CHAPTER 9 (4) Acetylcholine combines with a ligand-gated ion

Muscular System: Histology and Physiology channel.

(5) An action potential is produced on the muscle fiber’s
1. Which of these is true of skeletal muscle? plasma membrane.
a. spindle-shaped cells
b. under involuntary control Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order
c. many peripherally located nuclei per muscle fiber they occur at a neuromuscular junction.
d. forms the walls of hollow internal organs a. 2,3,4,1,5 c. 3,4,2,1,5 e. 5,1,2,4,3
e. may be autorhythmic b. 3,2,4,5,1 d. 4,5,2,1,3

2. Which of these is not a major property of muscle? 11. Acetylcholinesterase is an important molecule in the
a. contractility d. extensibility neuromuscular junction because it
b. elasticity e. secretability a. stimulates receptors on the presynaptic terminal.
c. excitability b. synthesizes acetylcholine from acetic acid and
choline.
3. Given these structures: c. stimulates receptors within the postsynaptic
(1) whole muscle membrane.
(2) muscle fiber (cell) d. breaks down acetylcholine.
(3) myofilament e. causes the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic
(4) myofibril reticulum.
(5) muscle fasciculus
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the 12. Given these events:
correct order from largest to smallest. (1) The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+ .
a. 1,2,5,3,4 c. 1,5,2,3,4 e. 1,5,4,2,3 (2) The sarcoplasmic reticulum takes up Ca2+ .
b. 1,2,5,4,3 d. 1,5,2,4,3 (3) Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm.
(4) An action potential moves down the T tubule.
4. Each myofibril (5) The sarcomere shortens.
a. is made up of many muscle fibers. (6) The muscle relaxes.
b. contains sarcoplasmic reticulum.
c. is made up of many sarcomeres. Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order
d. contains T tubules. they occur following a single stimulation of a skeletal
e. is the same thing as a muscle fiber. muscle fiber.

5. Myosin myofilaments are a. 1,3,4,5,2,6 c. 4,1,3,5,2,6 e. 5,1,4,3,2,6

a. attached to the Z disk. b. 2,3,5,4,6,1 d. 4,2,3,5,1,6
b. found primarily in the I band.
c. thinner than actin myofilaments. 13. Given these events:
d. absent from the H zone. (1) Calcium ions combine with tropomyosin.
e. attached to filaments that form the M line (2) Calcium ions combine with troponin.
(3) Tropomyosin pulls away from actin.
6. Which of these statements about the molecular (4) Troponin pulls away from actin.
structure of myofilaments is true? (5) Tropomyosin pulls away from myosin.
a. Tropomyosin has a binding site for Ca2+ . (6) Troponin pulls away from myosin.
b. The head of the myosin molecule binds to an active (7) Myosin binds to actin.
site on G actin.
c. ATPase is found on troponin. Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order
d. Troponin binds to the rodlike portion of myosin. they occur during muscle contraction.
e. Actin molecules have a hingelike portion, which bends a. 1,4,7 c. 1,3,7 e. 2,3,7
and straightens during contraction. b. 2,5,6 d. 2,4,7
7. The part of the sarcolemma that invaginates into the 14. With stimuli of increasing strength, which of these is
interior of skeletal muscle fibers is the capable of a graded response?
a. T tubule system. c. myofibrils. e. mitochondria. a. neuron axon c. motor unit
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. terminal cisternae. b. muscle fiber d. whole muscle
8. During the depolarization phase of an action potential, 15. Considering the force of contraction of a skeletal
the permeability of the plasma membrane to muscle fiber, multiple-wave summation occurs because
a. Ca2+ increases c. K+ increases e. Na+ of
decreases. a. increased strength of action potentials on the plasma
b. Na+ increases d. Ca2+ decreases membrane.
9. During repolarization of the plasma membrane, b. a decreased number of cross-bridges formed.
a. Na+ moves to the inside of the cell. c. an increase in Ca2+ concentration around the
b. Na+ moves to the outside of the cell. myofibrils.
c. K+ moves to the inside of the cell. d. an increased number of motor units recruited.
d. K+ moves to the outside of the cell. e. increased permeability of the sarcolemma to Ca2+ .

10. Given these events: 16. Which of these events occurs during the lag (latent)
(1) Acetylcholine is broken down into acetic acid and phase of muscle contraction?
choline. a. cross-bridge movement
(2) Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft. b. active transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic
(3) An action potential reaches the terminal branch of the reticulum
motor neuron. c. Ca2+ binding to troponin
d. sarcomere shortening e. breakdown of ATP to ADP

17. A weight lifter attempts to lift a weight from the floor, CHAPTER 10
but the weight is so heavy that he is unable to move it. Muscular System: Gross Anatomy
The type of muscle contraction the weight lifter is using
is mostly 1. Muscles that oppose one another are
a. isometric. c. isokinetic. e. eccentric. a. synergists. c. hateful. e. fixators.
b. isotonic. d. concentric. b. levers. d. antagonists.

18. Which of these types of fatigue is the most common? 2. The most movable attachment of a muscle is its
a. muscular fatigue c. synaptic fatigue a. origin. c. fascia. e. belly.
b. psychological fatigue d. army fatigue b. insertion. d. fulcrum.

19. Given these conditions: 3. The muscle whose name means it is to the side of
(1) low ATP levels midline is the
(2) little or no transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic a. gluteus maximus.
reticulum b. vastus lateralis.
(3) release of cross-bridges c. teres major.
(4) Na+ accumulation in the sarcoplasm (5) formation of d. latissimus dorsi.
cross-bridges e. adductor magnus.
Choose the conditions that occur in both physiological 4. In a class III lever system, the
contracture and rigor mortis. a. fulcrum is located between the pull and the weight.
a. 1,2,3 c. 1,2,3,4 e. 1,2,3,4,5 b. weight is located between the fulcrum and the pull.
b. 1,2,5 d. 1,2,4,5 c. pull is located between the fulcrum and the weight.

