12th REVISION BATCH

Batch : 2023-24
NEET GT - 01- PHASE-II
Date : 17/02/2024
SYLLABUS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY
Vectors, Kinematics, Projectile Periodic table, Chemical Bonding, Morphology of Flowering Plant,
Motion, Work, Energy & Power, Nomenclature, p-Block Elements, Organism & Population, Ecosystem,
Fluids, Surface Tension, Ray Optics Co-ordination Compound, Biodiversity and Conservation,
Atoms, Nuclei, Dual Nature, Electrochemistry (Conductance & Principle Inheritance and Variation,
Semiconductor Conductivity, Faraday’s, Law, Molecular Basis of Inheritance,
Galvanic Cell), Chemical Kinetics, Locomotion and Movement, Animal
Tissue, Chemical coordination &
Integration, Human Reproduction,
Reproductive Health

SYLLABUS for CWT - 05 : Dated 20/02/2024

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY
NLM, Friction Thermodynamics Biotechnology-1 &
Relative Motion Isomerism Biotechnology-2
Neural Control &
Coordination

Near Vimal Girls Hostel, Tution Area, Signal Camp, Latur.

SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II

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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
A Premier Institute for Pre-Medical & Pre Engineering
SRI

“Transforming Your DREAMS Into Reality...!”

NEET

Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. Revision Batch/Test-Series -2023-24 Marks : 720

Roll No. NEET – GT - NO : 01 (PHASE-II) Date : 17/02/2024

PHYSICS

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and contains 200 questions. Maximum marks is 720.
2. Each question carries 4 marks for correct response, however, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect response.
3. In Section B of each subject attempt any 10 Questions out of 15.
4. Use of electronic or manual calculator is prohibited.
SECTION-A 04. If we need a magnification of 375 from a compound
01. An object is thrown vertically upwards. At its microscope of tube length 150mm and an objective
of focal length 5mm, the focal length of the eye-piece,
maximum height, which of the following quantity
should be close to
becomes zero?
1) 22 mm 2) 12 mm
1) Momentum
3) 33 mm 4) 2mm
2) Potential energy
05. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the
3) Acceleration influence of a force that varies with the distance
4) Force travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The
02. In an experiment for determination of refractive index kinetic energy of the particle after it has travelled 3 m
of glass of a prism by i   plot, it was found that a is
ray incident at angle 35o, suffers a deviation of 40o
and that it emerges at angle 79o. In that case which of
the following is closest to the maximum possible value
of refractive index? (sin57o = 0.8387)
1) 1.5 2) 1.6
3) 1.7 4) 1.8
03. A force acts on a 2 kg object so that its position is
given as a function of time as x = 3t2 + 5. What is the
work done by this force in first 5 seconds?
1) 850 J 2) 900 J 1) 6.5 J 2) 2.5 J
3) 950 J 4) 875 J 3) 4 J 4) 5 J
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
06. The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric 10. If momentum of a body is increased by 20%, then its
effect depends on the following property of incident kinetic energy increases by
electromagnetic radiation 1) 36% 2) 40%
1) Phase 2) Intensity
3) 44% 4) 48%
3) Amplitude 4) Frequency
11. An object is placed at the focus of concave lens having
07. Sand is being dropped from a stationary dropper at a focal length f. What is the magnification and distance
rate of 0.5 kgs–1 on a conveyor belt moving with a of the image from the optical center of the lens?
velocity of 5 ms–1. The power needed to keep belt
moving with the same velocity will be 1 f 1 f
1) , 2) ,
1) 1.25 W 2) 2.5 W f 4 2 2
3) 6.25 W 4) 12.5 W 3) very high,  4) 1, 
08. A U-shaped wire is dipped in a soap solution, and 12. A stone is projected at angle 30o to the horizontal.
removed. The thin soap film formed between the wire The ratio of kinetic energy of the stone at point of
and the light slider supports a weight of 1.5 × 10–2N projection to its kinetic energy at the highest point of
(which includes the small weight of the slider). The flight will be
length of the slider is 30 cm. What is the surface tension
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 4
of the film?
1) 5 × 10–2 Nm–1 3) 4 : 1 4) 4 : 3

2) 2.5 × 10–2 Nm–1 13. A particle ‘P’ is formed due to a completely inelastic
collision of particle ‘x’ and ‘y’ having de-Broglie
3) 1.25 × 10–2 Nm–1
wavelengths '  x ' and '  y ' respectively. If x and y
4) 1.52 × 10–2 Nm–1
were moving in opposite directions, then the de-Broglie
09. A spherical mirror is obtained as shown in the figure wavelength of ‘P’ is
from a hollow glass sphere. If an object is positioned
in front of the mirror, what will be the nature and x y
magnification of the image of the object? (Figure drawn 1)  x   y 2)   
x y
as schematic and not to scale)
 x y
3)    4)  x   y
x y

14. The instantaneous velocity of a particle moving in a

straight line is given as v  t   t 2 , where  and 
are constants. The distance travelled by the particle
between 1s and 2s is

3 7
1) Inverted, real and magnified 1) 3  7 2)  
2 3
2) Erect, virtual and magnified
3) Erect, virtual and unmagnified   3 7
3)  4)  
4) Inverted, real and unmagnified 2 3 2 2

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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
15. When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror 20. A He+ ion is in its first excited state. Its ionization energy
with 30o angle of reflection, the angle of deviation of is
the ray after reflection is 1) 3.41 eV 2) 13.60 eV
1) 140o 2) 120o 3) 54.40 eV 4) 17.01 eV
o o
3) 60 4) 30 21. From the v – t graph show, the ratio of distance to
16. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then displacement in 25 s of motion
x distance with velocity v2 in the same direction. The
average velocity of the person is v, then the relation
between v, v1 and v2 will be
v1  v 2
1) v = v1 + v2 2) v 
2

