will be towards
right. Direction of force on a current carrying conductor is determined by Fleming’s left-hand
rule.
Q:5 PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure below.
(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S?
(ii) Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
ANS: (iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the direction of
the magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight current
carrying conductor.
(i) The Magnetic field lines produced is into the plane of the paper at R and out of it at S.
(ii) Field at S > Field at P. Magnetic field strength for a straight current carrying conductor is
inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.
(iii) The current will be going from top to bottom in the wire shown and the magnetic field lines
are now in the clockwise direction on the plane which is perpendicular to the wire carrying
current.
(iv) Right hand thumb rule. The thumb is aligned to the direction of the current and the
direction in which the fingers are wrapped around in wire will give the direction of the
magnetic field.

CHAPTER 15
OUR ENVIRONMENT
Q.1. In a given food chain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 6 kJ, what will be the
energy available at the producer level?
(a) 6000 kJ (b) 20 kJ (c) 60 kJ (d) 600 kJ
Q.2. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste ?
(a) DDT (b) Aluminium can
(c) Plastic bag (d) Cow dung
Q.3. Which of the following is the best way for disposal of vegetable and fruit peels?
(a) Landfill (b) Recycling (c) Composting (d) Burning
Q.4. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each
higher trophic level is known as:
(a) Eutrophication (b) Pollution (c) Biomagnification (d) Accumulation
Q.5. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in
the form of :
(a) heat energy (b) light energy (c) chemical energy (d) mechanical energy
Q.6. In the given Figure, the various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At which trophic level is
maximum energy available?

(a) T4 (b) T2 (c) T1 (d) T3
Q.7. Which of the statements is incorrect?
(а) All green plants and blue green algae are producers
(b) Green plants get their food from organic compounds
(c) Producers prepare their own food from inorganic compounds
(d) Plants convert solar energy into chemical energy
Q.8. What will happen if Deer is missing in the food chain given below?
Grass → Deer → Tiger
(а) The population of tiger increases
(b) The population of grass decreases
(c) Tiger will start eating grass
(d) The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass increases
Q.9. When is the World Environment Day celebrated?
(a) 16 June (b) 5 December (c) 5 June (d) 5 July
Q.10. Which of these is a greenhouse gas?
(a) Hydrogen Sulphide (b) Methane (c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
Q.11. The transfer of Energy in a food chain is always:
(a) Unidirectional (b) Methane
(c) Bi-directional (d) Random

Q.12. If a grasshopper is eaten by frog, then the energy transfer will be from:
(a) producers to decomposers
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer
Q.13. The % of solar radiation absorbed by all green plants for photosynthesis is about ———–.
(a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10%
Q.14. Study the image given below and answer the following questions.
(i) Which among the following are the Primary Producers?
(a) Algae (b)Phytoplankton (c) Algae and phytoplankton (d)Green plants
(ii) Which group of organisms may have higher Bio-magnification?
(a) Producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Secondary Consumer (d) Tertiary consumers
(iii) Which is the Primary source of energy in an ecosystem?
(a) Soil (b)Water (c) Sun (d) Carbon dioxide
(iv) The image given above is an example of
(a) Aquatic ecosystem (b) Terrestrial ecosystem
(c) Land ecosystem (d) Natural aquatic ecosystem
Q.15. In 1987 the -------------------- Succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC Production

