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Psychological Testing and Assessment

Chapter 01  Psychological Testing and Assessment 11. Detailed information regarding how a particular test was
developed can typically be found in
1. The use of evaluative tools to draw conclusions about A. a review of the test published in a journal.
psychological aspects of a person as those aspects existed at some B. the current test catalogue distributed by the test's publisher.
point in time in the past is called C. the Standards for Educational and Psychological Tests.
A. retroactive assessment. D. the test manual.
B. remote assessment.
C. reactive assessment. 12. Depending on factors such as intrinsic motivation and external
D. retrospective assessment. incentives, the score feedback provided in computerized adaptive
testing could
2. The use of evaluative tools to draw conclusions about a subject who A. positively affect testtaker performance.
is not in physical proximity to the person or people conducting the B. seriously bias the test user's findings.
evaluation is called C. be faulted on ethical grounds.
A. separation evaluation. D. None of these
B. apathetic assessment.
C. remote assessment. 13. According to your textbook, the demand for psychologists with
D. distal evaluation. expertise in psychological testing and assessment
A. has remained stable for many years.
3. The word "ecological" in the term ecological momentary B. increases in poor economic times.
assessment is a reference to C. far outweighs the supply.
A. "in the moment" evaluation. D. All of these
B. cognitive variables observed.
C. behavioral variables observed. 14. Which phrase is best associated with anti-testing public
D. where the evaluation takes place. sentiment?
A. "Opt in"
4. Which is not a variant of the term assessment discussed in the B. "Opt out"
textbook? C. "Don't opt"
A. remote assessment D. "Stop opt"
B. retroactive assessment
C. ecological momentary assessment 15. The Mental Measurements Yearbook is currently updated about
D. retrospective assessment every
A. two years.
5. As presented in the textbook, smartphones may be re-tooled for B. three years.
purposes of C. four years.
A. remote assessment. D. five years.
B. ecological momentary assessment.
C. both remote assessment & ecological momentary assessment. 16. A list of unpublished tests is published as a resource to the
D. None of these assessment community. This list is available from
A. The Buros Institute.
6. According to the text, what makes a smartphone "smart"? B. Educational Testing Service.
A. It is smart because of its flexibility and adaptability. C. The University of Nebraska Press.
B. It is smart because of its inference-making capacity. D. The instructor of this course.
C. It is smart because it can detect changes in mood.
D. It is smart because it has a computational capacity. 17. It has as its objective a targeted change in the interviewee's
thinking and behavior, and it is called
7. Smartphones that are re-purposed as tools of assessment contain A. portfolio assessment.
safeguards to protect B. guided imagery.
A. the identity of the subject of the assessment. C. motivational interviewing.
B. the security of the voice data derived. D. behavior quantification.
C. the privacy of the subject of the assessment.
D. the exact location from which data is being sent. 18. Your textbook lists several means by which motivational
interviewing is conducted. Which is not one of those ways?
8. According to the Close-Up in Chapter 1 of the textbook, the use of A. telephone
smartphones as a tool of assessment has been generally well received B. internet chat
by C. text-messaging
A. mental health professionals. D. Facebook
B. psychiatric patients.
C. Linked-In users who responded to a survey. 19. A committee makes a decision that is not as sound as the decision
D. All of these that would have been made had the head of that committee acted
alone. This situation could BEST be characterized as one influenced
9. The value of the smartphone as a tool of assessment is that it may by
yield A. "groupspeak."
A. meaningful diagnostic insights. B. "central processing error."
B. highly personalized treatment protocols. C. "groupthink."
C. highly effective treatment protocols. D. "payback."
D. All of these.
20. The term psychometric soundness refers to the
10. According to your textbook, when interviewing an eyewitness to a A. the general psychiatric health of an assessee.
serious crime, a police psychologist might ask the interviewer to B. mental status of an individual during assessment.
respond to a question C. technical quality of a test or other tool of assessment.
A. with eyes closed. D. competence of a defendant to stand trial.
B. while looking at actual evidence in the case.
C. by dictating responses into a smartphone.
D. as if lying.
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21. What tool of assessment is MOST useful in learning about the B. the difference is clear and needs to be acknowledged.
reaction of simulated juries to various presentations of evidence? C. some ambiguity with regard to the difference persists.
A. true/false tests D. "psychological testing" subsumes "psychological assessment."
B. stress interview
C. portfolio evaluation 33. A key difference between psychological testing and psychological
D. behavioral observation assessment has to do with
A. the number of hours it takes to proctor a test session.
22. A group-on-one interview during which the interviewee is B. the role of the test user in interpreting the results.
purposely made uncomfortable is called a C. whether or not the evaluation includes an oral test.
A. naturalistic interview. D. the utility of the test in a cost versus benefit analysis.
B. role-play interview.
C. stress interview. 34. Testing is to assessment as _____________ is to
D. panel interview. ________________.
A. blood test; physical exam
23. A case history is also referred to as B. blood test; X-ray
A. a case study. C. mechanic; automobile
B. a role-play record. D. selection; placement
C. a biographical account.
D. None of these 35. As used with reference to psychological tests, the term format
refers to
24. Historically, the biggest boost to the new assessment enterprise A. the arrangement of test items.
in the United States arose from the need to identify B. whether a test can be administered by computer.
A. school children who were underachieving in Paris, Texas. C. the procedures used to obtain data.
B. competent recruits for the military during World War I. D. All of these
C. entrepreneurial talent for the Industrial Revolution.
D. apprentice workers in the building and construction industry. 36. A test is described as "paper-and-pencil." To a psychometrician,
this is a reference to
25. As used in your text, psychological assessment may include the A. the tools needed for the evaluation.
use of B. a blueprint for the assessment procedure.
A. behavioral observation. C. the format of the test.
B. testing. D. the test's item content.
C. the case study.
D. All of these 37. Applying research on cut scores to how Olympic athletes may feel
about their accomplishments at the conclusion of an Olympic event,
26. Psychological tests share commonalities. For example, they all it may be assumed that
A. include an analysis of a naturally occurring behavior. A. silver medalists are happier than gold medalists.
B. include an analysis of a sample of behavior. B. bronze medalists are happier than silver medalists.
C. include paper-and-pencil and oral responses. C. bronze medalists are happier than gold medalists.
D. All of these D. fifth-place finishers are the happiest of all.
27. Psychological tests may differ with respect to 38. Dynamic assessment
A. content. A. is used to describe the unconscious mechanisms that affect consumer
B. format. spending.
C. administration. B. can provide information about an assessee's ability to profit from
D. All of these intervention.
C. requires the presence of a third-party witness during the evaluation.
28. A psychological test almost always involves an analysis of D. can be used as an alternative to dream analysis with patients who report
A. attitude and values. no dreams.
B. motivation and interests.
C. a sample of behavior. 39. The term psychometrics
D. All of these A. was derived from the Latin for "to confuse and befuddle."
B. is used to refer collectively to test catalogues, manuals, and reports.
29. Psychological testing C. may be defined as the science of psychological measurement.
A. is typically more lengthy than assessment. D. All of these
B. may be one component of the process of assessment.
C. is characteristically broader in scope than assessment. 40. Psychometrics may BEST be defined as
D. tends to be less accurate than assessment. A. the science of test development.
B. the science of psychological measurement.
30. As used by your textbook authors, the term psychological C. the study and use of correlational techniques.
assessment applies to D. the study of psychic phenomena.
A. clinical settings only.
B. self-administered tests only. 41. The United States Office of Strategic Services (OSS) used an
C. employment, clinical, and educational settings only. approach to personnel evaluation that today would be characterized
D. the use of tests and other tools of evaluation. as
A. psychological testing.
31. As used in your text, test can refer to: B. a collaborative psychological endeavor.
A. a paper-and-pencil examination. C. dynamic psychological assessment.
B. a task. D. an assessment center.
C. an interview with a client.
D. All of these 42. According to the American Psychological Association (APA) as
cited in your textbook, about how many tests are developed each
32. When it comes to the difference between the terms psychological year?
testing and psychological assessment, A. 1,000
A. ultimately, there is no difference between them. B. 15,000
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C. 20,000 53. An advantage of using a panel interview format is that
D. 95,000 A. the effects of the biases of individual interviewers are minimized.
B. panel interviews generally take less time to complete.
43. What name is BEST associated with therapeutic assessment? C. panel interviews tend to reduce the possibility of repetition of questions.
A. Alfred Binet D. the interviewer is encouraged to evaluate the interviewee holistically.
B. Thomas Wrobel
C. Victoria Husted Medvec 54. Two tests purporting to measure personality may
D. Stephen Finn A. contain entirely different kinds of items.
B. differ in terms of demands on the test-taker.
44. Which is an example of biofeedback instrumentation that can be C. be based on entirely different definitions of "personality."
used as a tool of psychological assessment? D. All of these
A. the neurodevelopment training ball
B. the adjustable light beam apparatus 55. A psychological interview requires:
C. the tilting room/tilting chair device A. a face-to-face talk.
D. the penile plethysmograph B. direct, reciprocal communication.
C. the assessment of nonverbal behavior.
45. Examples of a wide array of tools of assessment are presented in D. meaningful eye contact.
your text. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in Chapter 1 of
your textbook as a potential tool of psychological assessment? 56. As a tool of assessment, the interview has been characterized as
A. a computer "a reciprocal affair." This term makes reference to the fact that
B. a DVD A. there is reciprocity between all 50 states in terms of allowing interview-
C. a two-way radio related testimony into evidence.
D. a cell phone B. the interviewee reacts to the interviewer, and the interviewer reacts to
the interviewee.
46. An individual being evaluated for employment as a police officer is C. if Interviewer A is invited to view Interviewer B's interview, then
asked to put himself in the place of an arresting officer who has just Interviewer A is socially obliged to invite Interviewer B to observe Interview
been threatened by a suspect. This sort of evaluation is BEST A's interview.
described as D. "what is good for the goose, is good for the gander."
A. behavioral observation.
B. portfolio analysis. 57. In which setting is behavioral observation as a tool of
C. case history. psychological assessment LEAST likely to be employed regularly and
D. role play. systematically?
A. school and related educational settings
47. A psychologist plans to study the mating behavior of mosquitoes B. hospital and clinic settings
that carry the zika virus in Miami. Which tool of assessment is this C. private practice settings
researcher MOST likely to employ? D. institutional and organizational settings
A. naturalistic observation
B. alternate assessment 58. Which of the following is TRUE of behavioral observation as a tool
C. portfolio measurement of assessment?
D. a University of Miami student as a research assistant A. it is accomplished through live or video observation
B. it is typically time-intensive
48. Role play may be preferable to naturalistic observation as a tool of C. it can yield qualitative as well as quantitative data
measurement in situations in which D. All of these
A. the assessor may only conduct evaluations on campus.
B. judges are readily available to score role play responses. 59. Observation of behavior in the setting in which the behavior
C. the costs of naturalistic observation would be prohibitive. typically occurs is referred to as
D. assessees have taken advanced coursework in acting or drama. A. functional viewing.
B. naturalistic observation.
49. A researcher is using a series of psychological tests to explore C. temporal sighting.
levels of perceived stress and loneliness in a retirement home for D. peeping tomism.
airline professionals. This research could best be described as a
A. behavioral observation study. 60. Which of the following is an example of role play used to assess
B. case study. the social skills of an elementary school student?
C. quality of life study. A. observing a student on the playground interacting with peers
D. senior pilot study. B. observing a student, in response to the group therapist's request, asking
another group member to join a simulated game
50. A panel interview is an interview in which C. observing a student in the classroom, in response to a teacher's
A. more than one interviewee is interviewed by a single interviewer. question, responding to the question in a joking manner
B. a video camera and microphone have been placed in a wall panel. D. observing a student in the playground hustling other students out of their
C. an interpreter assists in the interview process. lunch money by hosting a 3-card-monte game
D. more than one interviewer interviews the interviewee.
61. A case study may include
51. A panel interview is a tool of assessment that is MOST likely to be A. data from past psychological evaluations.
employed by B. family photographs and memorabilia.
A. clinical psychologists. C. records of videotape rentals.
B. educators. D. All of these
C. human resource professionals.
D. entry-level neuropsychologists. 62. A psychologist is preparing a journal article which reviews the
high school progress of a student first referred for evaluation in
52. Panel interviews are used sparingly due to issues of middle school. This article could BEST be characterized as a
A. reliability. A. portfolio evaluation.
B. validity. B. case study.
C. psychometric soundness. C. behavioral observation study.
D. utility. D. psychometric review.
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63. Groupthink is best defined as the tendency to 73. Based on the discussion in your textbook, which Who? question
A. favor members of one's own group over that of members of another with regard to the assessment enterprise is LEAST controversial?
group. A. Who is a test user?
B. let others make decisions for the dominant person when in groups. B. Who is a testtaker?
C. think of groups as possessing a personality, much like that of an C. Who should be allowed in the room during an assessment?
individual. D. Who should be on a gluten-free diet in a taste-test study?
D. make poor decisions when in collective decision-making situations.
74. Testtakers differ in their approach to an assessment situation with
64. Biofeedback equipment has been used in psychological regard to the extent that they
measurement to assess A. have received prior coaching.
A. changes in blood level flowing to the brain. B. view themselves as competent or incompetent.
B. changes in muscular tension. C. experience stress and discomfort.
C. changes in pancreatic secretions. D. All of these
D. All of these
75. Of the following parties to the assessment enterprise, which group
65. The Adjustable Light Beam Apparatus (ALBA) would be LEAST likely to have read the Standards?
A. is used to adjust illumination levels in light research. A. test developers
B. was originally created by Jessica Alba and marketed as an Honest brand B. test users
make-up light. C. testtakers
C. is used to measure body-image distortion. D. test publishers
D. is used to transform "night owls" into "morning people."
76. In the context of psychological testing and assessment, social
66. If there is common ground among of all of the varied approaches facilitation refers to the presence of a third party and its effect
to psychological testing and assessment, that common ground MOST A. as a social influence process.
has to do with the assessor's B. in facilitating an assessee's responses.
A. use of a widely accepted intelligence test to measure intelligence. C. in inhibiting an assessee's responses.
B. reliance on widely accepted psychoanalytically-based principles. D. All of these
C. strict adherence to ethical guidelines.
D. All of these 77. Video cameras and one-way mirrors in a room where assessment
is taking place will typically prompt assessees to
67. Which online data base is operated by the American Psychological A. be more concerned about their appearance than the task at hand.
