Ab Psy Test Bank

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
CHAPTER 1 | Abnormal Behavior in Historical Context 7. Talking loudly and smoking is more appropriate in an
Egyptian movie theater than an American one. This
1. According to the authors of your textbook, the definition illustrates which norm?
of a psychological disorder is associated with a. Personal Distress
a. stress. b. Cultural Factor
b. impaired functioning. c. Impaired Functioning
c. culturally expected responses. d. Violation of Social Norms
d. psychotic symptoms.
8. Which of the following is true:
2. A psychological dysfunction refers to a. There is clear consensus on the definition of mental
a. a breakdown in cognitive functioning. health disease.
b. a breakdown in emotional functioning. b. There is no clear consensus on the definition of
c. a breakdown in behavioral functioning. disease but there is a clear definition of mental health
d. any of these. disorder.
c. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) never
3. Regarding the definition of abnormality, it is correct to changes its definitions.
state that d. The DSM is based on prototypes or symptoms and
a. it is difficult to define “normal” and “abnormal.” examples of the phenomenon in question.
b. abnormality depends solely on subjective distress.
c. the definition is universal across cultures. 9. Which of the following degrees is earned by a
d. the criteria differ depending on whether the individual psychiatrist?
has a psychological disorder or a psychological a. Ph.D.
dysfunction. b. Ed.D.
c. M.D.
4. The criterion that a particular behavior be atypical or not d. Psy.D.
culturally expected is insufficient to define abnormality
because 10. With which of the following terminal degrees can you
a. behavior that occurs infrequently is considered practice therapy?
abnormal in every culture. a. Master’s degree in business administration
b. the atypical behavior must also cause harm or b. Bachelor’s degree in psychology
impairment to be considered abnormal. c. Ph.D. in psychology with additional licensing
c. behaviors vary very little from one individual to another requirements
within each culture. d. Ph.D. in non-profit management
d. many people behave in ways that deviate from the
average, but this doesn’t mean that they have a 11. Rocky Starr is a male rocker who wears outlandish
disorder. makeup and women’s clothing when performing on stage.
This behavior is considered
5. A male college student begins feeling sad and lonely. a. more abnormal than that of an accountant who starts
Although still able to go to classes and work at his job, he to do so because rockstars are supposed to be very
finds himself feeling down much of the time and worries masculine.
about what is happening to him. Which part of the definition b. less abnormal than that of an accountant who starts to
of abnormality applies to his situation? do so because it is consistent with his professional
a. Personal distress success.
b. Cultural factors c. less abnormal than that of an accountant who starts to
c. Impaired functioning do so because its more common to see a rockstar in
d. Violation of societal norms makeup.
d. just as abnormal as that of an accountant who starts to
6. Mark has dyed his hair purple. Although his friends like do so because abnormality is defined by the individual
the color, his older aunts have been giving him strange himself.
looks. Mark is applying for jobs and has not yet had any job
offers. He suspects that potential employers are not taking 12. The prototype of a disorder reflects as described in
him seriously because of his hair color. Which part of DSM-5.
abnormality applies to Mark’s employment situation? a. its history and prognosis
a. Personal Distress b. its biological underpinnings
b. Cultural Factors c. the causes of pathology
c. Impaired Functioning d. the “typical” profile and diagnostic criteria
d. Violation of Social Norms
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ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
13. The scientific study of psychological disorders is called d. ratio

a. psychopathology.
b. psychoanalysis. 20. Psychological disorders can be described as following
c. pseudoscience. a typical course or individual pattern. For example,
d. parapsychology. schizophrenia follows a chronic course. On the other hand,
mood disorders, including depression, follow a(n) course.
14. Dr. Simons is studying learning behavior in rats. What a. episodic
is likely her main field of study? b. acute
a. Behaviorism c. cyclic
b. Oedipal theory d. Insidious
c. Psychiatry
d. Humanistic Psychology 21. If a psychological disorder is said to have an acute
onset, it means that the symptoms developed
15. Why is the biological theoretical model considered a a. suddenly.
newer field of study than the psychological theoretical b. atypically.
model? c. gradually.
a. Brain scans can tell us about brain structure. d. following a period of recovery.
b. The field of genetics is relatively young.
c. We have more powerful microscopes than we have 22. When 20-year-old Larry was first diagnosed with
had in the past. schizophrenia, his family wanted to know if and how the
d. All of the above are true. disorder would progress and how it would affect him in the
future. In medical terms, the family wanted to know Larry’s
16. Dr. Smith is interested in how separation anxiety a. Diagnosis.
changes over time from childhood to adolescence in the b. Prognosis.
general population. What is his main field of study? c. Pathophysiology.
a. Oedipal theory d. disease etiology.
b. Behaviorism
c. Child psychopathology 23. At various times in history, in an attempt to explain
d. Developmental psychology problematic, irrational behavior, humans have focused on
supernatural causes that include
17. All of the following are ways in which mental health a. witchcraft.
professionals might function as scientist-practitioners b. demons and evil spirits.
EXCEPT c. the moon and stars.
a. analyzing their own motivations and reasons for d. all of the above.
helping people with psychological problems.
b. evaluating their own assessments and treatments for 24. Throughout history, one of these theoretical models
effectiveness. have been used to primarily explain our behavior, thinking
c. conducting research leading to new information about and emotions EXCEPT
mental disorders and their treatments. a. psychological.
d. using the most current diagnostic and treatment b. biological.
procedures. c. supernatural.
d. physical.
18. Tameka, having earned her master’s degree, has begun
treating disorders and concentrating on family problems. 25. Toward the end of the 14th century and continuing into
Tameka is probably a(n) the 15th, the causes of “madness” were generally
a. psychiatric social worker. attributed to
b. family therapist. a. toxins in the blood.
c. psychiatric nurse. b. religious delusions.
d. mental health counselor. c. brain disease.
d. demons and witches.
19. Statistical data are often relevant when discussing
psychological disorders. For example, a researcher might 26. Which of the following accurately describes the
want to know how many new cases of depression are attitudes of the Catholic Church toward mentally ill people
diagnosed each year, a figure called the disorder. during the turbulent political and religious events of the
a. prevalence 14th and 15th centuries?
b. incidence
c. recurrence

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
a. They were considered to be suffering from religious b. stimulus generalization.

delusions and were cared for by members of the c. variety stimulus.
church communities. d. stimulus discrimination.
b. They were seen as possessed by evil spirits and
blamed for all misfortunes. 33. One hot and humid night, one of your friends suggests
c. They were regarded as basically good individuals who doing some really crazy things. You look up at the sky and
were not responsible for their abnormal behavior. say,
d. They were provided with medical treatments and “It must be the full moon.” Your statement reflects the
sometimes hospitalized because mental illness was concept from which the word is derived.
regarded as equivalent to physical illness. a. lunatic
b. idiot
27. During the Middle Ages, as well as at other times, c. maniac
mentally ill people were sometimes forced to undergo the d. psychopath
religious ritual called exorcism. This was in order to
a. cure the mental illness by making the individual more 34. Induced vomiting was a 17th century treatment for
religious. depression. As described in Anatomy of Melancholy (1621),
b. build up muscle strength and make the person this could be accomplished in part by eating
healthier. a. raw meat.
c. rid the individual’s body of evil spirits. b. ice.
d. prove that the person was not a witch. c. coal.
d. tobacco.
28. Sigmund Freud proposed that many physical
complaints suffered by young women 35. You are listening to old musical tunes, including “My
a. were a form of divine punishment. Melancholy Baby.” Your friends are impressed when you
b. reflected stress placed upon them by society. tell them that “melancholic,” referring to a depressive
c. resulted from the “conversion” of sexual fantasies into personality, derives from a Greek word meaning
socially acceptable outlets. a. blood.
d. resulted from the rise in feminism. b. phlegm.
c. yellow bile.
29. In the late 19th century, John P. Grey and his d. black bile.
colleagues
a. discovered the first cure for schizophrenia. 36. According to Hippocrates’ humoral theory, the
b. ironically reduced interest in treating mental patients. “choleric” personality is
c. changed the field of psychological research largely into a. hot-tempered.
a biological science. b. easygoing.
d. created the first humane treatment facilities for c. kind.
mentally ill patients. d. cheap.
30. DSM-5, an updated version of the Diagnostic and 37. Based on Hippocrates’ humoral theory, “sanguine”
Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, was published in describes a person who is
a. 1994. a. pessimistic.
b. 2000. b. pale.
c. 2002. c. cheerful.
d. 2013. d. humorous.
31. Research about psychological disorders falls into three 38. Bloodletting, a treatment devised centuries ago to
basic categories. Which is NOT one of these categories? restore the balance of humors, was accomplished with the
a. Analysis use of
b. Description a. needles.
c. Causation (etiology) b. leeches.
d. Treatment and outcomes c. tourniquets.
d. bacteria.
32. The authors describe an example of conditioning in
which cancer patients develop a negative reaction to a 39. In ancient Greece, a woman suffering from “hysteria”
variety of people and things associated with their might be told that her condition could be cured by
chemotherapy treatments. The phenomenon is called a. marriage.
a. generalized conditioning. b. pregnancy.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. therapy. d. The common cold.

d. divorce.
47. In the 19th century, John Grey, a well-known American
40. In ancient Greece, some “humoral excesses” thought to psychiatrist, believed that mental illness was due to
be causing psychological disorders were treated by a. psychological factors.
a. increasing or decreasing the person’s exposure to b. physical causes.
heat, dryness, moisture, or cold. c. social/environmental influences.
b. herbal remedies. d. unknown influences.
c. decreasing both caloric and liquid intake.
d. lowering the person’s body temperature for extended 48. Moral Therapy focuses on:
periods of time. a. Social contact
b. Interpersonal contact
41. In keeping with an accepted treatment for mental illness c. Teaching within holy books
in the 14th century, a physician treating King Charles VI of d. a and c are correct
France had him moved to the countryside in order to
a. have him closer to a hospital that treated mental illness 49. In the 1950s, the first effective drugs for severe
b. keep him away from his family. psychotic disorders were developed in a systematic way.
c. restore the balance in his humors. Before that time, all of the following were used to treat
d. cure him of hysteria. psychosis EXCEPT
a. opium.
42. In an attempt to rid the body of the excessive humors b. neuroleptics.
thought to be causing psychological disorders, physicians c. herbal medicine.
throughout history have used treatments such as d. moral therapy.
a. bloodletting.
b. induced seizures. 50. In the 1800s, an important research and clinical
c. exorcism. publication read by psychiatrists in the United States was
d. drilling through the skull. titled
a. Case Studies in Mental Illness.
43. The concept of hysteria, which traditionally meant b. American Journal of Madness.
physical symptoms for which no organic pathology could c. American Journal of Insanity.
be found, is now associated with which DSM-5 d. Lunatics in America.
classification?
a. Anxiety disorders 51. With the discovery of the major tranquilizers called_, it
b. Borderline personality disorder became possible to control psychotic symptoms, including
c. Premenstrual symptom disorder hallucinations, delusions, and aggressiveness.
d. Somatic symptom disorder a. neuroleptics
b. benzodiazepines
44. The traditional tendency to stigmatize women as c. bromides
“hysterical” derived from Hippocrates’ concept of d. opiates
a. the “wandering womb.”
b. an “incompetent cervix.” 52. Benzodiazepines, or “minor” tranquilizers such as
c. “penis envy.” Valium and Librium, are effective in reducing the symptoms
d. “pelvic dysfunction.” of
a. depression.
45. The term “hysteria” derives from the Greek hysteron, b. anxiety.
which means c. schizophrenia.
a. vagina. d. hysteria.
b. uterus.
c. penis. 53. In the late 1800s, the emphasis on a biological cause of
d. libido. mental disorder ironically resulted in reduced interest in
46. The first significant supporting evidence for a biological treatments for mental patients because it was thought that
cause of a mental disorder was the 19th century discovery a. physicians should devote more time to the physically
that the psychotic disorder called general paresis was ill.
caused by the same bacterial microorganism that causes b. patients would improve more rapidly if they were not
a. malaria. hospitalized.
b. Alzheimer’s disease. c. the hospital staff was not adequately trained to
c. syphilis. administer new treatments.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. mental illness due to brain pathology was incurable. b. Anton Mesmer

c. Sigmund Freud
54. In contrast to the asylums of the early 18th century, the d. Jean-Martin Charcot
psychosocial approach called “moral therapy” advocated
all of the following EXCEPT 60. Which of the following accurately describes the patients
a. restraint and seclusion. of Freud and Breuer after they received hypnotherapy for
b. normal social interaction. their psychological disorders?
c. individual attention from the hospital staff. a. Feelings of relief and improvement
d. lectures on interesting subjects for hospitalized b. Decreased emotionality while in the hypnotic state
patients. c. Accurate posthypnotic recall
d. Increased understanding of the causes of their
55. After Philippe Pinel systematically introduced moral psychological disorder
therapy as a treatment in mental hospitals in France, a
similar type of treatment was first established in a U.S. 61. Realizing that patients were often unaware of material
hospital by previously recalled under hypnosis, Breuer and
a. Benjamin Rush. Freud hypothesized the existence of psychopathology,
b. William Tuke. _______, a concept considered one of the most important
c. Joseph von Medina. developments in the history of
d. Manfred Sakel. a. neurosis
b. the unconscious mind
56. After the mid 1800s, moral therapy declined as a c. the Electra complex
treatment for the mentally ill in the United States because d. catharsis
a. the number of patients in mental institutions also
declined. 62. In using hypnosis to treat patients with psychological
b. immigrants caused an increase in the mental hospital disorders, Freud discovered
population. a. that it is therapeutic to recall and relive emotionally
c. the number of people available to staff mental hospitals traumatic events.
increased. b. that patients are unable to process emotionally
d. new biologically based treatments became available. charged information.
c. that hypnosis is less effective than mesmerism.
57. You have been asked to give a report on the mental d. the existence of conscious memories.
hygiene movement and its foremost crusader, Dorothea
Dix, who campaigned for more humane treatment of the 63. In the classic case of Anna O. in 1895, neurologist Josef
insane. After mentioning all of her accomplishments, you Breuer treated her “hysterical” symptoms by using
note the unforeseen consequence of her efforts, namely, a. psychoanalysis.
a. a decrease in the number of mental patients in b. hypnosis.
institutions, forcing many to close. c. faith healing.
b. an increase in the number of mental patients, resulting d. the placebo effect.
in insufficient staff to care for them.
c. a change from custodial care to moral therapy for 64. Which of the following is NOT included as part of
institutionalized patients. Freud’s structure of the mind?
d. more patients receiving psychotherapy and fewer a. Id
receiving medication. b. Psyche
c. Superego
58. Anton Mesmer, an early 18th century physician, d. Ego
purported to be affecting cures in patients by unblocking
their flow of a bodily fluid he called “animal magnetism.” In 65. The superego is to morality as the id is to:
fact, any effectiveness of his methods was actually due to a. pleasure principle
a. undetectable magnetic fields. b. rational thought
b. chemically induced humoral balance. c. mediating conflict
c. mental telepathy. d. the ego
d. the power of suggestion.
66. In Freudian theory, “libido” and “thanatos” represent
59. __________ demonstrated that some techniques of the two basic but opposing drives of
mesmerism were effective with several psychological a. life and death.
disorders. b. sex and celibacy.
a. Philippe Pinel c. good and evil.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. pleasure and pain.

73. According to psychoanalytic theory, the role of the ego
67. You have just read a newspaper article about a savage involves
rape and murder. You wonder how someone could commit a. counteracting the aggressive and sexual drives of the
such a horrible crime. Then you recall from your study of id.
Freudian theory that according to Freud, anyone could be b. maximizing pleasure and reducing tension.
a killer or rapist if impulses are not well controlled. c. mediating conflict between the id and the superego.
a. egoistic d. utilizing fantasy and primary process thinking.
b. phallic
c. id 74. According to psychoanalytic theory, the conflicts
d. mesmeric between the id and the superego often lead to feelings of
a. anxiety.
68. Although Freud conceptualized the libido as the life b. desire.
energy within the id, many people think of it as the c. depression.
a. death instinct. d. anger.
b. sex drive.
c. conscience. 75. According to Freudian theory, anxiety is a signal for the
d. Oedipal conflict. ego to marshal its defense mechanisms, which function as
a. reality-based actions.
69. According to psychoanalytic theory, _____ develops b. unconscious protective processes.
early in life to insure that we can adapt to the demands of c. conscious efforts to maintain control.
the real world while still finding ways to meet our basic d. primitive emotional responses.
needs.
a. ego 76. All of the following are examples of defense
b. superego mechanisms according to psychoanalytic theory EXCEPT
c. libido a. adaptation.
d. ideal self b. displacement.
c. repression.
70. According to psychoanalytic theory, the id operates on d. projection.
the “pleasure principle,” which means that it
a. pays particular attention to social rules and regulations. 77. In which of the following defense mechanisms does an
b. thinks in an unemotional, logical, and rational manner. individual unconsciously block disturbing wishes,
c. is sexual, aggressive, selfish, and envious. thoughts or experiences from awareness?
d. utilizes secondary process thinking. a. Rationalization
b. Reaction formation
71. When Johnny wanted a cookie before dinner, he c. Repression
thought about just going and taking one without d. Displacement
permission. However, after thinking about it, he decided to
get permission from his mom. Johnny was operating 78. In which of the following defense mechanisms does an
according to the ______ principle. individual falsely attribute his or her own unacceptable
a. pleasure feelings, impulses, or thoughts to another person?
b. reality a. Denial
c. moral b. Projection
d. Oedipal c. Displacement
d. Sublimation
72. A classmate in your psychology course is worried about
the selfish and sometimes dangerous drives of his id and 79. Mrs. B received a very poor rating by her supervisor,
wonders if it will make him commit crimes. You respond by who had been constantly criticizing her in front of her
saying that coworkers. When she got home, her kids ran up to greet
a. each of us also develops an ego to help us behave her, all talking at once. Mrs. B responded by yelling, “Leave
more realistically. me alone! Can’t you see I’m tired?” According to
b. id fantasies actually reflect the opposite of what you psychoanalytic theory, this is an example of the defense
really want and believe. mechanism known as
c. scientists disproved Freud’s theories a long time ago. a. displacement.
d. since id impulses are usually part of the b. projection.
unconsciousness, they do not manifest in real c. repression.
behaviors. d. rationalization.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
86. Severe internal conflicts that produce a lot of anxiety or

80. Sally feels that Jane takes advantage of their friendship. other emotions can trigger self-defeating defensive
Today Jane asked Sally to run an errand for her, even processes or symptoms such as
though Jane had time to do it herself. Rather than confront a. acute and posttraumatic stress symptoms.
Jane, Sally runs the errand and feels resentful. Sally’s b. depression or bipolar symptoms.
behavior suggests she is c. phobic or obsessive symptoms.
a. histrionic. d. suicidal or aggressive symptoms.
b. avoidant.
c. paranoid. 87. In Erik Erikson’s theory of lifespan development, an
d. avoidant. individual reaches the mature stage when he or she is
about ______ years old.
81. A 4-year-old girl sucks her thumb, a teenager binges on a. 55
food, and an adult woman bites her fingernails. According b. 65
to the Freudian theory of psychosexual development, all c. 75
three are fixated at the _____ stage. d. 85
a. oral
b. anal 88. Which of the following is an accurate statement about
c. phallic “stage” theories of development?
d. genital a. In Freudian theory, sexual arousal and interest occur
during the latency stage.
82. The Oedipus complex, the psychosexual conflict that b. In Erikson’s theory, development occurs across the
occurs at the phallic stage of development, is characterized lifespan.
by a 3- to 5-year-old boy who c. In Freudian theory, intrapsychic conflicts are resolved
a. represses his need for genital self-stimulation. in early childhood.
b. loves his mother but has feelings of anger and envy d. In Fromm’s theory, culture and society influence
toward his father. personality.
c. loves his father but has feelings of anger and envy
toward his mother. 89. In psychoanalytic psychotherapy, it is important for
d. fantasizes about tragic Greek heroes. patients to
a. keep their thoughts and feelings to themselves.
83. According to Sigmund Freud, the Electra complex, the b. make eye contact with the psychoanalyst.
psychosexual conflict that occurs at the phallic stage of c. describe the content of their dreams to the analyst.
development in girls, is characterized by d. remain in a horizontal posture to induce emotional
a. castration anxiety. processing.
b. Oedipal conflicts.
c. penis envy. 90. Psychodynamic psychotherapy differs from classical
d. latency lust. (Freudian) psychoanalysis in that it
a. emphasizes the goal of personality reconstruction.
84. Borderline personality disorder, in which some b. requires a long-term commitment on the part of the
behavior “borders” on being out of touch with reality, was person being analyzed.
first associated with the ideas of c. focuses on social and interpersonal issues.
a. Otto Kernberg. d. considers past experiences important.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Alfred Adler. 91. The concepts of “self-actualizing” and “the hierarchy of
d. Carl Jung. needs” are most closely associated with the theories of
a. Abraham Maslow.
85. In their theories about human nature, psychoanalysts b. Carl Rogers.
Carl Jung and Alfred Adler both c. Carl Jung.
a. regarded human nature as possessing many negative d. Melanie Klein.
qualities.
b. were completely analogous to Freud’s ideas. 92. Which of the following is NOT associated with the
c. believed that there were no barriers to the internal and humanistic theories of Carl Rogers?
external growth of the individual. a. Unconditional positive regard
d. emphasized a strong drive toward individual self- b. Hierarchy of needs
actualization. c. Empathy
d. Person-centered therapy

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
93. Humanistic therapists regard ______ as the single most 100. In the process of self-actualizing, emphasized in
positive influence in facilitating human growth. humanistic psychology, individuals
a. therapist interpretation of patient verbalizations a. adopt a conditioned response to a variety of stimuli.
b. relationships (including the therapeutic relationship) b. direct their own course of therapy under the guidance
c. self-esteem of a counselor.
d. intellectual and moral development c. strive to achieve their highest potential against life’s
obstacles.
94. The systematic development of a scientific approach to d. achieve a complete and almost unqualified acceptance
psychopathology is represented by of their own dysfunctions.
a. humanistic psychology.
b. psychoanalysis. 101. The continual interaction of biological, psychological,
c. Jungian psychology. and social influences and their effect on behavior is
d. the behavioral model. considered
a. sociocultural.
95. Which scientist felt that psychology should not use b. psychobiological/biopsychological.
introspection or other unquantifiable methods and is c. systematic.
considered the founder of behaviorism? d. multidimensional and integrative.
a. Edward Titchener
b. B.F. Skinner 102. A patient arrives in your office with a severe fear of
c. John Watson spiders. You treat this patient by gradually introducing her
d. Ivan Pavlov to snake images, snake toys, and eventually live snakes in
order to show her that nothing bad happened in the
96. Someone you know has been having a lot of difficulty presence of these objects. You are using the therapeutic
because of irrational fears. Knowing that you are studying technique called
abnormal psychology, this person asks if you know of an a. cognitive therapy.
effective and well-established treatment. You advise her b. systematic desensitization.
that ____, based on the mid-20th century work of Joseph c. operant conditioning.
Wolpe, is a successful anxiety reduction procedure. d. multidimensional therapy.
a. systematic desensitization
b. person centered therapy 103. You just adopted a puppy and want to teach it to fetch
c. exorcism the newspaper. What approach would B. F. Skinner advise
d. aversive conditioning you to take it?
a. Punish the puppy each time it does not fetch the paper.
97. Which well-known behavioral scientist was the author b. Give the puppy a treat each time it gets a little closer
of The Behavior of Organisms (1938) and Walden Two to fetching perfectly.
(1948)? c. Give the puppy a treat each time it fetches perfectly
a. John Watson and not otherwise.
b. Ivan Pavlov d. Be patient and understand that behavior shaping
c. B.F. Skinner occurs naturally over developmental stages.
d. Edward L. Thorndike
104. According to the definition of personality disorder,
98. Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist, based his theories only individuals who show _____ patterns of maladaptive
of conditioning on the results of experiments he conducted behavior should be diagnosed with a personality disorder.
on a. suicidal
a. humans. b. the most severe
b. pigeons. c. relatively permanent
c. rats. d. highly variable
d. dogs.
105. All of the following are necessary conditions for the
99. Mustafa was bitten by a dog when he was 5 years old. diagnosis of a personality disorder EXCEPT
Now he is afraid of any dog he sees. His fear of dog is a(n) a. patient feelings of distress.
a. unconditioned stimulus. b. pervasive pattern of behavior.
b. unconditioned response. c. maladaptive functioning.
c. conditioned stimulus. d. chronicity
d. conditioned response.
106. The gender difference in the diagnosis of histrionic
personality disorder has been criticized for

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
a. reflecting society’s inherent bias. d. It is better as a prognostic tool

b. not reflecting enough of the differences between men
and women. 113. DSM-IV-TR divides personality disorders into ____
c. being psychologists’ plot to undermine their female distinct clusters.
colleagues. a. 1
d. all of the above. b. 2
c. 3
107. Lu believes that he is being tracked by the FBI because d. 4
he is a telepathy experiment “set loose ,” and he hears
messages and instructions from others from the same 114. DSM-5 personality disorders are grouped into three
experiment. What disorder would he most likely have? clusters. Which of the following most accurately represents
a. Schizotypal personality disorder the three clusters?
b. Schizoid personality disorder a. Odd or eccentric; dangerous or inconsistent; shy,
c. Paranoid personality disorder uncommunicative, or withdrawn
d. Schizophrenia b. Shy, uncommunicative, or withdrawn; anxious or
fearful; dangerous or inconsistent
108. Unlike schizophrenia or an eating disorder, personality c. Shy or withdrawn; dramatic, emotional, or erratic;
disorders can be viewed as disorders of bizarre or thought-disordered
a. biology rather than learning. d. Odd or eccentric; dramatic, emotional, or erratic;
b. learning rather than disease. anxious or fearful
c. degree rather than kind.
d. functioning rather than disease. 115. In the world, the prevalence of personality
disorders is estimated to be approximately _____ percent.
109. Clinicians who view personality disorders as extremes a. 0.5
of normal personality rather than as ____ have criticized the b. 2
way the DSM classifies personality disorders. c. 6
a. medical conditions d. 11
b. biologically based traits
c. separate categories of disorders 116. The characteristic features of personality disorders
d. impaired functioning tend to develop with
a. rapid onset in late adolescence
110. Some have proposed that the personality b. gradual onset in adulthood.
disorders be replaced or supplemented by a dimensional c. rapid onset in adulthood.
model in which individuals would be rated on a series of d. onset in childhood that is difficult to pinpoint.
personality dimensions as well as a categorical diagnosis.
It is believed that this would have advantages over a purely 117. According to your textbook, the main reason that we
categorical system. Which of the following would be such do not have sufficient research examining the development
an advantage? of personality disorders is that
a. It would retain more information about each individual. a. many individuals do not seek treatment in the early
b. It would be more flexible. phases of these disorders.
c. It would avoid arbitrary decisions involved in b. there is insufficient research funding for these
assignment to a diagnostic category. disorders, due to relative lack of public awareness.
d. All of the above c. sophisticated research methods are necessary to
study disorders that are so ingrained in personality.
111. The five-factor model of personality includes all of the d. all of these are cited as key contributors to the lack of
following as personality dimensions EXCEPT sufficient research.
a. expressiveness.
b. extroversion. 118. The Scientific Method is:
c. conscientiousness. a. interdisciplinary
d. agreeableness b. useful in studying personality disorders
c. can study normal and abnormal behaviors
112. What is one advantage of the categorical system over d. all of the above
the dimensional system when it comes to classifying and
diagnosing personality disorders? 119. Research suggests that the gender differences
a. Convenience observed in the prevalence of many personality disorders
b. Accuracy may be due to
c. Communicability a. genetic differences.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. gender-specific learned behavior patterns. b. paranoid personality disorder.

c. gender bias on the part of the diagnosing clinician. c. schizotypal personality disorder.
d. cultural scripts that dictate the type of disordered d. schizoid personality disorder.
behavior appropriate for each gender.
126. You are waiting to board a plane when you hear that
120. A woman demonstrating a high degree of Western the flight has been delayed due to a passing thunderstorm.
“stereotypical female” traits might well be diagnosed with The man sitting next to you says, “Passing thunderstorm,
histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following sure! That’s Jim again, he’s been doing everything to make
would probably occur if a man demonstrated very me miss this meeting because he’s trying to get me fired!”
stereotypical masculine traits? Of the following, this statement would be most consistent
a. He would be diagnosed with antisocial personality with _____ personality disorder.
disorder. a. avoidant
b. He would be diagnosed with histrionic personality b. histrionic
disorder. c. borderline
c. He would be diagnosed with narcissistic personality d. paranoid
disorder.
d. He probably would not be diagnosed with any 127. One of the greatest challenges for any therapist
personality disorder. treating an individual with paranoid personality disorder is
in
121. The diagnosis of more than one personality disorder a. understanding the patient’s belief system.
in an individual patient is b. earning the patient’s trust.
a. common. c. convincing the patient to talk about his or her beliefs.
b. impossible unless the person suffers from dissociative d. getting the patient to speak clearly.
identity disorder..
c. rare. 128. The data regarding treatment outcome for individuals
d. only possible for personality disorders in the same with paranoid personality disorder
DSM-5 cluster. a. indicate clients do not remain in therapy long enough
for treatment success.
122. Gender differences observed in the prevalence of b. suggest that treatment can only be successful if the
many personality disorders may be due to patient remains in therapy for a minimum of one year.
a. tolerance of behavior in a culture. c. indicate that cognitive therapy is effective in most
b. differences in help-seeking behavior. cases.
c. gender bias on the part of the diagnosing clinician. d. demonstrate that strict behavioral approaches are
d. all of the above. effective.
123. Max is always sure that others are trying to harm him. 129. Theo is quite a loner. He walks to class by himself,
His perception that the world is a threatening place impacts does not talk to anyone, and appears indifferent to other
most of his life. Most likely, Max would be diagnosed with people. It is clear that Theo neither desires nor enjoys
the personality disorder called closeness with others. He does not act in any obviously
a. histrionic. unusual ways, nor does he appear to possess strange
b. avoidant. beliefs about the world. Of the following personality
c. paranoid. disorders, Theo appears to be
d. antisocial. a. avoidant.
b. antisocial.
124. An individual requesting treatment at a mental health c. schizotypal.
clinic keeps talking about how gangsters are “out to get d. schizoid.
him.” Before diagnosing paranoid personality disorder, we
must determine whether 130. An individual who goes through life as a loner with
a. his fears are justified. no motivation to interact with others but with relatively
b. his family life is stable. normal behavior and beliefs is likely to be diagnosed with
c. he has ever attempted suicide.. ____ personality disorder.
d. he avoids socialization. a. histrionic
b. narcissistic
125. The language barrier of refugees from other countries c. schizoid
and people with hearing impairments may make these d. paranoid
individuals particularly susceptible to
a. histrionic personality disorder.

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131. One prevalent outcome for individuals with schizoid d. is poor since most patients go on to develop
personality disorder is schizophrenia.
a. homelessness.
b. drug abuse. 138. The personality disorder that shares many similar
c. eating disorders. symptoms with schizophrenia is
d. anxiety. a. schizoid.
b. paranoid.
132. According to the DSM-5, cluster A groups which of the c. borderline.
following personality disorders? d. schizotypal.
a. Borderline, compulsive, psychotic
b. Paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal 139. According to the textbook, the most likely cause of
c. Avoidant,dependent,obsessive-compulsive schizotypal personality disorder is
d. Antisocial, histrionic, narcissistic a. poor parenting.
b. social modeling.
133. Patients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder c. biological.
a. often request treatment and generally make progress d. isolation during childhood.
quickly.
b. often request treatment but generally make little 140. As many as 30 to 50% of the individuals with
progress. schizotypal personality disorder who request clinical help
c. rarely request treatment except in response to a crisis. also meet the criteria for
d. rarely request treatment but generally make progress a. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
quickly while in therapy. b. substance disorder.
c. anorexia.
134. Individuals who are socially isolated, behave in ways d. major depressive disorder.
that seem unusual, tend to be suspicious, and have odd
beliefs are generally diagnosed with ____ personality 141. Marie has a history of being arrested for arson and
disorder. shows no remorse for her destructive actions; Marion has
a. Schizotypal a perfect legal record, but often manipulates her friends to
b. Schizoid get what she wants and doesn’t feel guilt when she hurts
c. Paranoid their feelings. Marie most likely has ____, while Marion
d. multiple most likely has ____.
a. schizoid personality disorder; antisocial personality
135. Individuals who have “ideas of reference” but who disorder
sense that these beliefs are probably unrealistic are b. antisocial personality disorder; schizoid personality
generally diagnosed with ____ personality disorder. disorder
a. schizotypal c. psychopathy; antisocial personality disorder
b. paranoid d. antisocial personality disorder; psychopathy
c. antisocial
d. histrionic 142. Steve steals money from his friends and family, lies to
get what he wants, and often hurts others with no sign of
136. According to the textbook, a possible cause of guilt or remorse. Steve would most likely be diagnosed with
schizotypal personality disorder is ____ personality disorder.
a. genetic. a. paranoid
b. environmental. b. histrionic
c. brain abnormalities. c. antisocial
d. all of the above d. narcissistic
137. Hideki has been diagnosed with schizotypal 143. The most accurate statement regarding antisocial
personality disorder and has begun psychotherapy. Since personality disorder and psychopathy is that they
he is willing to undergo a combined treatment approach, a. are similar in almost every way except that
the result psychopaths are criminals.
a. is excellent since most patients seeking treatment b. completely different populations.
eventually are symptom free. c. overlap in some features but not all.
b. may be a reduction in symptoms or postponement of d. are just different names for the same features.
schizophrenia.
c. is excellent only if he is willing to take medication. 144. With which of the following personality disorders is the
term psychopath closely associated?

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a. Schizotypal 151. Which of the following prevention strategies looks

b. Schizoid promising for children who are at risk for later antisocial
c. Paranoid personality disorder?
d. Antisocial a. A training program for parents of toddlers (ages 1½ to
2½ years)
145. One difference between a psychopath and a person b. A program for families with a high degree of family
with antisocial personality disorder is that ___ are used dysfunction
in diagnosing the psychopath, but are used to diagnose c. A program for families where at least one parent has a
antisocial personality disorder. history of antisocial personality disorder
a. personality traits; observable behaviors d. All of the above
b. observable behaviors; personality traits
c. clinical judgments; objective test scores 152. According to the underarousal hypothesis, individuals
d. medical criteria; psychological assessments with antisocial personality disorder may engage in their
characteristic behaviors as a way to
146. An adult diagnosed with antisocial personality a. deal with their fears.
disorder is most likely to have met the criteria for ___ as a b. provide a level of stimulation that most of us receive
child. from more typical behaviors.
a. autism c. provide a sense of relief from the feelings of
b. conduct disorder depression that they experience when they are not
c. a learning disability highly aroused.
d. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. reduce the generally high level of arousal that they feel.
147. Rob is a 13-year-old boy who has been repeatedly 153. The concept of the fearlessness hypothesis of
arrested for theft and assault. In addition to shoplifting and antisocial personality disorder is that individuals with this
other theft, he has been caught stealing money from his disorder
parents’ wallets and his young sister’s piggy bank. Rob a. learn to avoid punishment.
shows no guilt or remorse for the many ways that he hurts b. have an underactive cortex.
others. Rob’s current diagnosis is most likely c. under-react to the threat of punishment
a. antisocial personality disorder. d. have brain damage that inhibits their ability to
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. understand the implications of their actions.
c. conduct disorder.
d. narcissistic personality disorder. 154. One prominent theory of antisocial personality
disorder suggests that the behaviors are caused by an
148. The research examining the cause of antisocial imbalance between the brain’s
personality disorder suggests that a. behavioral inhibition system and fight-or-flight system.
a. the primary cause is genetics. b. fight-or-flight system and reward system.
b. genetics and environment interact to cause the c. cortical stimulation system and behavioral inhibition
disorder. system.
c. the primary cause is poor parenting. d. behavioral inhibition system and reward system.
d. there is no evidence of either a genetic or
environmental cause. 155. If you had absolutely no concept or fear of the
consequences of your actions (for yourself or others) and
149. According to the DSM-5, cluster B groups which of the were overly motivated by pleasing yourself, you might
following personality disorders? behave like a person with ___ personality disorder.
a. Borderline, compulsive, psychotic a. antisocial
b. Paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal b. narcissistic
c. Avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive c. histrionic
d. Antisocial, histrionic, narcissistic d. schizotypal
150. Which of the following are the two major theories that 156. Some research with psychopaths suggests that these
have been proposed to explain antisocial personality individuals are
disorder? a. more likely to quit trying as soon as failure appears
a. Underarousal and fearlessness imminent.
b. Underarousal and shamelessness b. less likely to attempt difficult goals.
c. Overarousal and fearlessness c. more likely to keep trying even though failure is certain.
d. Overarousal and shamelessness d. less likely to be motivated towards a goal.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
157. One of the contributing factors in the developmental b. Lenny has misdiagnosed himself, since his behaviors
history of individuals with antisocial personality disorder are more typical of conduct disorder.
appears to be that their parents were more likely to have c. the drug use does not fit the pattern of antisocial
utilized personality disorder.
a. firm discipline. d. the description does not fit any known personality
b. inconsistent discipline. disorder.
c. an overprotective parenting style.
d. physical discipline. 163. Which of the following statements is true about
borderline personality disorder?
158. The criminal behavior of those diagnosed with a. It is observed in every culture and seen in about 5% of
antisocial personality disorder tends to the population.
a. continue to increase throughout the lifespan. b. Emotional dysfunction is one of the best predictors of
b. increase dramatically at about age 30. suicide in this group.
c. decline significantly around age 40. c. Long-term outcomes are discouraging, with many
d. remain stable throughout the lifespan. relapsing within five years.
d. A high number, almost 12%, succeed at suicide.
159. One of the major problems with treating people with
personality disorders is 164. The personality disorder characterized by extreme
a. they rarely identify themselves as needing treatment. instability in behavior and emotion, impulsivity,
b. research suggests that the disorders are almost depression, and self-injurious behaviors is ____
entirely based in biology and therefore difficult to treat personality disorder.
interpersonally.. a. narcissistic
c. personality disorders are so rare that there is very little b. borderline
research on their treatment. c. dependent
d. they are extremely unpredictable and difficult to d. histrionic
manage in therapy sessions.
165. Nicole has difficulty maintaining relationships because
160. Which of the following is an accurate statement she goes back and forth from being a best friend to hating
regarding the treatment of antisocial personality disorder people in her life. Her romantic relationships are always
and related antisocial behaviors? characterized by incredible loving passion alternating with
a. Patients are generally willing participants in their episodes of horrible fighting, and sometimes she becomes
therapy. violent. At times, Nicole becomes so upset that she cuts
b. Most patients refer to themselves for treatment herself and reports that this makes her feel better
because they recognize that they have a problem. emotionally. Nicole suffers from ___ personality disorder.
c. There has been greater success in reducing antisocial a. dependent
behavior in children than in adults. b. histrionic
d. Therapy is successful in about half of the cases c. borderline
treated. d. narcissistic
161. According to the DSM-5, the features of antisocial 166. All of the following are common disorders that tend to
personality disorder include be comorbid with borderline personality disorder EXCEPT
a. instances of physical cruelty to animals. a. depression.
b. an attitude of entitlement toward fulfilling expectations. b. substance abuse.
c. a demonstrated impulsivity or failure to plan ahead. c. bulimia.
d. episodes of inappropriate, intense anger. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
162. Lenny is 25 years old and has had multiple arrests for 167. The approximate percentage of individuals diagnosed
assaults, theft, and drug use . He has hurt strangers, with borderline personality disorder who also have a
friends, and family and has never shown any remorse or substance related disorder is almost _ %
regret. Following his last arrest, Lenny met with a social a. 10
worker who told him about antisocial personality disorder; b. 40
he is now convinced that that is “what’s wrong” with him. c. 70
Lenny recently went to a local community mental health d. 100
center and asked to be treated by a psychotherapist. The
problem with this story is that 168. One of the influences that has been associated with
a. individuals with antisocial personality disorder do not the development of borderline personality disorder is
generally seek treatment. a. a history of child abuse or neglect.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. a developmental delay for major milestones (i.e.,

walking, talking). 174. Individuals who overreact to everything and are overly
c. parental alcoholism. dramatic and vain are most likely to be diagnosed with
d. deficits in neurotransmitter circuits involving dopamine. ______ personality disorder.
a. borderline
169. When presented with words projected on a computer b. histrionic
screen, individuals with borderline personality disorder are c. narcissistic
more likely than individuals without the disorder to d. dependent
remember the word
a. celebrate. 175. Amy quickly becomes the center of attention when she
b. abandon. enters a room. She is a tall and attractive young woman
c. death. who generally wears something striking. Amy is known as
d. charming. a flirt and acts in a seductive manner around men. When
Amy speaks, she uses very exaggerated terms, even when
170. Childhood trauma as a cause of borderline personality describing relatively ordinary situations. Amy’s diagnosis
disorder may be too simplistic an explanation because is most likely ___ personality disorder.
a. There are too many neurological deficits that are noted a. histrionic
in borderline personality disorder patients. b. narcissistic
b. individuals with borderline personality disorder tend to c. borderline
respond to SSRI medications. d. dependent
c. Most individuals diagnosed with borderline personality
disorder are female. 176. When Axel arrives late for class, he walks in with a
d. a significant percentage of individuals diagnosed with grand entrance and apologizes to the professor and the
borderline personality disorder do not have a history of students in class. He proceeds to tell them he had every
childhood trauma. intention of being at class on time, but the traffic was
terrible and many accidents occurred, which delayed him.
171. Which of the following is the most likely model to Axel describes this in much exaggerated detail before he
explain the cause of borderline personality disorder? takes his seat. This commonly happens every time he is
a. Biological late. Axel could be diagnosed with which personality
b. Early trauma resulting in posttraumatic stress disorder disorder?
symptoms that are not recognized or dealt with during a. Histrionic
childhood b. Narcissistic
c. Stressful life events c. Borderline
d. Biological predisposition interacting with life events d. Borderline
such as childhood trauma and later life stressors
177. According to your text, the most accurate statement
regarding the treatment of histrionic personality disorder is
172. Research regarding psychological treatment for that
borderline personality disorder suggests that ___ appears a. There are no scientific studies demonstrating success.
helpful in improving mood and reducing suicidal and self- b. Patients who voluntarily attend therapy tend to get
injurious behaviors. better.
a. dialectical behavior therapy c. strict behavioral programs have been shown to be
b. cognitive therapy effective in scientific research.
c. operant conditioning d. cognitive therapy is most effective.
d. nothing
178. One of the likely problems a therapist may encounter
173. The psychological treatment that has been found to while trying to help a patient with histrionic personality
have significant effectiveness in helping patients with disorder is the patient’s
borderline personality disorder centers on a. unwillingness to admit there is a problem.
a. regressing patients to the time in their lives when they b. use of threatening language.
experienced trauma. c. lack of intellectual ability necessary to succeed in
b. removing the reinforcing attention that they have therapy.
received for their disordered behavior in the past. d. manipulative use of crying, charm, or seductive
c. enrolling them in a 12-step program such as Alcoholics behavior.
Anonymous.
d. learning to cope with life stressors in a more effective 179. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by
manner. a. preoccupation with other people.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. obsession with keeping things neat and orderly. b. The treatment is often focused on the patient’s
c. thinking of oneself as deserving of special treatment. grandiosity and hypersensitivity.
d. pathological dishonesty. c. Cognitive therapy aimed at replacing the patient’s
hedonistic fantasies with day-to-day pleasurable
180. People with narcissistic personality disorder display experiences that are truly attainable are a focus of the
all of the following characteristics EXCEPT treatment.
a. exploitation of others. d. All of these
b. happiness because they receive the adulation of
others. 186. All of the following are mentioned in your text as
c. demands for special attention. appropriate treatment strategies for narcissistic
d. feelings of grandiosity. personality disorder EXCEPT
a. cognitive therapy to replace grandiose fantasies with
181. Which of the following statements is true about more realistic goals.
narcissistic personality disorder? b. coping strategies to help accept criticism.
a. This disorder is on the decline in Western societies. c. exploration of early life trauma that led to the disorder.
b. Reports of treatment success are limited. d. being helped to focus on the feelings of others.
c. Recently there has been a great deal of research on
this disorder. 187. The reason that individuals with avoidant personality
d. All of the above disorder avoid most relationships is that they
a. are extremely sensitive to the opinions of others and
182. Vince is extremely impressed with himself. Although fear rejection.
he has only achieved a moderate amount of success, he b. generally dislike other people and prefer to be alone.
thinks of himself as being uniquely special and deserving c. are so stimulated by the fantasy life in their own minds
of the best of everything. Vince fantasizes frequently about that they have little need for the company of others.
great wealth and fame and does not really pay much d. experience bizarre thoughts and beliefs that distance
attention to other people except to note how they react to them from others.
him. Vince would most likely be diagnosed with ___
personality disorder. 188. Without understanding the thought process
a. antisocial motivating the patient’s behavior, it would probably be
b. histrionic impossible to determine whether a patient had ___
c. narcissistic personality disorder or ___ personality disorder.
d. dependent a. narcissistic; antisocial
b. dependent; narcissistic
183. One reason why individuals with narcissistic c. borderline; histrionic
personality disorder tend to become depressed at times is d. schizoid; avoidant
that they
a. become upset when their intimate relationships fail. 189. Individuals who keep to themselves because they are
b. seldom live up to their unrealistic expectations of anxious and fearful of rejection are likely to be diagnosed
themselves. with ___ personality disorder.
c. are overly sensitive to the pain of others. a. avoidant
d. don’t think they will achieve success in life. b. schizoid
c. schizotypal
184. Which of the following statements is true? d. antisocial
a. Recent research is refining the search for genes that
cause antisocial personality disorder. 190. When asked about their childhood, individuals
b. Recent research on brain damage indicates that brain diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder tend to
damage is found in psychopaths. remember their parents as
c. Recent research on neuropsychological tests indicates a. warm and loving.
that psychopaths score equally as well as b. substance abusing.
nonpsychopaths. c. rejecting.
d. None of the above is true. d. depressed.
185. Which of the following statements accurately 191. Of the following, the most accurate statement with
describes treatment for narcissistic personality disorder? regard to the treatment of avoidant personality disorder is
a. Narcissistic personality disorder treatment is often that
combined with treatment for severe depressive a. no well-controlled studies of treatment outcomes have
episodes. been conducted.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. there are well-controlled studies, though none show d. borderline

any treatment success.
c. individuals with this disorder are seldom sufficiently 196. In terms of feelings of inadequacy, sensitivity to
motivated to succeed in treatment. criticism, and need for reassurance, individuals with
d. behavioral intervention programs for anxiety and social personality disorder and ___ personality disorders are
skills have had some success. quite similar.
a. dependent; avoidant
192. In Jill’s psychotherapy sessions, the therapist has b. dependent; schizoid
been using systematic desensitization to gradually make c. schizoid; avoidant
her more comfortable with social situations. Similar to the d. histrionic; antisocial
treatments used for individuals with social phobia, the
therapist has given Jill homework assignments that require 197. Individuals who have excessive feelings of social
her to practice talking to strangers, join informal groups, inadequacy, sensitivity to criticism, and a need for
and speak in front of small groups. Most likely, she is being reassurance are likely to develop either ___ personality
treated for ____ personality disorder. disorder or ___ personality disorder.
a. avoidant a. narcissistic; antisocial
b. dependent b. dependent; narcissistic
c. Antisocial c. avoidant; dependent
d. histrionic d. antisocial; histrionic
193.The personality disorder characterized by 198. According to your text, treatment of dependent
unreasonable fear of abandonment, fear of being rejected, personality disorder is
avoidance of disagreement, inability to make decisions for a. generally successful with a cognitive-behavioral
oneself, and clinging behavior is ___ personality disorder. approach.
a. dependent b. well researched, though no effective treatments have
b. avoidant been established.
c. schizoid c. successful when based on systematic desensitization
d. histrionic and social skills training.
d. problematic because the patient’s submissiveness
194. Harold lives with his mother with whom he is very often negates one of the major goals of the therapy.
close and agrees with everything she says. When he
started seeing a young woman and the relationship became 199. When individuals with dependent personality disorder
serious, his mother convinced him that his girlfriend was are in therapy, they are
not good enough for him, so Harold stopped the a. seemingly “model” patients.
relationship. He has two close friends who have been his b. resistant to the therapeutic process.
friend since they met in kindergarten. Whenever they do c. too unstable to do the intellectual work that therapy
something, it is always one of his friends who decides what requires.
they do. Harold just follows along. Harold likely suffers d. demanding and impulsive.
from ____ personality disorder.
a. dependent 200. When working with a patient diagnosed with
b. avoidant dependent personality disorder, the therapist must be
c. schizoid particularly careful that the patient does not
d. histrionic a. take over the agenda of the sessions.
b. become inconsistent in attending sessions.
195. Mary has been married for 20 years and describes how c. manipulate the therapist by being overly dramatic.
her husband has been verbally abusive toward her for most d. become overly dependent on the therapist.
of that time. She indicates that her husband has had
multiple affairs with other women but she can’t leave him 201. Helen has been in therapy with Dr. Block for dependent
because she “loves and needs him.” When challenged by personality disorder for the past three years. When she first
the interviewer regarding the wisdom of staying with such came to therapy, she was in an abusive marriage and
a man, Mary agrees with the interviewer, although she later complained that her adult children treated her poorly and
confides that she always agrees with everyone to avoid that people in her life “walked all over her.” Helen has
conflict and disapproval. Mary should be diagnosed with attended therapy religiously, been a “model” patient, and
___ personality disorder. generally done everything that Dr. Block has suggested. At
a. Avoidant this time in her life, she is divorced, more assertive with her
b. Histrionic children, and generally feeling better about herself. Her
c. Dependent current therapy sessions are often centered on everyday

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
decisions for which she anxiously seeks Dr. Block’s advice. compulsive disorder is that patients with the personality
The most appropriate next therapy step is disorder generally
a. immediate termination. a. have more obsessive thoughts.
b. working to reduce Helen’s reliance on Dr. Block. b. show more compulsive and ritualistic behaviors.
c. a behavioral plan to increase Helen’s socialization. c. do not have obsessive thoughts and compulsive
d. exploration of the issues that made Helen seek therapy behaviors.
initially. d. have more insight into their problems
202. According to the DSM-5, the features of dependent 208. One unusual finding discussed in your text is that ___
personality disorder include personality disorder may have played a role in the behavior
a. difficulty expressing disagreement. of several serial killers.
b. an attitude of entitlement toward fulfilling expectations. a. narcissistic
c. being easily influenced by others or circumstances. b. antisocial
d. episodes of inappropriate, intense anger. c. obsessive-compulsive
d. schizotypal
203. The personality disorder that is characterized by an
insistence that things have to be done “the right way” is 209. Of the following, the most accurate statement
___ personality disorder. regarding the research for treatment of obsessive-
a. antisocial compulsive personality disorder is that
b. avoidant a. well-controlled research suggests the use of a highly
c. paranoid structured behavioral program can be effective with
d. obsessive-compulsive motivated patients.
b. well-controlled research suggests the use of cognitive-
204. A recent theory suggests that the psychological behavioral treatment.
profiles of many serial killers point to the role of which c. the great deal of research that has been conducted
psychological disorder? indicates there are currently no effective treatments.
a. Schizophrenia d. cognitive-behavioral therapy that uses distraction
b. Antisocial personality disorder techniques appears to be an effective treatment.
c. Delusional disorder
d. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder 210. In the categorical vs. dimensional classification
debate, supporters of the dimensional view of personality
205. Of the following, the most accurate statement disorders believe this system is superior because
regarding the cause of obsessive-compulsive personality a. there is too much overlap among the symptoms of the
disorder is that it appears to different disorders.
a. have a weak genetic contribution to the disorder. b. the clusters help to categorize but are not based on
b. be found in those individuals with a strong scientific evidence.
predisposition toward structure in their lives. c. there is high comorbidity among personality disorders.
c. require parental reinforcement of conformity and d. all of the above.
neatness.
d. all of the above.
206. Henry is viewed by many as a workaholic and not very

social. He is at his desk every morning at 7:30 a.m. and
takes a few breaks (although these breaks are always at the
same time every day). Henry is known to be a perfectionist.
The problem is that he does not seem to get much
accomplished, since he spends so much time making sure
that everything is perfect before moving on to the next task.
Henry appears to suffer from ___ personality disorder.
a. avoidant
b. obsessive-compulsive
c. schizoid
d. antisocial
207. One of the major differences between individuals with

obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and obsessive-

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CHAPTER 2 | An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 6. Amanda is 12 years old, and her sister Samantha is 5
years old. While riding in a car with their parents, the girls
1. The best description of the multidimensional integrative witness a major automobile accident where a number of
approach to understanding psychopathology is that it is people are injured. The girls react very differently to the
based on accident. This is probably due to
a. biological dimensions. a. biological differences.
b. biological and psychological dimensions. b. developmental differences.
c. biological and psychological dimensions, as well as c. psychological differences
emotional influences. d. sociocultural differences
d. biological and psychological dimensions, as well as
emotional and developmental influences. 7. The multidimensional integrative approach to pathology
includes causal factors from which fields?
2. Within the multidimensional integrative approach to a. Neuroscience
understanding psychopathology, learned helplessness is b. Genetics
considered a(n) dimension. c. Psychology
a. Biological d. All of the above are correct
b. Psychological
c. Emotional 8. Behavioral influences in the multidimensional model
d. physiological include
a. conditioned Responses.
3. The basis of the multidimensional integrative b. cultural Factors.
approach to understanding psychopathology is c. Genetics.
that each dimension (psychological, biological, d. violation of Social Norms.
emotional, etc.)
9. Social influences in the multidimensional model include
a. operates independently.
b. is sufficient to cause pathology. a. the fact that illness usually gets attention.
c. builds on the dimension that precedes it. b. heart rate.
d. is influenced by the other dimensions. c. Genetics.
d. conditioned responses.
4. Your uncle spent most of his teen years in a hospital 10. The most accurate way to think of genes is that they
undergoing treatment for a severe physical illness. As an a. set boundaries for our development.
adult, he is rather shy and withdrawn, particularly around b. determine both our physical and psychological
women. He has been diagnosed with social phobia, which characteristics.
you believe is entirely due to lack of socialization during c. determine physical but not psychological
his teen years. Your theory or model of what caused his characteristics.
phobia is ________. d. actually have very little to do with any of the
characteristics that we display.
a. Multidimensional 11. Referring to behavior and personality as polygenic
b. Integrative means that both are
c. One-dimensional a. influenced by only a few genes, but each has a large
d. biological effect.
b. influenced by many genes, with each individual gene
5. According to the multidimensional integrative approach contributing a relatively small effect.
to psychopathology, the following statement is true for c. influenced by individual genes only rarely.
most psychological disorders: d. a result of our genetic structure only.
a. If one monozygotic twin has a particular disorder, the
other twin will definitely have the disorder as well. 12. The procedures referred to as quantitative genetics are
b. Monozygotic twins are no more likely to share used to
psychological disorders than any other siblings. a. determine the effects of multiple genes.
c. Monozygotic twins are no more likely to share
b. provide genetic counseling.
disorders than any other two people selected at
random from the population. c. correct genetic abnormalities.
d. If one monozygotic twin has a particular psychological d. test the multidimensional integrative model.
disorder, the other twin is more likely to have the
disorder than the rest of the population.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
13. Most psychological disorders appear to be influenced d. the inheritance of multiple disorders.
by many individual genes rather than caused by one single
gene, a process referred to as influence. 19. In the diathesis-stress model, "stress" refers to
a. life events, in combination with an inherited tendency,
a. Multigenic
that trigger a disorder.
b. Polygenic b. inherited tendencies, in combination with life events,
c. Unigenic that trigger a disorder.
d. morphogenic c. defective genes.
14. Inga is a charming and intelligent young lady who is d. exposure to very unusual and extreme environmental
well-liked by family and friends. Approximately______ of conditions.
Inga’s enduring personality traits and cognitive abilities
can be attributed to genetic influence. 20. According to the diathesis-stress model,
psychopathology is the result of the
a. 25%
a. 50% a. interaction between normal and defective or damaged
b. 75% genes.
b. stress level of an individual and how stress is managed
c. 100%
in a person's life.
c. family history of an individual.
15. The most recent estimates are that genetics contribute d. interaction of an inherited tendency and events in a
approximately to the development of personality person's life.
characteristics such as shyness or activity level.
a. 10-20% 21.According to the diathesis-stress model, monozygotic

b. 30-50% twins raised in the same household will
c. 75-85% a. not necessarily have the same disorders because of
d. nothing potential differences in their diathesis.
b. have the same disorders because their diathesis and
16. According to recent estimates, genetic contributions to stress are exactly the same.
the development of most psychological disorders are c. not necessarily have the same disorders because of
__________________ potential differences in their stress.
d. have no more likelihood of sharing a disorder than any
a. below 50% other two randomly selected individuals from the
b. above 50% population.
c. different for each disorder (estimates range from 0 to
100%) 22. According to the diathesis-stress model,
d. nonexistent
17. Recent evidence regarding the genetic influence on a. mental disorders will always develop given a certain
most psychological disorders has shown that level of stress.
a. single genes are usually responsible for psychological b. once a diathesis for a particular disorder is inherited,
disorders. the disorder will eventually develop.
b. genes that influence psychopathology are usually c. an individual's inherited tendencies are not affected by
recessive. stressful life events he or she encounters.
c. there is no evidence that genes influence d. iit is possible to inherit a diathesis and never develop a
psychopathology. disorder.
d. multiple genes interact, with each gene contributing a
small effect. 23. The model that describes the development of
psychopathology as a combination of an inherited
18. In the diathesis-stress model, "diathesis" refers to predisposition and the events that have occurred in the
individual's life is called .
a. an inherited disorder. a. Diathesis-stress
b. conditions in the environment that can trigger a b. Genetic
disorder depending upon how severe the stressors c. Bio-behavioral
are. d. psychoanalytic
c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person
susceptible to developing a disorder.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
24. In a landmark study by Caspi et. al. (2003), researchers b. seem to override any genetic contribution to be
studied the stressful life events and genetics of 847 reactive to stress.
individuals. For individuals who had at least four stressful c. had no effect on future generations in the expression
life events, the risk of major depression of personality traits or temperament.
a. remained unchanged regardless of genetic makeup. d. had random effects on any genetic contribution to be
b. doubled if they possessed two short alleles of the gene reactive to stress.
being studied.
c. was reduced by half if they possessed two short alleles 30. Looking at the findings of many cross-fostering studies
of the gene being studied. (Francis et al., 1999, Suomi, 1999, Tienari et al., 1994) it
d. was entirely related to the genetic makeup and not the appears that positive interventions such as good parenting
number of life stressors. in early life may
a. have little effect in terms of preventing
25. The idea that our inherited tendencies influence the psychopathology in those genetically predisposed to
probability that we will encounter stressful life events is a such conditions.
characteristic of the________________. b. dramatically change the genetics of individuals
a. diathesis-stress model genetically predisposed to psychopathology.
b. reciprocal gene-environment model c. have a greater effect on future generations than on the
c. genetic model individual exposed to the "good parenting."
d. psycho-social model d. override the genetically influenced tendency to develop
psychopathology in later life.
26. John has inherited a personality trait that makes him
more likely to keep to himself than to socialize. As a result, 31. Some of the most recent research studies regarding
he does not have many friends and spends a lot of time genetic vs. environmental causes of disorders in animals
alone. If John were to develop depression, the model that and humans have suggested
would probably best explain this situation and the cause of
his depression is . a. genetic influences are greater than originally observed
a. Diathesis-stress because positive environmental conditions do not
b. Biological prevent disorders.
c. reciprocal gene-environment b. genetics and the environment share equal roles in the
d. interpersonal development of all psychological disorders.
c. the relative contributions of genetics and the
environment in the development of psychological
27. Some people may be genetically predisposed to seek
disorders are different for lower animals than for
out difficult relationships. These difficult relationships may
humans.
contribute to their experience of depression. This is an
d. genetic influences may have been oversimplified by
example of the .
previous studies (i.e., without sufficient environmental
a. diathesis-stress model stress, the genetic predisposition may never be
b. reciprocal gene-environment model activated.)
c. genetic model
d. quantitative genetics model 32. Recent research suggests that
28. Research studies using the procedure called a. environmental manipulations early in life may do much
"cross fostering" have shown that genetically to override the genetically induced tendency to develop
emotional and reactive young animals raised by undesirable behavioral activities.
calm mothers tended to be b. environmental manipulations early in life may do much
a. Calm. to override the genetically induced tendency to develop
b. emotional and reactive. undesirable emotional activities.
c. calm but emotional and reactive when raising their own c. an interaction between genes and environment plays
young. an important role in every psychological disorder.
d. emotional and reactive but calm when raising their own d. all of these.
young.
33. According to the Diathesis-Stress Model:
29. Cross-fostering studies indicate that the environmental
a. Alcoholism is inherited. If you inherit the gene, it is only
effects of early parenting
a matter of time before you become an alcoholic.
b. Alcoholism is not inherited at all; no one makes you
a. had no effect on any genetic contribution to be reactive
drink against your will.
to stress.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. Genetic vulnerability lowers the threshold for stress to 41. GABA, dopamine, and norepinephrine are all examples
create alcoholism of .
d. Everyone has the same likelihood of becoming an a. electrical brain waves
alcoholic. b. Neurons
c. Neurotransmitters
34. The central nervous system is made up of the . d. areas of the brain
a. brain and spinal cord
b. brain only 42. Most automatic functions (e.g., breathing, sleeping, and
c. spinal cord only motor coordination) are controlled by the part of the brain
d. nerves leading to and from the brain called the____.
a. brain stem
35. The brain and the spinal cord comprise the b. Forebrain
a. peripheral nervous system. c. Cortex
b. somatic nervous system. d. frontal lobes
c. parasympathetic nervous system.
d. central nervous system. 43. Recent research has associated the with
autism. This is also the part of the brain that controls motor
36. The area between the axon of one neuron and the coordination.
dendrite of another neuron is the . a. reticular activating system (RAS)
a. axon terminal b. Medulla
b. Soma c. Pons
c. synaptic cleft d. cerebellum
d. transmission cleft
44. The part of the brainstem that regulates vital activities
37. Which of the following statements is TRUE? such as heartbeat, breathing, and digestion is the
a. Glial cells are passive cells that serve to connect and .
insulate neurons. a. Cerebellum
b. There are fewer glial cells than there are neurons. b. reticular activating system (RAS)
c. There are different types of glial cells with several c. Hindbrain
specific functions. d. thalamus
d. Glial cells slow down the process of neural
communication. 45. The coordinates movement with sensory input
and contains parts of the reticular activating system.
38. The synaptic cleft is the area between the
a. soma of one neuron and the dendrite of another a. Hindbrain
neuron. b. Midbrain
b. axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another c. cerebral cortex
neuron. d. forebrain
c. axon of one neuron and the soma of another neuron.
d. somas of two neurons. 46. Functions of the limbic system include control or
regulation of
39. Neurotransmitters are important because they a. basic body functions such as breathing
b. sleep cycles.
a. allow neurons to send signals to other neurons. c. emotional experiences, expressions, impulse control,
b. maintain the oxygenation of the brain. and basic drives such as aggression, sex, hunger, and
c. prevent the development of psychopathology thirst.
d. allow the brain to maintain its structural integrity. d. body posture, coordinated movement, and involuntary
responses such as reflexes and other automatic
40. The chemicals that allow transmission of signals processes.
between neurons are called .
a. reuptake inhibitors 47. About 80% of the neurons contained in the central
b. Hormones nervous system are located in the .
c. Neurotransmitters a. cerebral cortex
d. genes b. brain stem
c. Midbrain
d. basal ganglia