(a) UNESCO (b) UNEP (c) UNCTED (d) UNICEF
Q.16. O2 ----UV → O + O ; O + O2 →O3 (Ozone)
The role of UV rays in this reaction is -------
(a) To Split Oxygen molecule (b) To unite oxygen molecule
(c) To Destroy Ozone (d) None
Q. 17. O3---------???---------→ O2 + (O+O)
Which substance catalyzes the reaction?
(a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Neon
Q.18. Find out the energy available to the bird if energy of the plant is 10000 KJ :
(a) 100 KJ (b) 10 KJ (c) 1KJ (d). 5KJ
Q.19.Which group of waste materials can be classified as Non biodegradable ?
(a) Plant waste, used tea bags (b) Polyethene bags, plastic toys
(c) Used tea bags, paper straw (d) Old clothes, broken footwear
Q.20. Environment includes:
(a) Land, air, water (b) Light, temperature, rainfall
(c) Plants, animals, microbes (d) All of these
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) If both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
Q.1. Assertion (A) : Man is a herbivore.
Reason(R) : Omnivores eat both plant food and meat of animals.
Q.2. Assertion (A) : Garden is an artificial ecosystem.
Reason(R) : Biotic and abiotic components are manipulated by humams.
Q. 3. Assertion (A) : Biotic components of ecosystem continuously require energy to carry on life
processes.
Reason(R) : Abiotic components are non-living factors of ecosystem.
Q.4. Assertion (A) : Decomposers act as cleaning agents of the environment.
Reason (R) : The decomposers recycle waste material in the hydrosphere.
Q.5. Assertion (A) : Food chain is responsible for the entry of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
Reason(R) : The length and complexity of food chain vary greatly.
The belief the Ganga River is "holy" has not, however, prevented over-use, abuse and pollution of
the river. All the towns along its length contribute to the pollution load. It has been assessed that
more than 80 per cent of the total pollution load (in terms of organic pollution expressed as
biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)) arises from domestic sources, i.e., from the settlements along
the river course. Due to over-abstraction of water for irrigation in the upper regions of the river, the
dry weather flow has been reduced to a trickle. Rampant deforestation in the last few decades,
resulting in topsoil erosion in the catchment area, has increased silt deposits which, in turn, raise
the river bed and lead to devastating floods in the rainy season and stagnant flow in the dry season.
Along the main river course there are 25 towns with a population of more than 100,000 and about
another 23 towns with populations above 50,000. In addition, there are 50 smaller towns with
populations above 20,000. There are also about 100 identified major industries located directly on

the river, of which 68 are considered as grossly polluting. Fifty-five of these industrial units have
complied with the regulations and installed effluent treatment plants (ETPs) and legal proceedings
are in progress for the remaining units. The natural assimilative capacity of the river is severely
stressed. The principal sources of pollution of the Ganga River can be characterized as follows:
1.1. Accumulation of toxic substances at higher trophic levels of an ecosystem through the food
chain in water bodies affects which of the following organisms more?
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton (c) Small fishes (d) Large fishes
1.2. When toxic chemicals and nutrients get deposited in the water bodies, which of the following
gases get depleted in the water bodies?
(a) Oxygen (b)Carbon dioxide (c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide (d)Nitrogen
1.3. Which of the following activities may pollute the river water more?
(a) Bathing using detergent and soap (b) Discharging animals excreta
(c) Deposit flowers and leaves as the part of puja (d) Bathing without soap and detergent
1.4. Which of the following organisms grow abundant in water when the water get mixed with
nutrients like sulphates, phosphates etc.?
(a) Algae (b) Zooplankton (c) Small fishes (d) Large fishes
1.5 .Green Algae and Diatoms are the major producers of Aquatic ecosystem .Which of the
following will be more in the aquatic ecosystem:
(a) Small fishes (b) Large fishes (c) Algae and phytoplankton (d) Tadpole
The atmosphere is a blanket of air and a precious natural resource for sustaining life on the
Earth. Unfortunately, human activities based on national/personal interests are causing harm
to this common resource, notably by depleting the fragile ozone layer, which acts as a
protective shield for life on the Earth. Ozone molecules consist of three oxygen atoms, Ozone
molecules are exceeding rare: fewer than ten in every million molecules of air. However, for
nearly a billion years, their presence in the atmosphere has played a vital role in safeguarding
life on Earth. The ozone in the troposphere (up to 110 kilometres above the Earth's surface) is
'bad' ozone which can damage lung tissues and plants. But about 90 per cent of ozone found in
the stratosphere (between 10 and 40 kilometres above the Earth's surface) is "good" ozone
which plays a beneficial role by absorbing dangerous ultraviolet (UV-B) radiations from the Sun.
Without this beneficial ozone layer, humans would be more susceptible to certain diseases due
to the increased incidence of ultraviolet rays from the Sun.
2.1. Ozone molecules consists of:
(a) Three oxygen atoms only (b) two oxygen atoms only
(c) Only one atom of oxygen (d) None of the above
2.2. Depletion of ozone layer is mainly due to
(a) Use of CFC’s (b) Use of halogens (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
2.3. U-V rays can cause diseases in humans like
(a) Skin cancer only (b) Cataract only (c) Lung cancer (d) Both (a) and (b)
2.4. Ozone holes are more pronounced at the :
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) Poles
2.5. Which of the following is an ozone depleting substance?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Methyl chloride (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
Q.3. Read the following and answer the questions :Food chains are very important for the survival
of most species. When only one element is removed from the food chain it can result in
extinction of a species in some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary
producers. Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to
create complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so
must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the sun's light is
necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has
recently been discovered that there are some forms of life, chemotrophs , that appear to gain
all their metabolic energy from chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing
that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.

