Abhishek

Sahani

1. Functional jurisprudence depicts the inter-relationship between _____________

a. Law and justice
b. Law and duty
c. Law and order
d. Law and function

2. Pharmaceutical legislation functions as a backbone of our _____________

a. Hospitals
b. Community system
c. Healthcare system
d. Pharma sector

3. The Latin word jurisprudentia denotes _____________

a. Knowledge of guidelines
b. Knowledge of law
c. Knowledge of ethics
d. Knowledge of rules

4. Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceutical Works (Calcutta) was established by Acharya P.C. Ray in the year _____________
a. 1901
b. 1948
c. 1903
d. 1898

5. Towards the closing _____________ century, manufacturing of modern drug began in India
a. 18th
b. 19th
c. 20th
d. 17th

6. Due to _____________ movement, the Indian Pharmaceutical Industry advanced and restarted the import of drugs.
a. Khilafat
b. Satyagraha
c. Quit India
d. Swadeshi

7. Who stated that the drugs of defective strength and impure quality have taken over the market?
a. Medical Research Workers.
b. Sir Haroon Zaffer
c. Prof. T.K. Gajjar
d. Acharya P.C. Ray

8. In 1928 on May 3, who wrote the letter to the Indian Government?

a. The Secretary of the Indian Merchant of Kolkata
b. The chief Secretary of the Indian Merchant of Bombay
c. The Secretary of the Indian Merchant of Bombay
d. The chief Secretary of the Indian Merchant of Kolkata

9. Through the implementation of which acts Lt. Col. H.A.J. Gidney asked for immediate control on adulterated drugs in India?
a. Food and Drugs Act and Pharmacy and Poisons Act
b. Only Food and Drug Act
c. Drugs and Cosmetics Act and the Pharmacy Act
d. Only the Pharmacy Act

10. What is the full form of DEC ?

a. Drug Examination Commission
b. Drug Enquiry Committee
c. Drug Enquiry Commission
d. Drug Examination Committee

11. DEC is also known as _____________

a. Health care committee
b. Therapeutic committee
c. Mukherjee committee
d. Chopra committee

12. To enquire the legislations that allow only qualified persons to access the pharmacy profession is the function of
_____________
a. DEC
 Abhishek Sahani

b. Indian Government
c. Health care committee
d. Council of States

13. The first pharmacy department of Pharmaceutics was initiated at _____________

a) Central Drug Research Institute
b) Banaras Hindu University (BHU)
c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
d) Institute of Life Sciences

14. The Indian Pharmaceutical Association was created at _____________

a. Delhi
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Uttar Pradesh

15. The Drug Act was approved on _____________

a. 10th April 1940
b. 12th April 1940
c. 12th April 1947
d. 10th April 1942

16. Central Drug Laboratory (DL) was established by _____________

a. DEC
b. Indian Government
c. Health Survey and Development Committee
d. CDRI

17. The Health Survey and Development Committee were framed on _____________
a. April 1943
b. October 1940
c. April 1940
d. October 1943

18. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act and Rules were passed with the removal of _____________
a) a)The Opium Act
b) The Dangerous Drugs Act
c) C) The Dangerous Drugs Act and Opium Act
d) The Food and Drug Act

19. The Drug and Cosmetics Rules is not a set of rules for the _________ of drugs and cosmetics in India.
a. Manufacture
b. Import
c. Sale
d. Distribution

20. Drugs Enquiry Committee and Health Survey and Development Committee laid the foundation for the _____________
a. Pharmacy Act in 1948
b. Drug Act in 1947
c. Drug Act in 1948
d. Pharmacy Act in 1947

21. Which Act is not directly or indirectly linked to manufacture, distribution, and sale of Drugs and Pharmaceuticals in India
_____________ ?
a. Factory Act
b. Drugs and Cosmetics Act
c. The Indian Patent and Design Act
d. The Epidemic Diseases Act

22. When the first chemist shop was owned in India?

a. 1811
b. 1821
c. 1911
d. 1924

23. Which Veda contains a list of diseases and their symptoms?

a. Sama Veda
b. Rig Veda
c. Yajur Veda
d. Atharva Veda
 Abhishek Sahani

24. _____________ wrote a book on Ayurvedic medicines in the Vedic time and the book name was _____________
a. Robert Svoboda, Charaka Samhita
b. Charaka, Charaka Samhita
c. Vasant Lad, Charaka Sangitha
d. Sushruta, Charaka Sangitha

25. Which Veda holds a list of medicinal herbs?

a. Yajur Veda
b. Sama Veda
c. Rig Veda
d. Atharva Veda

26. The DEC was established on _____________

a) 11th August, 1930
b) C) 15' August, 1930
c) 19th August, 1932
d) 13th August, 1932

27. The first pharmacy department of Pharmaceutics was initiated in _____________ year.
a. 1956
b. 1935
c. 1942
d. 1932

28. Health Survey and Development Committee under the chairmanship of _____________
a) Acharya P.C. Ray
b) C) Sir Haroon Zaffer
c) Sir Joseph Bhore
d) Prof. T.K. Gajiar

29. What is the full form of CDL?

a. Chest Diselse Laboratory
b. Control Drug Laboratory
c. Central Drug Laboratory
d. None of the above

30. The Drug Act was finally approved after _____________

a. Two years
b. Six years
c. Ten years
d. Seven years

31. The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act was approved by the Parliament in _____________
a. 1994
b. 1998
c. 1995
d. 1996

32. The Medicinal and Toilet preparations (Excise Duties) Act was passed by the Parliament in _____________
a. 1950
b. 1945
c. 1955
d. 1956

33. In 1901 _____________ initiated a small factory named Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceutical works in Calcutta.
a. Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
b. Sir Joseph Bhore
c. Sir Haroon Zaffer
d. Prof. T.K. Gajjar

34. Government of India introduced the Pharmacy Bill in _____________

a. 1954
b. 1946
c. 1945
d. 1947

35. In 1903, who started a small factory at Parel?

a. Acharya Prafulla
b. Sir Joseph Bhore Chandra Ray
c. Sir Haroon Zaffer
d. Prof. T.K. Gajjar
 Abhishek Sahani

36. The first chemist shop in India was owned by _____________

a. Sir Joseph Bhore
b. Acharya P.C. Ray
c. Prof. T.K. Gajjar
d. Mr. Bathgate

1. The code of moral principles or the science of morals is termed as _____________

a. Integrity
b. Ideals
c. Ethics
d. Reliability

2. Who stated that "Even if your own life be in danger you should not betray or negleet the interests of your patients"?
a. Vagbhata
b. Vasant Lad
c. Sushruta
d. Charaka

3. Which ethies is not followed by the pharmacists with relation to job?

a. Conduct of the pharmacy
b. Handling of prescriptions
c. Conduct the surgery
d. Handling of drugs

4. What is the full form of ESIS?

a. Employees State Insurance Scheme
b. Employees State Indemnification Scheme
c. Employees State Insurance Sector
d. Employees State Indemnification Sector

5. Which ethics is not followed by the pharmacists in relation to trade?

a. Price structure
b. Fair trade practice
c. Purchase of drugs
d. Apprentice pharmacist

6. Which is not the principle of pharmacy profession?
a. Agreeing to practice only under conditions
b. Recognising the consumer's health
c. Maintaining a contemporary knowledge of pharmacy practice
d. Demonstrating a commitment to the development