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
48. The ability to plan, think, reason, and create is located d. endocrine system.
in the part of the brain called the .
a. Thalamus 56. According to your text's discussion of how
b. Midbrain neurotransmitters such as serotonin work, the term
c. cerebral cortex "biochemical imbalance" for the cause of disorders such
d. brain stem as depression is probably .
a. an oversimplification
49. Although the two halves of the cortex look alike b. about accurate
structurally, the left hemisphere seems to be chiefly c. completely incorrect
responsible for d. a perfect description
a. motor coordination.
b. perceiving the world around us. 57. Drugs that increase the activity of a neurotransmitter
c. creating images. are called .
d. verbal and other cognitive processes. a. Agonists
b. Antagonists
50. For most people, verbal and cognitive processes are c. Enhancers
usually controlled by the . d. psychotropics
a. left hemisphere of the cortex
b. right hemisphere of the cortex 58. Drugs that decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter
c. entire cortex are called .
d. midbrain a. Agonists
b. Blockers
51. For most people, perception and the creation of images c. reuptake inhibitors
are usually handled by the . d. antagonists
a. left hemisphere of the cortex
b. entire cortex 59. The neurotransmitter associated with regulation of
c. Midbrain mood, behavior, and thought processes is .
d. right hemisphere of the cortex a. GABA
b. Norepinephrine
52. The part(s) of the brain most associated with memory, c. Serotonin
thought, and reasoning is(are) the . d. dopamine
a. occipital lobes
b. brain stem 60. Extremely low levels of GABA are associated with
c. left parietal lobe a. decreased anxiety
d. frontal lobes b. increased depression
c. increased anxiety
53. The peripheral nervous system is made up of the d. decreased depression
a. endocrine system
b. brainstem and cortex 61. Recent research and increased understanding about
c. somatic and autonomic nervous system the role of neurotransmitters in psychopathology point out
d. brain and spinal cord that
a. each psychological disorder is caused by a deficit in a
54. The major function of the peripheral nervous system is specific neurotransmitter.
to b. chemical imbalances of the brain are the cause of
a. carry messages to and from the central nervous psychopathology.
system. c. simple cause/effect conclusions stating that an
b. process information received from the central nervous individual neurotransmitter abnormality causes a
system. disorder are incomplete.
c. regulate arousal. d. neurotransmitters have very little to do with
d. control hormonal activity. psychopathology for most individuals but may be the
single cause of disorders for others.
55. The network of glands that releases chemical
messengers directly into the bloodstream is called the 62. Extremely low activity levels of serotonin are
a. autonomic nervous system. associated with .
b. somatic nervous system. a. aggression, suicide, and impulsive behavior
c. limbic system. b. Schizophrenia

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. anxiety disorders and general feelings of nervousness a. activation of brain regions identical to those activated
d. mania by opiate medication.
b. activation of brain regions that are overlapping, but not
63. The neurotransmitter thought to regulate or moderate identical, to those activated by opiate medication.
certain behavioral tendencies rather than directly influence c. psychological expectation since a placebo does not
specific patterns of behavior or psychological disorders is activate brain regions associated with pain control.
a. Norepinephrine d. similarities in activated brain regions during the "no
b. GABA medication" condition.
c. Dopamine
d. serotonin 69. Cognitive-behavior therapy facilitates changes in
thinking patterns in the cortex, which in turn affects the
64. The neurotransmitter associated with both emotional brain. This is called .
schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease is .
a. GABA a. Confabulation
b. Norepinephrine b. Consolidation
c. Dopamine c. a top-down change
d. serotonin d. a bottom-up change
65. Extremely low levels of dopamine activity are 70. Drugs often seem to work in a manner by reaching
associated with . higher areas of the cortex where thinking occurs last. This
is called______.
a. muscle rigidity, tremors, and impaired judgment
a. Consolidation
b. Schizophrenia
b. Confabulation
c. pleasure seeking
c. top-down processing
d. exploratory behaviors
d. bottom-up processing
66. In the 1992 studies conducted by Baxter et al., OCD
71. Insel, Scanlan, Champoux, and Soumi (1988) raised one
patients were provided with cognitive-behavioral therapy
group of rhesus monkeys with the ability to control things
(exposure and response prevention) but no drugs. This
in their environment and another group of monkeys who
study is important because brain imaging showed that
had no control of their environment (e.g., when they would
a. the neurotransmitter circuits of the brain had been
receive treats and toys). When injected with a drug that
normalized.
produces a feeling of severe anxiety, the monkeys
b. the patients' OCD symptoms improved without
a. raised with a sense of control appeared angry and
changes in neurotransmitter function.
aggressive while the monkeys raised without a sense
c. neither OCD symptoms nor neurotransmitter function
of control appeared very anxious.
had improved.
b. raised with a sense of control appeared anxious while
d. neurotransmitter circuits are the direct and only cause
the monkeys raised without a sense of control
of OCD.
appeared angry and aggressive.
67. What is one of the conclusions generally drawn from c. in both groups appeared anxious.
the 1990s studies of OCD, brain imaging, and cognitive- d. in both groups appeared angry and aggressive.
behavioral therapy by Baxter et al., and the follow up
studies by Schwartz et al.? 72. The significance of the study conducted by Insel,
a. Neurotransmitters affect how people feel and act. Scanlan, Champoux, and Soumi (1988) in which rhesus
b. Drugs are the only way to impact faulty monkeys were raised either with a sense of control or
neurotransmitter circuits. without one and later exposed to an anxiety-inducing drug
c. Neurotransmitters are a result of how people feel and is that chemicals such as neurotransmitters
act, not a cause. a. have very direct effects on behavior.
d. Psychosocial factors such as therapy affect b. influence behavior in different ways depending upon
neurotransmitters. the psychological history of the individual.
c. influence individuals in fairly direct and consistent ways
68. In a recent study (Petrovic, Kalso, Peterson & Ingvar, regardless of the psychological history of the
2002), subjects were exposed to a painful stimulus (heat to individual.
the hand) under three conditions: opiate medication, d. have few reliable and consistent effects on observed
placebo (sugar pill) medication, and no medication. Brain behavior.
scans indicated that a subject's experience of reduced pain
with the placebo is due to

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
73. The most recent research evidence suggests that the d. early psychological experience has little to
relationship between the brain (structure, function, do with brain structure or later development
neurotransmitters) and psychosocial factors (socialization, of psychopathology.
rearing, life events) is best described as
a. a system where our brains directly influence our 77. Regarding biological influences on the development of
behavior and psychosocial factors but not the other psychopathology, the most accurate statement is
way around. a. both genetics and life events play a part
b. an interaction where the brain affects our psychosocial in the development of brain structure and
factors and psychosocial factors impact our brain. function that can affect vulnerability to
c. a system where our behavior and psychosocial factors psychopathology.
impact our brain but not the other way around. b. life events can only cause changes in
d. far too complex to ever understand whether one brain structure or function for those with
system influences the other. genetic defects.
c. early life events play a much greater role
74. When comparing the brains of rats raised in a rich in the development of brain structure or
environment requiring lots of learning and motor behavior function than genetics.
with the brains of rats raised as "couch potatoes" d. vulnerability to psychopathology has little
(Greenough, et al., 1990), the cerebellums of the more to do with the brain changes associated
active rats with genetics or early life events.
a. contained more neuronal connections and dendrites.
b. contained fewer neuronal connections but more axons 78. When one examines the current state of knowledge
and dendrites. regarding genetics and life experience effects on brain
c. were less likely to possess pathological structure and function, the best overall conclusion is that
neurotransmitter circuits. most psychological disorders are
d. were exactly the same as the inactive rats a. the result of a complex interaction of genetics and
faulty neurotransmitter circuits.
75. Studies regarding rat learning and brain structure by b. the result of stressful early life experiences and the
Greenough, et al. (1990) and Wallace, et al. (1992) suggest negative effects such experiences have on brain
that structure or function.
c. the result of both biological and psychosocial factors.
a. early experiences such as learning cause physical d. beyond our current ability to understand in any
changes in the brain. meaningful way.
b. psychopathology is the result of early learning
experiences. 79. Recent research suggests that learning and experience
c. while psychopathology is often a result of early life a. only change the brain before birth.
experiences, it is generally due to the physical changes b. change the brain through childhood.
in the brain that such experiences cause. c. change the brain through young adulthood.
d. genetically caused brain structure problems can be d. change the brain at any age.
corrected by positive life experiences.
80. Bullying studies in mice suggest that the functions of
76. One conclusion that can be drawn from the studies the mesolimbic system
regarding rat learning and brain structure (Greenough, et
a. can be switched from avoidance to reinforcement.
al., 1990; Wallace, et al., 1992) is that
b. can be switched from reinforcement to avoidance.
a. early psychological experience affects the
c. cannot be changed by experience.
development of the nervous system and
d. can only be changed with drugs.
will absolutely determine whether or not the
individual will develop a psychological
disorder later in life.
b. early psychological experience does not 81. Marta is right-handed. She falls and hurts the left side
result in physical changes to the nervous of her head and impacts brain function. Which is most
system but can still influence whether or likely to happen?
not one develops a psychological disorder. a. Marta may likely be more clumsy.
c. early psychological experience affects the b. Marta may have some difficulty with language and
development of the nervous system and cognitive processing.
influences vulnerability to psychological c. Marta will have difficulty in math.
disorders later in life. d. All of the above are correct.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
82. Endocrine glands located in your head include: b. live about the same length of time as those without
such positive attitudes.
a. Thyroid gland. c. be less likely to have heart disease than those without
b. Pituitary Gland. such positive attitudes.
c. Hypothalamus. d. be more likely to be involved with positive community
d. B and C are correct. activities than those without such positive attitudes.
83. Rescorla (1988) demonstrated that simply pairing two 89. According to Seligman, if a person who is faced with
events closely in time considerable stress and difficulty in his/her life displays an
a. demonstrates the simplicity of classical conditioning. optimistic, upbeat attitude, he/she is likely to function
b. does not allow us to make predictions. better psychologically and physically. He called this
c. becomes more meaningful as the pairings continue. ______________.
d. is not what’s important in this type of learning. a. learned optimism
b. learned helplessness
84. Learned helplessness is demonstrated in laboratory c. learned awareness
animals by d. learned predictability
a. creating aversive stimuli (such as electrical shocks to
the foot) that the animal can control. 90. One important contribution of the work of Albert
b. creating aversive stimuli (such as electrical shocks to Bandura regarding modeling or observational learning is
the foot) that the animal cannot control. that
c. creating pleasant stimuli (such as a food pellet) that the a. much of our learned behavior depends upon our
animal cannot control. interactions with those around us.
d. creating pleasant stimuli (such as a food pellet) that the b. our learned behavior has much more to do with the
animal can control. types of consequences (reinforcements and
punishments) of our actions than our interactions with
85. Placing a rat in a cage where electrical shocks over those around us.
which the rat has no control are occasionally administered c. it is impossible to learn behavioral patterns without
through the floor is a way to create . observing those around us.
a. social learning d. learning acquired through observation is much more
b. learned helplessness resistant to extinction than behavior acquired through
c. unconscious learning classical or operant conditioning.
d. negative neurotransmitter pathways
91. Amanda learned to fear snakes after seeing one for the
86. It is important to understand the process of how first time at the zoo. However, it took many exposures to
learned helplessness is created in laboratory animals the sound of tapping dancing shoes before she learned to
because learned helplessness in animals resembles the fear that sound. The concept that would explain the fact that
human disorder of we learn to fear some objects more easily than others is
a. panic disorder a. prepared learning.
b. Depression b. learned helplessness.
c. Mania c. observational learning.
d. schizophrenia d. reciprocal determinism.
87. Candace believes that no matter how hard she studies, 92. The major difference between the modern cognitive
she will never succeed in college. This behavior can best science idea of the unconscious and Freud's view of the
be explained by_________. unconscious is that Freud saw the unconscious as ___,
a. personality disorder whereas modern cognitive science views it as
b. faulty neurotransmitter circuits __________________.
c. learned helplessness a. the function of the id; the result of
d. internal conflicts multiple neuronal pathways interacting
with the stimuli presented to the
88. Meno is 64 years old. Although continuously faced with individual
considerable stress and difficulty in his life, he always b. a seething caldron of emotional
displays an optimistic, upbeat attitude. According to conflicts; neuronal pathways interacting
research, Meno should with the stimuli presented to the
a. probably live longer than those without such positive individual
attitudes.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. the function of the superego; the ability 98. You feed your dog every time you come home from
to process, store, and act upon school at night. One day your afternoon classes are
information without awareness canceled and you come home early. Your dog barks for
d. a seething caldron of emotional conflicts; food, even though it is not her dinner time yet. In this
the ability to process, store, and act upon scenario, the is the neutral stimulus, and the
information without awareness is the unconditioned stimulus.
a. arrival home, food
93. According to modern cognitive science, the b. food, arrival home
unconscious c. dog, food
a. clearly exists in much the same way that Freud d. food, dog
imagined.
b. may or may not exist, as it is impossible to study 99. Emotion is generally thought to be a(n) elicited
material that we are not aware of. by a(n) .
c. clearly does not exist. a. cognition; behavior
d. clearly exists but in a very different way than Freud b. action tendency; threat
imagined. c. affect; cognition
d. physiological response; affective occurrence
94. In the Stroop color naming paradigm, a patient with a
blood phobia would be expected to name the color of the 100. You and a friend are lost while walking on a street in
printed word "wound" a foreign city. A stranger approaches, and you are
concerned that the stranger may try to mug you. Your friend
a. more quickly than a neutral word. assumes that the stranger is approaching to give you
b. in about the same time it takes to name the color of a directions. As the stranger approaches, you experience
neutral word. fear, but your friend experiences relief. Your different
c. more slowly than a neutral word. emotional reactions can be explained by the theory
d. with a great deal of difficulty or not at all. of emotion.
a. Physiological
95. Ben just got robbed. He tells his friends “wouldn’t you b. Neurological
know it, bad things ALWAYS happen to me.” Ben’s friends c. Affective
often tease him that he is a pessimist. Ben d. cognitive
a. has a negative attitude and will likely outlive his more 101. The relationship between emotion and health is
positive friends. demonstrated by the fact that
b. has a negative attitude and will likely suffer from poorer a. panic is related to poor concentration.
health and not live as long as his more positive friends. b. people with chronic diseases are often angry about
c. will have difficulty concentrating. their care.
d. will not be able to make more friends. c. those in poor physical health almost always develop
psychological disorders.
96. Learned helplessness: d. hostility and anger increase one's risk of heart disease.
a. is genetic.
b. occurs when an animal encounters (usually negative) 102. Studies examining the effects of anger and hostility
conditions over which the animal has no control. on the cardiovascular system have demonstrated that
c. occurs only when animals receive an electric shock. anger results in
d. all of the above are correct. a. decreased pumping efficiency of the heart.
b. increased pumping efficiency of the heart.
97. Anna is embarrassed when her mom sings in the car in c. heart changes similar to those found when exercising.
front of her friends. When her mother’s favorite song comes d. few if any measurable changes in the heart.
on the radio, Anna sinks into her seat with embarrassment.
In this scenario, the is the neutral stimulus, and the 103. The "evil eye," Latin American susto, and the Haitian
is the unconditioned stimulus. phenomenon of voodoo death are currently viewed as
a. embarrassment, Anna’s friends examples of the
b. Anna’s friends, embarrassment a. unsubstantiated myths that people can become ill
c. embarrassment, music without physical cause.
d. music, embarrassment b. power of the social environment on our physical and
psychological health.
c. power of the supernatural model of psychopathology.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. isolated cultural phenomena with little practical b. having a supportive group of people around us is
significance. important to our physical health but not our
psychological well- being.
104. The fact that women are more likely to suffer from c. having a supportive group of people around us is
insect phobias than men is most likely due to important to our psychological well-being but not our
a. biological differences. physical health.
b. differences in neurochemical pathways. d. having a supportive group of people around us is one
c. cultural expectations. of the most important parts of maintaining our physical
d. genetic influences. and mental health.
110. In a study conducted by Haber and Barchas (1983),
monkeys were injected with amphetamine, a central
105. Anxious males tend to have a higher rate of nervous system stimulant. Comparison of the drug's
alcoholism than females. One likely explanation for this effects on the dominant versus submissive monkeys
difference is that men are demonstrated that the effects of brain chemicals such as
a. more likely to use alcohol to deal with anxiety than to drugs are
admit they are afraid. a. different for individual animals depending upon their
b. less likely to be fearful of becoming alcoholic. place in the social hierarchy.
c. exposed to alcohol more often than women are. b. the same for all animals regardless of their place in the
d. more likely to see alcohol as a good long-term solution social hierarchy.
to problems such as anxiety. c. the same for all animals except for those with a
biological predisposition for aggression.
106. The influences of culture and gender on d. different for individual animals but the differences
psychopathology are most clearly evident in the disorder appear to be random.
of .
a. bulimia nervosa 111. Research with the elderly has found that depression is
b. panic disorder more likely in those individuals who
c. bipolar disorder a. have frequent social contacts.
d. depression b. live in group settings.
c. have fewer social contacts.
107. People who have many social contacts and live their d. receive increased attention from their families when
lives continually interacting with others they are sick.
a. develop more infections and have poorer overall
health. 112. Depression and schizophrenia seem to appear in all
b. have not been found to differ on any health outcome. cultures but tend to be characterized by different
c. often suffer from psychological disorders such as symptoms within individual cultures. For example,
dependency. depression in Western culture is generally characterized by
d. live longer and healthier lives. feelings of guilt and inadequacy, whereas in developing
countries it is characterized by physical distress such as
108. Research exposing subjects to the virus that causes fatigue or illness. This is most likely due to
the common cold (Cohen et al., 1997) demonstrated that a. genetic differences between individuals living in
a. the lower the individual's socialization, the lower the different cultures.
chances of contracting a cold. b. differences in treatment provided in different cultures.
b. the greater the individual's socialization, the lower the c. reasons that our current methods of study are
chances of contracting a cold. incapable of understanding.
c. the extent of socialization and chances of contracting d. the fact that social and cultural factors influence
a cold were unrelated. psychopathology.
d. the quality of social contact predicted whether the
individual would contract a cold, but the frequency of 113. Given the role of social factors in psychological
social contact did not. disorders and the fact that psychological disorders are still
associated with social stigma (people tend to think that the
109. Regarding the research on socialization and health, disorder is something to be ashamed of), there is a much
the safest conclusion is that greater chance that people with psychological disorders
a. social support is important but mostly for those will
individuals who are at high risk for various physical or a. be far more easily treated than those with physical
psychological disorders. disorders.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. seek help for their disorders but be more likely to 119. In an experiment by Kolb, Gibb, and Gorny (2003),
receive insufficient treatment than those with physical animals of varying ages were placed in complex
illness. environments. Their findings suggest that
c. be ignored by mental health professionals when they a. the impact of the environment on the brain is different
seek help. at varying stages of life.
d. not seek and receive the treatment and support of b. the impact of the environment on the brain is significant
others that are most needed for recovery. but uniform throughout the lifespan.
c. environments that are beneficial to the aged may be
114. When we compare the incidence of psychological harmful to the young.
disorders across countries and cultures, we find that d. the environment has little effect on the brain throughout
a. there is remarkable similarity in the rates of various the lifespan.
disorders in different countries and cultures.
b. all Western countries have a similar rate of common 120. The fact that some behaviors can be symptoms of
disorders, but this is not true for developing countries. many different disorders (e.g., delusions can be a result of
c. developing countries have a much higher rate of amphetamine abuse or of schizophrenia) is an example of
psychological disorder than Western countries. ___ .
d. there are enormous differences in the rates of various a. Equifinality
disorders in different countries and cultures. b. Psychopathology
c. Pathogenesis
115. Political strife, war, and suffering in a country tend to d. orthogonal causation
the rate of psychological disorders in the country.
a. Decrease 121. Children who are resistant to stress are considered to
b. have little effect on be
c. have unpredictable effects on a. Resilient
d. increase b. Reliant
c. Resistant
116. A lifespan psychologist would point out that the only d. reactive
way to understand a patient's disorder is to understand
how the individual 122. The term equifinality refers to the fact that
a. developed from childhood to adulthood. a. once a process has begun, it will always lead to a final
b. developed during the psychosexual stages. outcome.
c. resolved conflicts in early life. b. many causes of psychopathology are equal in
d. sees himself/herself as part of a family, a community, influence.
and a culture. c. a number of paths can lead to the same outcome.
d. all forms of psychopathology have similar causes.
117. According to Eric Erikson, people
a. only experience major change in adulthood. 123. The fact that depression can be caused by mental
b. are fully developed by age 50. illness or drug use is an example of how
c. experience eight typical developmental crises across
time. a. once a process has begun, it will always lead to a final
d. experience no developmental changes after outcome.
adolescence. b. many causes of psychopathology are equal in
influence.
c. a number of paths can lead to the same outcome.
118. When therapists ask patients how they are feeling and d. all forms of psychopathology have similar causes.
how they are experiencing their disorder today, it is
essentially taking "snapshots" of their lives at the moment. 124. The fact that a disorder can be caused by a variety of
This approach to understanding psychopathology is factors illustrates the principle of .
criticized as incomplete by __ __. a. Equifinality
a. lifespan psychologists b. Isolation
b. Cognitive-behaviorists c. Equilibration
c. Humanists d. isolation
d. all mental health workers

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
125. Which of the following is true about biological sex and Chapter 3 | Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
depression?
a. Boys and girls have equal rates of depression until 1. The systematic evaluation and measurement of
puberty; after which depression becomes more psychological, biological, and social factors in a person
common in girls. with a possible mental disorder is known as clinical
b. Boys and girls have equal rates of depression until a. assessment
puberty; after which depression becomes more b. Interpretation
common in boys. c. validation
c. Boys and girls have equal rates of depression through d. standardization
the lifespan.
d. Depression almost never occurs in children under the 2. The process of determining whether an individual's
age of 18 symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological
disorder is called
126. According to the abnormal psychology video clip, a. Prognosis
psychopathology is due to . b. diagnosis
c. Classification
a. psychological processes d. analysis
b. biological processes
c. both biological and psychological processes 3. The process of clinical assessment in psychopathology
d. neither biological or psychological processes has been equated to using a ______ to determine the
source of the problem.
127. Our understanding of psychology as an integrated a. Funnel
process is in part a function of . b. hose
a. better measurement tools c. bucket
b. greater biological knowledge d. plow
c. application of scientific study to psychological
processes 4. In order to be useful, assessment techniques should be
d. all of the above based on
a. beliefs
b. Attitudes
c. Evidence
d. assumptions
5. In the first interview with Frank, a patient described in

the textbook, he stated that he had been having
intrusive thoughts that he tried to prevent by performing
certain movements. Based on this information, you
might predict that Frank would be diagnosed with
a. major depressive disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. a personality disorder
d. schizophrenia
6. A measurement which is consistent is considered to be

a. valid
b. reliable
c. standardized
d. accurate
7. If the short version of a test yields the same results as a
longer version, then you could conclude that the brief
version had______validity.
a. Concurrent
b. divergent
c. predictive
d. excessive

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
8. Clifton had been experiencing a number of c. Standardization

psychological issues, so he decided to go to a d. Inaccuracy
psychiatrist to see what was wrong. Dr. A told him he
had major depressive disorder. He decided to seek a 14. In terms of psychological assessment, which of the
second opinion. Dr. B diagnosed him with generalized following describes the concept of validity?
anxiety disorder. Wanting yet another opinion, he went a. Two or more "raters" get the same answers.
to Dr. C who told him he was obsessive compulsive. b. An assessment technique is consistent across different
This demonstrates poor measures.
a. test-retest reliability c. Scores are used as a norm for comparison purposes.
b. concurrent validity d. An assessment technique measures what it is
c. descriptive validity designed to measure.
d. inter-rater reliability
15. Comparing assessment scores to those of individuals
9. The process of clinical assessment results in narrowing who are demographically similar to you reflects what
the focus to concept of clinical assessments?
a. concentrate on problem areas that seem most a. Reliability
relevant. b. Validity
b. consider a broad range of problems. c. Standardization
c. cover all possible problems. d. All of the above are correct
d. concentrate on all problem areas equally.
16. Mr. J., a 40-year-old recent immigrant to the United
10. In order to develop useful standards for a test, it is States, comes from a working-class background and is
important to use a normative group that consists of a just learning to speak English. He applies for a job and
a. small group of people who are very similar to each is given a test. His score is compared to others who
other. have taken the test, mostly young college graduates
b. large group of people who all share a key whose native language is English. Mr. J. thinks this is
characteristic. unfair. In fact, this is an issue of __________.
c. large group of very diverse people. a. reliability
d. small group that differs from the population at large b. classification
c. validity
11. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic d. standardization
concepts that help determine the value of a
psychological assessment procedure? 17. A clinical interview should be based on information from
a. Reliability the client’s
b. Subjectivity a. past behaviors, attitudes, and emotions
c. Validity b. interpersonal and social history
d. Standardization c. present behaviors, attitudes, and emotions
d. all of the above
12. Treminitia, who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and
loss of appetite, received different diagnoses from 18. In trying to understand and help an individual with a
several psychologists. In terms of assessment, this psychological problem, the psychologist will obtain
indicates a problem with detailed information about the person's life as part of a
a. reliability a. physical exam
b. subjectivity b. clinical interview
c. validity c. mental status exam
d. standardization d. brain scan
13. Anna sees a doctor for persistent nausea. Her primary 19. As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status
care physician tells her that she is probably dehydrated exam is used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and
and suggests drinking more water. Her neurologist tells behaves; its primary purpose, however, is to determine
her that there could be swelling in her brain and that she a. if a psychological disorder might be present.
should get a CAT scan. Anna’s allergist suggests that b. what type of treatment should be used.
her sinus infection is to blame. Anna is anxious and c. which medication would be most effective.
confused as to the cause of her headaches. This is due d. whether the individual also has a medical condition.
to what aspect of her doctors’ diagnoses?
a. Reliability
b. Validity

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
20. Observing appearance and behavior during a mental 27. The initial assessment of the patient in your textbook
status exam named Frank, who was anxious about his job and his
a. is simply done to give the appearance that the clinician marriage, revealed that he
is paying attention. a. had intrusive thoughts.
b. rarely yields useful information. b. was disoriented.
c. can yield clues regarding the presence of certain c. showed inappropriate affect.
disorders. d. had a low intelligence level.
d. may just confuse the diagnostic process.
28. All of the following describe how a psychologist
21. In a mental status exam,a psychologist evaluates an conducts a clinical interview EXCEPT
individual's thought processes by a. attempts to facilitate communication.
a. asking the person to read aloud. b. uses non-threatening ways of seeking information.
b. listening to what the person says. c. keeps patient information confidential in all
c. reading what the person has written circumstances.
d. evaluating the person's dreams. d. applies appropriate listening skills
22. When Abernathy went to a psychologist for the first 29. Even though there is no evidence that this is true, Roger
time, the clinician asked him what the date was, what thinks that someone is following him. Roger is
time it was, what year was it, and where they were. experiencing:
Which category of a mental status exam do these a. delusions of persecution.
questions cover? b. derailment.
a. Thought processes c. psychomotor retardation.
b. Appearance and behavior d. delusions of grandeur.
c. Sensorium
d. Intellectual functioning 30. Javon, who is normally energetic and lively, is walking
23. Determining mood and affect is an important part of the and talking slowly. The therapist thinks that Javon may
mental status exam. Although both of these terms refer be depressed because ______can indicate severe
to feeling states of the individual, it would be correct to depression.
say that affect is more________ than mood. a. psychomotor retardation
a. immediate b. Derailment
b. Severe c. delusions of persecution
c. problematic d. delusions of grandeur
d. stable
31. Maria-Christina tells stories which are disconnected
24. A mental status exam covers all of the following with each other and with reality. A disorganized speech
categories EXCEPT pattern is referred to as:
a. intellectual functioning a. psychomotor retardation.
b. Appearance b. derailment.
c. behavior c. delusions of persecution.
d. physical symptoms d. delusions of grandeur.
25. In regard to a mental status exam, which of the following 32. In a clinical interview, the law regarding "privileged
questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium? communication" does NOT apply if the patient
a. What is today's date? a. threatens self-harm or harm to another person.
b. Where are you? b. relates a history of sexual abuse.
c. Who are you? c. has been mentally ill for more than five years.
d. How old are you? d. is hospitalized in a psychiatric facility.
26. In a mental status exam, it is important to determine if 33. The Anxiety Disorders Interview Schedule for DSM-5
the individual's sensorium is clear and if he/she is (ADIS-5) is an example of a
"oriented times three." This refers to a. personality inventory.
a. person, place, and time. b. semistructured clinical interview.
b. day, month, and year of birth. c. projective test.
c. ability to follow directions. d. behavioral intervention.
d. spatial orientation.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
34. Behavioral assessments are used to formally assess an b. projective test

individual’s thoughts, feelings, and behavior in c. intelligence test
____________. d. behavior rating scale
a. general
b. context 42. Observing one’s own behavior to find patterns is called:
c. the abstract a. antecedent behavior searching.
d. theory b. behavioral introspection.
c. psychoanalysis.
35. Four-year-old Roberto is very aggressive toward his d. self-monitoring
peers, which results in poor peer relationships. A
psychologist has been asked to assess Roberto’s 43. The reactivity phenomenon of self-monitoring
aggressiveness and determine if he needs intervention. procedures has been shown to
The psychologist would probably do what type of a. increase desired behaviors.
assessment? b. decrease undesired behaviors.
a. General c. both increase desired behaviors and decrease
b. Projective undesired behaviors.
c. Cognitive d. neither increase desired behaviors nor decrease
d. Behavioral undesired behaviors.
36. As part of a behavioral assessment, psychologists
sometimes use________________settings when it is not 44. Which of the following is an example of the reactivity
possible to do direct observation in a naturalistic phenomenon?
setting. a. A man joins a weight-loss center, but quits after he
a. imaginary feels he is not getting the desired results.
b. empirical b. After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising
c. analogue in her home and instead walks 2 miles a day by herself.
d. virtual c. A man changes his brand of cigarettes after his father
37. Which of the following people would make a good dies of lung cancer.
candidate for a behavioral assessment? d. On parents' visiting day in a classroom, the children
a. A very verbal adult who often misbehave in class are unusually compliant
b. A young child and well-behaved.
c. A person with a cognitive deficit
d. Both b and c 45. Most of the “psychological tests” in popular magazines
38. The ABCs of observation refer to the ________ are
sequence. a. reliable
a. affect-behavior-cognition b. valid
b. antecedent-behavior-cognition c. for entertainment only
c. antecedent-behavior-consequence d. informative and educational
d. affect-behavior-consequence
39. An operational definition refers to identifying specific 46. Interpreting ambiguous figures on cards is usually
behaviors that are associated with which test
a. abnormal a. MMPI
b. harmful b. MENSA Intelligence test
c. long-standing c. Rorschach inkblot test
d. measurable d. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
40. An observation that involves identifying specific 47. Hannibal is presented with a series of cards that are
behaviors that are observable and measurable is called blots of ink. He is asked to state what he sees on these
a(n) _______________. cards. Hannibal is probably taking a(n)
a. informal observation a. personality inventory.
b. formal observation b. response inventory.
c. unstructured observation c. projective test.
d. self-observation d. intelligence test.
41. A clinician who wished to assess the effects of 48. The projective type of psychological test is based on
treatment over a period of time would be most likely to theory.
do so by repeatedly administering a(n) a. behavioral
a. neuropsychological test battery b. cognitive

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. humanistic b. draw a picture based on a story that is read aloud by

d. psychoanalytic the examiner.
c. write down responses after reading a short story.
49. When an individual describes what he/she sees in the d. tell a story and draw a picture about it.
ambiguous stimuli of the Rorschach test, it is assumed
that the person's________ thoughts are revealed. 55. In regard to projective tests, research has found that
a. unconscious most clinicians
b. conscious a. do not use projective tests
c. preconscious b. have their own ways of administering and scoring the
d. subconscious tests.
e. c. use standardized procedures when administering and
50. A psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the scoring the tests.
unconscious thoughts and feelings of a patient would d. rely on these tests to diagnose psychopathology.
be most likely to use the test.
a. MMPI 56. Which of the following is an accurate statement about
b. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
c. Rorschach inkblot test a. Most psychologists interpret responses to the TAT
d. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery cards in the same way.
b. High inter-rater reliability exists among those
51. The Rorschach test is considered controversial because administering the test.
of all of the following concerns EXCEPT that c. The TAT is used as a diagnostic test because validity
a. for some time there was no standardized way of is high.
administering the test. d. Many clinicians use the TAT to encourage people to
b. There is little or no data regarding its reliability or talk more openly about their lives.
validity.
c. The inkblots have been changed many times since the 57. Which of the following describes a personality
test was developed. inventory?
d. until recently there were no standardized procedures a. Determines the possible contribution of brain damage
for administering the test. to the person's condition
b. Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function
52. Dr. Jiminez is using Exner’s Comprehensive System to c. Involves self-report questionnaires that assess
administer and score the Rorschach inkblot test. This individual traits
specifies all of the following EXCEPT d. Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition
a. how the cards with the inkblots should be presented.
b. exactly what the psychologist administering the test 58. "The questions make sense to the person reading them
should say. and the wording of the questions seems to fit the type
c. the way in which the test taker's responses should be of information desired." In regard to personality
recorded. inventories, which type of validity is defined by the
d. the amount of time allowed for each inkblot card to be preceding statement?
presented a. Predictive
b. Face
53. The comprehensive system for administering and c. Construct
scoring the Rorschach inkblot test was developed d. Analytic
because
a. a lack of standardized procedures affects the way the 59. All of the following statements are TRUE about the MMPI
test taker responds to the questions. EXCEPT that
b. it was discovered that inter-rater reliability had a. there is little room for interpretation.
increased significantly. b. the test is tedious and time-consuming.
c. Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his c. there is a version for adolescents.
test was being given. d. individual responses are examined to determine a
d. the previous scoring system was found to be difficult diagnostic pattern.
and time-consuming.
60. As an assessment measure, the MMPI is considered
54. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) differs from the unique because it is
Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT a. empirically based.
is asked to use his or her imagination to b. theory based
a. tell a complete story about a picture. c. based on the biological model.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. based on the humanistic approach. 68. Personality tests linked through social media are
typically:
61. If you were asked to compare and contrast the MMPI and a. based on scientific evidence
the Rorschach inkblot test, you could say correctly that b. valid
a. responses are interpreted individually in the MMPI. c. reliable
b. the pattern of responses is evaluated in the MMPI. d. just for fun
c. the Rorschach test is more tedious and time-
consuming for the patient to complete. 69. Intelligence Quotients (IQs) were historically measured
d. the Rorschach test more accurately predicts by:
psychopathology a. assessing a child’s reading.
b. observing the child playing with peers.
62. Since the MMPI is , the assessment concept known c. dividing the child’s mental age by their chronological
as reliability is increased. age.
a. often interpreted by computer d. measuring how much the child cried.
b. made up of many scales
c. non-sexist 70. The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a
d. well-researched child's mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ.
This means that the child's score is compared to the
63. The MMPI-2 differs from earlier versions of the MMPI scores of others .
because it a. of the same age
a. is shorter. b. in the same grade
b. was normed on a much more diverse sample. c. who took the test at the same time
c. is less reliable. d. with the same level of intelligence
d. is normed on a much more selective sample.
71. Intelligence tests were originally designed to
64. Heinrich falsifies his answers on the MMPI so that he will a. determine a person’s mental status.
look good. He will probably have a high score on the b. predict academic success.
__________ scale. c. identify potential psychopathology.
a. Cannot Say d. indicate the presence of neurological problems.
b. Lie
c. Paranoia 72. IQ tests measure all of the following abilities EXCEPT
d. Defensiveness a. attention.
b. memory.
65. The MMPI is a notable measurement instrument c. reasoning.
because it d. adaptability.
a. has been shown to be valid with a range of
psychological problems. 73. In regard to IQ tests, which of the following statements
b. relies on subjective interpretations of patterns. is FALSE?
c. is short and easy to administer. a. IQ and intelligence are the same thing.
d. is the oldest test measure developed. b. An IQ test has some validity with respect to predicting
academic success.
66. The MMPI-A, a new version of the Minnesota Multiphasic c. IQ tests measure abilities such as attention, memory,
Personality Inventory, has been developed specifically reasoning, and perception.
for testing ____________. d. Psychologists have different theories about which skills
a. children with ADHD and abilities constitute intelligence
b. children with autism
c. adults 74. The performance scales on the WISC-IV (Weschler
d. adolescents Intelligence Scale for Children) measure all of the
following EXCEPT ____________.
67. The MMPI-2, a more recent version of the personality a. factual knowledge
inventory, has been updated to reflect all of the b. psychomotor abilities
following EXCEPT _____________. c. ability to learn new relationships
a. cultural diversity d. non-verbal reasoning
b. gender equality
c. contemporary issues
d. sexual values

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
75. Which of the following describes a neuropsychological 82. Recent research involving PET scans has shown that
test? patients with Alzheimer's disease have
a. Determines the possible contribution of brain a. increased dopamine reuptake in the occipital lobes.
impairment to the person's condition b. increased serotonin levels in the temporal lobes.
b. Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function c. reduced glucose metabolism in the parietal lobes.
c. Assesses long-standing patterns of behavior d. reduced amino acid production in the frontal lobes.
d. Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition
83. A procedure used to assess brain functioning much like
76. A neuropsychological test measures abilities in all but a PET scan, but less accurate and using a different
which of the following areas? tracer substance, is ___________.
a. Attention and concentration a. SQUID
b. Perceptual abilities b. SPECT
c. Learning and abstraction c. TCM
d. Adaptive personality traits d. JCT
77. Neuropsychological tests are used to assess whether or 84. In addition to MRI, PET, and CT, other brain-imaging
not an individual might . techniques are currently in use or are now being
a. suffer from a dissociative disorder developed. Which of the following is one of these newer
b. have a brain dysfunction neuroimaging techniques?
c. have had a psychotic episode a. EEG
d. be in a depressed state b. TMS
c. SPECT
78. If it were important to determine the exact location of d. EMG
brain impairment, which of the following tests would
most likely be used? 85. Which of the following is a reason why MRIs are used
a. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test less in diagnosis:
b. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery a. they are costly.
c. Gall Phrenological Brain Scan b. they usually require that the participant be closed-in
d. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale and still for a long period of time.
c. both a and b are correct.
79. Although abnormalities in the structure and functioning d. neither a or b are correct.
of the brain can be detected by neuroimaging
techniques, current research is also looking at 86. A primary diagnostic technique for identifying seizure
a. a possible association of these abnormalities with disorders is the .
psychological disorders. a. EEG
b. using brain-imaging techniques as a treatment for b. DOT
psychological disorders. c. GSR
c. preventing psychological disorders with neuroimaging d. ERP
techniques.
d. changing brain functioning from abnormal to normal. 87. When brief periods of EEG patterns are recorded in
response to a specific event, the response is called a(n)
80. When an assessment strategy shows a problem when ____________.
none exists, it is referred to as a . a. evoked potential
a. false negative b. alpha wave
b. false positive c. electrodermal response
c. negative outcome d. artifact
d. forecast error
88. A healthy adult at rest is most likely to show an EEG
pattern characterized by a high level of _____________.
81. The problem with generating a false negative during an a. alpha waves
assessment strategy is that the patient b. delta waves
a. will not receive treatment for an actual disorder. c. critical waves
b. will receive treatment for a disorder they don’t have. d. irregular
c. will be tired of being tested.
d. will be discredited. 89. Sweat gland activity (electrodermal activity) is
measured in order to assess .
a. stress and emotional arousal

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. exhaustion 97. One important advantage of using a classification and

c. brain damage diagnostic system like DSM-5 is that knowing a patient's
d. sexual dysfunction and disorders diagnosis
a. helps the therapist to develop a treatment plan and
90. According to the textbook, assessment of prognosis.
psychophysiological response to emotional stimuli is b. allows patients to fully participate in their own
important in treating all of the following EXCEPT treatment.
_____________. c. permits the insurance company to have access to
a. sexual dysfunctions patients' records.
b. posttraumatic stress disorder d. allows the therapist to see the patient as an individual.
c. hypertension
d. cancer 98. The dimensional approach to classification of mental
disorders differs from the categorical approach because
91. The likely future course of a disorder is called its the dimensional system provides
. a. lists of symptoms that are associated with all of the
a. prognosis forms of psychopathology that are currently believed to
b. diagnosis exist.
c. etiology b. diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific
d. inference symptoms.
c. information that is used to determine the cause and
92. Determining what is unique about an individual’s treatment of the disorder.
personality, cultural background, or circumstances can d. scales that indicate the degree to which patients are
be termed a(n) ________ strategy. experiencing various cognitions, moods, and
a. idiographic behaviors.
b. nomothetic
c. classification 99. The classical categorical approach to diagnosis
d. categorical assumes that each person with a particular disorder will
a. be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder.
93. Identifying which general class of problems to which a b. experience very few of the same symptoms.
presenting problem belongs is known as a(n) ________ c. respond to the same treatments equally.
strategy. d. experience the same symptoms with little or no
a. idiographic variation.
b. nomothetic
c. classification 100. People who are correctly diagnosed with a DSM-5
d. categorical disorder like Major Depressive Episode will
94. The term that describes the names or labels of the a. usually have at least some of the same symptoms as
disorders is . others with the disorder.
a. taxonomy b. always have at least five of the same symptoms as
b. nomenclature others with the disorder.
c. nosology c. typically have very few of the same symptoms as
d. etiology others with the disorder.
d. usually experience all of the same symptoms as
95. When a taxonomic system is applied to a psychological others with the disorder.
problem, it becomes a .
a. diagnosis 101. Several clinicians interview a patient and use a new
b. prognosis diagnostic system to independently provide the same
c. nosology diagnosis. We can say that it appears the new diagnostic
d. nomenclature system is .
a. reliable
b. valid
96. The terms taxonomy and nosology refer to c. both reliable and valid
a. scientific classification. d. neither reliable nor valid
b. the accuracy of a diagnostic system.
c. the reliability of a grouping of clinical symptoms. 102. Quantifying a person’s moods, behaviors, and
d. theoretical ideas that cannot be tested objectively. cognitions on a scale constitutes a(n) ______
understanding of psychopathology.
a. idiographic

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. nomothetic
c. dimensional 109. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
d. prototypical Disorders is a publication of the
a. American Psychological Association.
103. Identifying certain essential characteristics of an entity b. International Association of Psychologists.
while allowing for nonessential variations that don’t c. American Psychiatric Association.
change is considered a(n) approach to d. National Institutes of Mental Health
understanding psychopathology.
a. idiographic 110. An important change in the DSM versions that followed
b. nomothetic DSM-III was
c. dimensional a. the lack of a presumed theoretical cause for each
d. prototypical disorder.
b. a change from a dimensional to a categorical system.
104. A classical categorical approach to diagnosis is c. greater emphasis on validity and less concern for
a. more useful in psychology than in medicine. reliability.
b. more useful in medicine than in psychology. d. the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology.
c. not appropriate in either medicine or psychology.
d. equally useful in medicine and psychology. 111. One of the important changes from DSM-III-R to DSM-IV
reflected our greater understanding of the multiple
105. The dimensional approach to diagnosis is causes and influences on various mental states and
characterized by disorders. This change is
a. quantification of patients' experiences using scales a. less distinction between organically (physically)
measuring several areas such as anxiety or caused and psychologically based disorders in DSM-
depression. IV.
b. lists of symptoms that patients must experience for the b. more distinction between organically (physically)
diagnosis to be assigned. caused and psychologically based disorders in DSM-
c. essential elements that all patients must report for the IV.
diagnosis to be assigned but allowance for specific c. more distinction between neurosis and psychosis in
nonessential variations as well. DSM-IV.
d. a theoretical explanation for the underlying cause of d. less emphasis on the types of treatment that might be
the disorder that is assumed to be shared by all appropriate for each disorder in DSM-IV.
patients experiencing similar symptoms.
112. Which of the following statements best reflects your
106. The crucial test as to whether a diagnostic system has a textbook's overall position on the changes found in
high degree of validity is that it should result in DSM-5?
a. an effective treatment plan. a. The general consensus is that DSM-5 is largely
b. all clinicians reaching the same diagnosis for the unchanged from DSM-IV.
patient. b. DSM-5 represents a massive departure from DSM-IV.
c. the accurate diagnostic label for the patient. c. DSM-5 has enhanced the multiaxial diagnostic system,
d. the same diagnostic label regardless of when the and therefore is better at detecting the difference
patient is evaluated. between different mental disorders.
d. DSM-5 has included over 100 new mental disorders,
107. When a diagnosis tells the clinician what is likely to and thus has increased the likelihood of overdiagnosis.
happen and possibly predict the course of the disorder
and the likely effect of one treatment or another, the
diagnosis has
a. construct validity. 113. Perhaps the biggest change that has been seen with the
b. predictive validity release of DSM-5 is
c. content validity. a. the removal of the multiaxial diagnostic system.
d. none of the above b. the inclusion of a list of FDA-approved psychotropic
medications.
108. The extent to which a disorder would be found among c. the addition of treatment recommendations for the
the patient’s relatives is known as . most commonly diagnosed illnesses.
a. familial sharing d. augmentation of the personality disorders category
b. familial reliability that increases the number of diagnoses from 10 to 15.
c. familial validity
d. familial aggregation

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
114. The addition of ratings in the DSM-5 did not change the Chapter 4 | Research Methods
categories of disorders, but rather provided clinicians
with additional information for ______ assessment, 1. Internal validity is defined as
treatment planning, and treatment monitoring. a. the extent to which the results of a study can be
a. dimensional explained by the dependent variable.
b. nosological b. the degree to which the hypothesis is supported by the
c. prototypical study.
d. idiographic c. the overall quality of the research.
d. the extent to which the results in a study can be
115. One of the most unreliable categories in current explained by the independent variable.
classification is in the area of .
a. schizophrenia 2. External validity refers to the
b. anxiety disorders a. degree that the dependent variable was changed in the
c. mood disorders study.
d. personality disorders b. power of the independent variable to cause a change
in the dependent variable.
116. _____ or diagnosis with more than one disorder at a c. extent to which findings apply to individuals or
time is particularly problematic in DSM-5. situations other than those studied.
a. schizophrenia d. overall quality of the study.
b. multiple personality disorder
c. comorbidity 3. A researcher studies the impact of stress on college
d. none of the above are correct students' exam scores. Whether the results of this
study help us to understand the relationship between
117. Adrianne has suffered from cognitive deficits for her job performance and stress level of real-life
entire life. When she was a child, she was diagnosed as organizational workers is a question of
suffering from "mental retardation." If she was now a. internal validity.
rediagnosed with the DSM-5 and found to have the same b. study confounds.
symptoms, which label would replace her former c. external validity.
diagnosis? d. the original research hypothesis.
a. Intellectual disability
b. Learning disorder 4. Dr. Smith uses a sample of participants in his memory
c. Autism-spectrum disorder study. Any conclusions that can be drawn from the
d. Functional neurological impairment results may be applied to the general population if
there is a high degree of
118. Which section of DSM-5 would include disorders that a. internal reliability.
need further study and would potentially be included in b. external reliability.
future editions of the manual? c. internal validity.
a. Section 1 d. external validity.
b. Section 2
c. Section 3 5. Your friend has trouble making commitments in
d. Section 4 relationships. You believe that this is because her
parents had a bitter divorce when she was young. Your
belief that a child who lives through a bitter parental
divorce will have trouble making commitments in
relationships as an adult would be considered a(n)
.
119. Which of the following conditions that affects women a. hypothesis
has been included in DSM-5 as a mood disorder, after b. independent variable
previously being called "late luteal phase dysphoric c. empirical conclusion
disorder?" d. applied theory
a. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
b. Climacteric Dissatisfaction Disorder 6. A hypothesis is defined as a(n) .
c. Genito-Pelvic Penetration/Pain disorder a. theory
d. Menopause Dyspareunic Disorder b. empirical conclusion
c. research study
d. educated guess

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
7. Of the following, which hypothesis would NOT be d. the environment is manipulated.

appropriate given the concept of testability:
a. Behavior is influenced by the rewards that follow the 14. With regard to research design, all of the following
behavior. statements are true EXCEPT that
b. Children who view aggression are more likely to act in a. independent variables are hypothesized to have an
an aggressive manner. impact on dependent variables.
c. Invisible forces influence our behavior every day. b. independent variables are generally manipulated by
d. Personality traits can be influenced by genetics. the researcher.
c. dependent variables are hypothesized to have an
8. The dependent variable in a research study is the impact on independent variables.
variable that d. dependent variables are generally measured by the
a. is expected to influence or change the variable being researcher.
studied. 15. Any factor in a research study that makes the results
b. is the empirical result of the study uninterpretable is called a(n) .
c. is expected to be changed or influenced in the study. a. independent variable
d. forms the most important component of the hypothesis. b. confound
c. dependent variable
9. The independent variable in a research study is the d. confluence
variable that
a. is expected to be changed or influenced in the study. 16. While studying the impact of nutrition on intelligence,
b. is expected to influence or change the dependent a researcher has one group of rats on a vitamin-rich
variable. diet and the other group eating Big Macs. While
c. is the empirical result of the study. observing the rats run a complicated maze, the
researcher notes that the vitamin enhanced rats' maze
d. forms the most important component of the hypothesis. is more brightly lit than the Big Mac rats' maze. The
10. The independent variable is the ___________ whereas difference in lighting in this study is a(n) _________.
the dependent variable measures ________________. a. confound
a. treatment or intervention; impact of the treatment or b. independent variable
intervention c. dependent variable
b. measurement; explanation d. hypothesis
c. impact of the treatment or intervention; treatment or
intervention 17. Studies that have significant confounds are said to be
d. none of the above are correct low in .
a. external validity
11. Shonda and her company have developed a new drug b. internal validity
to treat Parkinson’s Disease. She conducts a c. fidelity
randomized control trial. Which is most likely the d. empirical validity
independent variable?
a. Whether or not the drug impacts the symptoms of 18. Internal validity is:
Parkinson’s disease a. an educated guess or statement to be supported by the
b. The experimental drug data
c. The number of patients in the trial b. the extent to which the results of the study can be
d. Whether or not the drug cures Parkinson’s patients generalized or applied outside the immediate study
c. the extent to which the results of the study can be
12. A researcher is testing the effects of sunlight on attributed to the independent variable
depression. The dependent variable is independent d. none of the above are correct
variable is
a. sunlight; depression 19. External validity is:
b. depression; sunlight a. an educated guess or statement to be supported by the
c. sunlight; mood data
d. depression; mood b. the extent to which the results of the study can be
generalized or applied outside the immediate study
13. In an experimental study, c. the extent to which the results of the study can be
a. the independent variable is manipulated. attributed to the independent variable
b. the dependent variable is manipulated. d. none of the above are correct
c. both the independent variable and the dependent
variable are manipulated.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
20. If a study of a medication is conducted using only 25- 26. Randomization is used to assign research participants
year-old white males, the results would be limited in to groups in order to
their ______________. a. prevent assembling groups that differ in a way that may
a. generalizability influence the research outcome.
b. internal validity b. make sure that all participants in the study are the
c. concurrent reliability same with respect to the dependent variable when the
d. usefulness study is concluded.
c. make sure that all participants are the same with
21. A researcher separates participants into two groups. respect to the independent variable before the study
Group A receives an active medication, and Group B begins.
receives an empty capsule that looks and feels like the d. prevent any differences in the way the independent
real medication. Group B is the group. variable is manipulated for all research subjects.
a. treatment
b. analog 27. Analog research models
c. control a. are conducted outside of the laboratory.
d. experimental b. generally utilize case studies to maximize similarity to
the phenomenon under study.
22. In a study to investigate the effects of alcohol on c. are correlational.
reflexes, some students were given three bottles of d. create laboratory conditions that are comparable to the
beer and some were given three bottles of nonalcoholic phenomenon under study.
beer, and reaction time was measured. The group that
received the nonalcoholic beer is the ____. 28. A study that uses the controlled conditions of the lab
a. treatment group to replicate the phenomenon under study is called a(n)
b. dependent variable a. analogue model.
c. control group b. longitudinal study.
d. confound c. cross-sectional study.
d. retrospective study.
23. The purpose of randomization is to make sure that
a. each research participant spends an equal amount of 29. Analogue models are useful when:
time in the treatment and control groups. a. there are too many potential confounds outside of the
b. each research participant has an equal chance of laboratory.
being in the treatment or control group. b. there is a need to tightly control for internal validity.
c. everyone in each group is exactly the same on the c. it is not reasonable/practical to study the phenomenon
independent variable. outside of the laboratory.
d. everyone in each group is exactly the same on the d. all of the above are correct
dependent variable.
30. Statistical significance determines whether an
24. The reason that researchers cannot allow participants observed difference between a treatment and control
to decide whether to be in the control or treatment group is likely due to _____________.
group is that this procedure may result in differences a. random assignment
between the treatment and control group participants b. external validity
that c. chance
a. have nothing to do with the independent variable. d. confounds
b. are a direct result of the independent variable.
c. have nothing to do with the dependent variable. 31. In research, the term “clinical significance” refers to
d. are a direct result of the dependent variable. a. whether the effects observed in the study are due to
chance.
25. Matilda designed a study in which she had a treatment b. the external validity of the study.
group and a control group. She then took 100 c. whether the treatment was meaningful for those
participants and flipped a coin with each one to affected.
determine which group they would be in. This d. randomization of the sampling procedure.
assigning of participants is called _____________.
a. randomization
b. generalization 32. A researcher studying the effect of a dietary
c. experimentation supplement on sleep finds that research participants
d. uniformity who take the supplement sleep an average of 7 hours
and 25 minutes per night, while participants who were