3.1. If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar
energy will be converted into food energy?
(a) 10,000 J (b) 100 J (c) 1000 J (d) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant
3.2. Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be considered as
occupying
(a) First trophic level (b) Second trophic level
(c) Third trophic level (d) Fourth trophic level
3.3. The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is
because decomposers:
(a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
(b) Do not breakdown organic compounds
(c) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
(d) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms
3.4. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(a) Decrease in energy in higher trophic levels (b) Less availability of food
(c) Polluted air (d) Water
3.5. Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of
(a) Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.

(b) Energy is in repeated circulation and matter is unidirectional.
(c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
(d) Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.
Observe the food web and answer the Questions given below :
4.1. The mussel can be described as:-
(a) Producer (b) Primary consumer (c) Secondary consumer (d) Decomposer
4.2. Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?
(a) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers (b) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
(c) Herbivores – primary consumers (d) Omnivores – mold, yeast and mushrooms
4.3 The given figure best represents:
(a) Grass food chain (b) Parasitic food chain (c) Forest food chain (d) Aquatic
food chain
4.4. In the food web, what two organisms are competing for food?

(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) D and F (d) B and D
4.5. Why do all food chains start with plants ?
(a) Because plants are easily grown. (b) Because plants are nutritious.
(c) Because plants can produce its own energy. (d) Because plants do not require energy.
Study the image given below and answer the following questions.
5.1 The ecosystem consists of
(a) Biotic components only (b) Abiotic components only
(c) Both biotic and abiotic components (d) None of the above
5.2. Which among the following are the Primary Producers?
(a) Algae (b) Phytoplankton (c) Algae and phytoplankton (d) Green plants
5.3. Which group of organisms may have higher Bio-magnification?
(a) Producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Secondary Consumer (d) Tertiary consumers
5.4. Which is the Primary source of energy in an ecosystem?
(a) Soil (b) Water (c) Sun (d) Carbon dioxide
5.5. The image given above is an example of
(a) Aquatic ecosystem (b) Terrestrial ecosystem
(c) Land ecosystem (d) Natural aquatic ecosystem
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ANS A D C C C B C D C B
Q. NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS A C A C B A A B B D
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. NO. 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5
ANS D A B C B
Q. NO. 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5
ANS D C A A A A C D D B
Q. NO. 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5
ANS B C A A C C D A D C
Q. NO. 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5
ANS C C D C D