Association? B. wonder about who might have responsibility for the evaluation.
A. ERIC C. respond as if there is a third party present for the evaluation.
B. PsycINFO D. believe that they are part of a reality shown rather than an evaluation.
C. Mentalmeasurementsyearbook.com
D. None of these 78. When a third-party observer is present while a psychological
assessment is being conducted, it is good practice to:
68. An interpretive report of psychological testing contains A. acquaint the observer with all of the test administration materials.
information relevant not only to the testtaker's test scores, but B. include in the assessment report mention of the third party observer.
recommendations for changes in the dosage of the medication that C. ask the assessee to respond as if the observer is not really there.
the testtaker is currently prescribed. This interpretive report is more D. arrange a catered, vegetarian luncheon for the observer.
specifically referred to as:
A. a medication report. 79. A psychological autopsy typically includes which of the
B. a descriptive report. following?
C. an integrative report. A. a postmortem interview with the assessee.
D. an extended scoring report. B. a review of archival records.
C. an interview with the coroner.
69. As compared to one-on-one and face-to-face assessments, a D. All of these
disadvantage of CAPA is that it typically deprives the assessor of the
opportunity to 80. By federal law, which of the following types of tests may NOT be
A. make certain that test forms are kept secure. used in schools?
B. observe the testtaker's test-taking behavior. A. tests of intelligence
C. conduct a post-test interview with the testtaker. B. tests of achievement
D. tailor the test's content to the responses. C. minimal competency examinations
D. All of these may be used in schools.
70. Using CAPA, test users have the capability of
A. creating virtual reality useful in role-play evaluations. 81. A student taking a course entitled "Ancient History" is
B. making quick and efficient score comparisons. administered a history test. Years later, data from this test is reviewed
C. tailoring a test administration to testtaker's responses. by assessment professionals who are preparing a case study on the
D. All of these testtaker. In that case study, the "Ancient History" test would be BEST
referred to as
71. In everyday practice, responsibility for appropriate test A. "a school ability test."
administration, scoring, and interpretation lies with: B. "a school aptitude test."
A. test users. C. "a school achievement test."
B. test developers. D. "ancient history."
C. elected representatives.
D. test publishers. 82. As distinguished from other settings, psychological tests are used
in counseling settings to
72. As described in your textbook, all of the following are parties to A. obtain an estimate of occupational aptitude.
the assessment enterprise EXCEPT B. assess work productivity.
A. society at large. C. assist assessees with life choices.
B. the test developer. D. assist assessors with differential diagnosis.
C. the test user.
D. consumer advocates.
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83. In personnel assessment, psychological tests are used primarily 93. Generally speaking, which of the following would serve as the
for the benefit of the BEST source of information about trends in psychological testing and
A. employee. assessment?
B. employer. A. test critiques
C. examiner. B. journal articles
D. consumer. C. test manuals
D. professional books
84. Engineering psychologists use psychological tests as an aid in the
process of 94. A researcher wishes to consult a reference work that provides
A. designing products that can be used with optimal safety and efficiency. descriptions of tests, and not reviews of tests. Which reference source
B. predicting public receptivity to new products and services. BEST suits this purpose?
C. selecting the most qualified employees for positions. A. The (current) Mental Measurements Yearbook
D. All of these B. A current issue of Psychology Today
C. A current blog on psychological tests
85. Which type of psychologist designs effective and efficient D. Tests in Print
products and environments for the home and workplace?
A. an engineering psychologist 95. Which of the following contains the most detailed and authoritative
B. a consumer psychologist information on responsible test use and test development?
C. a computer psychologist A. the American Psychological Association's Ethical Standards
D. a clinical psychologist B. the National Association of School Psychologists' Ethical Standards
C. Ethical Standards for Social Work
86. The ABAP Diplomate is conferred to recognize D. Standards for Psychological and Educational Tests
A. expertise in the field of psychological testing and assessment.
B. the development of tests that further the cause of world peace. 96. A psychologist writing a journal article is looking for a critical
C. nongovernmental, naturalistic observation that is eco-friendly. review of an intelligence test that was published 4 years ago. Which
D. singular psychometric contributions to psychological science. of the following sources would be BEST to consult?
A. The Mental Measurements Yearbook
87. The ABAP Diplomate B. Tests in Print
A. exemplifies the extent to which the government regulates testing. C. Psychological Assessment
B. is a symbol of recognition of accomplishment by a private organization. D. Men's Health
C. entitles a psychologist to be able to administer any psychological test in
any state. 97. A psychologist seeks to measure color blindness in a sample of
D. travels to other countries around the world as a representative of the university students. Which source of information about psychological
testing industry. tests would be the best place to start in search of a test to use for this
population?
88. Which of the following is the best way to establish rapport with a A. Psychological Review
testtaker? B. Psychological Assessment
A. a few words of "small talk" on meeting C. Tests in Print
B. presenting the testtaker with a business card D. Opthalmica
C. hugging the testtaker on arrival to the facility
D. having a DVD of Jerry Springer Uncensored playing in the waiting area 98. A psychologist employed as an assessor in a large corporation
as a pre-meeting "ice-breaker" has been charged with the task of identifying employees who have
"executive potential." What publications would you recommend to this
89. A test is set into large type for a visually impaired testtaker. This is psychologist for assistance in researching how to conduct such an
an example of assessment?
A. a physical environment modification. A. publications dealing with general approaches to leadership
B. an interpersonal environment modification. measurement
C. a compromise. B. publications dealing with psychological studies of corporate leaders
D. an accommodation. C. publications that deal with cultural issues in leadership
D. All of these
90. If an accommodation is made for the purpose of administering a
test, then 99. The current edition of the Mental Measurements Yearbook
A. the meaning of the test scores may not be clear. contains:
B. a notation should be made on the test report. A. sample personality tests.
C. a need for alternate assessment clearly existed. B. sample mental ability tests.
D. All of these C. reviews of psychological tests.
D. All of these
91. As used in the vocabulary of assessment professionals, protocol
typically refers to 100. Which typically provides the most objective evaluation of a test?
A. the extent to which rapport has been established. A. a published review of the test in a journal
B. test forms. B. the publisher's test catalogue
C. how an assessor greets an assessee. C. the Standards for Educational and Psychological Tests
D. test fees. D. a manual of use for the test itself
92. In the language of psychological testing and assessment, scoring 101. A review of a new personality test is published in a journal. In that
refers to assigning evaluative numbers, codes or statements to review, it would be reasonable to expect to find information about
performance on A. the intelligence range of prospective test-takers.
A. tests. B. the psychometric soundness of the test.
B. tasks. C. what prompted the publisher to publish this test.
C. interviews. D. All of these
D. All of these
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Chapter 02 Historical, Cultural, and Legal/Ethical 10. Many of the cases brought before federal courts under Title VII of
the Civil Rights Act are employment discrimination cases. In this
Considerations context, discrimination is defined as the practice of making
distinctions in hiring, promotion, or other selection decisions that
1. The American Psychological Association issues both guidelines
tend to systematically favor
and standards. Standards ______________ while guidelines
A. and preserve the civil rights of any United States citizen who has been
___________
convicted of a crime.
A. are aspirational; must be followed.
B. and give preference to bona fide and naturalized citizens of the United
B. must be followed; are aspirational.
States.
C. are presented as an ideal; are presented as mandatory.
C. members of a majority group regardless of actual qualifications for
D. are aspirational; must be followed and are presented as an ideal; are
positions.
presented as mandatory.
D. members of any single group regardless of actual qualifications for
positions.
2. As discussed in the text, examinations in ancient China for civil
service positions were, for the most part,
11. Discrimination may occur as the result of
A. only open to men.
A. intentional action on the part of an employer.
B. only open to members of affluent families.
B. unintentional action on the part of an employer.
C. open to all citizens.
C. both intentional action on the part of an employer and unintentional
D. open to all citizens and immigrants.
action on the part of an employer.
D. None of these
3. In his clinical practice as a ___________, Neil Krishan Aggarwal
focuses on cultural aspects of mental health.
12. Typically, when a Title VII charge of discrimination in the
A. psychologist
workplace is leveled at an employer, a claim is made that hiring,
B. social worker
promotion, or some related employment decisions are systematically
C. psychotherapist
being made
D. psychiatrist
A. without regard to race or ethnic background.
B. in accordance with undefined rules that favor one race or another.
4. According to Neil Krishan Aggarwal, culture influences
C. that exclude military veterans from consideration for positions.
A. when, where, how, and to whom patients narrate their experiences of
D. on the basis of some non-job-related variable.
distress.
B. the patterning of symptoms recognized as illnesses.
13. The practice of making distinctions in hiring, promotion, or other
C. expectations about how long treatment should take.
selection decisions that systematically tend to favor members of a
D. All of these.
minority group regardless of actual qualifications for a position is
called
5. To better focus on the cultural identity of a patient, a tool of
A. discrimination.
assessment used by Neil Krishan Aggarwal is
B. reverse discrimination.
A. the MMPI.
C. compensation.
B. the Culture-Specific Battery (CSB).
D. None of these.
C. the Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI).
D. the Culture Free Assessment Schedule (CFAS).
14. The legal term disparate treatment refers to the consequence of an
employer's hiring or promotion practice that
6. The Common Core State Standards was the product of
A. was intentionally devised to yield some discriminatory result or outcome.
A. a Department of Education mandate to create a nationwide K-12
B. unintentionally resulted in some discriminatory result or outcome.
curriculum.
C. both was intentionally devised to yield some discriminatory result or
B. a law passed in 1969 designed to go into effect at such time that No Child
outcome and unintentionally resulted in some discriminatory result or
Left Behind expired.
outcome.
C. a state-led effort to bring inter-State uniformity to proficiency standards
D. None of these.
in various academic subjects.
D. All of these
15. The legal term disparate impact refers to the consequence of an
employer's hiring or promotion practice that
7. The Common Core State Standards has been very controversial as
A. intentionally resulted in a discriminatory result.
evidenced by
B. unintentionally resulted in a claim of libel.
A. verbal attacks by politicians.
C. resulted in a claim of libel regardless of the employer's intent.
B. demonstrations by teachers.
D. None of these
C. demonstrations by parents.
D. All of these.
16. When a claim of discrimination is made, an evaluation of the
quality of a test or selection procedure will typically entail scrutiny of
8. Indirectly, the USSR's launch of Sputnik had the effect of
all of the following EXCEPT
A. increasing cold war fears and raising defense budgets.
A. the competencies actually assessed by the test.
B. galvanizing public interest in education and testing.
B. the relation of competencies assessed to the job.
C. compelling significant changes to the MMPI.
C. differential weighting of items on the test.
D. decreasing public skepticism with regard to the validity of the Myers-
D. whether the test was true/false or multiple-choice.
Briggs Type Indicator.
17. Many large companies and organizations, as well as government
9. The ruling of the U.S. Supreme Court in the case of Ricci v.
agencies, hire experts in assessment to help make certain that their
DeStefano had implications for the ways in which government
hiring and promotion practices result neither in disparate treatment
agencies can
nor disparate impact. This is so because
A. disclose test scores to testtakers who have taken a psychological test.
A. the mere allegation of discrimination can be a source of great expense
B. use test data from applicants who have received vocational rehabilitation
for any employer.
services.
B. being found guilty of disparate treatment has resulted in jail time for
C. institute race-conscious remedies in hiring and promotional practices.
corporate employees.
D. store and retain records of a psychological nature.
C. being found guilty of disparate impact has resulted in exorbitant fines to
organizations.
D. None of these.
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18. An employer accused of discrimination under Title VII will typically 28. Who is credited with being the originator of the psychometric
have to budget for a number of expenses including all of the following concept of test reliability?
EXCEPT A. Spearman
A. the costs of fees paid to attorneys. B. Pearson
B. the cost of fees paid to judges. C. Kraeplin
C. the cost of retrieval, scanning and storage of records. D. Tichener
D. the costs attendant to improving and restructuring hiring and promotion
protocols. 29. Who coined the term mental test in 1890?
A. Binet
19. When a test must be administered with an aid of a translator, B. Cattell
A. subtle nuances of meaning may be "lost in translation." C. Wundt
B. pre-training for the translator is desirable. D. Galton
C. pre-training for the assessor is desirable.
D. All of these 30. Much of 19th-century psychological measurement focused on
A. intelligence.
20. "Does a court order for a compulsory psychiatric examination of B. ethics and values.
the defendant in a criminal trial violate that defendant's fifth C. sensory abilities.
amendment right to avoid self-incrimination?" This was the question D. personality traits.
before the court in the case of
A. Mitchell v. State. 31. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to be used as an item
B. Allen v. District of Columbia. on a projective test of personality?
C. Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California. A. ink spilled on paper
D. Jaffee v. Redmond. B. a painting of a rowboat on a lake
C. a cloud
21. Persons diagnosed with different psychiatric disorders may have D. a digital clock
differing capacities to provide truly informed consent. A person
suffering from which of the following disorders would have the BEST 32. Projective tests may be viewed as remedying a deficiency of which
probability of providing truly informed consent? other type of psychological test?
A. dementia A. intelligence tests
B. major depression B. proficiency tests
C. schizophrenia C. self-report tests
D. bipolar disorder D. neurological tests
22. The testing program that existed in China between 1115 b.c.e. and 33. In addition to his test-related "claim to fame," this man was the first
1905 is most similar to which of the following today? football coach at the University of Southern California. He is, of
A. civil service testing course,
B. college aptitude testing A. Robert S. Woodworth.
C. achievement testing B. Henry H. Goddard.
D. drug abuse testing C. Ovide DeCroly.
D. Lightner Witmer.
23. As used in the text, the term imperial examinations refers to
assessment for 34. Today, which of the following groups would be MOST likely to cite
A. knighthood in the Middle Ages. the research of Henry H. Goddard in literature it produces for public
B. civil service in ancient China. consumption?
C. competency to stand trial in Japan. A. The Ku Klux Klan (KKK)
D. gang membership in Newark, New Jersey. B. The American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU)
C. The American Psychological Association (APA)
24. Which defendant argued (unsuccessfully) in his appeal that his D. The American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA)
death penalty conviction should be set aside because he was
suffering from a mental disease? 35. Research published by Henry H. Goddard supported
A. Tarasoff A. the pro-life movement.
B. Daubert B. the anti-whaling movement.
C. Zink C. the eugenics movement.
D. Mitchell D. the labor union movement.
25. During the Middle Ages, the focus of early "diagnostic techniques" 36. The mental ability evaluations conducted at Ellis Island could best
was on identifying be characterized as
A. slow learners. A. psychological testing.
B. those who had scurvy. B. psychological assessment.
C. witches. C. case-study techniques.
D. competent civil service workers. D. role-play.
26. Which of the following positions would Galton support? 37. Psychological test data gathered from immigrant assessees at
A. Genius runs in families. Ellis Island by Henry Goddard was
B. Environment is the most important determinant of genius. A. cited extensively in Goddard's best-seller Welcoming Europe's Gifted.