7. Which one is the principle of Community?

a. Respecting the consumer's autonomy and rights
b. Conducting the pharmacy business ethically and professionally
c. Demonstrating a commitment to the development
d. Upholding the reputation and public trust of the profession

8. Which ethics is not followed by the pharmacists in handling the prescriptions?

a. Should answer very query
b. Should provide the facilities to the trainees
c. Should not show any expression
d. Should not discuss or comment over it

9. Which ethics is to be followed by pharmacists in relation with the purchase of drugs?

a. Should not be hawked
b. Should not sold from door to door
c. Should not assist the manufacture
d. Should not be offer prizes to patronisers

10. Which ethics is not related to professional vigilance?

 Abhishek Sahani

a. Should be law-abiding
b. Should motivate certain organisations
c. Should not do offensive activities
d. Should help and cooperate with a fellow member

1. To formalise the education and training of profession of pharmaceutical sciences is the objective of which Act?
a. Cosmetic Act
b. Pharmacy Act
c. Food and Drugs Act
d. Drug Act

2. The Pharmacy Act was implemented everywhere in India except _____________

a. Punjab
b. Assam
c. West Bengal
d. Jammu and Kashmir

3. Who elects the President and the Vice-President of the Central Council of Pharmacy?
a. Public
b. Members of the Council
c. Health Care Minister
d. Central Government

4. An elected member holds office for _____________

a. 5 years
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 10 years

5. Who cannot be the part of present constitution of the Pharmacy Council of India?
a. One nominee of each State Government
b. One nominee of each State Pharmacy Council
c. One doctor
d. Six Teachers

6. An executive committee includes _____________

a. Vice- President and 5 members
b. President, Vice- President and 6 members
c. President and 6 members
d. President, Vice-President and 5 members

7. Which one is not the specialised subject for the eligibility of the teacher as a member of PCI?
a. Industrial pharmacy
b. Pharmacology
c. Pharmacognosy
d. Pharmaceutical chemistry

8. Which one is not the eligibility criterion of a registered as a pharmacist?

a. Minimum 18 years
b. Practiced in any clinic without degree
c. Passed an approved examination
d. Carries the profession of pharmacy in the State

9. The Education Regulations, 1991 advises that the periods of theoretical study should not be less than _____________
a. 6 months
b. 600hours
c. 8 months
d. 500 hours

10. The Central Council has made the regulations for _____________
a. Management of the property
b. Approval of institutions
c. Registration of pharmacists
d. Recognition of foreign qualifications

11. Full form of AICTE is _____________

a. All India Council for Technical Edification
b. All India Council for Teaching Edification
 Abhishek Sahani

c. All India Council for Technical Education

d. All India Council for Training Edification

12. Which of the following subject was not included in the beginning of the pharmacy education?
a. Pharmacy
b. Pharmaceutical chemistry
c. Analytical chemistry
d. Pharmacognosy

13. In India, the pharmacy education to obtain a degree of Bachelor of Pharmacy (B. Pharm) initiated at _____________
a. Banaras Hindu University
b. Punjab University
c. Madras Medical College
d. L.N. College of Ahmedabad

14. In India, the pharmacy education to obtain a degree of Bachelor of Pharmacy (B. Pharm) initiated in the year______________
a. 1947
b. 1948
c. 1937
d. 1938

15. At the present time, for practicing pharmacy as a pharmacist, the minimum desired qualification is a _____________
a. Bachelor's Degree
b. Diploma Degree
c. Master's Degree
d. Doctorate Degree

16. Each State Council should supply _____________ of its register to the Central Council ever year
a. Two copies
b. Five copies
c. Six copies
d. One copy

17. Every year after each State Council should supply copies of its register to the Central Council after _____________
a. 1st January
b. 31st December
b) C) 1st march
c) D) 1st April

18. Education Regulations 1991 cancelled _____________
a. Pharmacy Act 1948
b. Education Regulation 1990
c. Education Regulations 1981
d. Pharmacy Act 1949

19. If the institute which has applied for approval is not in conformity with the affiliation rules and the provisions of Education
Regulations, the board sends report to _____________ for removing its approval for the following year.
a. State Government
b. Pharmacy Council of India
c. Central Government
d. Central Pharmacy Council of India

20. Under _____________ the Central Council approves the course after getting convinced that the course of study is complying
with the regulations.
a. Section 14
b. Section
c. Section 12
d. Section 4

21. Who is not among the members of State Pharmacy Council?

a. Five nominees of the State Government
b. Six registered pharmacists
c. Chief of the Drug Control Department of the State
d. Director General of Health Services of the Government of India

22. The Vice-president of State Pharmacy Council is elected by _____________

a. The President
b. The Central
c. The Council Members
 Abhishek Sahani

d. The State Government Government

23. The President of State Pharmacy Council is nominated by _____________

a. The State Government
b. The Council Members
c. The Central Government
d. Central Pharmacy Council

24. The elected or nominated members of the Council may resign their membership by writing to _____________
a. The Vice- President
b. The President
c. The Chief Administrator
d. The Director General of Health Services

25. _____________ are eligible for the re-election and renomination.

a. The President
b. Registered Pharmacist
c. The Vice President
d. All the members of the Council

26. The Registrar is appointed by the State Government for _____________

a. Four Years
b. Two Years
c. One Year
d. Five Years

27. The State Pharmacy Council and Executive Committee should provide copies of their records and proceedings to
_____________
a. The Central Pharmacy Council
b. The state government
c. The Pharmacy Council of India
d. The State Government and Pharmacy Council of India

28. Under Council, Joint State Pharmacy council _____________ states enter into an agreement.
a. Only two
b. Five
c. Two or more
d. More than two

29. _____________ Registered Pharmacists should be involved in Joint State Pharmacy Council,
a. 6 from each state
b. 3 to 5
c. 12
d. 3 to 5 from each state

30. How many government nominees should be elected for Joint State Pharmacy Council?
a. 2 to 4
b. 2 to 4 from each state
c. 5 from each state
d. 10

31. Which one is not the function of the State Council?

a. Maintenance of Registers
b. Printing of Registers
c. Design of the Educational Pattern
d. Entry and removal of the names from register

32. is not the function of the Inspectors appointed by the State Council.
a. Maintenance of registers
b. Inspecting premises
c. Investigating any complaint
d. Instituting prosecution

33. Which point does not come under serious offences and their penalties?
a. Dispensing by un-registered persons
b. Failure to surrender certificate of registration
c. Recognition of foreign qualifications
d. Falsely claiming to be a registered pharmacist

34. Commission of Enquiry consists of

a. 3
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b. 2
c. 5
d. 6

1. The major amendment in Drugs and Cosmetics Act were made in _____________
a. 1940
b. 1982
c. 1945
d. 1988

2. _____________ aims to maintain high standards of medical Treatment by avoiding sub-standard in drugs.
a. Drug and Cosmetic Act
b. Pharmacy Act
c. Drug Act
d. Drug and Magic Remedies Act

3. The Full form of DTAB is _____________

a. Drug Testing Advisory Board
b. Drugs Technical Advisory Board
c. Drugs Technical Analysis Board
d. Drugs Testing Analysis Board

4. Medicines that are referred to a remedy whose formula is owned exclusively by the manufacturer are known as _____________
a. Misbranded drugs
b. Adulterated drugs
c. Spurious cosmetics
d. Proprietary medicine