20. Jerry Jogger’s 3-mile run every morning takes about 5. A prominent lateral muscle of the neck that can cause
30 minutes. Which of these sources provides most of the flexion of the neck or rotate the head is the
energy for his run? a. digastric.
a. aerobic respiration c. creatine phosphate b. mylohyoid.
b. anaerobic respiration d. stored ATP c. sternocleidomastoid.
d. buccinator.
21. Which of these conditions would you expect to find e. platysma.
within the leg muscle fibers of a world-class marathon
runner? 6. An aerial circus performer who supports her body only
a. myoglobin-poor c. primarily anaerobic with her teeth while spinning around should have strong
b. contract very quickly d. numerous mitochondria a. temporalis muscles.
b. masseter muscles.
22. Which of these increases the least as a result of c. buccinator muscles.
muscle hypertrophy? d. Both a and b are correct.
a. number of sarcomeres e. All of these are correct.
b. number of myofibrils
c. number of fibers 7. The tongue’s shape changes primarily because of the
d. blood vessels and mitochondria action of the
e. connective tissue a. extrinsic tongue muscles.
b. intrinsic tongue muscles.
23. Relaxation in smooth muscle occurs when
a. myosin kinase attaches phosphate to the myosin 8. The infrahyoid muscles
head. b. Ca2+ binds to calmodulin. a. elevate the mandible.
c. myosin phosphatase removes phosphate from b. move the mandible from side to side.
myosin. d. Ca2+ channels open. c. fix (prevent movement of) the hyoid.
e. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. Both a and b are correct.
e. All of these are correct.
24. Compared with skeletal muscle, visceral smooth
muscle 9. The soft palate muscles
a. has the same ability to be stretched. a. prevent food from entering the nasal cavity.
b. loses the ability to contract forcefully when stretched. b. close the auditory tube.
c. maintains about the same tension, even when c. force food into the esophagus.
stretched. d. prevent food from entering the larynx.
d. cannot maintain long, steady contractions. e. elevate the mandible.
e. can accumulate a substantial oxygen deficit. 10. Which of these movements is not caused by
25. Which of these statements concerning aging and contraction of the erector spinae muscles?
skeletal muscle is correct? a. flexion of the vertebral column
a. A loss of muscle fibers occurs with aging. b. lateral flexion of the vertebral column
b. Slow-twitch fibers decrease in number faster than fast- c. extension of the vertebral column
twitch fibers. d. rotation of the vertebral column
c. The loss of strength and speed is due mainly to loss of 11. Which of these muscles is not involved with the
neuromuscular junctions. inhalation of air?
d. The density of capillaries in skeletal muscle increases. a. diaphragm b. external intercostals
e. The number of motor neurons remains constant. c. scalenes d. transversus thoracis

12. Given these muscles:

(1) external abdominal oblique c. gracilis
(2) internal abdominal oblique e. semitendinosus
(3) transversus abdominis b. sartorius
d. vastus medialis
Choose the arrangement that lists the muscles from
most superficial to deepest. 22. Which of these is not a muscle that can flex the
a. 1,2,3 c. 2,1,3 e. 3,1,2 knee?
b. 1,3,2 d. 2,3,1 a. biceps femoris c. gastrocnemius e.
sartorius
13. Tendinous intersections b. vastus medialis d. gracilis
a. attach the rectus abdominis muscles to the xiphoid
process. 23. The muscles evert the foot, whereas
b. divide the rectus abdominis muscles into segments. the muscles invert the foot.
c. separate the abdominal wall from the thigh. a. fibularis (longus and brevis), gastrocnemius and
d. are the sites where blood vessels exit the abdomen soleus
into the thigh. b. fibularis (longus and brevis), tibialis anterior and
e. are the central point of attachment for all the extensor hallucis longus
abdominal muscles. c. tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus, fibularis
longus and brevis
14. Which of these muscles can both elevate and d. tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus, flexor
depress the scapula? digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus
a. rhomboideus major and minor d. trapezius e. flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus,
b. levator scapulae e. pectoralis gastrocnemius and soleus
minor
c. serratus anterior 24. Which of these muscles causes plantar flexion of the
foot?
15. Which of these muscles does not adduct the arm a. tibialis anterior d. soleus
(humerus)? b. extensor digitorum longus e. sartorius
a. latissimus dorsi c. teres major e. c. fibularis tertius
coracobrachialis
b. deltoid d. pectoralis major