C. Genius ruins families. B. used to argue against compulsory sterilization for the "feeble-minded."
D. Darwin's theory was overstated. C. cited to support anti-immigration arguments and legislation.
D. compiled to determine the incidence of feeble-mindedness worldwide.
27. How did the work of Wundt differ from that of Galton, Binet, and
James McKeen Cattell? 38. The beginning of the group intelligence testing movement is best
A. Wundt used standardized psychological tests. associated with
B. Wundt utilized humans and not animal research subjects. A. the need to identify slow learners in school.
C. Wundt focused on how individuals were the same rather than different. B. the need to identify the best applicant for a job.
D. Wundt focused on how individuals were different rather than the same. C. the military's need to screen the intellectual ability of recruits.
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D. the civil service system's need to identify qualified postal workers. D. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
39. In the 1930s, clinical psychology was synonymous with 49. Tests relevant primarily to white middle-class students produce
A. personality testing. inaccurate and misleading test scores when administered to lower-
B. mental testing. class African-American students. This was the conclusion of a court
C. vocational testing. in which of the following cases?
D. educational testing. A. Diana v. State Board of Education (1970)
B. Hobson v. Hansen (1967)
40. Which of the following represents a problem unique to self-report C. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
personality tests? D. Debra v. Turlington (1981)
A. Respondents might be unwilling to reveal something negative about
themselves. 50. In which case was it ruled that all IQ tests used for placement in
B. Respondents may be too "low" on the construct being measured for the special education classes for the mentally retarded (developmentally
trait to register properly on the test. disabled) must be administered in the language in which the student
C. The reading ability of respondents may prevent them from responding is most fluent?
accurately to items. A. Diana v. State Board of Education (1970)
D. All of these B. Hobson v. Hansen (1967)
C. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
41. An approach to personality assessment that does not employ self- D. Smith v. School District of Montgomery County (1951)
report methods is referred to as
A. a reflective method. 51. In which case was it ruled that IQ tests cannot be administered to
B. a projective method. African-American students for the purpose of placement in special
C. a factorial method. education classes?
D. a nonempirical method. A. Diana v. State Board of Education (1970)
B. Hobson v. Hansen (1967)
42. Which of the following was the first personality test to be C. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
developed after the first world war? D. Smith v. Board of Education (1981)
A. the Bernreuter Personality Inventory
B. the Mooney Problem Checklist 52. In which case was it ruled that employment tests must measure
C. the Personal Data Sheet the person for the specific job for which he or she is applying?
D. the MMPI A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993)
B. Aderand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena et al. (1985)
43. Henry A. Murray is the author of a "personology" theory of C. Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971)
personality and is best associated with D. Grutter v. Bollinger, et al. (2003)
A. the Rorschach Inkblot Test.
B. the Thematic Apperception Test. 53. Griggs v. Duke Power Company and Albemarle Paper Company v.
C. the Draw-A-Person Technique. Moody had what issue in common?
D. the Mooney Problem Checklist. A. the use of tests that discriminate against minorities because they do not
measure the specific skills required for the job
44. "Never shoot 'em in the back," "Do not fudge data," and "A captain B. the use of tests that discriminate against minorities in that they were
goes down with his ship" are all BEST characterized under the general unfairly used to terminate employment
heading of C. the use of tests that discriminate against minorities because examiners
A. laws. administering the tests were biased
B. ethics. D. the use of tests that discriminate against minorities because the test data
C. rules. were used unfairly to determine promotions
D. traditions.
54. In which court case did the court find that minimum competency
45. A body of principles of "right," "proper," or "good" conduct is testing in the State of Florida perpetuated the effects of past
referred to as a body of discrimination?
A. laws. A. Diana v. State Board of Education (1970)
B. ethics. B. Hobson v. Hansen (1967)
C. traditions. C. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
D. rules. D. Debra v. Turlington (1981)
46. Which of the following terms BEST characterizes the relationship 55. What publication presents standards for constructing and using
between the enterprise of psychological testing and the public during fair and non-discriminative employment tests?
the 20th century? A. Ethical Standards of Psychologists
A. a love affair B. Guidelines for Fair and Nondiscriminative Employment Testing
B. just good friends C. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
C. perfect strangers D. Specialty Guidelines in Administering and Interpreting Employment
D. a stormy relationship Tests
47. Which historical event was the impetus for the awarding of federal 56. Public concern about various aspects of psychological testing
funds to schools in an effort to identify gifted and talented students? reached a peak in the
A. World War I A. 1940s.
B. World War II B. 1950s.
C. the launch of Sputnik C. 1960s.
D. the presidential election of 1960 D. 1970s.
48. Which of the following laws requires that an interpreter be 57. The Family Rights and Privacy Act mandated that
available if necessary to provide job selection testing? A. parents and students have an opportunity to review their school records.
A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 B. all children have a right to attend private schools with public funds.
B. English as a Second Language Act of 1992 C. parents and students have no right to challenge the content of school
C. The Hobson and Hansen Amendment of 1991 records.
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D. families who are victims of identity theft are eligible for special grants. D. All of these
58. "Truth in testing" laws relate to tests typically administered in 67. The "privilege" referred to in the term privileged communication
A. elementary and secondary school. belongs to
B. nursery school. A. the test developer.
C. postsecondary and professional school. B. the test user.
D. hair, makeup, and cosmetology academies. C. the testtaker.
D. the test publisher.
59. Which of the following is a key provision in "truth in testing"
legislation? 68. Regarding psychologists' duty to warn in cases involving
A. Only tests approved by APA may be published. testtakers who are HIV-positive,
B. Answers keyed "correct" must indeed be correct. A. most states have enacted legislation to protect mental health
C. Two proofs of identification are required to sit for federal examinations. professionals from liability for "good faith" disclosure to an at-risk third party.
D. Test questions and answers must be revealed to all testtakers. B. the issue has yet to be addressed by any courts or legislature.
C. most states have enacted legislation that provides limits to confidentiality
60. Tests are categorized as of one's HIV-positive diagnosis.
A. level 1, 2, or 3, depending on how difficult it is to administer the test. D. the issue was historically first addressed by the Idaho State Legislature.
B. level A, B, and C, depending on how much testing-related knowledge is
necessary to administer the test. 69. The matter of having test findings held confidential by
C. level alpha, beta, or gamma, depending on how many years of education psychologists is
are required by testtakers to be admitted for testing. A. a matter of professional ethics.
D. "thumbs up" or "thumbs down" by the APA Council on Testing. B. a right upheld by case law.
C. a right cited in legislation.
61. According to the Standards for Educational and Psychological D. All of these
Tests and Manuals, the responsibility for the use of psychological
tests is that of 70. Which is TRUE of Oregon's Death with Dignity Act?
A. professionals with the highest academic degree in psychology. A. Relatives of the patient must arrange a consultation with an Oregon-
B. professionals with the necessary training and experience. licensed psychologist or psychiatrist who must be available to consult with
C. professionals who have state certification to administer a particular test. the family for a one-year period subsequent to the patient's demise.
D. professionals who are employed by duly accredited institutions and B. The patient must have less than a year to live to be covered by this Act.
organizations. C. A psychologist or psychiatrist may be requested to evaluate the patient
for impaired judgment and the presence of psychopathology.
62. The Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education was developed D. All of these
and endorsed by
A. test publishers. 71. A psychologist licensed in Oregon may not accept a referral to
B. professional organizations. evaluate a dying patient under the provisions of Oregon's Death with
C. Congress. Dignity Act
D. Both test publishers and professional organizations. A. in accordance with an ethical obligation to prevent suicide.
B. if that psychologist had previously treated the dying patient for any
63. What assumption can reasonably be made when a well-known, psychosis.
well-respected, and widely used test is translated from English into C. if the dying patient is a member of the psychologist's family.
another language? D. All of these
A. The test will likely become well known, well respected, and widely used
in all of the countries throughout the world that speak the language into 72. In the psychological assessment of a dying patient in Oregon who
which the test was translated. is requesting "death with dignity" assistance, the role of the assessor
B. The test will be equivalent in content in all of the languages for which it is to evaluate the dying patient's
has been translated. A. family support system.
C. The translated test will conform to the letter but not the "spirit" of the B. competency to make a life-ending decision.
original. C. level and sensitivity to pain.
D. None of these D. All of these
64. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Henry 73. For over 3,000 years, open and competitive examinations were
Goddard? administered in China. What these examinations measured could
A. He raised questions about how meaningful intelligence tests were for BEST be described as
people of diverse backgrounds. A. honesty.
B. He used intelligence test data to argue against capital punishment for the B. integrity.
"feebleminded." C. perseverance.
C. He advocated for the institutionalization or sterilization of the mentally D. proficiency.
retarded to prevent future generations from having low intelligence.
D. He developed a culturally sensitive intelligence test that measured 74. Which behavioral scientist viewed individual differences as a
culturally specific aspects of intelligence common to East Asian immigrants. source of error in experimentation?
A. Cattell
65. A client tells his psychologist that he is planning to kill his B. Darwin
girlfriend. The psychologist has reason to believe that the client will C. Wundt
act on this plan. In this situation, the psychologist has a duty to D. Witmer
A. keep the information privileged and address the problem in therapy. 75. Who coined the term "mental test"?
B. keep the information confidential and address the problem in therapy. A. Alfred Binet
C. warn the endangered third party or call the police. B. James Cattell
D. contact the client for an emergency session to explore the client's C. Victor Henri
motivation and plan of action. D. Charles Spearman
66. In general, testtakers have the right
A. to know why they are being tested. 76. During World War I, Robert Woodsworth and his committee
B. to know the results of the test they took. developed a measure of
C. to know how the test data will be used. A. intelligence.
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B. emotional stability. 85. The fact that employment testing materials and procedures must
C. conscientious objection. be essential to the job and not discriminate against persons with
D. patriotism. disabilities is attributable to which legislation?
A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
77. An intelligence test originally written in English is to be B. Civil Rights Act of 1964
administered to a group of Japanese immigrants who do not speak C. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
English. In order to obtain an accurate measure of intelligence and D. Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
attempt to eliminate any possible effects due to language, the test
administrator should 86. Which legislation provided that all children with suspected mental
A. have a professional translator read the test to the group, simultaneously or physical disabilities must be evaluated periodically by a team of
translating the items word-for-word. professionals?
B. have a friend or family member of the group who is fluent in English and A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
Japanese read the test to the group, simultaneously translating the items B. Civil Rights Act of 1964
word-for-word. C. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
C. have a teacher fluent in Japanese and English conduct a brief tutorial in D. Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
English prior to administering the test in English, with specific attention
given to the meaning of the wording of key items and corresponding 87. Which legislation provided that parents and eligible students be
responses. given access to school records?
D. None of these A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
B. Civil Rights Act of 1964
78. Which of the following is the term used for a variant of a language C. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
that has its own rules of structure, meaning, and pronunciation? D. Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
A. parallel language
B. alternate language 88. Which legislation provided that employers, when making
C. spoken dialect employment decisions with ability tests, cannot use different cutoff
D. regional accent scores on the basis of race, religion, sex, or national origin?
A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
79. According to your textbook, nonverbal communication or "body B. Civil Rights Act of 1964
language" does not C. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
A. exist in all cultures. D. Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
B. impact the perceptions of others.
C. convey the same meaning across cultures. 89. Which legislation modified privacy standards thus restricting the
D. accurately predict which way a poor driver will turn. way that mental health providers can use patients' personal
information?
80. Sigmund Freud believed that nonverbal behaviors provide clues A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
regarding B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1997
A. intelligence. C. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
B. achievement. D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
C. ethnicity.
D. motivation. 90. Ability tests developed using samples of White testtakers cannot
be used to track African-American students in the school system. This
81. Which organization published Technical Recommendations for was the essence of the ruling in which of the following court cases?
Psychological and Diagnostic Tests? A. Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971)
A. the American Psychological Association B. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
B. the American Educational Research Association C. Debra P. v. Turlington (1981)
C. the National Council on Measurement in Education D. Hobson v. Hanson (1967)
D. the Council for Exceptional Children
91. Which court case resulted in the ruling that intelligence tests could
82. Consistent with recommendations regarding professional ethics, not be used to place African-American children in special classes in
post-test feedback to testtakers California?
A. must avoid any information that may arouse anxiety. A. Hobson v. Hanson (1967)
B. should focus on only "positive" findings. B. Larry P. v. Riles (1979)
C. should be accurate and understandable. C. Debra P. v. Turlington (1981)
D. will always use diagnostic labels sparingly. D. Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971)
83. As mentioned in your text, which of the following is a means of 92. A general ability test predicted job performance but was found to
safeguarding test records? be discriminatory because Whites scored better on it on average than
A. storing records at an external storage facility away from the office African-Americans. This is a reference to which of the following court
B. only allowing security officials to have computer passwords cases?
C. installing and maintaining a special alarm system in the record storage A. Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena et al. (1995)
room B. Jafee v. Redmond (1996)
D. storing test records in a locked filing cabinet C. Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971)
D. Albemarle Paper Company v. Moody (1976)
84. One of the consequences of the Health Insurance Portability and 93. Which court case culminated in a ruling that a city fire department
Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is that could use a test of specific firefighting abilities to make promotion
A. it enabled clients to sue mental health professionals for over-charging. decisions even if Whites tended to outscore African-American
B. psychotherapy notes require more stringent protection than other types firefighters?
of records. A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993)
C. mental health professionals may not bill for completing insurance B. Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena et al. (1995)
paperwork. C. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978)
D. service providers must provide confidential information to health D. Jaffee v. Redmond (1996)
insurance companies.
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94. Which court case resulted in the ruling that the federal government A. the decision in Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California (1974).
cannot apply affirmative action principles in awarding federal B. Ethical Principles of Psychologists.
contracts to companies unless there is a compelling reason to do so? C. Tests in Print.