5. If the drug is not labelled in the prescribed manner then it is deemed to be _____________
a. Proprietary medicines
b. Adulterated drugs
c. Misbranded drugs
d. Spurious drugs

6. If the drug contains any harmful or toxic substance which may render it injurious to health then it is deemed to be
_____________
a. Adulterated drugs
b. Spurious cosmetics
c. Misbranded drugs
d. Proprietary medicines

7. If the drug is imported under a name which belongs to another drug then it is deemed to be _____________
a. Misbranded Drugs
b. Adulterated Drugs
c. Spurious Drugs
d. Proprietary Medicine

8. First schedule includes the names of books under

a. Ayurvedic and Siddha
b. Unani and Tibb systems
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

9. Format for submission of clinical trial reports comes under _____________

a. Appendix I
b. Appendix VI
c. Appendix IV
d. Appendix Il

10. Requirements for animal clinical trials and marketing a new drug comes under _____________
a. Appendix Ill
b. Appendix I
c. Appendix IV
d. Appendix V
 Abhishek Sahani

11. Which rule comes under schedule P?

a. List of prescription drugs
b. Life periods of drugs
c. Pack sizes of drugs
d. Standards for cosmetics

12. Standards for surgical dressings comes under _____________ schedule.

a. F
b. F1
c. F2
d. F3

13. What is the full form of ISI?

a. Indian Standard Institute
b. Indian Statistical Institute
c. Indian Statistical Institution
d. None of the above

14. The Licensing Authority does not grant a license for the import of _____________ drugs.
a) Schedule C
b) f Schedule X
c) g) Schedule A
d) h) Schedule C

15. A license if not suspended or cancelled earlier, remains valid from its grant year up to _____________ of the same year.
a. 1st December
b. 31st June
c. 31s December
d. 1st June

16. Drugs can be imported only under a license in _____________

a. Form 11
b. Form 9
c. Form 10
d. Form 12

17. Import of drugs is not required in small quantities for _____________

a. Examination
b. Formulation
c. Test
d. Analysis

18. In which condition prohibited drugs can be imported in small quantity?

a. The drugs should not be a part of the passenger's luggage.
b. The drug should not be declared to the Custom Collector.
c. The drug should not be intended for the personal use of passenger.
d. The quantity of drug should not be more than hundred average doses.

19. Under which condition the Licensing Authority cannot permit the import of prohibited drug in large quantity?
a. The drug has been prescribed.
b. The drug is in massive quantity.
c. The drug is in reasonable quantity.
d. A permit for the drug is granted in Form 12B.

20. Without the written permission of the _____________ no new drug can be imported
a. Licensing Authority
b. President of PCI
c. Vice- President of PCI
d. Drug Inspector

21. The packaging and labelling of an imported drug do not include _____________
a. Manufacturer's name
b. Manufacturer's number
c. Manufacturer's address
d. Names and quantities of drugs

22. The collected samples are supplied to the Director of the laboratory appointed by _____________
a. The State Government
b. The Pharmacy Councile of India
 Abhishek Sahani

c. The Central Pharmacy Council of India

d. The Central Government

23. If the breach is fixed then the importer to import the drug.
a) Customs Collector allows the
b) Drug Inspector
c) Licensing Authority
d) State Government

24. place through which drugs cannot be imported to India by sea is _____________
a. Madras
b. Mumbai
c. Calcutta
d. Ahmedabad

25. Place through which drugs cannot be imported to India by air is _____________
a. Mumbai
b. Cochin
c. Delhi
d. Ahmedabad

26. Place through which drugs can be imported to India by rail across the frontier with Bangladesh is _____________
a. Calcutta
b. Cochin
c. Ranaghat
d. Madras

27. Place through which drugs can be imported to India by rail across the frontier with Pakistan is _____________
a. Amritsar
b. Bongaon
c. Delhi
d. Mohiassan

28. Calcutta is the place through which the drug can be imported to India by _____________
a. Sea
b. Both (a) and (b)
c. Air
d. None of the above

29. Imprisonment up _____________ to and fine of _____________ is the penalty for Import of adulterated or spurious drugs.
a. 3 years and & 5.000
b. 6 months and & 5,000
c. 3 months and * 5,000
d. 3 months and = 500

30. Subsequent Conviction for import of any drugs or cosmetics in contravention of any notification issued Under Section 10A is
_____________
a. Imprisonment up to 1 year
b. Imprisonment up to 2 year
c. Imprisonment for up to 5 years
d. Imprisonment up to 3 year

31. First penalty for import of forbidden drugs or cosmetics is _____________

a. 5,000
b. 1,000
c. 500
d. 2,000

32. The manufacture process of drug under Drug and Cosmetic Act does not include _____________
a. Ornamenting
b. Labelling
c. Dispensing
d. Altering

33. Manufacture of drugs is _____________ a process

a. Free
a. Regulated
b. Unrestricted
c. Unbarred

34. Which of the following subject is not related to drugs that can be manufactured under license?
 Abhishek Sahani

a. Records
b. Inspection
c. Sampling of drugs
d. Loan licence

35. Which one is not the type of license under which the drugs can be manufactured?
a. Loan license
b. Repacking license
c. License for manufacture of Schedule Y drugs
d. License for manufacture of Schedule X drugs

36. The authorities issue the licenses within. _____________ of the application.
a. 3 months
b. 1 yea
c. 6 months
d. 1 month

37. The issued license is valid for. _____________ premises.

a. Every
b. Only one
c. Two
d. Not more than five

38. Drugs other than those specified in _____________ canbe manufactured under loan licenses.
a. Schedule Cr
b. Schedule Y
c. Schedule X
d. Schedule C

39. Which condition cannot be considered by the person with repacking license?
a. Insufficient space and equipment can be considered
b. Carried out under hygienic conditions
c. Maintaining proper records of the drugs
d. Licence should be kept in the licensed premises

40. Preparations containing _____________ cannot be manufactured in India.

a. Aspartame
b. Saccharin
c. Cyclamates
d. Neotame

41. The working shift of each day is of

a. 12 hours
b. 9 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 8 hours

42. _____________ should be maintained by all the persons with a license to manufacture drugs.
a. Record book
b. Inspection register
c. Inspection book
d. Record register

43. Which of the following condition is not considered by a licenced person for manufacturing Schedule C and C, drugs?
a. Space
b. Plant
c. Time
d. Equipment

44. The drug should be manufactured under the direction and supervision of the technical staff who iS _____________
a. Graduate
b. Intermediate
c. Graduate in Pharmacy
d. Master in Pharmacy

45. The drug is not complying with which of the following standard as specified in Schedule F?
a. Strength
b. Quality
c. Quantity
d. Purity
 Abhishek Sahani

46. If only two media are used for in the sterility test then the sample quantity should not be less than _____________
a. 2ml
b. 3ml
c. 1ml
d. 4 ml

47. For sterility test the quantity of samples from batches of 10 litres or more should be _____________
a) Not less than 10ml
b) Not more than 10ml
c) Not less than 5ml
d) Not more than 15ml

48. Heading which is not required in maintain the records of sterility tests is _____________
a. Serial no
b. Product name
c. Date of inoculation
d. Timing of inoculation

49. Serum from each batch should be tested for the absence abnormal of toxicity by injecting a normal _____________ dose
subcutaneously or intra peritoneal
a. Guinea pig with 0.5ml
b. Mouse with 5 ml
c. Mouse with 0.5ml
d. Guinea pig with 5ml