16. Which of these muscles would you expect to be CHAPTER 11

especially well developed in a boxer known for his Functional Organization of Nervous Tissue
powerful jab (punching straight ahead)?
a. biceps brachii c. trapezius e. supinator 1. The part of the nervous system that controls smooth
b. brachialis d. triceps brachii muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands is the
a. somatic nervous system. c. skeletal division.
17. Which of these muscles is an antagonist of the b. autonomic nervous system. d. sensory division.
triceps brachii?
a. biceps brachii c. latissimus dorsi e. 2. Motor neurons and interneurons are
supinator neurons.
b. anconeus d. brachioradialis a. pseudo-unipolar c. multipolar
b. bipolar d. afferent
18. The posterior group of forearm muscles is
responsible for 3. Cells found in the choroid plexuses that secrete
a. flexion of the wrist. cerebrospinal fluid are
b. flexion of the fingers. a. astrocytes. d. oligodendrocytes.
c. extension of the fingers. b. microglia. e. Schwann cells.
d. Both a and b are correct. c. ependymal cells.
e. All of these are correct. 4. Glial cells that are phagocytic within the central
19. Which of these muscles is an intrinsic hand muscle nervous system are
that moves the thumb? a. oligodendrocytes. d. astrocytes.
a. flexor pollicis brevis b. microglia. e. Schwann cells.
b. flexor digiti minimi brevis c. ependymal cells.
c. flexor pollicis longus 5. Action potentials are conducted more rapidly
d. extensor pollicis longus a. in small-diameter axons than in large-diameter axons.
e. All of these are correct. b. in unmyelinated axons than in myelinated axons.
20. Given these muscles: c. along axons that have nodes of Ranvier.
d. All of these are correct.
(1) iliopsoas
(2) rectus femoris 6. Clusters of neuron cell bodies within the peripheral
(3) sartorius nervous system are
a. ganglia.
Which of the muscles flex the hip? b. fascicles.
c. nuclei.
a. 1 c. 1,3 e. 1,2,3 d. laminae.
b. 1,2 d. 2,3
7. Gray matter contains primarily
21. Which of these muscles is found in the medial a. myelinated fibers.
compartment of the thigh? b. neuron cell bodies.
a. rectus femoris c. Schwann cells.
d. oligodendrocytes. b. generate the resting membrane potential.
c. maintain the concentration gradients of Na+ and K+
8. Concerning concentration differences across the across the plasma membrane.
plasma membrane, there is d. oppose any tendency of the cell to undergo
a. more K+ and Na+ outside the cell than inside. hyperpolarization.
b. more K+ and Na+ inside the cell than outside.
c. more K+ outside the cell than inside and more Na+
inside the cell than outside. 17. Graded potentials
d. more K+ inside the cell than outside and more Na+ a. spread over the plasma membrane in decremental
outside the cell than inside. fashion.
b. are not propagated for long distances.
9. Compared with the inside of the resting plasma c. are confined to a small region of the plasma
membrane, the outside surface of the membrane is membrane.
a. positively charged. d. can summate.
b. electrically neutral. e. All of these are correct.
c. negatively charged.
d. continuously reversing, so that it is positive one 18. During the depolarization phase of an action
second and negative the next. potential, the permeability of the membrane
e. negatively charged whenever the sodium-potassium a. to K+ is greatly increased.
pump is operating. b. to Na+ is greatly increased.
c. to Ca2+ is greatly increased.
10. Leak ion channels d. is unchanged.
a. open in response to small voltage changes.
b. open when a chemical signal binds to its receptor. 19. During repolarization of the plasma membrane,
c. are responsible for the ion permeability of the resting a. Na+ diffuses into the cell.
plasma membrane. b. Na+ diffuses out of the cell.
d. allow substances to move into the cell but not out. c. K+ diffuses into the cell.
e. All of these are correct d. K+ diffuses out of the cell.

11. The resting membrane potential results when the 20. The absolute refractory period
tendency for to diffuse out of the cell is
balanced by its attraction to opposite charges inside the a. limits how many action potentials can be produced
cell. during a given period of time.
a. Na+ c. Cl− b. prevents an action potential from starting another
b. K+ d. negatively charged protein action potential at the same point on the plasma
membrane.
12. If the permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ c. is the period of time when a strong stimulus can
increases, the resting membrane potential difference initiate a second action potential.
. This is called . d. Both a and b are correct.
a. increases, hyperpolarization e. All of these are correct.
b. increases, depolarization
c. decreases, hyperpolarization 21. A subthreshold stimulus
d. decreases, depolarization a. produces an afterpotential.
b. produces a graded potential.
13. Decreasing the extracellular concentration of K+ c. causes an all-or-none response.
affects the resting membrane potential by causing d. produces more action potentials than a submaximal
a. hyperpolarization. stimulus.
b. depolarization.
c. no change. 22. Neurotransmitter substances are stored in vesicles
located in specialized portions of the
14. Which of these terms is correctly matched with its a. neuron cell body. c. dendrite.
definition or description? b. axon. d. postsynaptic membrane.
a. depolarization: membrane potential becomes more
negative 23. In a chemical synapse,
b. hyperpolarization: membrane potential becomes more a. action potentials in the presynaptic terminal cause
negative voltage-gated Ca2+ channels to open.
c. hypopolarization: membrane potential becomes more b. neurotransmitters can cause ligand-gated Na+
negative channels to open.
c. neurotransmitters can be broken down by enzymes.
15. Which of these statements about ion movement d. neurotransmitters can be taken up by the presynaptic
through the plasma membrane is true? terminal.
a. Movement of Na+ out of the cell requires energy e. All of these are correct.
(ATP).
b. When Ca2+ binds to proteins in ion channels, the 24. An inhibitory presynaptic neuron can affect a
diffusion of Na+ into the cell is inhibited. postsynaptic neuron by
c. Specific ion channels regulate the diffusion of Na+ a. producing an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron.
through the plasma membrane. b. hyperpolarizing the plasma membrane of the
d. All of these are true. postsynaptic neuron.
c. causing K+ to diffuse out of the postsynaptic neuron.
16. The major function of the sodium-potassium pump is d. causing Cl− to diffuse into the postsynaptic neuron.
to e. All of these are correct.
a. pump Na+ into and K+ out of the cell.
25. Summation
a. is caused by combining two or more graded (5) contraction of the quadriceps femoris
potentials.
b. occurs at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron. Which of the following most closely describes the
c. results in an action potential if it reaches the threshold sequence of events as they normally occur?
potential. a. 4,1,2,3,5 c. 1,4,3,2,5 e. 4,2,3,1,5
d. can occur when two action potentials arrive in close b. 4,1,3,2,5 d. 4,2,1,3,5
succession at a single presynaptic terminal.
e. All of these are correct. 7. are responsible for regulating the
26. In convergent pathways, sensitivity of the muscle spindle.
a. the response of the postsynaptic neuron depends on a. Alpha motor neurons d. Golgi tendon organs
the summation of EPSPs and IPSPs. b. Sensory neurons e. Inhibitory interneurons
b. a smaller number of presynaptic neurons synapse c. Gamma motor neurons
with a larger number of postsynaptic neurons. 8. Which of these events occurs when a person steps on
c. information transmitted in one neuronal pathway can a tack with the right foot?
go into two or more pathways. a. The right foot is pulled away from the tack because of
d. All of these are correct. the Golgi tendon reflex.
b. The left leg is extended to support the body because
of the stretch reflex.
CHAPTER 12 c. The flexor muscles of the right thigh contract, and the
Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves extensor muscles of the right thigh relax because of
reciprocal innervation.
1. The spinal cord extends from the d. Extensor muscles contract in both thighs because of
a. medulla oblongata to the coccyx. the crossed extensor reflex.
b. level of the third cervical vertebra to the coccyx.
c. level of the axis to the lowest lumbar vertebra. 9. Damage to the dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve results
d. level of the foramen magnum to the second lumbar in
vertebra. a. loss of sensation. c. Both a and b are
e. axis to the sacral hiatus. correct.
b. loss of motor function.
2. The structure that anchors the inferior end of the
spinal cord to the coccyx is the 10. A collection of spinal nerves that join together after
a. conus medullaris. leaving the spinal cord is called a
b. cauda equina. a. ganglion. c. projection nerve.
c. filum terminale. b. nucleus. d. plexus.
d. lumbar enlargement.
e. posterior median sulcus. 11. A dermatome
a. is the area of skin supplied by a pair of spinal nerves.
3. Axons of sensory neurons synapse with the cell b. exists for each spinal nerve except C1.
bodies of interneurons in the of spinal cord gray matter. c. can be used to locate the site of spinal cord or nerve
a. anterior horn d. gray commissure root damage.
b. lateral horn e. lateral columns d. All of these are correct.
c. posterior horn
12. Which of these nerves arises from the cervical
4. Given these components of a reflex arc: plexus? a. median c. phrenic e. ulnar
(1) effector organ (4) sensory neuron b. musculocutaneous d. obturator
(2) interneuron (5) sensory receptor
(3) motor neuron 13. The skin on the posterior surface of the hand is
supplied by the
Choose the correct order an action potential follows after a. median nerve. c. ulnar nerve. e. radial nerve.
a sensory receptor is stimulated. b. musculocutaneous nerve. d. axillary
nerve.
a. 5,4,3,2,1 c. 5,3,4,1,2 e. 5,3,2,1,4
b. 5,4,2,3,1 d. 5,2,4,3,1 14. The sciatic nerve is actually two nerves combined
within the same sheath. The two nerves are the
5. A reflex response accompanied by the conscious a. femoral and obturator.
sensation of pain is possible because of b. femoral and gluteal.
a. convergent pathways. c. common fibular (peroneal) and tibial.
b. divergent pathways. d. common fibular (peroneal) and obturator.
c. a reflex arc that contains only one neuron. e. tibial and gluteal.
d. sensory perception in the spinal cord.
15. The muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh
6. Several of the events that occur between the time a are supplied by the
physician strikes a patient’s patellar tendon with a rubber a. obturator nerve. d. femoral nerve.
hammer and the time the quadriceps femoris contracts b. gluteal nerve. e. ilioinguinal nerve.
(knee-jerk reflex) are listed below: c. sciatic nerve.
(1) increased frequency of action potentials in sensory
neurons
(2) stretch of the muscle spindles
(3) increased frequency of action potentials in the alpha CHAPTER 13
motor neurons Brain and Cranial Nerves
(4) stretch of the quadriceps femoris
1. Which of these parts of the embryonic brain is b. commissures. e. gyri.
correctly matched with the structure it becomes in the c. tracts.
adult brain?
a. mesencephalon—midbrain 12. Which of these areas is located in the postcentral
b. metencephalon—medulla oblongata gyrus of the cerebral cortex?
c. myelencephalon—cerebrum a. olfactory cortex
d. telencephalon—pons and cerebellum b. visual cortex
c. primary motor cortex
2. To separate the brainstem from the rest of the brain, a d. primary somatic sensory cortex
cut would have to be made between the e. primary auditory cortex
a. medulla oblongata and pons.
b. pons and midbrain. 13. Which of these cerebral lobes is important in
c. midbrain and diencephalon. voluntary motor function, motivation, aggression, sense
d. thalamus and cerebrum. of smell, and mood?
e. medulla oblongata and spinal cord. a. frontal d. parietal
b. insula e. temporal
3. Important centers for heart rate, blood pressure, c. occipital
respiration, swallowing, coughing, and vomiting are
located in the 14. Fibers that connect areas of the cerebral cortex
a. cerebrum. d. pons. within the same hemisphere are
b. medulla oblongata. e. cerebellum. a. projection fibers. c. association fibers.
c. midbrain. b. commissural fibers. d. All of these are correct.

4. In which part of the brain does decussation of 15. The basal nuclei are located in the
descending tracts involved in the conscious control of a. inferior cerebrum. c. midbrain.
skeletal muscles occur? b. diencephalon. d. All of these are correct.
a. cerebrum d. pons 16. The most superficial of the meninges is a thick, tough
b. diencephalon e. medulla oblongata membrane called the
c. midbrain a. pia mater. c. arachnoid mater.
5. The cerebral peduncles are a major descending motor b. dura mater. d. epidural mater.
pathway in the 17. The ventricles of the brain are interconnected. Which
a. cerebrum. d. midbrain. of these ventricles are not correctly matched with the
b. cerebellum. e. medulla oblongata. structures that connect them?
c. pons. a. lateral ventricle to the third ventricle—interventricular
6. The superior colliculi are involved in , whereas foramina
the inferior colliculi are involved in . b. left lateral ventricle to right lateral ventricle—central
a. hearing, visual reflexes canal
b. visual reflexes, hearing c. third ventricle to fourth ventricle—cerebral aqueduct
c. balance, motor pathways d. fourth ventricle to subarachnoid space—median and
d. motor pathways, balance lateral apertures
e. respiration, sleep 18. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the ,
7. The cerebellum communicates with other regions of circulates through the ventricles, and enters the
the CNS through the subarachnoid space. The cerebrospinal fluid leaves the
a. flocculonodular lobe. d. lateral hemispheres. subarachnoid space through the .
b. cerebellar peduncles. e. folia. a. choroid plexuses, arachnoid granulations
c. vermis. b. arachnoid granulations, choroid plexuses
c. dural venous sinuses, dura mater
8. The major relay station for sensory input that projects d. dura mater, dural venous sinuses
to the cerebral cortex is the
a. hypothalamus. d. cerebellum. 19. Water-soluble molecules of the blood plasma move
b. thalamus. e. midbrain. across the bloodbrain barrier by
c. pons. a. diffusion. d. symport.
b. endocytosis. e. filtration.
9. The part of the diencephalon directly connected to the c. exocytosis.
pituitary gland is the
a. hypothalamus. c. subthalamus. 20. The cranial nerve involved in chewing food is the
b. epithalamus. d. thalamus. a. trochlear (IV). d. facial (VII).
b. trigeminal (V). e. vestibulocochlear (VIII). c.
10. Which of the following is a function of the abducens (VI).
hypothalamus?
a. regulates autonomic nervous system functions 17. The ventricles of the brain are interconnected. Which
b. regulates the release of hormones from the posterior of these ventricles are not correctly matched with the
pituitary structures that connect them?
c. regulates body temperature a. lateral ventricle to the third ventricle—interventricular
d. regulates food intake (hunger) and water intake (thirst) foramina
e. All of these are correct. b. left lateral ventricle to right lateral ventricle—central
11. The grooves on the surface of the cerebrum are canal
called the c. third ventricle to fourth ventricle—cerebral aqueduct
a. nuclei. d. sulci.
d. fourth ventricle to subarachnoid space—median and 4. The sensory receptors in the dermis and hypodermis
lateral apertures responsible for sensing continuous touch or pressure are
a. Merkel disks. d. free nerve endings.
18. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the , b. Meissner corpuscles. e. Pacinian corpuscles.
circulates through the ventricles, and enters the c. Ruffini end organs.
subarachnoid space. The cerebrospinal fluid leaves the
subarachnoid space through the . 5. Decreased sensitivity to a continued stimulus is called
a. choroid plexuses, arachnoid granulations a. adaptation. d. conduction.
b. arachnoid granulations, choroid plexuses b. projection. e. phantom pain.
c. dural venous sinuses, dura mater c. translation.
d. dura mater, dural venous sinuses
6. Secondary neurons in the spinothalamic tracts
19. Water-soluble molecules of the blood plasma move synapse with tertiary neurons in the
across the bloodbrain barrier by a. medulla oblongata. d. thalamus.
a. diffusion. d. symport. b. gray matter of the spinal cord. e. midbrain.
b. endocytosis. e. filtration. c. cerebellum.
c. exocytosis.
7. If the spinothalamic tract on the right side of the spinal
20. The cranial nerve involved in chewing food is the cord is severed,
a. trochlear (IV). d. facial (VII). a. pain sensations below the damaged area on the right
b. trigeminal (V). e. vestibulocochlear (VIII). side are eliminated.
c. abducens (VI). b. pain sensations below the damaged area on the left
side are eliminated.
24. From this list of cranial nerves: c. temperature sensations are unaffected.
(1) olfactory (I) (4) abducens (VI) d. neither pain sensations nor temperature sensations
(2) optic (II) (5) vestibulocochlear (VIII) are affected.
(3) oculomotor (III)
8. Fibers of the dorsal-column/medial-lemniscal system
Select the nerves that are sensory only. a. carry the sensations of two-point discrimination,
a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,2,5 d. 2,3,5 e. 3,4,5 proprioception, pressure, and vibration.
b. cross to the opposite side in the medulla oblongata.
25. From this list of cranial nerves: c. are divided into the fasciculus gracilis and the
(1) trigeminal (V) (4) vagus (X) fasciculus cuneatus in the spinal cord.
(2) facial (VII) (5) hypoglossal (XII) d. include secondary neurons that exit the medulla and
(3) glossopharyngeal (IX) synapse in the thalamus.
e. All of these are correct.
Select the nerves involved in the sense of taste.
9. Tertiary neurons in both the spinothalamic tract and
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,4,5 c. 2,3,4 d. 2,3,5 e. 3,4,5
the dorsal- column/ medial-lemniscal system
26. From this list of cranial nerves: a. project to the somatic sensory cortex.
(1) oculomotor (III) (4) vestibulocochlear (VIII) b. cross to the opposite side in the medulla oblongata.
(2) trigeminal (V) (5) glossopharyngeal (IX) c. are found in the spinal cord.
(3) facial (VII) (6) vagus (X) d. connect to quaternary neurons in the thalamus.
e. are part of a descending pathway.
Select the nerves that are part of the parasympathetic
division of the ANS. 10. Unlike the anterolateral and dorsal-column/medial-
a. 1,2,4,5 b. 1,3,5,6 lemniscal systems, the spinocerebellar tracts
c. 1,4,5,6 d. 2,3,4,5 a. are descending tracts.
e. 2,3,5,6 b. transmit information from the same side of the body as
the side of the CNS to which they project.
c. have four neurons in each pathway.
d. carry only pain sensations.
CHAPTER 14
e. have primary neurons that synapse in the thalamus.
Integration of Nervous System Functions
11. General sensory inputs (pain, pressure, temperature)
1. Nociceptors respond to
to the cerebrum end in the
a. changes in temperature at the site of the receptor.
a. precentral gyrus. d. corpus callosum.
b. compression, bending, or stretching of cells.
b. postcentral gyrus. e. arachnoid mater.
c. painful mechanical, chemical, or thermal stimuli.
c. central sulcus.
d. light striking a receptor cell.
12. Neurons from which area of the body occupy the
2. Which of these types of sensory receptors respond to
greatest area of the somatic sensory cortex?
pain, itch, tickle, and temperature?
a. foot d. arm
a. Merkel disks d. free nerve endings
b. leg e. face
b. Meissner corpuscles e. Pacinian corpuscles
c. torso
c. Ruffini end organs
13. A cutaneous nerve to the hand is severed at the
3. Which of these types of sensory receptors are
elbow. The distal end of the nerve at the elbow is then
involved with proprioception?
stimulated. The person reports
a. free nerve endings d. Pacinian corpuscles
a. no sensation because the receptors are gone.
b. Golgi tendon organs e. All of these are correct.
b. a sensation only in the region of the elbow.
c. muscle spindles
c. a sensation “projected” to the hand.
d. a vague sensation on the side of the body containing Arrange the events in the order they occur in the
the cut nerve. cerebellar comparator function.
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,3,2 c. 2,1,3 d. 2,3,1 e. 3,2,1
14. Which of these areas of the cerebral cortex is
involved in providing the motivation and foresight to plan 24. The brainstem
and initiate movements? a. consists of ascending and descending pathways.
a. primary motor cortex d. premotor area b. contains cranial nerve nuclei III–X and XII.
b. primary somatic sensory cortex e. basal nuclei c. has nuclei and connections that form the reticular
c. prefrontal area activating system.
d. has many important reflexes, some of which are
15. Which of these pathways is not an ascending necessary for survival.
(sensory) pathway? e. has all of these features.
a. spinothalamic tract
b. corticospinal tract 25. Given these areas of the cerebral cortex:
c. dorsal-column/medial-lemniscal system (1) Broca area (3) primary motor cortex
d. trigeminothalamic tract (2) premotor area (4) Wernicke area
e. spinocerebellar tract
If a person hears and understands a word and then says
16. The tracts innervate the head the word out loud, in what order are the areas used?
muscles. a. 1,4,2,3 b. 1,4,3,2 c. 3,1,4,2
a. corticospinal d. corticobulbar d. 4,1,2,3 e. 4,1,3,2
b. rubrospinal e. dorsal-column/medial-lemniscal
c. vestibulospinal 26. The main connection between the right and left
hemispheres of the cerebrum is the
17. Most fibers of the corticospinal tract a. intermediate mass. d. unmyelinated nuclei.
a. decussate in the medulla oblongata. b. corpus callosum. e. thalamus.
b. synapse in the pons. c. vermis.
c. descend in the rubrospinal tract.
d. begin in the cerebellum. 27. Which of these activities is associated with the left
cerebral hemisphere in most people?
18. A person with a spinal cord injury is suffering from a. sensory input from the left side of the body
paresis (partial paralysis) in the right lower limb. Which b. mathematics and speech
of these pathways is probably involved? c. spatial perception
a. left lateral corticospinal tract d. recognition of faces
b. right lateral corticospinal tract e. musical ability
c. left dorsal-column/medial-lemniscal system
d. right dorsal-column/medial-lemniscal system 28. The limbic system is involved in the control of
a. sleep and wakefulness.
19. Which of these pathways is not an indirect b. posture.
(extrapyramidal) pathway? c. higher intellectual processes.
a. reticulospinal tract c. rubrospinal tract d. emotion, mood, and sensations of pain or pleasure.
b. corticobulbar tract d. vestibulospinal tract e. hearing.

20. The indirect (extrapyramidal) system is concerned 29. Long-term memory involves
with a. a change in the cytoskeleton of neurons.
a. posture. c. proximal limb b. an increased number of dendritic spines.
movements. c. cAMP signaling pathways that increase gene
b. trunk movements. d. All of these are correct. transcription.
d. specific protein synthesis.
21. The major effect of the basal nuclei is e. All of these are correct.
a. to act as a comparator for motor coordination.
b. to decrease muscle tone and inhibit unwanted 30. Concerning long-term memory,
muscular activity. a. declarative (explicit) memory involves the
c. to affect emotions and emotional responses to odors. development of skills, such as riding a bicycle.
d. to modulate pain sensations. b. procedural (implicit, or reflexive) memory involves the
retention of facts, such as names, dates, or places.
22. Which part of the cerebellum is correctly matched c. much of declarative (explicit) memory is lost through
with its function? time.
a. vestibulocerebellum—planning and learning rapid, d. declarative (explicit) memory is stored primarily in the
complex movements cerebellum and premotor area of the cerebrum.
b. spinocerebellum—comparator function e. All of these are correct.
c. cerebrocerebellum—balance
d. None of these are correct. CHAPTER 15
The Special Senses
23. Given the following events:
(1) Action potentials from the cerebellum go to the motor 1. Which of these statements is not true with respect to
cortex and spinal cord. olfaction?
(2) Action potentials from the motor cortex go to lower a. Olfactory sensation is relayed directly to the cerebral
motor neurons and the cerebellum. cortex without passing through the thalamus.
(3) Action potentials from proprioceptors go to the b. Olfactory neurons are replaced about every 2 months.
cerebellum. c. The olfactory cortex is involved in the conscious
perception of smell.
d. The secondary olfactory areas are responsible for Choose the arrangement that lists the correct order of
visceral and emotional reactions to odors. the cells encountered by light as it enters the eye and
e. The olfactory cortex is in the occipital lobe of the travels toward the pigmented layer of the retina.
cerebrum. a. 1,2,3 b. 1,3,2 c. 2,1,3 d. 2,3,1 e.
3,1,2
2. Taste cells
a. are found only on the tongue. 12. Which of these photoreceptor cells is not correctly
b. extend through tiny openings called taste buds. matched with its function?
c. have no axons but release neurotransmitters when a. rods—vision in low light
stimulated. b. cones—color vision
d. have axons that extend directly to the taste area of the c. rods—visual acuity
cerebral cortex.
13. Concerning dark adaptation,
a. the amount of rhodopsin increases.
b. the pupils constrict.
3. Which of these is not one of the basic tastes? c. it occurs more rapidly than light adaptation.
a. spicy b. salt c. bitter d. All of these are correct.
d. umami e. sour
14. In the retina are cones that are most sensitive to a
4. Which of these types of papillae have no taste buds particular color.
associated with them?
a. vallate b. filiform Given this list of colors:
c. foliate d. fungiform (1) red (2) yellow (3) green (4) blue

5. The fibrous tunic of the eye includes the Indicate which colors correspond to specific types of
a. conjunctiva. c. choroid. e. retina. cones.
b. sclera. d. iris. a. 2,3 b. 3,4 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,3,4 e. 1,2,3,4

6. The ciliary body 15. Given these areas of the retina:

a. contains smooth muscles that attach to the lens by (1) macula (3) optic disc
suspensory ligaments. (2) fovea centralis (4) periphery of the retina
b. produces the vitreous humor.
c. is part of the iris of the eye. Choose the arrangement that lists the areas according to
d. is part of the sclera. the density of cones, starting with the area that has the
e. All of these are correct. highest density of cones.
a. 1,2,3,4 b. 1,3,2,4 c. 2,1,4,3
7. The lens normally focuses light onto the d. 2,4,1,3 e. 3,4,1,2
a. optic disc. c. macula. e. ciliary body.
b. iris. d. cornea. 16. Axons in the optic nerve from the right eye
a. all go to the right occipital lobe.
8. Given these structures: b. all go to the left occipital lobe.
(1) lens (3) vitreous humor c. all go to the thalamus.
(2) aqueous humor (4) cornea d. go mostly to the thalamus, but some go to the superior
colliculus.
Which of the following arrangements lists the structures e. go partly to the right occipital lobe and partly to the left
in the order that light entering the eye encounters them? occipital lobe.
a. 1,2,3,4 b. 1,4,2,3 c. 4,1,2,3
d. 4,2,1,3 e. 4,3,2,1 17. A person with an abnormally powerful focusing
system is and uses a to
9. Contraction of the smooth muscle in the ciliary body correct his or her vision.
causes the a. nearsighted, concave lens
a. lens to flatten. c. lens to become more b. nearsighted, convex lens
spherical. c. farsighted, concave lens
b. pupil to constrict. d. pupil to dilate. d. farsighted, convex lens
10. Given these events: 18. Which of these structures is found within or is a part
(1) Bipolar cells depolarize. of the external ear?
(2) Glutamate release from presynaptic terminals of a. oval window c. ossicles e. cochlear
photoreceptor cells decreases. duct
(3) Light strikes photoreceptor cells. b. auditory tube d. external auditory canal
(4) Photoreceptor cells are depolarized.
(5) Photoreceptor cells are hyperpolarized. 19. Given these ear bones:
(1) incus (2) malleus (3) stapes
Choose the arrangement that lists the correct order of
events, starting with the photoreceptor cells in the Choose the arrangement that lists the ear bones in order
resting, nonactivated state. from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear.
a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 2,4,3,5,1 c. 3,4,2,5,1 a. 1,2,3 b. 1,3,2 c. 2,1,3 d. 2,3,1 e.
d. 4,3,5,2,1 e. 5,3,4,1,2 3,2,1

11. Given these neurons in the retina: 20. Given these structures:
(1) bipolar cells (1) perilymph (3) vestibular membrane
(2) ganglionic cells (2) endolymph (4) basilar membrane
(3) photoreceptor cells
Which of the following arrangements lists the structures a. sympathetic chain ganglia.
in the order sound waves coming from the outside b. collateral ganglia.
encounter them in producing sound? c. terminal ganglia.
a. 1,3,2,4 b. 1,4,2,3 c. 2,3,1,4 d. dorsal root ganglia.
d. 2,4,1,3 e. 3,4,2,1 e. Both a and b are correct.

21. The spiral organ is within the 5. Splanchnic nerves

a. cochlear duct b. scala vestibuli. a. are part of the parasympathetic division.
d. vestibule. . c. scala tympani. b. have preganglionic neurons that synapse in the
e. semicircular canals. collateral ganglia.
c. exit from the cervical region of the spinal cord.
22. An increase in the loudness of sound occurs as a d. travel from the spinal cord to the sympathetic chain
result of an increase in the of the sound ganglia.
wave. e. All of these are correct.
a. frequency c. resonance
b. amplitude d. Both a and b are correct. 6. Which of the following statements regarding the
adrenal gland is true?
23. Interpretation of different sounds is possible a. The parasympathetic division stimulates the adrenal
because of the ability of the to vibrate at gland to release acetylcholine.
different frequencies and stimulate the b. The parasympathetic division stimulates the adrenal
. gland to release epinephrine.
a. vestibular membrane, vestibular nerve c. The sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland
b. vestibular membrane, spiral organ to release acetylcholine.
c. basilar membrane, vestibular nerve d. The sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland
d. basilar membrane, spiral organ to release epinephrine.
24. Which structure is a specialized receptor within the 7. The parasympathetic division
utricle? a. is also called the craniosacral division.
a. macula c. spiral organ b. has preganglionic axons in cranial nerves.
b. crista ampullaris d. cupula c. has preganglionic axons in pelvic splanchnic nerves.
25. Damage to the semicircular canals affects the ability d. has ganglia near or in the wall of effectors.
to detect e. All of these are correct.
a. sound. 8. Which of these is not a part of the enteric nervous
b. the position of the head relative to the ground. system?
c. the movement of the head in all directions. a. ANS motor neurons
d. All of these are correct. b. neurons located only in the digestive tract
c. sensory neurons
d. somatic motor neurons
CHAPTER 16
Autonomic Nervous System 9. Sympathetic axons reach organs through all of the
following except
1. Given these phrases:
a. abdominopelvic nerve plexuses.
(1) neuron cell bodies in the nuclei of cranial nerves
b. head and neck nerve plexuses.
(2) neuron cell bodies in the lateral gray horn of the
c. thoracic nerve plexuses.
spinal cord (T1–L2 and S2–S4)
d. pelvic splanchnic nerves.
(3) two synapses between the CNS and effectors
e. spinal nerves.
(4) regulates smooth muscle
10. Which of these cranial nerves does not contain
Which of the phrases are true for the autonomic nervous
parasympathetic fibers?
system?
a. oculomotor (III) d. trigeminal (V)
a. 1,3 b. 2,4 c. 1,2,3 d. 2,3,4 e. 1,2,3,4
b. facial (VII) e. vagus (X)
2. Given these structures: c. glossopharyngeal (IX)
(1) collateral ganglion
11. Which of these events is expected if the sympathetic
(2) sympathetic chain ganglion
division is activated?
(3) white ramus communicans
a. Secretion of watery saliva increases.
(4) splanchnic nerve
b. Tear production increases.
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the c. Air passageways dilate.
order an action potential travels through them on the way d. Glucose release from the liver decreases.
from a spinal nerve to an effector. e. All of these are correct.
a. 1,3,2,4 b. 1,4,2,3 c. 3,1,4,2
12. Which of the following statements concerning the
d. 3,2,4,1 e. 4,3,1,2
preganglionic neurons of the ANS is true?
3. The white ramus communicans contains a. All parasympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete
a. preganglionic sympathetic fibers. acetylcholine.
b. postganglionic sympathetic fibers. b. Only parasympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete
c. preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. acetylcholine.
d. postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. c. All sympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete
norepinephrine.
4. The cell bodies of the postganglionic neurons of the d. Only sympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete
sympathetic division are located in the norepinephrine.
13. When acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors,
a. the cell’s response is mediated by G proteins.
b. the response can be excitatory or inhibitory.
c. Na+ channels open.
d. the binding occurs at the effectors.
e. All of these are correct.

14. Nicotinic receptors are located in

a. postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic
division.
b. postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division.
c. membranes of skeletal muscle cells.
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. all of these sites.

15. The sympathetic division

a. is always stimulatory.
b. is always inhibitory.
c. is usually under conscious control.
d. generally opposes the actions of the parasympathetic
division.
e. Both a and c are correct.

16. A sudden increase in blood pressure

a. initiates a sympathetic reflex that decreases heart
rate.
b. initiates a local reflex that decreases heart rate.
c. initiates a parasympathetic reflex that decreases heart
rate.
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.

17. Which of these structures is innervated almost

exclusively by the sympathetic division?
a. gastrointestinal tract
b. heart
c. urinary bladder
d. reproductive tract
e. blood vessels
ANSWER KEYS 15. D 11. B
16. C 12. E
Chapter 9 17. E 13. C
1. C 18. B 14. C
2. E 19. D 15. B
3. D 20. D 16. D
4. C 21. B 17. A
5. E 22. B 18. B
6. B 23. E 19. B
7. A 24. E 20. D
8. B 25. E 21. B
9. D 26. A 22. B
10. B 23. D
11. D Chapter 12 24. E
12. C 1. D 25. D
13. E 2. C 26. B
14. D 3. C 27. B
15. C 4. B 28. D
16. C 5. B 29. E
17. A 6. D 30. C
18. B 7. C
19. D 8. C Chapter 15
20. A 9. C 1. E
21. D 10. D 2. C
22. C 11. D 3. A
23. C 12. C 4. B
24. C 13. E 5. B
25. A 14. C 6. A
15. D 7. C
Chapter 10 8. D
1. D Chapter 13 9. C
2. B 1. A 10. D
3. B 2. C 11. C
4. C 3. B 12. C
5. C 4. E 13. A
6. D 5. D 14. D
7. B 6. B 15. C
8. C 7. B 16. D
9. A 8. B 17. A
10. A 9. A 18. D
11. D 10. E 19. C
12. A 11. D 20. A
13. B 12. D 21. A
14. D 13. A 22. B
15. B 14. C 23. D
16. D 15. D 24. A
17. A 16. B 25. C
18. C 17. B
19. A 18. A Chapter 16
20. E 19. D 1. E
21. C 20. B 2. D
22. B 21. B 3. A
23. B 22. E 4. E
24. D 23. B 5. B
24. C 6. D
Chapter 11 25. C 7. E
1. B 26. B 8. D
2. C 9. D
3. C Chapter 14 10. D
4. B 1. C 11. C
5. C 2. D 12. A
6. A 3. E 13. C
7. B 4. C 14. E
8. D 5. A 15. D
9. A 6. D 16. C
10. C 7. B 17. E
11. B 8. E
12. A 9. A
13. A 10. B
14. B