Q.1. What is the full form of CFCs and UNEP?
Ans: CFC=Chlorofluorocarbons UNEP = United Nations Environment Programme
Q.2.Construct an aquatic food chain showing four trophic levels.
Ans: Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish → Bird.
Q.3.List two causes of depletion of ozone layer
Ans: Two causes of depletion of ozone layer are as follows:
a. Use of CFC’s b. Use of Halogens
Q.4 Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystems?
Ans: Crop fields are man made and some biotic and abiotic components are manipulated by humans
Q.5. What are decomposers? Give two examples.
Ans: Decomposers are organisms that live on dead and decaying matter. They convert complex organic
material into simple materials and mix with soil. Eg: fungi, bacteria.
Q.1. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one
example each. List two changes in habit that people must adapt to dispose non-biodegradable
waste for saving the environment.
Ans: A. Biodegradable substances: Substances that can be slowly destroyed and broken down into very
small parts by natural processes i.e., by bacteria, fungi, etc. For example, organic wastes like
vegetables and fruit peels.
B. Non-biodegradable substances: Substances that cannot be broken down or decomposed into

the soil by natural agents are called as nonbiodegradable.For example, plastic. a. Segregating and
treating the non-biodegradable waste before putting in dustbins. b. Recycle the plastics or glass

present in non-biodegradable wastes. c. Motivate people to use paper or jute bags instead of
plastic bags.
Q.2 How is ozone formed in the higher level of the atmosphere? “Damage to ozone layer is a cause of
concern”. Justify this statement.
Ans: Ozone is formed due to action of UV rays on oxygen molecules to form free oxygen atom which
subsequently combines with another molecule of oxygen to form ozone. The reaction is: O + O2
→ O3 (Ozone) Ozone depletion is a cause of concern because it protects us from the harmful
ultraviolet radiations of the Sun by absorbing them. The UV rays can cause skin cancer, ageing,
cataract, etc. to human beings if they are not absorbed by ozone due to ozone depletion.
Q.3. Explain phenomenon of “biological magnification”. How does it affect organisms belonging to
different trophic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?
Ans: The levels of harmful toxicants/pesticides like DDT get increased at successive trophic levels as
they are neither metabolized nor excreted by the organism. They get accumulated in organism’s
body with their higher concentrations at higher trophic levels. This is called as biological
magnification Since, the tertiary consumers are at the top of the food chain, so a higher amount
of these toxicants is present in them compared to the lower trophic levels
Q.4. Pesticides like DDT which are sprayed to kill pests on crops are found to be present in the soil,
ground water, water bodies etc. Explain. How do they reach these places?
Ans: Soil: Pesticides are used to protect plants from insects. They consequently get settled into soil
particles, when used on plants. Groundwater: Through irrigation in the fields, these pesticides
present in soil pass into lower layers of soil and reach ground water.
Q.5. Food web increases the stability of an ecosystem. Justify.
Ans: Food web shows food relationship in an ecological community. It consists of many food chains.
Thus, if any one organism becomes endangered or extinct, the one dependent in it has an
alternative option available to him for survival. In this way food web increases stability in the
ecosystem

Q.1. Explain some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment.
Ans: Harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment are
a. Change in the chemistry of soil and killing of useful microbes due to excessive use of
fertilizers.
b. Biological magnification occurs due to excessive use of chemical pesticides.
c. Water table gets lowered due to the excess use of ground water.
d. Soil fertility is lost due to extensive cropping.
e. The natural ecosystems are harmed due to ploughing during agriculture.
Q.2. In a food chain, if 10000 Joules of energy is available to the producer, how much energy will be
available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer?
Ans: . Energy which will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer
are
a. Energy available to producers = 10,000 Joules. Energy transfer to producer = 1% of 10,000 Joules
= 100 Joules.
b. According to Ten per cent law, Energy transfer to primary consumer = 10100 × 100 = 10 Joules.
c. Energy transfer to secondary consumer = 10100 × 10 = 1 Joule. d. Energy transfer to tertiary