50. Solutions for parenteral administration should be tested for the absence of _____________
a. Pyrogen
b. Pseudomonas
c. Proteus
d. Enterobacter

51. According to Schedule X the details of the drugs utilised in the manufacture should include _____________
a. Quantity of raw material used
b. Batch number
c. Signature of the person in-charge
d. Manufacture date

52. According to Schedule X the details of production does not include _____________
a. Manufacture date
b. Batch number
c. Drug name
d. Purchaser's name

53. According to Schedule X Quantity of manufactured goods transferred is included in

a. Details of production
b. Details of the drugs utilised
c. Details of manufactured drugs
d. None of the above

54. According to Schedule X the details of manufactured drugs should include _____________
a) Purchaser's name
a. Drug name
b. Purchaser's address
c. Both (b) and (c)

55. The licensee should submit a declaration to the Licensing Authority in _____________
a. Every 3 months
a. Every 1 year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 4 months

56. The application for manufacturing a new drug should be supplemented along with the data mentioned in
a. Schedule Y
b. Schedule X
c. Schedule Z
d. Schedule C

57. _____________ drugs should be manufactured for sale.

a. Adulterated
b. Standard
 Abhishek Sahani

c. Misbranded
d. Spurious

58. Which of the following drugs should not be manufactured for sale?
a. Drugs with disclosed formula
b. Standard quality
c. Branded
d. Spurious

59. Manufacture for sale of any non-standard quality drugs can be allowed by the _____________
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. PCI
d. Central PCI

60. The manufacture of Metoclopramide with other drugs is prohibited, except combination with _____________
a. Aspirin
b. Paracetamol
c. Both a and b
d. Domperidone

61. Conditions precedents are the conditions which have to be fulfilled _____________
a. After a licence is approved
b. After the registration
c. Before a licence is approved
d. Before the registration

62. The actions associated to offences in manufacture of drugs are presented in courts by _____________ only.
a. Metropolitan Magistrate
b. Judicial Magistrate
c. First Class Judicial Magistrate
d. Drug Inspectors

63. The fine after using Government Analysts report for advertising is.
a. 1500
b. 1000
c. 500
d. 5000

64. The person who manufactured the drug in contravention of any other provision can be punished with the imprisonment for
_____________
a. 1 year
b. 2 year
c. 1-2 years
d. 2-3 years

65. Person who fails to keep records or disclose the required information has to give the fine of _____________
a. Upto 1500
b. Upto 1000
c. Upto 500
d. Upto 2000

66. Manufacture of drugs without license can be punished with the imprisonment for _____________
a. 1-3 years
b. 1 year
c. 2 year
d. 1-2 year

67. _____________ is the process of passage of drugs from the manufacturers to the consumers.
a. Distribution
b. Supply
c. Sale
d. Dispersal

68. Only specified drugs in specified areas can be retailed from _____________
a. Vendors
b. Vehicle
c. Shop
d. Pharmacist

69. In India, selling of drugs was an open trade till _____________

 Abhishek Sahani

a. 1941
b. 1947
c. 1840
d. 1940

70. After the implementation of the _____________ 1940 selling of drugs became a restricted practice.
a. pharmacy Act
b. Drugs and Cosmetics Act
c. Drug Act
d. Poison Act

71. Retailing of the drug can be done through _____________

a. Shops
b. Vehicle
c. Vendor
d. Both a and b

72. Which of the following is not the rule for the retail sale from shops?
a. Facilities as per Schedule N
b. Purchase through wholesaler
c. Records
d. Inspection

73. Retail sale of drugs cannot be done from _____________

a. Pharmacies
b. Drug stores
c. Chemists
d. Vehicle

74. _____________ are engaged in compounding of drugs.

a. Pharmacies
b. Drug stores
c. Chemists
d. Druggists

75. _____________ sell drugs specified as household remedies Pharmacies.

a. Chemists
b. Drug stores
c. Druggists
d. Vendors

76. _____________ drugs should not be sold without taking precautions.

a. Schedule X
b. Schedule C
c. Schedule C and C1
d. Schedule C1

77. Restricted licences cannot be given to _____________

a. Itinerant vendors
a. Dealers
b. Vendor
c. Chemists

78. The drugs should be bought only from a licensed dealer or manufacturer is the condition for _____________
a. Restricted licence
b. Loan license
c. License for manufacture
d. Repacking license

79. A _____________ can approach the drug manufacturer for supplying medicine for selling.
a) Wholesaler
a. Druggist
b) Dealers
c) vendor

80. Which of the following is not the condition of granting the licences for wholesale of drugs?
a. Adequate infrastructural
b. Records
c. Sale only to licenced chemist
d. Inspection
 Abhishek Sahani

81. Licences for wholesale of Schedules C and C, drugs can be granted if the premise is not less than _____________ in area.
a. 10 square meters
b. 20 square meters
c. 15 square meters
d. 25 square meters

82. For selling any other categories of drugs the licensee has to seek permission from the _____________
a. Central Government
b. PCI
c. Licensing Authority
d. Drug Inspector

83. Substances specified in _____________ should be only retailed on a Registered Medical Practitioner's prescription
a. " Schedules H and X
b. Schedules C and C1
c. Schedule N
d. Schedule X

84. In case of sale of drugs which may cause death or serious hurt, the person' can be punished with Imprisonment for
_____________ as per Section 320 of IPC
a. 5 years
b. 5 years to life
c. Life long
d. 3-5 years

85. Person has to give fine of _____________ if he/she provides false warranty to purchaser.
a. 15,000
b. 10.000
c. 1.000
d. 5,00

86. Particulars which is not specified, on label of Schedule C, drugs is _____________

a. The prescribed name
b. The manufacture date
c. The expiry date
d. Import license number

87. Particulars which is appeared on label of Schedule F and Fldrugs is _____________

a. The manufacture date
b. The expiry date
c. The prescribed name
d. Batch number

88. Generic name only is specified on the label of _____________

a. Single ingredient drug
b. Schedule F
c. Non-surgical ligature
d. Pharmacopoeial drugs

89. "For External Use Only' should be mentioned on the label of _____________
a. Pharmacopoeial drugs
b. Single ingredient drug
c. Antiseptic cream
d. Any drug

90. _____________ should be specified on the label of Medicines Containing Methylated Spirit
a. Not for human use
b. For External Use Only
c. Physician's sample
d. Not to be sold

91. Particular which should appear on label of oral contraceptives is _____________

a. Manufacture date
b. Generic name
c. Common name
d. expiry date

92. The label of drug sample should contain _____________

a. Not for human use
b. Expiry date
 Abhishek Sahani

c. Common name
d. Not to be sold

93. _____________ coloured letters are used for writing the drug name on the label.
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Black
d. Green

94. The trade name should not be written in _____________ colour.

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Black

95. The containers of Schedules H and G drugs should be labelled in red letters against _____________ background.
a. background
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. Green

96. The only aim of pharmaceutical packaging is to confirm the _____________ of pharmaceutical preparations.
a. validity
b. Legitimacy
c. Safety
d. Shelf-life

97. The packing of injection under Schedule X should not exceed _____________
a. 10ml
b. 2ml
c. 5ml
d. 6ml

98. The packing of liquid preparations under Schedule X should not exceed _____________
a. 100ml
b. 300ml
c. 200ml
d. 500ml

99. The packing of doses in capsules/tablets under Schedule X should not exceed _____________
a. 200 unit
b. 500 unit
c. 300 unit
d. 100 unit