A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993) D. the Oregon Death with Dignity statute.
B. Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena et al. (1995)
C. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978) 104. Which is the BEST example of malpractice by a psychologist?
D. Jaffee v. Redmond (1996) A. A psychologist misdiagnosed a client.
B. A psychologist acted in a significantly different way as compared to the
95. Which court case resulted in the ruling for the first time that way that other psychologists would have acted under the same or similar
diversity considerations can be used in university admissions circumstances.
decisions? C. A psychologist who did not hold a doctoral degree administered and
A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993) interpreted tests while employed as a school psychologist.
B. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978) D. A psychologist learned about principle of psychological test use by
C. Chan v. Yale University (1996) watching selected re-runs of Dr. Phil on Hulu.
D. Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California (1974)
105. Which of the following is the MOST important reason why
96. Which court case resulted in the ruling that the communication translating a test into another language is not recommended?
between a psychotherapist and a patient is privileged in federal A. It can be extremely costly.
courts? B. It can be extremely time-consuming.
A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993) C. Meanings of the items may change.
B. Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena et al. (1995) D. Translation must conform to the specific dialect of the testtaker.
C. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978)
D. Jaffee v. Redmond (1996) 106. To ensure that a test developed for national use is indeed suitable
for national use, test developers
97. Which court case resulted in the ruling that psychotherapists must A. employ a culturally representative group of examiners.
reveal privileged information if a third party is endangered? B. have a culturally representative panel of experts review test items.
A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993) C. post sample items on the Web to elicit feedback from various groups.
B. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978) D. All of these
C. Jaffee v. Redmond (1996)
D. Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California (1974) 107. Sir Francis Galton measured each of the following EXCEPT
A. the mental ability of humans.
98. Which court case reaffirmed the rights of universities to use race B. genetic inheritance in sweet peas.
in admissions decisions to further the educational benefits that flow C. the standing height of humans.
from a diverse student body? D. the sitting height of humans.
A. Allen v. District of Columbia (1993)
B. Malcolm v. Las Vegas Technical School (2008) 108. Legal and ethical mandates regarding vocational assessment
C. Grutter v. Bollinger (2003) require that performance on vocational tests measure
D. Jaffee v. Redmond (1996) A. important cultural factors.
B. job-related abilities.
99. A psychologist who does not act in the same or similar way that C. unobtrusive variables.
other reasonable psychologists would have acted under the same or D. All of these
similar circumstances may be found liable for
A. incompetency. 109. Ultimately, which of the following parties to the assessment
B. negligence. enterprise provides the guidance for determining what constitutes the
C. abuse. fair use of tests in the hiring process?
D. malpractice. A. test publishers
B. test users
100. In the everyday practice of psychological assessment, how do C. society at large
questions and issues about a testtaker's proficiency in the English D. test-takers
language typically get resolved?
A. by a determination based on the number of years of formal education in 110. The Daubert case had implications for the role of
English A. psychologists with respect to admitting patients to mental hospitals.
B. by the score achieved on a test of English as a Second Language B. judges with respect to admitting expert testimony into evidence.
C. on a case-by-case basis C. test publishers with respect to hiring test developers.
D. informal evaluation of comprehension of "knock-knock" jokes D. All of these
101. Many testtaker characteristics are affected by culture including 111. The origins of Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals can be
A. a testtaker's expressive communication skills. traced to
B. a testtaker's nonverbal communication. A. Mrs. Henry Daubert taking a prescription drug to relieve nausea.
C. a testtaker's receptive communication skills. B. Mr. Henry Daubert enduring five hours of discomfort after taking
D. All of these prescription Viagra.
C. Mrs. Henry Daubert enduring five hours of discomfort as a result of her
102. With regard to litigation involving hiring and promotion, it is a fact husband taking prescribed medication.
that D. None of these
A. tests that yield scores that systematically show differences by racial
group cannot be used for any purpose. 112. In the case of Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, the
B. local, state, and federal courts are in agreement as to which plaintiff (Daubert)
psychological tests may and may not be used. A. did not win the case at the original trial.
C. only tests shown to predict job success may be used. B. did not win the case on appeal.
D. None of these C. first won the case at the level of the Supreme Court.
D. All of these
103. "Psychologists must use only those techniques for which they
are qualified by education, training, and experience." This quote was 113. In the 1923 case of Frye v. United States, the Court held that
MOST likely taken from the pages of scientific research is admissible into evidence
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A. at the sole discretion of the Court. Chapter 03  A Statistics Refresher
B. only when successfully challenged by a competent second expert.
C. when the research enjoys general acceptance. 1. In a research study, subjects are categorized as either
D. if the research was based on a scholarly review of the literature. "hospitalized" or "never hospitalized." This type of categorization is
referred to as
114. The significance of Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals is A. random.
that B. continuous.
A. trial judges were given wider discretion in terms of what shall be admitted C. discrete.
into evidence. D. prime.
B. trial judges were given a "gatekeeping" function.
C. trial judges could admit into evidence scientific testimony that had not yet 2. Bjornsen & Archer (2015) found that students who habitually used
won general acceptance in the scientific community. cell phones during class
D. All of these A. scored better grades than those who did not.
B. scored about the same grades as those who did not.
115. From the intelligence test data he gathered at Ellis Island, Henry C. scored worse grades than those who did not.
Goddard concluded that many of the people attempting to immigrate D. were less responsive to questions raised by the instructor.
to the United States were "feebleminded." This conclusion was
A. entirely justified as shown in subsequent research by Lewis Terman. 3. Imtiaz et al. (2016) studied the relationship between cannabis use
B. largely the result of using a test that overestimated mental deficiency. and physical health. Colin (2015) studied the correlates of police use
C. probably an exaggeration due to Goddard's known prejudice. of force. The two studies had something in common; it was the fact
D. in keeping with the culture of the day which focused on nurture over that they both
nature. A. were conducted in Denver, Colorado.
B. employed police officers as subjects.
116. Laws are rules of conduct that derive from a society's C. used meta-analysis to draw conclusions.
A. legislatures. D. All of these
B. courts.
C. code of ethics. 4. Dr. Joni Mihura's career is distinguished by the fact that she was
D. Both legislatures and courts. the only woman who served on the research council for the
A. Rorschach Comprehensive System.
117. Taken together, the cases of PARC v. Commonwealth of B. MMPI-2 & Rorschach Comparison Project.
Pennsylvania (1971, 1972), and Mills v. Board of Education of District C. Psychological Bulletin special issue on the Rorschach.
of Columbia (1972) illustrate D. PsychInfo Rorschach data base.
A. why psychological tests must be used responsibly.
B. how litigation can lead to legislation. 5. Dr. Joni Mihura first began reviewing the literature on the
C. judicial enforcement of the right to privacy. Rorschach to
D. why public parks are ideally within walking distance from public schools. A. ensure that she was using a valid test with her clients.
B. ensure that she was teaching her students to use a valid tool of
118. "If an expert claimed something that most other experts in the assessment.
field would agree with, the testimony would be admitted into C. contest the results of an unfavorable score on a state licensing
evidence." This statement BEST applies to the admission of expert examination.
testimony into evidence as provided by which litigation? D. prepare a detailed comparison of its efficacy with the Holtzman Inkblot
A. Daubert Technique.
B. Frye
C. Kumho 6. According to Dr. Joni Mihura, the Rorschach is the psychological
D. Mathis test with the ___________ meta-analyses for its scales.
A. least construct validity
119. The right of informed consent refers to testtakers' right to know B. most construct validity
A. why they are being evaluated. C. most concurrent validity
B. how the test data will be used. D. least concurrent validity
C. what, if any, information will be released to whom.
D. All of these 7. Dr. Joni Mihura's Rorschach research had the effect of inspiring the
creation of the
120. At issue in the case of Mills v. Board of Education was whether or not A. R-PAS.
A. culturally different children could receive a public education. B. R-CAS.
B. children with physical impairments could receive a public education. C. R-SPA.
C. children with emotional impairments could receive a public education. D. R-SAC.
D. foster children of Heather Mills must pay for private tutoring.
8. Dr. Joni Mihura reported that there are over ____ psychology journal
121. In the case of Iverson v. Frandsen, Carmel Iverson brought an articles in the PsycINFO data base that are classified as empirical
unsuccessful lawsuit for libel against Dr. Frandsen on behalf of her studies.
daughter. According to the text, Frandsen may have prevailed in a A. 10,000
lawsuit against B. 100,000
A. the school principal for sexual harassment. C. 1 million
B. Frandsen's assistant for failure to properly obtain informed consent. D. 10 million
C. the school guidance counselor for breach of confidentiality.
D. the daughter's teacher for her failure to refer for services. 9. Dr. Joni Mihura's Rorschach research resulted in
A. the development of a more contemporary inkblot measure.
B. a ban on the use of the Rorschach with pediatric patients.
C. critics removing a recommended moratorium on the Rorschach.
D. the creation of an innovative Rorschach "app."
10. As reported in your textbook by Dr. Joni Mihura, a 1952 study

authored by Hans Eysenck concluded that
A. the Rorschach was inappropriate for administration to children.
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B. all personality tests lacked reliability. 22. The data from most psychological tests could BEST be
C. psychodiagnosis was more an art than a science. characterized as which level of measurement?
D. psychotherapy doesn't work. A. nominal
B. ordinal
11. Commentators on Eysenck's (1952) article, such as ____, pointed C. interval
out several problems with Eysenck's methodology. D. ratio
A. John Exner C. Albert Bandura
B. Gene Glass D. Hans Strupp 23. The French word for "black" is a convenient acronym for
A. five factors measured by Binet's test.
12. According to Dr. Joni Mihura, some researchers reviewing the B. four levels of measurement.
findings reported by Eysenck (1952) C. four parts of the partitioned normal curve.
A. agreed with Eysenck's conclusions. D. five families of frequency distributions.
B. disagreed with Eysenck's conclusions.
C. both agreed with Eysenck's conclusions and disagreed with Eysenck's 24. A frequency distribution typically includes
conclusions. A. the average score and a measure of diversion around it.
D. terminated their review prematurely. B. each possible score and how often it occurs.
C. an estimate of how spread out the scores are.
13. According to Dr. Joni Mihura, a distinguishing feature of meta- D. an index of how "popular" a particular frequency is.
analytic research is its
A. systematic rules for study inclusion. 25. Which is the MOST common factor influencing a decision as to the
B. formal screening of research biases. size of class interval in a grouped frequency distribution?
C. both systematic rules for study inclusion and formal screening of A. the number of scores above the mean
research biases. B. the size of the mean
D. its rigor with respect to study author credentials. C. convenience
D. the size of the mean and the standard deviation
14. According to Dr. Joni Mihura, multiscale personality tests may
contain over ____ and sometimes over ____ scales that need to be 26. Frequency distributions may be illustrated in a variety of ways.
separately evaluated. Which of the following illustrations is the MOST popular of illustrating
A. 50; 100 C. 200; 400 a frequency distribution?
B. 100; 200 D. 400; 800 A. a histogram
B. a scatterplot
15. According to Dr. Joni Mihura, meta-analysis for multiscale tests C. a pie chart
will typically D. a radio dial
A. focus on one, or a few, but not all, characteristics.
B. meta-analyze all of the scales' characteristics. 27. In a grouped frequency distribution
C. meta-analyze data only for the most widely used scales. A. the total of the frequency column is equal to the total number of scores
D. supplement available data with data from published reviews of the in the distribution.
multiscale test. B. test-score intervals replace the actual test scores.
C. each test score must fall in only one test-score interval.
16. Numbers are assigned to each player on the university basketball D. All of these
team. This use of numbers could BEST be characterized as
A. a nominal scale. 28. Measures of central tendency refer to which part of the frequency
B. an ordinal scale. distribution?
C. an interval scale. A. the high end of the distribution
D. a ratio scale. B. the middle of the distribution
C. the low end of the distribution
17. An instructor rank-orders students in her measurement class D. the very end of the distribution
based on their performance on a quiz of Chapter 3 in the textbook. In
this instance, the instructor is using which type of scale? 29. In calculating the mean of a distribution of test scores, the person
A. nominal C. ordinal analyzing the data takes account of
B. interval D. comparative A. only the extreme scores in the distribution.
B. only the middle scores in the distribution.
18. Yards gained by running backs during a football game is an C. every score in the distribution.
example of which type of scale? D. the standard scores in the distribution.
A. nominal
B. ordinal 30. The mean, the median, and the mode are all
C. interval A. measures of central tendency.
D. ratio B. measures of variability.
C. measures of dispersion.
19. Miles-per-hour is an example of which type of scale? D. standard scores.
A. nominal
B. ordinal 31. A 100-item achievement test is administered to 30 students.
C. ratio Students earn 1 point for each correct answer. In the test results there
D. interval are three scores of 95. All of the other students score between 10 and
30. What measure of central tendency would be MOST representative
20. Which is the only type of scale that has an absolute zero point? of this set of scores?
A. nominal C. ratio A. average deviation
B. ordinal D. interval B. the median
C. the mode
21. Alfred Binet conceived the assignment of numbers to the results D. the standard deviation
of a person's response to questions on an intelligence test to be what
type of scale? 32. What is the formula for the arithmetic mean as calculated from a
A. nominal C. interval frequency distribution?
B. ordinal D. ratio A. "summation of fx" divided by N
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B. "summation of the absolute deviations" divided by N 44. Which statement is TRUE regarding this distribution of scores? 0,
C. "summation of x" divided by N 11, 10, 0, 0, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 1, 1
D. None of these A. There is no mode.
B. The mode is 0.
33. For the distribution of test scores 85, 76, 71, 86, and 92, the C. The mode is 1.
arithmetic mean is equal to D. There are two modes, 0 and 1.
A. 71. C. 82.
B. 85. D. 80. 45. Which statement is TRUE regarding this distribution of scores? 1,
2, 2, 3
34. A distribution of test scores has a three-way tie for the most A. The arithmetic mean is not an integer value.
frequently occurring score. This distribution could be described as B. The distribution is bimodal.
A. trimedial. C. trimodal. C. There is no mode.
B. kurtotic. D. skewed. D. The arithmetic mean is equal to the mode.
35. When graphing ratio data, why is it preferable to set the ordinate 46. If a distribution of scores has a few extremely low scores and no
of the y-axis at 0? corresponding high scores, which of the following would be TRUE?