2 1 1 1 1 1
3) v  v  v 4) v  v  v
1 2 1 2

17. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is  L, 3 1

then the series limit frequency of the Pfund series is: 1) 2)
5 2
L
1) 2) 25  L 5
25 3) 4) 1
3
L 22. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are
3) 16  L 4)
16 respectively 1.0073u, 1.0087u and 4.0015u. The
18. A scooter accelerates from rest for time t1 at constant binding energy of helium nucleus is
rate a1 and then retards at constant rate a2 for time t2 1) 14.2 MeV 2) 28.4 MeV
t1 3) 56.8 MeV 4) 7.1 MeV
and comes to rest. The correct value of t will be 23. A bomb is dropped by a fighter plane flying
2
horizontally. To an observer sitting in the plane, the
a1  a 2 a2 trajectory of the bomb is a
1) a 2) a
2 1 1) straight line vertically down the plane
2) parabola in a direction opposite to the motion of
a1 a1  a 2
3) a 4) plane
2 a1
3) parabola in the direction of motion of plane
19. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 in vacuum 4) hyperbola
combine under isothermal conditions. The resulting
24. A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts having
bubble has a radius equal to
M' 2M '
r1r2 masses and  M '  M  . The ratio of the de
1) r  r 2) r1r2 3 3
1 2 Broglie wavelength of two parts will be
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1
2 2
r1  r2
3) r1  r2 4) 3) 1 : 1 4) 2 : 3
2
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
25. Assertion (A) : When a body is projected at an angle 29. Which of the following figure represents the variation
45o, it’s range is maximum.
R
Reason (R) : For maximum range, the value of sin of ln  R  with ln A (If R = radius of a nucleus and A
 0
2 should be equal to one
= its mass number)
1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
3) A is false but R is true 1) 2)
4) A is true but R is false
26. A ball is projected from the ground with a speed
15 ms–1 at an angle  with horizontal so that its range
and maximum height are equal, then ‘ tan  ’ will be
equal to
1 1 3) 4)
1) 2)
4 2
3) 2 4) 4
27. Match the List-I with List-II
List-I List-II 30. Water flows into a large tank with flat bottom at the
A. Intrinsic I. Fermi-level near rate of 10–4 m3 s–1. Water is also leaking out of a hole
Semiconductor valence band of area 1 cm2 at its bottom. If the height of the water
in the tank remains steady, then this height is
B. n-type semiconductor II. Fermi-level at middle
C. p-type semiconductor III. Fermi-level near 1) 4 cm
conduction band 2) 2.9 cm
D. Metals IV. Fermi-level inside 3) 1.7 cm
conduction band 4) 5.1 cm
1) (A)  I, (B)  II, (C)  III, (D)  IV 31. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3V and 0.7V
2) (A)  II, (B)  I, (C)  III, (D)  IV respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
3) (A)  II, (B)  III, (C)  I, (D)  IV connection are reversed, the value of V0 changes by
4) (A)  III, (B)  I, (C)  II, (D)  IV
28. Statement I : pressure in a reservoir of water is same
at all points at the same level of water.
Statement II : The pressure applied to enclosed water
is transmitted in all directions equally.
1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 1) 11.7 V 2) 11.3 V
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3) 0.4 V 4) 12 V
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
32. The velocity of a small ball of mass ‘m’ and density SECTION-B
d1, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine, 36. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with
becomes constant after some time. If the density of an initial speed of 1.0 ms–1. The cross-sectional area
glycerine is d2, then the viscous force acting on the of the tap is 10–4 m2. Assume that the pressure is
ball, will be constant throughout the steam of water and that the
flow is streamlined. The cross-sectional area of the
 d1   d2  stream, 0.15 m below the tap would be
1) mg  1  d  2) mg  1  d 
 2   1 
(Take g = 10 ms–2)
1) 1 × 10–5 m2
 d1   d2 
3) mg  d  1 4) mg  d  1 2) 5 × 10–5 m2
 2   1 
3) 2 × 10–5 m2
33. The I – V characteristic of an LED is 4) 4 × 10–4 m2
37. Statement-I: Two photons having equal linear
momenta have equal wavelengths.
1) 2) Statement-II: If the wavelengths of photon is
decreased, then the momentum and energy of a photon
will also decrease.
1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
3) 4)
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
4) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
34. Identify the logic operation carried out by the given 38. For a body projected at an angle with the horizontal

circuit:
from the ground, choose the correct statement
1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at the
highest point
2) The horizontal component of velocity is zero at
highest point
1) OR 2) AND 3) The vertical component of momentum is maximum
3) NAND 4) NOR at the highest point
35. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2.0 × 10–2 Nm–1. 4) The kinetic energy (K.E.) is zero at the highest point
Work done to increase the radius of soap bubble from of projectile motion
22 39. An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10m with
3.5 cm to 7 cm will be [Take   ] a telescope of magnifying power of 20. To the observer
7
the tree appears
1) 0.72 × 10–4 J 1) 10 times taller
2) 5.76 × 10–4 J 2) 10 times nearer
3) 18.48 × 10–4 J 3) 20 times taller
4) 9.24 × 10–4 J 4) 20 times nearer
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II

40. Vector A has components Ax = 2, Ay = 3 and vector 44. A porter lifts a heavy suitacase of mass 80 kg and at
 the destination lowers it down by a distance of 80 cm
B has components Bx = 4, By = 5, then match the with a constant velocity. Calculate the work done by
columns : the porter in lowering the suitcase. (take g = 9.8 ms–2)
Column I Column II 1) –62720.0 J 2) –627.2 J
A. The y-components of 1. 8 3) +627.2 J 4) 784.0 J
 

vector sum A  B  45. A projectile is launched at an angle ‘  ’ with the
horizontal with a velocity 20 ms–1. After 10 s, its
 
B. The magnitude of A  B 2. –2 inclination with horizontal is ‘  ’. The value of tan 
C. The x-componet of vector 3. 2 2 will be (g = 10 ms–2)
  1) tan   5sec  2) tan   5sec 
difference A  B
  3) 2 tan   5sec  4) 2 tan   5sec 