100. _____________ advises Central and State Governments on technical matters arising out of the operation of the Drugs and
Cosmetic Act.
a. Drugs Consultative Committee
b. DTAB
c. Licensing Authority
d. Drug Inspectors

101. _____________ analyses and submits report on samples of drugs or cosmetics sent by custom collectors or courts.
a. Central Drugs Laboratory
b. State Drug Control Laboratory
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

102. _____________ inspects the licensed establishments and assists the licensing authorities in implementation of the Act.
a. Licensing Authority
b. Drug Inspectors
c. Customs Collectors
d. DTAB

103. _____________ are given the designation of 'Drug Controller'

a. Licensing Authority
b. Government analyst
c. Drug inspector
d. Customs Collectors
 Abhishek Sahani

104. The _____________ has authority to send the sample for test and analysis to the Central Drugs Laboratory.
a. Governor
b. Drug Inspector
c. Magistrate
d. Government analyst

105. Under the Drugs and Cosmetic Act _____________ are required to appoint a suitable number of drug inspectors for their
respective areas.
a. Central Government
b. State Governments
c. PCI
d. Both (a) and (b)

106. Specialisation in _____________ is required for the appointment of Inspectors.

a. Clinical Pharmacology
b. Microbiology
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

1. Which of the following Act was made for advertising objectionable remedies?
a. The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act
b. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act
c. The pharmacy Act
d. None of the above

2. is not magic remedy.

a. Kavachas
b. Talismans
c. Mantras
d. Churn

3. The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act is passed on

a. 1947
b. 1855
c. 1954
d. 1854

4. The insect repellents, insecticides which kill insects causing diseases in human beings, etc. are not believed to be drugs in
a. Drugs and Cosmetics Act
b. The Pharmacy Act
c. Food and Drugs Act
d. Drugs and Magic Remedies Act

5. The provisions of the _____________ should be applied to any search or seizure under Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
a. Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Code of Civil Procedure
c. Indian Penal Code
d. None of the above

6. Advertisement promoting drugs for treatment, or prevention of blood poisoning is prohibited under _____________
a. Poison Act
b. Drugs and Magic Remedies Act
c. Food and Drugs Act
d. Pharmacy Act

7. The import and export of some advertisements has been prohibited, under the _____________
a. Pharmacy Act
b. Consumer Protection Act
c. Sea Customs Act
d. Essential Commodities Act

8. If a Gazetted Officer seizes anything wrong, he should immediately inform the _____________
a. Governor
b. Authorised Committee
c. Vice President of PCI
d. Magistrate
 Abhishek Sahani

9. To publish the advertisements of drugs the person should take permission from the officers authorised by _____________
a. Central Government
b. State Governments
c. Both a and b
d. Pharmacy Council of India

10. If a person breaks the provisions of the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act he/she will be punished with imprisonment for
_____________ on first conviction.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 1 vear
d. 4 months

11. A person who breaks the provisions of the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act will be punished with imprisonment for 1 year on
_____________
a. First conviction
b. Both a and c
c. Successive convictions
d. None of the above

12. Full form of IPC _____________

a. Indian Pharmacy Council
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Inter Process Communication
d. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission

13. The orders for the custody of seized article should be taken from the _____________
a. PCI
b. Drug Inspector
c. Governor
d. Magistrate

1. Opium Act was introduced in _____________

a. 1947
b. 1857
c. 1985
d. 1856

2. Which of the following drugs is not included in the list of addictive drugs?
a. LSD
b. Heroin
c. Brown sugar
d. Aspirin

3. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act and Rules was introduced in _____________
a. 1867
b. 1984
c. 1985
d. 1876

4. On _____________ Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act came into force, covering all the regions of India
a. 14 November 1985
b. 14 December 1985
c. 14 November 1986
d. 12 November 1985

5. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act abolish which acts
a. The Opium Act, 1857 and the Opium Act. 1878.
b. The Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930 and the Opium Act. 1878
c. The Opium Act. 1857 and the Dangerous Drugs Act. 1930.
d. All of the above

6. The provisions made under Narcotic Drugs and psychotropic Substances Act shall be included in the provisions made under
_____________
a. The Pharmacy Act
 Abhishek Sahani

b. Food and Drugs Act

c. Drugs and Cosmetics Act
d. Drugs Act

7. Charas and Ganja are obtained from parts of _____________

a. Cannabis plant
b. Tabernanthe plant
c. Voacanga plant
d. Tabernaemontana plant

8. Cannabis plant produces resins called _____________

a. Hashish Oil
b. Both (a) and (b)
c. Liquid Hashish
d. None of the above

9. Ganja comprises of the _____________ of the cannabis plant.

a. Flowering tops
b. Flowering and fruiting tops
c. Roots and stem
d. Seeds and leaves

10. Cannabis plant belongs to _____________ Cannabis.

a. Family
b. Class
c. Genus
d. Species

11. Cocaine can be obtained from _____________

a. Benzoylecgonine
b. Truxilline
c. Hygiene
d. Ecgonine

12. Coca derivatives are the preparations containing _____________ of cocaine

a. <0.1%
b. <1%
c. >0.1%
d. >0.01%

13. Coca plant is the plant of any species of the genus.

a. Bulbophyllum
b. Psychotria
c. Erythroxylon
d. Astragalus

14. With respect to narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances, all the process except _____________ are used for obtaining drugs or
substances.
a. Production
b. Purification
c. Alteration
d. Making preparations

15. Morphine is the derivative of _____________

a. Heroin
b. Opium
c. Smack
d. Brown sugar

16. Poppy straw is all the harvested parts of the opium poppy except the _____________
a. Seeds
b. Stems
c. Roots
d. Leaves

17. Coca derivatives are the preparations containing _____________ of cocaine.

a. >0.2%
b. <0.2%
c. >0.01%
d. <1%
 Abhishek Sahani

18. Opium poppy means the plant of.

a. Papaver somniferum
b. Bulbophyllum
c. psychotria
d. Astragalus

19. _____________ is the separation of opium, poppy straw, cocoa leaves or cannabis from the plants from which they are obtained.
a. Preparation
b. Manufacture
c. Production
d. Illicit traffic

20. _____________ is the cultivation of opium poppy or any cannabis plant.

a. Poppy straw
b. Preparation
c. Production
d. Illicit traffic

21. Which authority is not included under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act?
a. Pharmacy Council of India
b. Central Government
c. Narcotics Commissioner
d. Consultative Committee

22. Narcotics Commissioner should work under the guidance and supervision of the _____________
a. PCI
b. Consultative Committee
c. Central Government
d. State Government

23. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative Committee is established by _____________
a. Central Pharmacy Council of India
b. Central Government
c. Narcotics Commissioner
d. State Government

24. The number of members in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative Committee should not be more than
_____________
a. Twenty
b. Ten
c. Twelve
d. Fifteen

25. National Fund for Control of Drugs Abuse meets the expenses suffered,While preventing the _____________
a. Illegal trafficking
b. Use of pricotic drugs
c. Psychotropic substances
d. All of the above

26. The appointed _____________ have the rights to arrest the culprit under NDPS Act.
a. Metropolitan
b. First Class Magistrates
c. Second Class Magistrates
d. All of the above

27. Within _____________ the reports of arrest, seizure, etc. should be made and send to the senior officers.
a. B24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 12 hours

28. _____________ can pass orders to detain a person involved in illegal drug trafficking.
a. Central Government officers
b. State Government officers
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Narcotics Commissioner