A. It is simply the traditional way of doing things, and has no inherent A. The mean would be smaller than the median.
benefit. B. The mean would be larger than the median.
B. Setting the ordinate to other values may yield an exaggerated impression C. The mean and the median would be equal.
of the changes in the variable. D. The mean, median, and mode would all be the same.
C. Doing so is the best protection against statistic-based challenges
regarding methodology, findings, and conclusions. 47. Which statistic conveys the LEAST precise measure of
D. Ratio-level data has a theoretical range from 0 to plus or minus infinity. dispersion?
A. the range
36. Which of the following statistics is the preferred measure of central B. the variance
tendency for a skewed distribution? C. the standard deviation
A. the mean D. the semi-interquartile range
B. the median
C. the mode 48. Which quartile may also be referred to as the median?
D. None of these A. the first quartile
B. the second quartile
37. For which type of distribution of scores is the mean the preferred C. the third quartile
measure of central tendency? D. the fourth quartile
A. a symmetrical distribution
B. a skewed distribution 49. The median and the interquartile range are __________ in nature.
C. a flat distribution A. reciprocal
D. a curved distribution B. ordinal
C. interval
38. The mean for the set of scores 8, 9, and 7 is D. opposite
A. 7. C. 9.
B. 8. D. 24. 50. If the standard deviation of a set of test scores is equal to 25, the
variance is equal to
39. T score is to 50 as: A. 625.
A. z score is to 10. B. 5.
B. percentile is to 100. C. 50.
C. stanine is to 5. D. 12.5.
D. stanine is to 9.
51. If all scores in a set of test scores were the same, the variance
40. A distribution of test scores is: 75, 92, 96, 88, 75, 62, and 88. This would be equal to
distribution can be characterized as: A. zero.
A. unimodal with a mode of 75. B. one.
B. bimodal with the modes of 75 and 88. C. two.
C. unimodal with a mode of 88. D. None of these
D. trimodal with the modes of 96, 92, and 62.
52. Users of psychological tests are frequently tempted to treat ordinal
41. Which statistic describes the most frequently occurring test data as if it were interval data. This is the case because of the
score? A. difficulties that would be encountered if the data were treated as ratio
A. the mean data.
B. the median B. frequent need to do more than simply rank order test scores.
C. the mode C. data manipulation capabilities given the equal intervals between points
D. the range measured.
D. added flexibility of interval level data for statistical manipulation.
42. For which type of data is the mode most frequently used?
A. nominal data 53. Test users who treat ordinal data as if they were interval data must
B. ordinal data be constantly alert to the possibility of
C. interval data A. a highly skewed standard error.
D. ratio data B. gross inequality of intervals.
C. extreme kurtosis in a graphed distribution of test scores.
43. Which is the only measure of central tendency that can be used for D. legal challenges from the ACLU.
all nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales of measurement?
A. the mode 54. To make data more manageable, it is sometimes converted to
B. the median graphs or tables. Graphs or tables can be created from
C. the mean A. nominal level data.
D. the standard deviation B. ordinal level data.
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C. ratio level data. 66. The range is a measure of variation that is simple enough to
D. All of these calculate, but its value is
A. greatly affected by extreme scores in the distribution.
55. A raw score is so called because it is B. not affected enough by extreme scores in the distribution.
A. a straightforward, unmodified accounting of performance, usually C. extremely limited when a distribution is relatively platykurtic.
numerical in nature. D. too exaggerated for use with a normal distribution.
B. an untreated estimate of performance on a test prior to placement in a
frequency distribution. 67. There are 100 scores in a distribution of test scores and the
C. ratio level measurement that has not yet been converted into any sort of average deviation (AD) is 12. The AD of 12 tells us that the 100 scores
graphic form. in this distribution varied, on average
D. None of these A. 12 points from the mean.
B. 12 points from each other.
56. A simple frequency distribution is labeled as such to indicate that C. 12 points from 100.
the data in it D. None of these
A. occurs with no particular frequency.
B. have not been grouped. 68. The U.S. Navy is highly selective when it comes to applications for
C. are not particularly complex. Navy Seal training. A distribution of test scores on a Navy Seal
D. have only been averaged using the arithmetic mean. Qualifying and Screening Examination administered to a class of high
school seniors would be expected to yield
57. In a grouped frequency distribution, test-score intervals are also A. a normal distribution of test scores.
referred to as B. a negatively skewed distribution of test scores.
A. class intervals. C. a positively skewed distribution of test scores.
B. bandwidth intervals. D. a trimodal distribution.
C. range intervals.
D. group intervals. 69. Considering all of the people throughout history who are credited
with the development of what is now called "the normal curve," which
58. X is to abscissa as Y is to name does NOT belong?
A. oblongata. A. Abraham DeMoivre
B. kudos. B. Marquis de Laplace
C. kurtotic. C. W. A. McCall
D. ordinate. D. Karl Friedrich Gauss
59. A histogram is a 70. In theory, the distribution of the normal curve ranges from
A. graph with vertical lines drawn at each class interval. A. +3 to -3.
B. frequency distribution with horizontal lines at each class interval. B. 0 to 100.
C. graphic illustration from history with ratio level data. C. 0 to infinity.
D. surgical procedure once performed on women to treat depression. D. negative infinity to positive infinity.
60. On a bar graph comparing men to women with regard to test 71. The tail portion of a normal curve is the area of the curve between
scores, one would expect to find the gender variable listed on the A. 2 and 3 standard deviations above the mean.
A. abscissa. C. frequency polygon. B. -2 and -3 standard deviations below the mean.
B. ordinate. D. appendix. C. Both 2 and 3 standard deviations above the mean and -2 and -3 standard
deviations below the mean.
61. A distribution of test scores can be described by D. None of these
A. a measure of central tendency.
B. a measure of deviation. 72. Raw scores may be converted to standard scores
C. a graph. A. because raw scores are more readily interpretable than standard scores.
D. All of these. B. to better understand a test-taker's performance relative to others.
C. Both because raw scores are more readily interpretable than standard
62. In summation notation, the Greek uppercase letter sigma is used scores and to better understand a test-taker's performance relative to
to signify others.
A. "some." C. "don't sum." D. None of these
B. "sum." D. "dim sum."
73. A z score scale has sometimes been referred to as a "zero plus or
63. One general statement that can be made with regard to the use of minus one" scale because a z score scale
statistics in analyzing test data is that the choice of statistic frequently A. has a mean set at 0 and a standard deviation set at 1.
depends on B. has a mean set at 0 and a standard deviation set at -1.
A. the "school of statistics" learned by the person doing the analysis. C. has a standard deviation set at 0, and a mean set at 1.
B. the degree of precision in measurement that is required. D. None of these
C. the importance of the findings in the grand scheme of things.
D. the attention to detail that the project requires. 74. The T in T-scores came about because this variety of standard
score was named after
64. Unlike the arithmetic mean of scores in a distribution, the mode A. Thurstone.
A. may be totally atypical of other scores in the distribution. B. Titchener.
B. may lie at the extreme end of the distribution. C. Thorndike.
C. is determined by counting the scores and determining which occurs most D. Terman.
frequently.
D. All of these 75. Today, when someone tells you what their recently measured "IQ"
is, the value quoted is most likely
65. Mode is to nominal statistic as median is to: A. a standard score.
A. nominal statistic. B. a z-score.
B. ordinal statistic. C. a T-score.
C. interval statistic. D. a quotient.
D. ratio statistic.
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76. A standard score obtained by a linear transformation is one in C. symmetrically
which D. asymmetrically
A. a direct numerical relationship to the original score is retained.
B. only the directionality of the relationship to the original score is retained. 87. Kurtosis refers to steepness in the ________ of the distribution.
C. the relationship to the original score has been completely erased. A. center
D. None of these B. positive end
C. negative end
77. A nonlinear transformation of test scores into standard scores D. outliers
may be required when the test data under consideration:
A. are normally distributed. 88. Which of the following is TRUE of kurtosis?
B. are not normally distributed. A. Computer programs provide an index of skewness that ranges from -3 to
C. were originally converted into A scores. +3.
D. were not obtained under standardized conditions. B. Computer program provide an index of skewness that ranges from -1 to
+1.
78. A student received a z score of 1 on a test of English as a Second C. No widely accepted definition of this concept exists.
Language and the distribution of test scores on that test was normal. D. It was first conceived and named by a Swedish statistician named Kurt.
This same student received a z score of 1 on another test of English
as Second Language and the distribution of test scores on this second 89. Which of the following describes the shape of the normal curve?
test were highly skewed. In all probability, A. positively skewed
A. these two standard scores mean the same thing. B. negatively skewed
B. the T-scores on both test would be equal to 80. C. symmetrical
C. the student speaks English better than many native-born Americans. D. bimodal
D. these two standard scores do not mean the same thing.
90. The distribution of scores from a "Citywide Math Test" scores
79. Which is NOT a part of the formula for calculating a standard results in a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 12. Here, a score
deviation? equal to 2 standard deviations above the mean would be:
A. each test score A. 72.
B. the total number of items in the test B. 82.
C. the mean of the distribution C. 84.
D. the total number of test scores D. 94.
80. If the results of an examination are positively skewed, the exam 91. What is the relationship between the mean, the median, and the
questions were likely mode for a distribution of scores that is normally distributed?
A. easy. A. The mean and the median are larger than the mode.
B. difficult. B. The mean and the median are smaller than the mode.
C. biased. C. The mean and the mode are larger than the median.
D. part of a make-up examination. D. The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.
81. If the results of an examination are negatively skewed, the exam

questions were likely: 92. Approximately what percentage of scores in a normal distribution
A. easy. falls between the mean and 1 standard deviation above and below the
B. difficult. mean?
C. biased. A. 34%
D. quite novel in many respects. B. 68%
82. In a positively skewed distribution, which of the following is true? C. 95%
A. Q3-Q2 will be greater than the distance of Q2-Q1. D. less than 1%
B. Q3-Q2 will be less than the distance of Q2-Q1.
C. Q4-Q2 will be greater than the distance of Q2-Q1. 93. What does the "tail" of a normal distribution refer to?
D. Q4-Q2 will be less than the distance of Q2-Q1. A. the area of the normal curve between 2 and 3 standard deviations above
the mean
83. In a distribution that is positively skewed, what is the relationship B. the area of the normal curve between 2 and 3 standard deviations below
between the measures of central tendency? the mean
A. The mean, the median, and the mode are equal. C. the extremes of the distribution
B. The mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. D. the bottom of the distribution
C. The mean is greater than the mode, which is greater than the median.
D. The standard deviation is larger than the variance, which is larger than 94. A raw score of 82 coming from a distribution of scores with a mean
the range. of 76 and a standard of 4 is equal to a z score of:
A. +1.5.
84. In a distribution that is symmetrical, which of the following is true? B. -1.5.
A. The distances from Q1 and Q4 to the median are the same. C. +4.
B. The distances from Q1 and Q2 to the median are the same. D. -2.
C. The distances from Q1 and Q3 to the median are the same. 95. What is an advantage of T scores over z scores?
D. The distances from Q2 and Q3 to the median are the same. A. z scores have no negative numbers
B. T scores have no negative numbers
85. Arithmetic mean is to ________ as median is to ________. C. T scores are more precise
A. semi-interquartile range; standard deviation D. a T score has greater statistical flexibility
B. standard deviation; semi-interquartile range
C. variance; standard deviation 96. T scores have a mean of ________ and a standard deviation of
D. dispersion; variance ________.
A. 20; 10
86. If few scores fall on the negative side of the distribution, the B. 50; 10
distribution is ________ skewed. C. 100; 15
A. positively D. 100; 10
B. negatively
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97. What standard score has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 107. What do ordinal and nominal scales have in common?
approximately 2? A. Both contain continuous variables.
A. decile B. Both contain equal units of measurement.
B. T C. Both permit classifications.
C. stanine D. Both contain mutually exclusive variables.
D. z
108. Psychological assessment instruments often employ an ordinal
98. What is the primary advantage of normalization of a skewed scale because
distribution? A. it can quantify categories such as ethnicity, sex, and medical diagnoses.
A. greater validity B. it contains equal intervals between numbers.
B. easier comparability to other scales C. it has an absolute zero point.
C. greater reliability D. it permits rank-ordering of scores.
D. eliminates negative numbers
109. Which of the following is NOT typical of an interval scale?
99. If a particular measure yields scores that are normally distributed, A. an absolute zero point
this may be characterized as a desirable feature of that measure. A B. continuous variables
normal distribution of scores is desirable because C. rank-orderings
A. it provides evidence that the measure is valid, reliable, and D. an interval
psychometrically sound.
B. it shows that both the testtakers and the test users were quite diligent in 110. If the mean of a distribution is 7 and the standard deviation is 2,
completing their respective tasks. what is the z score that is equivalent to a raw score of 3?
C. the proportion of testtakers having scores in specific ranges can be A. 2
estimated accurately. B. -2
D. it reflects a good sampling procedure used in selecting the normative C. 3
group. D. 6
100. Psychologists often treat data from _______________ scales as 111. Which of the following is always located between the first quartile
though they were from _______________ scales because the latter are (Q1) and the third quartile (Q3)?
more versatile statistically. A. the mean
A. nominal; ratio B. the range
B. interval; nominal C. the median
C. ratio; ordinal D. None of these
D. ordinal; interval
101. The amount of time that passes between the presentation of a 112. John received a z score of 0.5 on an exam. Peter received a T
word on a computer screen and the reading of a word by a testtaker score of 60 on that same exam. What can be said about their relative
involves measurement on which type of scale? performance on the exam?
A. ordinal C. interval A. There is not enough information to compare John's and Peter's exam
B. ratio D. nominal scores.
B. Peter received a higher raw score than John on the exam.
102. When test scores are found to be normally distributed, they take C. John received a higher raw score than Peter on the exam.
on the shape of the familiar "bell curve." In these kinds of graphs, D. The two test-takers actually received the same score on the exam.
which variable is on the y (vertical) axis?