consumer = 10100 × 1 = 0.1 Joule
Q.3. Suggest any four activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Ans: The eco-friendly activities in life are
a. Planting of trees
b. Segregating biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
c. Using cloth bags, jute bags or paper bags instead of plastic bags

d. Creating awareness on environment protection through initiatives and campaigns e. Using of

manures and organic agricultural methods Using less of chemical fertilizers and pesticides f.
Controlling pollution by using fuels like CNG.
Q.4. “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional”. Justify this statement. Explain how the pesticides
enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Ans: Because the energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels and is no longer
available to the previous trophic level. The energy captured by autotrophs does not revert to the
solar input.
a. Pesticides, used for crop protection when washed down into the soil/ water body, are
absorbed by the plant along with water and minerals
b. Plants are consumed by animals and these chemicals get into animal body
c. Being non-biodegradable, these chemicals get accumulated progressively in the food chain
and into our body
d. As we go into higher levels of food chain amount of harmful substances will increase in the
body of organisms as a result of biomagnification
Q.5. (a) In the following food chain, 5 J of energy is available to man. How much energy was available
at the producer level?
Plants→Sheep→Man
(b) Explain phenomenon of “biological magnification”. How does it affect organisms belonging to
different trophic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?
Ans: (a) By 10% energy law the required energy available at the producer level was 500 Joules.
(b) The levels of harmful toxicants/pesticides like DDT get increased at successive trophic levels
as they are neither metabolized nor excreted by the organism. They get accumulated in
organism’s body with their higher concentrations at higher trophic levels. This is called as
biological magnification Since, the tertiary consumers are at the top of the food chain, so a
higher amount of these toxicants is present in them compared to the lower trophic levels

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What are some examples of harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment?

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How does energy transfer occur at different trophic levels in a food chain?

SCIENCE/X/QUESTION BANK/2022-23

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

(a) Green (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Brown

(a) No change takes place

(b) The colour of the solution becomes yellow.

(c) A pungent smelling gas gets liberated

(d) Small bubbles of H2 gas appear on the surface of zinc pieces

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

Q.4. Chemically rust is:

(a) Hydrated ferrous oxide (b) Hydrated ferric oxide

(c) Only ferric oxide (d) None of these

Q.5. In the reaction:

(a) PbO is oxidised (b) C acts as an oxidising agent

(a) Oxidising agent (b) Reducing agent

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these.

(a) Decomposition Reaction (b) Displacement Reaction

(c) Double Displacement Reaction (d) Neutralisation Reaction

(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced

(c) No reaction takes place

(d) Iron salt and water are produced

Q. 10. In an electrolytic cell where electrolysis is carried, cathode has:

(a) Positive change (b) Negative charge

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q.12. Which of the following is not a balanced equation?

(a) Fe + Cl2 FeCl3 (b) Mg + CuSO4 MgSO4 +Cu

(c) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O (d) Zn + S ZnS

Q.13. Dissolving sugar is an example of:

(a) Physical change (b) Chemical change

(c) Redox reaction (d) None of these

Q.14. We store silver chloride in dark colored bottles because it is

(a) A white solid (b) Undergoes redox reaction

(c) To avoid action by sunlight (d) None of the above.

Q.15. The reaction H2 + Cl2  2 HCl represents:

(a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) decomposition (d) combination

(a) ZnSO4 (b) FeSO4 (c) AgNO3 (d) NiSO4

3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g)

(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised

(ii) Water is getting reduced

(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent

(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)

(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble) (b) Lead acetate

(c) Ammonium nitrate (d) Potassium sulphate

(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4.

(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMNO4.

(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.

(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and de-composes in presence of FeSO4. to a colourless

Q.20. In an electric cell where electrolysis is carried out, anode has:

(a) Positive charge (b) Negative charge

ASSERTION- REASON QUESTIONS :

(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

Ans : (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect

Q. 2. Assertion: Corrosion of iron is commonly known as rusting.