29. If the doriant a reprom gocapes then the government us to forward a report to
a. Second Class Magistrate
b. Metropolitan
 Abhishek Sahani

c. First Class Magistrate

d. Both (b) and (c)

30. In which of the following state the cultivation of opium poppy is not done?
a. M.P
b. Punjab
c. U.P.
d. Rajasthan

31. The cultivation should be done as per the conditions of the license issued by the _____________
a. District Opium Officer
b. First Class Magistrate
c. Narcotics Commissioner
d. Consultative Committee

32. The land for poppy cultivation should be free from

a. Proceedings
b. Litigation
c. Events
d. Trial

33. The daily collections of opium obtained from the crop should be taken to the _____________
a. Sarpanch
b. Pradhan
c. Lambardar
d. None of the above

34. The Lambardar should follow the terms and conditions laid by the _____________
a. Metropolitan
b. First Class Magistrates
c. Second Class Magistrates
d. Narcotics Commissioner

35. If the opium delivered by the cultivator is adulterated, it should be sealed in the presence of the _____________
a. a)Cultivator
b. Lambardar
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

36. _____________ should seize the entire opium if the opium is found to be contaminated.
a. General Manager
b. Narcotics Commissioner
c. First Class Magistrates
d. District Opium Officer

37. The _____________ fixes the opium price to be paid to the cultivator.
a. District Opium Officer
b. Central Government
c. Consultative Committee
d. Pharmacy Council of India

38. The opium forwarded by the District Opium Officer should be received, weighed, examined, and classified under the
supervision of _____________
a. District Opium Officer
b. General Manager
c. First Class Magistrates
d. Metropolitan

39. Opium can only be manufactured at Opium Factories at _____________

a. Ghazipur
b. Neemuch
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

40. Opium can be exported only on behalf of the _____________

a. a)Central Government
b. b)State Government
c. c)Pharmacy Council of India
 Abhishek Sahani

d. d)Central Pharmacy Council of India

41. Medicinal hemp should be manufactured under a licence granted by the _____________
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Consultative Committee
d. Narcotics Commissioner

42. The manufacture of manufactured drugs is not banned, if done under a licence granted by the _____________
a. Narcotics Commissioner
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. Consultative Committee

43. An application for the grant of a licence should be made in the form, directed by the _____________
a. General Manager
b. Narcotics Commissioner
c. District Opium Officer
d. First Class Magistrates

44. The quantity of the drug that should be manufactured by the licensee will be decided by the _____________
a. General Manager
b. District Opium Officer
c. Narcotics Commissioner
d. Issuing Authority

45. Full form of INCB _____________

a. International Narcotics Control Board
b. Indian Narcotic Control Board
c. Indian Narcotic Controller Board
d. International Narcotics Controller Board

46. The consignment note should be prepared in _____________

a. Duplicate
b. Triplicate
c. Quadruplicate
d. Single

47. The psychotropic substances specified in _____________ should not be manufactured.

a. Schedule I
b. Schedule C
c. Schedule F
d. Schedule Y

48. Without legal authorisation, a _____________ should not be possessed by any person.
a. Narcotic Drugs
b. Psychotropic substance
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

49. Only the _____________ has the right to import the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. International Narcotics Control Board
d. None of the above

50. Application for an import certificate with respect to the narcotic drugs should specify the details stated by the _____________
a. General Manager
b. Drug Controller
c. Consultative Committee
d. Narcotics Commissioner

51. The import certificate should be prepared in _____________ by the Issuing Authority.
a. Seven copies
b. Six copies
c. Four copies
d. Two copies

52. The duplicate copy of the import certificate should be submitted to _____________
 Abhishek Sahani

a. Customs House
b. Airport
c. Land Customs Station
d. All of the above

53. The duplicate copy of the import certificate should be validated by _____________
a. Collector of Customs
b. Post Master
c. Issuing Authority
d. All of the above

54. Sextuplicate copy should be supplied to the _____________

a. Collector of Customs
b. Excise authorities
c. Drugs Controller, India
d. Drugs Controller

55. The original and duplicate copies of the declaration in Form VI are filed by the _____________ with the Narcotics Commissioner.
a. Importer
b. Both a and b
c. Exporter
d. None of the above

56. The copies of the export authorisation prepared by the Issuing Authority.
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Six
d. Four

57. _____________ of the export authorisation should be dispatched to the Government of the importing country.
a. Original copy
b. Quadruplicate copy
c. Triplicate copy
d. Duplicate copy

58. _____________ of the export authorisation should remain with the Issuing Authority.
a. Original copy
b. Duplicate copy
c. Quadruplicate copy
d. Quintuplicate copy

59. The _____________ should inform the Issuing Authority about the quantity of the narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances
trans-shipped.
a. Collector of Customs
b. Excise authorities
c. Drugs Controller of India
d. Drugs Controller

60. On _____________ the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (Regulation of Controlled Substances) Order came into
force.
a. 15th April 1994
b. 20th April 1993
c. 15th November 1993
d. 15th April, 1993

61. The consignment note in _____________ is the only permit which allows the transport of the consignment of controlled
substances.
a. Form I
b. Form Il
c. Form IlI
d. Form IV

62. _____________ is the weight scale of bulk selling.

a. 100kg or above
b. 200kg or above
c. Below 100kg
d. Below 200kg

63. The concerned _____________ of Narcotics Control Bureau should receive periodical returns.
a. Drug Controller
b. Officer
 Abhishek Sahani

c. Deputy Director
d. General Manager

64. Phencyclidine is banned in _____________

a. Thailand
b. Japan
c. Nigeria
d. Turkey

65. Alprazolam is banned in _____________

a. Thailand
b. Japan
c. Nigeria
d. Pakistan

66. Methylphenobarbital is not banned in _____________

a. Pakistan
b. Turkey
c. Senegal
d. Yemen

67. Fenethylline is not banned in _____________

a. Belize
b. Saudi Arabia
c. Thailand
d. Pakistan

68. If a person fails to produce licences, permits, authorisations, etc., on demand by authorised persons he/she will be punished
with imprisonment for _____________
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year

69. In case of contravention in respect of cannabis plant and cannabis related to ganja the person can be punished with fine
_____________
a. 5,000
b. 10,000
c. 50,000
d. 20,000

70. In case of illegal import or export or external dealings in narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances the person has to give
the fine of _____________
a. 1 lacs
b. 2 lacs
c. 1 to 2 lacs or more
d. 2 lacs or more

1. Full form of DPCO is _____________

a. Drug Price Control Order
b. Drug Policy Control Order
c. Drug Procedure Control Order
d. Drug Process Control Order

2. The latest Drug Price Control Order was issued on _____________

a. 16th June, 2014
b. 16th May, 2013
c. 15th May, 2013
d. 15th June, 2013

3. The latest Drug Price Control Order was issued by the _____________
a. Pharmacy Council of India
b. Ministry of Health and Family welfare
c. Central Government
d. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers

4. Full form of NPPP is _____________

a. National Pharmaceutical Process Policy
 Abhishek Sahani

b. National Pharmaceutical Practice Policy

c. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy
d. National Pharmaceutical Progression Policy

5. The NPPP was issued on _____________

a. 8th November, 2012
b. 7th December, 2012
c. 5th January, 2012
d. 10th August, 2012