A. the test score 113. Kate received a z score of 1 on a reading test. What do we know
B. the frequency about Kate's performance, assuming that the reading test scores are
C. the deviation from the mean distributed normally?
D. the standard deviation A. She scored better than 84% of other students.
B. She scored better than only 2/3 of the other students.
103. Which of the following values could be a stanine score? C. She scored worse than only 2/3 of other students.
A. 0 D. She scored worse than 84% of other students.
B. 6
C. 7.6 114. If the mean of a distribution is 5 and the standard deviation is 3,
D. All of these what is the z score that is equivalent to a raw score of 11?
A. 2
104. If a person scores at the median on a test, and if the scores on B. -2
the test are normally distributed, the individual will be in which C. 55
stanine? D. 4
A. the first
B. the fifth 115. Most scores on tests that measure psychological variables
C. the ninth A. are continuous.
D. the fifteenth B. are discrete.
C. are error-free.
105. How wide is the interval encompassed by a stanine? D. lack discretion.
A. 10 points
B. It depends on the particular test that was administered 116. A diagnostic classification listed in a manual as "3.18 Attention
C. 1/4 standard error unit Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder" is an example of:
D. 1/2 standard deviation unit A. a nominal scale.
B. an ordinal scale.
106. The nominal scale is a type of measurement that uses C. an interval scale.
A. an absolute zero point. D. a ratio scale.
B. continuous variables.
C. rank-ordering. 117. Rank-ordering individuals on the variable of leadership ability is
D. None of these an example of which type of scale?
A. nominal
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B. ordinal 128. The purpose of deriving a standard deviation of a distribution is
C. interval A. to average all the scores in a distribution.
D. ratio B. to determine the central value of the scores in a distribution.
C. to determine the dispersion of scores around the mean of a distribution.
118. In a normal distribution of scores, approximately what percentage D. to determine the range of scores in each of the quartiles of a distribution.
of test scores falls between +1 and -1 standard deviations from the
mean? 129. Skewness provides an indication of the extent to which the shape
A. 50% of the distribution is
B. 66% A. curved.
C. 75% B. symmetrical.
D. less than 1% C. flat.
D. peaked.
119. A difference between a ratio and an interval scale is that a ratio
scale 130. Q3-Q2 will be greater than the distance of Q2-Q1 in a distribution
A. is considered a unit of measurement. of scores that is
B. has an absolute zero point. A. normal.
C. is the most common scale used in psychological measurement. B. positively skewed.
D. has an absolute freezing point. C. negatively skewed.
D. symmetrical.
120. Which of the following is the equivalent T score for an IQ score of
115 on an IQ test that has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 131. Kurtosis refers to this characteristic of a graphed distribution.
15? The characteristic is
A. 40 A. dispersion.
B. 50 B. smoothness.
C. 60 C. symmetry.
D. 70 D. steepness.
121. Approximately what percentage of scores falls below an IQ score 132. A graphed distribution that is relatively flat is referred to as
of 130 if the mean of the IQ test is 100 and the standard deviation is A. leptokurtic.
15? B. mesokurtic.
A. 50 C. platykurtic.
B. 30 D. microkurtic.
C. 85 133. Which of the following is NOT true of the normal curve?
D. None of these A. The sides taper and touch the x-axis.
B. The mean, the median, and the mode have the same value.
122. Which of the following is an advantage of the stanine score over C. The highest point is the center.
other standard scores? D. It is perfectly symmetrical, with no skewness.
A. It has greater reliability because it is a single digit.
B. It has greater validity because of its three decimal places. 134. In a normal curve, approximately 68% of all scores fall
C. It is easily manipulated because it is a single digit. A. above the mean.
D. It has greater precision because of its three decimal places. B. below the mean.
C. between the mean and 1 standard deviation below the mean.
123. A testtaker who scores at the 5th stanine is scoring D. None of these
A. above average.
B. below average. 135. If a test-taker earns a z score of +2 on a test, approximately how
C. within the average range. many other testtakers obtained higher scores, assuming the
D. in an unspecifiable range; it depends on the test. distribution of test scores is normal?
A. 2.5%
124. The main purpose of using statistics is B. 14%
A. to conduct experiments in a replicable fashion. C. 16%
B. to put data into an interpretable form. D. 25%
C. to rank-order data.
D. to predict experimental outcomes. 136. A normalized standard score scale is usually derived from a
distribution that was previously
125. The mean should be chosen as the measure of central tendency A. bell-shaped.
when the distribution is B. platykurtic.
A. skewed in a generally positive direction. C. symmetrical.
B. skewed in a generally negative direction. D. skewed.
C. approximately j-shaped in nature.
D. approximately symmetrical in nature. 137. A nonlinear transformation is used to convert a raw score to
A. an IQ score.
126. The median is not an appropriate measure of central tendency for B. a z score.
A. ratio data. C. a normalized score.
B. interval data. D. None of these
C. nominal data.
D. ordinal data. 138. The fact that a test score has a normal distribution
A. suggests that the test is biased.
127. Which of the following statistics is derived by calculating the B. makes it relatively harder to assume that the test measures what it was
difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution? intended to measure.
A. average deviation C. makes it unlikely that the test is suitable for use with populations with
B. variance psychological disturbances.
C. standard deviation D. makes the interpretation of tests scores simpler than would be the case
D. range if the test score had a non-normal distribution.
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139. Correlation coefficients range from -1 to: 150. The coefficient of determination is calculated by
A. +1. C. + infinity. A. multiplying the correlation coefficient by 100.
B. 0. D. +10. B. squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100.
C. multiplying the correlation coefficient by the sample size.
140. Which statement is TRUE concerning a coefficient of D. squaring the mean of each of the variables and then summing them.
correlation?
A. A correlation coefficient is an index of the causal relationship between 151. What is the relationship between the coefficient of determination
two variables. and the correlation coefficient?
B. A correlation coefficient may be useful in prediction. A. The larger the correlation coefficient, the larger the coefficient of
C. It covaries with the standard deviation. determination.
D. It came about as a result of someone asking Francis Galton what his B. The larger the correlation coefficient, the smaller the coefficient of
"sign" was. determination.
C. The relationship between them would have a correlation coefficient of
141. Generally, what type of correlation exists between hours of study zero exactly.
time spent studying for an achievement test and the student's D. The larger the correlation coefficient, the more variance can be attributed
performance on the test? to error or chance.
A. it depends what the subject of the test is
B. a negative correlation 152. The correlation coefficient of choice when both sets of
C. a positive correlation measurements are in rank-order form and when fewer than 30 pairs of
D. zero correlation measurements are involved is
A. the Pearson r.
142. Generally, which correlation coefficient best reflects the B. the tetrachoric r.
relationship between the number of calories consumed and body C. the Spearman rho.
weight? D. the ROTC.
A. +1.00
B. -1.00 153. What is the correlation coefficient of choice when two variables
C. +.8 are ordinal?
D. -.8 A. the Spearman rho
B. the Mooney-O
143. A perfect correlation is indicated by C. the Anna-O
A. +1.00. D. None of these
B. -1.00.
C. 0. 154. Which of the following is most directly associated with the
D. Both +1.00 and -1.00. process of predicting scores using regression techniques?
A. a standard error of the estimate
144. A correlation coefficient equal to -.98 would indicate B. a standard error of the mean
A. a weak inverse relationship between the two variables. C. a standard error of measurement
B. a weak direct relationship between the two variables. D. a standard error of the difference
C. a strong inverse relationship between the two variables.
D. a strong direct relationship between the two variables. 155. Graphed data details the relationship of time spent studying for a
midterm examination and final grade on that test. An outlier indicates
145. Charles Spearman is credited with that one student spent many hours spent studying but failed the
A. developing a type of correlation coefficient. examination. This leaves the professor wondering:
B. developing a way to predict the accuracy of a test. A. how effective the student's study habits are.
C. developing factor analysis. B. what else is going on in the life of the student.
D. All of these C. whether the student has a natural aptitude for the subject matter.
D. Both how effective the student's study habits are and what else is going
146. Which of the following is TRUE of the Pearson r? on in the life of the student.
A. It has a distribution that approximates the tetrachoric r if the data are not
linear. 156. If an outlier exists in graphed test-related data it may signal
B. It is legitimately used only when the two variables are linear. A. a problem in the wording of one of the test questions.
C. Pearson actually had very little to do with its development. B. the need to re-administer the test.
D. It can never be larger than the Spearman rho if the data represent two C. a fatal flaw in the test's design.
true dichotomies. D. Both a problem in the wording of one of the test questions and a fatal
flaw in the test's design.
147. To calculate a Pearson r using one of the formulas presented in
the text, it is necessary to know 157. Outliers can be useful in identifying testtakers who
A. the standard scores for both variables. A. failed to understand the test instructions.
B. the standard score for only one variable. B. failed to follow the test instructions.
C. percentiles for both variables. C. Both failed to understand the test instructions and failed to follow the test
D. raw scores for each variable. instructions.
D. None of these
148. A correlation coefficient that is significant at the p < .01 level
A. has a 99% chance of being accurate. 158. If the calculated value of the correlation coefficient for two
B. could have been expected to occur by chance alone one time or less in variables is 0, what would the resulting scatterplot look like?
100. A. upward, sloping to the left
C. could have been expected to occur by chance alone 99 times or more in B. downward, sloping to the right
100. C. upward, sloping to the right
D. accounts for about 1% of the variance. D. None of these
149. If the correlation coefficient is equal to .30, the coefficient of 159. A scatterplot of the relationship between two variables is graphed
determination is equal to upward and sloping to the right. This is indicative of
A. .90. C. 9. A. a strong positive relationship.
B. .999. D. None of these. B. a strong negative relationship.
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C. a weak inverse relationship. 168. A meta-analytic review of the literature on a particular
D. a purely Platonic relationship. psychological test can yield
A. insights of theoretical value.
160. Which of the following is a term for the graphed representation of B. insights of applied value.
an extremely atypical score that can sometimes provide a hint C. insights regarding revised ways to score the test.
regarding some deficiency in the testing or scoring procedures? D. All of these
A. a nonlinear plot point
B. a standard error 169. Statistical tools are used for
C. an outlier A. describing numbers.
D. an error B. making inferences about numbers.
C. drawing conclusions about numbers.
161. What is the relationship between the correlation coefficient and D. All of these
the standard error of estimate?
A. It is a positive relationship. 170. In doing research on family therapy, a researcher reports on the
B. It is an inverse relationship. number of children in each family studied. This reporting on the
C. It's complicated. number of children in each family is BEST described as which type of
D. There is no relationship. scale?
A. continuous
162. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a B. discrete
correlation coefficient? C. interval
A. A restricted range in either correlated variable makes the correlation D. None of these
lower.
B. A correlation coefficient provides information regarding causation. 171. Which is the most common type of scale used in psychological
C. No meaning is attached to the sign of a correlation coefficient, since the tests?
coefficient is ultimately squared. A. continuous
D. Restriction of range is now illegal in the 48 contiguous states. B. discrete
C. contiguous
163. Among school-age children, as age increases, so do reading D. None of these
skills. This relationship between two variables illustrates
A. a positive correlation between two variables. 172. In a scale used in a psychology experiment, a value of "1" is
B. a negative correlation correlations between two variables. assigned to subjects with black hair, and a value of "2" is assigned to
C. a zero correlation. subjects with blonde hair. The type of scale used in this experiment
D. None of these is:
A. ordinal.
164. A correlation coefficient is equal to .30. Using the concept of B. ratio.
coefficient of determination, the variance accounted for by chance, C. interval.
error, and other unexplained factors would be: D. nominal.
A. approximately 91%.
B. approximately 30%. 173. Measuring temperature with a Fahrenheit thermometer entails the
C. approximately 3%. use of which type of scale?
D. None of these A. ratio
B. ordinal
165. The statistical combination of information across studies is C. interval
referred to as D. nominal
A. reliability.
B. meta-analysis.
C. regression.
D. incremental validity.
166. A key advantage of meta-analysis over simply reporting a range

of findings is that
A. in meta-analysis the "art" of the meta-analyst comes into play and allows
for knowledgeable manipulation of data.
B. simply reporting a range of findings can become very confusing when
there are more than two studies to report on.
C. in meta-analysis more weight can be given to studies that have larger
numbers of subjects.
D. Both in meta-analysis the "art" of the meta-analyst comes into play and
allows for knowledgeable manipulation of data and simply reporting a range
of findings can become very confusing when there are more than two
studies to report on.
167. A meta-analytic study of the Asch line judgment paradigm

concluded that
A. individualistic cultures evidenced higher levels of conformity than
collectivistic cultures.
B. collectivistic cultures evidenced higher levels of conformity than
individualistic cultures.
C. holistic cultures evidenced higher levels of conformity than both
individualistic and collectivistic cultures.
D. subjects from the Republic of Yugoslavia were most impulsive in their
judgments and most likely to conform to the wrong choice.
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Chapter 04  Of Tests and Testing C. "Can school districts in impoverished areas afford to use this test?"
D. "Does this test discriminate any one or any group in a demonstrable
1. According to a study cited in the text, random error affecting a score way?"
on a personality test is best illustrated with reference to the
A. weather on the day that the personality test was administered. 11. Students may fantasize about a world without tests. But in reality,
B. testtaker's general self-concept on the day that the personality test was a world without tests would be more of a nightmare than a dream. This
administered. is so because
C. amount of the specific personality trait that actually exists. A. nepotism in hiring and promotions would be rampant.
D. All of these B. professionals would not be properly credentialed.
C. educational difficulties would be more difficult to diagnose.
2. A psychological trait D. All of these
A. has a real existence. C. has no relation to observed behavior.
B. is a construct. D. All of these 12. The term psychometric soundness is typically a reference to a
test's reliability and
3. Assuming the Sensation Seeking Scale (SSS) is a valid measure, A. utility. C. norms.
how would you expect someone who goes parachuting once a month B. validity. D. cost-effectiveness.
to score on the SSS?
A. average C. below average 13. A prospective test user may ask many questions about a test's
B. above average D. impossible to say validity. Which of the following is NOT a validity-related question?
A. Do the test items adequately sample the range of areas that should be
4. An assumption in psychological testing and assessment is that sampled?
psychological traits can be measured. For this to be true, B. What do high scores on this test really tell us about the targeted
A. the reference group used must be people who exhibit and do not exhibit construct?
the trait. C. What do low scores on this test really tell us about the targeted
B. the test must take into account changes in the trait that can occur over construct?
time. D. As a tool of measurement, is this test consistent?
C. test developers must clearly define the trait constructs the test purports
to measure. 14. "What's a good test?" In part, a good test is one that
D. All of these A. trained examiners can administer with a minimum of difficulty.
B. is useful in the sense that it yields actionable results.
5. "Test-related behavior predicts non-test-related behavior." This C. will ultimately benefit individual testtakers or society as a whole.
statement D. All of these
A. is an assumption on which the assessment enterprise is based.
B. is true only if the test-related behavior mimics the non-test-related 15. Norm-referenced testing and assessment is both a method of
behavior. evaluation and a way of deriving meaning from tests scores. Individual
C. is true only if the non-test-related behavior mimics the test-related testtaker scores are evaluated against
behavior. A. the scores achieved by a matched group of testtakers on a comparable
D. All of these test.
B. the scores of a comparison group of testtakers.
6. According to your text, which of the following assumptions inherent C. scores from a demographically more diverse group of testtakers.
in the assessment enterprise is repeatedly emphasized in the codes D. the scores achieved by a guy named norm.
of ethics of associations of assessment professionals?
A. Psychological traits and states can be quantified. 16. It's a group of people whose performance on a particular test is
B. Various sources of error are a part of the process. analyzed for reference in evaluating the performance of future
C. Test-related behavior predicts non-test-related behavior. testtakers. This group is called
D. Tests and other tools have strengths and weaknesses. A. a normative sample. C. a stratified random sample.
B. a test validation group. D. a "back to the future" group.
7. When measuring a particular psychological trait, the term error
variance refers to 17. Norms come in many different forms. Which of the following is
A. the degree to which impression management may influence the obtained NOT correctly referred to by the term "norms"?
score. A. trait norms C. grade norms
B. the variations in score possible if another instrument was employed. B. age norms D. percentile norms
C. the component of a test score attributable to sources other than the trait.
D. All of these 18. You are a consultant to a test developer who is in the process of
norming a new test of intelligence. Which type of norms would be
8. When using trait terms, it is important to keep in mind that LEAST advisable to develop?
A. there are many synonyms for the trait term that could be used instead. A. national norms C. mental age norms
B. trait terms are relative in that unstated comparisons are always being B. subgroup norms D. norms from a fixed reference group
made.
C. the trait being exhibited is subject to sudden change as in multiple 19. In order to conduct research using human subjects, a university
personality. requires researchers to complete an online ethics course, and then
D. traits, much like most human abilities, are all "in the eye of the beholder." correctly respond to all of the items of the test on that material. This
test process could BEST be characterized as
9. It is incorrect to conceive of error "creeping into" the measurement A. norm-referenced testing. C. culturally informed assessment.
process because B. criterion-referenced testing. D. authentic assessment.
A. this implies that it appears slowly when in reality it is instantaneous.
B. to do so is to imply that error is negative when in reality it is positive. 20. In selecting a test for use, the responsible test user does some
C. error is a well acknowledged part of the measurement process. advance research on
D. All of these A. how appropriate the available norms are for use with the contemplated
testtakers.
10. Although the question "Is this test fair?" is frequently raised, the B. how appropriate the reading level of the test is for use.
underlying and more pertinent moral question is, C. cultural factors as they may relate to the administration and scoring of
A. "What do we, as a society, wish to accomplish by the use of this test?" the test.
B. "What offensive cultural stereotypes are inherent in the use of this test?" D. All of these
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21. Measurement can be defined as B. has few practical "real-world" applications and is used for academic
A. the assignment of numbers or symbols to characteristics of purposes.
objects/people. C. was developed by naturalistic observation rather than any theory.
B. the administering and scoring of psychological tests to members of a D. is a scientific concept developed to describe or explain behavior.
defined population.
C. the process of determining the reliability and validity of tests. 34. From your reading of Chapter 4 in your textbook, which of the
D. the observation of behavior in a controlled environment. following statements is NOT true?
A. Overt behavior is observable.
22. A psychological trait can BEST be described as B. Constructs are ideas rather than observable actions.
A. an observable behavior. C. a construct. C. Constructs are only used when behavior is not observable.
B. a biological phenomenon. D. what a test measures. D. The existence of a construct can be inferred from overt behavior.
23. According to your textbook, psychological traits 35. The manifestation of a trait is NOT dependent on
A. can be seen and touched. C. do not exist. A. the strength of the trait. C. lunar cycles.
B. can only be inferred. D. exist only in theory. B. the situation. D. genetics.
24. Psychological traits are present and exhibited to others 36. In which specialty of psychology would psychological tests be
A. 100% of the time. C. 50% of the time. MOST likely be used to postdict rather than predict behavior?
B. 75% of the time. D. None of these. A. consumer psychology
B. sport psychology
25. The manifestation of behavior associated with a particular C. engineering psychology
psychological trait is to some extent dependent on D. forensic psychology
A. the situation the person is in.
B. the financial pressures being exerted. 37. Typically, which of the following is the primary objective of
C. an individual's blood pressure at the time. psychological testing and assessment?
D. one's astrological sign. A. to measure a trait
B. to predict future behavior
26. A trait is typically viewed as "relative." This means that inherent in C. to obtain a score on a test
its definition, a comparison is being made to: D. to observe a sample of behavior
A. other people.
B. people who are totally lacking in the trait. 38. From the perspective of test users, a typical objective of testtakers'
C. blood relatives. testtaking behavior, such as blackening small grids on an answer
D. All of these sheet with a #2 pencil, is to
A. predict how fully circles will be blackened on another test.
27. Which of the following is the BEST example of a psychological B. postdict such behavior on previous tests.
trait? C. predict behavior apart from blackening grids.
A. eye color C. skin color D. predict how the test-taker will use seasonings to blacken fish.
B. hair color D. None of these
39. Assessment professionals who use tests without understanding
28. Which of the following is the BEST example of a psychological the limitations of the tests they use are
trait? A. violating state and federal laws which mandate such understanding.
A. eye color C. skin color B. violating provisions of their profession's ethical codes.
B. aggressiveness D. None of these C. well meaning but bumbling in their every day work.
D. psychiatrists rather than psychologists.
29. How do states different from traits?
A. A trait is biologically determined, whereas a state in environmentally 40. Which of the following is TRUE about error in psychological
determined. measurement?
B. A trait is measurable, whereas a state is not. A. As with other fields, error is synonymous with "mistake."
C. A trait is relatively enduring, whereas a state is relatively short-lived. B. Error only refers to deliberate misrepresentation of results rather than
D. A trait is unchangeable, whereas a state is easily influenced. carelessness.
C. Error is an expected component of measurement.
30. Consider the assumption that "the more correct answers an D. Error can be eliminated only by care and vigilance.
examinee scores on an intelligence test, the more intelligent is the
examinee." Which of the following methods of scoring is BEST 41. Any influence on psychological test scores from factors other than
associated with that assumption? what the test is intended to measure is referred to by measurement
A. a Galtonian model of scoring specialists as
B. the cumulative model of scoring A. spurious artifact. C. bias.
C. an objective method of scoring B. error. D. construct-irrelevant stimuli.
D. the subjective method of scoring
42. An assumption inherent in classical test theory (CTT) is that
31. A basic assumption of all scaling is that A. each test-taker has a true score that would have been obtained if not for
A. traits and states can be quantified and measured. measurement error.
B. traits and states can best be understood by those who experience them. B. testtakers can be ranked according to the level of the trait or ability that
C. traits and states are only measurable in human beings. they exhibit in much the same way that rankings can be made by height.
D. measures developed in one culture have no meaning in other cultures. C. measurement can be perfectly accurate if the measuring tool is well-
constructed.
32. Assigning numbers in accordance with empirical properties of D. All of these
objects or traits is referred to as
A. measuring. C. scaling. 43. According to Chapter 4 of your text, which of the following
B. quantifying. D. sampling. statements is NOT true?
A. Some issues of test fairness are more political than psychometric in
33. Referring to a psychological trait as a construct means that it nature.
A. is an idea whose time has come, gone, and come back again. B. Using certain psychological tests with people of some cultural
backgrounds can be controversial.
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C. The same test can be fair for use with one population of testtakers, and 53. Factors affecting the generalizability of findings from a particular
not fair for use with another population of testtakers. test include
D. Most major test developers have been relatively insensitive to issues of A. the wording of items on the test.
test fairness. B. the norm group used in the development of a test.
C. the degree to which the test administration conformed to the directions
44. Test reliability refers to provided in the test manual.
A. how accurately a test measures what it purports to measure. D. All of these
B. how consistently a test measures what it purports to measure.
C. the "depth" of measurement of a particular construct. 54. Based on a careful reading of the "What's a good test?" discussion
D. the "bandwidth" of measurement of a particular construct. in Chapter 4's Everyday Psychometrics feature, the BEST conclusion
one could reasonably draw is
45. One scale at the deli counter of a local supermarket consistently A. "you get what you pay for."
measures everything that is placed on it exactly one ounce more than B. "sometimes things are neither fish nor fowl."
its actual weight. An assessment professional would describe this C. "simple questions do not necessarily have simple answers."
scale as D. "it's an ill wind that blows nobody good."
A. valid. C. unreliable.
B. reliable. D. not properly normed. 55. A norm group is a group of testtakers
A. for whom a particular test is deemed inappropriate.
46. Test validity refers to how B. taking a particular test for the very first time.
A. "true" the score is in terms of true score theory. C. that is typically described in the test manual.
B. rigorous the process of norming the test was. D. Only taking a particular test for the very first time and that is typically
C. "deep" the depth of trait measurement is. described in the test manual.
D. well a test measures what it purports to measure.
56. The term norms refers to the
47. When "putting a test to the test" and debating whether or not a A. average score of all test-takers within a standardization sample.
particular instrument should be used for a particular objective, B. the typical performance of the norm group.
relevant questions to be asked include C. scores with which the results of subsequent measurement can be
A. What is the objective in using this test? compared.
B. Who is this test designed for use with? D. transformed scores used to create and improve test items.
C. How is what the test measures defined?
D. All of these 57. A test designed to provide information about whether or not an
aviator has mastered the ability to fly solo is an example of a test that
48. When "putting a test to the test" and attempting to evaluate the is
suitability of a particular tool of measurement for a particular purpose, A. norm-referenced. C. trait-referenced.
a test user would be well advised to consult B. criterion-referenced. D. All of these
A. published sources such as test manuals and test reviews.
B. unpublished sources such as colleagues who have experience with it. 58. An applicant for a job with the U.S. Postal Service scores in the
C. the test publisher through an e-mail or phone call. bottom 5% of all applicants on a test that measures the ability to sort
D. All of these. mail. This is an example of
A. norm-referenced testing.
49. When "putting a test to the test" and researching published B. criterion-referenced testing.
guidelines from professional associations regarding the use of a C. stress-tolerance testing.
particular test for a particular objective, a test user is MOST likely to D. an individual who may one day "go postal."
find that the guidelines recommend
A. "bending the rules" of test administration as specified in the test manual. 59. If a controversy exists over the definition of the trait being
B. interpreting the test using the norms developed for a different test. measured by a psychological test, questions will MOST likely be
C. the use of additional measurement tools along with the test. raised relative to
D. testing all assessors on their proficiency with the instrument. A. the reliability of the test. C. the standardization of the test.
B. the validity of the test. D. All of these
50. When "putting a test to the test" and researching the reliability of
a particular instrument such as the Bricklin Perceptual Scales, test 60. A test that yields information about a testtaker's relative standing
users will in a group is referred to as
A. consult the test's manual and test reviews. A. criterion-referenced. C. standard-referenced.
B. discover controversy as to how suitable a measure of reliability is. B. norm-referenced. D. None of these
C. learn of the need for multiple sources of data.
D. All of these 61. The definition of a norm-referenced test as compared to a criterion-
referenced test differs primarily with respect to
51. When "putting tests to the test" and researching the validity of a A. the error thought to be present in measurement.
particular instrument for a particular purpose, test users B. whether or not the test is theory-based.
A. will typically consult multiple issues of popular magazines. C. the score to which testtakers are compared.
B. may need to research which combination of tests best suits a particular D. the reliability of the test in question.
purpose.
C. can be satisfied they are using the right instrument if the validity 62. This tool is used to estimate or infer how far an observed score
coefficient found is satisfactorily high. deviates from a true score, and it called
D. All of these A. a standard deviation.
B. a measure of central tendency.
52. When "putting a test to the test" and researching the suitability of C. the variance.
a particular test for a particular objective, test users will typically D. a standard error of measurement.
research
A. the reliability of the test. 63. The statistic known as the standard error of measurement is BEST
B. the validity of the test. associated with which of the following?
C. the utility of the test. A. validity C. test standardization
D. All of these B. reliability D. test administration
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64. A test is considered standardized if the manual for the test 75. A distribution of raw scores from a test administration is normally
includes distributed. The test user wishes to summarize these data using
A. clearly specified procedures for administration. percentiles. A potential problem here is that score differences in the
B. clearly specified procedures for scoring. middle area of the distribution
C. normative data. A. may be minimized.
D. All of these B. may be exaggerated.
C. may not be accurate if the test is "pass/fail."
65. Which of the following is TRUE of a population in the statistical D. will only be accurate if scored in a timely fashion.
sense?
A. It is the least frequent observable characteristic within a sample. 76. The concept of mental age as a means of describing performance
B. It may include as few as two home-bound students. on an intelligence test has been
C. It has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 0. A. criticized for being too narrow.
D. It has a stanine value of 9. B. deemed unethical by all state psychological associations.
C. criticized for being too broad.
66. Which of the following is TRUE of a sample in the statistical D. found to be extremely useful in studies of autism.
sense?
A. It can never be greater in number than the population from which it is 77. National anchor norms provide
drawn. A. a way to determine precisely how much a score achieved on one
B. It will have a standard deviation that approximates that of the population. nationally administered test is equal to another.
C. It is normally distributed. B. an indication of the equivalency of scores on various tests that are
D. It is normally distributed by a greeter at Sam's Club. administered nationally.
C. useful grade-equivalent information for adult test-takers sitting for
67. Reference to a "standard drink" in the psychology literature nationally administered examinations.
conveys information to knowledgeable readers about D. a way for the U.S. Navy to equate seamanship scores achieved by
A. how drunk the average person will be after chugging three beers. Marines to that of Navy SEALS.
B. the number of minutes it will take to get a "buzz" from a glass of wine.
C. the amount of alcohol there is in any beverage. 78. Subgroup norms can best be described as a normative sample
D. how addictive a particular form of alcohol is. A. that has been segmented in some way.
B. that is not representative of the population sampled.
68. A test is said to be standardized if the test's manual contains C. with scores below the 60th percentile on a test.
clearly specified procedures for test D. for which test administration conditions were not optimal.