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
given a placebo pill with no active ingredients in it

sleep for an average of 7 hours and 20 minutes. These 38. One of the major problems with the case study method
findings are clearly is that it is too easy to make false conclusions based
a. statistically significant. on
b. not clinically significant. a. statistical significance.
c. not valid b. unreliable measures.
d. clinically significant. c. poorly defined dependent variables.
d. coincidence.
33. In research studies, the term "effect size" refers to
a. how much each treated and untreated person in the 39. One advantage of the case study method is that it can:
study changes. a. measure causation.
b. the power of the statistical tests that are used to detect b. study a rare phenomena in-depth.
the impact of the independent variable. c. none of the above are correct.
c. how many subjects are included in a particular study. d. all of the above are correct.
d. the degree of external validity that the study has.
40. Which of the following is most likely to be investigated
34. The patient uniformity myth refers to the tendency to using a case study method:
a. see all study participants as homogenous. a. the effectiveness of a new anxiety drug on alcoholics.
b. see all study participants as heterogeneous. b. whether or not tall people have more friends than short
c. emphasize patient symptoms and uniformity. people.
d. give all patients the same medications. c. whether or not the hippocampus is involved in the
production of language.
35. In well-designed research studies, medications that d. how a very rare physical disability impacts the mental
enhance serotonin functioning have been found to help health of 14-and-a-half year olds living in the American
patients recover from episodes of depression. Given southeast.
the realities of the patient uniformity myth, it would be
a mistake to conclude that 41. Jessie is the first person to contract a new virus by
a. most depressed patients will be helped substantially by drinking unsafe water. How are psychologists most
these medications. likely to study Jessie’s health in the next year?
b. all depressed patients will be helped by these a. Randomized control trial
medications. b. Clinical trial
c. research can help us determine which treatments c. Correlational study
should be used for specific disorders. d. Case study
d. medication can be an appropriate treatment for a
psychological disorder. 42. If you observe that umbrellas cause rain since they
always occur together, you may be confusing
36. Joe is suffering from a severe anxiety disorder. His a. correlation with causation.
psychiatrist prescribes a medication that has been b. confounds with correlations.
found in many research studies to help reduce anxiety. c. independent variable with dependent variable.
Joe takes the medication, but his anxiety level does not d. statistical and clinical effects.
improve at all. Since the anxiety medication did not
work, Joe concludes that his psychiatrist must be 43. The most accurate description of the correlational
wrong and he must be suffering from some other model is
disorder. The problem with Joe's conclusion is that he a. manipulation of an independent variable to measure
is failing to consider the the effects on a dependent variable.
a. patient uniformity myth. b. in-depth examination of many variables associated
b. internal validity of the research studies. with a small number of individuals.
c. lack of clinical significance of many research findings. c. statistical examination of the relationships between
d. external validity of the prior research. variables.
d. statistical examination of the cause of changes in a
37. The type of study that generally does not follow the dependent variable.
scientific method and typically contains many
confounds is the 44. When studying family functioning, it has been
a. case study. observed that marital discord often increases as child
b. correlation model. behavior problems increase in the family. Using the
c. true experiment. correlational model,
d. longitudinal study.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
a. it is possible to determine that marital problems 50. The Surgeon General gathered data that demonstrated
generally cause child behavior problems. the more people smoked, the more likely they were to
b. it is not possible to determine whether marital discord develop lung cancer, heart disease, and other
causes child behavior problems, whether child dangerous illnesses. This data demonstrates
behavior problems cause marital discord, or whether a. that there is a positive correlation between smoking
both may be true. and serious illnesses like lung cancer.
c. it is possible to determine whether marital problems b. that there is a negative correlation between smoking
cause child behavior problems or whether child and serious illnesses like lung cancer.
behavior problems cause marital problems, but it is not c. that smoking causes lung cancer and other serious
possible to determine whether both may be true. illnesses.
d. it is possible to determine whether any or all observed d. there is no relationship between smoking and lung
effects may be causing changes on any of the cancer or other serious illnesses.
variables being studied.
51. It has been demonstrated the amount of time watching
45. As a child's age increases, so does her height. This is violent shows on TV is correlated with aggressiveness
an example of a(n) correlation. in children. However, we cannot say that watching
a. negative violence on TV causes children to be aggressive
b. zero because
c. causal a. we do not know if children watch violent TV shows
d. positive because they are aggressive.
b. we do not know if violent TV shows causes children to
46. The more time one spends exercising, the less one act violent.
generally weighs. The correlation between time on a c. both variables may be related to another factor such as
treadmill each month and overall body weight would violent parents.
represent a(n) correlation. d. all of the above
a. positive
b. zero 52. Epidemiology is the study of
c. negative a. the effectiveness of the correlational model in
d. causal determining cause.
b. research methods.
47. The correlation between the amount of time a college c. various forms of therapy.
student studies and the student's height in inches is d. incidence, distribution, and consequences of a
______. problem in a population.
a. positive
b. negative 53. Epidemiologists study of a particular problem in
c. zero one or more populations.
d. causal a. distribution
b. incidence
48. Every incremental increase in variable A is associated c. consequences
with an exactly equal increase in variable B. The d. all of the above
correlation between these two variables is _____.
a. +1.00 54. Epidemiological researchers such as DeLisi and
b. -1.00 colleagues (2003), who assessed men and women in
c. 0 Manhattan following the terrorist attacks of September
d. causal 11, 2001, generally use the research method called the
a. correlational model
49. When is a correlation negative? b. case study
a. When an incremental increase in one variable c. experiment
produces an incremental decrease in a second d. longitudinal study
variable
b. When the variables are not related
c. When an incremental increase in one variable
produces an incremental increase in the second 55. The basis of an experiment is
variable a. manipulation of a dependent variable.
d. None of the above are correct b. examining the relationship between an independent
and a dependent variable.
c. manipulation of an independent variable.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. in-depth fact gathering regarding many variables. a. placebo control

b. treatment
56. A researcher manipulates an independent variable and c. independent variable
observes the effects on a dependent variable in a(n) d. dependent variable
a. correlational study.
b. analog study. 62. In a double-blind study,
c. experiment. a. participants are not aware of who is in the treatment
d. epidemiological study and control groups, but the researcher providing the
treatment does know.
57. While trying to discover the nature of the relationship b. neither the researcher providing the treatment nor the
between stress and blood pressure, a researcher asks participants are aware of who is in the treatment and
participants to complete a difficult task. The researcher who is in the control group.
monitors the participants' blood pressure, while some c. neither the researcher providing the treatment nor the
are exposed to noisy distractions and others stay in a research participants can ever be made aware of the
quiet environment. This type of research study is a(n) research findings.
______________. d. participants are not aware that they are participating in
a. correlational study a research study
b. experiment
c. analog study 63. It can be important to use a double-blind procedure in
d. placebo control study a research study to prevent the
a. independent variable from influencing the dependent
58. When a control group is used in experimental research, variable.
the members of the control group will be treated b. researcher's expectations from biasing the outcome.
exactly the same as the c. participants' expectations from biasing the
a. treatment group, except that they will be exposed to expectations of the researcher.
the independent variable. d. both b and c.
b. treatment group in every way.
c. control group in any other psychology study. 64. Of the following, researchers use _______ to attempt to
d. treatment group, except that they will not be exposed control for the phenomenon called the "allegiance
to the independent variable effect," which occurs when experimenter bias
influences research outcomes.
59. The purpose of a control group in experimental a. correlation studies
research is to b. double-blind control
a. control for the expectation of some research subjects c. epidemiological studies
that they will improve just because they are in a d. placebo pills
research study.
b. determine whether a treatment or independent variable 65. Which of the following is an example of treatment
actually influenced change in the independent variable. outcome research?
c. determine statistical significance. a. Examining the changes in serotonin levels from taking
d. control the dependent variable. Prozac
b. Determining whether the active ingredients in a
60. Placebos are used in experiments to medication actually have any impact on the function of
a. control for the variability of individuals who tend to the brain
volunteer for research studies. c. Exploring the parts of cognitive-behavioral therapy
b. control for the expectations of some research homework that are most difficult for patients to perform
participants that they will improve just because they d. Examining the impact of Prozac on depression
are in a research study.
c. help determine whether an independent variable
actually causes a statistically significant change in a 66. Which of the following is an example of treatment
dependent variable. process research?
d. make certain that the treatment and control group are a. Examining the impact of Prozac on depression
randomly selected. b. Determining how many therapy sessions it takes for
most anxiety patients to feel better
61. In a typical drug study, some research participants are c. Examining the impact of Prozac on serotonin levels
given an active medication and others are given a d. Determining which treatment reduces patients' anxiety
sugar pill. The subjects given the sugar pill are in the in the fewest number of sessions
______ group.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
67. Single-case experimental designs utilize several parents for a while, the therapist believes that the child
strategies such as to improve their internal validity. is being rewarded for his tantrums in each setting
a. repeated measurement because his teacher, parents, and grandparents
b. process measures generally give him what he wants just to make him stop
c. random assignment yelling. The therapist devises a plan to stop his
d. placebo controls tantrums but first implements the plan at home, then
the following week at school, and finally at the
68. One important difference between a typical case study grandparents' home several weeks later. From a
and the single-case experiment is that the single-case research perspective, this is an example of
experiment attempts to a. withdrawal method
a. increase the number of confounding variables. b. multiple baseline.
b. improve external validity. c. placebo control.
c. improve internal validity. d. external validity.
d. utilize a single strategy to reduce confounds.
75. An advantage of the multiple baseline design in
69. Single-case experimental designs are sometimes evaluating treatments is that
criticized because they tend to a. it enables a clinician to see predictable and orderly
a. always involve a single case. changes related to where and when treatment is used.
b. decrease internal validity. b. it does not require withdrawal of treatment.
c. have lower external validity. c. It resembles the way treatment would naturally be
d. have very poor reliability estimates. implemented.
d. all of the above
70. The single-case experimental design
a. always uses a single case. 76. An important advantage of the multiple baseline design
b. is not concerned with external validity. over the withdrawal design for evaluating treatments is
c. is not concerned with internal validity. that multiple baseline
d. often incorporates several people at once. a. has greater internal validity.
b. has greater external validity.
71. The advantage of using a withdrawal design as part of c. does not require the removal of a potentially helpful
a single-case experiment is that the researcher can treatment.
a. counterbalance the research design with additional d. does not require the artificial intervention of the
measures to improve internal and external validity. researcher.
b. control for the placebo effect.
c. conduct a true double-blind experiment. 77. A phenotype is defined as an individual's
d. determine whether improvements gained with a. hidden characteristics.
treatment are lost when the treatment is withheld. b. observable characteristics.
c. genetic influences.
72. One of the problems of using a withdrawal design as d. unique genetic makeup.
part of a single-case experiment is the
a. difficulty of measuring changes that are associated 78. A genotype is defined as an individual's
with removal of a treatment. a. unique genetic makeup.
b. confounding factor of the placebo effect when the b. recessive genes.
treatment is removed. c. hidden characteristics.
c. ethical issue of removing treatment that appears to be d. observable features and behavior.
helping the patient.
d. impossibility of removing the treatment equally for the
treatment and control subjects. 79. Mary looks nothing like her mother, but Mary's
daughter grows up to look exactly like Mary's mother.
73. Which of the following is NOT a component of In other words, grandmother and granddaughter look
withdrawal designs? alike. The fact that Mary's daughter looks like her
a. Establishing a baseline (Mary's) mother but she herself doesn't is a good
b. Manipulating the independent variable example of the
c. Withdrawing the dependent variable a. difference between genotype and phenotype.
d. Returning to baseline b. influence of environment on genes.
c. fact that we really have no idea of how genes work.
74. A child is having temper tantrums at home, at school, d. diathesis-stress model.
and at his grandparents' house. After working with the

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
80. At this point, we know much more about the _____ of 85. The study of what genes do and how they interact with
psychological disorders than the _____ of the environment to create the symptoms associated
psychological disorders with psychological disorders is called genetics.
a. genotype; phenotype a. molecular
b. phenotype; genotype b. behavior
c. behavioral causes; social influences c. environmental
d. social influences; behavioral causes d. interactive
81. At this point, the human genome project has been 86. One of the major problems of using family studies to
successful in producing determine the genetic components of psychological
a. a complete listing of each human gene and its function. disorders is that family members may have similar
b. little if any success in mapping the structure and disorders due to
location of human genes. a. shared genes.
c. a rough draft of the mapping of all human genes. b. common diet factors.
d. some success in mapping the structure of human c. physical similarities.
genes, but little success in mapping gene locations. d. the fact that they live together.
82. Which of the following patterns is typical for a disorder 87. Adoption studies can be used to study the influence of
that is influenced by genetics? genetic influences on psychopathology
a. Siblings of the person with the disorder are more likely a. without the typical confounding of common biological
to have the disorder than cousins, and cousins are just parents.
as likely to have the disorder as the general public. b. using more sophisticated statistical techniques.
b. Siblings of the person with the disorder will almost c. through direct examination of genetic causes.
always have the same or similar disorders, and d. without the typical confound of siblings raised in the
cousins are more likely than the general public to have same environment.
disorders.
c. Siblings of the person with the disorder are more likely 88. Monozygotic twins allow for unique genetic studies
than cousins to have the disorder, and cousins are because they
more likely to have the disorder than the general a. have identical genes
public. b. always share the same environment.
d. Siblings will almost always have the same or similar c. share approximately 50% of the same genes.
disorders, though cousins may have a similar rate of d. are usually raised in similar ways.
the disorder as the general public.
89. Combining the monozygotic and adoption study
83. While conducting a family study, a researcher methods, researchers often study monozygotic twins
determines that the siblings and parents of the person raised in different families. Using this method,
with a disorder are much more likely than the general similarities in behaviors, traits, and psychological
public to have the disorder, although cousins, uncles, disorders between monozygotic twins raised apart
and grandparents are only moderately more likely to helps researchers determine
have the disorder than the general public. This is an a. the effects of adoption on a child's psychological
example of a disorder with functioning.
a. no genetic component. b. whether it is detrimental to separate twins at birth.
b. a single gene influence. c. whether genes or adoption impact psychopathology.
c. a genetic component. d. the effects of genes.
d. strong environmental and very weak genetic
components. 90. Given what we know about the effects of genes and the
environment, which of the following pairs of children
84. The genetic mechanism that ultimately contributes to would be expected to be most similar in terms of
the underlying problems causing the symptoms and overall personality, psychological disorders, and
difficulties experienced by people with psychological intelligence?
disorders is called . a. Monozygotic twins, one raised in a wealthy family living
a. genotypes in a modern city and the other raised in poverty in a
b. phenotypes developing nation
c. endophenotypes b. Adopted children from different biological families
d. causal types raised in the same home
c. Biological siblings raised in the same house

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. Biological siblings, each adopted immediately after 96. Genetic linkage analysis has not yet provided the types
birth, one raised in Chicago and the other raised in of answers scientists hope for in terms of
New York City understanding the specific genetic causes of
psychopathology. The most likely reason that this type
91. Family, twin, and adoption studies can identify all of the of analysis has not been as promising as hoped is that
following EXCEPT the genetic influences of psychopathology are
a. whether a particular form of psychopathology is a. impossible to understand until the entire human
influenced by genes. genome is sequenced.
b. whether a particular form of psychopathology is b. difficult to understand with the limited statistical models
influenced by the environment. available.
c. identification and location of a gene associated with c. based on more than single gene defects.
psychopathology. d. insignificant in comparison to the power of the
d. approximate degree of influence of genetics for a environment.
specific psychological disorder.
97. An association study of the genetic influences of
92. In family studies, scientists simply examine a psychopathology compares people with and without a
behavioral pattern or emotional trait in the context of specific disorder in terms of
the family. The member with the trait singled out for a. shared environments.
study is called the b. inherited characteristics other than the disorder.
a. sibling c. family history.
b. prototype d. inherited tendencies to behave in a specific manner
c. genetic marker
d. proband 98. A researcher collects data comparing people with and
without a particular disorder. The researcher is
93. If a match is found between the inheritance of a particularly interested in inherited tendencies that are
disorder and a genetic marker, the genes for both are not part of the disorder but that occur with much
probably greater frequency in afflicted people. The researcher is
a. on different chromosomes. conducting a(n)
b. on different ends of the same chromosome. a. genetic linkage analysis.
c. identical. b. association study
d. close together on the same chromosome. c. family study.
d. DNA analysis.
94. The implication of the fact that genetic linkage studies
frequently fail to replicate when subsequent 99. As Van Gogh slowly began developing schizophrenia,
researchers repeat the study in different families is that he painted a series of self-portraits that depicted the
a. the human genome is not well mapped. progression of the disorder over time. This is a good
b. researchers need to be more careful with their example of a(n)
methods. a. negative development strategy.
c. the environment is a more powerful influence on most b. anecdotal study.
forms of complex psychopathology than genetics. c. prospective study
d. it is doubtful that there are single gene causes for d. retrospective study
complex disorders.
100. Positive development strategies involve efforts to
95. A researcher studying a family with a history of blanket
obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) records data for a. an entire family, including all blood relatives to prevent
each person in the family with OCD and for those who later problems.
have been diagnosed with OCD in the past. The b. a large group of unrelated participants who are at risk
researcher is particularly interested in determining if for a disorder to prevent later problems.
family members who now have OCD or who were c. a large group of people to fix existing problems.
previously diagnosed share any other inherited d. entire populations of people to prevent later problems.
characteristics. The researcher is conducting a(n) __.
a. association study 101. Longitudinal and/or cross-sectional research is often
b. chromosome analysis necessary to determine
c. genetic linkage analysis a. how disorders change and progress over a typical
d. family DNA analysis patient's lifetime.
b. the genetic causes of a particular disorder.
c. the environmental causes of a particular disorder.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. if a particular treatment is appropriate for patients 108. One significant limitation of the cross-sectional design
suffering from a specific disorder. is called the "cohort effect." This relates to the fact that
a. experience is confounded with participation in the
102. The two most frequently used methods in prevention study.
research for examining psychopathology across time b. age is confounded with experience.
are c. genetics and experience are confounded.
a. longitudinal and case study. d. reliable statistics cannot be computed for cohort
b. case study and experimental. groups.
c. longitudinal and cross-sectional.
d. experimental and cross-sectional. 109. Age and experience are confounded while using the
cross-sectional design. This means that it cannot be
103. Brown and Finn (1982) found that attitudes regarding determined if
alcohol were somewhat different for 12-year-olds, 15- a. findings for cohort groups are due to their similar
year- olds, and 17-year-olds. All measures were taken experiences or similar age.
during the same year from children of different ages. b. findings are due to the fact that age and life experience
This type of research is an example of the research tend to be correlated.
method called c. differences across groups are due to differences in
a. longitudinal assignment to the treatment conditions.
b. cross-sectional d. differences across groups are due to age, experience,
c. experimental or the experimental manipulation
d. case-study
110. Use of a cross-sectional design would be appropriate
104. A researcher is studying how depression tends to be in trying to find an answer to all of the following
experienced by people of different ages. The questions EXCEPT:
researcher interviews depressed adolescents, young a. How does panic disorder differ in children and adults?
adults, individuals in their 30s and 50s, and those over b. Are the cognitive triggers for panic disorder different in
70 years old. The research design being used is called children and adults?
a. cross-sectional c. What early behaviors did adult panic disorder patients
b. longitudinal tend to display when they were young?
c. experimental d. Does exposure therapy tend to be more or less
d. case-study effective when it is used in the treatment of children
versus adults?
105. A researcher is studying how anxiety tends to be
experienced by people of different ages. The 111. The research design most helpful in determining how
researcher interviews depressed adolescents, young individuals with particular disorders change over time
adults, individuals in their 30s and 50s, and those over is the __________.
70. The individuals in each age group represent a a. longitudinal method
_____. b. cross-sectional design
a. treatment group c. family study
b. control group d. association study
c. longitudinal group
d. cohort 112. One reason that cross-sectional studies are more
common than longitudinal studies is the fact that
106. The confounding of age and experience is referred to a. cross-sectional studies involve large numbers of
as the effect. subjects.
a. cohort b. longitudinal studies involve very sophisticated
b. proband statistical procedures.
c. longitudinal c. cross-sectional studies take many years to complete.
d. participant d. longitudinal studies take many years to complete.
107. In a sequential study and designs are 113. Which research method often suffers from losing
combined. research participants due to high dropout rates or even
a. cross-sectional; longitudinal death?
b. case study; experimental a. Cross-sectional study
c. cross cultural; individual b. Longitudinal study
d. internal; external c. Family study
d. Twin study

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
because the researchers report that they are the first

114. In cross-cultural research, the independent or scientists to find a higher incidence of depression in
treatment variable is generally the . individuals who are taking a particular vitamin—the
a. culture same vitamin that your physician has had you taking
b. disorder for years. While this may be cause for you to
c. method used to treat the disorder investigate further, you probably shouldn't panic
d. success of the treatment because
a. your physician will call you if there is anything to worry
115. One of the most important reasons to conduct cross- about.
cultural research in psychopathology is that b. research like this is rarely accurate.
a. we can gain a better appreciation for the virtues of c. without replication, the finding could just be due to
various cultures by examining how psychopathology is coincidence.
viewed by different cultures. d. unless it was a double-blind experiment, the results are
b. the stigma of psychopathology can be removed by probably in error.
understanding that psychopathology exists in all
cultures. 120. The function of replication in research is to
c. genetic influences of disorders can be best determined a. better define independent and dependent variables.
through careful comparison of the different b. improve the research design.
environmental stressors found in various cultures. c. rule out coincidence.
d. we can understand more about psychopathology by d. enhance the external validity of the study
understanding how culture impacts the experience of
various disorders. 121. The basic components of informed consent are
a. competence, volunteerism, full information, and
116. One of the problems in trying to understand how comprehension.
psychopathology may be "caused" by cultural b. volunteerism and comprehension.
influences is that similarities in the way individuals of c. competence, volunteerism, comprehension, and
a culture experience psychopathology knowledge of results.
a. are confounded by the cross-cultural methods used to d. anonymity, volunteerism, full information, and
study psychopathology. comprehension.
b. may be due to the culture or to common genetic
factors. 122. Your psychology professor is conducting research
c. cannot be understood by those outside of the culture. and desperately needs more participants because the
d. generally do not exist. existing subjects keep running from the building
screaming! She tells the class that everyone must be a
117. Which of the following are potential problems when subject to get a grade in the class and that there are no
conducting cross-cultural research in the area of exceptions. In terms of ethical treatment of research
psychopathology? subjects, her policy would
a. Different cultures may describe or experience similar a. violate the informed consent concept of competence.
psychological sensations in very different ways b. be acceptable as long as her procedures were
b. The level of "abnormality" that is considered presented to the institutional review board.
acceptable may differ greatly across cultures c. be acceptable if she carefully explained the experiment
c. Treatment models developed in one culture may be to each participant and allowed participants to quit if
unacceptable according to another culture's customs they were uncomfortable during the procedure.
and values d. violate the informed consent concept of volunteerism.
d. All of these
123. When conducting research with adults who suffer
118. The most influential research generally utilizes from schizophrenia,
a. multiple well-controlled, double-blind experiments. a. informed consent is not necessary.
b. a combination of well-controlled correlational studies b. informed consent must be given by a mentally
and cross-sectional research. competent family member or guardian.
c. a program of multiple research designs over a period c. it is difficult to meet the requirements of informed
of time. consent.
d. multiple cross-sectional and longitudinal designs over d. it is necessary to have the research procedures
a period of time. approved by the American Psychological Association.
119. A new research study is published and becomes the

"hot story" in the news. This story concerns you

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
124. Which of the following is NOT considered part of Chapter 6 | Sexual Dysfunctions, Paraphilic Disorders and
proper ethical research? Gender Dysphoria
a. Conducting research with many participants so that
none are identified individually 1. All of the following are classified as somatic symptom
b. Obtaining informed consent and related disorders EXCEPT
c. Not coercing the participant to participate a. dissociative identity disorder.
d. Giving the participant full information from which to b. factitious disorder.
make a decision to participate in the research c. conversion disorder.
d. illness anxiety disorder.
125. Which of the following is TRUE with regard to
deception of research participants? 2. The common aspect of all somatic symptom disorders is
a. It is not allowed under any circumstances. a maladaptive or excessive
b. The researcher must tell the participants about the a. belief that a serious medical condition will cause death.
deception after the study. b. belief that one's appearance is ugly.
c. The researcher must obtain approval of the procedure c. response to physical or associated health symptoms.
from a special national review board. d. concern with the meaning of a physical pain.
d. The researcher need only tell the participants about the
deception if not telling them would place the 3. Hippocrates and the Egyptians before him thought that
participants in any harm. hysterical disorders were the result of a .
a. dysfunctional ovary
126. Institutional review boards are typically made up of b. tense vagina
a. animal rights group members and lawyers. c. wandering uterus
b. research participants and their families. d. none of these
c. faculty and community members.
d. administrators and students. 4. In 1859, Pierre Briquet described patients who came to
see him with a seemingly endless list of complaints for
127. According to the APA’s IRB guidelines, participants in which he could find no basis. This was later called:
experiments must be fully informed a. Obsession/compulsion Disorder
a. that they may or may not receive an active treatment. b. Somatic Symptom Disorder
b. that they will not receive active treatment until the c. Dissociative Identity Disorder
research study is over. d. Depression.
c. if they are in the placebo group or the treatment group.
d. only that they are participants in a research study and 5. Your friend Jorge is always complaining that he doesn’t
that they can quit at any time. feel well. He thinks his symptoms are serious, has a high-
level of anxiety about his symptoms, and often Googles his
symptoms. What must be ruled out before Jorge can be
diagnosed for Somatic Symptom Disorder:
128. Experiments designed to test new clinical treatments a. medical attention to ensure that he does not have an
are called clinical . underlying injury.
a. trials b. medical attention to ensure that he does not have an
b. exams underlying illness.
c. functions c. discussion with his doctor about recent and previous
d. expectations substance abuse.
d. all of the above are correct.
6. According to psychological theory, neuroses stem from

a. underlying unconscious conflicts.
b. the clash of conscious and unconscious therapy
c. dream process.
d. identity concepts.
7. Illness anxiety disorder exists when

a. a person is excessively concerned about being sick, even
when only experiencing minor symptoms.
b. real physical illness is exaggerated to the point where the
patient can only focus on the pain.
c. the patient has an unrealistic fear of contacting germs.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. the patient is truly ill but does not trust the medical 15. Although both panic disorder patients and persons with
establishment enough to seek treatment. somatic symptom disorder tend to misinterpret bodily
sensations, patients with panic disorder
8. An essential element of illness anxiety disorder is . a. are having real physical sensations, while the sensations of
a. psychosis those with somatic symptom disorder are "all in their
b. worry heads."
c. depression b. tend to fear immediate catastrophe, while those with somatic
d. dissociation symptom disorder tend to fear long-term illness.
c. are having imagined physical sensations, while those with
9. Joe just ate six chili dogs and drank a liter of soda. If Joe somatic symptom disorder are experiencing
suffers from illness anxiety disorder, he would probably real physical sensations.
interpret any resulting stomach discomfort as d. tend to ignore the symptoms of their first attacks, while those
a. his own fault for eating so much. with somatic symptom disorder tend to seek
b. the result of poor quality food. immediate medical treatment following the first indication of
c. gas pains from overeating. pain.
d. a sign that something is seriously wrong with his stomach.
16. Minor, physical complaints are common among .
10. Panic disorder shares several common characteristics a. young children
with both somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety b. adolescents
disorder. Which of the following is not one of those shared c. the middle aged
features? d. the elderly
a. Age of onset
b. Running in families 17. With regard to a diagnosis of somatic symptom
c. Personality characteristics disorder, women are
d. Manner in which anxiety is expressed a. equally likely as men to be diagnosed.
b. less likely than men to be diagnosed.
11. Illness anxiety disorder was formerly known as: c. more likely than men to be diagnosed.
a. hypochondriasis d. more likely than men to be diagnosed during middle to late
b. OCD adulthood but no more likely than men to be diagnosed
c. schizophrenia during teen years and early adulthood.
d. irreality disorder
18. Disorders such as koro and dhat that are similar to
12. Clients with illness anxiety disorder are likely to somatic symptom disorders demonstrate the
a. avoid doctors. a. influence of culture on psychopathology.
b. avoid unnecessary medical procedures. b. physical basis of many hypochondriacs' complaints.
c. soon reject assurances that they are healthy. c. difficulty of accurately diagnosing hypochondriasis.
d. ignore the long-term process of illness. d. influence of genetics on psychopathology.
13. Since Jane has been diagnosed with illness anxiety 19. Although it's name has changed from DSM-IV to DSM-5,
disorder, we can expect her to see her physician hypochondriasis is essentially an emotional disturbance
a. often and feel completely reassured that there is nothing triggered by
wrong with her health. a. physical pathology.
b. rarely but continue to believe that she is quite ill. b. misinterpretation of normal physical sensations.
c. almost never because she does not trust physicians. c. social concerns.
d. often but continue to be anxious about her health anyway. d. severe or unusual physical sensations.
14. Although Jill feels fine now and believes that she is 20. Studies suggest that patients with somatic symptom
healthy, she still worries endlessly about developing a disorder or illness anxiety disorder are characterized by a
serious illness. Most likely Jill would be diagnosed with tendency to
a. illness anxiety disorder. a. interpret ambiguous stimuli as threatening.
b. conversion disorder. b. minimize physical symptoms.
c. somatization disorder. c. have low sensitivity to perceived illness.
d. body dysmorphic disorder. d. avoid bad news cues.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
21. Paradoxically, an effective treatment for somatic 27. Research suggests that somatic symptom disorder
symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder involves often occurs in families with a strong tendency
helping the patient to focus on toward__________.
a. creating their own symptoms. a. antisocial personality disorder
b. ignoring their own symptoms. b. schizophrenia
c. getting reassurance about their symptoms. c. depression
d. understanding other life stressors. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
22. With regard to the treatment of illness anxiety disorder 28. A possible link between antisocial personality disorder
and somatic symptom disorder, some research supports and somatic symptom disorder is .
the use of __________. a. a lack of impulse control
a. conditioning b. lack of aggression
b. psychoanalysis c. social isolation
c. cognitive-behavioral treatment and stress reduction d. dependence
d. humanistic therapy
29. The hypothesized connections between somatic
23. With regard to the treatment of somatic symptom symptom disorder and antisocial personality disorder are
disorder and illness anxiety disorder, research exploring a. poor modeling by parents and other authority figures.
the use of reassurance in a process called "explanatory b. sibling rivalry and attention deficits.
therapy" showed that c. pleasure seeking and impulsivity.
a. some significant gains were achieved. d. genetic defects and poor nutrition.
b. reassurance did not work for hypochondriacs.
c. reassurance showed some gains but they lasted less than 30. A patient with somatic symptom disorder tends to
several days. generate higher healthcare costs than an average patient
d. the gains were so significant that participants were essentially due to
"cured." a. an extensive medical and physical workup with every visit to
a new physician.
24. The effectiveness of reassurance in treating Illness b. the person's tendency to visit numerous medical specialists.
Anxiety Disorder is a “surprising” because c. both a and b.
a. the efficacy has never been shown empirically. d. neither a or b.
b. family members begin reassuring the patient and then give
up. 31. One method that is used to reduce the financial burden
c. by definition, patients with these disorders are not supposed associated with somatic symptom disorder
to respond to reassurance. is____________.
d. all of the above are true. a. psychoanalysis
b. encouraging patients to speak to family and friends about
25. Which of the following is a reason why physicians do their symptoms
not thoroughly explain illness to people with Illness Anxiety c. exposure therapy
Disorder? d. assignment of a gatekeeper physician
a. Empirical evidence suggests that it makes no difference
b. Lack of time 32. When clinical findings provide evidence of
c. Hypochondriasis is no longer recognized in the DSM incompatibility between the symptom and recognized
d. All of the above are true neurological or medical condition, we say that this is:
a. somatization disorder.
26. In terms of antidepressant medication treatments for b. hypochondriasis.
somatic symptom disorder, the most accurate statement c. conversion disorder.
based on the research so far is d. dissociative disorder.
a. antidepressants are effective but not significantly different
from a placebo condition. 33. Joe injured his back at work several years ago.
b. antidepressants are not effective. Although he was treated and considered healed by his
c. some reports suggest that antidepressants may be effective, physicians, he still complains of severe and debilitating
but placebo-controlled studies have not been back pain. Other than some minor scar tissue, his doctors
performed. can't find anything that could be causing more than some
d. placebo-controlled studies have been performed and the minor stiffness. It appears that Joe might be diagnosed
results suggest that antidepressants work for some with_________________.
hypochondriacs but not for most. a. conversion disorder
b. depersonalization/derealization disorder

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. somatic symptom disorder with predominant pain real physical disorders or a conversion disorder.
d. illness anxiety disorder b. quite apparent when a symptom is due to a real physical
disorder, but it is impossible to determine the difference
34. The disorder that involves physical malfunctioning between a conversion disorder and patient malingering (faking).
without any physical cause is called . c. rather easy to determine the difference between symptoms
a. conversion disorder that the patient fakes, those caused by real physical
b. hypochondriasis disorder, and symptoms caused by conversion disorder.
c. somatization disorder d. very difficult to determine whether the symptoms are due to
d. body dysmorphic disorder malingering (faking), real physical disorders, or
conversion disorder.
35. Tom was in a coma after an automobile accident which
killed his wife. His physical health improved and there is no 41. Which of the following statements is TRUE about
medical reason why he should not be able to move his arms factitious disorders?
and legs. Tom may be suffering from: a. Fortunately, the disorder does not seem to extend to other
a. conversion disorder members of the family.
b. hypochondriasis b. The symptoms are under involuntary control.
c. obsessive/compulsive disorder c. There is no obvious reason for voluntarily producing
d. body dysmorphic disorder symptoms.
d. The symptoms lead to a splintering off of one's identity into
36. George has completely lost his sight during the past several "subpersonalities."
year, but medical experts can find no physical reason for
his blindness. This could be an example of . 42. Samson knows that he has a cold but goes to the movie
a. somatization disorder theatre anyway. When you confront him about being sick,
b. hypochondriasis he replies “misery loves company.” Samson is showing
c. conversion disorder evidence of:
d. dissociative disorder a. Factitious disorder
b. Somatic Symptom Disorder
37. Conversion disorder patients were conceptualized by c. Conversion Disorder
Freud as d. None of the above
a. converting unconscious conflicts into physical symptoms.
b. converting unconscious conflicts into defense mechanisms. 43. Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy is:
c. experiencing physical symptoms as a result of the superego. a. common, particularly with mothers and newborn babies.
d. experiencing internal conflicts as a result of id impulses being b. rare and considered child abuse.
suppressed by the superego. c. usually consistent with the symptoms of OCD.
d. most likely to co-occur when the perpetrator has Factitious
38. Conversion disorder symptoms generally appear . Disorder themselves.
a. randomly
b. following a physical injury to the affected area 44. Factitious disorder imposed on another is often
c. shortly after some marked stress characterized by
d. in children a. deliberate actions directed toward making a child sick.
b. a parent denying that a child has symptoms that have, in fact,
39. Which of the following would be typical for a patient been observed.
suffering from a conversion disorder? c. a parent developing the same symptoms that their child has.
a. Feeling a lump in the throat that interferes with swallowing, d. convincing a child to lie to a doctor about factitious symptoms.
eating, or talking.
b. Ability to see some bright objects when calm but suffering 45. A person who fakes symptoms for a goal is called
complete loss of sight during a stressful period or a___________, while a person who fakes a disease for no
emergency. clear goal has a____________disorder:
c. Great concern with the loss of function and belief that it is a a. malingerer; factitious
symptom of a potentially fatal disease. b. conversion disorder patient; malingering
d. Ability to identify everything in the visual field even though the c. fictitious disorder patient; conversion
patient reports that she is blind. d. hypochondriac; factitious
40. In regard to diagnosing a patient's symptoms as a 46. A mother who repeatedly seeks medical treatment for
conversion disorder, it is her child’s unusual illness and is overly involved in the
a. quite apparent when a patient is malingering (faking), but it is child's treatment might need to be assessed for .
difficult to determine whether symptoms are due to a. factitious disorder imposed on another

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. malingering disorder patients display regarding their symptoms.

c. conversion disorder c. conversion disorder patients actually are quite concerned with
d. illness phobia their symptoms, so Freud's explanation of primary
gain is not supported.
47. A commonly-seen form of factitious disorder imposed d. "la belle indifference" is a myth, thus validating Freud's
on another is a set of conditions that explanation of primary gain.
a. falls somewhere between malingering and conversion
disorders. 53. Your textbook authors describe a treatment plan for
b. falls under voluntary control like malingering. conversion disorder involving
c. is an atypical form of child abuse. a. in-depth exploration of psychological conflicts.
d. is a combination of a somatic symptom disorder and a b. regression to the early psychosexual stages of development.
dissociative disorder. c. application of a strict behavioral program that includes
reinforcement for each display of progress and
48. Catharsis is punishment when necessary.
a. the process of placing a tube into the bladder to release urine. d. reduction of any reinforcing or supportive consequences of
b. a conscious behavioral process. the conversion symptoms.
c. a purging of emotionally traumatic events.
d. none of these 54. In treating conversion disorder, which of the following
statements is true?
49. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a. Clients responded well to cognitive-behavioral therapy.
conversion disorders? b. Clients responded well to hypnosis.
a. The prevalence of conversion disorders is equal in men and c. Clients responded well when hypnosis and cognitive-
women. behavioral therapy were combined.
b. Conversion disorders typically develop in the late 20s or early d. Like somatic symptom disorder, clients do not respond well
30s. to any treatment.
c. Conversion disorders are not uncommon in males at times of
extreme stress. 55. The experience of dissociation occurs in
d. Once conversion disorders disappear, they do not reoccur. a. psychotic disorders only.
ANSWER: c b. individuals with dissociative disorders only.
c. only in those individuals who have experienced great
50. Freud called the reduction in anxiety by converting personal trauma.
unconscious conflicts into physical symptoms d. certain psychological disorders as well as in non-disordered
a. primary narcissism. people at times.
b. secondary narcissism.
c. primary gain. 56. Depersonalization is defined as
d. secondary gain. a. altered perception including loss of the sense of one's own
reality.
51. The modern view of the causes of conversion disorder b. altered perception involving loss of the sense of reality of the
is external world.
a. completely different from Freud's ideas of the etiology of this c. vivid hallucinations.
disorder. d. the feeling that one is no longer a person.
b. somewhat similar to the causes that Freud described for this
disorder. 57. Jason suddenly notices that the world looks weird to
c. a combination of genetic predisposition and neurobiological him. Some objects look bigger than normal and others look
deficits. smaller. Cars passing by seem oddly shaped and people
d. based on social learning theory. appear dead or mechanical. Joe is experiencing________.
a. derealization
52. With regard to Freud's explanation of "la belle b. depersonalization
indifference" (the observation that conversion disorder c. classic early psychosis symptoms
patients are not concerned about their symptoms), d. mania
research conducted by Lader and Sartorius (1968)
suggests that 58. While driving alone in her car, Sarah suddenly looks
a. conversion disorder patients do display "la belle indifference," around and, for a moment, she can't remember where she
but Freud's explanation of primary gain is not is, how she arrived at this point on the road, or even why
supported. she is driving her car. Sarah is
b. Freud's explanation is essentially correct since there is great experiencing_______________.
variability in the amount of concern that conversion a. derealization

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. depersonalization 66. A man who finds himself living in a small town in Alaska
c. the early stages of what will eventually become a severe with no recall of how he got there may have___________.
psychotic disorder a. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue
d. symptoms of a mood disorder b. conversion
c. depersonalization-derealization disorder
59. Individuals with depersonalization show d. dissociative identity disorder
a. decreased emotional responsiveness.
b. increased emotional responsiveness. 67. A distinctive dissociative state that is not found in
c. erratic emotions. Western cultures is .
d. insincere emotions. a. amok
b. exorcism
60. Losing your own sense of reality is called . c. trance
a. depersonalization d. voodoo
b. a fugue state
c. a trance state 68. Dissociative trance disorder is diagnosed
d. a dissociative disorder a. only when the trance is unpredictable in terms of when it
appears (i.e., individual goes into a trance without prior
61. The diagnosis of depersonalization-derealization religious ritual).
disorder is b. only when the trance is undesirable and considered
a. rare and only applied when the experience of pathological in the individual's culture.
depersonalization interferes with normal functioning. c. only when the trance causes harm to the individual or others.
b. rare but applied to anyone who experiences d. whenever an individual repeatedly enters a trance state.
depersonalization.
c. fairly common since many people experience 69. In non-Western cultures, trance and possession are
depersonalization. a. extremely rare.
d. fairly common and applied to anyone who is frightened by an b. never considered a disorder.
experience of depersonalization. c. the most common forms of dissociative disorders.
d. the rarest forms of dissociative disorders.
62. In dissociative amnesia, the individual typically has no
memory of 70. The disorder in which more than one distinct
a. any events. personality exists within one individual was changed from
b. events prior to a trauma. multiple personality disorder to ___________ in the DSM-IV.
c. selective events, particularly those involving trauma. a. dissociative identity disorder
d. events following a trauma, particularly those involving b. dissociative trance disorder
interpersonal issues. c. schizophrenia
d. multiple personality disorder
63. In dissociative fugue, the term fugue relates to .
a. confusion 71. An alter is
b. flight or travel a. a separate identity experienced by someone with dissociative
c. loss of consciousness identity disorder.
d. hallucination b. a new identity created by someone with dissociative fugue.
c. a new identity created by someone with generalized amnesia.
64. Patients diagnosed with dissociative amnesia with a d. a physical symptom with no physical cause experienced by
dissociative fugue someone with somatic symptom disorder.
a. will travel and typically experience memory loss during their
trip. 72. The host identity usually:
b. will travel but do not experience memory loss. a. is the original personality.
c. typically experience memory loss but do not travel. b. is engaged in sexual identity and often sex work.
d. seldom recover any sense of their own identity. c. the personality that most often seeks psychological treatment.
d. none of the above are correct.
65. During a dissociative fugue state, it is not uncommon
for individuals to 73. With regard to dissociative identity disorder, the term
a. commit suicide. "alter" refers to within the individual.
b. see the world as a strange and foreign place. a. the "host" personality
c. take on a new identity. b. a dangerous personality
d. contact friends and family. c. the most recent personality to emerge
d. a different personality

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
74. A switch b. quickly

a. usually occurs instantaneously. c. rarely
b. is the transition from one personality to another. d. only after many warning signs that a change is about to occur
c. may exhibit physical transformations.
d. all of these. 82. With regard to evidence for the scientific validity of
dissociative identity disorder (DID), the most accurate
75. In dissociative identity disorder, the "host" personality statement is
is usually the one that a. most DID patients are faking.
a. is the most aggressive of the personalities. b. research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is
b. asks for treatment and becomes the patient. possible.
c. earns income for the individual. c. it is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur
d. is sexually provocative. in dissociative identity disorder.
d. objective tests can always determine which patients are
76. In dissociative identity disorder, the "host" personality faking dissociative identity disorder.
usually
a. is of a gender opposite to that of the individual. 83. Studies of faking, amnesia, and hypnosis, such as the
b. becomes overwhelmed trying to hold all of the personality one conducted by Spanos (1996), suggest that symptoms
fragments together. of dissociative identity disorder
c. is male. a. cannot be developed through therapist suggestion and
d. is well aware of each personality and everything that happens reinforcement.
while each personality is active. b. are almost always the result of hypnotically inserted (false)
memories.
77. The existence of a cross-gendered alter in dissociative c. can be developed through therapist suggestion and
identity disorder is . reinforcement.
a. common d. are almost never the result of therapist intervention.
b. rare
c. present in every patient 84. Comparisons of optical functioning in the various
d. almost never seen in this disorder personalities of dissociative identity disorder patients
show changes that would be
78. One aspect of the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosis of a. easy to fake.
dissociative identity disorder is . b. absolutely impossible to fake.
a. patient awareness of the distinct personalities c. consistent with an individual who was trying to fake.
b. existence of three or more personality fragments d. difficult to fake.
c. amnesia
d. history of abuse 85. With regard to the studies of DID described in your text
regarding faking, amnesia, and hypnosis, as well as the
79. Vanna, who is 40, apparently believes that she is a 20- studies regarding the physiological changes that occur in
year-old woman. Suddenly, she starts to speak and behave the different personalities, the most accurate statement is
very differently, and says she no longer thinks of herself as a. while DID symptoms can be faked or developed through
"Vanna." Instead, she claims to be Elise, a 10-year-old suggestion, many physiological changes observed
child. It is likely that Vanna has just experienced a . in DID patients would be very difficult to fake.
a. switch b. DID symptoms and the many physiological changes observed
b. dissociative trance disorder in DID patients can be developed through
c. conversion reaction suggestion and are easily faked.
d. schizophrenic moment c. while physiological changes associated with DID are relatively
easy to fake, the symptoms of DID are very
80. In dissociative identity disorder, the transition from one difficult to fake or to develop through suggestion.
personality to another is called a . d. almost all cases of DID are probably faked or developed
a. transformation through therapist suggestion.
b. substitution
c. switch 86. Dissociative identity disorder tends to be associated
d. alteration with .
a. child abuse
81. The process of changing from one personality to b. multiple psychological disorders
another generally occurs ______ in most patients with c. dissociation
dissociative identity disorder. d. all of these
a. slowly

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
87. Which of the following statements is FALSE about 94. Studies examining the incidence of DID in non-clinical
dissociative identity disorder? populations (the population at large or a university
a. Once established, the disorder lasts a lifetime without population) suggest that
treatment. approximately_____________percent of the general
b. For prevalence rates, the ratio of females to males is population suffer from DID.
approximately 9 to 1. a. .001
c. The frequency of switching increases with age. b. .01 to .05
d. The form that the disorder takes does not differ substantially c. 1.5
over the lifespan. d. 5
88. Individuals with dissociative identity disorder generally 95. Sue has DID. It is extremely likely that she also has
a. have only one other distinct personality. a. at least one other psychological disorder.
b. suffer a loss of their own identity that lasts several years. b. a problem with her weight.
c. maintain complete awareness of all of their personalities. c. a history of problems with the law.
d. have several distinct personalities. d. no desire to get better.
89. One distinction that may help determine those with DID 96. One reason that DID can be misdiagnosed as psychosis
from individuals who are malingering (faking their is that
symptoms) is that malingerers are a. auditory hallucinations are common in both disorders.
a. usually eager to demonstrate their symptoms. b. both disorders are in the same DSM-IV category.
b. usually hiding the existence of a major life crisis. c. mental health professionals generally do not believe that
c. more likely to have many alters. dissociation is possible.
d. less likely to seek treatment. d. substance abuse makes it difficult to differentiate these
disorders.
90. The average number of alter personalities observed in
individuals with dissociative identity disorder 97. The common feature in almost every case of DID is
is______________. a. hallucinations and delusions.
a. 1 b. unrelenting substance abuse.
b. 2 c. a history of body dysmorphic disorder.
c. 15 d. a history of severe child abuse.
d. 100
98. The causes of dissociative identity disorder appear to
91. Dissociative identity disorder is most commonly found be
in . a. physical abuse
a. females b. sexual abuse
b. males c. witness to a traumatic event
c. children d. all of these
d. the elderly
92. The average length of time between an individual's first 99. A comparison of dissociative reactions in "normals"
symptoms of DID and the identification and diagnosis of the and in DID patients indicates that the experience of
disorder by a professional is ____________. dissociation is _____________in normal versus DID
a. one year patients.
b. 20 years a. very different
c. less than a month b. very similar
d. seven years c. identical
d. so different as to have no similarities at all
93. Without treatment, it is expected that DID will last 100. Some theorists suggest that dissociative identity
___________________. disorder is an extreme subtype of .
a. 10 years a. dissociative amnesia
b. a lifetime b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. several months c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. 20 years d. antisocial personality disorder

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
101. According to the autohypnotic model, people who are 107. Goodman et al. (2003) interviewed 175 individuals with
suggestible may be documented child abuse histories and found that ______ of
a. able to create false memories to ease their trauma. the subjects remembered and reported the abuse.
b. able to use dissociation as a defense against extreme trauma. a. 25%
c. able to remember the trauma that created the false memories. b. 53%
d. unable to switch at will. c. 81%
d. 100%
102. Which of the following statements is TRUE about DID?
a. DID is easy to fake. 108. The part of the treatment plan for DID that is similar to
b. DID is absolutely impossible to fake. the treatment plan for posttraumatic stress disorder is
c. Dissociative symptoms may be the result of sleep deprivation. a. integration of personality fragments.
d. DID is made up of false memories. b. use of antipsychotic medications.
c. reliving the trauma (catharsis).
103. Studies suggest that false memories are . d. hypnotic regression to early life experiences.
a. difficult to create
b. easily created in children
c. unrelated to suggestions
d. very rare
104. There is now incontrovertible evidence that the

following statement is TRUEwith respect to the accuracy of
recovered memories:
a. False memories can be created, and selective dissociative
amnesia can occur for early traumatic experiences.
b. False memories can be created, but there is no evidence of
selective dissociative amnesia for early traumatic
experiences.
c. False memories cannot be created, and individuals do not
develop selective dissociative amnesia for early
trauma.
d. False memories cannot be created, but there is evidence that
individuals do develop selective dissociative
amnesia for early trauma
105. In studies conducted by Elizabeth Loftus and her

colleagues (Loftus, 2003; Loftus, Coan, and Pickrell, 1996),
individuals were told about false events that had
supposedly occurred when they were children. The results
of this study indicated that
a. people cannot be convinced of events that did not happen.
b. people can become quite convinced of events that never
happened.
c. only individuals with diagnosable disorders can be convinced
of events that never happened.
d. people can become convinced of events that did not happen
only during hypnosis or other dissociative states.
106. While interviewing 129 women with documented

histories of childhood sexual abuse, Willams (1994) found
with extensive questioning that
a. every woman remembered minute details of the abuse.
b. almost none of the women recalled the abuse.
c. 38% of the women did not recall the abuse.
d. 75% of the women did not recall the abuse.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Chapter 7 | Mood Disorders and Suicide b. rapid speech expressing many exciting ideas at once.
c. limited imagination reflected in a slow way of speaking.
1. “Depressive neuroses” were more formalized and named d. repression of all creative ideas.
Mood Disorders beginning in the:
a. 1890s. 9. In comparing the length of untreated depressive
b. 1920s. episodes to untreated manic episodes, which of the
c. 1960s . following is an accurate statement?
d. 1980s. a. Depressive episodes generally last longer.
b. Manic episodes generally last longer.
2. Prior to the DSM-III, conditions that are currently c. Both types of episodes typically last about the same amount
characterized as mood disorders were referred to by of time.
several different names, including all of the following d. This comparison cannot be made because depressive
EXCEPT episodes are always treated.
a. depressive disorders.
b. affective disorders. 10. Which of the following are true about hypomanic
c. psychotic episodes. episodes:
d. depressive neuroses. a. They are generally less severe than manic episodes.
b. They do not cause marked impairment in social functioning.
3. The physical symptoms of a major depressive disorder c. They generally last less than a week.
include d. All of the above are correct.
a. changes in appetite or weight.
b. decreased ability to concentrate. 11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about a hypomanic
c. increased energy. episode?
d. decreased self-esteem a. It is not necessarily problematic.
b. It does contribute to the definition of several mood disorders.
4. One of the symptoms of a mood disorder is called c. It causes marked impairment in social or occupational
anhedonia, which means functioning.
a. a feeling of worthlessness. d. It need only last 4 days.
b. an altered pattern of sleep.
c. indecisiveness. 12. A 35-year-old individual named Manny has recently
d. an inability to engage in pleasurable activities. formulated an elaborate plan to cure AIDS with vitamin
therapy. To provide funding for this cause, he has
5. Mood disorders can range from mild to severe; the most withdrawn all the money from his bank account and
severe type of depression is called purchased thousands of jars of vitamins and small boxes
a. major depressive disorder in which to put them. When he appeared at a hospital
b. dysthymia. emergency room loudly
c. cyclothymia. demanding names of patients with AIDS, he himself was
d. profound depression. hospitalized for psychiatric observation. What is your
diagnosis of Manny?
6. The first episode of major depression is usually time- a. Major depressive episode
limited—often lasting up to — if left untreated. b. Hypomanic episode
a. 3 months c. Manic episode
b. 6 months d. Postpartum psychosis
c. 9 months
d. 1 year 13. Unipolar mania
a. does not exist.
b. is rare.
7. Which of the following is a symptom of a manic mood c. is fairly common.
state? d. is a part of bipolar disorder.
a. Clear, coherent speech
b. Hypoactive behavior 14. During a dysphoric manic episode, the patient
c. Fatigue experiences mania and .
d. Grandiose planning a. schizophrenia
b. confusion
8. When used in connection with mood disorders, "flight of c. anxiety and depression
ideas" means d. anger
a. anxiety about airplane travel.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
15. Dysphoric mania refers to a type of mood disorder in 21. After fun weekends with her friends, Anna-Kate feels
which manic episodes are very down most Mondays. She has trouble focusing on her
a. extremely severe. work. She has recently gained 20 pounds and is often
b. very mild. tearful. What DSM-5 criteria does Anna-Kate NOT meet for
c. accompanied by depression or anxiety. a depression diagnosis:
d. related to a medical condition. a. Significant weight gain/loss.
b. Diminished ability to concentrate.
16. Most individuals who experience a single episode of c. Feeling sad.
major depressive disorder will d. Occurrence most of the day nearly every day.
a. never have another episode.
b. most likely have just one more episode. 22. Milton has been mildly depressed for many years. Just
c. probably have several episodes throughout their lives. recently, however, his depression deepened, and he was
d. later have a manic episode. severely depressed for about three months. His deep
depression then lifted and he was once again mildly
17. Debbie has been diagnosed with major depressive depressed.
disorder, recurrent. She wants to know what to expect in a. Milton will be easier to treat now that the severe depression
the future regarding her condition. You tell her that is resolved.
according to recent research the median lifetime number of b. Milton will quickly respond to treatment and will recover
major depressive episodes is . completely from his depression.
a. 2 to 3 c. Milton will require a longer and more intense course of
b. 4 to 7 treatment to maintain a normal mood state.
c. 8 to 11 D. Milton will require treatment for the rest of his life.
d. 12 to 15
23. Katie has been diagnosed with major depressive
18. Persistent depressive disorder (formerly called disorder. Most recently, she has been lying immobile for
dysthymia) differs from major depressive disorder because long periods. If someone moves one of her arms to a
people diagnosed with dysthymia have symptoms of different position, it just stays there. Katie has stopped
depression that are . speaking and does not appear to hear what is being said to
a. more severe her. What specifier would you apply to her diagnosis of
b. longer-lasting major depressive disorder?
c. episodic a. Chronic
d. temporary b. With catatonic features
c. With atypical presentation
19. Jack has experienced recurrent episodes of major d. Melancholic
depressive episodes. In the intervals between the episodes,
he does not seem to return to "normal." In fact, during 24. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for a
those periods, he has been diagnosed as suffering from manic episode:
persistent depressive disorder. Jack's condition is referred a. inflated self-esteem.
to as . b. more talkative than usual.
a. double depression c. ideas that seem to be racing.
b. bipolar disorder d. ability to concentrate.
c. atypical depression
d. dysfunctional dysthymia 25. Tamara gave birth to a healthy child 4 days ago. Now
she is tearful and having mood swings. Fortunately, these
20. A person who experiences a persistent depressed symptoms disappeared relatively quickly. Tamara was
mood for at least 2 years but is not experiencing major probably suffering from .
depression may have a. major depressive disorder with peripartum onset
a. persistent depressive disorder. b. baby blues
b. cyclothymic disorder. c. persistent depressive disorder
c. bipolar disorder. d. major depressive episode with seasonal onset
d. double depression.
26. A person who eats and sleeps too much is experiencing
a depressive episode with features.
a. atypical
b. melancholic
c. chronic
d. catatonic

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
27. The melancholic specifiers for depressive disorders

include all of the following EXCEPT 34. An effective treatment for SAD is
a. weight loss. a. exposure to bright light shortly after awakening.
b. loss of libido (sex drive). b. exposure to bright light in the evening.
c. sleeping late and hypersomnia. c. exposure to a negative ion generator shortly after awakening.
d. anhedonia. d. exposure to a negative ion generator in the evening.
28. Although catatonic symptoms occur in major 35. Light Therapy for SAD has been shown to provide relief
depressive disorders, they are more frequently associated from depressive symptoms in:
with ______________. a. the first day of exposure.
a. phobias b. the first night of exposure.
b. somatoform disorders c. the first week of exposure.
c. dissociative identity disorder d. Never-light therapy has not been found to be effective in
d. schizophrenia providing relief for SAD.
29. The peripartum onset specifier is used to characterize a 36. According to recent research (Kessler et al., 2003), the
severe manic or depressive episode with psychotic percentage of people aged 18 to 29 that have already
features that occurs in a woman immediately before or after experienced major depression is .
. a. 10%
a. childbirth b. 18%
b. a hysterectomy c. 25%
c. a physical assault d. 40%
d. menopause
37. How many patients with severe cases of depression
30. In rare tragic cases, a mother suffering from major where the episode lasts 5 years or longer can be expected
depression with peripartum onset sometimes to recover?
a. kills her child. a. 4%
b. commits suicide. b. 22%
c. murders other people's children. c. 38%
d. injures the child's father. d. 56%
31. The most usual pattern of a temporal specifier in major 38. The probability that a person will recover from a major
depressive disorder occurs in the late fall and ends with the depressive episode within 1 year approaches 90% in
beginning of spring. This type of depression is known as . _________________.
a. melancholic a. almost all cases
b. recurrent b. mild cases only
c. postpartum c. severe cases only
d. seasonal affective disorder d. double depression only
32. Which of the following statements applies to the 39. Symptoms of severe depression are generally NOT
condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD)? considered a psychological disorder when they are
a. Women with SAD reported more autonomous negative associated with ________________.
thoughts throughout the year than women without a. a grief reaction
SAD. b. a manic episode
b. People with SAD have symptoms of decreased sleep and c. anxiety
decreased appetite. d. thoughts of suicide
c. Depression in vulnerable people might be triggered by
decreased production of the hormone called melatonin. 40. Children who may have been diagnosed with _____ in
d. SAD can be treated with phototherapy, i.e., 2 hours of the past are now typically diagnosed with ______.
exposure to bright light just before going to sleep. a. Bipolar I or II: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
b. OCD: PTSD
33. Morning light is thought to help with seasonal affective c. SAD: Depression
disorder because it d. Anger: SAD
a. produces phase advances of the melatonin rhythm.
b. reverses melatonin release. 41. Which of the following is not true of children diagnosed
c. increases the amount of melatonin released. with Disruptive Dysregulation Mood Disorder?
d. eliminates melatonin release. a. They have chronic irritability.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. They have temper tantrums often. c. depression with mania.

c. They frequently have manic episodes. d. depression with dysthymia.
d. All of the above answers are true.
47. Jane is diagnosed with bipolar II disorder. You can
42. A woman who is extremely depressed a year or so after expect that she will experience
the loss of her spouse might be diagnosed with a. full manic episodes.
___________. b. hypomanic episodes.
a. normal bereavement c. both manic and hypomanic episodes.
b. dysthymia d. neither manic nor hypomanic episodes.
c. major depression
d. complicated grief 48. When manic episodes alternate with depressive
episodes, the disorder most correctly diagnosed would be
43. Although grieving is considered a normal process, it a. bipolar disorder.
does sometimes become a psychological disorder. Which b. major depressive disorder.
of the following cases would NOT be diagnosed as a c. bipolar II disorder
pathological grief reaction? d. cyclothymic disorder
a. Mr. A experienced a death in his family. In addition to
symptoms of depression, he has been having auditory 49. Recent evidence indicates a higher level of ______ in
hallucinations in which he hears other deceased people talking patients with bipolar disorder that was marked by a rapid
to him. cycling pattern compared to those with a non-rapid cycling
b. Miss B. has experienced the death of a close friend. She is pattern.
so depressed that she has no appetite, no energy, a. treatment response
and is suicidal. b. resistance to treatment
c. Mrs. C's dog recently died. Three weeks later, her friends c. medication side effects
suggest that she get another dog "to help her get d. suicide
over the loss." Mrs. C. refuses and says she just isn't ready to
get another dog and besides, it would be 50. Suicide associated with bipolar disorder almost always
impossible to replace her beloved "Toto." occurs during
d. Dr. D's wife died a few months ago. Recently, in addition to a. a manic phase.
his depressive symptoms, he has been having b. depressive episode.
paranoid delusions in which he believes that certain unnamed c. a prodromal period.
individuals are planning to remove his wife's body d. a hypomanic phase.
from the grave.
51. The rapid-cycling specifier refers to an individual with
44. If a friend of yours stops sleeping and suddenly claims bipolar disorder who experiences at least _____ manic
that he is going to go to law school and medical school or depressive episodes in a year.
simultaneously so he can change the world, you might a. 2
suspect he is . b. 4
a. anxious c. 6
b. depressed d. 8
c. manic
d. anhedonic 52. In studies of bipolar patients who experience rapid
cycling, it has been found that from 60% to 90% are
45. Andy is currently completing a chemical formula that he _________.
knows will cure cancer. Shortly before, he had submitted a a. female
book to a publisher and was sure that it would become a b. male
bestseller. For several weeks prior to this, he was c. elderly
bedridden, morose, had no energy, and lacked any d. adolescents
spontaneity. He never left his bed and had to be cared for
by his family. Andy's diagnosis is . 53. At various times, Cynthia, a 20-year-old college student,
a. major depressive disorder has been considered by her family and/or friends to be
b. persistent depressive disorder moody, high-strung, explosive, or hyperactive. She never
c. bipolar I disorder fails to take care of her responsibilities, but the fact that she
d. bipolar II disorder seems to experience mood swings that are outside the
46. Bipolar II disorder consists of norm has been noticed by those around her. Knowing the
a. depression with hypomanic episodes. criteria for mood disorders, you would diagnose Cynthia
b. depression with anxiety. with .