6. The main purpose of NPPP is to control the _____________ of the medicines listed under NLEM-2011.
a. Price
b. Process
c. Practice
d. Progression

7. Full form of NLEM is _____________

a. National List of Essential Medications
b. National List of Essential Medicines
c. National Legislative of Essential Medications
d. National Legislative of Essential Medicines

8. Full form of NPPA is _____________

a. National Pharmacy Purchasing Association
b. National Parenting Product Awards
c. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
d. National Pest Plant Accord and Science

9. The policy related matters are also being reviewed by the _____________
a. Department of Pharmacology
b. Department of Health
c. Department of Pharmaceuticals
d. Department of Pricing

10. _____________ is a person engaged in the work of distribution of drugs.

a. Dealer
b. Wholesaler
c. Distributor
d. Manufacturer

11. _____________ is a scientific discipline that compares the therapeutic value of one pharmaceutical drug or drug therapy to
another.
a. Pharmacoeconomics
b. Formulation
c. Price list
d. Nonscheduled formulation

12. _____________ is the price of a drug at which it is sold to a retailer which includes duties and does not include local taxes.
a. Price.to retailer
b. Wholesale price
c. Price list
d. Retail price

13. _____________ is the price fixed by the Government for a new drug under paragraph 5.
a. Price to retailer
b. Wholesale price
c. Price list
d. Retail price

14. The ceiling price of the scheduled formulation [P(c)] can be calculated as _____________
a. P(c) = P(s)-(2 + M/100)
b. P(c) =P(s). (1 + M/100)
c. P(c) = P(s)-(1 + M/500)
d. P(c) = P(s)/(1 + M/100)

15. The retail price of new drug should be fixed by adding _____________ margin to retailer on the price to retailer.
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 16%
d. 20%
 Abhishek Sahani

16. For the scheduled formulation, the average price to the retailer (P(s)] can be calculated as _____________
a. P(s) = Pm{1 - (Pin+ Piz+...)/(N*100)}
b. P(s) =Pm{2 - (Pin + Piz+...).(N/100)}
c. P(s) = Pm (2 + (Pin + Pi2 + ...). (N*100)}
d. P(s) = Pm(1 - (Pin - Pi2+ ..)/(N/100)}

17. Price to retailer of highest priced scheduled formulation under consideration in P(s) = Pm{1- (Pi1 + P2+...›/(N*100)} is
represented by _____________
a. P(s)
b. Pi
c. Pm
d. N

18. Drugs Prices Control Order was introduced in _____________

a. 1996
b. 1994
c. 1998
d. 1995

19. The existing manufacturers of scheduled formulations selling their products at a price above the _____________
a. Wholesale price index
b. Ceiling price
c. Retail price
d. Price List

20. The annual increment in the maximum retail price is carried out based on the increase in the _____________
a. Wholesale price index
b. Ceiling price
c. Retail price
d. Price List

21. The manufacturers have no rights to sell their formulations at the price above the _____________
a. Retail price
b. Fixed ceiling price
c. Wholesale price
d. Price to retailer

22. A standing committee of experts should be formed by the Government within _____________ of the notification to work on the
principle of "Pharmacoeconomics" and set retail prices of the formulation.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 7 days
d. 90 days

23. The Government should fix the retail price of new drugs within _____________ of receiving the recommendation.
a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 30 days
d. 20 days

24. The revision of the ceiling price is carried out every year on _____________
a. 1st of April
b. 1st of March
c. 1st of January
d. 1st of June

25. The manufacturers can increase the MRP of scheduled formulations _____________ in a year.
a. Twice
b. Thrice
c. Once
d. None

26. As per the WI the MRP of scheduled formulations scheduled formulations can be changed in the month of _____________
a. December
b. April
c. January
d. February

27. Government should do the amendment of the first schedule within _____________ of receipt of communication from the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
a. 60 days
 Abhishek Sahani

b. 40 days
c. 30 days
d. 20 days

28. Full form of MAT _____________

a. Moving Almanac Turnover
b. Moving Annual Turnover
c. Manual Almanac Turnover
d. Management of Annual Turnover

29. The ceiling price should be revised based on the value _____________
a. Moving annual turnover
b. Price List
c. Wholesale price
d. Price to retailer

30. A manufacturer of scheduled formulation who wishes to remove a formulation from the market should issue a public notice
and also inform the Government in ________ of schedule-II.
a. Form-IV
b. Form-Ill
c. Form-VI
d. Form-V

31. The manufacturer of scheduled formulations and the active pharmaceutical ingredients in them should provide the
information quarterly in of _____________ schedule-II.
a. Form-IlI
b. Form-IV
c. Form VI
d. Form-V

32. The Government may not require a _____________ to deposit the amount accumulated under the provisions of the Drugs Prices
Control Order.
a. Importer
b. Manufacturer
c. Wholesaler

33. Manufacturer need not to issue a price list along with a supplementary price list to the _____________
a. Dealers
b. Supplier
c. State Drugs Controllers
d. Government

34. Any formulation should not be sold in loose by any dealer at a price more than the _____________ of the formulation.
a. Price List
b. Wholesale price
c. Price to retailer
d. Pro-rata price

35. Poison Act was passed on _____________

a. 5th August, 1919
b. 3rd September, 1919
c. 3rd November. 1919
d. 4th September, 1919

36. The rules under this Poison Act are followed throughout India except _____________
a. West Bengal
b. Assam
c. Jammu and Kashmir
d. Tamil Nadu

37. Any person or organisation that either imports, possesses, or sells specified poison violating the prescribed rules should be
punished with imprisonment of _____________ on first time conviction,
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 months

38. Who cannot issue a warrant for investigation of a particular area for any poison that is deducted under Poison Act and kept
secretly?
a. District Magistrate
b. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
 Abhishek Sahani

c. Commissioner of Police
d. Drug Inspector

39. The rules established by the Central or State Government under Poison Act should be published in the _____________
a. Official Gazette
b. News paper
c. Magazine
d. Journals

40. Every rule of the State Government under Poison Act should be laid before the _____________
a. PCI
b. Central Government
c. State Legislature
d. Central Legislature

41. The Medicinal and Toilet Preparations Act was passed in _____________
a. 1955
b. 1945
c. 1855
d. 1975

42. The Medicinal and Toilet Preparations Act was enforced since _____________ to all over India.
a. 1st April, 1958
b. 1st January. 1957
c. 1st April, 1957
d. 1st November, 1958

43. __________is the site recognised and licensed for the manufacture and storage of medicinal and toilet preparations containing
alcohol, opium, Indian hemp or other narcotic drugs on which duty has not been paid.
a. Bonded manufactory
b. Non-bonded manufacture
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

44. Manufacturing of alcoholic preparation can be done _________

a. In bond
b. Both a and b
c. Outside bond
d. None of the above

45. _________ entrance and one door to every compartment Should be provided in the bonded factory
a. one
b. three
c. Two
d. Four

46. The _________ when the license has to be obtained for a bonded manufactory or warehouse.
a. Drug Controller
b. Consultative Committee
c. Narcotics Commissioner
d. Excise Commissioner

47. When consumption is 4,000 L. P. litres or more then the application for licence should be accompanied with _________ fees.
a. 100.00
b. 25.00
c. 200.00
d. 500.00

48. In the bonded premises, the windows should carry__________ rods.

a. Non-malleable iron
b. Galvanized iron
c. Non- galvanized iron
d. Malleable iron