D. The magnitude of A  B  4. 10 46. Statement I : Area under velocity - time graph gives
1) (A)  (1); (B)  (4); (C)  (2); (D)  (3) the distance travelled by the body in a given time.
2) (A)  (2); (B)  (4); (C)  (3); (D)  (1) Statement II : Area under acceleration-time graph
is equal to the change in velocity- in the given time.
3) (A)  (3); (B)  (2); (C)  (4); (D)  (1)
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
4) (A)  (2); (B)  (4); (C)  (1); (D)  (3)
41. The critical angle of a medium for a specific wavelength, 2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
if the medium has relative permittivity 3 and relative 3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
permeability 4/3 for this wavelength, will be 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
o o
1) 60 2) 15 47. For using a multimeter to identify diode from electrical
3) 45 o
4) 30 o components. Choose the correct statement out of the
42. Two buses P and Q start from a point at the same following about the diode:
time and move in a straight line and their positions are 1) it is two terminal device which conducts current in
represented by both directions
2) it is two terminal device which conducts current in
X p (t)  t  t 2 and X Q (t)  ft  t 2 . one direction only
At what time, both the buses have same velocity? 3) it does not conduct current gives an initial deflection
which decays to zero
f f
1) 2) 4) it is three terminal device which conducts current
1  2(  1) in one direction only between central terminal and
either of the remaining two terminals
f f 
3) 4) 48. A submarine experiences a pressure of 5.05 × 106
2(1  ) 2(1  )
Pa at a depth of d1 in a sea. When it goes further to a
43. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus  16 depth of d2, it experiences a pressure of 8.05 × 106
8 O  and
Pa. Then d2 – d1 is approximately (density of water =
helium nucleus  2 He  is 103 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms–2)
4

1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 1 1) 500 m 2) 400 m
3) 8 : 1 4) 2 : 1 3) 300 m 4) 600 m
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
49. Which of the following gives a reversible operation? 50. Assertion (A) : Two identical balls A and B thrown
with same velocity ‘u’ at two different angles with
horizontal attained the same range R. If A and B
1) reached the maximum height h1 and h2 respectively,
then R  4 h1h 2 .

Reason (R) : Product of the two heights.

2)
 u 2 sin 2    u 2 cos 2  
h1h 2    . 
 2g   2g 
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4)
4) A is false but R is true

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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 58. Which of the following best described the diagram
51. Rhombic sulphur is readily soluble in below of a molecular orbital?
1) CS2 2) Benzene
3) Alcohol 4) Ether
52. The process that is not endothermic in nature is:

1) H  g   e 
 H  g 

2) O   g   e  
 O2  g 

 Na   g   e 
3) Na  g  

4) Ar  g   e  
 Ar   g  1) An antibonding   orbital
2) An antibonding   orbital
53. The geometry of [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [PdCl4 ] 2–
respectively are 3) A non-bonding orbital
1) Both are tetrahedral 4) A bonding   orbital
2) Both are square planar 59. Assertion: PbI4 is a stable compound.
Reason: Iodine stabilizes higher oxidation state.
3) Square planar and tetrahedral
1) If both Assertion and Reason are True & the
4) Tetrahedral and square planar
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
54. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic
2) If both Assertion and Reason are True & the
number 119 will be:
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
1) Unh 2) Uue
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
3) Uun 4) Une 4) If both Assertion and Reason are False
55. Among the following which is the strongest reducing 60. The observed dipole moment of HCl molecule is
agent? 1.03D. If H – Cl bond distance is 1.275Å and
1) Br– 2) I– electronic charge is 4.8 × 10–10 esu. What is the
3) Cl– 4) F – percent polarity of HCl?
56. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal 1) 1.275 Å × 1.03
sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its
4.8 1010  1.275  108
lattice enthalpy? 2)
1.03
1) BaSO4 2) SrSO4
3) CaSO4 4) BeSO4 1.03  100  1018
3)
57. Thermally most stable allotrope of phosphorous is 4.8 1010  1.275  108
1) Red P 2) White P 4.8 1010
3) Black P 4) All are equally stable 4) 10
1.03
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II
61. Common name of the given compound 68. Which of the following octahedral complexes do not
CH 3  C O  CH  CH 2 is :- show geometrical isomerism?
||
O 1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
2) [PtCl2(NH3)4]
1) vinyl acetate 2) acryl acetate
3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
3) methyl acrylate 4) Vinyl ethanoate
4) [Co(en)3]3+
62. Which of the following is not a bidentate ligand?
69. In the graph given below, the one which represent an
1) acac– 2) ox2– alkali metal with higher atomic number is:
3) en 4) dien
63. Peroxide ion
I. has four completely filled anti-bonding molecular
orbitals
II. is diamagnetic
III. has bond order one
IV. is isoelectronic with neon
1) X 2) Y
Which of these are correct?
3) Z 4) M
1) II and III 2) I, II and IV
70. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration
3) I, II and III 4) I and IV
C and at infinite dilution are  C and   , respectively..
64. Oxidation number of platinum is cis-platin
1) zero 2) +2 The correct relationship between  C and   is given
3) +4 4) +6 as:
65. According to Moseley, a straight line graph is obtained (where the constant b is positive)
on plotting: 1)  C      b  C
1) v vs Z 2) v2 vs Z
2)  C      b  C
1
3) v vs Z 4) vs Z
v 3)  C      b  C
66. Which of the following halogen form only one oxyacids
(HOX) 4)  C      b  C
1) F 2) Br 71. Which of the following complex is most stable?
3) I 4) Cl 1) [M(NH3)6]3+ 2) [Men(NH3)4]3+
67. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Si4+ are iso electronics. Their ionic 3) [Men2(NH3)2]3+ 4) [M(en)3]3+
size follows the order:
72. The Eo value of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction
+ 2+
1) Na < Mg < Al < Si 3+ 4+
with n = 3 was found to be 0.592V at 298K. The
+ 2+
2) Na > Mg < Al < Si 3+ 4+ equilibrium constant of the reaction would be
+ 2+
3) Na < Mg > Al > Si 3+ 4+ 1) 103 2) 1020
4) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+ 3) 1030 4) 1040
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SRI VIDYA ARADHANA ACADEMY, Latur NEET–GT-01 Phase-II

73. Write the increasing order of the value is CFSE   0  79. For a reaction;
for the following species: 1
A   2B rate of disappearance of A is related
I. [Co(NH3)6] 3+ II. [Rh(NH3)6] 3+ 2
III. [Ir(NH ) ] 3+ to the rate of appearance of B by the expression:
36
1) III < II < I 2) I < II < III d  A  1 d  B 
1) 
3) II < I < III 4) I < III < II dt 2 dt
74. The cell reaction of cell is
d  A  1 d  B 
2 2 2) 
Mg  Cu 
 Mg  Cu dt 4 dt

(Given: E Mg2 / Mg  2.37V, E Cu 2 /Cu  0.337V ) d  A  d  B 

3) 
The emf of the cell will be dt dt
1) –2.7 V 2) +2.7 V d  A  4d  B
4) 
3) –2.03 V 4) +2.03 V dt dt
75. The complex [Cr(H2O)5Cl] Br and [Cr(H2O)5Br]Cl 80. Which octahedral coordination compound will show
show maximum conductivity in aqueous solution if all NH3
1) Linkage isomerism act as ligands?
2) Ionisation isomerism 1) CoCl3.6NH3
3) Hydrate isomerism 2) CoCl3.5NH3
4) Co-ordination isomerism 3) CoCl3.4NH3
76. The molar conductivity of 0.001 M acetic acid is 4) All will have same conductivity as every compounds
–1 2 –1
50 ohm cm mol . The molar conductivity at zero got 3Cl
concentration is 250 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. What is its 81. For the chemical reaction A   products, the rate
degree of dissociation?
of disappearance of A is given by:
1) 0.2 % 2) 2 %
dCA
3) 20 % 4) 22 % rA   k1CA / 1  k 2 C A 
dt
77. Which curve represents zero order reaction?
At low CA the reaction is of the first order with rate
constant:
1) 2) 1) k1/k2 2) k1
3) –k1/k2 4) k1/(k1+k2)
82. Consider an endothermic reaction X 
 Y with
the activation energies Eb and Ef for the backward
3) 4) and forward reactions, respectively. In general
1) Eb < Ef
78. How many P–O–P bonds are present in P4O10? 2) Eb > Ef
1) 6 2) 4 3) Eb = Ef
3) 2 4) 5 4) there is no definite relation between Eb and Ef
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83. The IUPAC name for the hydrocarbon represented 88. Statement-I: A reaction takes place due to effective
collisions with activation energy.
by swastik sign is Statement-II: The rate of reaction is directly
proportional to number of collisions per second per
1) neo-nonane unit volume.
2) tetraethylcarbon 1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
3) 2-ethylpentane 2) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
4) 3,3-diethylpentane 3) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
84. Consider the reaction, 2A  B   products. When 89. In the formation of octahedral complex, ligands
concentration of B alone was doubled, the half-life approach towards _____ and _____ orbital of central
did not change. When the concentration of A alone metal.
was doubled, the rate increased by two times. The 1) d xy , d x 2  y 2 2) d x 2  y2 , d z2
unit of rate constant for this reaction is:
1) s–1 2) L mol–1 s–1 3) d xy , d yz 4) d z2 , d xz

3) no unit 4) mol L–1 s–1 90. The atomic weight of Fe is 56u. The weight of Fe
deposited from FeCl3 solution by passing 0.6 Faraday
O OH of electricity is
|| |
85. The IUPAC name of 1) 5.6 g 2) 11.2 g
CH 3  C CH 2  C H  CHO
3) 22.4 g 4) 33.6 g
is
91. Correct acidity order of oxy acids of phosphorous is
1) 5-Oxo-4-hydroxy-2-pentanone 1) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4
2) 4-Hydroxy-5-al-2-pentanone 2) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3
3) 2-Hydroxy-4-oxopentanal 3) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4
4) H3PO2 = H3PO3 = H3PO4
4) 1-Al-4-oxo-2-pentanol
92. Which is the correct Nernst equation for taking place
SECTION-B in the following cell?
86. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to Mg | Mg 2  || Cl | Cl 1atm  | Pt
s (aq) (aq) 2(g)
1) High oxidation state of phosphorus
2
2) Presence of two – OH groups and one P – H bond o 0.0592  Cl 
1) E cell  E cell   log10
3) Presence of one –OH group and two P – H bonds 2  Mg 2  
4) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
87. After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes o .0592  Mg 2  
(1/16)th of original amount. Then the half-life (in min) 2) Ecell  E cell 
2
 log10
 Cl 
for a first order reaction is:
1) 60 minutes o 0.592 2
3) E cell  E cell   log10  Mg 2    Cl  
2
2) 120 minutes
3) 30 minutes o 0.0592  Mg 2  
4) Ecell  E cell   log10 2
4) 15 minutes 2  Cl  
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93. The rusting of iron takes place as follws: 96. Respective order of strength of back-bonding and
Lewis acidic strength in boron trihalides is:
1
2H   2e  O 2 
 H 2 O   ; E o  1.23V 1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 and BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3
2
2) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 and BF3 > BCl3 < BBr3
Fe 2  2e 
 Fe (s) ; Eo  0.44V 3) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 and BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3
4) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 and BF3 > BCl3 < BBr3
Value of G o is 97. Boron cannot form which one of the following anions?
1) –322.1 kJ mol–1 1) BF63 2) BH 4
2) 322.1 kJ gmol–1

3) 223.1 kJ gmol–1 3) B  OH 4 4) BO2

4) –223.1 kJ /g mol–1 COOC2H5

94. Assertion: The general IUPAC name of esters is alkyl 98. IUPAC name of the compound is
alkanoate COCl
Reason: The simplest ester is HCOOCH3 1) 2-Chlorocarbonyl ethylbenzenecarboxylate
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is 2) 2-Carboxyethylbenzoyl chloride
the correct explanation of Assertion 3) Ethyl 2-(chlorocarbonyl)benzenecarboxylate
4) Ethyl 1-(chlorocarbonyl)benzenecarboxylate
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion 99. Shapes of certain interhalogen compounds are started
below. Which one of them is not correctly stated?
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
1) IF7 : Pentagonal bipyramidal
4) Assertion is false but Reason is true 2) BrF5 : square pyramidal
95. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in 3) ICl3 : Trigonal planar
relation to ionisation enthalpy? 4) BrF3 : Planar T-shaped
1) Ionisation enthalpy increases for removal of each 100. Assertion: Between SiCl and CCl only SiCl reacts
4 4 4
successive electron with water.
2) The higher values of ionisation enthalpies are Reason: SiCl4 is ionic and CCl4 is covalent
noticed on removal of electron from core noble 1) If both Assertion and Reason are True & the
gas configuration Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) Second ionisation enthalpy for alkali metal is higher 2) If both Assertion and Reason are True & the
4) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
value is easier than from orbital having higher n 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
value 4) If both Assertion and Reason are False

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BIOLOGY
SECTION - A (BIOLOGY : I) 105. Identify the incorrect statement.
101. Identify the incorrect pair. 1) Spermatogonia are male germ cells.
1) Spermatogenesis – Formation of sperms 2) Interstitial cells secrete androgens.
2) Insemination – transfer of ova into the female genital 3) Sertoli cells are diploid germ cells.
tract 4) The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the
3) Fertilisation – Fusion of male and female gametes vasa efferentia through rete testis.
4) Implantation – Attachment of blastocyst to the 106. Which of the following character was not studied by
uterine wall Mendel in pea plant?
102. During prokaryotic transcription which of the following 1) Pod shape
happens? 2) Seed size
1) Entire nucleoid undergo transcription. 3) Pod colour
2) RNA polymerase opens the DNA helix. 4) Seed colour
3) Coupling of transcription and translation occur in 107. Decrease of which of the following is not a reason for
nucleus. increase in population of our country?
4) Only polycistronic genes are transcribed. 1) Death rate
2) Maternal mortality rate
103. True statement about pea plant having true-breeding
condition for plant height is? 3) Infant mortality rate
1) All the genes of this plant have homozygous 4) Number of people in reproducible age
condition. 108. Assertion (A): Each ovary is connected to the pelvic
2) All the genes of this plant have heterozygous wall and uterus by ligaments.
condition. Reason (R): Ligaments are the connective tissues
which connect bone to bone.
3) All the genes of this plant have hemizygous
condition. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation for A.
4) Homozygous condition is seen for plant height
where as other characters of plant may show 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
homozygous or heterozygous. explanation for A.
104. Identify the incorrect statement. 3) A is true but R is false.
1) Statutory ban is imposed on amniocentesis for 4) Both A and R are false.
massive child immunisation. 109. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross for flower colour and
flower position, majority of F2 plants have
2) Introduction of sex education in schools should be
encouraged. 1) Violet flowers at terminal position
3) Awareness of problems due to sex-abuse and sex- 2) White flowers at axial position
related crimes, etc., need to be created. 3) Violet flowers at axial position
4) Saheli is an oral contraceptive for the females. 4) White flowers at terminal position

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110. Find the odd one with respect to method of 115. Main difference between spermatogenesis and
contraception. oogenesis in human is?
1) Periodic abstinence 1) Sperms are haploid and ova are diploid.
2) Lactational amenorrhea 2) Spermatozoa produce primary spermatocytes by
3) Condoms mitosis, whereas oogonia produce primary oocytes
by meiosis.
4) Coitus interruptus
3) Spermatogenesis produces only one functional
111. Finger-like projections of infundibulum of oviduct are
gamete whereas oogenesis produces four functional
called as
ova.
1) Fimbriae
4) Oogenesis starts in foetal life where as
2) Microvilli spermatogenesis starts at puberty.
3) Mesosomes 116. The 3:1 phenotypic ratio obtained in F2 generation of
4) Cristae Mendel monohybrid cross is explained by
112. The proportion of parental genotypes in F2 generation 1) Mendel’s third law
of Mendel’s dihybrid cross is? 2) Mendel’s first law
1) 2/16 3) Mendel’s second law
2) 10/16 4) Polygenic inheritance
3) 6/16 117. Human genome project was launched in which year?
4) 9/16 1) 1980 2) 2006
113. Match the following. 3) 2003 4) 1990
Column I Column II 118. Ovulation follows
A) Pivot joint i) Between atlas and axis 1) Follicular proliferative phase
B) Saddle joint ii) Between carpal and 2) Luteal phase
metacarpal of thumb 3) Menstruation
C) Gliding joint iii) Knee joint 4) Corpus luteum formation
D) Hinge joint iv) Between the carpals 119. Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
Match the following. by
1) A-i; B-ii; C-iv; D-iii 1) CNS via a sensory neuron
2) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv 2) CNS via a motor neuron
3) PNS via a sensory neuron
3) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii
4) PNS via a motor neuron
4) A-iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i
120. In snapdragon, pink colour of flowers is due to
114. The catalyst in formation of peptide bond in
prokaryotes is? 1) Dominance of ‘R’ over ‘r’.
1) 23S rRNA 2) Codominance of ‘R’ and ‘r’.
3) Linkage between ‘R’ and ‘r’.
2) snRNA
4) Between ‘R’ and ‘r’, no one is completely
3) 28S rRNA
dominant over the other.
4) Both 1 and 3
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121. Which of the following does not occur during DNA 126. Match the following.
replication of E. coli? Column I Column II
1) Mutations never happen. A) Simple squamous i) Unit of neural system
2) DNA replication starts at origin of replication. epithelium
3) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase is the major
B) Adipose tissue ii) Beneath the skin
replicating enzyme.
C) Smooth muscle iii) Blood capillary wall
4) DNA ligase is needed to join the DNA fragments.
122. Initial mitotic division of zygote are called as ‘cleavage’ D) Neuron iv) Fusiform
because Match the following.
1) Zygote enlarges and then undergo mitosis. 1) A-i; B-ii; C-iv; D-iii
2) Zygote shrinks and then undergo mitosis. 2) A-ii; B-iv; C-iii; D-i
3) Zygote undergo mitotic divisions along a plane to 3) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii
form cluster of cells having overall size same as 4) A-iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i
zygote.
127. Read the following statements.
4) Zygote undergo mitosis to form polar bodies.
A) Two genes present on two different chromosomes
123. Identify the incorrect statement about skeletal muscle
always show independent assortment.
fibres.
B) Two genes present on same chromosome always
1) In a resting state, the edges of thin filaments on
show independent assortment.
either side of the thick filaments partially overlap
the free ends of the thick filaments. C) Chromosomes segregate at the time of gamete
2) The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held formation such that only one of each pair is
together in the middle of this band by M-line. transmitted to a gamete.
3) Both actin and myosin proteins are arranged parallel D) During anaphase of meiosis I, the two homologous
to each other. chromosomes move to opposite poles.
4) The thin filaments are firmly attached to the ‘H’ How many of the above statements are true?
line. 1) 2 2) 1
124. Who of the following used chromosome movement 3) 4 4) 3
to explain Mendel’s laws?
128. Assertion (A): tRNA is called as an adapter molecule.
1) Watson and Crick
Reason (R): tRNA connects amino acid (present at
2) Sutton and Boveri 3’ end of tRNA) with anticodon (present at 5’ end of
3) Meselson and Stahl tRNA).
4) Hershey and Chase 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
125. Largest known human gene is? explanation for A.
1) Insulin gene 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
2) Glucagon gene explanation for A.
3) Dystrophin gene 3) A is true but R is false.
4) Red-green colourblindness gene 4) Both A and R are false.
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129. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to 133. Identify the correct statement with respect to human.
each other by 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond. To prevent 1) All the cells contain all the genes.
polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the following 2) Cells of different organs have different genes.
modifications would you choose?
3) Only brain cells have all the genes whereas other
1) Replace purine with pyrimidines cells have few according to their function.
2) Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxy ribose 4) All the possible alleles of a gene are present in every
3) Remove/Replace 2' OH group with some other individual.
group in deoxy ribose 134. An individual with genotype AaBbCcDDEeffGg can
4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’ not produce which of the following gametes?
130. Identify the incorrect statement. 1) abCDefg
1) Recessive trait for flower colour of pea plant and 2) aBCDefG
recessive trait for eye colour of Drosophila are 3) aBcDefg
same.
4) AbCdefG
2) Recessive trait for pod colour of pea plant and 135. Read the following statements.
recessive trait for body colour of Drosophila are
A) DNase is the enzyme digesting DNA.
same.
B) Avery et. al. first proved that DNA is the genetic
3) Dominant trait for seed colour of pea plant and
material.
recessive trait for body colour of Drosophila are
same. C) R-strain of pneumococcus is virulent.
4) Dominant trait for flower colour of pea plant and D) TMV is a rod-shaped bacterium having RNA as
dominant trait for eye colour of Drosophila are genetic material.
same. How many of the above statements are true?
131. Statement I: Prokaryotic DNA is positively charged. 1) 2 2) 1
Statement II: Length of DNA in each nucleosome 3) 4 4) 3
of E. coli is 200 bp. SECTION - B (BIOLOGY : I)
Select the correct option. 136. Read the following statements.
1) Both the statements are true. A) Hollow cavities in human mammary gland lined with
2) Both the statements are false. milk secreting cells.
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. B) Sac-like structures located at the end of the
respiratory tree of human.
4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
C) Sockets in the mandible bone in which the roots of
132. Tight linkage is seen for which of the following genes
teeth are held.
in Drosophila?
The term ‘alveoli’ is used for
1) Gene for body colour and gene for eye colour
1) A and B only
2) Gene for body colour and gene for wing size
2) B and C only
3) Gene for wing size and gene for eye colour
3) A and C only
4) Gene for body colour and gene for male fertility
4) A, B and C
factor
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137. Correct about human spermatid is? 141. Find the odd one with respect to location.
1) It is diploid. 1) Occipital bone 2) Lacrimal bone
2) It has DNA content of ‘3C’. 3) Maxilla 4) Sternum
3) It has 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome. 142. Assertion (A): Mendel’s results pointed to general
4) It undergoes meiosis-II to form spermatozoa. rules of inheritance rather than being unsubstantiated
138. Raed the following statements. ideas.
A) After implantation, finger-like projections appear Reason (R): Mendel confirmed inferences from
on the trophoblast called chorionic villi. experiments on successive generations of his test
B) Placenta is formed by both foetal and maternal plants.
components. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C) Process of delivery of the normal foetus is called explanation for A.
miscarriage. 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
D) Vasopressin is injected to induce delivery of foetus. explanation for A.
How many of the above statements are true? 3) A is true but R is false.
1) 3 4) Both A and R are false.
2) 4 143. If one parent has genotype IAiDd (A+ phenotype) and
3) 1 other has IBiDd (B+ phenotype), Then what is the
4) 2 chance of AB+ blood group in offspring?
139. If 21 days contraceptive pills are started on 4th day of 1) 1/4 2) 1/16
28 days menstrual cycle, pills should not be taken 3) 3/16 4) 3/4
during 144. Correct about Drosophila is?
1) 25th day of first cycle to 3rd day of next cycle 1) Female has X and Y as sex chromosomes.
2) 26th day of first cycle to 3rd day of next cycle 2) Male has similar type of sex chromosomes.
3) 24th day of first cycle to 3rd day of next cycle
3) Hemizygous condition is seen for some genes in
4) 1st to 3rd day of next cycle female.
140. Read the following statements. 4) Crossing over can never occur for some genes in
A) MTP is advised at any time during gestation. male.
B) Hepatitis B, an infection of liver, is a sexually 145. In an experiment, DNA is treated with a compound
transmitted infection. which tends to place itself amongst the stacks of
C) In India, often the female is blamed for the couple nitrogenous base pairs. As a result of this, the distance
being childless. between two consecutive base pairs increases from
D) Polymerase chain reaction is an in vitro method 0.34 nm to 0.44 nm. Calculate the length of DNA
used for fertilisation of sperm and ovum. double helix, which has 2×109 bp, in the presence of
How many of the above statements are true? saturating amount of this compound.
1) 3 1) 0.44 m
2) 1 2) 0.88 m
3) 2 3) 0.68 m
4) 4 4) 0.78 m
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146. A low level of expression of lac operon occurs at all D) Completely linked genes show 1:1 test cross ratio.
the time. The logic behind this is Identify the option having all correct statements.
1) Beta galactosidase should hydrolyse the lactose 1) A and D 2) A, C and D
as soon as it enters the E. coli. 3) B and D 4) A, B, C and D
2) Transacetylase immediately pumps out the entered SECTION - A (BIOLOGY : II)
lactose. 151. In a logistic growth curve an equation was derived as
3) Permease is needed for entry of lactose into cell,
dN
otherwise lac operon cannot be switched on.  rN , where r is intrinsic rate of natural incrase.
dt
4) To make the repressor always active.
147. Assertion (A): Use of 1H3 radiolabeling in Hershey What is the value of r in terms of b and d (b = birth
rate, d = death rate)?
and Chase experiment will lead to observation of
radioactivity in both supernatant and bacterial cells, b
after centrifugation. 1) 2) b  d
d
Reason (R): 1H3, if used in Hershey and Chase
bd b 1
experiment, will be incorporated into both protein coat 3) 4)
and DNA of bacteriophage. 2 d
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 152. Presence of sheathing leaf base covering the stem
explanation for A. partially or wholly is the characteristic of :
1) Cycas 2) Fern
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation for A. 3) Monocots 4) Coconut
3) A is true but R is false. 153. The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit
in a grassland, is called :
4) Both A and R are false.
1) Net productivity
148. The correct statement about eukaryotic mRNA
2) Secondary productivity
synthesis is?
3) Net primary productivity
1) Capping occurs at 3’ end of hnRNA.
4) Gross primary productivity
2) Tailing occurs at 5’ end of hnRNA.
154. In a laboratory, 120 fruitflies were taken for
3) Exons are non-coding portions formed during
experiments. Out of them 30 died within a week.
transcription.
Calculate the death rate (in terms of deaths of
4) Introns are removed during splicing. individuals per fruitfly per week)?
149. The size of VNTR varies in size from 1) 0.1 2) 0.2
1) 100 bp to 2000 bp 3) 0.25 4) 0.4
2) 10 bp to 2000 bp 155. In monocotyledonous plants e.g. wheat, the primary
3) 100 bp to 20000 bp root is short lived and is replaced by a large number
4) 10 bp to 20000 bp of roots. These roots originate from the base of the
150. Read the following statements. stem and constitute the :
A) In co-dominance F1 resembles both the parents. 1) Prop roots
B) Law of dominance is applicable to all the characters 2) Pneumatophores
of human. 3) Fibrous roots
C) Genotype AABbCcDD is called as dihybrid. 4) Napiform root

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156. According to the May’s global estimates, how many 162. Statement A: In the last 500 years, 3 subspecies of
of the species have been recorded so far are plants? tigers have became extinct–Bali, Javan and Siberian.
1) 15% 2) 22% Statment B: Tropical regions have greater biological
3) 35% 4) 45% diversity in comparison to temperate regions.
157. An orchid growing on the branch of mango tree is an 1) Only Statement A is correct
example of : 2) Only Statement B is correct
1) Amensalism 2) Commensalism 3) Both Statements A and B are correct
3) Parasitism 4) Mutualism 4) Both Statements A and B are incorrect
158. Arrangement of ovules on the central axis of 163. Which of the following is an example of biological
multilocular ovary is : control?
1) Parietal placentation 1) Moth feeding on cactus in Australia
2) Basal placentation 2) Liver fluke in human body
3) Marginal placentation 3) Abingdon tortoise and goats competing for grass
4) Axile placentation in Galapagos Islands
159. A food chain is represented as : 4) Two species of barnacles-Balanus and
Chathamalus competing in rocky sea coasts of
BCAD Scotland
Correct representation in an ecological pyramid will 164. Which of the following flowers is not actinomorphic
be : (radially symmetry)?
1) Pea 2) Datura
1) 2) 3) Chilli 4) Mustard
165. Select the option that correctly identifies I, II, III and
IV.

3) 4)

160. Mac Arthur observed that 5 species of Warblers

(birds) can coexist on same tree due to behavioural
differences in their foraging activites. This is an example
of :
1) Resource partitioning
2) Competitive release
3) Competitive exclusion 1) I - Sacred plants; II - National parks, III - Wildlife
4) Brood parasitism Safari Parks; IV - Hotspots
161. Pneumatophores are found in : 2) I- Biosphere reserves; II - National parks, III -
1) Hydrophytic condition Wildlife sanctuaries; IV - Seed banks
2) The vegetation which found in hypersaline lagoon 3) I - Biosphere reserves; II - Seed banks; III- Sacred
3) Xerophytic condition plants; IV - National parks
4) The vegetation which is found in marshy and saline 4) I - Biosphere reserves; II - Wildlife Sanctuaries;
area III- Cryopreservation; IV - National parks
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166. If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ 171. Global biodiversity is shown in terms of species in the
died during a week, the death rate in the population is given groups :
_____ individuals per Drosophila per week :
1) 10 2) 1.0
3) zero 4) 0.1
C
167. Match the following : B

Column A Column B
A
1 Underground stem p Euphorbia
A B C
2 Stem tendril q Opuntia
1) Angiosperms Algae Molluscs
3 Stem thorn r Potato
2) Angiosperms Algae Echinoderms
4 Flattened stem s Citrus
3) Algae Angiosperms Echinoderms
5 Fleshy cylindrical t Cucumber
4) Algae Angiosperms Molluscs
stem
172. Pyramid of energy can never be inverted because :
1) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-t, 5-s
1) Energy flows in multiple directions across different
2) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-t, 5-p trophic levels
3) 1-r, 2-s, 3-t, 4-p, 5-q 2) Some energy is always lost during its transfer from
4) 1-r, 2-t, 3-s, 4-q, 5-p one trophic level to next
168. Introduction of an ....1.... fresh water fish species - 3) All energy of lower trophic level is available to next
....2...., has resulted in extinction of many ....3.... trophic level
species of ....4.... fishes in lake Victoria : 4) Energy content across all trophic level is same
1) 1 – Indigenous, 3 – African Catfish 173. Find incorrect match :
2) 1 – Alien, 4 – Cichlid Fish 1) Underground root – Turmeric
2) Fleshy leaves – Onion
3) 2 – Nile perch, 4 – African Catfish
3) Cymose – Solanum
4) 1 – Indigenous, 2 – Cichlid fish
4) Phylloclade - Euphorbia
169. Humus is a .....1..... coloured amorphous substance 174. If A – Species richness and B – Endemism, then
which is highly .....2..... to microbial action and biodiversity hotspots have :
undergoes decomposition at a very .....3..... rate :
1) Low degree of A and low degree of B
1) 1 – light, 3 – slow 2) Low degree of A and high degree of B
2) 1 – light, 2 – susceptible 3) High degree of A and low degree of B
3) 1 – resistant, 3 – fast 4) High degree of A and high degree of B
4) 1 – dark, 3 – slow 175. Identify the incorrect statement :
170. In China rose, the flowers are : 1) Sun is not the source of energy for deep sea
hydrothermal ecosystem
1) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate
aestivation 2) The major conduit of energy in land ecosystem is
transferred through DFC than GFC
2) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
3) Ecosystems are exempt from second law of
3) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted thermodynamics
aestivation 4) Death of organism is beginning of detritus food
4) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation chain
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176. Find out the false statement : 182. Underproduction of hormones by the adrenal cortex
1) In dicotyledonous seeds, cotyledons are often leads to which of the following conditions?
fleshy and full of reserve food 1) Addison’s disease
2) Generally, mocotyledonous seeds are endospermic 2) Graves’ disease
3) Most of the monocotyledonous seeds have fleshy 3) Down’s syndrome
cotyledons
4) Turner’s syndrome
4) Generally, dicotyledonous seeds are non-
endospermic 183. Which of the following is not the property of hormones
177. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, ‘The of Fight or Flight?
Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year : 1) Increase alertness
1) 1992 2) 2010 2) Piloerection
3) 2002 4) 1985 3) Pupillary constriction
178. Read the given statements and select the correct 4) Sweating
option. 184. Match the following.
Statement 1: Herbivores are also called as first order
Column I Column II
consumers.
Statement 2: Herbivores obtain their food directly A) Beta cells of pancreas i) Glucagon
from plants. B) Alpha cells of pancreas ii) Insulin
1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct C) Leydig cells iii) Testosterone
2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect D) Gastrin iv) Secretion of HCl
3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct Select the correct match.
4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect 1) A-i; B-ii; C-iv; D-iii
179. Identify the incorrect statement about hormones? 2) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv
1) Ductless glands produce hormones. 3) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii
2) These are nutrient chemicals.
4) A-iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i
3) Act as intercellular messengers.
185. Read the following statements.
4) Produced in small amounts.
A) FSH and LH are steroid hormones.
180. The hormones which regulate the synthesis and
B) Insulin binds to receptor present on cell membrane
secretion of pituitary hormones are released into which
of target cell.
of the following?
1) Hepatic portal system C) Epinephrine is derived from acidic amino acid
tyrosine.
2) Renal portal system
D) cAMP is the nucleotide that acts as second
3) Hypophyseal portal system
messenger.
4) Aorta
How many of the above statements are true?
181. Identify the correct pair.
1) 1
1) Growth hormone – Acromegaly
2) 2
2) Vasopressin – Diabetes mellitus
3) Melatonin – Gigantism 3) 3
4) Thyroid hormone – Diurnal rhythm of our body 4) 4
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SECTION - B (BIOLOGY : II) 189. Given figure represents a pyramid of biomass in an
186. Match the columns. aquatic ecosystem:
Column A Column B
A. Khasi and Jaintia 1. Conserving seeds
Hills
B. Western Ghats and 2. Hot spot Identify A and B and select the correct answer.
Sri Lanka i) A is the crop which supports and B is the crop
C. Zoological parks 3. Sacred grooves which is supported
D. Seed Bank 4. Ex situ mode of ii) A is the crop which is supported and B is the crop
conservation which supports
1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 2) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 iii) A is phytoplanktons and B is zooplanktons
3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 iv) A zooplanktons and B phytoplanktons
187. Read the given statements and select the correct option: 1) (i) and (iv) 2) (ii) and (iii)
i) Ecosystem services provided by nature to human 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii) and (iv)
beings such as oxygen for respiration, aesthetic 190. In an experimental study on competitive release,
value, etc. distribution of species A is restricted to a small
ii) Direct economic benefits derived from nature by geographical area because of presence of species B.
human beings such as food, medicines, etc. When species B is eliminated, distribution ofA is found
iii) Every species has an intrinsic value, even if its not to be increased. Which statement is correct?
of any economic use to us. 1) Species A is a dominant species
With respect to above given codes (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) Species B is a dominant species
choose the correct option: 3) Both species are dominant
Narrowly Broadly Ethical 4) None of the species is dominant
utilitarian utilitarian 191. In Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth, following equation
1) iii ii i dN KN
was derived :  rN  
2) ii i iii dt  K 
3) i ii iii What does K refer to?
4) ii iii i 1) A constant
188. Which of the following organism in the given food web 2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
act both as a predator and a prey? 3) Population density
4) Carrying capacity
192. Which option is correctly matched with the diagrams?

1) I, II and IV 1) A-Gulmohar, Bi-Pea, C-Calotropis, D-Cotton

2) II, III and V 2) A-Pea, B-Calotropis, C-Cotton, D-Gulmohar
3) II, III, V, VI and VII 3) A-Calotropis, B-Cotton, C-Gulmohar, D-Pea
4) II, III and VII 4) A-Cotton, B-Gulmohar, C-Pea, D-Calotropis
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193. Read the following and choose the right statements: 196. In one plant, underground stems are modified to store
a. Buds are present in the axils of leaflets of a food and in another plant, the stem tendrils develop
compound leaf from axillary buds to help plants climb. They are :
b. Pulvinus leaf base is present in some leguminous 1) Sweet potato, Bougainvillea
plants 2) Carrot, Jasmine
c. In Alstonia the petioles expand, become green and 3) Ginger, Cucumber
synthesis food 4) Opuntia, Eichhornia
d. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in Guava 197. Which of the following is an example for a
1) a and c zygomorphic flower with diadelphous stamens and
marginal placentation?
2) b and d
1) Brinjal 2) Lemon
3) a and d
3) Lupin 4) Cucumber
4) b, c and d
198. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone is released from
194. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
1) Pituitary gland 2) Adrenal cortex
i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a
flower. 3) Gonads 4) Hypothalamus
ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal 199. Mental retardation is seen in
radial halves in any radial plane. 1) Individual suffering from phenyl ketonuria
iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate. 2) Mother having hypothyroidism during her
iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of pregnancy
the ovary. 3) Individual suffering from immunodeficiency
v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic. 4) Both 1 and 2
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 200. Read the following statements.
2) (i), (ii) and (v) A) Glucocorticoids stimulate glycolysis, lipolysis and
proteolysis.
3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
B) Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions.
4) (i), (iv) and (v)
C) Aldosterone stimulates the secretion of Na+.
195. Some plants of arid regions modify their stems into
flattened (Opuntia), or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) D) Adrenal cortex secretes androgenic steroids.
green structures called : Identify the option having all correct statements.
1) Phyllode 1) B and D
2) Rhizome 2) A, B and D
3) Cladode 3) B, C and D
4) Phylloclade 4) C and D

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