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
a. major depressive disorder d. Adolescents with bipolar disorder may become aggressive,
b. panic disorder impulsive, sexually provocative, and accident- prone.
c. persistent depressive disorder
d. cyclothymic disorder 61. A child raised by depressed parents is likely to
a. struggle with depression as well.
54. When referring to the mood disorders called b. learn how to avoid depression.
cyclothymia and persistent depressive disorder, it would c. be inoculated against depression.
be accurate to say that an individual with cyclothymia d. deny stress symptoms.
probably
a. would be considered "moody." 62. A common characteristic of depression in boys is .
b. cannot function normally at all. a. aggression
c. has more depressive episodes. b. passiveness
d. has full manic episodes. c. shyness
55. The less severe but more chronic version of bipolar d. coping behavior
disorder is called disorder.
a. dysphoric 63. Which of the following is TRUE of depression in the
b. seasonal affective elderly?
c. bipolar III a. Being depressed triples the risk of death in the elderly.
d. cyclothymic b. Suicide rates are the second highest of any age group due to
depression.
56. In about patients, cyclothymic mood swings develop c. The prevalence of depression is almost equal among elderly
into full-blown bipolar disorder. men and women.
a. 25% to 33% d. All of the above
b. 33% to 50%
c. 50% to 66% 64. Being depressed the risk of death in elderly patients
d. 10% to 20% who have had a stroke or heart attack.
a. has no effect
57. Approximately ______ experience major depressive b. doubles
disorder over a lifetime and approximately ______ in the c. triples
last year. d. reduces
a. 11%; 4%
b. 16%; 6% 65. Cross-cultural research indicates that, due at least in
c. 21%; 8% part to appalling social and economic conditions, the
d. 25%; 10% prevalence of major depression is extremely high among .
a. African Americans
58. With regard to the prevalence of mood disorders, which b. Hispanic Americans
of the following has been found consistently? c. Asian Americans
a. Females experience major depressive disorders less d. Native Americans
frequently than males.
b. Men have twice as many mood disorders as women. 66. According to your textbook, researchers have been
c. Bipolar disorders occur equally across the sexes. studying the life histories of American poets to determine
d. Dysthymia occurs equally across the sexes. if there is a relationship between creativity and .
a. anxiety
59. Depression rates in adolescents appear to be b. bipolar disorder
a. increasing. c. dissociation
b. leveling off. d. schizophrenia
c. about the same as adults.
d. decreasing. 67. In research looking at the biological causes of mood
disorders, studies have shown that if one of a set of twins
60. All of the following are accurate statements about the has a mood disorder, the probability that the other twin will
prevalence of mood disorders in children and have a mood disorder is .
adolescents EXCEPT: a. 29%
a. Bipolar disorder in children is often misdiagnosed as attention b. 42%
deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). c. 66%
b. Major depressive disorder in adolescents is largely a female d. 81%
disorder.
c. Rates of attempted suicide decrease during adolescence. 68. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
a. Overwhelming evidence suggests mood disorders are familial b. it is effective but cannot differentiate bipolar disorder from
and reflect an underlying genetic vulnerability. major depression.
b. Studies are now beginning to identify a small group of genes c. it promises to be an effective diagnostic tool in the future.
that may contribute to genetic vulnerability to some d. it is not useful as a diagnostic tool.
types of depression.
c. The genetic contribution to depression falls in the range of 74. Recent research suggests that
approximately 40% for females and 20% for males. a. the suppression of neurogenesis in the hippocampus is due
d. All of the above to the connection between high stress hormones and
depression.
69. Recent research suggests that b. low hippocampal volume may precede and contribute to the
a. social and psychological explanations seem to account for onset of depression
factors that contribute to both anxiety and depression. c. electroconvulsive therapy seems to produce neurogenesis in
b. for mania, the biological vulnerability may not be specific to the hippocampus
that disorder. d. all of the above.
c. the same genetic factors contribute to both anxiety and
depression. 75. One symptom of depression is an increase in sleeping.
d. All of the above What other symptoms related to sleep occur in
depression?
70. Current research into neurotransmitter systems has a. A reduction of slow-wave (deep) sleep
produced the "permissive" hypothesis, which states that b. Less intense REM activity
a. low levels of serotonin are sufficient to explain the etiology of c. Stages of deepest sleep occurring earlier in the sleep cycle
mood disorders. d. Slower onset of REM sleep
b. the norepinephrine system regulates serotonin levels; if
norepinephrine is low, depression will occur. 76. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the sleep
c. when serotonin levels are low, other neurotransmitter of depressed patients?
systems become dysregulated and contribute to mood a. They enter REM sleep quickly.
irregularities. b. They experience intense REM episodes.
d. the absolute levels of neurotransmitters are more significant c. They show delayed slow wave sleep.
in mood regulation than the overall balance of the d. They show advanced slow wave sleep.
various neurotransmitters.
77. Depressive individuals tend to exhibit
71. A friend of yours tells you that he thinks he is mildly a. greater right anterior brain activity.
depressed, but he's not sure. Knowing that you are b. greater left anterior brain activity.
studying abnormal psychology, he asks if there is any kind c. more alpha wave activity.
of laboratory test that could determine whether or not d. less overall brain activity.
someone is depressed. You respond correctly with one of
the following statements: 78. In regard to the relationship between stress and
a. Currently there is no way of diagnosing depression with a depression, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
laboratory test. a. the context of the life event, as well as its meaning to the
b. The dexamethasone suppression test is a biological test for individual, is more important than the nature of the
depression. event itself.
c. The dexamethasone suppression test can only be used to b. an individual's current mood state might distort earlier
diagnose severe cases of depression. memories of stressful life events that precipitated the
d. Cortisol levels are decreased in depression; he could have depression.
his cortisol levels checked by a blood test. c. stressful life events are strongly related to the onset of mood
disorders.
72. In regard to most disorders, serotonin is thought to d. recurrent episodes of depression, but not initial episodes, are
a. function independently of other neurotransmitters. strongly predicted by major life stress.
b. regulate other neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and
dopamine. 79. When individuals who are biologically vulnerable to
c. be unrelated to symptoms. depression place themselves in high-risk stressful
d. none of the above. environments, it is called
a. humoral theory.
73. The best conclusion about the dexamethasone b. the cognitive-behavioral model.
suppression test (DST) for the diagnosis of depression is c. the gene-environment correlation model.
that d. a stress-depression linkage effect.
a. it is accurate.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
80. Stressful events are strongly related to the onset of . b. cognitive

a. depression c. behavioral
b. bipolar disorder d. sociological
c. both
d. neither 87. In Aaron Beck's depressive cognitive triad, individuals
think negatively about all of the following EXCEPT
81. Martin Seligman's theory that people become anxious ________.
and depressed because they believe that they have no a. themselves
control over the stress in their lives is called b. their immediate world
a. the learned helplessness theory. c. their past
b. cognitive-behavioral theory. d. their future
c. humanistic/existential theory.
d. the control theory of depression. 88. For individuals who had not been previously depressed,
research studies indicate that a marital separation or
82. In 1989, Abramson and his colleagues revised divorce resulted in
Seligman's theory of learned helplessness, changing the a. a higher rate of depression in men.
focus from b. a higher rate of depression in women.
specific attributions to as the crucial factor in depression. c. approximately equal rates of depression for males and
a. lack of control females.
b. a sense of hopelessness d. no symptoms of depression in either males or females.
c. repressed anger
d. a feeling of failure 89. Possible reasons for the higher rates of depression
found in women include all of the following EXCEPT
83. A student who has been doing very well in her a. culturally induced dependence and passivity.
psychology class receives a minor critical comment on an b. sense of uncontrollability and helplessness.
essay that she wrote as part of an exam. The student thinks, c. low value placed on intimate relationships.
"This is terrible. I'm probably going to fail the course." This d. self-blame for being depressed.
type of cognitive error in thinking is called .
a. arbitrary inference 90. Possible reasons for the higher rates of depression
b. overgeneralization found in women relate to the disadvantages experienced by
c. splitting women in the United States such as
d. dissociating a. discrimination and poverty.
b. abuse and sexual harassment.
84. Regarding Beck's views on depression, which of the c. both of these
following definitions of cognitive errors and negative d. none of these
schema is NOT correct?
a. In a self-blame schema, depressed individuals feel personally 91. With regard to social support,
responsible for every bad thing that happens. a. having one close friend did not affect depression rates.
b. Arbitrary inference means that a depressed individual b. having social support helped speed recovery from depressive
emphasizes the positive rather than the negative aspects episodes.
of a situation. c. having social support had no effect in China.
c. In a negative self-evaluation schema, depressed individuals d. having social support helped speed recovery from manic
believe that they can never do anything correctly. episodes.
d. Overgeneralization occurs when a small error is magnified to
mean something much more significant. 92. The Integrative Model of Mood Disorders shows that:
a. biological and psychological vulnerabilities partially explain
85. Negative cognitive styles are associated with a disorders.
vulnerability to subsequent depression b. that interpersonal problems are irrelevant to mood disorders.
a. in people in general. c. that social support is irrelevant to mood disorders.
b. in people who have already been depressed. d. that being adopted increases your chances of a mood
c. only in people who are currently depressed. disorder by 25%.
d. only in women. 93. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mania in
86. According to recent research on the development of the Integrative Model of Mood Disorders:
depression, dysfunctional attitudes (a negative outlook) a. feeling powerful.
and hopelessness attributes (explaining things negatively) b. increased risk-taking.
constitute a vulnerability to depression. c. impulsivity.
a. biological d. irritability.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
94. Which of the following factors contribute to the 102. Studies have shown that tricyclics have caused
integrative theory of depression? a. manic episodes in the elderly.
a. Stressful life events b. severe weight loss in adolescents.
b. Stress hormones c. sudden death in some children under 14 years old.
c. Neurotransmitter systems d. all of the above
d. All of these
103. With regard to treatment of mood disorders, which of
95. The following types of medications are all used to treat the following statements is accurate?
depression EXCEPT a. Patients do not recover from episodes of major depression
a. SSRIs. without treatment.
b. mixed reuptake inhibitors. b. Delaying or preventing future episodes of major depression is
c. MAO inhibitors. an important treatment goal.
d. GABA inhibitors. c. After a patient has experienced a major depressive episode
and recovered, treatment can be discontinued.
96. Which of the following is perhaps the best-known and d. Close to 100% of patients with major depressive disorder
widely used SSRI medication? respond to drug treatment.
a. Prozac
b. Valium 104. A goal of treatment for patients who have experienced
c. Hypericum major depressive disorders is delaying or preventing the
d. Thorazine next episode. In which of the following situations would this
goal be LEAST important?
97. The antidepressant medications known as imipramine a. Patients who have recovered from a major depressive
(Tofranil) and amitriptyline (Elavil) are included in the class episode but still have some residual symptoms
of drugs called b. Patients with a past history of chronic depression (dysthymia)
a. SSRIs. c. Patients with a past history of multiple episodes of major
b. tricyclics. depressive disorder
c. MAO inhibitors. d. Patients who have had a single, brief episode of major
d. tranquilizers. depressive disorder and recovered without treatment
98. The class of drugs that blocks the enzyme that breaks 105. All of the following are side effects of lithium therapy
down norepinephrine and serotonin is EXCEPT .
a. SSRIs. a. lowered thyroid functioning
b. tricyclics. b. weight loss
c. MAO inhibitors. c. toxicity
d. tranquilizers. d. lack of energy
99. Which of the following statements is TRUE about 106. All of the following statements about lithium therapy
tricyclics? are true EXCEPT
a. Tricyclics work within 24 hours after they are ingested. a. lithium can act as an antidepressant.
b. They can be accompanied by very unpleasant side effects. b. lithium can act as a mood stabilizer.
c. Tricyclics block the reuptake of acetylcholine. c. dosage must be carefully regulated to prevent toxicity.
d. Weight loss is a side effect of taking a tricyclic. d. the side effects of lithium are less serious than those of other
antidepressants.
100. Side effects of the tricyclic antidepressants include .
a. weight loss 107. A relative of yours has been diagnosed with bipolar
b. excessive urination disorder. Your family is impressed when you mention that
c. sexual dysfunction the preferred drug for this condition is .
d. diarrhea a. Prozac
b. St. John's Wort
101. Clinical studies have shown that the response rate for c. an anticonvulsant
patients receiving at least some relief from depressive d. lithium
symptoms are approximately --.
a. 25% 108. All of the following statements about lithium therapy
b. 50% are true EXCEPT
c. 75% a. for those patients who respond to lithium, approximately 70%
d. 100% will relapse.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. for anyone with recurrent manic episodes, maintenance on

lithium is recommended to prevent relapse. 114. Recent research suggests that an equally effective
c. once a person is symptom-free for 6 months, he/she may stop alternative to some antidepressant medications that
taking lithium. appears to alter electrical activity in the brain may be
d. people stop taking lithium to regain the euphoric feeling that a. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS).
mania produces. b. electrocranial stimulation (ECS).
c. magnetic resonance stimulation (MRS).
109. One of the problems encountered by psychiatrists who d. positron cranial stimulation (PCS).
prescribe medication for patients with bipolar disorder is
that patients often 115. Interpersonal psychotherapy deals with all of the
a. stop taking the medication in order to bring on a depressive following interpersonal problems EXCEPT
state. a. environmental interactions.
b. stop taking the medication in order to bring on a manic state. b. acquiring new relationships.
c. overdose on the medication during a severe manic state. c. identification and correction of deficits in social skills.
d. become addicted to the medications during a severe manic d. interpersonal role disputes.
state.
116. Prevention of mood disorders in children and
adolescents include all of the following EXCEPT
110. The antidepressant medication lithium is also referred a. universal programs.
to as a mood stabilizer because it b. selected interventions.
a. increases the availability of both dopamine and c. indicated interventions.
norepinephrine in the brain. d. milieu interventions.
b. is less toxic than the SSRI medications.
c. helps to prevent manic episodes. 117. Which of the following statements about suicide is
d. increases thyroid functioning, which results in improved mood correct?
stabilization. a. The suicide rate is high among African Americans but low
among Native Americans.
111. Although electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has been a b. The suicide rate among adolescents in the U.S. is decreasing.
controversial issue for decades, it is an effective treatment c. For teenagers, suicide is the third leading cause of death after
for depression especially when auto accidents and homicide.
a. patients cannot afford antidepressant medication. d. Females are more likely than males to die from suicide.
b. patient response to antidepressant medication is poor.
c. symptoms of depression are mild. 118. Research has found that low serotonin levels may be
d. a manic-depressive patient is currently experiencing a manic implicated in suicidal behavior because they affect all of the
episode. following EXCEPT .
a. impulsivity
112. All of the following statements are true about ECT b. instability
EXCEPT c. agnosia
a. electric shock is administered directly to the brain for less than d. overreactivity
a second. ANSWER: c
b. patient response to antidepressant medication is poor.
c. for severely depressed patients with psychotic features, 119. With regard to the relationship between mood
approximately 25% of those not responding to disorders and suicide, which of the following statements
medication will benefit. reflects the current thinking on this issue?
d. ECT treatments are administered every other day for a total a. Suicide is often associated with psychological disorders,
of 6 to 10 treatments. especially depression.
b. All people who attempt suicide have mood disorders.
c. A small percentage of adolescent suicides are an expression
113. All of the following statements are accurate about of severe depression.
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) EXCEPT d. Suicide is generally a response to some disappointment in
a. relief of symptoms can occur within a week or two with ECT. people who are otherwise psychologically healthy.
b. ECT treatment should be followed up with medication.
c. short-term memory loss can be a side effect of treatment with 120. Statistics on suicide indicate that approximately one-
ECT. quarter to one-half of all suicides are associated
d. psychotically depressed patients should be treated with with _____________.
ongoing medication, not ECT, even when response to a. alcohol use
those drugs is poor. b. guns

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. aggression Chapter 8 | Eating and Sleep Wake Disorders

d. work stress
1. The chief motivating factor in both anorexia nervosa and
121. Although glorifying and romanticizing suicide in the bulimia nervosa is
media contributes to copycat suicides, it is more likely that a. desire to purge.
the person copying the suicide is b. an overwhelming drive to eat.
a. just doing it for attention. c. an overwhelming urge to be thin.
b. vulnerable due to an existing psychological disorder. d. a desire to starve oneself.
c. not really serious about the suicide attempt.
d. trying to impress others. 2. Eating Disorders are common in:
a. Western countries
122. Impulsive suicidal behavior is often a symptom of b. Sub-Saharan Africa
personality disorder. c. people who have Bipolar Disorder
a. schizoid d. Basketball players
b. borderline
c. obsessive-compulsive 3. When individuals with anorexia nervosa are evaluated
d. Paranoid over long periods of time, it has been found that the
percentage of individuals who die as a result of their
123. Which of the following statements is accurate disorder is .
regarding the relationship between anxiety and a. 20%
depression? b. 5%
a. Many depressed patients are or have been anxious and many c. 2%
anxious patients are or have been depressed. d. 40%
b. Cognitive content (thinking) is more negative in anxious
patients than in those with depression. 4. Approximately of anorexia nervosa deaths are due to
c. A core symptom of anxiety is the inability to experience suicide.
pleasure. a. 5 to 10%
d. Anxiety is often preceded by an episode of major depression. b. 10 to 15%
c. 20 to 30%
d. 40 to 45%
5. The death rate (including suicide) due to anorexia

nervosa is
a. higher than for any other psychological disorder except
depression.
b. lower than that of most psychological disorders.
c. higher than that any psychological disorder reviewed in your
text.
d. the highest of all of the psychological disorders.
6. Obesity is not classified as a disorder in the DSM-5

because
a. very few Americans suffer from it.
b. many Americans suffer from it, therefore it is not a “disorder.
c. it is related to too many other health concerns.
d. none of the answers are correct.
7. Between 1960 and 1995, most Western countries

experienced a dramatic
a. decrease in the incidence of anorexia nervosa and bulimia
nervosa.
b. increase in the incidence of anorexia nervosa and bulimia
nervosa.
c. increase in the incidence of anorexia nervosa but a decrease
in the incidence of bulimia nervosa.
d. increase in the incidence of bulimia nervosa and no change
in the rate of anorexia nervosa.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
8. The strongest contributions to etiology of eating a. belief that her weight and body shape influence her
disorders seem to be . popularity.
a. genetic b. belief that her boyfriend cares less about the relationship than
b. psychological she does.
c. somatogenic c. successful family.
d. sociocultural d. competitive nature.
9. Jody sometimes eats more than just about any other girl 15. The most serious medical consequence of bulimia
that you know. You wonder if her eating sometimes could nervosa is potential .
be considered bingeing. In order to determine this, you a. electrolyte imbalance
would have to know b. salivary gland damage
a. the caloric intake of the foods. c. starvation
b. whether she is eating junk foods. d. tooth erosion
c. whether eating gets to be out of her control.
d. the situations under which she eats a great deal. 16. Individuals with bulimia nervosa are typically
a. within 10% of their "normal" weight.
10. The most significant feature of bulimia nervosa is . b. very overweight.
a. purging c. very underweight.
b. overeating d. overweight during the development of the disorder but
c. overeating followed by an urge to vomit become underweight as the disorder progresses.
d. binge eating followed by compensatory behavior
17. People with bulimia nervosa often present with
11. Purging techniques are ______ for bulimia nervosa. additional psychological disorders, particularly
a. common and necessary for diagnosis ________ and _________.
b. common but not necessary for diagnosis a. body dysmorphic disorder; substance disorders
c. not as common as laxative use b. mood disorders; sexual disorders
d. none of the above are correct c. anxiety disorders; mood disorders
d. obsessive compulsive disorder; sexual disorders
12. Susan, a woman of relatively normal weight, sometimes
eats huge quantities of junk food with no ability to stop 18. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
herself. She follows this with long periods of complete a. Eating disorders are a way of expressing depression.
fasting. Based on this information, Susan b. Eating disorders have a high comorbidity with stress
a. might be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. disorders.
b. should be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. c. Depression may be a reaction to bulimia nervosa.
c. will not be diagnosed with any disorder because she is of d. Around 20 to 40% of all people with bulimia nervosa meet the
normal weight. criteria for a mood disorder during the course of
d. cannot be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa because she is not their eating disorder.
purging.
19. Research suggests that the restricting and
13. After engaging in an extended session of binge eating, bingeing/purging subtypes of anorexia nervosa
Thomas goes to the bathroom and makes himself vomit. He a. are really different disorders.
thinks that he has removed all of the food he consumed b. have completely different causes.
from his stomach, but in fact he will only have removed c. show few differences in severity of symptoms.
around percent of the calories he consumed. d. are useless distinctions of the same disorder.
a. one-third
b. one-quarter 20. Which of the following diagnoses would require the
c. one-half noticeable loss of weight?
d. two-thirds a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
14. Amy is a young woman who is very competitive and c. Binge-eating disorder
comes from a high-achieving, wealthy family. She is very d. Body dysmorphic disorder
social and likes the fact that she is quite popular. She
believes that her popularity is dependent on the weight and 21. A common medical complication found in both bulimia
shape of her body. Amy has a boyfriend but worries that nervosa and anorexia nervosa is .
she may care more about their relationship than he does. a. brittle hair
The feature that puts Amy most at risk for an eating b. downy hair on limbs
disorder such as bulimia nervosa is her c. electrolyte imbalance

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. cessation of menstrual cycle disorders do not exist.

c. anorexia nervosa, but not bulimia nervosa, has been
22. The most common reason that anorexic individuals observed in some students who were raised in countries
generally do not seek treatment on their own is that they where these disorders do not exist.
a. are ashamed of their disorder. d. bulimia nervosa, but not anorexia nervosa, has been
b. fear that they will be hospitalized. observed in some students who were raised in countries
c. do not truly believe that they are too thin. where these disorders do not exist.
d. have little desire for food.
29. Which of the following is not a symptom of anorexia
23. Individuals who experience loss of control of their nervosa?
eating and consume great quantities of food but do not a. Eating minimal amounts of food
engage in any attempts to compensate for their binge b. Vigorous exercise to offset food intake
would be diagnosed with c. Eating large quantities of food at one time
a. bulimia nervosa. d. Overwhelming desire to be thin
b. binge-eating disorder.
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 30. One American study (Mann, Tomiyama, & Ward, 2015)
d. anorexia nervosa. showed that over ______ people are dieting at any one time.
a. 10,000
24. The best evidence that binge-eating disorder (BED) may b. 250,000
not just be a special case of bulimia nervosa is that c. 1 million
a. more males than females suffer from BED. d. over 100 million
b. no genetic component has been identified for BED.
c. there is a greater likelihood of remission and a better 31. A recent study (Stokes & Preston, 2015), suggests that
response to treatment for BED. obesity:
d. the average age of onset is much younger for BED than it is a. is less problematic than previously thought.
for bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa. b. is less common than previously thought.
c. is more dangerous to other health outcomes than previously
25. Binge-eating disorder is characterized by . thought.
a. laxative use d. is related to hormones.
b. purging
c. a lack of compensatory behaviors 32. Which of the following is NOT true about dieting:
d. emaciation a. is less problematic than previously thought.
b. 55% of girls are dieting at age 12.
26. The males most likely to develop an eating disorder c. dieting increases between adolescence and young adulthood.
such as bulimia nervosa are those who are . d. it can lead to an eating disorder.
a. overweight
b. depressed 33. Studies have found that adolescent girls of which
c. homosexual race/ethnicity had less body dissatisfaction, fewer weight
d. only children concerns, and a more positive body image when compared
to Caucasian adolescent girls?
27. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. African Americans
a. Anorexia nervosa typically occurs at a much earlier age than b. Hispanics
bulimia nervosa. c. Native Americans
b. Once bulimia nervosa develops, it tends to be chronic if d. Asians
untreated.
c. Bulimic individuals eventually shift to symptoms of other 34. Which of the following might help to explain the vast
eating disorders. differences in the incidence of eating disorders among men
d. Bulimia nervosa is more resistant to treatment than anorexia and women?
nervosa. a. The influence of behavioral genetics
b. The fact that boys are encouraged to play sports and girls to
28. Studies of foreign-born students who are attending be active in social functions
Western universities show that c. The fact that puberty brings boys' bodies closer to the societal
a. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa do not occur in ideal and girls' bodies further from the societal
students who were raised in countries where these ideal
disorders do not exist. d. The differences in the way boys and girls tend to gain weight
b. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are observed in some from overeating
students who were raised in countries where these

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
35. The median age of onset for all eating disorders is years 42. When women are asked to identify the most attractive
of age. female body weight, they typically identify a weight that is
a. 13 to 19 a. lower than the weight identified by men.
b. 18 to 21 b. the same as the weight identified by men.
c. 20 to 26 c. higher than the weight identified by men.
d. 10 to 14 d. 20% lower than their own body weight.
36. The overwhelming majority of people with anorexia are 43. When men are asked to identify the ideal male body,
____ of their normal weight. they typically select a body weight that is about
a. 1% a. equal to their own.
b. 5% b. 28 pounds more muscular than their own.
c. 10% c. equal to the average male of their age.
d. 25% d. 15 pounds lighter than their own.
37. The increase in the incidence of eating disorders such 44. Which of the teenage girls described below is at
as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa has been referred greatest risk for developing an eating disorder?
to as a "collision between our culture and our physiology." a. Alice is currently on a diet; her friends also diet aggressively.
The most accurate interpretation of this statement is that b. Sue is of average to slightly above average weight but wants
a. people have become too dependent on media determinations to lose a few pounds.
of beauty. c. Megan's friends are concerned about the weight she has lost
b. media standards of beauty are increasingly unattainable for since she began working out with the swim team.
the average woman. d. Jean has always been fairly thin despite the fact that she eats
c. dieting has become a fad that has been taken to an extreme. quite normally
d. society has no business telling us how to define beauty.
45. Weight reduction efforts by girls tend to result in .
38. Dana eats a large Sunday meal with her family every a. overall weight loss
week. She generally vomits after. In fact, Dana follows her b. overall weight gain
caloric consumption carefully and makes herself vomit c. no change in weight
anytime that she eats more than 2000 calories in one meal. d. stunted growth
Which of the following best explains why Dana vomits:
a. Vomiting relieves anxiety about overeating. 46. The families of anorexia nervosa patients are typically
b. Dana does not “feel” anything and is vomiting to feel more characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
alive. a. open communication.
c. Dana is bipolar. b. high achievement.
d. None of the answers are correct. c. perfectionism.
d. concern with external appearances.
39. Which of the following is NOT true about the
relationships between the media and attitudes about body 47. Of the following, the group in which we would expect to
shape? see the highest incidence of anorexia nervosa is
a. Prime-time situation comedies often feature women dieting or a. male homosexuals.
complaining about their weight. b. female body builders.
b. Most magazine models are thinner than average women. c. ballet dancers.
c. Men on TV are more likely to be overweight than women. d. female track stars.
d. The media has no impact on body image.
48. Dietary restraint studies suggest that people who are
40. Mothers of girls with anorexia nervosa tend to be . starved
a. perfectionistic a. stop caring about food.
b. dieting themselves b. may become preoccupied with food and eating.
c. less satisfied with their families c. lose interest in food over time.
d. all of the above d. gradually adjust to starvation diets.
49. Which of the following young women appears to be at
41. Studies suggest that young males would often prefer to the highest risk for developing an eating disorder?
be than they are. a. Linda, whose mom and dad recently divorced
a. thinner b. Carla, whose family members always seem to be fighting with
b. heavier each other
c. taller c. Sandy, whose family emphasizes achievement, support, and
d. shorter communication

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. Bonnie, whose family is perfectionistic, successful, and eager d. Anti-psychotic medications have been found to be effective
to maintain harmony for the treatment of anorexia nervosa.
50. With regard to the biological influences of anorexia 56. With regard to drug treatments for bulimia nervosa
nervosa and bulimia nervosa, the most accurate statement patients, which of the following statements is TRUE?
is a. Medications have not been found to be effective for the
a. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are culturally treatment of bulimia nervosa.
determined and not biologically influenced. b. Antidepressants have some effectiveness in the treatment of
b. the biological influences of anorexia nervosa and bulimia bulimia nervosa.
nervosa have not been studied. c. Benzodiazipine medications have some effectiveness in the
c. although the studies are still limited, there appears to be some treatment of bulimia nervosa.
biological influence in the development of anorexia d. Anti-psychotic medications have been found to be effective
nervosa and bulimia nervosa. for the treatment of bulimia nervosa.
d. although the studies are limited, there does appear to be a
large biological influence for anorexia nervosa and a 57. One major problem with the use of medication in the
very small biological influence for bulimia nervosa. treatment of bulimia nervosa is that
a. well-controlled studies have not found medication more
51. Genetic influences on eating disorders most likely effective than a placebo.
involve b. the beneficial effects of the medication may be short-term.
a. a specific gene for each actual eating disorder. c. side effects make most patients discontinue the medication.
b. inherited personality traits that may make development of an d. patients refuse to take their medication.
eating disorder more likely.
c. multiple genes interacting in ways not yet determined that 58. With regard to treatment for eating disorders, Prozac is
directly produce eating disordered behavior. considered to be an effective treatment in the long term for
d. recessive genes. a. anorexia nervosa but not bulimia nervosa.
b. bulimia nervosa but not anorexia nervosa.
52. Which of the following statements is TRUE about c. both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.
individuals with an eating disorder? d. neither anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa.
a. They have a diminished sense of personal control.
b. They may manifest as strikingly low self-esteem. 59. An early stage of Phoebe's cognitive-behavioral
c. They display more perfectionistic attitudes. treatment for bulimia nervosa will likely involve
d. All of these statements tend to be accurate. a. antidepressant medication.
b. family therapy.
53. With respect to eating disorders, drug treatments c. small, frequent meals.
a. have not been found to be effective in the treatment of d. in-patient treatment.
anorexia nervosa.
b. had no benefit in preventing relapse in patients with anorexia 60. An important aspect of the cognitive-behavioral
nervosa. approach to the treatment of bulimia nervosa involves
c. do not have long-lasting effects on bulimia nervosa. a. changing patients' dysfunctional thoughts regarding their
d. all of these. weight and previous weight control strategies.
b. helping the patient's family learn new ways of interacting with
54. According to your textbook, which of the following each other and with the patient.
treatments is considered MOST effective for bulimia in c. changing the type and frequency of reinforcement associated
adults: with being an identified patient.
a. IPT d. making sure that the patient has a lot of quiet time where she
b. CBT-E can be alone.
c. Family therapy
d. Guided self-help 61. A comparison of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
and interpersonal therapy (IPT) for the treatment of bulimia
55. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard nervosa indicates that one year after treatment
to drug treatments for patients with anorexia nervosa? a. CBT was superior to IPT.
a. Medications have not generally been found to be effective for b. IPT was superior to CBT.
the treatment of anorexia nervosa. c. CBT and IPT had equivalent rates of helping clients improve.
b. Antidepressants have some effectiveness in the treatment of d. neither therapy was successful at helping clients improve.
anorexia nervosa.
c. Anti-anxiety medications have some effectiveness in the
treatment of anorexia nervosa.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
62. One intriguing result from the studies comparing point where her weight is in the average range for a woman
cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and interpersonal of her height. The fact that she gained weight fairly
therapy (IPT) for bulimia nervosa is the finding that quickly in treatment means
a. IPT is more effective in the short term but CBT is more a. her prognosis for a full recovery is very good.
effective when we look at how well patients are doing b. she is probably in need of little if any more treatment.
one year following treatment. c. she has completed the most difficult part of her treatment.
b. IPT and CBT appear to be indistinguishable in terms of their d. little in terms of how likely she is to be successful in the long
effectiveness in the short and long term, despite term.
their very different approaches.
c. IPT is always more effective than CBT. 68. Many clinicians suggest that the most difficult part of
d. CBT is more effective in the short term, but IPT patients "catch treatment for anorexia nervosa, and the part of treatment
up" and will do as well as CBT patients one where many anorexic individuals are not successful, is
year after treatment. a. initial weight gain.
b. admitting that there is a problem and agreeing to begin
63. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard treatment.
to the treatment of binge-eating disorder? c. changing their attitudes regarding body shape and addressing
a. Cognitive-behavioral therapy and self-help appear to be interpersonal disruptions in their lives.
effective. d. when they become bulimic.
b. Cognitive-behavioral therapy appears to be effective but self-
help does not. 69. Matilda has had anorexia nervosa for several years. She
c. Neither cognitive-behavioral nor self-help appears to be started losing weight because her family said she needed
effective. to lose a few pounds. A crucial part of treatment for Matilda
d. Antidepressant medication is the only proven treatment. is family therapy that focuses on the issues regarding
a. attitudes toward body shape and image distortions.
64. Research reported in your text conducted by Grilo, b. negative communications in the family regarding food and
Masheb, & Wilson (2006) found that patients with binge- eating.
eating disorder who responded rapidly to cognitive- c. dysfunctional communication in the family regarding food and
behavioral therapy (by the fourth week) tended to eating.
a. have good responses to therapy both in the short long term. d. all of these.
b. have good short-term responses but show higher rates of
long-term relapse 70. Outcome research regarding the long-term success of
c. have a difficult time in the short-term but show good long-term treatment for eating disorders indicates that
responses. a. anorexia nervosa patients tend to have a better prognosis
d. relapse almost immediately after treatment was discontinued. than bulimia nervosa patients.
b. bulimia nervosa patients tend to have a better prognosis than
65. Studies of the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral anorexia nervosa patients.
treatment for bulimia nervosa have demonstrated c. both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa patients almost
a. significant short-term gains in reduction of purging, but little always make a full and long-term recovery after
change in binge-eating behavior. treatment.
b. significant short-term gains in reduction of binge eating but no d. neither anorexia nervosa nor bulimia nervosa patients tend to
long-term gains. make long-term recoveries, with most patients
c. a few short-term gains in reduction of binge eating and going through repeated bouts of these disorders throughout
purging but no long-term gains. their lives.
d. significant short- and long-term gains in reduction of binge
eating and purging. 71. Programs that have the best chance of success for
preventing eating disorders
66. The most important and immediate goal in the treatment a. should be administered to all girls under 15 years of age to
of a patient with anorexia nervosa is prevent the disorder from developing.
________________. b. should be administered to girls under 15 years of age who are
a. family acceptance of the problem concerned about being overweight.
b. weight gain c. should be administered to all girls 15 years of age or older to
c. balanced diet prevent the disorder from developing.
d. resolution of family issues d. should be administered to girls 15 years of age or older who
are concerned about being overweight.
67. Jill has been in treatment for anorexia nervosa for the
past 2 months. Over this time, she has gained weight to the

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
72. In studies of Internet-based eating disorder prevention

programs (Winzelberg et al., 2000), such as the "student 80. Surgical treatments are likely to be the
bodies program," a. first line of treatment for the very obese.
a. the participants showed no beneficial effects. b. last line of treatment for the very obese.
b. participants reported improvement in body image and c. treatment of choice for anyone who wants to lose weight.
decreased drive for thinness. d. most rare of weight loss treatments.
c. not a single participant has developed symptoms of an eating
disorder. 81. One method of preventing obesity that has been
d. the drop-out rate has been extremely high. suggested is
a. instituting a "Twinkie tax" on all food with a high sugar content.
73. As of 2008, the percentage of the adult population of the b. reducing the cost of health foods.
United States with a body mass index in the obese range c. taking soda and junk food vending machines out of schools.
was about __________. d. all of these.
a. 12%
b. 17% 82. The proposal that we should discuss taxing high
c. 26% calorie, fat, or sugar foods to control obesity has
d. 34% a. been adopted nationwide.
b. been viewed as a means of deterring unhealthy eating and
74. Obesity is the major factor in . raising money to combat obesity.
a. Type 1 diabetes c. been rejected outright as having no possibility of decreasing
b. Type 2 diabetes obesity.
c. anorexia nervosa d. thought to benefit the poor more than the well-to-do.
d. bulimia nervosa
83. The intent of taxing the purchase of unhealthy foods
75. Individuals with night eating syndrome would be to
a. consume a third of their daily intake after their evening meal. a. make unhealthy foods less attractive to consumers.
b. binge during the night. b. punish the poor.
c. do not wake up while eating during the night. c. raise general government revenue.
d. often purge after eating. d. increase profits for food manufacturers.
76. Which of the following genetic factors does NOT 84. Seriously obese adolescents are most likely to lose
contribute to obesity? weight with
a. Number of fat cells a. the use of medications.
b. Likelihood of fat storage b. the use of behavioral treatments.
c. Activity levels c. the combination of medications and behavioral treatments.
d. Fat cell shape d. the use of surgery.
77. Average weight loss on diet programs such as Atkins 85. Sleep studies suggest that around 28% of Americans
and Weight Watchers is . a. get more than 6 hours of sleep a night.
a. 4 to 7 pounds b. report feeling excessively sleepy during the day.
b. 10 to 15 pounds c. have insomnia.
c. 20 to 25 pounds d. need less than 5 hours of sleep a night.
d. 30 or more pounds
86. Lack of adequate sleep has a negative effect on .
78. The most successful weight loss programs are a. health
a. commercial self-help plans that limit carbohydrates or b. productivity
calories. c. clarity of thought
b. self-directed diet plans based on diet books. d. all of these choices
c. professionally directed behavior modification programs.
d. hypnosis-based plans. 87. Sleep research suggests that
a. REM sleep is related to depression.
79. Bariatric surgery is b. sleep abnormalities follow clinical depression.
a. effective at any weight. c. sleep problems don’t predict who is at risk for later mood
b. more successful than dieting for the treatment of the very disorders.
obese. d. sleep deprivation has permanent antidepressant effects on
c. less successful than diet for the very obese. some people.
d. always successful.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
88. Individuals who feel tired and cranky all day despite tremendous increase in his overall anxiety level. The
falling asleep at a normal hour and awakening at their usual existence o fboth a sleep disorder and anxiety
time are most likely suffering from a(n) . a. makes the diagnosis of primary insomnia incorrect.
a. parasomnia b. increases our confidence that primary insomnia is the correct
b. dyssomnia diagnosis.
c. type of REM sleep deprivation c. indicates that the insomnia is a result of the anxiety rather
d. anxiety problem than a cause of the anxiety.
d. is extremely common since sleep problems can be both a
89. Of the following, the correct pairing is . cause and a result of anxiety.
a. dyssomnia - sleepwalking
b. dyssomnia - inability to fall asleep 96. The percentage of the general population that reports
c. parasomnia - waking up after 3 or 4 hours of sleep and then some symptoms of insomnia during any given year is
being unable to fall back to sleep approximately .
d. parasomnia - lack of REM sleep a. 10%
b. 20%
90. The most comprehensive evaluation of sleep is c. 33%
performed by a(n) evaluation. d. 50%
a. polysomnographic
b. actigraphic 97. As we grow older, it seems that the amount of sleep that
c. electromyographic we require .
d. electroencephalographic a. decreases
b. increases
91. While a patient sleeps, a polysomnographic evaluation c. stays the same
collects data on all of the following characteristics d. decreases until early adulthood and then begins to increase
EXCEPT_________. again
a. respiration
b. muscle movements 98. Adolescents tend to shift toward a
c. brain waves a. biologically determined later sleep schedule.
d. metabolic rate b. culturally determined earlier sleep schedule.
c. biologically determined earlier sleep schedule.
92. Individuals with a sleep efficiency of 90% d. culturally determined later sleep schedule.
a. spend more of their "bed time" awake than asleep.
b. have a diagnosable sleep disorder. 99. One biological factor that has been related to
c. need to increase the number of hours in bed. individuals who experience insomnia is .
d. spend 10% of their "bed time" awake. a. genetics
b. higher body temperature
93. Individuals suffering from primary insomnia c. low body weight
a. do not sleep at all. d. percentage of body fat
b. have difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep.
c. wake up during their sleep cycle with severe nightmares. 100. Samantha started having difficulty falling asleep
d. frequently sleepwalk. during final exam week. Although exams are over, she now
starts to worry about sleep right after dinner. Even the sight
94. Sleep disorders are appropriately diagnosed based on of her bed makes her very anxious. The fact that
the Samantha's insomnia continues long after the stress of
a. quality and quantity of sleep as well as daytime sequelae exams is over points to the role of ________ in the
(how the individual feels when awake). maintenance of sleep disorders.
b. quality and quantity of sleep only. a. biology
c. quantity of sleep plus the amount of sleep time the individual b. other medical conditions
believes is appropriate. c. learning
d. subjective judgment of the clinician. d. unknown factors
95. Fred has been having a great deal of trouble initiating 101. Sam sleeps for 8 or more hours every night but never
and maintaining sleep. He guesses that he is sleeping for feels rested. He can't understand why he is always tired
an average of about 3 hours each night and complains that despite the fact that he reports no difficulties with the
he feels terrible during the day. In addition, Fred has always quality or quantity of his sleep. Of the following, Sam's
experienced some anxiety but has recently felt a most likely diagnosis is .
a. hypersomnolence disorder

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. sleep apnea d. sleep paralysis and hypnogogic hallucinations associated

c. narcolepsy with hypersomnia.
d. non-specific parasomnia
108. Which of the following conditions is thought to be a
102. Rose sleeps about 8 hours each night. She awakens potential explanation for UFO experiences?
feeling fine and well rested, but she tends to fall asleep a. Sleep paralysis
about two b. Cataplexy
or three times during the day. We can conclude that c. Hypnagogic hallucinations
a. Rose should be diagnosed with primary insomnia. d. Sleep apnea
b. Rose would be diagnosed with hypersomnolence disorder if
her symptoms cause disruptions or distress in her 109. Obstructive sleep apnea is characterized by
life. a. complete cessation of respiratory activity for brief periods.
c. Rose should be diagnosed with a parasomnia. b. interruption of air flow and brief cessation of respiratory
d. a medical condition is a more appropriate diagnosis than a activity.
sleep disorder. c. interruption of air flow without cessation of respiratory activity.
d. central nervous system disorders and trauma.
103. Of the following, the only symptom that both patients
with narcolepsy and patients with hypersomnolence 110. The different types of sleep apnea are
disorder experience is a. obstructive, central, and sleep-related hypoventilation.
a. falling asleep during normal waking hours. b. obstructive, chronic, and sleep-related hypoventilation.
b. sudden loss of muscle tone. c. central, chronic, and mixed.
c. sleep paralysis. d. hypersomnolent, chronic, and parasomnic
d. hypnagogic hallucinations.
111. A severe difficulty in regulating sleep that is induced
104. In which of the following situations is Bill, who has by jet lag or by working rotating shifts is an example of
narcolepsy, most likely to experience cataplexy? ___________.
a. Immediately upon waking up after a long, restful sleep a. circadian rhythm sleep disorder
b. At any random moment b. sleep apnea
c. Under hypnosis c. hypersomnolence disorder
d. While jumping up and cheering for his favorite team d. narcolepsy
105. While suddenly and unexpectedly falling asleep during 112. Two factors that help regulate our natural sleep/wake
normal waking hours, Sarah experiences vivid cycles are
hallucinations of being in a horrible car crash. The a. melanin and auditory stimulation.
experience is so realistic that she actually feels physical b. melatonin and auditory stimulation.
sensations as if the hallucination were real. Sarah's most c. melatonin and light.
likely diagnosis is . d. light and blood sugar levels.
a. sleep apnea
b. hypersomnia 113. All of the following are examples of causes of circadian
c. schizophrenia rhythm sleep disorder EXCEPT ____________.
d. narcolepsy a. jet lag
b. shift work
106. Cataplexy as experienced by patients with narcolepsy c. delayed sleep phase
can be characterized by d. sleep rebound
a. sudden, minor loss of muscle tone.
b. physical collapse. 114. Benzodiazepine medication is not recommended as a
c. slight muscle weakness. long-term solution for the treatment of insomnia because
d. any of these of
a. the addictive properties of these medications.
107. An individual who wakes up feeling that there are other b. rebound insomnia that occurs after the medication is
people in the room but is unable to move or say anything discontinued.
may be experiencing c. excessive sleepiness that may persist during the day.
a. cataplexy associated with sleep apnea. d. all of these.
b. hypnagogic hallucinations associated with hypersomnia.
c. sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations associated 115. The reason that antidepressant medications are
with narcolepsy. sometimes used to treat narcolepsy is that
a. narcolepsy is often caused by depression.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. the anti-anxiety properties of these medications reduce Chapter 9 | Physical Disorders and Health Psychology
narcolepsy.
c. these medications suppress REM sleep that can trigger 1. At the beginning of the 20t h century, the leading cause
cataplexy. of death in the U.S. was ______________.
d. antidepressants are found to reduce hypnagogic a. automobile accidents
hallucinations. b. infectious diseases
c. heart attacks
116. Medical treatments for severe sleep apnea include d. suicides
medication, mechanical devices, and .
a. surgery 2. According to the text, some of the major contributing factors
b. exercise of the neck muscles to illness and death in the United States are currently
c. a high protein diet a. viral and bacterial.
d. changing the patient's sleep schedule b. behavioral and psychological.
c. neurological and endocrinological.
117. When attempting to "reset the biological clock" of an d. pharmacological and hormonal.
individual with a circadian rhythm sleep disorder, it is
generally easier and more effective to 3. Using the word psychosomatic to describe a disorder
a. make the patient's bedtime earlier. with an obvious physical component is considered
b. leave the patient's bedtime alone and change the duration of misleading because
sleep. a. it gives the impression that psychological disorders like
c. make the patient's bedtime later. anxiety or depression do not have a biological component.
d. keep the person awake for several days in a row. b. it assumes that the physical aspects of a disorder are less
important than the psychological aspects.
118. Abnormal events such as nightmares, sleep terrors, c. it emphasizes the psychological symptoms of a disorder
and sleepwalking that occur during sleep or during the instead of the physical symptoms.
twilight time between sleep and waking are classified as . d. it gives the impression that biological disorders are not
a. parasomnias influenced by psychological factors.
b. dyssomnias
c. narcolepsy 4. Knowledge derived from the behavioral sciences applied
d. REM disorders to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of medical
problems is called
119. Sleepwalking is characterized by all of the following a. health psychology.
EXCEPT b. behavioral medicine.
a. acting out a dream. c. psychophysiological disorders.
b. occurrence during NREM stages of sleep. d. psychosomatic medicine.
c. no memory of the sleepwalking event.
d. occurrence primarily in children. 5. What is the name of the new field of study that reflects
the shift in focus from infectious disease to
120. Sleepwalking is fairly common, and recent research psychological/behavioral factors as causes of illness and
suggests that more than ____ of school-aged children death?
sleepwalk. a. Behavioral medicine
a. 10% b. Abnormal psychology
b. 20% c. Medical psychology
c. 30% d. Physical medicine
d. 50%
6. Health Psychology is:
a. subfield of behavioral medicine.
121. Martin sits up every night screaming. He does not b. the study of psychological factors important to the promotion
remember these terrors nor is he easily awakened or and maintenance of health
comforted. What should Martin's mother do? c. Both of these
a. Wake Martin up during the attack. d. Neither of these
b. Make sure that Martin is very tired before going to bed.
c. Use scheduled awakenings to briefly awaken Martin before 7. Which of the following is NOT considered an
an attack occurs. interdisciplinary field:
d. All of these have been demonstrated to reduce the frequency a. Behavioral Medicine
and duration of sleep terrors b. Behavioral Economics
c. Health Psychology

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. All of these are interdisciplinary c. Physical activity

d. All of the above are lifestyle factors
8. In which of the following ways do psychological and
social factors influence health? 15. In 1936 Canadian researcher Hans Selye discovered
a. They can affect basic biological processes resulting in illness that giving injections to laboratory rats caused them to
and disease. develop ulcers. His finding led to a new area of study called
b. Risky behaviors can increase the likelihood of developing a. stress physiology.
physical disorders. b. stress psychology.
c. Both of these c. animal psychology.
d. Neither of these d. psychosomatic pathology.
9. Health psychology, a subfield of behavioral medicine, 16. In response to sustained stress, the body goes through
focuses on all of the following EXCEPT several stages that together constitute the general
a. promotion and maintenance of health. adaptationsyndrome (GAS), a concept proposed by
b. health policy formation. researcher Hans Selye. The GAS consists of all the
c. improvements in healthcare systems. following stages EXCEPT _____________.
d. psychosomatic effects on health. a. alarm
b. resistance
10. "AIDS, a disease of the immune system, is directly c. exhaustion
affected by stress. Stress may then promote the d. remediation
deadly progression of the disease." These two statements ANSWER: d
are an example of ______ factors influencing
______ processes. 17. The physiological response of an individual to a
a. psychological; biological stressor is called___________.
b. biological; psychological a. adaptation
c. sociocultural; genetic b. fight-or-flight reaction
d. genetic; sociocultural c. stress
d. a syndrome
11. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Around 50% of deaths from the 10 leading causes of death in 18. Smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in
the United States can be traced to behaviors the Unites States and lowers the overall national life
common to certain lifestyles. expectancy because of:
b. Smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in the a. premature death.
United States. b. maternal mortality.
c. Smoking has been estimated to cause 20% of all deaths. c. its link with poor eating habits.
d. All of the above d. its link with alcoholic consumption.
12. According to the principles of health psychology, which 19. Research has shown that increased levels of cortisol in
of the following is the best protection against acquiring response to stress may cause damage to parts of
AIDS? the_________________.
a. Getting an injection of the AIDS vaccine a. skeletal system
b. Being treated for HIV before it develops into AIDS b. brain
c. Changing risky behaviors that can lead to disease acquisition c. lungs
d. Deciding to be sexually abstinent after years of being sexually d. stomach
active
20. Which of the following statements accurately describes
13. The United States Centers for Disease Control estimate a process in the activation of the HPA (hormonal) axis?
that ______ of Americans aged 14 to 49 years old are a. The hippocampus secretes corticotropin releasing factor
infected with herpes simplex virus. (CRF).
a. 5.1% b. CRF stimulates the thyroid gland.
b. 15.5% c. The hippocampus (via the somatic nervous system) activates
c. 25.7% the adrenal glands.
d. 100% d. The adrenal glands secrete the stress hormone cortisol.
14. Lifestyle factors includes things such as:

a. Smoking
b. Nutrition

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
21. Research has shown that excessive secretion of the 28. Josh goes to the doctor to talk about his risks for heart
stress hormone cortisol can result in cell death in the disease. Based on this chapter, what is his doctor likely to
hippocampal region of the brain in cases of . ask?
a. substance abuse a. Do you have any family history of heart disease?
b. mania b. Do you smoke?
c. posttraumatic stress disorder c. Is your diet rich in fruits and vegetables?
d. AIDS d. All of the above are correct.
22. Continuous secretion of the stress hormone cortisol by 29. Which of the following is associated with a stronger
the adrenal glands can lead to all of the following EXCEPT immune system?
a. damage to the hippocampus. a. Optimism
b. impaired functioning of the immune system. b. Pessimism
c. muscle atrophy. c. Realism
d. low blood pressure in the cardiovascular system. d. Depression
23. Which of the following best represents the emotional 30. The work of Cohen and his associates suggests that
continuum believed to be related to coping with threat and a. intensity of stress one experiences impacts the severity of
challenge? cold symptoms.
a. Anxiety, stress, depression, excitement b. social support has no effect on cold symptoms.
b. Stress, anxiety, depression, excitement c. exposure to friends increases the chance of illness.
c. Depression, stress, excitement, anxiety d. cold symptoms are mostly psychological.
d. Excitement, stress, anxiety, depression
31. All of the following situations have been associated with
24. Which of the following factors is most closely related to lowered immune system functioning EXCEPT
how well you think you can cope with a threat or challenge? a. marital conflict or relationship difficulties.
a. Control b. job loss.
b. Effort c. death of a loved one.
c. Cortisol d. pregnancy.
d. Practice
32. Research findings have suggested that it might not be
25. Whether or not stress and/or anxiety develop in a the stressful event itself that lowers immune system
stressful situation appears to be related to one's perceived functioning but rather the accompanying
sense of ________________. _________________.
a. happiness a. dissociation
b. excitement b. isolation
c. control c. depression
d. acceptance d. anger
26. Based on your knowledge of recent research studies, 33. Stress affects immune function
which of the following people would you predict is LEAST a. but only if the stressful event is life-threatening.
likely to catch a cold following exposure to the virus? b. even if the stressful event lasts as little as 2 hours.
a. Karen, a very sociable woman who has many good friends c. in real life but not in the lab.
b. Mike, a very intelligent student who understands complex d. only in the chronically ill.
information and concepts
c. Judy, a very assertive individual who frequently says exactly 34. The immune system identifies and eliminates foreign
what's on her mind materials, which are called _____________.
d. Marilyn, a very compulsive person who likes to point out other a. antigens
people's mistakes b. mitogens
c. lymphokines
27. How does early life stress contribute to cardiovascular d. antibodies
disease, type 2 diabetes, and cancer?
a. Increases blood sugar levels 35. The cells of the humoral immune system that produce
b. Increases platelets immunoglobulins are called .
c. Increases inflammation a. B cells
d. Decreases serotonin b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. macrophages

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
36. B cells are associated with _____________ immunity, 43. In 2011, it was estimated that the total number of people
while T cells are associated with ___________ immunity: afflicted with HIV, the human immunodeficiency virus, was
a. humoral; memory slightly more than million.
b. humoral; cellular a. 13
c. cellular; humoral b. 23
d. vascular; suppressor c. 34
d. 43
37. Which of the following immune cells enhance immune
system responses by signaling B cells to produce 44. Estimates regarding the prevalence of AIDS in southern
antibodies and signaling other T cells to destroy antigens? Africa indicate that
a. B cells a. the percent of the adult population that are HIV positive
b. Helper T cells comprises two-thirds of the cases worldwide.
c. T suppressor cells b. 10% of the adult population has AIDS.
d. NK cells c. 5 million children are orphaned by the disease.
d. all of the above.
38. Too many T4 (helper) cells can result in
a. an autoimmune disease. 45. Which of the following statements about AIDS is TRUE?
b. diminished antibody responses. a. An infected person immediately develops AIDS-related
c. long-term immune activity. complex (ARC).
d. diminished immune functions. b. The median time for the development of full-blown AIDS is
around 7 to 10 years.
39. The immune system is weakened in AIDS patients c. The death rate from AIDS increased 80% since 1990.
because the human immunodeficiency virus directly d. The current successful treatment of AIDS is the result of
attacks the lymphocytes called _________. highly active antiviral therapy (HAART), which
a. killer T cells eliminates the virus.
b. T4 (helper cells)
c. suppressor T cells 46. AIDS is now treated with new combinations of drugs
d. B cells called "highly active antiretroviral therapy" (HAART), which
a. suppress the virus in people who are HIV positive.
40. Given the map of prevalence of HIV, where might b. cure AIDS by eliminating the virus from the body.
philanthropists target their money if their goal is to c. reduce herpes virus but not HIV cells.
eradicate d. are well tolerated and cause minimal side effects.
HIV?
a. Central Europe 47. LaDanian has recently started losing weight, developed
b. Southern Africa. a fever, and experiences night sweats. He may be
c. The United States experiencing ______________.
d. Latin America a. HIV
b. AIDS
41. Contrary to the earlier belief that the brain and immune c. pneumonia
system operate independently of each other, scientists now d. AIDS-related complex
know that
a. the immune system functioning can be suppressed through 48. Group psychotherapy for cancer patients tends to
classical conditioning. a. reduce recovery times.
b. there are many connections between the nervous system and b. increase survival times.
the immune system. c. affect mental but not physical health.
c. there are psychological influences on the neurological d. cure cancer.
responding implicated in our immune response.
d. all of the above. 49. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Group psychotherapy always prolongs life in cancer patients.
42. Psychoneuroimmunology focuses on the study of b. Group psychotherapy seems to decrease depression in
a. physiology, neurons, and immune function. cancer patients.
b. psychology, neurological responses, and immune function. c. Group psychotherapy may prolong life in some cancer
c. psychology, nature, and illness. patients.
d. physiological numbers and images. d. Mothers of children with cancer benefit from therapy.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
50. Benefit finding refers to a. coping style

a. looking for the positive consequences of getting cancer. b. personality
b. obtaining adequate healthcare coverage for cancer. c. level of stress
c. promoting immune function in response to cancer. d. cognitive skills
d. enhancing medical treatments for cancer.
57. Which of the following is a correct match of medical
51. Which of the following does NOT describe an effective condition and its definition?
psychosocial intervention that has been reported in a. Angina: obstruction caused by build up of plaque in the
oncology research studies? arteries
a. Use of psychological treatments that reduce pain and b. Atherosclerosis: deficiency of blood to a body part caused by
depression and enhance feelings of well-being narrowing of the arteries
b. Use of videotapes and dolls that reduce children's stress and c. Mycardial infarction: death of heart tissue due to a completely
anxiety during medical procedures clogged artery
c. Use of therapy sessions that temporarily prolong life for breast d. Ischemia: chest pain caused by partial obstruction of the
cancer patients both during and after the arteries
intervention
d. Use of cognitive imaging techniques that temporarily render 58. In reference to the clinical research studies focusing on
the AIDS virus inactive for brief periods factors that are implicated in heart disease, which of the
following is an accurate statement?
52. Unhealthy and/or risky behaviors that impact directly on a. Males who displayed a Type A behavior pattern were less
the cardiovascular system may contribute to likely to develop coronary heart disease than females
a. strokes and high blood pressure only. in the Type A group.
b. coronary heart disease only. b. Younger males in the Type A group were much less likely to
c. strokes, high blood pressure, and coronary heart disease. develop coronary heart disease than older males in
d. reduced immunity to autoimmune diseases. the Type A group.
c. Both men and women with the Type A behavioral pattern were
53. Essential hypertension refers to twice as likely to develop coronary heart
a. the need to hold blood pressure levels constant. disease than were non-Type A individuals.
b. hypertension caused by a disease. d. In comparison to "white collar" workers, men in lower
c. hypertension caused by pregnancy. socioeconomic positions were more likely to develop
d. hypertension with no verifiable physical cause. coronary heart disease.
54. During laboratory stress tests, which of the following 59. Gregor has just learned that his spouse of 28 years has
individuals has been shown to have greater reactivity in died in an automobile accident. Upon hearing the news,
their blood pressure? Gregor collapsed and was rushed to the hospital in
a. Those with normal blood pressure whose parents had normal apparent heart failure. Gregor probably suffered
blood pressure a. myocardial infarction.
b. Those with normal blood pressure whose parents had high b. tranischemic attack.
blood pressure c. angina pectoris.
c. Those with very low blood pressure whose parents had low d. myocardial stunning.
blood pressure
d. Those with very low blood pressure whose parents had 60. In comparison to men in the U.S., Japanese men exhibit
normal blood pressure a. increased Type A behavior and decreased coronary heart
disease (CHD).
55. Since heart disease is the number one cause of death in b. decreased Type A behavior and decreased CHD.
the United States, it would be very important, in terms of c. increased Type A behavior and increased CHD.
prevention, to determine if d. decreased Type A behavior and increased CHD.
a. better medications can be found to treat heart disease
b. changes in behavior, lifestyle, and attitude can prevent heart 61. Mr. Velasquez is participating in a clinical research
attacks study that is investigating psychological factors that may
c. psychotherapy can help people adjust to having an artificial influence the development of heart disease. When he is
heart instructed to imagine a situation in which he was very
d. heart transplants can be made available to more patients angry, the sensors monitoring his heart reveal that
a. his heartbeat has slowed significantly.
56. Various psychological factors have been used to b. his heart is pumping less efficiently.
explain individual variations in blood pressure, including c. the area around his heart has become swollen and inflamed.
all of the following EXCEPT . d. he is having a "painless" heart attack.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
62. Cardiac problems have recently been found to be b. social consequences.

related to _____________. c. the side effects of medications.
a. anger d. the patient's reaction to treatment.
b. anxiety
c. depression 70.In regard to the gate control theory, the___________are
d. all of the above thought to open the gates, allowing pain sensations to
be transmitted, while__________are thought to close the
63. Miss T was slightly injured in an accident but has fully gate and block the sensations.
recovered. Although she has been given medical clearance a. small fibers; large fibers
to go back to work and resume her normal activities, she b. large fibers; small fibers
maintains that she is still suffering from pain. You would c. small fibers; internal fibers
correctly assess Miss T as someone who probably has d. psychological factors; physiological fibers
a. adequate coping skills.
b. strong family and social support. 71. The "natural" opioids called endorphins or enkephalins
c. no history of anxiety and/or depression. act like neurotransmitters to
d. a disability claim pending. a. increase awareness of pain.
b. shut down the sensation of pain.
64. All of the following are examples of "pain behaviors" c. cause a "natural" addiction.
EXCEPT d. relieve the pain caused by a heroin overdose.
a. complaining about pain to others.
b. grimacing. 72. Endogenous opioids have been implicated in a variety
c. positional changes (while sitting or walking). of psychopathological conditions
d. suffering in silence. including________________.
a. eating disorders
65. People who experience phantom limb pain b. phobias
a. have lost an arm or a leg. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. can describe in exquisite detail the exact location and type of d. personality disorders
pain.
c. experience changes in the sensory cortex of the brain. 73. Regarding gender differences in the experience of pain,
d. all of the above. women suffer more frequently than men from all of the
following EXCEPT _____________.
66. Based on findings from clinical research, treatment a. migraine headaches
programs for chronic pain focus primarily on b. arthritis
a. surgical procedures. c. carpal tunnel syndrome
b. herbal remedies. d. backache
c. psychological factors.
d. experimental procedures for pain relief. 74. Females may have an "extra" pain-regulating pathway
focused on relieving pain associated with the reproductive
67. Researchers who study the clinical experience of pain system. One implication of this biological gender difference
have determined that pain is is that
a. entirely due to physical causes. a. men need more pain relief than women following surgical
b. entirely due to psychological causes. procedures.
c. neither entirely physical, nor entirely psychological. b. women do not need pain relief during childbirth.
d. always due to unknown and unpredictable factors. c. males and females may benefit from different kinds of
medications and different kinds of pain management.
68. Which of the following is NOT an example of the d. the psychological experience of pain is the same for men and
complex interaction of physical and psychological factors women.
in the experience of pain?
a. The gate control theory of pain 75. In the mid-19t h century, symptoms of fatigue, vague
b. Phantom limb pain aches and pains, low-grade fever, and lack of energy were
c. Chronic pain attributed to a disorder called .
d. Delusional pain a. neurasthenia
b. neurosis
69. In the phenomenon known as "operant" control of pain, c. hysteria
the pain behaviors manifested by an individual are d. somatic syndrome
determined by
a. the type of injury.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
76. The same symptoms that were diagnosed in the 19t h a. physiological functions
century as a condition called neurasthenia are currently b. psychological state of mind
referred to as ________________. c. negative thoughts
a. somatization disorder d. level of pain
b. chronic fatigue syndrome
c. wasting disease 84. It has been suggested that biofeedback relieves the pain
d. psychogenic pain disorder of tension headaches because it "teaches people to relax,"
but it is more likely that
77. At various times the symptoms of the disorder known a. the patients whose pain is seemingly relieved by biofeedback
as chronic fatigue syndrome were attributed to all of the are probably also taking aspirin or Tylenol.
following EXCEPT . b. biofeedback training gives patients a sense of control over
a. viral infection their headache pain.
b. environmental toxins c. biofeedback has a "numbing effect" because it affects the
c. clinical depression nerve endings in the somatic nervous system.
d. brain atrophy d. patients experience a placebo effect because the headache
pain returns once the biofeedback sessions are
78. The development of chronic fatigue syndrome is completed.
associated with
a. an extremely stressful life event. 85. Which of the following has been shown as the MOST
b. over exercise. effective to reduce your number of headaches?
c. achievement-oriented lifestyles. a. Taking ibuprofen daily
d. a tendency to minimize pain. b. Avoiding loud noises
ANSWER: a c. General stress reduction techniques and desensitization to
79. A treatment for chronic fatigue syndrome developed by triggers
Michael Sharpe includes all of the following d. All of the above are correct
EXCEPT____________.
a. medication 86.In the 1960s, Neal Miller, using animals, discovered the
b. increased activity first experimental evidence that physiological functions
c. regulated rest periods were subject to voluntary control.
d. breathing exercises a. classical conditioning
b. physical retraining
80. A controlled research study investigating the effects of c. operant conditioning
a cognitive-behavioral treatment for chronic fatigue d. obedience training
syndrome resulted in improvement on
a. measures of fatigue. 87. In biofeedback procedures, clinicians use physiological
b. measures of illness belief. monitoring equipment to make the
c. both measures of fatigue and measures of illness belief. responses______________
d. neither measures of fatigue nor measures of illness belief. to the patient.
a. visible
81. Pain may be associated with b. audible
________________________. c. visible and/or audible
a. decreased natural killer (NK) cells d. tactile
b. increased natural killer (NK) cells
c. increased B cells 88. In the 1970s, Herbert Benson developed a brief
d. decreased T cells relaxation procedure that involved focusing on a .
a. word
82. All of the following are psychosocial treatments that b. photo
have been developed for physical disorders and pain c. person
EXCEPT______________. d. musical note
a. biofeedback
b. meditation 89.Cassandra is sitting cross-legged on her rug with her
c. relaxation procedures arms outstretched. She closes her eyes and makes a sound
d. acupuncture like "ummmm." She continues this procedure. Cassandra
is demonstrating______ and the sound is a(n) ________.
83. The procedure known as biofeedback involves a a. relaxation response; focus
process by which a person is first helped to become aware b. meditation; mantra
of his/her ________________. c. biofeedback; focus

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. hypnosis; focal point

97. For coping with chronic pain, chronic fatigue syndrome,
90. According to Holroyd et al., (1984) biofeedback may and hypertension, _________________is considered
decrease pain because it generally more effective than either ___________ or
a. instills a sense of control over the pain. ______________alone.
b. decreases tension. a. a stress management program; biofeedback; relaxation
c. increases awareness of the body. techniques
d. decreases sensitivity to pain. b. biofeedback; relaxation techniques; a stress management
program
91. Recent clinical studies indicate that it is a good pain c. relaxation techniques; biofeedback; a stress management
relieving strategy to use biofeedback in conjunction program
with_______________. d. relaxation, biofeedback, and stress management programs
a. medication are all considered equally effective
b. relaxation procedures
c. a placebo 98. Individuals who are high users of pain relieving
d. psychotherapy medications are _______________to benefit from pain
management programs than less frequent users.
92. Comprehensive pain management programs usually a. more likely
include programs for teaching patients b. less likely
about______________. c. equally likely
a. relaxation d. unable
b. meditation
c. both meditation and relaxation 99. Chronic use of pain medications to treat headaches
d. neither meditation nor relaxation a. decreases the efficacy of comprehensive programs to treat
headaches.
93. Although the improvement is only moderate, relaxation b. is associated with decreased pain initially, but is followed by
techniques have been shown to have a positive effect rebound pain.
on_______________. c. decreased pain in the long run.
a. headaches d. is associated with an increase in short- and long-term pain.
b. hypertension (high blood pressure)
c. pain 100. In a comprehensive headache treatment program,
d. all of these people who were low users of analgesic medications
achieved at least a reduction in headache severity and
94. In keeping daily records of the stressful events in their frequency.
lives, patients in pain management programs are taught to a. 25%
be very specific about all of the following EXCEPT b. 50%
a. the actual time of day that they experience stress c. 75%
b. what seems to "trigger the stress." d. 99%
c. how they attempted to control the stress.
d. the level of intensity of the stress. 101. Studies of pain suggest that people who are optimistic
a. use denial to cope.
95. In a stressful events record, clients in a pain b. use wishful thinking to manage.
management program are asked to record c. deal with pain directly.
a. somatic symptoms only. d. avoid treatment.
b. thoughts that occur during stress but not somatic symptoms.
c. thoughts that occur during stress as well as somatic
symptoms. 102. Jon W. has just been diagnosed with cancer. His initial
d. intensity of the stress, but not thoughts or somatic symptoms. response is to deny the seriousness of his condition. This
type of coping mechanism
96. Cognitive therapy is used in stress management a. will enable him to develop better coping mechanisms later.
programs to help clients learn to do all of the following b. is never psychologically helpful.
EXCEPT c. doesn't really help him endure the initial shock any more
a. develop more realistic appraisals and attitudes. easily.
b. identify unrealistic negative thoughts. d. results in higher levels of corticosteroids (stress hormones).
c. tell off people they don't like as a way of reducing stress.
d. assert themselves in an appropriate way in stressful
situations.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
103. Which of the following is NOT one of the three most recently that they are HIV positive following sexual
common behaviors that put us at risk for physical intercourse with infected partners. What changes in their
disorders? behavior are most likely to occur in the future?
a. Unhealthy eating habits a. Both Steven and Diane will now abstain from sex completely.
b. Lack of exercise b. Steven will abstain from sex, but Diane will continue to have
c. Smoking sex.
d. Watching too much TV c. Both Steven and Diane will continue to have unprotected sex.
d. Both Steven and Diane will be sure to tell future sexual
104. The leading preventable cause of death is partners that they are HIV positive.
_____________ .
a. smoking 111. Carla and Carlos have recently learned that they are
b. cirrhosis of the lever (from alcoholism) HIV positive. According to research studies involving
c. poisoning people who are HIV positive, what is most likely to occur?
d. accidents a. Carla will now have sex only if her partner uses a condom.
b. Carlos will abstain from sex completely.
105. According to the textbook, the leading cause of death c. Both Carla and Carlos will stop sharing needles with other
for people between the ages of 1 and 45 years is . drug users.
a. cancer d. Neither Carlos nor Carla is likely to change any of their
b. injury previous behaviors.
c. infectious disease 112. When high-risk individuals are given educational and
d. genetic defect informational pamphlets about ways to reduce their
chances of becoming HIV positive, they typically
106. Injury prevention programs have proven effective in a. change their high-risk behaviors.
teaching children about all of the following EXCEPT b. do not change their high-risk behaviors.
a. escaping fires. c. abstain from unprotected sex.
b. crossing streets. d. notify previous sex partners of their HIV condition.
c. riding bikes safely.
d. properly extinguishing cigarettes. 113. Which of the following was NOT one of the procedures
or types of information used as part of San Francisco's
107. Which is an accurate statement regarding injury 1990 community-level program to reduce new cases of HIV
prevention programs for children? infection?
a. Most communities have injury prevention programs. a. Personal detailed assessment of HIV risk for each individual
b. Repeated warnings have been effective in preventing or b. Instructions on how to clean needles
reducing the number of injuries. c. Classes and videos to demonstrate safe sex skills
c. Children who participated in safety skills programs d. Discussions of the moral and religious consequences of being
remembered what they had learned even after the programs HIV positive
were over.
d. Injury prevention programs have been ineffective in changing 114. Which of the following factors does NOT accurately
children's behavior. represent the circumstances regarding women and
HIV/AIDS?
108. The only effective prevention strategy currently a. Women frequently do not consider themselves at risk
available for reducing the spread of AIDS appears to because most media coverage of the AIDS epidemic has
be_______________. focused on gay white males.
a. a vaccine b. Most research on the spread of AIDS has ignored the disease
b. medications in women.
c. changing high-risk behavior c. Women accounted for 50% of new AIDS cases in 2003.
d. educating people about the risk of the disease d. The highest age of risk for women is after age 25.
109. With regard to the epidemic of AIDS in Africa, an 115. Regarding the age ranges for the risk of HIV/AIDS,
individual is most likely to become HIV positive following which of the following statements is accurate?
a. heterosexual sex with an infected partner. a. For women, the highest risk is between 15 and 25.
b. homosexual sex with an infected partner. b. For women, the highest risk is during their late 20s and early
c. repeated injections with unsterilized needles. 30s.
d. close non-sexual contact with an infected person. c. The age range for risk is younger for men than for women.
d. The age ranges for risk are the same for both males and
110. Steven and Diane, two young adults who live in females.
different cities and do not know each other, have learned

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
116. In regard to setting up behavioral change programs 121. In the massive antismoking campaign in China in 1989,
that address the HIV/AIDS epidemic, which of the following the results indicated that of the 10,000 fathers in the
is an accurate statement? intervention group ______ quit smoking for at least 6
a. The same kinds of programs can be set up for both females months in comparison to a control group of 10,000 in which
and males. only
b. Women and men need different types of programs because quit smoking.
their risk factors are different. a. 1%; 0.1%
c. Women are not acquiring HIV/AIDS as fast as men are. b. 12%; 0.2%
d. Media attention and even research has focused on women c. 22%; 2.2%
with AIDS and largely ignored men. d. 50%; 25%
117. Which is a type of circumstance in which women put 122. One of the most successful efforts to reduce risk
themselves at risk for HIV/AIDS infection differently from factors for a medical condition involved three entire
men? communities in California in which residents received
a. Having unprotected sex with partners whose sexual history is different types of interventions or no intervention at all (for
unknown the community that served as the control group). The
b. Using contaminated needles when injecting illegal drugs targeted condition in this effort was .
c. Becoming prostitutes in response to economic deprivation a. diabetes
d. Having sex with multiple partners b. cancer
c. heart disease
118. Your textbook reports on a behavioral change program d. obesity
to address the high rate of smoking in China. This was an
important study for several reasons including the fact that 123. When pain is induced after people are given a placebo,
a. the number of people who smoke in China equals the entire they feel less pain because
population of the United States. a. the endogenous opioid system is activated.
b. almost 100% of the women in China smoke. b. they simply report less pain.
c. males and females in China have equally high rates of c. they think they feel less pain.
smoking. d. they pretend to have pain.
d. the types of cigarettes smoked in China are more potent than
in the U.S. 124. Research on the placebo effect is valuable because it
a. shows that it is difficult to easily separate the effects of
119. A massive antismoking campaign in China in 1989 biochemical and psychological factors on brain function.
involved b. may make it possible to more efficiently integrate placebo and
a. bonuses to employees who quit smoking. drug treatments.
b. wives threatening divorce of their husbands didn't stop c. can help us understand the mechanisms by which drugs are
smoking. effective in pain treatment
c. school children intervening in their fathers' smoking habits. d. all of these
d. married couples' written agreements to stop smoking.
120. In 1989, health professionals in China began a massive

antismoking effort in several cities that involved children
whose fathers smoked. As part of this effort, all of the
following are accurate statements EXCEPT
a. schoolchildren were given antismoking literature and
questionnaires to take home to their fathers.
b. children wrote letters to their fathers asking them to quit
smoking.
c. children submitted monthly reports on their fathers' smoking
habits to their schools.
d. photos of the fathers who continued smoking were published
in the school newspapers.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Chapter 10 | Sexual Dysfunctions, Paraphilic Disorders and D. 38.5% of males and 16.7% of women aged 75 to 85 remained
Gender Dysphoria sexually active.
1. Gender dysphoria is characterized by dissatisfaction 8. Approximately what percentage of males report ever
with masturbating?
A. sexual experiences. A. 23%
B. gender role expectations. B. 42%
C. one’s biological sex C. 50%
D. media portrayals of gender D. 72%
2. Among men surveyed for a CDC study, were sexually 9. Approximately what percentage of females report ever
experienced. masturbating?
A. almost 100% A. 23%
B. just over 40% B. 42%
C. approximately 75% C. 50%
D. about 12% D. 72%
3. Sexual behavior surveys suggest that 10. The largest difference in sexual behavior for men versus
A. Almost all men have more than 15 sexual partners. women is that
B. Most men have had more than 4 partners in the previous A. men are more likely to engage in premarital sex.
year. B. women are more likely to engage in premarital sex.
C. About 21% of men have had more than 15 sexual partners. C. men are more likely to masturbate.
D. None of the answers are correct. D. women are more likely to masturbate.
4. In reference to sexuality, which of the following is NOT 11. Differences in male and female attitudes toward
true: sexuality have generally over the past 40 years.
A. Most men and women have engaged in vaginal intercourse A. decreased
with someone of the opposite sex. B. increased
B. Most men and women have engaged in oral sex with C. remained the same
someone of the opposite sex. D. disappeared completely
C. Most men and women have engaged in anal intercourse with
someone of the opposite sex. 12. Data from research studies on gender differences in
D. Few men and women have engaged in some type of human sexuality reflect all of the following themes EXCEPT
intercourse with someone of the same sex. A. men masturbate more than women.
B. men are more permissive about casual premarital sex than
5. Recent studies have shown that: women.
A. men tend to have more partners than women. C. men are less accepting about homosexuality than women.
B. women tend to self-report homosexual attraction or behavior D. men and women value sexual satisfaction equally.
more often than men.
C. most men and women are bisexual. 13. Gender differences in attitudes toward premarital sex
D. most people who identify as gay or lesbian live in the United have been over time.
States. A. shrinking
B. increasing
6. Recent studies on sexual practice indicate that sexual C. fluctuating
practices are D. unreliable
A. consistent in many different countries.
B. very different in Western and Asian countries. 14. Data from research studies on gender differences in
C inconsistent no matter where they are measured. human sexuality reflect all of the following themes EXCEPT
D. culturally diverse. A. men show more sexual desire and arousal than women.
B. men emphasize committed relationships more than women.
7. According to recent surveys, the following statement is C. men's self-concept is characterized in part by power,
true regarding sexual activity of the elderly: aggression, and independence.
A. Very few individuals remain sexually active beyond age 70. D. women's sexual beliefs are more influenced by cultural,
B. more than half of the individuals over age 70 remain sexually social, and situational factors.
active.
C. 80% of males and 50% of women aged 75 to 79 remained 15. Which of the following is NOT a gender difference in
sexually active sexual beliefs:

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
A. men show more sexual desire and arousal than women. B. Males and masculine lesbians often have a longer fourth ring
B. females are more likely to value the experience of passionate finger than index finger.
and romantic feelings. C.Homosexual males have smaller feet than heterosexual
C. men tend to have more negative core beliefs about sex. males.
D. a minority of women hold embarrassed, conservative, or self- D. Actual structure of the brain might be different in
conscious views toward sex. homosexuals than heterosexuals.
16. In Sweden, where attitudes toward sexuality are 22. Statistically, homosexual males are more likely to have
somewhat more permissive than they are in the United grown up with
States, the percentage of Swedish women reporting use of A. older brothers.
contraception during their first sexual intercourse was B. older sisters.
A. significantly higher than it was for American women. C. younger brothers.
B. significantly lower than it was for American women. D. younger sisters.
C. approximately the same as it was for American women.
D. just about 100%. 23. Sexual dysfunctions are
A. more common in heterosexuals than homosexuals.
17. Research regarding sexual orientation suggests that B. more common in homosexuals than heterosexuals.
homosexuality is C. equally common in heterosexuals and homosexuals.
A. purely genetic. D. generally not reported, so little is known about their incidence.
B. that sexual orientation has an exclusively biological cause.
C. based on learning and choice only. 24. Which of the following is NOTone of the three stages of
D. influenced by biological/genetic, psychological, and social sexual response?
factors. A. Desire
B. Arousal
18. Which of the following is a true cultural difference in the C. Orgasm
views of sexuality in children: D. Refractory period
A. West African girls masturbate more frequently than West
African boys. 25. Sexual dysfunction can be a(n) condition.
B. Munda people in India encourage mutual masturbation A. lifelong
among cohabiting children. B. acquired
C. Brazilian boys have more semen than Brazilian men. C. situational
D. Incest is considered acceptable in Norway. D. all of the above
19. Joe is homosexual and has an identical (monozygotic) 26. Sexual problems are difficult to diagnose when
twin named Sam. The following statement is TRUE: A. dysfunction is present and the person is distressed about it.
A. Sam is more likely than the general population to be B. dysfunction is present but the person is not distressed about
homosexual. it.
B. Sam is no more likely than the general population to be C. the couple has been together a long time.
homosexual. D. the couple is sexually inexperienced.
C. Sam is homosexual also.
D. Sam is only likely to become homosexual if Joe is a positive 27. Happily married couples typically report
role model. A. occasional sexual dysfunction that does not result in sexual
dissatisfaction.
20. Of those identical (monozygotic) twins where one twin B. occasional sexual dysfunction that is associated with sexual
is homosexual, the other twin is also homosexual in 50% of dissatisfaction.
cases. This means C. very little sexual dysfunction.
A. homosexuality is determined by genetics. D. sexual dysfunction on the part of women but not men.
B. genes are only one influence for sexual orientation.
C. the environment determines sexual orientation. 28. Of the following, the individual most likely to receive an
D. genes are not an influence for sexual orientation. appropriate diagnosis of male hypoactive sexual desire
disorder is
21. Which of the following does NOT support the fact that A. Charles, who fantasizes about sex often, but is so exhausted
homosexuality is related to differential hormone exposure when he gets home that he only has sex about twice a month.
in utero? B. John, who thinks about sex, but does not have sexual
A. Homosexual males are more likely to be left handed or mixed relations because he thinks it is morally wrong to do so unless
handed than right handed. the goal is procreation.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. Phil, whose wife wishes he thought about sex more often 35. The prevalence of sexual arousal disorders appears to
because he seems satisfied having sex a few times a month. be
D. Fred, who has sex at least once a week to satisfy his wife, A. much higher for men than it is for women.
but would prefer to be left alone since he is rarely interested in B. much lower for men than it is for women.
sex. C. about the same in both sexes.
D. slightly lower for men than it is for women.
29. Which of the following statements is TRUE about
desires of sexual disorder? 36. Female Orgasmic Disorder is characterized by
A. More than 65% of the problems who come to sexuality clinics A. complete inability to reach sexual climax.
for help complain of this disorder. B. stress, which leads to the disorder.
B. It is the most common presenting complaint of both men and C. relationship problems, which lead to the disorder.
women. D. delay, absence, or decreased intensity in orgasm.
C. For women, the prevalence of this disorder (female sexual
interest/arousal disorder) decreases with age. 37. The percentage of women reporting significant difficulty
D. For men, the prevalence of this disorder (male hypoactive reaching orgasm is .
sexual desire disorder) decreases with age. A. 5%
B. 10%
30. A person who suffers from a disorder of sexual desire C. 25%
may D. 40%
A. never think about sex.
B. never have sex. 38. One reason that different diagnostic criteria are used for
C. have sex (even frequently), but not because of desire. males and females with inhibited orgasm disorder is that
D. all of the above A. many men who do not achieve orgasm through intercourse
can reach climax through alternate forms of stimulation.
31. The main feature of sexual arousal disorders is B. only about 20% of women regularly experience orgasm from
A. lack of desire for sex despite normal physical sexual intercourse.
response. C. both a and b are correct.
B. sexual arousal to inappropriate stimuli. D. neither a nor b is correct.
C. the experience of pain during sex.
D. lack of physical sexual response despite desire for sex. 39. Jacob and Liu have been happily married for 10 years.
Although fulfilling in other ways, Jacob typically ejaculates
32. Sexual arousal disorders are diagnosed when there is within 1 minute of penetration and before Liu is ready.
an Which of the following is true about premature ejaculation:
A. inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a A. Premature ejaculation is uncommon, impacting only 5% of
lack of desire for sex in females. men.
B. inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a B. Premature ejaculation typically happens in older men.
lack of orgasm in females C. Premature ejaculation is most common in younger, less
C. inability to achieve orgasm for either gender despite erection experienced men.
in males and lubrication in females. D. Premature ejaculation is not serious and does not require a
D. inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a medical examination to rule out physiological causes.
lack of lubrication in females.
40. Sandra and Jim have been happily married for several
33. Based on stringent criteria, research data indicate that years. Sandra reports that she reaches orgasm from
the percentage of men between the ages of 18 and 59 with intercourse only about half of the time and wonders if
erectile dysfunction is . something is "wrong" with her. Sandra should
A. 1% A. seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder.
B. 3% B. realize that her inhibited orgasm problem means that she
C. 5% doesn't really love Jim
D. 10% C. relax and realize that this is not unusual for women
34. What is the percentage of men in their 70s with at least D. have a medical exam before assuming that she has a
some impairment of erectile function? diagnosable psychological disorder.
A. 10%
B. 30% 41. Jody and Howard have been happily married for several
C. 50% years. Howard reports that in spite of being sexually
D. 70% aroused and having an erection, he only reaches orgasm
from intercourse about half of the time. Howard wonders if
something is "wrong" with him. Howard should

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
A. seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder. 48. One of the most important skills that therapists must
B. realize that this problem means that he does not really love possess when conducting an interview regarding sexual
his wife. behavior is
C. relax and realize that this is normal. A. communicating their own sexual values.
D. seek treatment for sexual aversion disorder. B. using only the proper clinical terms for sexual behavior.
C. demonstrating that they are comfortable talking about sexual
42. The following pairing is correct based on the ages most issues.
affected by the disorders: D. being able to diagnose medical causes of sexual dysfunction.
A. inexperienced men - premature ejaculation; older men –
vaginismus. 49. A Sex Therapist is likely to assess multiple dimensions
B. inexperienced men - premature ejaculation; older men - of sexual behavior including:
erectile dysfunction. A. sexual attitudes.
C. inexperienced men - inhibited orgasm; older men - erectile B. sexual behaviors.
dysfunction. C. relationship issues.
D. inexperienced men - erectile dysfunction; older men – male D. All of the answers are correct.
hypoactive sexual arousal disorder.
50. Psychophysiological assessment of sexual dysfunction
43. The most common of all the male sexual dysfunctions is generally conducted by
is A. using a device that measures physical arousal during
A. erectile dysfunction exposure to an erotic video or audio tape.
B. inhibited orgasm B. asking patients to keep a diary of their sexual activities.
C. premature ejaculation C. a physician during a medical exam.
D. sexual aversion D. using a device that measures brain waves during exposure
to an erotic video or audio tape.
44. One reason that it is difficult to provide a precise
diagnosis of premature ejaculation is that 51. An instrument that is used to assess physical changes
A. the concept of "too soon" is dependent on the individual and in a woman’s vagina as she experiences sexual arousal and
the couple. is smaller than a tampon is called a vaginal ______ .
B. most men are too ashamed to admit the problem. A. photoplethysmograph
C. women generally are reluctant to tell their partners of the B. strain gauge
problem. C. EMG device
D. men are often unaware of what is considered "normal." D. snap gauge
45. Premature ejaculations are
A. clearly defined by the amount of time between penetration 52. Two very common medical causes of erectile
and climax. dysfunction are
B. generally a result of perception of control rather than actual A. asthma and diabetes.
time. B. vascular disease and diabetes.
C. always a sign of serious sexual problems. C. vascular disease and asthma.
D. more likely in men with a higher level of sexual experience. D. arthritis and diabetes.
46. Vaginismus refers to 53. Some research suggests that as many as 80% of
A. painful pelvic spasms during penetration. individuals taking________medication experience some
B. painful cramps during the menstrual cycle. degree of sexual dysfunction, though estimates closer to
C. strong orgasms. 50% seem much more reliable.
D. a disorder of male sexual responsivity. A. SSRI
B. beta blocker
47. One reason that your text suggests questionnaires be C. tricyclic antidepressant
used when assessing sexual behavior is that D. anti-hypertensive
A. people may provide more sexual information in writing than
during an interview.
B. written information regarding sexuality has been shown to be 54. Sherri and Leo have been having some sexual
more accurate than a verbal report. difficulties lately. Both have experienced some symptoms
C. therapists are often uncomfortable asking questions of sexual arousal disorders. They decide to have a few
regarding sexual behavior. glasses of wine before engaging in sex tonight. Is this a
D. the therapist needs a written record in the patient's own good idea or a bad idea?
words to demonstrate progress as the patient improves. A. It's a good idea since wine could increase desire.
B. It's a good idea since wine could help performance.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. It's a bad idea since wine could further impair arousal. C. fear of sex.
D. It's a bad idea since wine tends to decrease desire. D. fear of being raped
55. The effects of alcohol on sexual behavior were well 62. Sexual dysfunction is often related to .
noted by William Shakespeare and can be summarized as A. dislike for partner
A. alcohol decreases desire and performance. B. perception of self as less attractive than before
B. alcohol may increase desire but it decreases performance. C. guilt about sex
C. alcohol may increase performance but it decreases desire. D. all of the above
D. alcohol may increase desire, but nobody wants to sleep with
a drunk! 63. Children or young adults who experience sexual
victimization are
56. Who will be most likely to have a sexual dysfunction? A. no more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults
A. Santo, a 28-year-old, who sometimes gets over excited and than anyone else.
ejaculates after a couple of minutes. B. more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults if they
B. Henry, who is 65 and once had a heart attack. are females.
C. Imelda, who is 33 and sexually inexperienced. C. more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults if they
D. Katrina, who is 65 and has sex only once a week. are males.
D. more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults.
57. Our current understanding of the psychological causes
of sexual dysfunction suggests that the primary 64. An unusually high concern with nocturnal emissions
psychological factor in sexual dysfunction is A. anxiety has been reported in____where there is a strong culturally
B. distraction held belief that loss of semen causes depletion of physical
C. relationship issues and mental energy.
D. unreasonable expectations A. Ireland
B. Indonesia
58. The original concept of performance anxiety as a cause C. India
of sexual dysfunction has been replaced with a more D. Iceland
modern view that performance anxiety is comprised of
A. distraction, cognition, and depression. 65. Belief in common sexual myths such as are more
B. arousal, anxiety, and distraction. commonly held by men
C. cognition, arousal, and distraction. A. who do not have sexual disorders.
D. arousal, cognitive processes, and negative affect. B. with conservative sexual attitudes.
C. who have sexual disorders.
59. As a typical male with erectile dysfunction, we can D. who are homosexual.
expect Bill to show
A. decreased arousal during performance demand and an 66. Development of sexual dysfunction can be viewed as a
inaccurate sense of how aroused he is. negative cycle that involves a variety of factors, since the
B. decreased arousal during performance demand and an typical case progresses in the following manner:
accurate sense of how aroused he is. A. Initial dysfunction may be triggered by an event such as
C. increased arousal during performance demand and an substance use; concern about the dysfunction then leads to
inaccurate sense of how aroused he is. more dysfunction, and sex itself becomes associated with
D. increased arousal during performance demand and an negative feelings.
accurate sense of how aroused he is. B. Initial dysfunction may be triggered by an event such as
substance use; this causes a strain on the relationship and
60. Greg often has problems with premature ejaculation. As reduces the intimacy in the relationship, which then leads to
he becomes more anxious about his problem, the amount anxiety about one's desirability.
of time between initiating intercourse and ejaculation will C. Initial dysfunction occurs through slow and gradual
most likely . deterioration, possibly due to a medical condition; as the
A. increase medical condition develops, the individual's concern with failing
B. decrease sexuality increases, resulting in relationship problems.
C. remain the same D. A general medical condition triggers the first dysfunction,
D. depend upon what is making him anxious which is followed by increased anxiety; as the anxiety increases,
the sexual dysfunction becomes more severe over time and
61. The most accurate description for the condition called causes loss of interest in sex.
erotophobia is
A. negative feelings toward sexuality.
B. negative feelings about other people.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
67. The authors of your textbook suggest that one of the B. many therapists using Masters and Johnson's techniques are
most effective treatments for many sexual dysfunctions is able to demonstrate even greater treatment effectiveness than
A. exploration of the patient's sexual orientation. Masters and Johnson did.
B. improving the relationship with the patient's partner. C. daily treatment is a critical component of the method.
C. education regarding normal sexuality. D. sensate focus is generally only effective when administered
D. anti-anxiety medication. by Masters and Johnson.
68. Maggie and Jim have started sex therapy to deal with 74. Sex therapy for erectile dysfunction has produced a
Jim's recent erectile dysfunction. The therapist has positive treatment outcome in approximately_____ of the
instructed them to refrain from intercourse or genital cases treated.
touching but to spend the next several days enjoying each A. 20 to 30%
other through hugging, kissing, and mutual massage. This B. 40 to 50%
is an example of C. 60 to 70%
A. phase one of sensate focus treatment. D. 80 to 90%
B. phase two of sensate focus treatment.
C. a strict behavioral treatment for erectile dysfunction. 75. The sex therapy technique designed specifically to treat
D. the first step in cognitive therapy for erectile dysfunction. premature ejaculation is .
A. the squeeze technique
69. Sensate focus and non-demand pleasuring were B. sensate focus
designed by Masters and Johnson to treat sexual C. non-demand pleasuring
dysfunctions primarily through D. cognitive restructuring
A. improving a couple's sexual skills.
B. identifying medical conditions that contribute to sexual 76. The specific treatment found effective in the treatment
dysfunction. of female orgasmic disorder is .
C. involving an objective third party. A. anti-anxiety medication
D. elimination of psychologically-based performance anxiety. B. sensate focus
C. explicit training in masturbation procedures
70. Phase two of sensate focus involves "genital D. increased sexual relations
pleasuring" but prohibits intercourse or orgasm. The main
purpose of this stage is to 77. A woman is sent home from sex therapy with an
A. allow an individual to communicate his or her desires to the assignment to purchase a vibrator and practice
partner. masturbating. She is likely being treated .
B. change the usual ways that the couple has tried to have sex. A. for vaginismus
C. allow sexual experience without the anxiety of performance. B. for hypoactive sexual desire disorder
D. provide increased anticipation of intercourse. C. for female orgasmic disorder
D. by a sex therapist with little or no formal training in psychology
71. As a couple completes phase two of sensate focus
therapy, they are instructed to 78. Dilators of gradually increasing sizes are used in the
A. return to full, prior sexual activity. treatment of .
B. slowly begin sexual activity, continuing non-demand A. female orgasmic disorder
pleasuring as they progress. B. vaginismus
C. take a break from sexual activity for several weeks and then C. hypoactive sexual desire disorder
slowly return to normal sexuality. D. all of these
D. begin the "genital pleasuring" stage of the treatment.
79. According to your textbook, what is the percentage of
72. Masters and Johnson reported that the use of sensate women who successfully overcome vaginismus?
focus therapy for the treatment of premature ejaculation A. Less than 30%
was effective in of cases treated. B. 30% to 45%
A. 50% C. 50% to 75%
B. 65% D. 80% to 100%
C. 75%
D. almost 100% 80. The percentage of men with erectile dysfunction who
take Viagra and are then able to maintain an erection
73. Treatment effectiveness studies of Masters and sufficient for intercourse is between
Johnson's sensate focus therapy have indicated that A. 5% and 40%
A. certain aspects of the treatment such as two therapists and B. 50% and 80%
daily therapy are not necessary. C. 80% and 90%

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
D. 90% and 100% C. not well-studied and not available in all locations.
D. not well-studied but generally available everywhere.
81. What significant side effect is experienced by as many
as 30% of Viagra users? 88. A paraphilic disorder is defined as
A. Severe headache A. a sexual dysfunction.
B. Addiction B. an attraction to inappropriate individuals or objects.
C. Groin pain C. an attraction to machines.
D. Dizziness D. a desire that dominates the personality.
82. Research studies on Viagra users indicate that 89. The definition of fetishistic disorder is sexual
A. most users are able to engage in intercourse and are very A. dysfunction
satisfied with the results. B. attraction to inappropriate individuals
B. approximately half of the users are able to engage in C. attraction to nonliving objects
intercourse and are highly satisfied with results. D. desire that dominates the personality
C. 61% of men were able to get erections adequate for
intercourse, but only 32% rated the results as at least “good.” 90. Charles gets very sexually excited by women's shoes.
D. most users were unable to engage in intercourse and were While he used to fantasize about women wearing particular
not satisfied with results. shoes, he now focuses almost exclusively on the shoes
themselves. Charles has a(n) .
83. Papaverine and prostaglandin, vasodilating drugs used A. sexual dysfunction
in the treatment of erectile dysfunction, are delivered to the B. unusual interest but does not have a diagnosable disorder
patient C. fetishistic disorder
A. in a capsule taken orally. D. frotteuristic obsession
B. as a dietary supplement.
C. by injection directly into the penis. 91. Greg and Diana often begin their sexual activity with
D. by injection into the arm or hip. Greg putting on a striptease show for Diana. They both
report great satisfaction and excitement with this activity.
84. Although vasodilating drugs such as papaverine and In fact, Greg says that he gets aroused by exposing himself,
prostaglandin are effective in producing an erection for and Diana reports getting aroused when she watches him
patients with erectile dysfunction, many patients undress. Which of the following statements is true?
discontinue use of the drugs because of A. Greg is an exhibitionist, and Diana is a voyeur.
A. the painful nature of the treatment. B. Greg is a voyeur, and Diana is an exhibitionist.
B. the fact that these drugs eventually cure the disorder. C. Both Diana and Greg have nonspecific fetishes because they
C. the expense of the drug. admit to getting sexually excited by their atypical behaviors.
D. the fact that the effectiveness of the drug decreases with D. Neither Greg nor Diana should be diagnosed with a fetish
continued use. because these behaviors involve consenting individuals.
85. Which of the following treatments is NOT currently used 92. One psychological aspect of voyeurism and
in the treatment of erectile dysfunction? exhibitionism that seems to maintain the disordered
A. Vasodilating drugs behavior is
B. Anti-anxiety medication A. some anxiety that increases arousal.
C. Surgical prosthetic implant B. the fact that these individuals are rarely caught.
D. Vacuum device therapy C. the desire to hurt their victims.
D. some sense that their victims really enjoy being subjected to
86. One of the reasons that Viagra has become so widely their fetish.
accepted as a treatment for erectile dysfunction is that
A. it is more effective than the other available treatments. 93. All of the following are true statements regarding
B. it is less expensive than other medications such as transvestic disorder EXCEPT
vasodilators. A. all people with transvestic disorder are either homosexual or
C. people are unaware of the other options. transsexual.
D. an oral medication is less awkward and intrusive than other B. a significant percentage of individuals with this disorder are
treatments. married or have been married at some time.
C. there are cross-dressing clubs and newsletters for individuals
87. Therapy for sexual dysfunctions such as disorders of with this fetish.
sexual desire can best be described as D. some transvestic fetishists compensate by joining macho or
A. well-studied and widely available. paramilitary organizations.
B. well-studied but only available in specialty clinics.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
94. Individuals with _____are those who receive a sexual B. replace the immediate reinforcement of the behavior with the
thrill from inflicting pain on others, and people unpleasant consequences that ordinarily take longer to be
with_______are individuals who receive a sexual thrill from experienced.
receiving physical pain. C. create a physically painful experience to replace the
A. sexual sadism disorder; sexual masochism disorder immediate reinforcement that the unwanted behavior has
B. sexual masochism disorder; sexual sadism disorder previously produced.
C. transvestic disorder ; pedophilic disorder D. improve family functioning, social skills, and overall
D. pedophilic disorder; transvestic disorder effectiveness of appropriate adult relations.
95. "Opportunistic" rape differs from sadistic rape in that 102. Patients undergoing the procedure called orgasmic
the rape in the latter is committed by an individual reconditioning are instructed to
A. who meets the criteria for antisocial personality disorder. A. masturbate to their usual fantasies but to substitute more
B. with a particular pattern of sexual arousal. desirable ones just before ejaculation.
C who rarely masturbates. B. masturbate to their usual fantasies but substitute images of
D. during an unplanned assault. the consequences associated with their behavior (such as
getting caught, hurting someone else, etc.) just before
96. Which of the following is TRUE about most rapists? ejaculation.
A. They are sexually aroused only by violence. C. substitute images of the consequences associated with their
B. They are aggressive and have little regard for others. behavior (such as getting caught, hurting someone else, etc.)
C. They are either hyposexual or asexual. every time they feel aroused by thoughts of their inappropriate
D. They are hypersexual and generally obsessed with sex. desires.
D. watch video tapes of normal adult sexuality repeatedly until
97. Victims of incest tend to be___________, and victims of such images result in arousal.
pedophilia (who are not also incest victims) tend to
be_________.
A. male; female 103. The procedure called orgasmic reconditioning works
B. young children; girls who are beginning to mature physically according to the principle of .
C. girls who are beginning to mature physically; young children A. punishment of inappropriate patterns of arousal
D. female; male B. extinction of inappropriate patterns of arousal
C. reinforcement of appropriate patterns of arousal
98. The typical adult who molests a child D. reinforcement of self-control
A. is violent and aggressive.
B. threatens the child physically but is not violent. 104. Research regarding the success of treating paraphilias
C. does not use physical force. with procedures such as orgasmic reconditioning and
D. is fully aware of the psychological damage that he is causing covert sensitization indicates that
the child. A. treatment is generally not successful.
B. treatment is successful in only the small number of cases
99. One model of learning predicts that the following boy where the patient completes all treatment sessions.
might grow up to be a voyeur: C. the number of cases in the research studies is too small to
A. Tim, whose father is a voyeur. make conclusions at this point.
B. Joe, who watches a lot of pornography. D. treatment is generally effective.
C. Sid, who masturbates while peeping at his neighbor.
D. Jim, who thinks it's funny to spy on people. 105. Treatment for paraphilias is considered successful
when someone has
100. The procedure that is carried out entirely in the A. completed all treatment sessions.
patient's imagination and used to reduce the inappropriate B. demonstrated no deviant sexual arousal on objective
sexual arousal that exists in fetishistic behavior is called physiological testing.
A. classical conditioning C. had no legal record of any charges of deviant sexual activity.
B. sexual re-training D. all of the above.
C. sensate focus
D. covert sensitization 106. Which of the following is TRUE regarding drugs
currently available for the treatment of paraphilias?
101. The basic concept behind the covert sensitization A. The drugs eliminate sexual desire but are only effective while
method of treating unwanted sexual arousal is to they are being taken.
A. create empathy for the victim of the behavior. B. The drugs reduce sex drive and continue to be effective long
after the patient stops the medication.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. The drugs dramatically reduce sex drive but have side effects B. environment and genetics contribute equally to the cause.
that make them harmful to many patients. C. it cannot be determined, as yet, regarding the extent of the
D. They produce a "chemical castration" that effectively genetic and environmental contributions to the cause.
eliminates all sex drive permanently so that the patient will never D. none of the above.
desire sex even after discontinuing the medication.
114. Recent twin studies suggest that the majority of the
107. Gender dysphoria is diagnosed when vulnerability for gender dysphoria comes from
A. a person's physical sex is inconsistent with the person's A. genetic factors.
gender identity. B. environmental factors.
B. an individual receives sexual pleasure from cross-dressing. C. medical accidents.
C. an individual is born with ambiguous genitalia. D. media exposure.
D. all of these are correct.
115. Studies suggest that in comparison to other girls and
boys, girls with congenital adrenal hyperplasia are
108. Which of the following is NOT true about gender _____________.
nonconformity in children: A. more feminine
A. Gender nonconformity is common. B. more masculine
B. Gender nonconformity always leads to gender dysphoria. C. smaller
C. Gender nonconformity can lead to negative social D. smarter
adjustment.
D. All of the answers are correct. 116. A boy who consistently behaves in feminine ways is
exhibiting
109. Why is it important that treatment for gender A. gender non-activation.
nonconformity be individualized for each child? B. gender experimentation.
A. Each child has different needs. C. gender crises.
B. Each child is in a different social environment. D. gender nonconformity.
C. Each child and family varies on the level with which gender
nonconformity is problematic. 117. All of the following statements are correct about
D. All of the answers are correct. gender nonconformity EXCEPT
A. a higher proportion of gender-nonconforming children
110. Inappropriate sexual arousal (e.g., fetishism) appears develop a homosexual orientation as adults.
to be learned through B. gender nonconformity was related to psychological distress
A. exposure to pornography. for gay men only.
B. masturbatory fantasies about the object. C. gender nonconformity was related to psychological distress
C. social "scripts" that are transferred from one generation to the for lesbians only.
next. D. gender nonconformity was related to psychological distress
D. poor social skills. for gay men and lesbians.
111. Of the following, the individual who should be 118. Research suggests that gender nonconformity
diagnosed with gender dysphoria is typically results in .
A. Joe, who gets sexually aroused by wearing women's bras. A. gender identity issues
B. Lisa, who is gay and has many traditional masculine traits. B. homosexual preferences
C. Mark, who feels like a woman trapped in a man's body. C. bisexuality
D. Sid, who can only become sexually aroused while dressed D. none of the above
like a woman.
119. All of the following are factors that may play a role in
112. The incidence of gender dysphoria gender nonconformity EXCEPT
A. is higher than that of transvestic disorder. A. excessive attention on the part of the mother.
B. occurs three times more frequently in natal males than natal B. high levels of fetal testosterone.
females. C. lack of male playmates.
C. is based on studies in Norway, United Sates, and England. D. excessive physical contact on the part of the mother.
D. is moderate, with about 5% or more of the population
affected. 120. All of the following statements about sex reassignment
surgery are true EXCEPT
113. According to research on gender dysphoria, A. 2% attempt suicide after surgery.
A. genetics contribute around 62% of the vulnerability to B. 15% later regret surgery.
experiencing gender dysphoria.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. trans men generally report better post-surgical adjustment Chapter 11 | Substance-Related Addictive, and Impulse-
than transwomen. Control Disorders
D. all of the above are true.
1. Cameron has a cup of coffee every morning, smokes 10
121. Intersexuality refers to people who cigarettes a day, and has a beer with dinner. This is an
A. are born with ambiguous genitals. example of
B. are sexually attracted to members of both sexes. A. substance use.
C. like to dress like the opposite sex. B. substance abuse.
D. are no longer sexually active. C. polysubstance abuse.
D. substance intoxication.
122. The new approaches to understanding and treating
intersexed individuals that have been proposed recently 2. Which of the following would NOT be an example of
(Fausto Sterling, 2000) are based on the concept of "five substance use?
sexes," which include all of the following EXCEPT A. Smoking a cigarette
_______________. B. Drinking a cup of coffee
A. "herms" C. Taking a sleeping pill
B. "merms" and "ferms" D. Getting drunk
C. males and females
D. "andros" and "estros" 3. The American Psychiatric Association defines substance
abuse in terms of
A. how drunk or intoxicated a person gets after ingesting a
psychoactive substance.
B. whether or not the substance interferes with the person's life.
C. the type and intensity of the substance abuser's biological
reaction.
D. which drug is used and whether it is legal or illegal.
4. Substance intoxication includes all of the following

EXCEPT
A. the specific drug that is used.
B. how much of a drug is used or ingested.
C. the drug user's individual biological reaction.
D. physiological dependence on the drug.
5. In terms of substance-related disorders, the word

“addiction” is most closely associated with .
A. substance dependence
B. intoxication
C. drug dependence
D. polysubstance abuse
6. How many symptoms must a patient display to meet the

DSM-5 diagnosis of a Substance Use Disorder?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6 or more
7. How many symptoms must a patient display to meet the

DSM-5 diagnosis of a moderate Substance Use Disorder?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6 or more

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
8. How many symptoms must a patient display to meet the D. dependent and tolerant.
DSM-5 diagnoses of a severe Substance Use Disorder?
A. 1 15. Alcoholism and substance abuse, previously
B. 2 considered a _________________, is now conceptualized
C. 4 by many as a disease.
D. 6 or more A. sociopathic personality disturbance
B. schizophrenic-like behavioral pattern
9. A person who is physiologically dependent on a drug will C. type of dependent personality disorder
experience D. hysterical conversion syndrome
A. tolerance to the effects of the drug.
B. withdrawal symptoms if the drug is withdrawn. 16. Alcohol and the drugs Seconal, Halcion, and Valium are
C. both tolerance and withdrawal. all classified as____________________ .
D. neither tolerance nor withdrawal. A. stimulants
B. opiates
10. The repeated use of a drug, a desperate need to ingest C. depressants
more of the substance (stealing money to buy drugs, D. narcotics
standing outside in the cold to smoke), and the likelihood
that use will resume after a period of abstinence are ______ 17. All of the following analgesic substances are classified
behaviors. as opiates EXCEPT .
A. drug-seeking A. cocaine
B. drug-avoidant B. codeine
C. typical C. heroin
D. psychological D. morphine
11. Carol has been addicted to narcotics for many years. 18. All of the following are hallucinogens EXCEPT .
Recently, she has been trying to quit and has not used any A. cannabis
drugs for the last week. We can expect that Carol will be B. codeine
experiencing _________________ . C. LSD
A. fever and chills D. all of the answers are correct
B. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C. aches and pains 19. Both morphine and codeine produce analgesia, which
D. all of these means that they
A. activate the central nervous system.
12. A perspective of Substance Use Disorder that involves B. relieve pain and produce euphoria.
"drug-seeking behaviors" includes all of the following C. increase alertness.
EXCEPT D. cause delusions and dissociative experiences.
A. repeated use of the drug.
B. a desperate need to ingest more of the drug. 20. Which of the following is an example of alcohol's effects
C. resuming drug use after a period of abstinence. on brain functioning?
D. physical symptoms when the drug is no longer used. A. Faster reaction time
B. Improved judgment
13. Tirkel steals money from his mother's handbag every C. Impaired motor coordination
time he needs to buy drugs. His Substance Use Disorder is D. Clear speech
manifested by
A. withdrawal symptoms. 21. Which of the following neurotransmitters affects the
B. drug-seeking behavior. emotion of anxiety during alcohol use?
C. continuing tolerance. A. GABA
D. psychological addiction. B. Serotonin
C. Glutamate
14. Angelina has had difficulty falling asleep for some time. D. Dopamine
She started taking a prescribed sleeping pill every night for
her insomnia. Now, she needs the pill to fall asleep. Without 22. Alcohol can initially appear to cause stimulation
it, she will toss and turn all night, getting little sleep. because it
Angelina is A. makes vision and hearing more acute.
A. dependent and drug abusive. B. has an excitatory effect on the brain.
B. dependent and not drug abusive. C. depresses inhibitory centers in the brain.
C. dependent but not physiologically addicted. D. alters motor coordination.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
23. Although most psychoactive substances interact with B. type of alcohol consumed (e.g., beer, wine, liquor).
specific substances in brain cells, the effects of _____ are C. genetic vulnerability.
much more complex because several different D. the frequency of alcohol use.
neurotransmitter systems are affected.
A. opiates 31. Annabelle has been a heavy drinker for years. Her
B. tranquilizers behavior reflects confusion, loss of muscle coordination
C. alcohol and unintelligible speech. Such behavior is probably the
D. marijuana result of
A. dementia
24. The condition called delirium tremens, also known as B. substance abuse psychotic disorder
the "DTs," involves hallucinations and body tremors during C. fetal alcohol syndrome
withdrawal from . D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
A. heroin
B. cocaine 32. The correct pairing of the names, causes, and
C. alcohol symptoms of two types of organic brain syndromes that
D. marijuana may result from chronic, long-term alcohol abuse are
A. dementia - loss of intellectual abilities caused by a deficiency
25. Blackouts appear to be related to the interaction of of the vitamin called thiamine.
alcohol with the system. B. Broca’s disease - confusion, loss of muscle coordination, and
A. glutamate unintelligible speech caused by a deficiency of the vitamin called
B. serotonin thiamine.
C. GABA C. dementia - confusion, loss of muscle coordination, and
D. dopamine unintelligible speech caused by the toxic effects of alcohol on
the brain.
26. Because of its impact on GABA receptors, alcohol D. Fetal alcohol syndrome - loss of intellectual abilities caused
neuronal communication. by the toxic effects of alcohol on the adult brain.
A. inhibits 33. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a combination of
B. facilitates problems that can occur in a child whose mother drank
C. randomizes alcohol while pregnant. Symptoms of FAS include all of the
D. eliminates following EXCEPT
A. cognitive deficits and behavior problems.
27. What explains the apparent stimulation, feeling of well- B. distorted facial features.
being, and outgoing behavior that occur as the initial C. learning difficulties.
effects of alcohol ingestion? D. excessive fetal growth.
A. Depression of the inhibitory centers in the brain
B. Activation of the inhibitory centers in the brain 34. Differences in fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) rates
C. Depression of the autonomic nervous system among women who drink may be due to differences.
D. Stimulation of the autonomic nervous system A. cultural/racial
B. cognitive
28. Which of the following does NOT describe the specific C. metabolic
effect of alcohol on a particular neurotransmitter system? D. emotional
A. Serotonin - alcoholic cravings
B. Glutamate - alcoholic blackouts 35. Research that asks individuals to indicate their
C. Dopamine - slurred speech frequency of alcohol use found that alcohol use is highest
D. GABA - anti-anxiety effect among______________.
A. Hispanics
29. All of the following are symptoms of withdrawal from B. Asian Americans
alcohol EXCEPT____________. C. Caucasian Americans
A. nausea and/or vomiting D. people with multiracial backgrounds
B. hypersomnia
C. transient hallucinations 36. Peak alcohol use is typical:
D. agitation A. during late teen years
B. in graduate school
30. In some individuals, chronic alcohol use causes C. during the early 20s
physical damage to the body. Whether this occurs depends D. over the age of 65
on all of the following factors EXCEPT
A. blood alcohol levels during drinking periods.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
37. Which of the following is true about alcohol use 43. According to Jellinek's model (no longer considered
disorders internationally? accurate but still of scientific interest), an individual with
A. Highest in Russia and other very cold countries alcoholism progresses through four stages. Which of the
B. Highest in the Middle East following INCORRECTLY describes the characteristic
C. Highest in Latin America behaviors associated with each of Jellinek's stages?
D. Highest in the United States A. Pre Alcoholic stage - hangovers, DWI or DUI charges,
blackouts
38. Which of the following is an accurate statement about B. Prodromal stage - drinking heavily but few outward signs of
alcohol use? problems
A. Education is negatively correlated with recent alcohol use. C. Chronic stage – primary daily activities involve drinking and
B. Half of all Americans over the age of 12 report being current getting drunk
drinkers of alcohol. D. Crucial stage – loss of control with occasional binges
C. Female college students were more likely than male college
students to report several episodes of binge drinking in a two- 44. A research study of 6,000 lifetime drinkers (DeWitt et al.,
week period. 2000) found that drinking at an early age (ages 11 to 14)
D. Alcohol use in the elderly population is typically high. A. was predictive of later alcohol use disorders.
B. had no relationship to alcohol use later in life.
39. In a large survey among college-age men and women, it C. caused more frequent blackouts than drinking at later ages.
was found that D. resulted in more severe withdrawal symptoms than drinking
A. about 75% of the respondents had gone on a binge of heavy at later ages.
drinking once in the preceding two weeks.
B. there was no relationship between frequency of drinking and 45. Which of the following is an accurate statement about
grades. alcoholism?
C. students with a grade-point average of "A" had no more than A. A progressive pattern leading to alcoholism is inevitable for
one drink per week. those who drink alcohol.
D. "D" and "F" students averaged 11 alcoholic drinks per week. B. The factors that determine a drinker's susceptibility to
alcoholism are not yet fully understood.
40. In 2012, researchers at the Substance Abuse and Mental C. Alcohol use and aggressive behavior are negatively
Health Services Administration estimated that more than correlated.
Americans are probably dependent on alcohol. D. Use of alcohol by preteens and young teenagers does not
A. 5 million predict later abuse.
B. 11 million 46. Although alcohol use and aggression are positively
C 16 million correlated, the factors that actually determine aggressive
D. 25 million behavior involve all of the following EXCEPT
A. quantity and timing of alcohol consumed.
41. A report from the Substance Abuse and Health Services B. the person's previous history of violence.
Administration (2012) indicates that just under half of C. the expectations about drinking.
Americans reported binge drinking in the month preceding D. the person's level of intelligence.
the report.
A. 2% 47. You have just heard about a situation in which someone
B. 24% who was drunk vandalized a building and assaulted a
C. 51% security guard. From your knowledge of abnormal
D. 65% psychology, you are aware that although alcohol does not
42. The prevailing view that alcohol abuse usually follows a cause aggressive behavior, it may
predictable downward spiral was based on Jellinek's mid A. stimulate the inhibitory center of the brain, causing
20th century survey of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) aggressive behavior.
members that asked them how alcohol had affected them B. activate the aggressive genes in the person's DNA.
physically and psychologically. Data from this survey are C. impair the ability to consider the consequences of acting
now considered inaccurate because impulsively.
A. respondents faked their answers to the questions on the D. increase the anxiety associated with being punished for one's
survey. actions.
B. too few AA members answered the survey questions.
C. since the survey was only sent to older members of AA, 48. Alcohol is related to violence because it .
information on the progression of alcohol use was not available. A. increases impulsivity
D. Jellinek himself became an alcoholic and never finished the B. increases rational thinking
research. C. causes aggression
D. decreases aggressive behavior

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
D. Ritalin
49. Which of the following terms is the definition of
anxiolytic? 57. Which of the following types of drugs typically is used
A. Sleep-inducing in large amounts to commit suicide?
B. Anxiety-reducing A. Benzodiazepines
C. Anti-seizure B. Barbiturates
D. Anxiety-increasing C. Stimulants
D. Hallucinogens
50. Which of the following terms is the definition of
sedative? 58. The most commonly consumed of all the psychoactive
A. Sleep-inducing drugs are the stimulants, which include all of the following
B. Anxiety-reducing EXCEPT _____________.
C. Anti-seizure A. caffeine
D. Calming B. cocaine
C. nicotine
51. Which of the following terms is the definition of D. mescaline
hypnotic?
A. Sleep-inducing 59. Which of the following is an accurate statement about
B. Anxiety-reducing amphetamines and/or amphetamine use disorders?
C. Anti-seizure A. Amphetamines cause a period of depression and fatigue
D. Calming (called "crashing"), which is followed by feelings of elation and
52. Which of the following terms is the definition of euphoria.
anticonvulsant? B. Amphetamines cause an increase in appetite and a decrease
A. Sleep-inducing in fatigue.
B. Anxiety-reducing C. Amphetamines decrease the availability of dopamine and
C. Anti-seizure norepinephrine in the nervous system.
D. Calming D. Amphetamine overdose can cause hallucinations, panic,
agitation, and paranoid delusions.
53. Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as a
barbiturate? 60. Until 1903, Coca-Cola contained which of the following?
A. Amytal A. Cocaine
B. Seconal B. Heroin
C. Rohypnol C. Caffeine
D. Nembutal D. Chocolate
54. Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as a 61. Ecstasy, or MDMA,
benzodiazepine? A. increases appetite.
A. Ativan B. rarely causes Emergency Room visits.
B. Valium C. is now used more than LSD.
C. Xanax D. acts like speed, but has major withdrawal symptoms.
D. Seconal
62. Which of the following effects is associated with
55. Minerva was extremely anxious and worried about cocaine use?
everything. She thought that something terrible would A. Decreased alertness
happen and worried what people thought about her. Her B. Increased appetite
doctor most likely prescribed it to help her. C. Decreased pulse and blood pressure
A. an opiate D. Rapid and irregular heartbeat
B. an anticonvulsant
C. a sedative 63. "Crack babies," born to mothers who have used
D. an antidepressant cocaine, often develop problems that are attributed not
only to the effects of cocaine but also to
56. Misuse of the benzodiazepine _________________has A. mother’s use of alcohol.
resulted in it being referred to as the "forget-me pill," and it B. mother’s use of nicotine.
has been used to facilitate date rape. C. disrupted home environments.
A. Amytal D. all of these.
B. Halcion 64. Stimulation of the neurons in the "pleasure pathway"
C. Rohypnol (the site in the brain that seems to be involved in the

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
experience of pleasure) probably causes the "high 71. Angus had been "hooked" for a while before he decided
associated with cocaine use. to "go clean." Within 6 to 12 hours, he started to experience
A. dopamine excessive yawning, nausea and vomiting, chills, muscle
B. serotonin aches, diarrhea, and insomnia. His behavior disrupted his
C. adrenaline work and social relationships. These symptoms persisted
D. endorphin for three days. After a week, he felt better. Angus is
probably withdrawing from
65. Your shy and introverted friend tells you that she has A. alcohol
discovered a wonder drug that produces feelings of B. cocaine
euphoria and is not addictive. When you realize that she is C. heroin
talking about cocaine, you inform her that D. LSD
A. scientists agree that it is a wonder drug just as she describes.
B. In the early 20t h century cocaine was an ingredient in Pepsi- 72. Enkephalins and endorphins are natural opioids found
Cola. in
C. cocaine will make her more social and outgoing. A. the brain
D. dependence on cocaine develops slowly over a period of B. the humoral system
years. C. DNA
D. poppy seeds
66. Nikki has decided to stop smoking (again). She can
expect to experience which of the following withdrawal 73. Which of the following is an accurate statement
symptoms? concerning marijuana use and abuse?
A. Elevated mood A. Paranoia and hallucinations can occur.
B. Decreased appetite B. Tolerance develops rapidly.
C. Weight loss C. Substance Use Disorders can occur with even occasional
D. Irritability use.
D. Marijuana is free of carcinogens.
67. The most common of the psychoactive substances,
used by 90% of Americans, is . 74. Cannabis use often results in .
A. nicotine A. mood swings
B. caffeine B. blunted sensory experience
C. marijuana C. an accurate sense of time
D. opium D. enhanced nausea
68. Which of the following are examples of opioids? 75. Health-wise, marijuana
A. Chemicals in the poppy A. wards off nausea.
B. Hydrocodone B. eases pain associated with multiple sclerosis.
C. Enkephalins C. contains as many carcinogens as tobacco smoke.
D. All of the above D. all of these.
69. Legally available narcotic medications, including 76. Even after Timon read "Psychedelics for Dummies," he
morphine and codeine, are used primarily as . was unable to produce LSD in the lab. He decided he would
A. antagonists have to find a hallucinogen naturally. Therefore, he should
B. analgesics look for which naturally occurring hallucinogen?
C. antibiotics A. Psilocybin
D. antidotes B. Mescaline
C. LSD
70. Which of the following is an accurate statement about D. All of these
opiate (narcotic) addiction?
A. Discontinuing narcotic use brings on withdrawal symptoms in 77. Which of the following hallucinogenic substances is
1 to 2 hours. processed synthetically?
B. Since opiates (narcotics) are usually injected, users are at A. Marijuana
increased risk for HIV and, by extension, AIDS. B. LSD
C.The withdrawal process for narcotic addiction takes about 1 C. Psilocybin
to 3 weeks. D. Mescaline
D. Most addicts die before the age of 50 from a drug overdose. 78. Which of the following statements is false about
hallucinogens?
a. LSD is chemically similar to serotonin.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. Mescaline is chemically similar to norepinephrine. 85. The drugs that directly stimulate the internal reward
c. A number of hallucinogens are chemically similar to center or pleasure pathways in the brain include
acetylcholine. a. amphetamines and cocaine
d. MDMD is chemically similar to glutamate. b. the opiates
c. all of these
79. All of the following are informative and accurate d. none of these
statements about inhalants EXCEPT
a. inhalant use is most commonly observed among college 86. The field of research that studies how genes work to
students. affect addiction is called .
b. symptoms of inhalant use include slurred speech, dizziness, a. behavior genetics
and euphoria. b. the genome project
c. long-term inhalant use can damage bone marrow, the c. functional genomics
kidneys, the liver, and the brain. d. genetic cross-transformation
d. use of inhalants can cause users to be antisocial and
aggressive. 87. Yesterday you asked your friend Ray for a couple of
aspirin tablets. Ray has been taking a psychology course
80. Use of the testosterone-derived anabolic-androgenic and informs you that, in behavioral terms, aspirin is a
steroids differs from other illicit drug use because headache begins to gets worse.)
a. the "high" produced from steroid use is more intense than that a. positive
experienced with other drugs. b. negative
b. steroids are used to increase body mass and enhance c. neutral
performance. d. variable
c. more females than males use anabolic steroids.
d. steroids can be taken orally or by injection. 88. In behavioral terms, drugs like aspirin are considered
negative reinforcers because they
81. Among the so-called recreational or illicit "designer a. quickly make a person feel good.
drugs" is a dissociative anesthetic that produces a sense b. stop a person from feeling pain.
of detachment along with a reduced awareness of pain. It is c. have toxic effects on the nervous system.
called d. can cause frequent users to become dependent on them.
a. Ecstasy (MDMA)
b. "K" or "Special K" 89. Which of the following drugs is known to have an
c. Eve anxiolytic (anxiety-relieving) effect?
d. Nexus a. Methamphetamine
b. Alcohol
82. A recent research study on alcoholism suggests that c. Caffeine
use of illegal drugs is influenced by environmental factors, d. LSD
but abuse and dependence are more influenced by factors.
a. genetic 90. In trying to understand why some people continue to
b. psychological use drugs until they become dependent on them and others
c. non-biological are able to stop before this happens, it is important to
d. cultural consider
a. how sensitive a person is to both the negative effects of
83. The common factor among psychoactive drugs may be alcohol when it is first ingested and to the negative effects of
a. their ability to activate the "pleasure pathways" of the brain. alcohol after a few hours
b. the ease of obtaining them and the relatively inexpensive b. how sensitive a person is to the positive effects of alcohol
cost. when it is first ingested and to the negative effects after a few
c. the similar way in which they are metabolized in the body. hours.
d. their identical effect on neurotransmitters at the synapse. c. how sensitive a person is to the negative effects of alcohol
when it is first ingested and to the positive effects a few hours
84. The "pleasure pathways," or internal reward centers, in later.
the human brain are primarily made up of______________. d. how sensitive a person is to the positive effects of alcohol
a. dopamine-sensitive neurons when it is first ingested and to the positive effects a few hours
b. serotonin-sensitive neurons later.
c. both of these
d. neither of these

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
91. In a study involving the sons of alcoholics who were at b. predict who will later have drinking problems.
high risk themselves for developing alcoholism, it was c. change over time and alcohol use.
found that d. all of the above
a. they were less sensitive to the positive effects of alcohol when
it was first ingested. 98. Substance abuse can be seen from either a biological
b. they were more sensitive to the negative effects of alcohol or a psychosocial perspective. For example, the
after a few hours. condemnation of drug abuse as an official sin by the
c. both of these. Catholic Church is an example of .
d. neither of these. a. the moral weakness model
b. the disease model of dependence
92. In a laboratory research study involving "drug c. the AA model of drug dependency
addiction" in animals, it was demonstrated that the positive d. a 12-step program
reinforcing effect of drugs was
a. biological only. 99. Drug-addicted parents may contribute to their child’s
b. tied to social and cultural influences. drug use by
c. free from social and cultural influences. a. failing to monitor the child’s behavior.
d. biological, social, and cultural. b. making drugs available to the child.
c. creating an environment where peers use drugs.
93. Many individuals use drugs as negative reinforcement d. all of the above.
to escape from the unpleasantness (pain, stress, anxiety)
in their lives. This phenomenon is called all of the following 100. Cravings seem to be exacerbated by
EXCEPT . a. the availability of drugs.
a. self-medication b. specific moods.
b. tension reduction c. places and objects associated with drug taking.
c. controlled dosing d. all of the above.
d. negative affect
101. The disease model of dependence
94. The integration of both positive and negative a. assumes that dependence is caused by a psychological
reinforcement in explaining why the "crash" that follows disorder.
the initial euphoria of drug use is not a deterrent to further b. assumes that dependence is caused by an underlying
drug use is called physiological disorder.
a. the opponent-process theory. c. is a psychosocial perspective.
b. amotivational syndrome. d. assumes that dependence is a failure of self-control.
c. substance induced myopia.
d. an expectancy effect. 102. Research on changes in Korean drug use patterns
suggests that
95. Which of the following is an accurate statement about a. cultural norms can override biological factors that inhibit
the opponent-process explanation of drug addiction? alcohol use.
a. An increase in positive feelings will be followed by an increase b. cultural norms cannot override biological factors that inhibit
in negative feelings alcohol use.
b. An increase in negative feelings will be followed by an c. personality factors contribute to substance use.
increase in positive feelings d. all of these.
c. Both of these
d. Neither of these 103. The brain’s tendency to reorganize by forming new
neural connections is called .
96. Research examining the expectations that kids in A. neuroplasticity
grades 7 through 11 have about drinking alcohol revealed B. neuro elasticity
that some of the students begin drinking because they C. neuro consolidation
think it will have positive effects on their social behavior D. neurogenesis
and cognitive and motor skills, a phenomenon called
a. alcoholic myopia. 104. Which of the following are examples of agonist types
b. an expectancy effect. of treatment for substance abuse?
c. opponent-process theory. A. The use of methadone to treat heroin addiction
d. regressive alcoholism. B. A nicotine patch or nicotine gum to treat addiction to cigarette
smoking
97. Expectancies about alcohol use C. Both of these
a. start before people even start drinking. D. Neither of these

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
105. The opiate-antagonist naltrexone is a treatment for A. a non-substance-abusing relative participates with the
substance abuse that works by alcoholic in relationship improvement sessions.
A. substituting a chemically similar drug for the addictive drug. B. encouraging the substance abuser to accept that his or her
B. both counteracting the effects of opiates and producing friends may continue to be users but associating with them is
withdrawal symptoms. still OK.
C. producing a cross-tolerance effect in a drug user. C. assistance with employment, education, finances, or other
D. producing only a temporary euphoric effect if opiates social service areas is provided to help reduce stress.
continue to be used. D. suggesting options for new recreational activities to replace
previous drug-related activities.
106. The drug called Antabuse helps people abstain from
drinking alcohol by 112. Contingency management involves
A. causing alcoholic drinks to taste bitter. A. the use of reinforcement for specific behaviors.
B. disrupting breakdown of a byproduct of alcohol, leading to B. the elimination of abuse cues.
feelings of illness. C. altering expectations.
C. making people allergic to alcohol. D. use of medications to create substance aversions.
D. reducing the pleasurable feelings that are associated with
alcohol. 113. According to your book, controlled drinking is
believed to be
107. An individual with alcoholism who is highly motivated A. a viable alternative to abstinence.
to stop drinking and who understands the possibly severe B. much more effective than abstinence.
consequences of treatment may be prescribed the drug C. much less efficient than abstinence.
called Antabuse. This medication is an example of D. helpful for everyone.
an_________ treatment for alcoholism.
A. agonist (substitution) 114. Relapse prevention refers to a treatment mode that
B. antagonist views relapse as
C. aversive A. a failure of cognitive and behavioral coping skills.
D. 12-step B. a failure of willpower.
C. proof that a person will never be able to control his/her
108. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement drinking.
about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)? D. an insurmountable obstacle to treatment for substance
A. AA is clearly an effective treatment for some people with a abuse.
Substance Use Disorder.
B. More than 9% of the adult population of the United States has 115. Which of the following has NOT been shown to be
attended an AA meeting. effective in preventing drug use in adolescents?
C AA advocates controlled drinking in which former alcoholics A. Skills training to avoid or resist social pressure
can become social drinkers. B. Education on how the media glorifies drug use
D. It is difficult to conduct accurate research on AA because C. Community strategies about each person’s role in reducing
participation is anonymous. drug use
D. Fear based tactics on the dangers of drug use
109. For which of the following groups has Alcoholics
Anonymous shown to have mixed results? 116. Substance abuse prevention efforts in the past have
A. Women focused on
B. Atheists A. education-based approaches.
C. Asian Americans B. changing laws regarding drug use and possession.
D. Experience for all of these groups has been mixed. C. working with parents to change substance use.
D. all of the above
110. A component that seems to be an integral part of
substance abuse therapy is . 117. Of the following types of drug prevention strategies,
A. covert sensitization which one has the potential for the most successful
B. contingency management outcome (according to the information in your textbook)?
C. relapse prevention A. Education-based programs (e.g., DARE)
D. pharmacotherapy B. Skills training to resist social, media, and peer pressure to
use drugs
111. The community reinforcement approach, a new type of C. Relapse prevention programs focusing on the learned
program that has been started to address the problem of aspects of dependence, i.e., the failure of cognitive and
substance abuse, includes all of the following components behavioral coping skills
EXCEPT

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
D. Cultural attitude change (e.g., widespread enactment of no- Chapter 12 | Personality Disorders
smoking legislation)
1. A therapist who views personality disorders as a
118. Although most impulse control disorders are continuum sees these conditions in terms of
considered rare, one that affects an increasing number of A dimensions
people is ______________. B. categories
A. kleptomania C. attitudes
B. pyromania D. groups
C. gambling disorder
D. intermittent explosive disorder 2. The characteristic features of personality disorders tend
to develop with
119. Pyromania A. rapid onset in late adolescence.
A. is fairly common among arsonists. B. gradual onset in adulthood.
B. is a disorder where an individual is preoccupied with setting C. rapid onset in adulthood.
fires and the associated equipment involved in putting out those D. a chronic pattern with onset in childhood.
fires.
C. is fairly common among people who were bedwetters as 3. Which set of adjective pairs correctly describes the
children. clusters into which DSM-5 personality disorders are
D. is all of these. grouped?
A. Odd/eccentric, dangerous/inconsistent, and shy/withdrawn
120. Which of the following statements is TRUE about B. Shy/withdrawn, anxious/fearful, and dangerous/inconsistent
kleptomania? C. Shy/withdrawn, dramatic/emotional, and bizarre/thought
A. The stolen objects are not needed for personal use or their disordered
monetary value. D. Odd/eccentric, dramatic/emotional, and anxious/fearful
B. The disorder appears to be more common than many
disorders. 4. According to the definition of personality disorder, only
C. The disorder has been fairly well-studied because of the individuals who show______________patterns of
somewhat high prevalence. maladaptive behavior or emotional distress as a result of
D. All of these are true. their actions should be diagnosed with a personality
disorder.
121. Although AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) programs are A. suicidal
considered effective, the drop-out rate for GA (Gambler's B. the most severe
Anonymous) programs is . C. enduring
A. 10 to 30% D. highly variable
B. 30 to 50%
C. 50 to 70% 5. All of the following are necessary conditions for the
D. 70 to 90% diagnosis of a personality disorder EXCEPT
A. patient feelings of distress.
122. Nicotine synergism refers to combining nicotine with B. distress to the person demonstrating the behaviors or others
A. contextual cues around them.
B. expectancies C. maladaptive functioning.
C. practice D. chronic course of behavior.
D. experience
6. When someone has a personality disorder,
123. In the impulse control disorders, the individual feels A. the person may feel that they do not have a problem.
prior to carrying out the act. B. the person is always distressed by his/her disorder.
A. relaxed and calm C. the disorder may come and go.
B. tension and anticipation D. the disorder tends to start very suddenly.
C. spaced out
D. angry and aggressive 7. Unlike schizophrenia or an eating disorder, personality
disorders can be viewed as disorders of
A. biology rather than learning.
B. learning rather than disease.
C. degree rather than kind.
D. functioning rather than disease.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
8. Clinicians who view personality disorders as extremes of

normal personality rather than as _____________ have 14. Which of the following is true about the universality of
historically criticized the way DSM-IV-TR classified the Big Five traits in high school students?
personality disorders. A. Turkish youth are more extroverted than Chinese youth.
A. medical conditions B. Taiwanese students are the most open of the youth studied.
B. biologically based traits C Chinese students are the most conscientious of .the youth
C separate categories of disorders studied.
D. impaired functioning D. All of the answers are true.
9. Both John and Fred meet the diagnostic criteria for 15. Sally is chatty and makes friends easily because she
paranoid personality disorder. John's friends are aware of goes up and introduces herself to others at lunch. Sally is
his paranoia although he continues to live a meaningful life. showing which of the “Big Five” personality dimensions?
Fred's paranoia is so extreme that he finds it hard to A. Extroversion
function in society. The DSM-5 diagnosis for these B. Agreeableness
individuals would be C. Conscientiousness
A. exactly the same. D. Neuroticism
B. categorically different.
C. in the same category but reflect the different levels of 16. Jose always finishes his work on time and he is a very
pathology. popular choice in class for group work because he is
D. in the same category with different specifiers. known for his worth ethic. Jose is showing which of the
“Big Five” personality dimensions?
10. Which of the following would NOT be an advantage of a A. Extroversion
dimensional model of personality disorders? B. Agreeableness
A. Increased information C. Conscientiousness
B. Flexibility D. Neuroticism
C. Avoiding arbitrary decisions about diagnosis
D. It would clearly categorize people 17. Shawna is an artist and shows great creativity in her
paintings. She is curious about the world around her and is
11. Some have proposed that the personality disorders be interested in new ways to paint her surroundings. Shawna
replaced or supplemented by a dimensional model in which likely has which of the “Big Five” personality dimensions?
individuals would be rated on a series of personality A. Extroversion
dimensions as well as a categorical diagnosis. It is believed B. Agreeableness
that this would have advantages over a purely categorical C. Conscientiousness
system. Which of the following would be such an D. Openness to experience
advantage?
A. It would retain more information about each individual. 18. As it relates to the five-factor model, which of the
B. It would be more flexible. following words are examples of neuroticism:
C. It would avoid arbitrary decisions involved in assignment to a A. Assertive
diagnostic category. B. Silent
D. All of these C. Organized
D. Moody
12. The five-factor model of personality includes all of the
following as personality dimensions EXCEPT 19. According to your text, it is likely that future users of the
______________. DSM will
A. extroversion A. eliminate personality disorders altogether.
B. conscientiousness B. emphasize categorical views of personality disorders.
C. expressiveness C. incorporate elements of a dimensional approach to
D. emotional stability personality disorders.
D. reduce the number of personality disorders listed.
13. Cross-cultural research on the five-factor model of
personality suggests that 20. DSM-5 divides personality disorders into distinct
A. there is no such thing as a universal human personality clusters.
structure. A. 1
B. the five dimensions are generally universal. C. 2
C. only two dimensions are universal. C. 3
D. Western type personality structure differs from the non- D. 4
Western type.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
21. The cluster approach to categorizing personality 28. The language barrier of refugees from other countries
disorders is based on . and people with hearing impairments may make these
A. resemblance individuals particularly susceptible to personality disorder.
B. recognition A. histrionic
C. redundancy B. paranoid
D. repetition C. schizotypal
D. schizoid
22. In the U.S., the prevalence of a diagnosable personality
disorder is estimated to be around adults. 29. You are waiting to board a plane when you hear that the
A. 1 out of every 10 flight has been delayed due to a passing thunderstorm. The
B. 1 out of every 100 man sitting next to you says, "Passing thunder storm, sure!
C. 50 out of every 1000 That's Jim again; he's been doing everything to make me
D. 75 out of every 1000 miss this meeting because he's trying to get me fired!" Of
the following, this statement would be most consistent with
23. According to your textbook, the main reason that we do personality disorder.
not have sufficient research examining the development of A. avoidant
personality disorders is that B. histrionic
A. many individuals do not seek treatment in the early phases C borderline
of these disorders. D. paranoid
B. there is insufficient research funding for these disorders due
to relative lack of public awareness. 30. One of the greatest challenges for any therapist treating
C. sophisticated research methods are necessary to study an individual with paranoid personality disorder is
disorders that are so ingrained in personality. A. understanding the patient's belief system.
D. all of these are correct. B. getting the patient to trust the therapist.
C. convincing the patient to talk about his beliefs.
24. Gender differences observed in the prevalence of many D. getting the patient to speak clearly.
personality disorders (i.e., borderline for women, antisocial
for men) may be due to 31. The data regarding treatment outcome for individuals
A. tolerance of behavior in a culture. with paranoid personality disorder
B. differences in help-seeking behavior. A. indicate no evidence for treatment success.
C. gender bias on the part of the diagnosing clinician. B. suggest that treatment can only be successful if the patient
D. all of the above. remains in therapy for a minimum of one year.
C. indicate that cognitive therapy is effective in most cases.
25. Max is always sure that others are trying to harm him. D. demonstrate that strict behavioral approaches are effective.
His perception that the world is a threatening place impacts
most of his life. Most likely, Max would be diagnosed with 32. Theo is quite a loner. He walks to class by himself, does
the personality disorder called not talk to anyone, and appears indifferent to other people.
A. histrionic It is clear that Theo neither desires nor enjoys closeness
B. avoidant with others. He does not act in any obviously unusual ways,
C. paranoid nor does he appear to possess strange beliefs about the
D. antisocial world. Of the following personality disorders, Theo appears
to be __________.
26. A person with paranoid personality disorder may A. avoidant
A. mistrust other people. B. antisocial
B. get into arguments with people. C. schizoid
C. be quiet and withdrawn. D. schizotypal
D. do all of the above.
33. An individual who goes through life as a loner with no
27. An individual presents for treatment and keeps talking motivation to interact with others but with relatively normal
about how gangsters are "out to get him." Before behavior and beliefs is likely to be diagnosed with
diagnosing paranoid personality disorder, we must personality disorder:
determine whether A. histrionic
A. his fears are justified. B. narcissistic
B. his family life is stable. C. schizoid
C. he has ever been in trouble with the law. D. paranoid
D. he avoids socialization.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
34. One prevalent outcome for individuals with schizoid A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
personality disorder is . B. substance-related disorder
A. homelessness C. schizophrenia
B. drug abuse D. major depressive disorder
C. eating disorders
D. anxiety 42. Hideki has been diagnosed with schizotypal personality
disorder and has begun psychotherapy. Since he is willing
35. A possible contribution to schizoid personality disorder to undergo a combined treatment approach, the result
is A. is excellent since most patients seeking treatment eventually
A. childhood shyness are symptom free.
B. childhood abuse and neglect B. may be a reduction in symptoms or postponement of
C. being a parent of an autistic child schizophrenia.
D. all of the above C. is excellent only if he is willing to take medication.
D. is poor since most patients go on to develop schizophrenia.
36. Patients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder
are usually 43. Research suggests that the combination of
A. motivated to begin therapy and generally make progress antipsychotic medications, cognitive behavior therapy, and
quickly. social skills training in schizotypal personality disorders
B. motivated to begin therapy but generally make little progress. A. reduces symptoms or delays later development of
C. not motivated to begin therapy and effectiveness is not yet schizophrenia.
determined. B. increases chances of later development of schizophrenia.
D. not motivated to begin therapy but generally make progress C. is unrelated to schizophrenia risk.
quickly while in therapy. D. alters symptoms of schizophrenia.
37. Individuals who are socially isolated behave in ways 44. Cluster B personality disorders tend to be characterized
that seem unusual, tend to be suspicious, and have odd by behavior.
beliefs are generally diagnosed with personality disorder. A. dramatic
A. schizotypal B. eccentric
B. schizoid C. anxious
C. paranoid D. understated
D. multiple
45. Recent research (2015) suggests that which of the
38. The disorder that shares many similar symptoms with following is a protective factor from childhood conduct
schizophrenia is personality disorder. disorder developing into adult antisocial behavior? .
A. schizoid A. Art therapy
B. paranoid B. Medical interventions
C. borderline C. Participation in sports
D. schizotypal D. None of these are protective factors
39. Individuals who have "ideas of reference" but who 46. Approximately what percentage of people with
sense that these beliefs are probably unrealistic are borderline Personality Disorder are anorexic?
generally diagnosed with personality disorder. A. 5%
A. schizotypal B. 10%
B. avoidant C. 20%
C. antisocial D. 50%
D. histrionic
47. Of the following,personality disorder is not found in
40. According to the textbook, a possible cause of “Cluster B.”
schizotypal personality disorder is . A. antisocial
A. genetic B. borderline
B. environmental C. histrionic
C. brain abnormalities D. schizoid
D. all of the above 48. Substance abuse is particularly common in people with
________________ personality disorder, occurring in 60%
41. As many as 30% to 50% of the individuals with of people with this diagnosis.
schizotypal personality disorder who request clinical help A. antisocial
also meet the criteria for ____________. B. paranoid

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. schizotypal has been caught stealing money from his parents' wallets
D. schizoid and his younger sister's piggy bank. Rob shows no guilt or
remorse for the many ways that he hurts others. Rob's
49. Steve steals money from his friends and family, lies to current diagnosis is most likely _______ disorder.
get what he wants, and often hurts others with no sign of A. antisocial personality
guilt or remorse. Steve should probably be diagnosed with B. attention deficit hyperactivity
personality disorder. C conduct
A. paranoid D. narcissistic personality
B. histrionic
C. antisocial 56. The research examining the cause of antisocial
D. narcissistic personality disorder suggests that
A. the primary cause is genetics.
50. Which of the following researchers has focused his/her B. genetics and the environment interact to cause the disorder.
work on identifying the various traits of a psychopathic C. the primary cause is poor parenting.
personality? D. there is no evidence of either a genetic or environmental
A. Werth cause.
B. Ebbinghaus
C. Cleckley 57. Researchers conducting endophenotypic research on
D. Mazza antisocial personality disorders are searching for
A. the gene that causes antisocial personality disorder.
51. With which of the following personality disorders is the B. the genes that influence factors characteristic of the disorder
term psychopath closely associated? such as fearlessness, aggression, and impulsivity.
A. Avoidant C. brain damage that causes the disorder.
B. Borderline D. antisocial causes of the disorder.
C. Schizotypal
D. Antisocial 58. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Recent research is refining the search for genes that cause
52. One difference between a psychopath and a person with antisocial personality disorder.
antisocial personality disorder is that B. Recent research on brain damage indicates that brain
________________are used in diagnosing the psychopath, damage is found in psychopaths.
but______________are used to diagnose antisocial C. Recent research on neuropsychological tests indicates that
personality disorder. psychopaths score equally as well as non psychopaths.
A. personality traits; observable behaviors D. Sine research suggests that those with psychopathy are
B. observable behaviors; personality traits generally underaroused, and thus engage in actions to
C. clinical judgments; objective test scores compensate for this lack of stimulus input.
D. medical criteria; psychological assessments
59. Which of the following are the two major theories that
53. Which of the following is NOT true about those with have been proposed to explain antisocial personality
antisocial personality disorder? disorder?
A. Having a lower IQ is predictive of having run-ins with the law. A. Underarousal and fearlessness
B. Some function quite well in fields such as entertainment and B. Underarousal and shamelessness
politics. C. Yerkes-Dodson and underarousal
C. They tend to come from families with a history of criminal D. Yerkes-Dodson and shamelessness
problems.
D. They cannot avoid brushes with the law or learn to function 60. According to the underarousal hypothesis, individuals
well in society. with antisocial personality disorder may engage in their
characteristic behaviors as a way to
54. An adult diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder A. deal with their fears.
is most likely to have met the criteria for ________________ B. provide a level of stimulation that most of us receive from
as a child. more typical behaviors.
A. autistic disorder C. provide a sense of relief from the feelings of depression that
B. conduct disorder they experience when they are not highly aroused.
C. learning disabled D. reduce the generally high level of arousal that they feel.
D. a developmental disability
61. Which of the following findings in people with antisocial
55. Rob is a 15-year-old boy who has been repeatedly personality disorder supports the underarousal theory?
arrested for theft and assault. In addition to shoplifting, he A. Low levels of cortical arousal

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
B. High resting heart rates A. decrease

C. High measures of skin conductance B. increase
D. High fear thresholds C. decrease in frequency but increase in severity
D. increase in frequency but decrease in severity
62. The concept of the fearlessness hypothesis of
antisocial personality disorder is that individuals with this 69. Recent research suggests that psychopathy is
disorder _____reliable predictor of criminality.
A. learn to avoid punishment. A. a more
B. have an underactive cortex. B. a less
C. under react to the threat of punishment. C. an exact
D. have brain damage that inhibits their ability to understand the D. a mostly
implications of their actions.
70. Regarding the likelihood of successful treatment
63. One prominent theory of antisocial personality disorder outcome for individuals with antisocial personality
suggests that the behaviors are caused by an imbalance disorder, most clinicians are ______________.
between the brain's A. optimistic
A. behavioral inhibition system and fight/flight system. B. optimistic only if the patient is willing to work in therapy
B. fight/flight system and reward system. C. pessimistic only if the patient is mandated to therapy by the
C. cortical stimulation system and behavioral inhibition system. legal system
D. behavioral inhibition system and reward system. D. pessimistic
64. A possible brain-based explanation for antisocial 71. Lenny is 25 years old and has had multiple arrests for
personality disorder would be assaults, theft, and drug use. He has hurt strangers,
A. reduced behavioral inhibition and increased reward system friends, and family and has never shown any remorse or
activation. regret. Following his last arrest, Lenny met with a social
B. increased behavioral inhibition and decreased reward system worker who told him about antisocial personality disorder;
activation. he is now convinced that is "what's wrong" with him. Lenny
C. the absence of fight or flight responses. recently went to a local community mental health center
D. brain deterioration. and asked to be treated by a psychotherapist. The problem
with this story is that
65. If you had absolutely no concept or fear of the A. individuals with antisocial personality disorder do not
consequences of your actions (for yourself or others) and generally seek treatment.
were overly motivated by pleasing yourself, you might B. Lenny has misdiagnosed himself since his behaviors are
behave like a person with personality disorder. more typical of conduct disorder.
A. antisocial C. the drug use does not fit the pattern of antisocial personality
B. narcissistic disorder.
C. histrionic D. the description does not fit any known personality disorder.
D. schizotypal
72. Given what we know about the treatment of antisocial
66. One of the contributing factors in the developmental personality disorder, the best way to ensure that a person
history of individuals with antisocial personality disorder with this disorder and a history of violence is not a threat
appears to be that their parents were more likely to have to society is .
utilized. A. intensive psychotherapy
A. firm discipline. B. medication
B. inconsistent discipline. C. behavioral treatment
C. an overly protective parenting style. D. incarceration
D. physical discipline.
73. Which of the following prevention strategies looks
67. The behavior of those diagnosed with antisocial promising for children who are at risk for later antisocial
personality disorder tends to personality disorder?
A. continue to increase throughout the lifespan. A. A training program for parents of toddlers (ages 1½ to 2½
B. increase dramatically at about age 30. years)
C. decline significantly around age 40. B. A program for families with a high degree of family
D. remain stable throughout the lifespan. dysfunction
C. A program for families where at least one parent has a history
68. Criminal behavior by individuals with antisocial of antisocial personality disorder
personality disorder tends to after the age of 40. D. All of the above

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
74. Which of the following is an accurate statement D. deficits in neurotransmitter circuits involving dopamine.
regarding the treatment of antisocial personality disorder
and related antisocial behaviors? 80. When presented with words projected on a computer
A. Patients are generally willing participants in their therapy. screen, individuals with borderline personality disorder are
B. Most patients refer to themselves for treatment because they more likely than individuals without the disorder to
recognize that they have a problem. remember the word .
C. There has been greater success in reducing antisocial A. celebrate
behavior in young children than adults. B. abandon
D. Therapy is successful in about half of the cases treated. C. full
D. charming
75. The personality disorder characterized by extreme
instability in behavior and emotion, impulsivity, 81. Childhood trauma as a cause of borderline personality
depression, and self injurious behaviors is personality disorder may be too simplistic an explanation because
disorder. A. there are too many neurological deficits that are noted in
A. narcissistic borderline personality disorder patients.
B. borderline B. individuals with borderline personality disorder tend to
C. dependent respond to SSRI medications.
D. histrionic C. most individuals diagnosed with borderline personality
disorder are female.
76. Nicole has difficulty maintaining relationships because D. a significant percentage of individuals diagnosed with
she goes back and forth from being a best friend to hating borderline personality disorder do not have a history of
people in her life quite often. Her romantic relationships are childhood trauma.
always characterized by incredible loving passion
alternating with episodes of horrible fighting, and 82. Which of the following is the most likely model to
sometimes she becomes violent. At times Nicole becomes explain the cause of borderline personality disorder?
so upset that she cuts herself and reports that this makes A. Biological
her feel better emotionally. Nicole suffers from personality B. Early trauma resulting in posttraumatic stress disorder
disorder. symptoms that are not recognized or dealt with during childhood
A. dependent C. Stressful life events
B. histrionic D. Biological predisposition interacting with life events such as
C. borderline childhood trauma and later life stressors
D. narcissistic
83. Research regarding psychological treatment for
77. All of the following are common disorders that tend to borderline personality disorder suggests that appears to be
be comorbid with borderline personality disorder EXCEPT helpful in improving mood and reducing suicidal and self-
______________. injurious behaviors.
A. depression A. dialectical behavior therapy
B. substance abuse B. cognitive therapy
C. bulimia nervosa C. operant conditioning
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder D. nothing

borderline personality disorder? 84. The psychological treatment that has been found to
A. It is observed in every culture and seen in about 5% of the have significant effectiveness in helping patients with
population. borderline personality disorder centers around
B. Long-term outcomes are discouraging, with many relapsing A. regressing patients to the time in their lives when they
within 5 years. experienced trauma.
C. Emotional dysfunction is one of the best predictors of suicide B. removing the reinforcing attention that patients have received
in this group. for their disordered behavior in the past.
D. A high number, approximately 8 to 10%, succeed at suicide. C. joining a 12-step program such as Alcoholics Anonymous.
D. learning to cope with life stressors in a more effective
79. One of the influences associated with the development manner.
of borderline personality disorder is
A. history of child abuse or neglect. 85. Individuals who overreact to everything and are overly
B. developmental delay for major milestones (i.e., walking, dramatic and vain are most likely to be diagnosed with
talking). personality disorder.
C. parental alcoholism. A. borderline

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B. histrionic 91. Therapy for histrionic personality disorder tends to

C. narcissistic focus on
D. dependent A. using medications to decrease anxiety.
B. exploring unconscious processes.
86. Amy quickly becomes the center of attention when she C. relaxation techniques.
enters a room. She is a tall and attractive young woman D. processing interpersonal relationships.
who generally wears something striking. Amy is known as
a flirt and acts in a seductive manner around men. When 92. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by
Amy speaks, she uses very exaggerated terms, even when A. preoccupation with other people.
describing relatively ordinary situations. Amy's diagnosis B. obsession with keeping things neat and orderly..
is most likely personality disorder. C. thinking of oneself as deserving of special treatment.
A. histrionic D. pathological dishonesty.
B. narcissistic
C. borderline 93. Vince is extremely impressed with himself. Although he
D. dependent has only achieved a moderate amount of success, he thinks
of himself as being uniquely special and deserving of
87. When Axel arrives late for class, he walks in and the best of everything. Vince fantasizes frequently about
apologizes to the professor and the students in class. He great wealth and fame and does not really pay much
proceeds to tell them he had every intention of being at attention to other people except to note how they react to
class on time, but the traffic was terrible and many him. Vince should be diagnosed with personality
accidents occurred, which delayed him. Axel describes this disorder.
in much detail before he takes his seat. This commonly A. antisocial
happens every time he is late, and Axel appears to enjoy B. histrionic
being the “center of attention” in those moments. Axel C. narcissistic
could be diagnosed with which personality disorder? D. dependent
A. Histrionic
B. Narcissistic 94. Thomas was an elementary school principal who would
C. Borderline meet with a team of professionals to discuss various
D. Dependent children's problems within the school. He would tell them
his philosophy of education, discipline, interacting with
88. It has been suggested that there may be a relationship staff and children, etc. and why this was the best way to run
between personality disorder and personality disorder, the school. After his lengthy dissertation, the school
with some evidence that each may be gender-typed psychologist wanted to discuss a child who appeared to
alternative ways of expressing the same underlying have a learning disability. Thomas immediately excused
condition. himself to take inventory. Which type of personality
A. histrionic; narcissistic disorder best typifies Thomas' behavior?
B. dependent; histrionic A. Antisocial
C. antisocial; histrionic B. Histrionic
D. antisocial; dependent C. Narcissistic
D. Dependent
89. According to your text, the most accurate statement 95. People with narcissistic personality disorder display all
regarding the treatment of histrionic personality disorder is of the following characteristics EXCEPT
that A. exploitation of others.
A. there are no scientific studies demonstrating success. B. often very ecstatic because they receive the adulation of
B. patients who voluntarily attend therapy tend to get better. others.
C. strict behavioral programs have been shown to be effective C. demand special attention.
in scientific research. D. feelings of grandiosity.
D. cognitive therapy is most effective.
96. One reason why individuals with narcissistic
90. One of the likely problems a therapist may encounter personality disorder tend to become depressed at times is
while trying to help a patient with histrionic personality that they
disorder is the patient's A. become upset when their intimate relationships fail.
A. unwillingness to admit there is a problem. B. seldom live up to their unrealistic expectations of themselves.
B. use of threatening language. C. are overly sensitive to the pain of others.
C. lack of intellectual ability necessary to succeed in therapy. D. have faulty serotonin circuits.
D. manipulative use of crying, charm, or seductive behavior.

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97. Which of the following statements is TRUE about impossible to determine whether a patient had
narcissistic personality disorder? personality disorder or personality disorder.
A. This disorder is on the decrease in Western societies. A. narcissistic; antisocial
B. Reports of treatment success are limited. B. dependent; narcissistic
C. Recently there has been a great deal of research on this C. schizoid; avoidant
disorder. D. borderline; histrionic
D. All of the above are true.
104. When asked about their childhood, individuals
98. The personality disorder that sociologists have diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder tend to
associated with the increased attention to individualism, remember their parents as ___________________.
competitiveness, success, and the short-term pleasure A. warm and loving
seeking of the "me generation" is personality disorder. B. substance abusing
A. antisocial C. rejecting
B. dependent D. depressed
C. histrionic
D. narcissistic 105. In Jill's psychotherapy sessions, the therapist has
been using techniques to gradually make her more
99. The most accurate statement with regard to treatment comfortable with social situations. Similar to the treatments
research for narcissistic personality disorder is that the used for individuals with social phobia, the therapist has
research is given Jill homework assignments that require her to
A. extremely limited in both number of studies and reports of practice talking to strangers, join informal groups, and
successes. speak in front of small groups. Most likely, she is being
B. extremely limited in number of studies, though some treated for personality disorder.
promising results have been reported. A. antisocial
C. extensive, though few positive results are reported. B. dependent
D. extensive, though the studies are not scientific. C. avoidant
D. histrionic
100. All of the following are mentioned in your text as
appropriate treatment strategies for narcissistic 106. The personality disorder characterized by
personality disorder EXCEPT unreasonable fear of abandonment, fear of being rejected,
A. cognitive therapy to replace grandiose fantasies with more avoidance of disagreement, inability to make decisions for
realistic goals. oneself, and clinging behavior is disorder.
B. coping strategies focused on relaxation training to help A. dependent
accept criticism. B. avoidant
C. exploration of early life trauma that led to the disorder. . C. schizoid
D. being helped to focus on the feelings of others. D. histrionic
101. The reason that individuals with avoidant personality

disorder avoid most relationships is that they 107. Avoidant personality disorder tends to run in families
A. are extremely sensitive to the opinions of others and fear with a history of .
rejection. A. schizophrenia
B. generally dislike other people and prefer to be alone. B. mood disorders
C. are so stimulated by the fantasy life in their own minds that C. anxiety
they have little need for the company of others. D. substance abuse
D. experience bizarre thoughts and beliefs that distance them
from others. 108. A key to treating people with avoidant personality
disorder is
102. Individuals who keep to themselves because they are A. teaching emotional skills.
anxious and fearful of rejection are likely to be diagnosed B. building strong therapeutic relationships.
with personality disorder. C. the use of medication.
A. avoidant D. increasing social contact.
B. schizoid
C. schizotypal 109. Of the following, the most accurate statement with
D. antisocial regard to the treatment of avoidant personality disorder is
A. no well-controlled studies of treatment outcomes have been
103. Without understanding the thought process conducted.
motivating the patient's behavior, it would probably be

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
B. there are well-controlled studies though none show any A. dependent

treatment success. B. avoidant
C. individuals with this disorder are seldom sufficiently C. schizoid
motivated to succeed in treatment. D. histrionic
D. behavioral intervention programs for anxiety and social skills
have had some success. 115. According to your text, treatment of dependent
personality disorder is
110. Which of the following characteristics is NOT A. generally successful with a cognitive-behavioral approach.
associated with Dependent Personality Disorder? B. well-researched, though no effective treatments have been
A. Timidity established.
B. Extroversion C. not well-researched.
C Passiveness D. successful when based on systematic desensitization and
D. Subversiveness social skills training.
111. Mary has been married for 20 years and describes how 116. When individuals with dependent personality disorder
her husband has been verbally abusive toward her for most are in therapy, they are
of that time. She indicates that her husband has had A. seemingly "model" patients.
multiple affairs with other women, but she can't leave him B. resistant to the therapeutic process.
because she "loves and needs him." When challenged by C. too unstable to do the intellectual work that therapy requires.
the interviewer regarding the wisdom of staying with such D. demanding and impulsive.
a man, Mary agrees with the interviewer, although she later
confides that she always agrees with everyone to avoid 117. When working with a patient diagnosed with
conflict and disapproval. Mary should be diagnosed with dependent personality disorder, the therapist must be
personality disorder. particularly careful that the patient does not
A. avoidant A. take over the agenda of the sessions.
B. histrionic B. become inconsistent in attending sessions.
C. dependent C. manipulate the therapist by being overly dramatic.
D. borderline D. become overly dependent on the therapist.
112. In terms of feelings of inadequacy, sensitivity to 118. Which of the following is NOT a typical concern when
criticism and need for reassurance, individuals with working treating a patient diagnosed with a dependent
personality disorder and personality disorder are quite personality?
similar. A. Aggressiveness
A. dependent; avoidant B. Submissiveness
B. dependent; schizoid C. Attentiveness
C. schizoid; avoidant D. Responsibility
D. histrionic; antisocial
119. The personality disorder that is characterized by an
113. Individuals who have excessive feelings of social insistence that things have to be done "the right way" is
inadequacy, sensitivity to criticism, and a need for personality disorder.
reassurance are likely to develop either personality A. antisocial
disorder or personality disorder. B. avoidant
A. narcissistic; antisocial C. paranoid
B. dependent; narcissistic D. obsessive-compulsive
C. avoidant; dependent
D. antisocial; histrionic 120. Henry is viewed by many as a workaholic and not very
social. He is at his desk every morning at 7:30 a.m. and
114. Harold lives with his mother with whom he is very takes a few breaks (although these breaks are always at the
close and agrees with everything she says. When he same time every day). Henry is known to be a perfectionist.
started seeing a young woman and the relationship became The problem is that he does not seem to get much
serious, his mother convinced him that his girlfriend was accomplished since he spends so much time making sure
not good enough for him, so Harold stopped the that everything is perfect before moving on to the next task.
relationship. He has two close friends who have been his Henry appears to suffer from personality disorder.
friend since they met in kindergarten. Whenever they do A. avoidant
something, it is always one of his friends who decides what B. obsessive-compulsive
they do. Harold just follows along. Harold likely suffers C. schizoid
from personality disorder. D. antisocial

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
A. there is too much overlap among the symptoms of the

121. One of the major differences between individuals with different disorders.
obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and obsessive B. the clusters help to categorize but are not based on scientific
compulsive disorder (OCD) is that patients with the evidence.
personality disorder generally C. because individuals demonstrate a high degree of
A. have more obsessive thoughts. comorbidity, often having two or three personality disorders. d.
B. show more compulsive and ritualistic behaviors. all of the above
C. do not have obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
D. have multiple diagnoses.
122. Effective treatment of obsessive compulsive

personality disorder could include:
A. relaxation techniques.
B. cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C. cognitive reappraisal techniques.
D. all of the answers are correct.
123. A recent theory suggests that the psychological

profiles of many serial killers point to the role of which
psychological disorder?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Delusional disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
124. One unusual finding discussed in your text is that in

the behavior of several serial killers.
A. narcissistic
B. histrionic
C. obsessive-compulsive
D. schizotypal
125. Of the following, the most accurate statement

regarding the cause of obsessive-compulsive personality
disorder is that it appears to
A. have a weak genetic contribution to the disorder.
B. be found in those individuals with a strong predisposition
toward structure in their lives.
C. require parental reinforcement of conformity and neatness.
D. all of the above.
126. Of the following, the most accurate statement

regarding the research for treatment of obsessive-
compulsive personality disorder is
A. well-controlled research suggests the use of a highly
structured behavioral program can be effective with motivated
patients.
B. well-controlled research suggests the use of cognitive-
behavioral treatment.
C. the great deal of research that has been conducted indicates
there are currently no effective treatments.
D. there is little research regarding the successful treatment of
this disorder though relaxation and distraction techniques seem
to make sense.
127. In the DSM-5, personality disorders may be redefined

using dimensions rather than categories because

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Chapter 13 | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic B. noting that hallucinations, delusions, and negativism were
Disorders symptoms of dementia praecox (schizophrenia).
C. combining several symptoms of insanity (catatonia, paranoia,
1. Which of the following characterize the disorder known hebephrenia) that had usually been viewed as reflecting
as schizophrenia? separate and distinct disorders.
A. Delusions and hallucinations D. conceptualizing a treatment for schizophrenic patients that is
B. Inappropriate emotions still being used today.
C. Disorganized speech and behavior
D. All of these 8. Which of the following is the definition for hebephrenia?
A. Silly and immature behavior
2. Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long- B. Early madness
term outlook for schizophrenic patients? C. Alternating immobility and agitated excitement
A. About 50% of people diagnosed with the disorder eventually D. Delusions of grandeur or persecution
recover..
B. Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication. 9. Toward the end of the 19th century, Emil Kraeplin,
C. Recovery is possible only if the patient receives studying the disorder we now call schizophrenia, used the
psychotherapy. term because he observed that the onset of symptoms
D. Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare. often occurred before adulthood.
A. adolescent insanity
3. According to statistical data, the prevalence of B. folie à deux
schizophrenia is about . C. catatonia previa
A. 01% D. dementia praecox
B. 1%
C. 5% 10. The term "schizophrenia" was introduced circa 1908 by
D. 10% a Swiss psychiatrist named
A. Emil Kraepelin.
4. In the 1850s, a French physician named Benedict Morel B. Sigmund Freud.
used the terms demence (loss of mind) and precoce (early, C. Eugen Bleuler.
premature) to describe what we now know as D. Phillipe Pinel.
schizophrenia because he observed that the onset of
symptoms often occurs 11. Eugen Bleuler's concept of schizophrenia as an
A. in the early part of the year. "associative splitting" of the basic functions of personality
B. during adolescence. led to the incorrect use of the term to mean
C. in the morning. A. a fugue state.
D. prior to symptoms of other mental illnesses. B. multiple personality.
C. cognitive slippage.
5. Which of the following was the main characteristic of D. folie à deux.
dementia praecox, according to Emil Kraepelin?
A. Silly and immature behavior 12. Bleuler described the underlying behaviors of
B. Mental weakness schizophrenia as the destruction of the forces that connect
C Alternating immobility and agitated excitement one function to the next. He called this underlying
D. Delusions of grandeur or persecution foundation of the disorder
A. a fugue state.
6. In Observations on Madness and Melancholy, John B. split personality.
Haslam characterized (what is now known as) C. associative splitting.
schizophrenia as: D. folie à deux.
A. dementia praecox.
B. hallucinations, delusions, and negativism. 13. Which of the following is the best description of
C. insanity. schizophrenia?
D. catatonia. A. Schizophrenia is characterized by symptoms shared by
everyone with the diagnosis.
7. In the late 1800s, the German psychiatrist Emil Kraeplin B. Schizophrenia is characterized by multiple personalities.
made all of the following contributions to our knowledge of C. Schizophrenia is characterized by behavior and symptoms
schizophrenia EXCEPT that aren’t necessarily common to everyone with the diagnosis.
A. distinguishing dementia praecox (schizophrenia) from manic- D. The course of schizophrenia is always predictable.
depressive illness.