49. The thickness of non-malleable iron rods used in the windows of bonded premises is _________
a. 2.9cm
b. 2 cm
c. 1.9cm
d. 3 cm

50. The licence specifications are _________ for the manufacturing of medicinal preparations outside bond and in bond.
 Abhishek Sahani

a. Same
b. Different
c. Partially same
d. None of the above

51. When the consumption of alcohol is 125 L.P. litres or less per annum then the fee structure for obtaining a licence for non-
bonded manufactory is _________
a. 20.0
b. 10.00
c. 50.00
d. 25.00

52. In a non-bonded laboratory, the production and sale should be done on days approved by the _________
a. Excise Commissioner
b. Drug Controller
c. Consultative Committee
d. Narcotics Commissioner

53. The inspection of the non-bonded laboratory can be done by the _________
a. Excise Commissioner
b. Officer of Prohibition
c. Officer of Land Revenue
d. All of the above

54. A licence for establish a warehouse can be obtained by giving an application to the excise commissioner of the State, along
with a fee of _________
a. 25
b. 10
c. 50
d. 20

55. Except the _________ no other goods can be deposited in a licensed warehouse.
a. Finished goods
b. Packing material
c. Dutiable goods
d. None of the above

56. The _________ of the goods should sign a bond with the Excise Commissioner before removing the goods from the warehouse.
a. Consignor
b. Both (a) or (b)
c. Consignee
d. None of the above

57. The security of _________ the amount of duty payable on the goods of licenced warchouse should be provided.
a. Twice
b. Half
c. Equal
d. Thrice

58. For removing goods from one warehouse to another, the consignor should provide a _________ application to the officer-in-
charge.
a. Original
b. Duplicate
c. Quadruplicate
d. Triplicate

59. Goods can be kept in the warehouse for maximum _________ from the date of their deposit.
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 2 years

60. Within _________ of issue of transport permit, the consignee has to submit the triplicate copy to the warehouse officer-in-
charge of removal.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. 90 days
d. 20 days

61. The warehouse officer-in-charge of removal keeps the _________

a. Duplicate copy
 Abhishek Sahani

b. Triplicate copy
c. Original copy
d. Quadruplicate copy

62. The premises licensed to manufacture or store dutiable goods can be inspected by the _________
a. Excise Officer
b. Excise Commissioner
c. PCI
d. Drug Controller

63. The _________ can introduce a prosecution.

a. Excise officer
b. Sub-inspector
c. Inspector
d. Drug Inspector

64. The _________ can detain any machinery, plants, goods, etc.
a. Excise Officer
b. Magistrate
c. Drug Controller
d. Excise Commissioner

65. An appeal against the decision of the Excise Commissioner should be made to the _________
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Magistrate
d. None of the above

66. Appeals should be filed within _________ of the date of decision.

a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

67. Person keeping improper stacks or accounts has to pay the fine of _________
a. 1000
b. 150
c. 200
d. 100

68. person making false entries or tearing pages from stock book has to pay the fine of _________
a. 2000
b. 1000
c. 2500
d. 1500

69. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was introduced in _________

a. 1971
b. 1970
c. 1975
d. 1972

70. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act extends to all the states of India, except _________
a. Gujarat
b. Jammu and Kashmir
c. Rajasthan
d. Uttar Pradesh

71. The medical practitioners registered before the origination of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act should possess
experience of _________ gynaecology and obstetrics.
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 2 years

72. The pregnancy is terminated with an agreement written by the woman's guardian, if her age is _________
a. 18 years and Lunatic
b. Lunatic and Less than 18 years
c. Both (a) and (c)
d. None of the above
 Abhishek Sahani

73. The pregnancy can be terminated if the duration of pregnancy has exceeded 12 weeks but not _________
a. 13 weeks
b. 20 weeks
c. 25 weeks
d. 15 weeks

74. The pregnancy can be terminated if _________ medical practitioners suggest that pregnancy should be immediately
terminated.
a. Two
b. More than two
c. Three
d. More than three

75. The prescribed forms for consent, opinion of RMP's, etc., used should be kept in a safe custody and sent in envelopes
marked "Secret" to the _________
a. Hospital head
b. Owner of approved place
c. CMO of the State
d. All of the above

76. The RMP registered in a State Medical Register should hold a post-graduate degree or diploma in _________
a. Gynaecology
b. Obstetrics
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

77. If the RMP was registered in a State Medical Register before the commencement of the Act, he should have experience in
gynaecology and obstetrics for at least _________
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. C) 6 months
d. 1 year

78. In case of terminating pregnancy, the applications for place approval should be addressed to the _________
a. Health care officer
b. RMP
c. District CMO
d. Hospital Head

79. Pregnancy terminating admission register can be presented to the _________

a. Chief Secretary
b. District Judge
c. Magistrate
d. All of the above

80. All the pregnancy terminating admission register should be destroyed on the expiry of from the _________ date of the last
entry.
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 4 years
d. 3 years

81. RMP should send a weekly statement of cases of medical termination of pregnancies to the _________
a. District CMO
b. State CMO
c. Magistrate
d. Hospital Head

82. The _________ may make rules to carry out the provisions of The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. State CMO
d. Magistrate

83. The _________ can make regulations for the preservation or disposal of pregnancy termination certificates.
a. Central Government
b. District CMO
c. State CMO
d. State Government
 Abhishek Sahani

84. Whoever contravenes the provisions of The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act or its rules should be punished with
imprisoned for _________ on first conviction.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years

Schedule Contents
A Proforma for forms( Application, issue, renewal, etc.)
B Rates of fee for test or analysis by CDL or Govt. analysts
C List of Biological and special products (Inject able) applicable to special provisions.
C1 List of Biological and special products (non parenteral) applicable to special provisions.
D List of drugs that are exempted from provisions of import
E List of poisonous substances under the Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani systems
F (i) Space, equipment and supplies required for blood bank.
(i) Minimum requirement for grant of license to procure blood components from whole human
blood.
F1 Part 1- Provision applicable to production of Bacterial and viral vaccines.
Part 2- Provision applicable to production of sera from living animals
Part 3- Provision applicable to manufacture and standardisation of bacterial origin diagnostic
agents
F2 Standards for surgical dressings
F3 Standards for sterilised umbilical tapes
FF Standards for ophthalmic preparations
G List of substances required to be used under medical supervision and labelled accordingly
H List of substances (prescription) that should be sold by retail only on prescriptions of R.M.P.
J List of diseases and ailments that drug should not claim to cure
K List of drugs that are exempted from certain provisions regarding manufacture
M Requirements of manufacturing premises, GMP requirements of factory premises, plants and
equipments
M1 Requirements of factory premises for manufacture of Homeopathic medicines
M2 Requirements of factory premises for manufacture of cosmetics
M3 Requirements of factory premises for manufacture of medical devices
N manufacture of medical devices
O Standards for disinfectant fluids
P Life period(expiry) of drugs
P1 Pack sizes of drugs
Q Part 1-List of dyes, colours, pigments permitted to be used in cosmetics and soaps
Part 2- List of colours permitted in soaps
R Standards for mechanical contraceptives
R1 Standards for medical devices
S Standards for cosmetics
T Requirements (GMP) of factory premises for Ayurvedic, Siddha, Unani drugs
U Manufacturing, raw materials and analytical records of drugs
U1 Manufacturing, raw materials and analytical records of cosmetics
V Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
W List of drugs marketed under generic names
X List of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
Y Requirement and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs