06-10-2024

6001CMD30300124013 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The moment of inertia in rotational motion is equivalent to

(1) Angular velocity in linear motion

(2) Mass in linear motion
(3) Frequency in linear motion
(4) Current

2) Four point masses (each of mass m) are arranged in the X-Y plane the moment of inertia of this
array of masses about Y axis is

(1) 6 ma2
(2) 12 ma2
(3) 18 ma2
(4) 24 ma2

3) Three particles, each of mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
(as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX perpendicular to AB

in the plane of ABC, will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) The moment of inertia of a disc (radius R, mass M) about a tangential axis perpendicular to its
plane will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) What is the moment of inertia of sphere about its diameter?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle of mass m and radius of gyration K is rotating with an angular acceleration The
torque acting on the particle is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) When constant torque is acting on a body then:-

(1) Body maintain its state or moves in straight line with same velocity
(2) Acquire linear acceleration
(3) Acquire angular acceleration
(4) Rotates with a constant angular velocity

8) The moment of inertia of a disc of radius 0.3 m about its geometric axis is If a string is
tied to its circumference and a force of 15 Newton is applied, the value of torque with respect to this
axis will be:-

(1) 2.5 N-m

(2) 5 N-m
(3) 4.5 N-m
(4) 7.5 N-m

9) The moment of inertia of a disc of radius 0.3 m about its geometric axis is If a string is
tied to its circumference and a force of 15 Newton is applied. If the disc executes rotatory motion, its
angular acceleration will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) If a ladder is not in balance against a smooth vertical wall, then it can be made in balance by:-

(1) Decreasing the length of ladder

(2) Increasing the length of ladder
(3) Increasing the angle of inclination
(4) Decreasing the angle of inclination

11) Find the minimum value of F to topple about an edge.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The graph between the angular momentum L and angular velocity for a body will be:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) A unit mass at position vector is moving with velocity . What is the
angular momentum of the body about the origin?

(1) 2 units along -z axis

(2) 38 units along -x axis
(3) 38 units along -y axis
(4) 38 units along -z axis

14) The angular momentum of body remains conserve if:-

(1) Applied net force on body is zero

(2) Applied net torque on body is zero
(3) Applied force on body is constant
(4) Applied torque on body is constant.

15) A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through
its centre is placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 which is rotating with an angular
velocity about the same axis. The final angular velocity of the combination of discs is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the
disc and passing through:-
(1) D
(2) A
(3) B
(4) C

17) A wheel is rotating about its axis at a constant angular velocity. If suddenly an object sticks to it
on the rim, then its M.I. will:-

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Nothing can be said

18) A constant torque is acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from 2A0
to 5A0 in 3 seconds. The magnitude of this torque is:-

(1)

(2) A0
(3)
(4)

19) A uniform disc of mass m, radius r and a point mass m are arranged as shown in the figure. The
acceleration of point mass is: (Assume there is no slipping between pulley and thread and the disc
can rotate smoothly about a fixed horizontal axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its

plane)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

20) The quantity not involved directly in rotational motion of the body is

(1) Moment of inertia

(2) Torque
(3) Angular velocity
(4) Mass

21) A sphere is rotating about a diameter:-

(1) The particles on the surface of the sphere do not have any linear acceleration.
(2) The particles on the diameter mentioned above do not have any linear acceleration
(3) Different particles on the surface have different angular speeds
(4) All the particles on the surface have same linear speed

22) A particle of mass 3 kg is moving with uniform speed of along a line Find out
angular momentum about origin:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

23) A thin rod of length L is suspended from one end and rotated with n rotations per second. The
rotational kinetic energy of the rod will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation
The torque on the wheel becomes zero at:-

(1) t = 1s
(2) t = 0.5 s
(3) t = 0.25 s
(4) t = 2 s

25) If is the force acting on a particle having position vector be the torque of this force
about the origin, then:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) A force is acting at a point The value of for which angular

momentum about origin is conserved is:

(1) 1
(2)
(3) 2
(4) zero

27) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion: Perpendicular axis theorem can not be applied for spherical and cylindrical bodies
Reason: Perpendicular axis theorem can be applied only for laminar bodies.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.

28) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

Moment of inertia
of solid sphere of
A I
radius R about
any tangent

Moment of inertia of
hollow sphere of
B II
radius (R) about
any tangent

Moment of inertia of
circular ring of
C III
radius (R) about
its diameter.

Moment of inertia of
circular disc of
D IV
radius (R) about
any diameter.
Question: Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

29) Four particles each of mass m are placed at the corners of a square of side length The radius
of gyration of the system about an axis perpendicular to the square and passing through centre is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) The radius of gyration of a thin rod of length about an axis passing through its one end and
perpendicular to it would be:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc
and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring is:-

(1) 2 : 1
(2)
(3) 2 : 3
(4)

32) A circular disc is to be made by using iron and aluminium so that it acquired maximum moment
of inertia about geometrical axis. It is possible with:

(1) Aluminium at interior and iron surrounded to it.

(2) Iron at interior and aluminium surrounded to it.
(3) Using iron and aluminium layers in alternate order.
(4) Sheet of iron is used at both external surface and aluminium sheet as internal layer.

33) A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass M and radius r about an axis passing through its

centre is The radius of gyration of the sphere about a parallel axis and tangent to the sphere
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) An energy of 484 J is spent in increasing the speed of a flywheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm. The
moment of inertia of the flywheel is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

SECTION-B

1) Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I, respectively about their axis of rotation. If
their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their angular velocity will be in the ratio:

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)

2) If the angular momentum of any rotating body increases by 200%, then the increases in its kinetic
energy:

(1) 400%
(2) 800%
(3) 200%
(4) 100%

3) A body of mass 10 kg moves with a velocity of along a circular path of radius 8m. The
power produced by the body will be:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero
4) A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a wheel of moment of inertia 200 kg-m2 about an axis
through its center. Its angular velocity after 3 seconds is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel's rotation in one minute would be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A disc of moment of inertia is rotating at 600 rpm. If the frequency of rotation

changes from 600 rpm to 300 rpm, then what is the work done?

(1) 1470 J
(2) 1452 J
(3) 1567 J
(4) 1632 J

7) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless
string tied to point Q as shown in the figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of
the rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia have
equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta respectively, then:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two same masses m are placed at a distance r from each other. Find out the moment of inertia of

system about an axis passing through their centre of mass:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A uniform rod of length and mass m is hung from two strings of equal length from a ceiling as
shown. Tension in the two strings is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two equal and opposite forces acting on a body:

(1) Always from a couple

(2) May form a couple whose torque depends upon choice of fulcrum
(3) May form a couple whose torque is independent of fulcrum position
(4) May form a couple which is equal to a resultant force and a torque

12) The necessary and sufficient conditions for equilibrium of a body are:

(1) Body must not be revolving around any axis

(2) Sum of all forces on the body should be zero
(3) Net torque on body about any point is zero
(4) None of these is sufficient along

13) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion: If then body will be in equilibrium.
Reason: If body is in equilibrium then it must be at rest.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.

14) Which of the following pairs is not analogous in linear and rotational motion?

(1) Mass, moment of inertia

(2) Velocity, angular velocity
(3) Force, thrust
(4) Momentum, angular momentum.

15) Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of
inertia of the system about AB is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following equations respresents standard heat of formation of CH4 ?

(1) C(diamond) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g)

(2) C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g)
(3) C(diamond) + 4H(g) → CH4 (g)
(4) C(graphite) + 4H(g) → CH4 (g)

2) Heat of combustion ΔH° for C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g) are – 94, – 68 and – 213 Kcal/mol. then ΔH° for
C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) is :-

(1) – 17 Kcal
(2) – 111 Kcal
(3) – 170 Kcal
(4) – 85 Kcal

3) If enthalpies of formation of C2H4(g), CO2(g) and H2O(ℓ) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure be 52, –394 and
–286 kJ mol–1 respectively, the enthalpy of combustion of C2H4(g) will be:-

(1) +1412 kJ mol–1

(2) –1412 kJ mol–1
(3) +141.2 kJ mol–1
(4) –141.2 kJ mol–1

4)

Column-I Column-II

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) (3)

(D) (4)

The correct match is

A B C D

(1) 1 2 1,3 4

(2) 2 3,4 1 3

(3) 2,4 3 1 4

(4) 1 3 2 4
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) The following two reactions are known :

The value of ΔH for the following reaction
is ;

(1) + 6.2 kJ
(2) + 10.3 kJ
(3) – 43.3 kJ
(4) – 10.3 kJ

6) The bond dissociation energy of C–H in CH4 from the equation

CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g); ΔH = +397.8 kcal is :-

(1) +99.45 kcal

(2) –99.45 kcal
(3) +397.8 kcal
(4) +198.9 kcal

7) Consider the following processes :-

ΔH(kJ/mol)

A→B +150
3B → 2C + D –125
E + A → 2D +350
For B + D → E + 2C, ΔH will be :

(1) 325 kJ / mol

(2) 525 kJ / mol
(3) –175 kJ / mol
(4) –325 kJ / mol

8)

The heat of formation (ΔH) of SO2 is :

(1) y – 2x
(2) (2x + y)
(3) (x + y)
(4) 2x / y

9) The standard heats of formation of NO2(g) and N2O4(g) are 8.0 and 2.0 kCal mol–1 respectively the
heat of dimerization of NO2 in kCal is

(1) 10.0
(2) –6.0
(3) –12.0
(4) –14.0
10) Among the following which has maximum fuel value? Heat of combustion for C3H8, C2H6, CH4 and
C4H10 is –2220 kJ mol–1, –1560 kJ mol–1, –890.3 kJ mol–1 and –2878.7 kJ mol–1.

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) CH4
(4) C4H10

11) The heat of neutralisation of HCl by NaOH is –55.9 kJ/mol. If the heat of neutralisation of HCN
by NaOH is –12.1 kJ/mol. The energy of dissociation of HCN is :-

(1) –43.8 kJ
(2) 43.8 kJ
(3) 68 kJ
(4) –68 kJ

12)

Then the enthalpy of formation of at 298 K is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) The heats of neutralisation of four acids A,B,C,D are –13.7, –9.4, –11.2 and –12.4
kcal respectively when they are neutralised by a common base. The acidic strength obeys the order:-

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > D > C > B
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) D > B > C > A

14) If ΔfH° (C2H4) and ΔfH°(C2H6) are x1 and x2 kcal mol–1, then heat of hydrogenation of C2H4 is :-

(1) x1 + x2
(2) x1 – x2
(3) x2 – x1
(4) x1 + 2x2

15) Assertion (A): Enthalpy of neutralization of reaction.

is –16.7 kcal/eq.(approximately)
Reason (R): HF is a strong acid so, its enthalpy of neutralization is highest with strong base.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

16) Which respresent an exothermic reaction :-

(1) 2HgO (s) + 180 K J → 2Hg(ℓ) + O2(s)

(2) N2O(g) + C(s) → CO(g) + N2(g) – 131 K J
(3) N2(g) + O2 (s) → 2NO(g) ; ΔH = + 181 K J
(4) C2H2(g) + 2H2(g) C2H6(g) ; ΔH = –314 K J

17)

For the reactions,

(i) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + x kJ
(ii) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(l) + y kJ
Which one of the following statement is correct :-

(1) x > y
(2) x < y
(3) x = y
(4) More data required

18)

Which of the reaction defines ?

(1) C(diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2)
H2(g) + F2(g) → HF(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(4)
CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

19) Assertion(A): Heat of formation reactions always endothermic reactions.

Reason(R): Endothermic reactions have positive enthalpy of formations.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

20) The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O are – 15.89 and 2.80 kCal mol–1
respectively. What will be the heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO4 ?
(1) –18.69 kCal
(2) 18.69 kCal
(3) –28.96 kCal
(4) 28.96 kCal

21) When enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –46 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change for the reaction
2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) will be :-

(1) 46 kJ mol–1
(2) 92 kJ mol–1
(3) –23 kJ mol–1
(4) –92 kJ mol–1

22)

Based on the values of B.E. given, ΔfH° of N2H4(g) is :-

Given :
N–N = 159 kJ mol–1; H—H = 436 kJ/mol–1

N≡N = 941 kJ mol–1; N—H = 398 kJ/mol–1

(1) 711 kJ mol–1
(2) 62 kJ mol–1
(3) –98 kJ mol–1
(4) –711 kJ mol–1

23) In Kirchoff's equation which factor affects the heat of reaction :

(1) Pressure
(2) Temperature
(3) Volume
(4) Atomicity

24)

Consider the following reaction:-

What is the enthalpy change for decomposition of one mole of water? (Choose the right option.)

(1) 120.9 kJ
(2) 241.82 kJ
(3) 18 kJ
(4) 100 kJ

25) Which of the following statement is correct regarding with chemical equilibrium :-

Based on extent to which the reactions proceed to reach the equilibrium we may have negligible
(1)
concentrations of reactants remaining at equilibrium.
(2) Equilibrium is not static
(3) Concentration of reactants and products becomes constant at equilibrium
(4) All of these

26) In which of the following case, the reaction is nearer to the completion?

(1) K = 106
(2) K = 103
(3) K = 10–1
(4) K = 10–12

27) Which of the following is/are the characteristic of reversible reaction :

(1) Proceeds in both directions

(2) Generally possible in closed container
(3) Can attain equilibrium
(4) All of the above

28) In a chemical equilibrium the rate constant of the backward reaction is 7.5 × 10–4 and the
equilibrium constant is 1.5. So the rate constant of the forward reaction is

(1) 2 × 10–3
(2) 15 × 10–4
(3) 9.0 × 10–4
(4) 1.125 × 10–3

29)

For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), the correct expression of equilibrium constant (K) is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In a system A(s) 2B(g) + 3C(g), if the concentration of C at equilibrium is increased by a

factor of 2, it will cause the equilibrium concentration of B to change to :-

(1) two times the original value

(2) one half of its original value
(3) times to the original value
(4)
times the original value

31)

N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ; equilibrium constant is K then find equilibrium constant for

NH3 N2 + H2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) K2

32) For the chemical gaseous reaction :

2A + B C, the units of Kp is

(1) atm–2
(2) atm–3
(3) atm–1
(4) dimension less

33) Relation log + log RT = 0 is true for :-

(1) 2A(g) ⇌ B(g) + 2C(g)

(2) 2A(g) + B(s) ⇌ 2C(g)
(3) 2A(s) + B(g) ⇌ C(g)
(4) A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g)

34) Following three gaseous equilibrium reactions are occurring at 27°C

The correct order of for the following reactions is

(1) A < C < B

(2) A < B < C
(3) C < B < A
(4) B < C < A

35) Which reactant is most stable :-

(1) A(g) B(g) K=4

(2) P(g) Q(g) K = 10
(3) X(g) Y(g) K=5
(4) C(g) D(g) K=2

SECTION-B

1)

For the reaction N2 + O2 2NO KC is 200 then, KP for reaction 2NO N2 + O2 at constant
temperature :-

(1) 5 × 10–3
(2) 2.5 × 10–3
(3) 2 × 102
(4) 2 × 10–2

2) At 25°C the equilibrium constant K1 and K2 of two reactions are

2NH3 N2+3H2 ; K1

NH3 ; K2
The relation between K1 and K2 is :-

(1) K1 = K2

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Which of the following reaction having KP is less than KC at 298 K ?

(1) H + I 2HI(g)
2(g) 2(g)

(2) N + 3H 2NH3(g)
2(g) 2(g)

(3) N + O 2NO(g)
2(g) 2(g)

(4) CO + H O CO2(g) + H2(g)

(g) 2 (g)

4) The equilibrium constants for the reaction X2 ⇌ 2X at 300 K and 600 K are
respectively. The reaction is

(1) Exothermic
(2) Endothermic
(3) Slow
(4) None of these

5) For a reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), the value of Kc does not depends upon :-
(a) Initial concentration of the reactants
(b) Pressure
(c) Temperature
(d) Catalyst

(1) Only c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

6) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)

Initially 8 moles of HI were taken. If degree of dissociation of HI is 0.25 then calculate moles of I2 at
equilibrium.

(1) 6 moles
(2) 2 moles
(3) 1 mole
(4) 5 moles

7) If the equilibrium constant for is K, the equilibrium constant for

will be:-

(1) K
(2) K2
(3) K1/2

(4)

8) Given reaction is 2X(gas)+ Y(gas) ⇌ 2Z(gas)+ 80 Kcal Which combination of pressure and temperature
gives the highest yield of Z at equilibrium?

(1) 1000 atm and 500°C

(2) 500 atm and 500°C
(3) 1000 atm and 100°C
(4) 500 atm and 100°C

9) For an equilibrium H2O(s) H2O(ℓ), which of the following statements is true?

(1) The pressure changes do not affect the equilibrium

(2) More of ice melts if pressure on the system is increased
(3) More of liquid freezes if pressure on the system is increased
(4) More of ice melts if pressure on the system is decreased

10) Assertion (A) : Addition of an inert gas at constant volume to the equilibrium mixture has no
effect on the state of equilibrium.
Reason (R) : The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the concentrations of the
reactants as well as products of a reaction mixture

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true.

11) Assertion (A) : Active mass of 20 g CaCO3 present in 2 L vessel is 1.

Reason (R) : CaCO3 is a solid and its active mass remains constant during the reaction.

(1) A is correct and R is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A is correct and R is correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct

12) Match List –I (hypothetical reactions) with List–II (ratio of for the given reactions) and select
the correct answer using the code given below the lists :-

List-I List-II

(a) A2(g) + 3B2(g) ⇌ 2AB3(g) (i) (RT)–2

0
(b) A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g) (ii) (RT)

(c) A(s) + 1.5 B2(g) ⇌ AB3(g) (iii)

(d) AB2(g) ⇌ AB(g) + 0.5 B2(g) (iv)

The correct matching codes is
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Two statements are given below. Examine the statements and answer the question according to
instruction given below.
Statement-1 : High temperature favours increase in Keq for exothermic reaction.
Statement-2 : On changing temperature, equilibrium constant of a particular reaction changes.

(1) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement-1 is incorrect, statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.

14) Assertion : for H2(g), and is zero.

Reason : for every element in its standard state is zero.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct and reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

15) Which of the following equations represents a reactions a reaction that provides the enthalpy of
formation of CH3Cl ?

(1) C(s) + HCl(g) + H2(g) → CH3Cl(g)

(2) C(s) + 3H(g) + Cl(g) → CH3Cl(g)
(3) C(s) + 3/2H2(g) + 1/2Cl2(g) → CH3Cl(g)
(4) CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) What is correct for numerical taxonomy?

(1) It is based on information like chromosome number, structure & behaviour

(2) It is based on chemical constituents of the plants
Each character is given equal importance and at the same time hundreds of characters can be
(3)
considered
(4) All of these

2) Natural system of classification is based on all except

(1) Natural affinities among the organisms

(2) External features
(3) Internal features
(4) Fossil records

3) Majority of _______ algae are marine with greater concentrations found in warmer areas
(1) Green
(2) Brown
(3) Red
(4) Blue green

4) Select an incorrect match

(1) Laminaria - Edible brown alga

(2) Gelidium - Red alga
(3) Chlorella - Protein rich
(4) Dictyota - Agar-Agar

5) Gametes in Spirogyra are

(1) Isogametes and non-motile

(2) Isogametes and motile
(3) Anisogametes and non-motile
(4) Anisogametes and motile

6) Pyrenoids contain

(1) Protein and fat

(2) Protein and starch
(3) Protein and glycogen
(4) Lipid and protein

7) Complex post-fertilization events are found in the members of

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

8) Match the following columns I & II, and choose the correct option

Column - I Column - II

(i) Lycopodium (a) Psilopsida

(ii) Adiantum (b) Lycopsida

(iii) Psilotum (c) Sphenospida

(iv) Equisetum (d) Pteropsida

(1) i-d; ii-a; iii-c; iv-b
(2) i-b; ii-d; iii-a; iv-c
(3) i-b; ii-d; iii-c; iv-a
(4) i-a; ii-b; iii-d; iv-c
9) Pigments found in the members of Phaeophyceae are

(1) Chl - a, Chl - c, Fucoxanthin

(2) Chl - a, Chl - d, Violaxanthin
(3) Chl -a, Chl - b, Chl - c
(4) Chl - d, Chl - b, Phycoerythrin

10) Food reserve in Rhodophyceae is :

(1) Floridean starch

(2) Mannitol
(3) Leucosin
(4) All of the above

11) Classification of algae is mainly based on

(1) Reproductive organs

(2) Structure of spores
(3) Photosynthetic pigments
(4) Stored food

12) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) statements, to choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical
regions.
Reason (R): Prothallus of pteridophytes require cool, damp and shady places to grow.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13) Generally female sex organ of algae is called

(1) Carpel
(2) Oogonium
(3) Archegonia
(4) Oosphere

14) Bryophytes are

(1) First successful land plant

(2) Vascular cryptogams
(3) Non vascular cryptogams
(4) Vascular embryophytes

15) Sex organs in bryophytes are

(1) Unicellular and jacketed
(2) Unicellular and non-jacketed
(3) Multicellular and jacketed
(4) Multicellular and non jacked

16) Mannitol is the stored food in

(1) Gracilaria
(2) Chara
(3) Porphyra
(4) Fucus

17) Examine the figure given below and select the option in which all the four parts (a, b, c, d) are

correctly identified

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Antheridiophore Male thallus Globule Roots

(2) Archegoniophore Female thallus Gemma cup Rhizoids

(3) Archegoniophore Female thallus Bud Foot

(4) Seta Sporophyte Protonema Protonema

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) In which of the following bryophytes there are gemmae, the means of vegetative reproduction ?

(1) Funaria
(2) Marchantia
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Anthoceros

19) Choose the correct option w.r.t type of flagellation in gametes of green, brown and red algae
respectively
(1) Equal, Unequal, Absent
(2) Unequal, Equal, Equal
(3) Equal, Absent, Unequal
(4) Absent, Equal, Absent

20) Agar is obtained from ____

(1) Fucus, Laminaria

(2) Chlorella, Spirulina
(3) Gelidium, Gracilaria
(4) Porphyra, Ectocarpus

21) Refer to the given figure and select the correct option

A B C

(1) Stipe Holdfast Holdfast

(2) Frond Stipe Holdfast

(3) Holdfast Frond Stipe

(4) Stipe Frond Holdfast

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column I Column II

A. Spirogyra i. Unicellular

B. Chalmydomonas ii. Filamentous

C. Volvox iii. Colonial form

D. Profusely branched iv. Kelps

(1) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
(4) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv

23) Select the option that correctly identifies A and B in the given figure

A B

(1) Sporophyte Gametophyte

(2) Gametophyte Sporophye

(3) Male shoot Female shoot

(4) Female shoot Male shoot

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Read the given statements and select the correct option
Statement 1 : Bryophytes are amphibians of plant kingdom.
Statement 2 : Bryophytes live in soil but dependent on water for sexual reproduction

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

25) Artificial systems gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics, this is not
acceptable because often .......... characters are more easily affected by environment

(1) Vegetative
(2) Sexual
(3) Reproductive
(4) Vegetative and Sexual

26) Which of these statements about pteridophytes is or are correct?

(1) They are first vascular land plants

(2) They are not completely successful land plants as they require water for fertilization
(3) Main plant body is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves
(4) More than one option is correct

27) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal

(2) In bryophytes zygote undergoes reduction division
In heterosporous type of pteridophytes, female gametophyte retained on the parent sporophyte
(3)
for variable periods
(4) Rhizoids are multicellular in Mosses

28) In which of the following pteridophytes, sporophylls form distinct compact structures called
strobili?

(1) a, b only
(2) a, b, c
(3) c only
(4) a only

29) Pteridophytes are differentiated from bryophytes in having

(1) Independent and well differentiated sporophyte

(2) Well developed independent, dominant gametophyte
(3) Inconspicuous, dependent sporophyte
(4) None of these

30) Selaginella is

(1) Macrophyllous
(2) Homosporous
(3) Microphyllous
(4) Non-vascular
31) Gemma cups are present in:

(1) Mosses
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Liverworts

32) Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :

(1) Prokaryotes
(2) Thallophyta
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Spermatophyta

33) Archegonium of Bryophytes is _________ shaped.

(1) Disc
(2) Cup
(3) Flask
(4) Ribbon

34) In Bryophyta spores are produced in by division.

(1) A. Archegonium; B. Mitosis

(2) A. Capsule; B. Meiosis
(3) A. Capsule; B. Mitosis
(4) A. Antheridium; B. Mitosis

35) The unique feature of Bryophytes compared to other green plant groups is that

(1) They produce both the kinds of spores like microspores and megaspores
(2) They have vascular tissues
(3) They have dominant sporophyte
(4) Their sporophyte is parasite on the gametophyte

SECTION-B

1) The first cell of sporophytic generation in bryophyta is

(1) Spore
(2) Spore mother cell
(3) Zygote
(4) Protonema

2) Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by:

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Budding
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) By Gemma cups

3) Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?

(1) Marchantia
(2) Riccia
(3) Funaria
(4) Sphagnum

4) Cell walls of members of red algae have

(1) Cellulose + Algin

(2) Cellulose + Pectin + Polysulphate esters
(3) Cellulose only
(4) Chitin

5) How many of the given below structures are gametophytic nature in bryophytes ?

Spore, Gemmae, Protonema, Rhizoids, Zygote, Egg

(1) Four
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Three

6) Pear-shaped gametes with two laterally attached flagella are seen in

(1) Porphyra
(2) Fucus
(3) Chara
(4) Polysiphonia

7) The predominant pigment present in the red algae is

(1) R-phycocyanin
(2) Chlorophyll a
(3) R-phycoerythrin
(4) Chlorophyll b

8) Protonema is

(1) Diploid, creeping, branched

(2) Haploid, green, creeping, filamentous stage
(3) Haploid, leafy stage
(4) Diploid, filamentous stage

9) Bryophytes play an important role in plant succession. Which of the following statement(s) justify
this ?

(1) Decompose rocks making the substrate suitable for the growth of green plants
(2) First organisms to colonise rock
(3) Provide food for herbivorous animals
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) The bryophytes are usually found in

(1) Humid and shaded places

(2) Marine habitats
(3) Sandy soils
(4) Xeric habitats

11) The female sex organ in Riccia and Funaria is

(1) Antheridium
(2) Paraphysis
(3) Archegonium
(4) Oogonium

12) Peat is used as/to

(1) Curry powder

(2) Fuel
(3) Increase the viscosity of ice creams
(4) Culturing medium to grow microbes

13) Bentham and Hookers classification is

(1) Phylogenetic classification

(2) Natural Classification
(3) Numerical classification
(4) Artificial classification

14) In mosses, creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage which is developed from
spore is called ________.

(1) Protonema
(2) Rhizome
(3) Rhizophore
(4) Leafy gametophyte
15) Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes resemble with each other in which one of the following
features ?

(1) Gametophytic plant body

(2) Dependency on water for fertilisation
(3) Presence of thalloid body
(4) Presence of embryo

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Which nodal musculature generate the maximum number of action potentials ?

(1) SA node
(2) AV node
(3) Bundle of His
(4) Purkinje fibres

2) Heart beat becomes faster on stimulation by:-

(1) Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine

(2) Sympathetic nerves and Nor-adrenaline
(3) Parasympathetic nerves and acetylcholine
(4) Parasympathetic nerves and adrenaline

3) Which option is not incorrect about this ECG ?

(1) P wave represents repolarisation of atria

(2) T wave represents ventricular repolarisation
(3) QRS complex represents atrial systole
(4) End of T wave marks the end of diastole

4) The name of conical muscular projections to which chordae tendineae are attached in the
ventricles of the human heart is/are

(1) Pectoralis muscle

(2) Ligamentum arteriosum
(3) Papillary muscles
(4) Fossa ovalis

5) Find out the incorrect match from the following table-

 Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Fish Single circulation 2-chambered heart

(ii) Amphibians Complete Double circulation 3-chambered heart

(iii) Crocodile Double circulation 4-chambered heart

(iv) Reptiles Incomplete double circulation 3-chambered heart

(1) Only ii
(2) Only iii
(3) ii and iii
(4) i and iv

6) Assertion :- The sino-atrial node (SAN) is called the pacemaker.

Reason :- SAN is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity
of heart.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

7) A person with blood group A requires blood. The blood group which can be given is -

(1) A and B
(2) A and AB
(3) A and O
(4) A, B, AB and O

8) Blood without formed elements is called -

(1) Serum
(2) Lymph
(3) Plasma
(4) Haemoglobin

9) Assertion:– In humans, leucocytes are nucleated blood cells.

Reason:– Monocytes are largest and most abundant type of leucocytes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

10) Tunica interna is :-

(1) External layer of fibrous connective tissue

(2) Inner layer of smooth muscle
(3) Inner layer of squamous endothelium
(4) Middle layer of smooth muscle and sqnamous epithelium

11) During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately blood :-

(1) 5000 ml
(2) 70 ml
(3) 120 ml
(4) 500 ml

12) Semilunar valves prevent the back flow of blood into :-

(1) Ventricles
(2) Atria
(3) Aorta
(4) Pulmonary artery

13) Opening between left atrium & left ventricle is guarded by :-

(1) Tricuspid valve

(2) Bicuspid valve
(3) Semilunar valve
(4) Thebesian valve

14) The possibilities of erythroblastosis foetalis during second pregnancy are when there is :-

(1) Rh+ male & Rh+ female

(2) Rh+ male & Rh– female
(3) Rh– male & Rh– female
(4) Rh– male & Rh+ female

15) Liquid which remain after clotting of blood in called

(1) Serum
(2) Plasma
(3) Lymph
(4) Blood

16) Blood is known as false connective tissue due to absence of :-

(1) Matrix
(2) Cells
(3) Fibres
(4) All of the above
17) Normal blood pressure, device by which blood pressure measured and normal artery in which it
is measured respectively in humans are :-

(1) 120/80, Sphygomomanometer, Brachial artery

(2) 120/80, Sphygmograph, Brachial artery
(3) 120/80, Sphygmomanometer, Saphenous artery
(4) 120/80, Sphygmograph, Saphenous artery

18) The given figure represents the pathway of blood throughout the body
Identify the correct of marked a, b, c and d

(1) a – artery
(2) b – pulmonary vein
(3) c – pulmonary artery
(4) d – systemic vein

19) Human kidneys are located between the levels of following vertebra :

(1) T10 – L1
(2) T12 – L3
(3) L2 – L5
(4) L4 – S1

20) Medial surface of kidney are _____ while lateral surface is _____respectively.

(1) Convex, concave

(2) Concave, convex
(3) Convex, convex
(4) Concave, concave

21) How many substances are re-absorbed through active transport in nephron from given below ?
Glucose, amino acid, Na+, water, nitrogenous waste

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 4

22) Select ammonotelic from the following.

(1) Many bony fishes

(2) Aquatic amphibians
(3) Aquatic insects
(4) All of these

23) Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them appropriately
and mark the correct answer from among those given below.

Excretory structure/organ Animals

(A) Protonephridia (i) Prawn

(B) Nephridia (ii) Cockroach

(C) Malpighian tubules (iii) Earth worm

(D) Green gland or Antennal gland (iv) Flatworms

(1) (D) i, (C) ii, (B) iii and (A) iv
(2) (B) i, (C) ii, (A) iii and (B) iv
(3) (D) i, (C) ii, (A) iii and (B) iv
(4) (A) i, (C) ii, (B) iii and (D) iv

24) The correct order of processes that occur in urine formation.

(1) Glomerular filtration → Tubular secretion → Reabsorption

(2) Tubular secretion →Glomerular filtration → Reabsorption
(3) Glomerular filtration → Reabsorption→Tubular secretion
(4) Tubular secretion → Reabsorption →Glomerular filtration

25) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in

(1) Cortical nephrons

(2) Juxtamedullary nephrons
(3) Cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons
(4) Juxtamedullary nephrons of aged persons only

26) Which statement is incorrect regarding reabsorption:-

(1) Nearly 99 percent of the filterate is reabsorbed by the PCT

(2) Nearly all essential nutrients are reabsorbed by DCT
–
(3) Loop of Henle’s is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3
(4) All of these

27) In a healthy person the glomerular filtration rate GFR per day will be :-

(1) 125 ml
(2) 650 ml
(3) 180 litre
(4) 170 litre
28) Which of the following is not situated in the cortical region of the kidney ?

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Malpighian corpuscle
(4) Loop of Henle

29) The disease of heart in which deposition of calcium, fat and others fibrous tissues take place
inside the artery is :-

(1) Heart failure

(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Angina pectoris
(4) Murmur

30) Site for secretion of H+ & K+ :

(1) Distal convoluted tubule-Collecting tubule

(2) Descending limb of loop of henle-Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Descending limb of loop of henle-Distal convoluted tubule
(4) Descending limb of loop of henle-Collecting tubule

31) The efferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus forms a fine capillary network around the
renal tubule called the :

(1) Vasa recta

(2) Para tubular capillary
(3) Counter current mechanism
(4) Peritubular capillary

32) Ureter develops from funnel like structure called:

(1) Hilum
(2) Renal pelvis
(3) Major calyx
(4) Minor calyx

33) How much amount of blood passes through the kidneys per minute in a healthy person?

(1) 125–150ml
(2) 600–700 ml
(3) 1100–1200 ml
(4) 180 liter

34) Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in
(1) No urine formation
(2) More diluted urine
(3) More concentrated urine
(4) No change in quality and quantity of urine

35) Stroke volume and cardiac output are ________ and _______ respectively :-

(1) 50 ml, 5 L
(2) 5 L, 50 ml
(3) 70 ml, 5 L
(4) 120 ml, 5 L

SECTION-B

1)

Internal section of Kidney shows extension of cortex into medullary regions between the pyramids
and is called

(1) Ducts of Bellini

(2) Major calyx
(3) Minor calyx
(4) Columns of Bertini

2)

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?

(1) Thrombin
(2) Renin
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Thrombokinase

3) In humans, _______(a)______carry the maximum amount of urea while ______(b)____carry the

minimum amount of urea.

(1) (a) - Renal vein, (b) - Hepatic vein

(2) (a) - Renal artery, (b) - Renal vein
(3) (a) - Dorsal aorta, (b) - Renal vein
(4) (a) - Hepatic vein, (b) - Renal vein

4) During atrial systole flow of blood into ventricles increases about :-

(1) 70%
(2) 5%
(3) 30%
(4) 50%

5) Mitral valve is present at :-

(1) Left AV foramen

(2) Right AV foramen
(3) Between Aorta & Left ventricle
(4) Between right ventricle and pulmonary Artery

6) Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

(A) PCT (i) Selective secretion of NH3 and K+ ions

70-80 percent of electrolytes and water

(B) DCT (ii)
reabsorbed

(C) Descending limb (iii) Allow passage of small amount of urea

(D) Ascending limb (iv) Permeable to water

(E) Collecting duct (v) Permeable to salts

(1) A-i ; B-ii ; C-iii ; D-iv ; E-v
(2) A-i ; B-iii ; C-iv ; D-ii ; E-v
(3) A-ii ; B-i ; C-iv ; D-v ; E-iii
(4) A-ii ; B-i ; C-v ; D-iv ; E-iii

7) All veins carry deoxygenated blood except :

(1) Renal vein

(2) Hepatic vein
(3) Hepatic portal vein
(4) Pulmonary vein

8)

In the given table which Leucocyte is correctly matched with its shape of nucleus and their function
?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9)

Which pair of plasma protein is responsible for blood clotting ?

(1) Albumin, Globulin

(2) Globulin, Fibrinogen
(3) Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin, Albumin

10) In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must
flow through -

(1) right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium
(2) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, lungs, pulmonary arteries, left atrium
(3) right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium
(4) right ventricle, systemic aorta, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium

11) Assertion (A) :- T wave represents the ventricular repolarization

Reason (R) :- The end of T wave marks the end of diastole.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

12) Cardiac output is determined by -

(1) heart rate

(2) stroke volume
(3) blood flow
(4) both (1) and (2)

13) Figure shows a diagrammatical representation of a renal corpuscle. Identify A, B, C and D and

choose the correct alternative.

(1) A-Efferent arteriole, B-Afferent arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-proximal convoluted tuble
(2) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent arteriole, C-Glomerulus, D-Distal convoluted tubule
(3) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Distal convoluted tubule

14) Identify A to D in the following diagrammatic section of kidney and choose the correct option

accordingly.

A B C D

Renal Renal Medullary

(1) Calyx
column pelvis pyramid

Renal Renal Medullary

(2) Calyx
pelvis column pyramid

Renal Medullary Renal

(3) Calyx
column pyramid pelvis

Medullary Renal Renal

(4) Calyx
pyramid column pelvis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Each kidney has how many nephrons ?

(1) About 2 millions

(2) About 1 million
(3) About 5000
(4) About 50000
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 4 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 4 3 1 4 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 1 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 1 3 4 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Mass in linear motion

2)

3)

4)

5)

6)
7)
Acquire angular acceleration

8)

9)

11)

12)

13)

14)

15)

22)
= 12
23)

24)

26) Angular momentum will be conserved if net torque acting on the system becomes zero.
Given force acting

and
If torque becomes zero then

27) Statement of reason explains the assertion statement.

29)

30)

31) Disc Ring

33)

35)

36) Consider two bodies A and B are having moment of inertia I and 2I.
kinetic energy of rotation for the body

where, is angular speed of the body A.

kinetic energy of rotation for the body B

According to the questions,

37) Kinetic energy,

Increment in kinetic energy

The percentage increase is 800%

38)
In a circular motion, therefore,

39)

40) Given:

The torque required to stop the wheel's rotation is

41) Work done = Change in rotational kinetic energy

42) Taking torque about P

47) For body to be in equilibrium net force and net torque both must be zero.

48) For a body to be in equilibrium both net force and net torque must be zero.

50)
CHEMISTRY

51) For heat of formation, 1 mole compound is formed and reactants are taken as reference
state.

54)

Conceptual

64)

C2H4 → C2H6 ΔHHydro(C2H4)

ΔH = (ΔHF)P – (ΔHF)R
= x2 – x1

65)

Fact.

69)

Conceptual.

70) CuSO4(s) CuSO4(aq)

∆H = –15.89 …(1)
CuSO4·5H2O(s) CuSO4(aq)
∆H = 2.8 Kcal …(2)
CuSO4(s) CuSO4·5H2O(s) …(3)
Eq.(3) = Eq.(1) – (2)
∆H = (–15.89) – (2.8)
∆H = –18.69 K cal

71)

∴ for
and for 2NH3 → N2 + 3H2; ΔH = +92 kJ/mol

76)

Greater is the value of equilibrium constant (K); nearer is the reaction to completion.

83)
 KP = KC.RT
Δng = 1

87)

88)
For Kp < Kc ; Δng = –ve

90)

Equilibrium constant only depends on temperature for a given reaction.

96) NCERT Class-11, Part-1, Article no. 7.5

(Page no. 196, 197. Edition 2023-24)

97) (a) Δng = –2

(b) Δng = 0

(c) Δng = –0.5 =

(d) Δng =

99)

Fact.

BOTANY

101) NCERT pg no.24

102) NCERT pg no.23

103) NCERT pg no.27

104) NCERT pg no.26,27

105) NCERT pg no.24

106) NCERT pg no.26

 107) NCERT pg no.28

108) NCERT pg.no. 32

109) NCERT pg no.26

110) NCERT pg no.29

111)

Allen module pg no.60

112)

NCERT pg.no. 32

113)

Allen module pg no.66

114)

Fact

115)

Allen module pg no.66

116)

NCERT pg no.27

117)

NCERT pg no.28

118)

NCERT pg no.29

119)

NCERT pg no.27

120)

NCERT pg no.26

121)

NCERT pg no.25
 122)

NCERT pg no.24

123)

NCERT pg no.28

124)

NCERT pg no.29

125)

NCERT pg no.23

126) NCERT pg no.30

127) NCERT pg.no. 29, 30, 32

128) NCERT pg no.31

129) NCERT pg no.30

130) NCERT pg.no. 30

131) NCERT pg no.29

132)

Allen module pg no.66

133)

NCRT pg.no. 29

134)

NCERT pg.no. 29, 30

135)

NCERT pg no.29

136)

NCERT pg no.29

137)
NCERT pg no.30

138)

NCERT pg no.29

139)

NCERT pg no.27

140)

Zygote is diploid rest are haploid

141)

NCERT pg no.27

142)

NCERT pg no.27

143)

NCERT pg no.30

144)

NCERT pg no.29

145)

NCERT pg no.29

146)

NCERT pg no.29

147) NCERT pg.no. 26

148)

NCERT pg.no. 24

149) NCERT pg no.30

ZOOLOGY

152)

NCERT-XIth Page no. 287 Regulation of cardiac activity

 154)

Allen module Page no. 78

155)

NCERT XI (H) Page no. # 282

161)

NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 285

163)

NCERT XI Page No. 284

164)

NCERT XI Page No. 281

167)

Module Pg. # 104

176)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 294 para 3

177)

NCERT XI Pg. # 294

180)

NCERT Pg # 295

181)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 293

182)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 291

188)

NCERT-XI (old) Pg.# 291

199)

NCERT page no.-292