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14. In the textbook case of Arthur, he said that he had a 21. Which of the following is the persecution type of
"secret plan to save all the starving children in the world." psychotic delusion?
After Arthur showed other bizarre behavior and also said A. A familiar person is actually a double
he was going to climb the fence of a government building, B. One is a famous or important person
his parents tried to have him admitted to a psychiatric C. People are out to get you
hospital. They were not able to do that because D. A body part has changed in some impossible way
A. he was not considered a danger to himself or others.
B. he was given medication instead to calm him down. 22. Which of the following describes a delusion of
C. the hospital staff didn't believe his parents. grandeur?
D. his behavior was due to a substance abuse problem. A. A familiar person is actually a double
B. One is a famous or important person
15. According to your text, delusions are defined as: C. People are out to get you
A. irrational beliefs. D. A body part has changed in some impossible way
B. bad dreams.
C. feeling invincible. 23. A woman diagnosed as schizophrenic announces that
D. sensory experiences that are not real. she has a plan to end poverty and homelessness in the
16. According to your text, hallucinations are defined as: world and that the Pope has given her secret instructions
A. irrational beliefs. on how this can be accomplished. Her thinking is
B. bad dreams. indicative of a delusion of .
C. feeling invincible. A. persecution
D. sensory experiences that are not real. B. thought insertion
C. grandeur
17. When you interview Dr. Kwame, a psychologist in your D. reference
local health department, he says that one of his clients fell
in love with Jennifer Lopez and created stories about how 24. Antoinette believes that her brother is not really her
they would run off to the Caribbean and get married. Dr. brother. He has, in fact, been replaced by a double. This is
Kwame is reflecting which category or view of delusions: known as _______________ syndrome.
A. irrational beliefs. A. Capgras
B. motivational. B. Cotard's
C. deficit. C. Barlow's
D. cognitive. D. Durand's
18. Rashad blames martians for the rainy weather. 25. Which of the following defines Cotard's syndrome?
Rashad’s doctor is exploring what kinds of brain A. A familiar person is actually a double
dysfunctions Rashad has through a PET scan study. B. One is a famous or important person
Rashad’s doctor is using which kind of theory: C. People are out to get you
A. irrational beliefs. D. The person believes he is dead
B. motivational.
C. deficit. 26. The most common type of hallucination experienced by
D. cognitive. psychotic individuals is .
A. visual
19. If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually B. auditory
means that the person has . C. tactile
A. hallucinations D. olfactory
B. delusions
C. both of these 27. Research using brain-imaging techniques has localized
D. neither of these auditory hallucinations in the part of the brain called
_____________.
20. In working with schizophrenic patients, mental health A. Wernicke's area
professionals typically distinguish between B. Broca's area
______symptoms (an excess or distortion of normal C. the occipital lobe
behavior) and__________symptoms (deficits in normal D. the limbic system
behavior).
A. positive; negative 28. One explanation for the fact that the parts of the brain
B. negative; positive usually associated with producing rather than
C. manic; depressive comprehending speech are active when one is
D. dysmorphic; dysfunctional

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
experiencing an auditory hallucination is that such 35. The deficiency in communication called alogia likely
individuals are actually reflects
A. listening to voices outside themselves. A. an inability to initiate and persist in activities.
B. listening to their own thoughts. B. lack of communication skills.
C. misinterpreting voices from the sources such as the radio and C. poor language education.
television. D. a negative thought disorder.
D. making up the experience.
36. Apathy is to not caring as avolition is to
29. Results of research showing that auditory A. an inability to initiate and persist in activities.
hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area B. lack of communication skills.
of the brain suggest that C. poor language education.
A. these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the D. a negative thought disorder.
ear as well as the speech area of the brain.
B. people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people 37. Dr. Smith conducted a research study involving
are actually their own. schizophrenic adults in which he looked at their facial
C. a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to his/her expressions in home movies taken when they were
own thoughts. children. He was trying to determine if the development of
D. these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech schizophrenia could be predicted by facial expressions
that occurs in schizophrenia. showing limited emotional reactions. This research study
focused on the negative symptom called .
30. The negative schizophrenic symptom called avolition is A. alogia
defined as B. affective flattening
A. inability to initiate and persist in activities. C. associative splitting
B. inability to experience pleasure. D. emotional effect syndrome
C. lack of emotional response, blank facial expression.
D. lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response. 38. According to research, an individual with schizophrenia
who exhibits flat affect
31. Mort has displayed a number of schizophrenic A. is incapable of experiencing emotion.
symptoms. An obvious one was his lack of speech content B. can display emotion a certain times.
manifested in nonsensical ramblings and slowed speech C. is capable of experiencing emotion.
response. This symptom is called . D. will display the “wrong” emotion based on an eliciting
A. anhedonia stimulus.
B. avolition
C. clanging 39. Which of the following is the definition of catatonia?
D. alogia A. Silly and immature behavior
B. Early madness
32. The negative schizophrenic symptom called anhedonia C. Immobility or agitated excitement
is defined as D. Delusions of grandeur or persecution
A. inability to initiate and persist in activities.
B. inability to experience pleasure. 40. DSM-5 no longer specifies different subtypes of
C. lack of emotional response, blank facial expression. schizophrenia, but in DSM-IV-TR the subtype called
D. lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response. paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by
A. silly and immature behavior.
33. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of B. a complete mental breakdown.
flat affect? C. alternating immobility and agitated excitement.
A. An inability to initiate and persist in activities D. delusions of grandeur or persecution.
B. The inability to experience pleasure
C. A lack of emotional response, blank facial expression 41. Mark was diagnosed with schizophrenia many years
D. A lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response ago. Most recently, he has been exhibiting some bizarre
behaviors. For example, he stands for hours in unusual
34. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of postures. Mark's motor dysfunction is called
alogia? ___________.
A. An inability to initiate and persist in activities A. cognitive slippage
B. The inability to experience pleasure B. inappropriate affect
C. A lack of emotional response, blank facial expression C. catatonic immobility
D. A lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response D. hebephrenia

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
42. Marta, a hospitalized schizophrenic patient, shows an C. Believing in one's inflated worth, identity, or special
unusual form of catatonia. If someone moves one of her relationship
arms or legs into a different position, it just stays that way. D. Believing one is being malevolently treated in some way
Marta's bizarre behavior is called
A. postural dysfunction 49. Which of the following defines the erotomanic type of
B. aerobic mobility delusional disorder?
C. waxy flexibility A. Believing that one is loved by an important person or celebrity
D. schizophrenic movement disorder B. Falsely believing that one's sexual partner is unfaithful
C. Believing in one's inflated worth, identity, or special
43. Which of the following is closely associated with relationship
catatonia? D. Believing one is being malevolently treated in some way
A. Negative withdrawal
B. Repetitive echolalia 50. Which of the following defines the persecutory type of
C. Agitation delusional disorder?
D. Waxy flexibility A. Believing that one is loved by an important person or celebrity
B. Falsely believing that one's sexual partner is unfaithful
44. Marshall has suffered from several symptoms that C. Believing in one's inflated worth, identity, or special
indicate a schizophrenia-related condition, but his relationship
symptoms have only been present for 4 months. Which of D. Believing one is being malevolently treated in some way
the following would be the appropriate diagnosis?
A. Brief psychotic disorder 51. Which of the following defines the grandiose type of
B. Delusional disorder delusional disorder?
C. Schizoaffective disorder A. Believing that one is loved by an important person or celebrity
D. Schizophreniform disorder B. Falsely believing that one's sexual partner is unfaithful
C. Believing in one's inflated worth, identity, or special
45. Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective relationship
disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic D. Believing one is being malevolently treated in some way
symptoms, she also has symptoms of 52. The case of Arthur (described in your textbook), who
A. an anxiety disorder. suddenly experienced the delusion that he could save all
B. a mood disorder. the starving children in the world with a "secret plan," but
C. a split personality. whose symptoms lasted only a few days, was diagnosed
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder. with
A. schizotypal personality disorder.
46. How do the delusions in delusional disorder differ from B. folie à deux (shared psychotic disorder).
the delusions in paranoid schizophrenia? C. brief psychotic disorder.
A. In delusional disorder, the imagined events could really be D. cocaine abuse.
happening but there is no evidence that they are happening.
B. In paranoid schizophrenia, the imagined events have actually 53. In which of the following disorders are hallucinations
happened or are now happening. and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?
C. In delusional disorder, the imagined events are so bizarre A. Schizotypal personality disorder
that they could never have happened and never will happen. B. Schizoaffective disorder
D. There is no difference. Delusions are defined similarly for all C. Schizophreniform disorder
conditions. D. Brief psychotic disorder
47. At various times, individuals have been arrested for 54. James is a security guard at the mall who seems lost in
stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with his own world. Often, he feels the presence of his dead
them. This condition is called a(n) delusion. mother nearby. He knows it is an illusion and that she is not
A. jealous real. Her presence does give him comfort. James probably
B. erotomanic would be diagnosed with
C. somatic A. schizoaffective disorder.
D. persecutory B. schizotypal disorder.
C. schizoid disorder.
48. Which of the following defines the jealous type of D. brief psychotic disorder.
delusional disorder?
A. Believing that one is loved by an important person or celebrity 55. Consuela believes that she is the wicked stepmother
B. Falsely believing that one's sexual partner is unfaithful and her daughter Carmella believes she is Cinderella. If
they had been diagnosed using the DSM-IV-TR, the

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
condition would have been called. This diagnosis was that siblings raised in the same household may experience
removed from DSM-5 and was added as a specifier to their environment very differently, a concept called a(n)
delusional disorder. A. variable home structure.
A. schizoaffective disorder. B. unshared environment.
B. schizotypal disorder C. environmental phenomenon.
C. schizophreniform disorder D. unique perceptive interpretation.
D. folie a deux
62. In which of the following situations would the risk of
56. Which of the following statistical data are NOT accurate developing schizophrenia be the LOWEST for a child?
regarding schizophrenia? A. A child's schizophrenic parent has a non-schizophrenic
A. The lifetime prevalence rate is 3%. identical twin
B. Life expectancy is less than average due to suicides and B. A child's non-schizophrenic parent has a schizophrenic
accidents. identical twin
C. Men with schizophrenia have a poorer prognosis than women C. A child's schizophrenic parent has a non-schizophrenic
with schizophrenia. fraternal twin
D. More women than men develop schizophrenia later in life. D. A child's non-schizophrenic parent has a schizophrenic
fraternal twin
57. Making the diagnosis of schizophrenia is controversial
because 63. With regard to research on schizophrenia involving the
A. the symptoms can vary as a function of culture or race. offspring of twins, all of the following are accurate
B. the symptoms are similar across culture and race. statements EXCEPT
C. the symptoms simply reflect biases in the minds of mental A. the child of a schizophrenic identical twin has the same risk
health professionals. (17%) of having the disorder as the child of the non
D. the label is derogatory and has no clinical utility. schizophrenic identical twin.
B. the child of a non-schizophrenic fraternal twin has about a 2%
58. Schizophrenia appears to be more frequently diagnosed risk of having the disorder.
in minorities in a number of countries. An explanation for C. a mentally healthy individual with a schizophrenic parent
this is that cannot pass on a genetic predisposition for the disorder to his
A. people from devalued ethnic minority groups may be victims or her offspring.
of bias and stereotyping. D. an individual can be free from schizophrenia but still be a
B. they may be the result of misdiagnosis. "carrier."
C. the levels of stress associated with stigma and isolation.
D. all of the above. 64. Of the various genetic linkage and association studies,
the one that seems to be a possible "marker" for
59. Research studies on the genetic basis of schizophrenia schizophrenia involves .
have focused on high-risk individuals including all of the A. eye-tracking
following EXCEPT B. dopamine sites
A. healthy twins of schizophrenic patients. C. unusual facial features
B. adopted children of schizophrenic parents. D. blood type
C. family members or relatives of schizophrenics.
D. children adopted by schizophrenic mothers. 65. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to the genetic
basis of schizophrenia?
60. Research studies focusing on genetic factors in A. Researchers have discovered the gene responsible for
schizophrenia have found that causing schizophrenia.
A. An individual with a schizophrenic identical twin has the B. Genes are responsible for making some individuals
highest risk factor (almost 50%) of developing schizophrenia. vulnerable to schizophrenia.
B. in family studies of schizophrenia, the genetic influence can C. Both of these statements are true.
be separated from the environmental impact. D. Neither of these statements is true.
C. if one person in a family has a particular subtype of
schizophrenia, e.g., paranoid, the other family members inherit 66. Endophenotyping refers to looking for
a predisposition for that subtype only. A. a gene or genes that cause the symptoms or behaviors of
D. the more severe a parent's schizophrenic disorder, the less schizophrenia.
likely the children were to develop it. B. basic processes that contribute to symptoms of the disorder.
C. basic processes that contribute to behaviors of
61. The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical schizophrenia.
quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out D. all of the above.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
67. The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are most B. Olanzapine, one of the weakest dopamine antagonists,
closely associated with activity. reduces schizophrenic symptoms in those patients who were
A. serotonin not helped by stronger dopamine antagonists.
B. dopamine C. Both of these statements contradict the dopamine theory of
C. norepinephrine schizophrenia.
D. acetylcholine D. Neither of these statements contradicts the dopamine theory
of schizophrenia.
68. Which of the following statements reflects
"circumstantial evidence" for the dopamine theory of 73. Which of the following neurotransmitters has recently
schizophrenia? been linked to schizophrenia?
A. Antipsychotic drugs (neuroleptics) act as dopamine agonists, A. Deficiency in the stimulation of prefrontal dopamine D1
increasing the amount of dopamine in the brain. receptors
B. Antipsychotic drugs (neuroleptics) can produce symptoms B. Excessive stimulation of striatal dopamine D2 receptors
similar to those of Parkinson's disease (a disorder due to C. Alterations in prefrontal activity involving glutamate
insufficient dopamine). transmissions
C. The drug L-dopa, a dopamine agonist, is used to treat D. All of the above
schizophrenic symptoms in patients with Parkinson's disease.
D. Amphetamines, which activate dopamine, can lessen 74. New research on schizophrenia suggests that
psychotic symptoms in people with schizophrenia. A. only D2 receptors are involved in schizophrenia.
B. D2 receptors may be involved when D1 receptors are less
69. Which of the following statements counters the active.
"circumstantial evidence" for the dopamine theory of C. D2 receptors may be involved when D1 receptors are more
schizophrenia? active.
A. Antipsychotic drugs (neuroleptics) act as dopamine agonists, D. dopamine is not actually involved in schizophrenia.
increasing the amount of dopamine in the brain.
B. A significant number of people with schizophrenia are not 75. Which of the following neurotransmitters has recently
helped by dopamine antagonists. been linked to schizophrenia?
C. The drug L-dopa, a dopamine agonist, is used to treat A. Glutamate
schizophrenic symptoms in patients with Parkinson's disease so B. Glycine
it cannot be used for schizophrenia. C. GABA
D. Amphetamines, which activate dopamine, can lessen D. Serotonin
psychotic symptoms in people with schizophrenia.
76. Which of the following drugs can cause psychotic
70. In regard to the ways that drugs affect symptoms in those who do not have schizophrenia and can
neurotransmitters, which of the following is TRUE? exacerbate such symptoms in those who do?
A. A drug that is an agonist occupies the receptor sites, blocking A. Marijuana
the neurotransmitter. B. PCP
B. A drug that is an antagonist helps increase the release of the C. Cocaine
neurotransmitter. D. LSD
C. Both of these are correct.
D. Neither of these is correct. 77. What is the evidence for structural damage in the brains
of schizophrenic patients?
71. Which of the following occurs when drugs are A. All schizophrenic patients have smaller ventricles in their
administered to schizophrenic patients? brains.
A. Drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase B. In some schizophrenic patients, there is an excess amount of
in schizophrenic behavior. "gray matter" in the cerebral cortex.
B. Drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease C. The majority of schizophrenic patients have enlarged
schizophrenic symptoms. ventricles in their brains.
C. Both of these statements are accurate D. Many schizophrenic patients have increased activity in the
D. Neither of these statements is accurate frontal lobes of the brain.
72. Which of the following statements contradicts the 78. Influenza infection during the second trimester of
dopamine theory of schizophrenia? pregnancy has been linked to
A. Many people with schizophrenia are not helped by dopamine A. the mother developing schizophrenia.
antagonists. B. the child developing schizophrenia.
C. both of the above .
D. neither of the above.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. both of these are correct.

79. Recent research into the causes of schizophrenia, D. neither of these is correct.
including studies of schizophrenic patients who had been
exposed prenatally to influenza epidemics, suggests that 86. In regard to cultural differences in "expressed emotion,"
there might be a cause of schizophrenia. which is thought to be positively correlated with
A. viral schizophrenia, research has found that families have the
B. bacterial highest percentage of expressed emotion.
C. parasitic A. Indian
D. metabolic B. Mexican
C. British
80. Manuella would respond coolly when her daughter D. Anglo-American
embraced her, but when the child tried to pull away
Manuella would say, "Don't you love me anymore?" This is 87. The familial communication style called expressed
an example of emotion (EE), sometimes used to predict relapse rates in
A. a schizophrenogenic mother. schizophrenic patients, includes all of the following
B. double-bind communication. EXCEPT
C. expressed emotion. A. emotional over-involvement
D. none of the above B. criticism
C. emotional distance
81. Which of the following is NOT correlated with D. hostility
schizophrenia?
A. Fetal exposure to viral infection 88. Families with a high expressed emotion (EE) score view
B. Pregnancy complications the symptoms of schizophrenia as .
C. Delivery complications A. controllable
D. Viral exposure as a toddler B. uncontrollable
82. Current research suggests that C. inevitable
A. environmental stress may trigger schizophrenia. D. inconvenient
B. genes cause schizophrenia.
C. genes carried by a fetus may make it vulnerable to 89. A treatment first used in the 1930s as a treatment for
schizophrenia. schizophrenia but now used primarily to treat severe
D. all of these are true. depression is _____________.
A. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
83. In regard to the family interactions among B. prefrontal lobotomy
schizophrenic patients, the word "schizophrenogenic" (no C. insulin coma therapy
longer used), was first proposed in the 1940s to describe D. psychosurgery
A. an abusive and alcoholic father whose child became
schizophrenic. 90. The neuroleptic drugs introduced in the 1950s affect
B. an emotionally distant mother whose child became primarily the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, which
schizophrenic. include all of the following EXCEPT .
C. divorced parents who had several psychotic children. A. hallucinations
D. a family in which relatives on both sides were psychotic. B. delusions
C. social deficits
84. Which of the following statements is TRUE? D. agitation
A. A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes
schizophrenia. 91. During the 1990s, a new class of antipsychotic
B. A communication style that produces conflicting messages medications became available to treat schizophrenic
cause schizophrenia. patients who were not helped by conventional
C. High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of antipsychotic medications or who had developed
relapse among chronic schizophrenics. unpleasant side effects. These new antipsychotic
D. None of these are true. medications include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Thorazine (chlorpromazine)
85. In terms of a particular emotional communication style B. Clozaril (clozapine)
known as expressed emotion (EE), researchers have C. Risperdal (risperidone)
shown that schizophrenic patients were more likely to D. Zyprexa (olanzapine)
relapse if
A. they had long periods of contact with their families. 92. Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor
B. they had families who were disapproving and intrusive. side effects of antipsychotic medications?

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
A. Grogginess A. Patients often discontinue effective medication.

B. Blurred vision B. The use of neurotransmitters is not effective.
C. Headaches C. There are no effective drugs to treat schizophrenia.
D. Dryness of the mouth D. All treatment drugs have severe side effects.
93. Extrapyramidal symptoms, serious side effects of 100. All of the following factors seem to be related to
antipsychotic medications that occur in some patients' noncompliance with medication EXCEPT
schizophrenic patients, are similar to the symptoms of ______________.
A. Alzheimer's disease A. negative patient-doctor relationship
B. Parkinson's disease B. cost of medication
C. multiple sclerosis C. comorbidity
D. leukemia D. negative side effects
94. Tardive dyskinesia, a severe side effect of antipsychotic 101. What is the generic name of the antipsychotic
medications, includes all of the following involuntary medication Risperdal?
movements EXCEPT ______________. A. Haloperidol
A. involuntary chewing B. Chlorpromazine
B. puffing of the cheeks C. Clozapine
C. tongue protrusion D. Risperidone
D. tooth grinding
102. What is the generic name of the antipsychotic
95. Which of the following statements is TRUE? medication Haldol?
A. Recent research demonstrates that many people are helped A. Haloperidol
by antipsychotic drugs. B. Chlorpromazine
B. Resent research indicates that many people no longer C. Clozapine
experience unpleasant side effects. D. Risperidone
C. Recent research found that second-generation antipsychotic
meds were no more effective than the older drugs. 103. What is the generic name of the antipsychotic
D. Recent research found that second-generation antipsychotic medication Clozaril?
meds were better tolerated than the older drugs. A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
96. Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in C. Clozapine
patients who take antipsychotic medications, D. Risperidone
A. can result from short-term use.
B. can result from low doses. 104. What is the generic name of the antipsychotic
C. occurs in less than 2% of patients. medication Thorazine?
D. may often be irreversible. A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
97. Which of the following statements is TRUE? C. Clozapine
A. Some people respond well to the newer antipsychotic drugs. D. Risperidone
B. The newer antipsychotic drugs show promise for helping
patients who were previously unresponsive to medications. 105. Second-generation or atypical antipsychotics may
C. Recent research found that second-generation antipsychotic A. help patients who were previously unresponsive.
meds were no more effective than the older drugs. B. have fewer side effects than traditional antipsychotics.
D. All of these C. be less likely to be discontinued by the patient.
D. be no longer used to treat schizophrenia.
98. Patients with schizophrenia who take antipsychotic 106. One of the attempts at improving patient compliance
medications sometimes develop severe side effects such in regard to taking antipsychotic medication involves the
as akinesia, a Parkinsonian-like condition that produces all use of ____________.
of the following EXCEPT . A. injectable medications
A. hand tremors B. skin patches
B. expressionless face C. pills
C. slowed movements D. liquids
D. monotonous speech 107. Which of the following implements new technology in
the treatment of schizophrenia?
99. Which of the following factors is true in the treatment of A. Implementation of a token economy
schizophrenia? B. Creating a virtual reality task

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
C. Both of these D. neither of these.

D. Neither of these 115. Since the latter half of the 20th century, the policy of
deinstitutionalization (time-limited hospital stays for
108. Recently, treatment for schizophrenic people has psychotic patients) has resulted in
expanded to include self-help and self-advocacy groups. A. more patients remaining hospitalized.
These psychosocial clubs B. former patients becoming productive members of the
A. provide a person-centered approach. community.
B. focus on getting positive experiences through employment C. many former patients becoming homeless.
opportunities. D. greater patient compliance regarding medication.
C. provide friendship and empowerment.
D. all of the above. 116. Some schizophrenic patients function better in the
community in independent living skills programs that teach
109. In the 1970s, researchers set up a treatment system them all of the following EXCEPT
called a token economy in a mental health center. This type A. medication management.
of "milieu" treatment for schizophrenic patients focused on B. to identify signs that warn of a relapse.
A. language and speech. C. to maintain eye contact when interacting with others.
B. socialization and self-care skills. D. how to help others who are mentally ill.
C. educational studies.
D. spiritual and religious development. 117. Social skills training programs for schizophrenic
patients have been
110. A token economy is an incentive system in which A. very successful.
hospitalized patients with schizophrenia B. not at all successful.
A. earn "tokens" for appropriate behavior. C. somewhat successful while the program is in effect.
B. lose "tokens" for disruptive behavior. D. only successful when the patient is on medication.
C. both of these .
D. neither of these. 118. Assertive community treatment for schizophrenia
utilizes
111. An experimental technique called transcranial A. medication management.
magnetic stimulation has been used in some schizophrenic B. psychological treatment.
patients to try to C. vocational treatment.
A. block auditory hallucinations. D. all of the above
B. change delusional content.
C. both of these are correct. 119. Research suggests that treatments such as individual
D. neither of these is correct. social skills training and family interventions
A. cure schizophrenia.
112. A technique that uses wire coils to repeatedly generate B. reduce schizophrenic relapses.
magnetic fields that pass through the skull to the brain is C. are ineffective at treating schizophrenia.
called: D. interfere with medication benefits.
A. magnetic resonance imaging.
B. functional magnetic resonance imaging. 120. There are cross-cultural differences in the treatment of
C. transcranial magnetic stimulation. schizophrenia. For example, a schizophrenic patient in
D. electroconvulsive stimulation. China would probably receive treatments including
in addition to antipsychotic medication.
113. The 1970s experiment in which behavioral (or social A. burning candles
learning) principles were applied to a traditional inpatient B. joss sticks
environment in the form of a token economy resulted in C. both of these are correct
A. more patients being able to be discharged. D. neither of these are correct
B. fewer patients being able to be discharged.
C. more patients recovering from schizophrenia.
D. fewer patients recovering from schizophrenia. 121. An integrated treatment approach to schizophrenia
would include
114. In the latter half of the 20th century, the routine A. collaborative psychopharmacology.
institutionalization of schizophrenic patients was B. assertive community treatment.
significantly reduced because of C. family psychoeducation.
A. the effectiveness of antipsychotic medications. D. all of the above.
B. court rulings limiting involuntary hospitalization.
C. both of these.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Chapter 14 I Neurodevelopmental disorders 7. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ADHD?

a. Inattention
1. Psychological disorders are considered developmental b. Learning disabilities
disorders when there is a c. Self-control
a. change in symptoms over the lifespan. d. Fidgeting
b. genetic component to the disorder.
c. neurological basis for the condition. 8. What are the three types of symptoms for attention
d. general decline in functioning over time. deficit/hyperactivity disorder?
a. Hyperactivity, impulsivity, inattention
2. Although not classified as “developmental disorders”, b. Inattention, distraction, hyperactivity
most psychological disorders can be considered c. Inattention, impulsivity, distraction
developmental in nature because they d. Hypervigilance, increased startle, and distraction
a. appear early in life and change over the lifespan.
b. have a genetic component. 9. The inattention category of attention
c. lack biological causes and are influenced by learning. deficit/hyperactivity disorder symptoms is
d. are unique to children characterized by _______________.
a. careless mistakes
3. The major reason that developmental disorders are b. fidgeting
considered to be so serious in terms of their capacity to c. not waiting one's turn to answer questions
disrupt later functioning is d. accelerated motor skills
a. the fact that medications used in children can have
long-term effects. 10. Because the diagnosis of ADHD is comparable across
b. the impact that they have on family functioning. countries,
c. that the purely biological nature of developmental a. ADHD is considered a normal high activity level of
disorders leads to subsequent developmental failures. children.
d. subsequent skills often build upon one another. b. it is now found to be equally prevalent among boys and
girls.
4. The main reason that it is so important to identify c. this suggests that ADHD should not be thought to be
children with developmental disorders as early as the result of intolerant parents
possible is that d. this suggests that ADHD has significantly increased
a. medications are most effective when administered at and spread worldwide.
an early stage of the disorder.
b. skill deficits can be identified and addressed before 11. ADHA is found in about of the child populations
they impact later development. across all regions of the world.
c. family functioning often declines as the developmental a. 1 to 2%
disorder progresses. b. 3 to 9%
d. children are more receptive to therapy when they are c. 8 to 10%
young. d. 10 to 13%
5. One of the most common reasons that children are 12. Recent research has shown that ADHD
referred for mental health services in the United States a. is considered to be highly influenced by genetics with
is ______________. a relatively small role played by environmental
a. ADHD influences.
b. autism b. is caused by multiple genes.
c. pervasive developmental disorder c. appears be related to the neurotransmitter dopamine.
d. Stuttering d. all of the above.
6. An individual diagnosed with attention 13. In order to diagnose an individual with attention
deficit/hyperactivity disorder will always present with deficit/hyperactivity disorder, it is necessary for
a. hyperactive behavior that alternates with periods of symptoms to be present in
distraction. a. both symptom clusters.
b. patterns of inattention or hyperactivity and impulsivity. b. the hyperactivity cluster.
c. both patterns of inattention and c. the area of impulsivity.
hyperactivity/impulsivity d. either of the symptom categories.
d. periods of distraction that lead to hyperactive/impulsive
behavior 14. Which of the following often overlaps with ADHD?
a. Oppositional defiant disorder

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. Bipolar disorder d. Not eating green vegetables during pregnancy

c. Conduct disorder
d. All of the above 22. Recent research has shown that
a. ADHD is found equally among boys and girls.
15. The most accurate statement with regard to the genetic b. ADHD is caused by a single gene called DAT 1.
influences of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder is c. the brains of children with ADHD are 3% to 4% smaller
a. there are no known genetic influences. than children without ADHD.
b. there appears to be a single gene influence. d. the same medications used to treat depressive
c. there appear to be multiple genetic influences. symptoms are the most effective at reducing
d. defects on the Y chromosome are the major influence. symptoms of ADHD.
16. The inattentive subtype of ADHA typically refers to (the): 23. Recent research has found the following with regard to
a. absence of hyperactivity. causes of ADHD:
b. multiple acts of impulsivity. a. Food colors and additives, which for years were
c. inaccuracy in diagnosis. thought to cause ADHD, then later refuted, now appear
d. all of the above. to have a small but measurable impact on increased
levels of hyperactivity.
17. People with ADHD that meet the criteria for inattention b. Pesticides found in foods may be a contributing factor
and hyperactivity/impulsivity are labeled as the _____ to an increased risk of ADHD.
subtype. c. Both a and b
a. mixed d. Neither a or b
b. multiple
c. combined 24. Recent ADHD research has focused on endophenotypic
d. most severe correlates of
a. specific attentional characteristics.
18. The hypothesis that attention deficit/hyperactivity b. emotional control.
disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food c. extraverted characteristics.
additives, or diet d. environmental factors.
a. is based on well-controlled studies.
b. is not well understood or studied, but generally 25. Which best describes the way attention
effective as a treatment. deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as
c. appears true for a small subset of individuals children grow into adulthood?
diagnosed with ADHD. a. Children tend to outgrow ADHD.
d. has little to no scientific evidence. b. ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of
pathology.
19. ADHD tends to occur in families where another family c. Symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the
member has ADHD and with increased rates of all but lifespan for most individuals.
which of the following? d. Manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time but
a. Conduct disorders many problems often persist.
b. Mood disorders
c. Substance abuse 26. Neurotransmitters implicated in the cause of ADHD
d. Eating disorders include all of the following EXCEPT .
a. dopamine
20. Based on a telephone survey of parents in the United b. glutamate
States, researchers found that____ of kids between 4 c. norepinephrine
and 17 years of age were diagnosed with ADHD between d. GABA
2011 and 2012.
a. 2.5 % 27. Which of the following is not one of the medications that
b. 6% has been found to reduce the core symptoms of
c. 9 % hyperactivity and impulsivity, as well as improving
d. 11% concentration, in those with ADHD?
a. Ritalin
21. Which of the following environmental influences has b. Adderall
been found to contribute to the development of ADHD? c. Strattera
a. Exercise while pregnant d. Haldol
b. High socio-economic status
c. Parental marital instability and discord

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
28. Ritalin and Adderall, medications generally used to treat 34. All of the following side effects EXCEPT _________are
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, are classified as associated some of the medications that are used to
____________. treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
a. minor sedatives a. insomnia
b. depressants b. drowsiness
c. stimulants c. irritability
d. antidepressants d. weight gain
29. Current estimates (Centers for Disease Control and 35. The study of how your genetic makeup influences your
Prevention, 2013) are that response to certain drugs is called .
approximately___________children in the United States a. behavior genetics
are being treated with stimulant medications. b. psychopharmocology
a. 1 million c. psychopharmocogenetics
b. 4 million d. psychogenetics
c. 10 million
d. 14.5 million 36. Non-medication treatments for attention
deficit/hyperactivity disorder usually involve
30. Seven-year-old Jess has been diagnosed with ADHD. a. interpersonal therapy.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for Jess’s b. behavioral programs and social skills training
parents to put her on medication? c. brief, inpatient treatment at a specialty hospital.
d. cognitive behavioral therapy and diet control.
a. Medication can cure ADHD.
b. Stimulants help the brain develop in more typical ways. 37. Ron is a 9-year-old boy recently diagnosed with
c. Medication manages the symptoms of ADHD and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. His parents
helps children focus while learning. have chosen a combined approach to treatment. If their
d. ADHD medication is one important aspect of treatment approach is based on what research suggests is most
for ASD. effective, it will most likely involve
a. new experimental medications and behavior therapy.
31. The drug Strattera (atomoxetine) appears effective for b. no medication but a combination of behavioral therapy
some children with ADHD, and according to recent and parent training.
research, does not cause the same as stimulant c. medication such as Ritalin and behavior therapy.
medication when used in larger doses. d. medication such as Ritalin and psychoanalysis.
a. intolerance
b. withdrawal symptoms 38. One common misunderstanding about ADHD
c. "high" medication is that:
d. academic disturbance a. they cannot be taken with food.
b. they impact a woman’s ability to get pregnant later.
32. Clorinda is very concerned about giving her son Mario c. they are regularly misused to improve focus in people
medication to treat his hyperactivity. She read that the without ADHD.
use of prescription medications to treat ADHD places d. all of the answers are correct.
children at increased risk for later substance abuse. If
she were to treat her son with medication, which would 39. A specific learning disorder is defined as
be the best one to give him that would address these a. academic performance that is substantially below the
concerns? level predicted by the individual's age, IQ, and
a. Ritalin education.
b. Cylert b. a complete inability to learn in a given academic
c. Adderall subject.
d. Strattera c. substandard IQ score in comparison to the individual's
family and educational background.
33. Stimulant medications seem to treat ADHD because d. the existence of a neurological deficit that interferes
they with the individual's ability to assimilate new
a. reinforce the brain’s ability to focus attention. information.
b. decrease emotional response.
c. distribute attention.
d. increase dream sleep.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
40. Why would it be incorrect to say that individuals she has read about. Before we can determine whether
diagnosed with specific learning disorders are not Samantha has a learning disability, it is most important
intelligent? to know her
a. It would confuse specific learning disorders with a. family history
giftedness. b. social skills
b. The concept of specific learning disorder has c. math skills
absolutely nothing to do with intelligence. d. IQ
c. Specific learning disorders can be diagnosed in people
of any intelligence, since they are partially determined 46. Studies with identical twins have indicated that reading
by academic performance that falls substantially below disorders
IQ-based expectations. a. run in families.
d. Specific learning disorders are only diagnosed in b. have no genetic component.
people of high intelligence. c. are influenced more by learning than genetics.
d. have a smaller genetic component than mathematics
41. Which area of learning is affected by a specific learning disorders.
disorder in approximately 4% to 10% of the population?
a. Written expression 47. The American Psychological Association (2013)
b. Oral communication estimates that between ______ and _____ percent of
c. Mathematics youth across ages and cultures have Specific Learning
d. Reading Disorders.
a. 1;5
42. An alternative to using the discrepancy between IQ and b. 5;15
achievement in identifying children with specific c. 10;20
learning disorders is d. 40;60
a. discrepancy prognosis.
b. learning intervention strategy. 48. Which of the following is associated with Specific
c. response to intervention. Learning Disorders?
d. none of the above. a. Dropping out of school
b. Unemployment
43. All of the following are problems observed to result from c. Suicidal ideation
specific learning disorders EXCEPT . d. All of the answers are correct
a. low employment
b. school drop-out 49. The fact that reading disorders occur most often in
c. drug abuse English-speaking countries may be due to
d. suicidal thoughts and attempts a. the relative difficulty of English.
b. differences in left-brain dominance across cultures.
44. Ken is a 12-year-old boy of average intelligence as c. differences in right-brain dominance across cultures.
indicated by his IQ scores. He loves school and works d. different educational practices across cultures.
hard on his homework. Ken has earned straight As in
every subject except math, where he has been achieving 50. Raphael’s son has just been diagnosed with a Specific
grades in the C range. Which of the following statements Learning Disorder. What can Raphael to do help and
is correct? support his son?
a. Ken does not appear to have a specific learning a. Work to address/adjust cultural expectations when
disorder because his achievement is consistent with possible
expectations based on his intelligence. b. Visit a specialist to ensure parental interactions and
b. Ken appears to have a math disorder because his expectations are appropriate
math grade is so far below his other grades. c. Cooperate with the school to ensure that his son gets
c. Ken appears to have a math disorder because there is academic support
a discrepancy between his intelligence and his d. All of the answers are correct
achievement in many subjects.
d. Ken does not appear to have a specific learning 51. One intriguing finding from research involving reading
disorder because he has shown that he can achieve disordered individuals who speak multiple languages is
when he wants to. that
a. reading disorders are independent of
45. Samantha is a sixth-grade girl who has great difficulty in culture/language.
school. She pays attention and works hard but appears b. individuals who speak more than one language rarely
to have trouble remembering facts and concepts that have specific learning disorders.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. evidence of the reading disorder may exist for one or

two languages, while the individual may be completely 58. The restricted pattern of behavior generally observed in
free of the disorder in another language. autistic disorder involves
d. the complexity of the English language may contribute a. repetitive movements such as spinning in circles.
to the higher rate of reading disorders in English- b. an intense preference for keeping things the same.
speaking countries. c. inappropriate communication patterns.
d. lack of recognition of significant others.
52. Treatment for specific learning disorders generally
involves 59. Jean is a 14-year-old girl with autistic disorder who
a. stimulant medication. seems compelled to run around touching each door
b. educational intervention and assistance. every time she comes home. If she is prevented from
c. family therapy. touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an
d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. example of
a. restricted behavior pattern.
53. Alvin is a 10-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics b. social impairment.
disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve c. ritualistic behavior.
a. teaching him different strategies to improve cognitive d. maintenance of sameness.
skills.
b. stimulant medication. 60. All of the following are typical behaviors for children
c. developing an educational plan that exempts him from with autistic disorder EXCEPT
mathematics requirements. a. spinning a wheel on a toy truck and staring at it for
d. placing him in a school for children with a specific hours.
learning disorder. b. throwing a loud tantrum when prevented from carrying
out a ritual.
54. Given the available intervention strategies for specific c. becoming wildly upset when one toy was removed
learning disorders, the method that probably has the from the shelf.
best chance of overcoming the specific learning d. performing complex math calculations that appear well
disorder is beyond their abilities.
a. development of better study skills.
b. efforts to develop compensating cognitive skills. 61. Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the
c. systematic instruction and teaching for mastery. disorder
d. improving overall intelligence. a. at birth
b. before age one
55. All of the following were previously classified as c. before age three
pervasive developmental disorders EXCEPT d. before teen years
a. childhood disintegrative disorder.
b. Rett's disorder. 62. In terms of the level of support that will be necessary for
c. autistic disorder. an autistic child, which factor is used as a predictor to
d. specific learning disorder. determine the prognosis?
a. Age of onset
56. One of the most characteristic patterns for children with b. Severity of initial symptoms
autistic disorder is that they are generally c. Rate of symptom progression
a. uninterested in people d. IQ
b. very intelligent.
c. extremely talkative. 63. Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with
d. hyperactive. autistic disorder. He appears completely unresponsive
to his parents and shows no indication of any language
57. Robin is a 3-year-old girl who appears uninterested in development. Monte seems uninterested in
people. She generally interacts with her mom only when communication of any kind and has significant rituals
she needs something. In some ways, Robin seems to be such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few
interested in her mother only as a tool to help her get minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his
what she wants. Robin would probably be diagnosed ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for
with very young children, Monte's score was extremely low.
a. autistic disorder His prognosis is poor primarily because of
b. childhood disintegrative disorder a. lack of language acquisition and low IQ.
c. ADHD b. low IQ and early age of onset.
d. a specific learning disorder. c. early age of onset and lack of language acquisition.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
d. ritualistic behavior and disinterest in his parents. 70. James and Shanita have one child diagnosed with ASD.
James and Shanita want to have another child. What is
64. Research regarding the behavior of the parents of the risk that the second child will also have ASD?
autistic children suggests that autistic disorder is a. 1 %
a. the result of cold and aloof parenting b. 5%
b. the result of a complex interaction of genetics and c. 20%
parenting style. d. 50%
c. the result of overindulgent parenting style.
d. not the result of parenting behaviors. 71. Research on the social skills of people with autistic
disorder suggests that people with the condition
65. Parents who have a child with autism spectrum disorder a. are interested in socialization but do not know how to
have about a chance of having another child with such socialize.
a disorder. This rate is more than 100 times the risk in b. are not interested in socialization.
the general population, lending weight to the idea that c. enjoy social relationships but cannot express this joy.
there is a strong genetic component to these conditions. d. are none of these.
a. 2%
b. 8% 72. Jim is a teen who has no friends. Although he is quite
c. 13% verbal, he speaks in a strange and formal style of
d. 29% speech. Jim is obsessed with airplanes and behaves in
a very strange way. He is very self-focused and does not
66. The ability to perform "computer-like" mathematical understand the concept of social reciprocity. The most
calculations and other incredible skills that are likely form of autistic spectrum disorder affecting Jim is
sometimes associated with autistic individuals (such as a. childhood disintegrative disorder
the character in the movie Rain Man) are b. Asperger's disorder
a. not typical of the disorder c. Rett's disorder
b. a defining symptom of the disorder. d. autistic disorder
c. fairly common but not present in every autistic
individual. 73. An appropriate treatment goal for a child with autistic
d. a complete myth and not possible for any autistic disorder is
individual. a. resolution of all autistic symptoms by age 18.
b. immediate cessation of ritualistic behaviors.
67. Which of the following is NOT true about the exceptional c. development of normal social skills by age 18.
abilities? d. reduction in tantrums and enhancement of
a. Exceptional skills are referred to as “savant” skills. communication skills.
b. Exceptional skills are seen even in the most severe
forms of ASD. 74. Modern treatment programs for autistic disorder
c. Exceptional skills are the result of a superior working generally involves
memory. a. pharmacological treatments.
d. Exceptional skills are the result of a highly focused b. psychological supports for communication and
attention. socialization problems.
c. behavioral approaches.
68. Which of the following is currently being researched as d. all of these.
a possible cause of autistic disorder?
a. The neuronal structure of the hippocampus 75. Which treatment approach has been most clearly
b. The levels of the neuropeptide oxytocin documented as benefitting children with autistic
c. The mercury used as a preservative in childhood disorder by helping to decrease agitation?
vaccines a. Pharmacological treatment
d. All of these b. Behavioral approaches
c. School education
69. Researchers, studying the brain of individuals with d. Parent support
autistic disorder, suggest that one area of the brain that
may be involved with the disorder is the . 76. Some success has been noted in the development of
a. brain stem communication skills in autistic children through the
b. hypothalamus use of
c. amygdala a. modeling appropriate communication.
d. reticular formation b. behavioral procedures involving shaping and
discrimination training.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. intensive therapy where the patient is placed in many 82. Medication treatment for autistic disorder has been
social situations. found to be _________ in addressing the core symptoms
d. stimulant medications. of the disorder.
a. mildly effective
77. The results of behavioral treatment targeting the b. ineffective
socialization deficits of individuals with autistic disorder c. generally effective
have shown d. highly effective initially, though the benefits of
a. no improvement. medication decrease over
b. that those with autism can improve their socialization
skills. 83. Generally speaking, the treatment for a child with
c. that those with autism can significantly improve their autistic disorder should involve
socialization skills. a. behavioral therapy, school education, and a focus on
d. that there is some improvement but it is not permanent developing as much independence as possible.
b. behavioral therapy, home schooling, and a focus on
78. Jane is a 14-year-old autistic girl currently participating developing as much independence as possible.
in a behavioral social skills training program for autistic c. . cognitive therapy, school education, and a focus on
adolescents. Jane's most likely outcome from this developing as much independence as possible.
program is d. behavioral therapy and a focus on provisions for long-
a. relatively normal socialization for her age. term custodial care.
b. no progress at all.
c. improvement in her socialization skills. 84. The goal of most modern therapy for people with autistic
d. significant improvement in her socialization skills. disorder is to
a. have the child and family accept the inherent
79. Based on the research of Lovaas (1987), improvements limitations of the disorder.
in the intellectual and educational functioning of autistic b. provide a separate and secure environment for the
children have been documented for intervention individual.
programs that c. integrate the autistic child into regular society as much
a. use a group therapy model. as possible.
b. provide multiple therapists. d. isolate autistic children in intensive therapy for as long
c. meet for 40 hours or more per week. as possible before attempting to introduce them into
d. are school based. the larger world.
80. Research by Lovaas (1987) and others suggest that 85. Intellectual disability is defined as
intervention for autism may be most effective when it is a. below-average intellectual ability.
provided ______________. b. below-average intellectual ability and adaptive
a. at as young an age as possible functioning.
b. during adolescence c. significant deficits in self-care abilities.
c. during late childhood/early adolescence d. low IQ score.
d. to adults
86. An individual with an IQ score of 60 would be classified
81. Jake is an 8-year old boy with autistic disorder whose with intellectual disability.
parents have just been informed that their son will be a. mild
provided with whatever special psychological support b. moderate
he needs. Jake's parents should c. severe
a. insist on a special education classroom since research d. profound
suggests this is best for autistic children.
b. consider changing schools because it is obvious that 87. An individual with an IQ score of 35 would be classified
Jake's school knows nothing about the needs of with intellectual disability.
autistic children. a. mild
c. be relieved that Jake's autism must be very mild since b. moderate
the school would not place a child with significant c. severe
autistic deficits in a regular classroom. d. profound
d. be pleased since research suggests that this approach
is best for children with autistic disorder. 88. Individuals with intellectual disability show an extremely
a. similar range of abilities and personalities.
b. similar range of abilities, although personality varies
greatly.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. broad range of abilities and personalities. d. this diagnosis is reserved for children; other diagnostic
d. varied ranges of abilities, although personality tends to terms are applied once the mentally retarded individual
be quite similar. reaches the age of 18.
89. The reason that intellectual disability was recorded on 94. Fran is a 25-year-old woman who has been having a
the same DSM-IV axis as personality disorders is great deal of difficulty taking care of herself. Her IQ
because score is 68, though this surprises her parents because
a. this axis relates to relatively chronic conditions that are they recall that her IQ was tested several times when she
less responsive to treatment. was in school and it was always in the 80s. The
b. intellectual disability and personality disorder generally diagnosis of intellectual disability for Fran is
have similar causes. a. appropriate because she meets the criteria for IQ and
c. intellectual disability and personality disorder are has difficulty with self-care.
generally treated using similar methods. b. inappropriate because she does not meet the IQ
d. this axis relates to biologically influenced conditions. criterion.
c. inappropriate because we do not have sufficient
90. The DSM-IV criteria for intellectual disability are an IQ evidence of impairment.
that is d. inappropriate because she did not appear to meet
a. significantly below average and symptom onset prior criteria before age 18.
to age 18.
b. significantly below average, deficits in adaptive 95. The age before which symptoms must be evident in
functioning, and onset prior to age 18. order to substantiate a diagnosis of intellectual
c. significantly below average, deficits in communication, disability is
and onset prior to age 18. a. fairly arbitrary.
d. significantly below average and deficits in adaptive b. based on medical considerations.
functioning. c. based on the significant differences found in
individuals who are either just above or just below the
91. Joe is 24 years old, lives in a rural area, and works as a designated age.
helper/stock boy in a small local store. Joe's IQ was d. based on studies showing that the designated level
tested when he was in elementary school and again in separates most individuals with brain deficits from
high school. His IQ score was about 68 and he did not those who do not have such abnormalities.
finish high school. Joe lives in a guesthouse on his
parents' farm, and although he does spend lots of time 96. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an
with his family, he takes care of himself. Based on the individual who is classified as mildly intellectually
information provided, Joe should receive a diagnosis of disabled?
. a. She can live independently.
a. intellectual disability b. She requires continual supervision and assistance.
b. borderline intellectual disability c. She is unlikely to ever be able to hold a meaningful job.
c. specific learning disorder d. She will not be able to make it past fifth grade in school.
d. no diagnosis
97. What is one effective treatment strategy for ID?
92. The diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability include a. Encouraging people with ID to take classes on test
an assessment of adaptive functioning because an IQ taking strategies
score is b. Skills training for jobs within a community setting
a. not a measure of intelligence. c. Memorization skills so that people with ID do not have
b. an insufficient measure of impairment to read
c. is not adjusted statistically for people of different ages. d. All of the answers are correct
d. score is always highly inaccurate.
98. The major difference between the DSM-5 system of
93. The reason that "onset prior to age 18" is part of the classification of levels of intellectual disability and the
DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability is American Association on Intellectual Developmental
that Disabilities (AAIDD) system is that the AAIDD system is
a. the diagnosis indicates that the individual was affected based on ___________.
during the developmental period. a. Abilities
b. the diagnosis is not intended to include individuals who b. disabilities
have suffered any form of brain damage. c. IQ
c. the diagnosis has legal implications for children. d. support required

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
99. The fact that IQ scores have, on average, risen over the 107. When there are no known genetic or organic influences,
past century is called the effect. the causes of intellectual disability are generally
a. Cleckley considered to be ______________.
b. Flynn a. substances
c. Hare b. cultural-familial
d. Graves c. prenatal
d. completely unknown
100. The percentage of people with intellectual disability who 108. An appropriate treatment goal for an individual with
are classified as mildly intellectually disabled is mild or moderate intellectual disability is
approximately a. resolution of symptoms by age 18.
a. 90% b. increase intellectual functioning by 15%.
b. 70% c. improve abilities to care for self.
c. 50% d. select an institution for long-term care.
d. 25%
109. ________approaches have been found to be
101. Which is the most accurate statement regarding the successful for teaching individuals with intellectual
causes of intellectual disability? disability a variety of basic self-care activities
a. It is caused by genetics. a. Biological
b. It has four known causes. b. Cognitive
c. It is caused by either substances or trauma. c. Humanistic
d. It is caused by either substances or trauma. d. Behavioral
102. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an example of a 110. Breaking a skill down into its component parts for
a. genetic disorder that causes intellectual disability. teaching purposes is called task .
b. cluster of symptoms displayed by some intellectually a. analysis
disabled individuals. b. awareness
c. form of cerebral palsy. c. acceptance
d. viral infection that causes intellectual disability. d. articulation
103. Down syndrome is caused by 111. Research regarding early intervention programs such
a. an extra 21st chromosome. as Head Start indicates that such programs
b. a missing 21st chromosome. a. are ineffective.
c. lack of oxygen at birth. b. may help improve the functioning of mentally retarded
d. unknown influences. children.
c. may help prevent "at risk" children from developing
104. The incidence of a child being born with Down cultural-familial disability.
syndrome to a mother at age 35 is 1 in 500 births. The d. help parents manage the behavior of their mentally
risk at maternal age 45 is 1 in births. retarded children.
a. 250
b. 100 112. Gene therapy is under development for potential future
c. 50 treatment of those with intellectual disability. If
d. 18 employed, when would this therapy be utilized?
a. During the prenatal period
105. Down syndrome can be detected by b. Immediately after birth
a. the first trimester of pregnancy. c. When puberty begins
b. only at birth. d. In early or middle adulthood
c. ages 1 to 2.
d. adolescence. 113. Prenatal gene therapy refers to the future possibility of
using genetic techniques to
106. Fragile X syndrome a. detect intellectual disability before birth.
a. is caused by too many X chromosomes on a gene. b. intervene in brain development prior to birth.
b. is similar to Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. c. counsel parents about their risks of having a child with
c. primarily affects males intellectual disability.
d. results in an inability to metabolize certain amino acids. d. avoid misdiagnosing intellectual disability .
114. Research on supported employment indicates that

a. the practice can be cost-effective.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. the costs outweigh the benefits. Chapter 15 | Neurocognitive disorders

c. the mentally retarded rarely find meaningful jobs
d. mentally retarded individuals cannot be a productive 1. Traditionally, delirium, dementia, and amnestic
part of society disorders were categorized as
a. resulting from complications of birth.
115. Johnny is a 2-year-old boy who has no motivation to b. part of the normal aging process.
interact with other people. His absence of interest in c. organic and then cognitive disorders.
people may also lead to severe deficits in his ability to d. as temporary conditions.
.
a. amuse himself 2. The three categories of neurocognitive disorders are
b. think a. delirium, chromosomal disorders, and amnestic
c. communicate disorders.
d. walk b. delirium, dementia, and Alzheimer's disease.
c. Alzheimer's, delirium, and Parkinson’s disease.
116. Which of the following often overlaps with ADHD? d. major neurocognitive disorders, mild neurocognitive
a. Oppositional defiant disorder disorders, and delirium.
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Conduct disorder 3. The term "organic mental disorders" is no longer used
d. All of the above to describe cognitive disorders because
a. there is nothing "organic" about these disorders.
b. cognitive disorders are actually thought disorders.
c. the term implies that there is no effective treatment
d. most psychological disorders have an "organic"
component.
4. The cause of most cognitive disorders is .

a. the normal process of aging
b. brain dysfunction
c. alcohol/substances
d. medication side effects
5. The conditions that are now called neurocognitive

disorders typically cause impairment in all of the
following primary abilities EXCEPT .
a. memory
b. perception
c. dreaming
d. attention
6. Cognitive disorders are often associated with changes

in
a. behavior and personality
b. anxiety and depression
c. levels of paranoia
d. all of the above
7. From the following choices, the age group most likely

to use prescription medications is .
a. infants and young children
b. children and adolescents
c. middle-aged adults
d. older adults
8. Which of the following is true of delirium? Delirium:

a. impacts approximately 20% of older adults admitted
into acute care facilities.
b. is associated with confusion and disorientation.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. comes on gradually. a. Are you or have you currently withdrawn from alcohol
d. all of the answers are correct use?
b. Have you been tested for an infection?
9. Designer drugs such as Ecstasy, “Molly,” and “bath c. Have you had an accident or otherwise been in a
salts”: position to injure your brain?
a. impact the ability to focus. d. All of the answers are correct
b. can cause delirium.
c. indicate the complex interaction between physical and 16. Which of the following groups is likely to show
psychological health. delirium?
d. all of the answers are correct. a. Older adults
b. AIDS patients
10. Developing delirium in the hospital is associated with c. Cancer patients
what further health risk? d. All of these
a. 1.5 times as likely to die that year
b. 10 times as likely to die that year 17. Among the elderly, delirium
c. Heart disease a. occurs because drugs are eliminated from their system
d. Cancer quickly.
b. accounts for a significant number of falls that cause hip
11. Grandpa is admitted to critical care during one of his fractures.
delirium episodes. Approximately what is Grandpa’s c. is rarely caused by improper medication use.
increased risk of mortality in the next year? d. is easily attributed to a limited number of causes.
a. Twice the risk
b. 2.5 times the risk 18. The symptoms of delirium tend to develop
c. 5% more risk a. very slowly, over the course of several years.
d. 25% more risk b. very quickly, over the course of a few hours to a few
days.
12. Impaired consciousness and cognition during the c. moderately slowly, over the course of several months.
course of several hours or days defines . d. either very quickly or very slowly, depending on the
a. delirium cause.
b. neurocognitive disorder
c. Alzheimer's disease 19. The symptoms of delirium tend to subside
d. Pick’s disease a. very slowly, over the course of several years.
b. relatively quickly.
13. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of c. moderately slowly, over the course of several months.
delirium? d. very slowly, if they ever subside at all.
a. Poison
b. Drug use 20. Substance-induced delirium is a major problem for the
c. Infections elderly because
d. Allergic reactions a. they are more likely to take prescription medications
than other age groups.
14. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency b. their bodies are less able to process and eliminate
room. His son explains that his father woke up this drugs.
morning and was "not himself." Mr. Smith appears c. improper use of medication is likely to have serious
confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not side effects.
know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. d. all of the above.
Smith's son reports that his father had been completely
fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith 21. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to
appears to be suffering from . develop delirium?
a. neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy Body disease a. Joe (age 76) takes multiple medications for various
b. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease medical conditions. Two new medications have just
c. delirium been prescribed for him, and he has already made a
d. amnestic disorder mistake taking the first dose.
b. Jean (age 89) is in good physical and mental health.
This morning, she has a little bit of a head cold, but has
15. Lauren goes to her usual family doctor after not yet taken any medication for it
experiencing her first bout with delirium. What
questions is the doctor likely to ask

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. Mark (age 12) woke up with a low-grade fever from the c. involves a slow increase in symptoms.
viral infection that has been going around his class this d. leads to a rapid decline in abilities.
past week.
d. Sarah (age 40) was in a minor car accident but claims 29. All of the following are possible causes of dementia
to feel fine. EXCEPT _______________.
a. Alzheimer's disease
22. Delirium is generally treated with . b. drugs and alcohol
a. antibiotic medication c. infection or depression
b. benzodiazepine medication d. food additives and preservatives
c. antidepressant medication
d. a treatment based on the specific cause of the delirium 30. The most common cause of major neurocognitive
disorder is .
23. Delirium brought on by withdrawal from alcohol or a. a history of substance abuse
other drugs is generally treated with b. Alzheimer's disease
a. rest and reassurance. c. improper use of prescription drugs
b. antipsychotic medication. d. syphilis
c. antidepressant medication.
d. restraining the patient until the withdrawal symptoms 31. One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of
are over major neurocognitive disorder or delirium is that
a. major neurocognitive disorder symptoms develop
24. Approximately what percentage of chronic heavy slowly over time, and delirium symptoms develop
alcohol users show some cognitive impairment? quickly.
a. 10% to 25% b. major neurocognitive disorder symptoms are usually
b. 25% to 35% associated with underlying medical conditions, and
c. 50% to 70% delirium is usually the result of other factors.
d. almost 100% c. the initial symptoms of major neurocognitive disorder
are generally more severe than the symptoms of
25. Typical psychosocial intervention for a patient with delirium.
delirium includes d. the symptoms of major neurocognitive disorder involve
a. restraining the patient to prevent self-harm. memory, but the symptoms of delirium are more likely
b. placing the person in a new environment. to involve expressive language.
c. reassurance and surrounding with familiar belongings.
d. excluding the patient from any medical decision to 32. At the age of 50, Debra has begun to receive quite a bit
avoid increased anxiety. of teasing from her family about being
"absentminded." The truth is that Debra has been
26. What is MOST successful in assisting people who are hiding the fact that each week she seems to remember
susceptible to delirium? less and less. For the last month, she has been getting
a. Psychosocial approach lost while driving home from work. Lately, Debra has
b. Preventive efforts such as patient counseling been relying on a hand-drawn map to get home. She
c. Antipsychotic medications has started having trouble recognizing the faces of
d. Rest and reassurance people at work and frequently forgets why she started
to do something. Debra appears to be developing
27. The gradual deterioration of brain functioning that a. delirium
affects judgment, memory, language, and other b. amnestic disorder
cognitive processes is called _______________. c. neurocognitive disorder
a. major neurocognitive disorder d. medically induced dementia
b. delirium
c. amnestic disorder 33. People with neurocognitive disorder sometimes suffer
d. mental retardation from agnosia, which is defined as the inability to
_________.
28. One of the major differences between major a. use language
neurocognitive disorder caused by Alzheimer's b. understand language
disease and major neurocognitive disorder caused by c. recognize and name objects
depression is that Alzheimer's type major d. remember events and place
neurocognitive disorder
a. is generally reversible. 34. the inability to recognize objects is called .
b. is not reversible. a. Agnosia

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. Alexi
c. anhedonia 41. All of the following are types of neurocognitive
d. apraxia disorder EXCEPT
a. vascular neurocognitive disorder.
35. Which of the following is TRUE of major neurocognitive b. substance/medication-induced neurocognitive
disorder? disorder.
a. The number of new cases per year is decreasing. c. neurocognitive disorder due to mononucleosis.
b. More men than women have major neurocognitive d. neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease.
disorder.
c. The financial costs of major neurocognitive disorder 42. The definitive diagnosis of neurocognitive disorder
are decreasing. due to Alzheimer’s disease can currently be made
d. Major neurocognitive disorder rates are increasing as based solely on ______________.
people live longer. a. cognitive testing
b. brain scans
36. Which of the following statements about major c. autopsy results
neurocognitive disorder is FALSE? d. behavioral analysis
a. Globally, one new case of major neurocognitive
disorder is identified every 30 seconds. 43. How is neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's
b. Worldwide, the cost of major neurocognitive disorder is disease usually diagnosed?
about $315 billion per year. a. MRI findings
c. early half of the cases of major neurocognitive disorder b. Brain biopsy
are of the Alzheimer's type c. Functional brain scan
d. The rate of new cases doubles with every 5 years of d. Simplified mental status exam
age after age 75.
44. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is
37. Which of the following statements about major characterized by
neurocognitive disorder is FALSE? a. multiple cognitive deficits that progress over time.
a. Globally, one new case of major neurocognitive b. a few severe cognitive deficits that develop gradually
disorder is identified every 30 seconds and steadily.
b. Worldwide, the cost of major neurocognitive disorder is c. multiple cognitive deficits that develop quickly.
about $315 billion per year. d. a few severe cognitive deficits that develop quickly
c. Nearly half of the cases of major neurocognitive
disorder are of the Alzheimer's type. 45. Which of the following is used for a definitive diagnosis
d. The rate of new cases doubles with every 5 years of of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease?
age after age 75. a. Psychological testing
b. A mental status exam
38. The prevalence of major neurocognitive disorder in c. Reported observations of the patient by family
adults between the ages of 65 and 74 is . members
a. around .5% d. None of the above
b. less than 1%
c. hovering at 3% 46. In the advanced stages of neurocognitive disorder due
d. a little more than 5% to Alzheimer's disease, a phenomenon called
"sundowner syndrome" occurs in which cognitive
39. The prevalence of major neurocognitive disorder in disturbances tend to
adults over the age of 85 is . a. improve as the day goes on
a. 1% to 5% b. become worse toward evening.
b. 10% to 15% c. come and go during the course of the day.
c. 0% to 40% d. peak around mid-day.
d. more than 50%
47. Although the sample size is small, the results of a study
40. In the United States alone, the cost of caring for that looked at the writings of a group of Catholic nuns
patients with Alzheimer's type major neurocognitive (Snowden et al., 1996), suggest that the development
disorder is estimated to be about . of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease
a. $100 thousand might be predicted in early life by analyzing the
b. $100 million present in an individual's writing.
c. $100 billion a. errors
d. $100 trillion b. word usage

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. idea density c. Jason, who is extremely bright but never finished

d. emotional tone college.
d. Carrie, who dropped out of school when she was very
48. The progress of cognitive deterioration in Alzheimer’s young.
disease is most rapid during the stages of the
disease 55. One hypothesis to explain the observed differences in
a. early the rate of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's
b. middle disease for individuals of varying educational level is
c. late that
d. advanced a. the abilities acquired through formal education create
a “mental reserve” that helps offset the symptoms of
49. The progression of cognitive deterioration in the illness as they progress.
neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is b. the type of mental activity associated with formal
a. slow during early stages and late stages, and rapid education places an additional burden on the brain that
during middle stages. makes symptoms worse once a person has the
b. rapid during early and late stages, and slow during disorder
middle stages. c. knowledge acquired through formal education helps
c. slow and progressive throughout the individual's life. one avoid exposure to environmental stimuli that might
d. slow in the early stages and rapid during late stages. influence the disorder
d. the type of work that most college graduates pursue is
50. Recent research on Alzheimer’s Disease reveals that: less likely to expose the individual to the stressors
a. it is likely to go away on its own. associated with the disorder.
b. some people with Alzheimer’s actually increase their
cognitive functioning. 56. In regard to neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's
c. early diagnosis can potentially impact the development disease, the biological “cognitive reserve” hypothesis
of the disease suggests that
d. All of the answers are correct. a. skills acquired through formal education can actually
enhance the early symptoms of the illness.
51. What is the approximate average survival time of a b. the more synapses one develops throughout life, the
patient diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder due to more neuronal death required before the person
Alzheimer's disease? becomes impaired.
a. 4 years c. individuals with neurocognitive disorder due to
b. 8 years Alzheimer's disease never had reserve neurons.
c. 15 years d. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is
d. 20 years caused by a lack of formal education.
52. Symptoms of neurocognitive disorder due to 57. What is the biological version of the theory that states
Alzheimer's disease typically appear during the that formal education helps insulate people from the
. effects of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's
a. 40s and 50s disease?
b. 50s and 60s a. Mind-body hypothesis
c. 60s and 70s b. Neuronal network theory
d. 70s and 80s c. Cognitive reserve hypothesis
d. Cortical activity theory
53. Research suggests that Alzheimer’s disease accounts
for about of the cases of neurocognitive disorder. 58. Higher levels of education are associated with
a. 15% a. the prevention of neurocognitive disorder due to
b. 25% Alzheimer's disease.
c. 50% b. a delay in the onset of symptoms of neurocognitive
d. 75% disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
c. a slow course of deterioration after neurocognitive
54. Which of the following individuals has the greatest risk disorder due to Alzheimer's disease first starts.
of developing neurocognitive disorder due to d. the rapid onset of symptoms in neurocognitive disorder
Alzheimer's disease? due to Alzheimer's disease.
a. Paul, who is wealthy and well educated.
b. Rena, who completed college although she has an 59. The theory that the more synapses a person develops,
average IQ. the more neurons must die before the signs of

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease are a. rate of onset

apparent is called the . b. prevalence
a. cognitive reserve hypothesis c. gender distribution
b. synaptic deterioration hypothesis d. all of the above
c. oversight theory
d. genetic hypothesis 65. Why are the symptoms of vascular neurocognitive
disorder so different in each patient?
60. According to the most recent research, which of the a. It is not known why patients with vascular
following statements is TRUE concerning ethnic neurocognitive disorder have different symptoms.
background and the development of neurocognitive b. The symptoms relate to the area of the brain damaged.
disorder due to Alzheimer's disease? c. The symptoms depend upon the person's other
a. Japanese, Nigerian, and Amish individuals have lower medical conditions.
prevalence of the disorder. d. Patients tend to be elderly and easily confused.
b. The illness is found in roughly the same numbers
across all ethnic groups. 66. The risk of developing vascular neurocognitive
c. Educated European ethnic groups have a lower rate of disorder is
getting the disease. a. greater for women than men.
d. Native Americans have a slightly higher rate of the b. greater for men than women.
disorder c. equal for men and women.
d. greater for men in Western cultures, but equal for men
61. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard and women in other cultures.
to the rate of neurocognitive disorder due to
Alzheimer's disease for different demographic groups? 67. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding
a. Males and certain racial groups appear to have lower the different types of neurocognitive disorder?
rates of the disorder. a. All forms of neurocognitive disorder have the same
b. No differences are found in the rate of neurocognitive onset, symptoms, and course.
disorder due to Alzheimer's disease by gender, but b. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a more rapid
some racial differences have been noted. onset and patients suffer a much more rapid demise
c. No differences are found in the rate of neurocognitive than with the other forms of neurocognitive disorder.
disorder due to Alzheimer's disease by race, but c. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a more rapid
women appear to have a higher rate of the disorder onset and results in fewer deficits than neurocognitive
than men. disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.
d. No differences in the rate of the disorder by race or d. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a more rapid
gender have been noted. onset than neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s
disease, although the course and outcome are similar.
vascular neurocognitive disorder? 68. All of the following are causes of neurocognitive
a. The prevalence rate is 25% for those over age 80. disorder EXCEPT .
b. The risk for women is slightly higher than men. a. HIV
c. The outcome is similar to that of neurocognitive b. vitamin B12 deficiency
disorder due to Alzheimer's disease c. Pneumonia
d. The onset is about the same as for neurocognitive d. chronic traumatic encephalopathy
disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
69. Neurocognitive disorder caused by HIV appears to be
due to .
a. the HIV infection itself
63. There are fewer studies on vascular neurocognitive b. side effects of medications used to treat HIV
disorder because c. opportunistic infections that occur in HIV patients
a. it is less serious than neurocognitive disorder due to d. chemical imbalances in the brain
Alzheimer’s disease.
b. of its lower incidence rates as compared to Alzheimer’s 70. The neurocognitive disorder experienced by HIV
disease. patients primarily affects areas of the brain in the
c. its cause is clear and not in need of research. a. meninges
d. none of the above b. hindbrain
c. inner areas of the brain
64. A key difference between vascular neurocognitive d. brain stem
disorder and Alzheimer’s disease is/are ______.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
71. Neurocognitive disorder due to HIV is more likely to a. 1% to 3% of people

cause _________________ than neurocognitive b. 5% of people
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. c. 10% of people over the age of 90
a. death d. It cannot be estimated how many people have
b. short-term memory loss Parkinson’s Disease
c. long-term memory loss
d. severe depression 79. Only some of the patients diagnosed with
___________________ and ___________________ go
72. The differing patterns of impairment associated with on to develop neurocognitive disorder.
neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease a. Alzheimer's; Huntington's disease
and neurocognitive disorder due to HIV are primarily b. Pick's disease; Huntington's disease
attributable to c. Huntington's disease; Parkinson's disease
a. the different areas of the brain affected. d. Parkinson's disease; Pick's disease
b. the immune response to the virus in HIV patients.
c. psychosocial differences in the lives of the typical 80. Compared to most disorders, Huntington's disease is
patients with each disorder. very unusual because it is
d. unexplained causes. a. the result of one gene
b. influenced by many genes.
73. Early symptoms of HIV-induced neurocognitive c. always a cause of neurocognitive disorder
disorder include: d. associated with subcortical impairment.
a. seizures.
b. forgetfulness. 81. The disorder that causes a form of neurocognitive
c. susceptibility to brain infection disorder called Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a variant
d. all of these answers are correct. of
a. Huntington's disease.
74. The introduction of new medications for AIDS (e.g., b. Pick's disease.
HAARTs) has ________________ the percentage of c. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disorder.
patients who develop neurocognitive disorder. d. bovine spongiform encephalopathy (”mad cow
a. increased disease”).
b. decreased
c. eliminated 82. The symptoms of substance/medication-induced
d. had no effect on neurocognitive disorder are most similar to the
symptoms observed in _______________.
75. If Jane's neurocognitive disorder is caused by a a. vascular neurocognitive disorder
process that has damaged her brain's dopamine b. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is c. Huntington's disease
caused by ____________________________ . d. HIV-induced neurocognitive disorder
a. head trauma
b. Parkinson's disease 83. The symptoms of substance/medication-induced
c. Huntington's disease neurocognitive disorder are generally associated with
d. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease a. toxic effects of the substances.
b. temporary impairment in brain functioning.
76. The involuntary limb movements in Huntington’s c. permanent brain damage.
Disease are known as: __________________ d. poor diet and self-care behaviors.
a. infarctions
b. delirium tremors 84. The research finding of a negative correlation between
c. chorea smoking and neurocognitive disorder due to
d. chronic tremors Alzheimer's disease is generally interpreted to mean
that
77. Parkinson’s disease is associated with a. research findings are sometimes in error.
_____________________ . b. nicotine protects against neurocognitive disorder due
a. subcortical neurocognitive disorder to Alzheimer’s disease for most people
b. delirium tremens c. smoking may be helpful in protecting people at high
c. delirium risk for Alzheimer's disease.
d. development of a Trendelenburg gait d. smoking may shorten the lives of smokers so they do
not live long enough to develop neurocognitive
78. Parkinson’s disease affects __________________ disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
92. If the presence of a gene means you have a 100%

85. Genetic research suggests that Alzheimer’s disease is chance of developing the disease, the gene is
linked to considered ________________.
a. Down syndrome through chromosome 21 a. deterministic
b. Parkinson’s Disease through a single gene b. reductionistic
c. depression through chromosome 12 c. susceptible
d. Huntington’s disease due to a genetic mutation. d. absolutist
86. Which disorder is associated with the formation of 93. Some studies suggest that deposits of ___________
neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques in the cause the cell death associated with Alzheimer’s
brain? disease.
a. Huntington's disease a. amyloid beta
b. Pick's disease b. fat
c. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease c. cholesterol
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease d. protein
87. The neurofibrillary tangles associated with 94. A possible external cause of neurocognitive disorder
neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease are involves __________________ .
best described as a. repeated head trauma
a. tangled, strand-like filaments in brain cells. b. constant stress
b. tangled, strand-like filaments throughout the nervous c. sleep deprivation
system. d. smoking
c. gummy protein deposits in the cortex.
d. gummy protein deposits throughout the nervous 95. One theory about the development of neurocognitive
system. disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease suggests that the
formation of solid waxy proteins in the brain causes the
88. The amyloid plaques that accumulate in the brain of disorder in a process similar to
patients with neurocognitive disorder due to a. cholesterol build-up in blood vessels causing
Alzheimer's disease are best described as cardiovascular disease.
a. tangled, strand-like filaments. b. vascular spasms causing migraines.
b. gummy protein deposits. c. head trauma causing neuronal death.
c. plaques of dead nerve cells. d. formation of scar tissue following an injury.
d. mineral deposits.
89. Research into the causes of neurocognitive disorder 96. The gene responsible for producing amyloid precursor
due to Alzheimer's disease indicates the influence of protein (APP) appears to explain the development of
a. multiple genes. a. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease in
b. a single gene. general.
c. environmental toxins. b. late onset neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s
d. high levels of aluminum. disease.
c. non-Alzheimer's type of neurocognitive disorder that
tends to affect unique populations, such as those with
90. The late onset form of Alzheimer’s disease is related to strong family history of the disorder.
chromosome ________________ . d. early onset neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s
a. 21 disease and the higher frequency of the disorder in
b. 14 Down Syndrome patients.
c. 19
d. 12 97. The greater the number of apolipoprotein (apo E4)
genes an individual possesses, the
91. A gene with a 100% chance of causing Alzheimer a. more likely the individual is to develop vascular
disease is identified as __________________ . neurocognitive disorder
a. deterministic b. less likely the individual is to develop vascular
b. susceptible neurocognitive disorder.
c. relative c. more likely the individual is to develop neurocognitive
d. functional disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.
d. less likely the individual is to develop neurocognitive
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
98. Apolipoprotein (apo E4) is associated with the 104. Recent research regarding the biological
development of neurocognitive disorder because apo processes and genetic factors associated with
E4 neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease is
a. helps insulate neurons from various toxins. best viewed as
b. results in neurofibrillary tangles a. absolute fact.
c. causes aluminum to concentrate in the brain. b. preliminary findings that need to be studied further.
d. helps transport amyloid protein through the c. hypotheses that have yet to be tested.
bloodstream. d. interesting theories regarding influences, though of
little potential use for finding a way to predict and treat
99. In regard to neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s neurocognitive disorder.
disease, having two genes for apolipoprotein (apo E4)
a. increases the risk of developing neurocognitive 105. The risk for developing neurocognitive disorder is
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, but does not influenced by all of the following psychological or
relate to the age of onset. social factors EXCEPT
b. decreases the risk of developing neurocognitive a. cigarette smoking.
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and raises the b. participation in sports such as boxing.
average age of onset. c. personality traits such as extroversion.
c. decreases the risk of developing neurocognitive d. level of formal education.
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease but lowers the
average age of onset. 106. Psychological and social influences involved in
d. increases the risk of developing neurocognitive neurocognitive disorder
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and decreases the a. help determine the onset and course.
average age of onset. b. are direct causes.
c. have no influence.
100. The condition called dementia pugilistica is d. have not been studied.
diagnosed in _______________.
a. baseball players 107. Treatment for Alzheimer's disease utilizes drugs
b. boxers that prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine including
c. bowlers all of the following EXCEPT
d. basketball players a. paroxetine (Paxil).
b. tacrine hydrochloride (Cognex).
101. Individuals who have the apo E44 gene c. donepezil (Aricept).
______________ of developing Alzheimer's disease. d. galantamine (Reminyl)
a. are at increased risk
b. have nearly a 100% chance 108. Appropriate treatment goals for a patient recently
c. are not at risk diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder include all of
d. may or may not be at risk the following EXCEPT
a. reverse the neurological damage already done
b. improve lifestyle to prevent further neurological
damage.
102. All of the following are considered deterministic c. reduce the current rate of decline.
genes EXCEPT ___________. d. learn strategies to compensate for existing limitations.
a. presenilin-1 109. The primary treatment for neurocognitive disorder
b. presenilin-2 due to Alzheimer’s disease is
c. apo E44 a. antidepressant medication such as SSRIs.
d. ß-amyloid precursor b. diet and exercise.
c. vitamin B-12 supplements.
103. Which of the following environmental stressors d. medications such as Cognex or Aricept.
appears to be a significant factor in the later
development of neurocognitive disorder (including that 110. Patients with neurocognitive disorder due to
caused by Alzheimer's disease)? Alzheimer’s disease benefit from medications that
a. Smoking work by
b. Low blood pressure a. preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine
c. Repeated head trauma b. enhancing the level of dopamine.
d. Exposure to high levels of aluminum c. preventing the reuptake of serotonin.
d. unknown mechanisms.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
111. What is the typical response to medication that c. a moderate impact

can be expected for a patient with neurocognitive d. a major impact
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?
a. About one year without symptoms 117. Of the following, which is NOT one of the potential
b. Doubling of life expectancy consequences associated with caregiving for patients
c. Temporary improvement in abilities with neurocognitive disorder?
d. Relief of physical but not cognitive symptoms a. Anxiety
b. Depression
112. John was recently diagnosed with neurocognitive c. Contagion
disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. After researching d. Elder abuse
his treatment options, he decides to try medication and
attempt to make the most of his remaining abilities. 118. In DSM-IV-TR, the organic mental disorders were
John plans to stay as physically and mentally active as relabeled as cognitive disorders because
possible for as long as he can and to use compensation a. almost all disorders involve brain dysfunction
strategies if necessary. His decision b. delirium and dementia involve cognitive symptoms
a. makes little sense as there are more aggressive while the other disorders don’t.
biological treatments that are effective. c. delirium and dementia occur primarily in the very
b. seems reasonable given the fact that there are no young.
effective treatments available. d. both a and b.
c. ignores the additional demands that his decision will
ultimately place on his caregivers. 119. If the findings from the study regarding the
d. makes little sense since intensive psychosocial writings of a group of Catholic nuns (Snowden et al.,
intervention has been shown to be effective. 1996) are correct, which of the following individuals is
most likely to eventually develop neurocognitive
113. Which of the following are problems associated disorder due to Alzheimer's disease?
with the medications used to treat neurocognitive a. John, whose writing is very descriptive and a bit
disorder due to Alzheimer's disease? bizarre.
a. Abilities only improve to the same point where they b. Mary, whose writing has many religious themes.
were 6 months prior to treatment. c. Maureen, whose writing is mostly about animals
b. Any gains in ability are temporary. d. Lisa, whose writing describes events in very brief
c. Many patients discontinue medication because of terms.
severe side effects and expense.
d. All of these are significant problems with the 120. Some types of Down Syndrome predispose the
medications used to treat neurocognitive disorder due individual to developing ________________.
to Alzheimer’s disease. a. dementia pugilistica
b. Parkinson's disease
114. What is the primary goal of most psychosocial c. Alzheimer's disease
treatments for neurocognitive disorder? d. vascular neurocognitive disorder
a. Relieve depression
b. Enhancing the lives of those with the disease, as well 121. What is the main reason that we do NOT have an
as their family members. effective treatment for neurocognitive disorder due to
c. Treat the anxiety associated with knowing that the Alzheimer’s disease?
disorder is progressive a. The disorder affects the elderly who generally have
d. Enhance family functioning many other health problems.
b. We do not have a way to replace extensive brain
115. During the late stages of neurocognitive disorder, damage.
the _________________ probably experiences the c. The amount of treatment research is considerably less
greatest need for psychosocial treatment. for neurocognitive disorder than for other disorders.
a. caregiver d. The cause is genetic.
b. patient
c. family
d. healthcare provider
116. Recent studies suggest that Ginkgo biloba has

_____________ on memory.
a. little or no impact
b. a mild impact

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Chapter 16 | Mental Health Services: Legal and Ethical d. Neither of these

Issues
7. State laws permit involuntary commitment when all of
1. In the textbook case of Arthur, who was diagnosed with the following conditions have been met EXCEPT
brief psychotic disorder after talking about his secret a. a person has a mental illness and is in need of
plans both to save the world's starving children and to treatment.
break into a foreign embassy, his parents were unable b. a person is dangerous to himself/herself or others and
to have him admitted to a psychiatric hospital because is in need of treatment.
Arthur was c. a person is unable to care for himself/herself.
a. diagnosed incorrectly. d. a person asks to be admitted to a mental hospital.
b. not considered dangerous to himself or others.
c. no longer covered by their health insurance. 8. Authorities can use police power to hold criminal
d. a minor child. offenders if they are a threat to society. However, if the
power called parens patriae is used to take someone
2. In the late 19t h century, the enactment of civil into custody, it means that
commitment laws resulted in a. a person has already committed a crime.
a. only a few cases of involuntary commitment to mental b. a person is not acting in his or her own best interest.
hospitals. c. the safety of the community is in jeopardy.
b. people being committed who were not mentally ill. d. individual rights are more important than societal
c. wives committing their husbands to mental hospitals. rights.
d. a decrease in the number of large public mental
hospitals. 9. When parens patriae is used to take a mentally ill
individual into custody, it means that the state is acting
3. Which of the following eras was known as the “liberal as a
era” in regard to mental health treatments? a. mental health counselor.
a. 1940 to 1960 b. surrogate parent.
b. 1960 to 1980 c. legal advisor.
c. 1980 to 1990 d. social worker.
d. 1990 to the present
10. In terms of civil commitment, “grave disability” refers
4. The “neoconservative era” in regard to mental health to
treatments is characterized by an emphasis on: a. having a mental illness and needing treatment
a. human rights of the mentally ill. b. fear of controversy.
b. creating more mental health institutions to reduce c. being unable to care for oneself
crime. d. possibility that a person will be harmed by others.
c. family care.
d. greater protection for society. 11. The formal process of civil commitment begins with a
petition directed to a(n) .
5. Each of the following statements correctly describes a. attorney
the circumstances of mentally ill people prior to the late b. psychiatrist
19th century EXCEPT c. judge
a. the community often took on the care of mentally ill d. prosecutor
people.
b. family members often cared for a mentally ill person at 12. When a person is the subject of civil commitment
home. proceedings, the rights and protections provided by
c. mentally ill people received specialized care in law include all of the following EXCEPT
psychiatric hospitals. a. notification that civil commitment proceedings are
d. mentally ill people were often left to care for taking place.
themselves. b. required presence during the proceedings.
c. representation by an attorney
6. Which of the following is (are) specified in civil d. selection of a judge who will determine the outcome of
commitment laws? the case.
a. When a person can be legally declared to have a
mental illness
b. When a person can be placed in a mental hospital for
treatment
c. Both of these

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
13. According to mental health law, what happens if a c. media reports.

family member or a police officer certifies that a d. statistics on homicide and other violent crimes.
mentally disturbed person "presents a clear and
immediate danger?" 20. The risk of violence among mentally ill patients
a. A long-term commitment can be made without the increases if specific symptoms such as present.
formal procedures of a civil commitment. a. hallucinations
b. A short-term commitment can be made without the b. delusions
formal procedures of a civil commitment. c. both of these
c. The person can be immediately forced to receive d. neither of these
treatment, including electroconvulsive therapy.
d. The person can be put in jail until such time as they 21. What is a critical determinant of the civil commitment
recover their mental faculties. process?
a. Substance abuse
14. Which of the following statements is correct? b. Dangerousness
a. Mental illness is a legal concept. c. Alcoholism
b. Mental illness is defined the same way across states. d. Subjective distress
c. Most states include substance-related disorders in
their definition of mental illness. 22. The link between mental illness and violence is .
d. Mental illness is synonymous with psychological a. negligible
disorders. b. mild
c. moderate
15. The term "mental illness" is considered a legal concept d. strong
and is defined
a. differently from state to state. 23. In 1975, Kenneth Donaldson, who was not considered
b. exactly the same in every state dangerous, successfully sued the director of the
c. by the United States government hospital in which he had been confined for 15 years and
d. by the hospital where the patient is being committed. where he had received .
a. SSRI medication
16. In some states, the legal definition of mental illness b. ECT
excludes c. no treatment
a. cognitive disability and substance-related disorders. d. abusive treatment
b. anxiety disorders and alcoholism.
c. personality disorders and gender dysphoria. 24. According to the 1975 case of O'Connor v. Donaldson,
d. posttraumatic stress disorder. a non-dangerous mentally ill individual
a. must be given medication to control the possibility of
17. Receiving a DSM-5 diagnosis means that the person dangerous tendencies developing.
a. is considered dangerous b. cannot be confined in an institution if capable of
b. fits the legal definition of mental illness functioning safely on the outside
c. does not necessarily fit the legal definition of mental c. must be confined in an institution in case a violent
illness. episode occurs.
d. must be either civilly or criminally committed. d. can be released from an institution only if relatives
agree to provide care.
18. With regard to the mentally ill, popular opinion holds
that 25. Provisions of the Supreme Court decision known as
a. the mentally ill are more dangerous than those who are Addington v. Texas (1979) included all of the following
not mentally ill. EXCEPT
b. the mentally ill are less dangerous than those who are a. more than just the promise of improving one's quality
not mentally ill. of life is required for involuntary commitment.
c. those who are mentally ill and those who are not are b. If non-dangerous people can survive in the community
equally dangerous. with the help of others, they should not be detained
d. mental illness is unrelated to level of dangerousness. against their will.
c. needing treatment or having a grave disability is
19. The popular opinion that the mentally ill are more sufficient to commit someone with a mental illness.
dangerous than those who are not mentally ill is d. the government has limited ability to commit individuals
probably the result of unless they are dangerous.
a. data from medical records.
b. public knowledge of DSM-5 diagnostic criteria.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
26. In the 1970s and 1980s, tightened restrictions on a. people with mental illness were moved from mental
involuntary commitment resulted in hospitals to jails.
a. the criminal justice system becoming responsible for b. traninstituionalization occurred.
mentally ill people. c. people with mental illness were moved from mental
b. fewer mentally ill patients living in the community. hospitals to nursing homes
c. family members having increased access to treatment d. all of the above.
services for their loved ones
d. mentally ill patients receiving needed mental health 33. During the 1980s, homelessness was blamed on strict
services. civil commitment criteria and deinstitutionalization,
two policies that included all of the following EXCEPT
27. According to the Substance Abuse and Mental Health a. limits on conditions for involuntary commitment
Services Administration (2011), the number of b. limits placed on how long a mentally ill patient could
homeless people on any given night in the United stay in a hospital.
States is more than . c. closing of large psychiatric hospitals.
a. 125,00 d. increased numbers of mental health professionals
b. 400,000 working in psychiatric hospitals.
c. 800,000
d. 2 million 34. The term transinstitutionalization refers to the
movement of people with severe mental illness out of
28. What ethnic group with mental illness is most likely to psychiatric hospitals and into any or all of the following
be homeless? EXCEPT
a. Asian Americans a. jails and prisons.
b. Native Americans b. nursing homes.
c. African Americans c. group residences
d. Hispanic Americans d. community health centers.
29. During the 1970s and 1980s, the trend toward 35. Beginning in the mid-1970s, authorities were unable to
deinstitutionalization resulted in confine non-dangerous mentally ill patients, a policy
a. an increased number of patients in psychiatric that emphasized ___________________.
institutions. a. individual freedom
b. a decreased number of patients in psychiatric b. society's rights
institutions. c. both of these
c. better treatment of institutionalized mentally ill patients. d. neither of these
d. decreased numbers of homeless mentally ill people.
36. The conflicting interests over civil commitment were
30. Which of the following statements accurately illustrated by the 1988 case of Joyce Brown, a
describes the outcome of the policy known as homeless woman diagnosed with paranoid
deinstitutionalization? schizophrenia, who was .
a. Previously hospitalized patients received adequate a. medicated against her will
care in most communities. b. hospitalized involuntarily
b. Funding for community mental health centers was c. dangerous
sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized d. suicidal
patients.
c. Deinstitutionalization is considered a success because 37. In Supreme Court rulings such as O'Connor v.
patient care improved. Donaldson and Addington v. Texas, it was argued that
d. Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because it the criteria for involuntary commitment should include
did not result in more community care. .
a. dangerousness
31. Which of the goals of deinstitutionalization have been b. mental illness
accomplished? c. both of these
a. The closing of large psychiatric hospitals d. neither of these
b. The creation of a network of community mental health
centers 38. In response to the strict civil commitment laws of the
c. Both of these 1970s and 1980s, some states enacted legal reforms
d. Neither of these that
a. shortened hospital stays
32. A major problem with deinstitutionalization was b. reduced the number of admissions

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. changed the status under which patients were 44. What should make us optimistic that the needs of
committed. individuals and of society can ultimately be addressed
d. eliminated the doctrine of parens patriae. through the courts?
a. Improvements can happen quickly.
39. In the late 1970s and early 1980s, legal reforms enacted b. Improvements always address the issues in need of
by some states to make civil commitment easier reform.
resulted in c. Laws can be changed.
a. a decrease in the number of hospitalized mental d. Medications are improving.
patients.
b. more voluntary than involuntary admissions. 45. Andrew has been accused of committing a crime and
c. more patients admitted under parens patriaepowers. is currently in a mental health facility. He will stay there
d. shorter hospital stays for mentally ill patients. until it is determined that he is fit to participate in legal
proceedings against him. The commitment process by
40. According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic which Andrew is being held is called .
changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a a. civil
sign of a b. criminal
a. society that has no idea of what to do with this issue. c. parens patriae
b. hospital system that is ineffective in treating d. mens rea
uncooperative patients.
c. healthy system responding to the limitations of 46. Andrea is being held in a psychiatric hospital after
previous decisions. being found guilty of criminal behavior. She is in this
d. prior mistake that has now been successfully facility instead of in jail because
corrected. a. she has been found not guilty by reason of insanity.
b. she has been found unable to participate in legal
41. The "sexual psychopath laws" that were passed in the proceedings against her.
mid-1900s provided for c. either or both of these.
a. an indefinite period of hospitalization for sex offenders. d. neither of these.
b. an indefinite prison term for sex offenders.
c. both of these 47. The outcome of Miguel's trial resulted in a finding of
d. neither of these. "not guilty by reason of insanity." According to
criminal law, Miguel now will be sent to .
42. You have read an article in the newspaper about a a. prison
rapist who was convicted under a "sexual predator b. a mental health facility
law." You know that this person will be c. a community mental health center
a. hospitalized immediately in a psychiatric institution that d. a surgical center
has a sexual offenders unit.
b. sentenced to an indefinite term in a prison that has a 48. The insanity defense is based on a historical case in
separate section for rapists. England involving a man named .
c. hospitalized for treatment and then imprisoned if the a. Durham
treatment is not effective. b. Addington
d. incarcerated for a specific term and then civilly c. M'Naghten
committed if judged still dangerous. d. Tory
43. Which of the following is NOT a question that
addresses the issues of civil (involuntary) 49. Since the 19th century, the method of determining
commitment? responsibility when a person's mental state is in
a. Should a mentally ill person be involuntarily committed question has been based on the M'Naghten rule.
if he or she is not dangerous but in need of treatment? a. American
b. Should a mentally ill person be civilly committed if he b. British
or she has been convicted of a crime? c. Irish
c. Should a mentally ill person be involuntarily committed d. Scottish
at the request of family or relatives who believe it is in
the person's best interest? 50. Which of the following is NOT related to the M'Naghten
d. If a person is mentally ill, unable to care for him/herself, ruling decreed by an English court more than 150 years
and in need of help, should the law allow for involuntary ago?
commitment? a. It concerns a person's mental state at the time a crime
is committed.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
b. It states that individuals are not responsible for criminal a. Mentally ill people must be distinguished from those
behavior if they do not know what they are doing. without mental disorders.
c. It states that individuals are not responsible for their b. The threat of punishment will usually deter a mentally
behavior if they don't know that what they are doing is ill person from committing a crime.
wrong. c. Mentally ill people who commit crimes should be
d. It is based on a case in which paranoid delusions treated for their illness until improved and then
influenced an individual to actually kill the British prime released from confinement.
minister. d. Mentally ill people who cannot control their behavior
must be shielded from legal consequences.
51. In the United States, people convicted of criminal
behavior 57. If an individual accidentally injures another person, he
a. always receive a prison sentence. or she cannot be convicted of a crime because there
b. are always considered responsible for their behavior. was no "criminal intent," a theoretical concept known
c. sometimes are not considered responsible for their legally as
behavior a. mens rea
d. sometimes have been found incompetent to stand trial. b. actus rea
c. sociopathic deviancy
52. In the case of Durham v. United States (1954), the d. GBMI
criteria for responsibility for determining criminal
behavior were broadened to include . 58. Which of the following was NOT a provision of the
a. mental disease American Law Institute recommendations regarding
b. mental defect "diminished capacity"?
c. both of these a. A mentally ill criminal may actually not have criminal
d. neither of these intent.
b. A mental illness could impair the ability to understand
53. Although the Durham ruling in 1954 allowed mental that one's behavior is criminal.
health professionals to present information about an c. Proof of either mens rea or actus rea is sufficient to
accused person's mental state, it became apparent that convict someone of a crime.
a. no mental health professional wanted to participate in d. Mentally ill people who commit crimes may not be
court proceedings. responsible for their behavior.
b. mental health professionals could not reliably assess
whether mental illness caused criminal behavior. 59. In the American legal system, the concept of
c. judges were reluctant to include testimony from mental diminished capacity is used to
health professionals in their decisions. a. keep mentally ill people from being discharged from
d. juries were reluctant to consider testimony from mental mental hospitals.
health professionals. b. assess the responsibility of people with mental illness.
c. evaluate the effects of medical treatments for
54. The decision to include the presence of "a mental schizophrenia.
disease or defect" in determining an accused person's d. determine the intelligence level of an individual
responsibility for a crime was part of a Supreme Court accused of criminal behavior.
ruling known as .
a. O'Connor v. Donaldson 60. The legal concept of mens rea is generally used to
b. Addington v. Texas mean
c. Durham v. United States a. "guilty mind"
d. M'Naghten v. Tory b. criminal intent
c. both of these
55. Criteria for the insanity defense were developed by a d. neither of these
group from the American Law Institute that included all
of the following EXCEPT . 61. In 1979, public opinion turned against the use of the
a. attorneys insanity defense when it was used successfully to
b. judges justify such behaviors as _________________.
c. psychologists a. child abuse
d. law scholars b. stealing cars
c. writing bad checks
56. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to d. vandalism
the American Law Institute (ALI) study of the insanity
defense?

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
62. In the 1970s and 1980s, successful insanity defenses a. "The insanity defense is not used in enough cases. Too
were based on all of the following EXCEPT many mentally ill people are in jail instead of in
a. pathological gambling. hospitals."
b. battered wife syndrome. b. "Too many people escape responsibility for their
c. Kleptomania crimes by pleading insanity."
d. borderline personality disorder. c. "If someone successfully pleads NGRI, he or she will
spend more time in jail than in a mental hospital."
63. What was the public reaction to the 1981 jury verdict d. "There are more mentally ill people in prisons than in
that found John Hinckley, the attempted assassin of mental hospitals."
President Reagan, not guilty by reason of insanity?
a. Acceptance 69. As indicated by surveys of the general population,
b. Outrage what percentage of people perceives that the insanity
c. Disappointment defense is used too often?
d. Disinterest a. 20%
b. 45%
64. What reason did John Hinckley give for his attempted c. 70%
assassination of President Reagan in 1981? d. 90%
a. He had an obsession about becoming president and
thought he could be elected if President Reagan were 70. Following cases such as those of John Hinckley and
dead. Charles Manson, the public often assumed that
b. He was obsessed with actress Jodie Foster and a. all criminals were insane.
wanted to impress her. b. the insane should not be punished for crimes they
c. He was anxious about homelessness and poverty in commit.
the world and thought Reagan wasn't doing enough to c. the insanity plea is a loophole that lets too many guilty
help poor people. people go free.
d. He thought that President Reagan was about to kill him d. most criminals are not insane.
so he acted in self-defense.
71. Major changes in the criteria for the insanity defense
65. What was one outcome of the attempted assassination were made after
of President Reagan in 1981? a. President Ronald Reagan sponsored legislative
a. Stricter gun control laws changes.
b. More Secret Service agents to protect the President of b. the Hinckley verdict in the early 1980s.
the United States c. both of these.
c. Improved screening procedures for the mentally ill d. neither of these.
d. Greater public acceptance of the insanity defense
72. Which of the following is an accurate statement in
66. Following the not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI) regard to public perception of the insanity defense?
verdict for John Hinckley in 1981, of the states in the a. The public underestimates how often the insanity
U.S. substantially changed their insanity defense rules, defense is used in criminal cases.
making it more difficult to use this defense. b. The public overestimates how often the insanity
a. 25% defense is successfully used.
b. 50% c. The public overestimates the length of hospitalization
c. 75% of those who are found not guilty by reason of insanity
d. 100% (NGRI).
d. The public underestimates how often people judged
67. Cases in which the insanity defense has been used NGRI are set free
include those of all the following individuals
EXCEPT______________________. 73. Although surveys have shown that the public
a. Charles Manson estimates that the insanity defense is used in 37% of
b. Jeffrey Dahmer felony cases, the actual figure is about
c. Lee Harvey Oswald a. less than 1%
d. Ted Kaczynski b. 10%
c. 57%
68. A TV reporter is interviewing students about the d. 88%
insanity plea. If these students are similar to about 90%
of the population, they will agree with the following
statement:

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
74. Pat has committed a non-violent crime and been c. both of these
judged NGRI. According to statistical data, it is likely d. neither of these
that Pat will be spending
a. a long time in prison 80. Several years ago, Mark was arrested for participating
b. a shorter time in a mental hospital than he/she would in a crime. Since then he has been confined to a mental
have spent in prison. hospital, even though he was given a prison sentence.
c. a short time in prison. Mark is periodically evaluated to see if he is still
d. a longer time in a mental hospital than he/she would mentally ill. If it is determined that he is no longer
have spent in prison. mentally ill, Mark will then be incarcerated to serve out
his prison sentence. From your knowledge of mental
75. In contrast to public perceptions, the length of time a health and the law, you would correctly state that Mark
person spends confined to a hospital after being was originally found___________.
judged NGRI is the time he/she would have spent a. innocent
in jail. b. GBMI
a. shorter than c. NGRI
b. longer than d. incompetent to stand trial
c. negligible compared to
d. comparable to 81. In comparison to people judged NGRI, research studies
have shown that those who are judged "guilty but
76. The shared premise of the guilty but mentally ill (GBMI) mentally ill"
verdict is that the mentally ill who commit a crime a. are more likely to be imprisoned and to receive longer
should be sentences.
a. treated only. b. receive shorter sentences.
b. punished only. c. get mental health services more frequently than other
c. treated and punished. mentally ill prisoners.
d. not judged responsible for their actions. d. spend more time in mental hospitals and less time in
prisons.
77. When Congress passed the Insanity Defense Reform
Act of 1984, it made successful use of the insanity 82. Before a person can be tried for a crime, a
defense determination of competence must be made. For this
a. more difficult for all individuals. reason, most individuals with obvious and severe
b. easier for any individual. impairments who commit crimes are
c. more difficult for the mentally ill only. _________________.
d. easier for the non-mentally ill. a. found NGRI
b. found GBMI
78. In contrast to the NGRI verdict, the GBMI verdict c. never tried
usually specifies all of the following EXCEPT d. medicated before trial
a. the accused is given a prison sentence just as if there
were no mental illness present. 83. The term "therapeutic jurisprudence" refers to using
b. the accused may be either hospitalized or imprisoned, what we know about behavior change to
as determined by legal authorities. a. punish those who break the law.
c. the accused may be either hospitalized or imprisoned, b. help people in trouble with the law.
as determined by medical authorities. c. protect society from dangerous individuals.
d. if the person recovers from the mental illness before d. provide therapy to incarcerated individuals.
the sentence has passed, he or she can be confined to 84. Problem-solving courts may be more helpful to both
prison for the maximum length of the term. individuals with mental health problems who break the
law and society because they
79. Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating a. are not based on an adversarial system.
in a crime. Since then, she has been confined in a b. are based on an adversarial system
psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to c. provide for treatment and not punishment.
see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that d. put the interests of the accused above the interests of
she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. society
From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you
would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary's 85. According to the Supreme Court, people are assessed
case was . as being competent to stand trial if they can
a. NGRI a. assist in their own defense.
b. b. GBMI b. understand the charges against them.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
c. both of these . 92. Mental health professionals are relatively consistent at

d. neither of these. judging .
a. competence
86. With regard to mental health and the law, which of the b. future risk of violence
following is an accurate statement? c. trial outcomes
a. A person can be found incompetent to stand trial and d. the duty to warn
still be convicted of the crime.
b. A person can be found NGRI but competent to stand 93. One way to predict whether someone is malingering is
trial. their tendency to symptoms.
c. More individuals are found NGRI than are found a. exaggerate
incompetent to stand trial. b. under-report
d. A person found incompetent to stand trial is placed in c. ignore
a mental hospital for an indefinite period of time. d. simplify
87. Margaret has been schizophrenic for many years and 94. During civil commitment proceedings, juries rely on
has been hospitalized several times. She has paranoid mental health professionals as expert witnesses to
delusions and hallucinations. Her speech is rambling assess a person's potential for future violence.
and incoherent. Most recently, Margaret got a hold of a Research suggests that mental health professionals
gun and shot several people, believing that they were can make reliable predictions about dangerousness
her enemies. Following her arrest, what is the most over the .
likely scenario for Margaret? a. short term (2 to 20 days)
a. If convicted, she will go to prison. b. long term (>20 days)
b. Following a trial, she will be hospitalized again. c. both of these
c. Her case will never go to trial. d. neither of these
d. She will be found competent to stand trial.
95. Dangerousness is a controversial concept to describe
88. Since Roberto has been found incompetent to stand people with mental illness. Research reveals that the
trial, he will be committed to a mental health facility. following characteristics increase the likelihood of
After a reasonable period of time, the law requires any violence:
one of the following outcomes EXCEPT a. high anger predisposition
a. he must be found competent. b. recent victimization
b. he must be set free. c. substance use .
c. he must be medicated. d. all of these
d. he must be committed under civil law.
96. Which of the following psychological tests has been
89. Data indicate that the crimes committed by mentally ill used to accurately identify malingering in people
people are most likely to be . claiming to have posttraumatic stress disorder?
a. violent a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
b. nonviolent b. Wechsler Adult Scale of Intelligence (WAIS)
c. rapes and murders c. Rorschach Malingering Detection Test (RMDT)
d. assaults d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
90. The 1970s case Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of 97. Release from prison has shown to limit rehabilitation
California, in which a student killed his ex-girlfriend, when:
involved the issue called . a. legal restrictions prohibit access to housing, jobs, and
a. patients' rights other aspects of reintegration.
b. duty to warn b. inmates learn skills in prison that they cannot apply in
c. competency life outside of prison.
d. restrictive environment c. inmates get a high school diploma while incarcerated.
d. all of these are true.
91. According to the ruling in the 1970s Tarasoff case, a
therapist is required to 98. The case of Daniel M’Naghten is known for:
a. advise a patient of his or her rights. a. greater funding of mental institutions.
b. have each patient sign a consent form. b. revising DSM criteria for schizophrenia.
c. warn a patient's potential victim(s) c. the Rorschach Malingering Detection Test (RMDT)
d. file a police report if threatened by a patient. d. establishing the insanity defense.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
99. Information about mental institutions indicates that up 106. When conducting research on people with
until the 1980s, patients had psychological disorders, the American Psychological
a. civil rights. Association has stipulated all of the following rights
b. personal rights. EXCEPT
c. legal rights. a. the right to privacy.
d. virtually no rights. b. the right to anonymity
c. the right to be protected from harm.
100. Wyatt v. Stickney (1972), a class action lawsuit d. the right to be informed about the outcome of the study.
filed on behalf of mental patients, addressed all of the
following EXCEPT 107. Which of the following is not part of the research
a. adequate shower and toilet facilities. participant’s rights as described in your text?
b. treatment goals. a. The right to be informed about the purpose of the
c. staff-patient ratios. research study
d. methods of administering medication. b. The right to refuse treatmen
c. The right to protection from harm
101. As specified by Wyatt v. Stickney (1972), the least d. The right to review manuscripts based on data they
restrictive conditions for mentally retarded individuals provide
included all of the following EXCEPT
a. more structured living. 108. APA adopted a policy to base principles of
b. smaller facilities. psychological practice on
c. integration into the community a. clinical assumptions.
d. independent living. b. evidence-based practice.
c. historical assumptions.
102. In 1986, Congress passed the Protection and d. individual therapist’s experience.
Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act to provide
agencies in each state that would 109. Evidence-based practices were formally identified
a. act as legal advocates for the mentally ill. as a systematic method of delivering clinical care:
b. investigate allegations of abuse and neglect. a. around 1953.
c. both of these. b. around 1981.
d. neither of these. c. around 2001
d. around 2016.
103. The right to refuse treatment is particularly
problematic in terms of the mentally ill who face 110. The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
criminal charges because in theory they could be (AHRQ) was established to:
forced to take medication, which a. provide uniform guidelines in mental health care
a. then makes them competent to stand trial. delivery.
b. prevents their getting out of jail. b. publish latest developments in treating disorders
c. they don’t want to pay for. effectively
d. is not known to be effective. c. improve health care delivery
d. All of the answers are correct
104. The question of whether a person can be "forced"
to become competent to stand trial involves the issue 111. Research Based evidence in the form of
of___________________. recommendations on how to treat a particular
a. medication psychological disorder is called:
b. research participants' rights a. treatment requirements
c. a patient's right to treatment b. clinical standard treatments
d. legal representation c. clinical practice guidelines
d. standard treatment guidelines
105. In Riggins v. Nevada (1992), the Supreme Court
ruled that a person cannot be forced to take 112. Clinical efficacy refers to the
antipsychotic medication because a. use of scientific evidence to detect treatment effects.
a. iit would be unconstitutional. b. assessment of the costs and benefits of a treatment.
b. it would not be in the patient's best interests c. patient’s opinion of the treatment.
c. there is a potential for negative side effects. d. the effectiveness of the intervention in the practice
d. it would interfere with the patient's competency to setting in which it is to be applied.
stand trial.

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
113. The clinical efficacy axis of the clinical practice 119. Whether a particular intervention is effective with
guidelines established by the American Psychological different patients, in different settings, or with different
Association in 1995 was designed to answer the therapists is referred to as __________________.
question: a. generalizability
a. "What kind of research should be done to determine b. feasibility
the type of clinician best suited for particular patients in c. external reliability
terms of their diagnosis and chronicity?" d. clinical replication
b. "Is the treatment effective compared to an alternative
treatment or to no treatment in a controlled clinical 120. The systematic collection of data on patient
research setting?" outcomes is called a(n)
c. "How long should a treatment be continued if there is a. outcome observation.
no improvement in the patient's condition or if the b. clinical replication series.
patient has serious side effects?" c. clinical consensus of leading experts.
d. "What is the most efficient way of admitting patients to d. expert-based hypothesis.
clinics or hospitals?"
121. Functional imaging technology suggests that
114. The clinical efficacy axis represents _______ empathy involves activity in the .
validity while clinical utility measures ___________ a. prefrontal cortex
validity. b. hypothalamus
a. internal validity; external validity c. ventricles
b. external validity; internal validity d. hippocampus
c. overall effectiveness; effectiveness for the individual
d. None of these answers are correct 122. Which of the following is a FALSE statement in
regard to prediction of dangerousness?
115. Although the clinical efficacy axis is concerned with a. Mental health professionals can predict with certainty
research settings, the clinical utility axis is concerned with if a particular person will become violent.
a. effectiveness of the intervention in clinical practice. b. Generally speaking, people with a previous history of
b. feasibility and cost-effectiveness. violence are more likely to be dangerous than
c. both of these. individuals without a past history of violence.
d. neither of these c. Generally speaking, substance abusers are more likely
to be violent than those individuals without a history of
116. Which of the following is NOT part of the Agency drug or alcohol dependence
for Healthcare Research and Quality’s purpose? d. Research suggests that mental health professionals
a. To regulate the costs of mental health research are better at determining relative risk than determining
b. To establish uniformity in the delivery of effective dangerousness on a case-by-case basis.
health and mental health care
c. To communicate the latest developments in mental 123. According to the Addington v. Texas (1979),
health treatment to practitioners, patients, and policy which of the following is sufficient cause to commit a
makers mentally ill person to the hospital involuntarily?
d. To improve the delivery of health and mental health a. Needing treatment
services b. Grave disability
c. Danger to self and others
117. Clinical utility refers to the d. Neither of these
a. use of scientific evidence to detect treatment effects.
b. assessment of the costs and benefits of a treatment.
c. patient’s opinion of the treatment.
d. effectiveness of the intervention in the practice setting 124. The states of Idaho and Utah, as well as Montana,
in which it is to be applied. have adopted a version of the GBMI verdict in which
the accused
118. The first major consideration on the clinical utility a. remains permanently in a psychiatric facility.
axis is feasibility, which asks all of the following b. is imprisoned but is assured of receiving mental health
questions EXCEPT: services.
a. Will patients accept the intervention? c. is imprisoned but is provided with mental health
b. Will patients comply with the requirements? services only if they are available.
c. Has research shown the treatment to be effective? d. can choose either hospitalization or imprisonment.
d. Is the treatment relatively easy to administer?

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
125. Research data suggest that mental health 61-70. BABBA DDDCA
professionals appear to have expertise in all of the 71-80. BDAAA DBBAB
following areas EXCEPT 81-90. ACBCC AAAAD
a. identifying malingering. 91-100. AABBC AADDA
b. assessing competence to stand trial. 101-110. ACDBA CBDCA
c. predicting long-term risk of violence. 111-119. AAAAD CACA
d. making reliable diagnoses according to DSM-5 criteria.
CHAPTER 4
1-10. DCCDA DCCBA
11-20. BBACB ABCBA
21-30. CCBAA ADADC
ANSWER KEY 31-40. CBABB AADBD
CHAPTER 1 41-50. DACBD CCAAA
1-10. BDADA DBDCC 51-60. DDDAC CBDBB
11-20. BDAAD DAABA 61-70. ABDBD CACCD
21-30. ABDBD BCCBD 71-80. DCCBD CBAAB
31-40. ABADD ACBAA 81-90. CCCCA DDADC
41-50. CADAB CBDDC 91-100. CDDDC CBBCD
51-60. ABDAA BBDDA 101-110. ACBAD AABAC
61-70. DABBA ACBAC 111-120. ADBAB BDCCC
71-80. BACAB ACBAB 121-128. ADCAB CAA
81-90. ABCAD ABBCC
91-100. ABBDC ACDBC CHAPTER 6
101-110. DBBCA ADCCD 1-10. ACCBD AABDD
111-120. AACDC DADCD 11-20. ACDAB ACABA
121-130. ADCAB DBADC 21-30. CCACB AAACC
131-140. ABCAA DBDCD 31-40. DCCAA CACAD
141-150. DCCDA BCBDA 41-50. CDBAA ACCCC
151-160. ABCAA CBCAC 51-60. BCDAD AABAA
161-170. CABBC DCABD 61-70. ACBAC AABCA
171-180. DADBA AADCB 71-80. ACDDB BACAC
181-190. BCBBD CADAC 81-90. BBCDA ACDAC
191-200. DAAAA ACDAD 91-100. ADBCA ADDAC
201-210. BADDD BCCDC 101-106. BCBAB CC
CHAPTER 2 CHAPTER 7
1-10. DBDCD BDAAA 1-10. DCADA CDBAD
11-20. BABBB ADCAD 11-20. CCBCC CABAA
21-30. CDABB CBABD 21-30. DCBDB ACDAA
31-40. DDCAD CCBAC 31-40. DAAAC CCAAA
41-50. CADCB CACDA 41-50. CDCCD ABADB
51-60. DDCAD AADCC 51-60. BADAD BBCCC
61-70. CAACA ADBCD 61-70. AACBD BCDCC
71-80. ABBAA CACDB 71-80. ABDDA DADCC
81-90. BDDBB BBCAA 81-90. ABBBA BCACC
91-100. ADDCB BDABD 91-100. BADDA ABCBC
101-110. DABCA ADBDA 101-110. BCBDB DDCBC
111-120. CDDDD ACAAA 111-120. BCDAA DCCAA
121-127. ACCAA CD 121-123. BBA
CHAPTER 3 CHAPTER 8
1-10. ABACB BADAC 1-10. CAACC DBDCD
11-20. BAADC DDBAC 11-20. BACAA ACCCA
21-30. BCADD AACAA 21-30. DCBCC CBBCD
31-40. BABBD CDCDB 31-40. CAACB CBADD
41-50. DDCDC CCDAC 41-50. BABAA ACBDC
51-60. CDAAB DCBDA 51-60. BDDBA BBDCA

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
61-70. ADAAD BDCDB 51-60. DADBC BBBAB

71-80. CBDBA DACBB 61-70. ACDAA BCABD
81-90. DBABB DABBA 71-80. ADACB CDCAB
91-100. DDBAD CAABC 81-90. DDADB AACAD
101-110. ABADD BCCCA 91-100. DCCCB BBDAC
111-121. ACDDC ACAAAC 101-110. AACCC AADDB
111-120. CACAC ADADB
CHAPTER 9 121-127. CDDCD DD
1-10. BBABA CCCDA
11-20. DCBDA DCABD CHAPTER 13
21-30. CDDAC ACDAA 1-10. DDBBB CDADC
31-40. DCBAA BBABB 11-20. BCCAA DBCCA
41-50. DBCAC ADBAA 21-30. CBCAD BBBCA
51-60. DCDBB DCCDB 31-40. DBCDD DBCCD
61-70. BDDDD CCDBA 41-50. CCDDB ABBAD
71-80. BADCA BDAAC 51-60. CCABA AADDA
81-90. ADABC CCABA 61-70. BDCAB DBBBD
91-100. BCDCC CABBB 71-80. CCDBA BCBAB
101-110. CADAA DCCAC 81-90. DDBCC DCAAC
111-120. DBDDA BCACD 91-100. ACBDC DDAAC
121-124. BCAD 101-110. DACBA ABDBC
111-121. ACACC DCDBCD
CHAPTER 10
1-10. CACCA ADDBC CHAPTER 14
11-20. ACABC ADBAB 1-10. CADBA BCAAC
21-30. CACDD BADCD 11-20. BDDDC ACDDC
31-40. DDCDA DCCCC 21-30. CCCAD BDCBA
41-50. ABCAB AACDA 31-40. CDADC BCCAC
51-60. ABACB BBDAB 41-50. DCCAD ABDAD
61-70. ADDCC ACADC 51-60. DBACD AABCD
71-80. BDACA CCBDB 61-70. CDADD ABBCC
81-90. ACCAB DCBCC 71-80. BBDDD ABBCC
91-100. DAAAB BCCCD 81-90. ADBAC BACCA
101-110. BACDD AABDB 91-100. BDBAD ACBDB
111-122. CBAAB DCDCBAD 101-110. ADAAD ACBCA
111-117. ACABA CA
CHAPTER 11
1-10. ADBDC BCACA CHAPTER 15
11-20. DDBBA CABBC 1-10. CADBC DDDDA
21-30. ACCCA AACBB 11-20. BADCD DBBBD
31-40. DBDAC ADBDC 21-30. ADBCC BABDB
41-50. BBAAB DCABD 31-40. ACCAD ADDCC
51-60. ACCDC CBDCA 41-50. CCDAD BCBAC
61-70. CDDAD DBDBB 51-60. BCCDA BCBAB
71-80. CAAAD DBDAB 61-70. CCBDB BDCAC
81-90. BAAAC CBBBD 71-80. DABBB CAACA
91-100. DCCAC BDAAD 81-90. DBCDA CABAC
101-110. AAACB BCCDB 91-100. AAAAA DCDDB
111-120. BAAAD ADCBA 101-110. ACCBC AAADA
121-123. DAB 111-121. CBDBA ACDDCB
CHAPTER 12 CHAPTER 16
1-10. ADDCA ACCAD 1-10. BBBDC CDBBC
11-20. DCBAA CDDCC 11-20. CDBAA ACACC
21-30. AAADC DABDB 21-30. BCCBC ABCBD
31-40. ACCAD CADAD 31-40. ADDDA BCCCC
41-50. DBAAC CDACC 41-50. ADBCB CBCBD

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
51-60. CCBCC BACBA

61-70. CDBBA CCBDC
71-80. BBADB CACAB
81-90. ACBAC BCCBB
91-100. CAAAA AADDD
101-110. ACAAC DDBBD
111-120. CABAC ADCAB
121-125. AACCC

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ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

13. The scientific study of psychological disorders is called d. ratio

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

a. They were considered to be suffering from religious b. stimulus generalization.

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

c. therapy. d. The common cold.

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

d. mental illness due to brain pathology was incurable. b. Anton Mesmer

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

d. pleasure and pain.

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

86. Severe internal conflicts that produce a lot of anxiety or

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

a. reflecting society’s inherent bias. d. It is better as a prognostic tool

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

b. gender-specific learned behavior patterns. b. paranoid personality disorder.

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

a. Schizotypal 151. Which of the following prevention strategies looks

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

b. a developmental delay for major milestones (i.e.,

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

b. there are well-controlled studies, though none show d. borderline

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

206. Henry is viewed by many as a workaholic and not very

207. One of the major differences between individuals with

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

a. 10-20% 21.According to the diathesis-stress model, monozygotic

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

5. In the first interview with Frank, a patient described in

6. A measurement which is consistent is considered to be

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

8. Clifton had been experiencing a number of c. Standardization

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

34. Behavioral assessments are used to formally assess an b. projective test

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

c. humanistic b. draw a picture based on a story that is read aloud by

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

b. exhaustion 97. One important advantage of using a classification and

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

@z_rpmcutieee @bona_rpm2023 @Frissonace @sikeolohija @bloomypurple @akosigengarrr

7. Of the following, which hypothesis would NOT be d. the environment is manipulated.