A. administration. C. interpretation.
B. scoring. D. All of these 79. If the calculated value of the correlation coefficient for two
variables is 0, what would the resulting scatterplot look like?
69. Traditionally, the term test standardization has been used A. upward, sloping to the left
interchangeably with the term B. downward, sloping to the right
A. test normalization. C. test calibration C. upward, sloping to the right
B. test utilization. D. None of these D. None of these
.
70. If a standardized test is designed for hand-scoring by the test's 80. Deciles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.
user, then the test's manual will ideally contain an ample number of A. 5 C. 100
A. examples of correct and incorrect responses. B. 10 D. None of these
B. examples of partially correct responses.
C. Both examples of correct and incorrect responses and examples of 81. Percentiles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.
partially correct responses. A. 5 C. 1,000
D. None of these B. 10 D. 100
71. The type of sample that is convenient or available for use is 82. A score at the 20th percentile on a high school history test is
referred to as A. the score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall.
A. an incidental sample. C. a coincidental sample. B. that point in a distribution at which 80% of the test questions were
B. a stratified sample. D. a random sample. answered correctly.
C. the score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall.
72. An investigator researching behavior of corporate presidents D. grounds for termination from a varsity team in most high schools.
employs college students enrolled in Introductory Psychology as
research subjects. These students are BEST referred to as 83. The term age norms is synonymous with
A. an incidental sample. A. age-equivalent scores.
B. a stratified sample. B. age-standard scores.
C. a coincidental sample. C. age-derived scores.
D. a random sample. D. age-defying scores.
84. Age norms enjoy wide acceptance
73. Sampling all different subgroups within a population is an example A. for both physical and psychological characteristics.
of B. for physical but not psychological characteristics.
A. random sampling. C. for psychological but not physical characteristics.
B. stratified sampling. D. in the teen years but decline in popularity with age.
C. incidental sampling.
D. purposive sampling. 85. A third-grade student who earned a grade-equivalent score of 5.0
a standardized test of mathematics
74. The terms percentile and percentage correct A. has the same mathematics ability as the average fifth-grade student in
A. are, for all intents and purposes, synonymous. that same school.
B. have in common that neither is a converted raw score. B. should not be enrolled in a fifth-grade math class.
C. both entail calculation by multiplying by 100 and dividing by the number C. performed similarly to a hypothetical fifth-grade student.
of items. D. will most probably earn a grade of A in the course.
D. None of these
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86. Experts in testing and assessment have expressed reservations C. a weak inverse relationship.
about the use of D. a purely Platonic relationship.
A. national anchor norms.
B. percentiles. 96. What is the relationship between the correlation coefficient and the
C. grade norms. standard error of estimate?
D. television programs for pre-schoolers which purport to teach advanced A. It is a positive relationship.
subjects. B. It is an inverse relationship.
C. No relationship exists.
87. A typical variable of interest in developing contemporary national D. It is best characterized as "stormy."
norms is
A. ethnic background. 97. Which statistic is used to calculate the exact degree of
B. member/non-member of Lady GaGa fan club. curvilinearity displayed in graphed correlation data?
C. owner/non-owner of smart phone. A. coefficient alpha
D. None of these. B. coefficient beta
C. eta squared
88. Which term does NOT belong in the group with the others? D. None of these
A. norm-referenced assessment
B. criterion-referenced assessment 98. Which of the following constitutes a recommended sampling
C. domain-referenced assessment technique for use in obtaining a standardization sample?
D. mastery assessment A. volunteer sampling
B. remanded sampling
89. Fixed reference group scoring systems typically C. purposive sampling
A. contain groups of test-takers who all share a common characteristic, D. balanced sampling
such as personality type.
B. are used by major test publishers to construct intelligence tests. 99. Which of the following is TRUE of norms?
C. entail the comparison of one group of testtakers with all future groups of A. Norms may be thought of as expressed as normalized raw scores.
testtakers. B. Norms may be expressed as percentiles, age norms, or grade norms.
D. entail a comparison between one group of test-takers and another, C. In essence, what norms tell us about any distribution, is what is and is
matched group who took the same test the year before. not, "normal."
D. Norms are best expressed in multi-colored graphs in the context of multi-
90. Which of the following standardized tests employs a fixed media presentations.
reference group?
A. SAT 100. Raw scores may be converted to norms
B. ACT A. so that the scores are more easily interpreted.
C. MAT B. so that scores are easily communicated to others.
D. TAT C. Both so that the scores are more easily interpreted and so that scores
are easily communicated to others.
91. A norm-referenced test yields which type of information? D. None of these
A. information indicating that the examinee has the eye-hand coordination
skills necessary to operate a particular piece of dangerous machinery 101. "Number of items answered correctly on an achievement test"
B. information indicating that the examinee scored above 90% of individuals defines what type of score on that test?
who took the test A. a raw score
C. Both information indicating that the examinee has the eye-hand B. a standard score
coordination skills necessary to operate a particular piece of dangerous C. a percentile rank
machinery and information indicating that the examinee scored above 90% D. a cut-off score
of individuals who took the test
D. None of these 102. A raw score of 0 on a test suggests to the test user that the
testtaker
92. Which is the MOST appropriate application of a criterion- A. did not possess any of the construct/ability being assessed by the test.
referenced test? B. did not understand the instructions.
A. testing achievement in advanced mathematical logic for a graduate-level C. was not physically capable of responding appropriately.
course D. All of these
B. testing knowledge of basic traffic signs and signals for a driver's license
C. a testing program to award college athletic scholarships 103. The number corresponding to a grade of A on your next
D. a testing program to reward a company's top salespeople psychological measurement exam is an example of what type of
score?
93. In general, criterion-referenced testing A. raw score
A. is useful for communicating information regarding the mastery of basic B. standard score
skills such as reading and writing. C. percentile rank
B. has been found to be extremely valuable in conveying information about D. cut-off score
a student's level of creativity relative to other students.
C. is not a well-accepted method of testing in areas such as mastery of word 104. The number corresponding to a "Pass" on a state teacher
processing programs. certification examination is an example of what type of score?
D. is a contradiction in terms due to the lack of a valid criterion. A. raw score
B. standard score
94. It is an extremely atypical score that can sometimes provide a hint C. percentile rank
regarding some deficiency in the testing or scoring procedures. It is D. cut-off score
A. a nonlinear plot point. C. an outlier.
B. a standard error. D. an error. 105. When two tests are normed on the same sample, it is referred to
as
95. A scatterplot of the relationship between two variables is graphed A. bi-norming.
upward and sloping to the right. This is indicative of B. representative norming.
A. a strong positive relationship. C. co-norming.
B. a strong negative relationship. D. None of these
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106. A school psychologist administers a psychological test to a child. 115. According to the team of sports psychologist introduced in
For the purposes of her report, she converts the testtaker's raw scores Chapter 4's Meet An Assessment Professional, psychological
to percentiles. Age and grade norms are provided in the manual but information collected on professional athletes is used
she declines to cite them because A. to motivate players to do well.
A. percentiles are all that are needed for accurate reporting of results. B. in the process of press relations.
B. age and grade norms tend to be misinterpreted by the general public. C. prepare players for an alternative career.
C. she prefers to report results using only means and standard deviations. D. None of these
D. that's what they're expecting her to do.
116. According to the team of sports psychologist introduced in
107. In a norm-referenced approach to testing, a testtaker's scores are Chapter 4's Meet An Assessment Professional, a special challenge of
compared with conducting psychological assessments with professional athletes is
A. the scores of other individuals who were administered the test. A. time pressure and deadlines for test administration and interpretation.
B. a standard of excellence determined by experts in the area. B. persuading the athlete's that they won't one day find their test protocols
C. Both the scores of other individuals who were administered the test and for auction on e-bay.
a standard of excellence determined by experts in the area. C. both time pressure and deadlines for test administration and
D. None of these interpretation and persuading the athlete's that they won't one day find their
test protocols for auction on e-bay.
108. Unlike norm-referenced interpretation, criterion-referenced D. None of these
interpretation
A. requires that the test-taker's score be compared with a matched sample. 117. Which of the following tests were used with members of the
B. describes test performance in terms of a test-taker's relative standing in Chicago Bulls by the sports psychologists introduced in the Chapter
a group. 4's Meet An Assessment Professional?
C. relies on percentile as opposed to grade or age norms. A. the MMPI
D. describes a test-taker's performance in terms of predetermined B. the 16-PF
standards. C. the Draw-A-Person test
D. the Rorschach Inkblot test
109. Regarding norm-referenced and criterion-referenced testing
A. norm-referenced testing is recommended. 118. In general, samples of behavior may be obtained by
B. criterion-referenced testing is recommended. A. direct observation.
C. each can be appropriate depending on testing objectives. B. self-report.
D. the two approaches can always be used interchangeably. C. paper-and-pencil tests.
D. All of these
110. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a
correlation coefficient?
A. A restricted range in either correlated variable makes the correlation
lower.
B. A correlation coefficient provides information regarding causation.
C. No meaning is attached to the sign of a correlation coefficient, since the
coefficient is ultimately squared.
D. Restriction of range is now illegal in the 48 contiguous states.
111. National anchor norms for a test taken by university students

allow for comparisons between
A. students who took the test and applicants who did not.
B. one student and a national sample of others taking the same test.
C. test battery results for international students.
D. doctoral students in psychology and a sample of Peruvian prisoners.
112. Among school-age children, as age increases, so do reading

skills. This relationship between two variables illustrates
A. a positive correlation between two variables.
B. a negative correlation between two variables.
C. a zero correlation between two variables.
D. why "correlation" is synonymous with "causation".
113. A correlation coefficient is equal to .30. Using the coefficient of

determination, the variance accounted for by chance, error, and other
unexplained factors is
A. approximately 91%.
B. approximately 30%.
C. approximately 3%.
D. None of these
114. One technical problem that arose with the early use of
intelligence quotients on tests such as the Stanford-Binet was that
A. mental age was difficult to accurately determine.
B. standard deviations were not constant with age.
C. factor analysis was done by hand and highly subject to error.
D. None of these
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Chapter 05  Reliability 11. Unreliable findings that reach general acceptance in the academic
community
1. According to Gil et al. (2016), which of the following is a source of A. tend to self-correct.
error in scores on psychological tests? B. tend to linger too long.
A. whether or not the examiner has a beard C. become exposed through social media.
B. whether the testtaker's country is at war or peace D. are not admissible in a court of law.
C. the body weight of the testtaker two weeks prior to the test
D. None of these 12. According to Chin, it is common for research findings to be
A. rejected for not having met the general acceptance standard.
2. Hawkins et al. (2016) found that subjects with ____ fasting glucose B. accepted as having met the general acceptance standard.
levels made nearly ____ times as many errors as subjects with fasting C. accepted by a judge but then rejected by an expert witness.
glucose levels in the normal range. D. accepted by an expert witness but then rejected by a judge.
A. low; one-quarter
B. high; one-quarter 13. Which of the following is the best remedy for QRPs?
C. high; four times A. pre-registration
D. high; twice B. registration
C. post-registration
3. Berman et al. (2015) observed that one source of error in D. self-correction
evaluations the suicide risk of patients is
A. whether or not the patient has previously attempted suicide. 14. As compared to what was business as usual in the past, more
B. whether or not the clinician previously had a patient attempt suicide. researchers are coming to the realization that replication is
C. how religious the evaluating clinician is. A. really not as necessary as what researchers once thought.
D. how religious the evaluated patient is. B. not something that can ever completely "right" past wrongs.
C. mandatory given the influence of social media.
4. In 2015, a group of researchers attempted to replicate 100 peer- D. needed if published findings are to be relied on.
reviewed, published psychological studies. This group of researchers
was called the 15. With critical variables in a research study held constant, different
A. Society for the Replication of Psychological Studies. methods used to estimate reliability will typically yield
B. Scientists for the Abolition of Irreproducible Results. A. virtually no differences in the magnitude of the estimate.
C. Open Science Collaboration. B. sizable differences in the magnitude of the estimate.
D. Coalition for Responsible Science. C. skewed estimates of reliability.
D. identical estimates of reliability.
5. In 2015, a report on attempted replications published in Science,
noted that, depending on the criteria used, ___ of the replications 16. Generally, diagnostic reliability is necessary. However, which of
found the same results as the original study. the following is NOT a reason that diagnostic reliability is necessary?
A. 0% A. It is necessary for accurate diagnosis.
B. 20 to 40% B. It is necessary for any double-blind study.
C. 40 to 60% C. It is necessary to determine the effectiveness of treatments.
D. 100% D. It is necessary to track changes in a disorder over time.
6. What has been called a "replicability crisis" in psychology emerged 17. Field trials of DSM-5 demonstrated a mean kappa that was
as a result of a number of factors. Which is not one of those factors? indicative of a ______ level of agreement among raters.
A. a general lack of published attempts to replicate research A. poor
B. editorial preferences for papers with positive findings B. fair
C. questionable research practices on the part of study authors C. good
D. unwillingness or inability of original study authors to share data D. "kinder and gentler"
7. Makel et al. (2012) observed that only about ____ of the published 18. Prior to research on inter-rater reliability for DSM-5, DSM inter-rater
literature replicated previous work. reliability estimates were obtained using the ____ method.
A. 1% A. test-retest
B. 3% B. paired-paragraph
C. 5% C. audio-recording
D. 7% D. one-way mirror
8. Replication of research by independent parties provides for 19. Prior to DSM-5, a problem with the primary method used to
A. confidence in study findings. estimate reliability of the DSM was that the method
B. confirmation that the study findings were not an anomaly. A. did not allow for truly independent judgments.
C. confidence that the study findings were not the result of the original B. resulted in overestimates of reliability.
experimenter's biases. C. artificially constrained information provided to clinicians.
D. All of these D. All of these
9. According to Chin, as cited in your textbook, a lack of replicability 20. In the test-retest method to estimate reliability
in psychology affects the work of A. the time frame between interviews must be relatively short.
A. the police. B. separate interviews are conducted by certified raters.
B. judges. C. a minimum of two re-tests are required.
C. court clerks. D. All of these
D. All of these
21. Which of the following terms is used in your textbook to describe
10. Which is an example of what is referred to as "QRP" in your the test-retest method of estimating diagnostic reliability?
textbook? A. methodologically sound
A. collecting additional data to reach statistical significance B. artificially constrained
B. over-reporting of data with excessive detail C. psychometrically balanced
C. telling subjects in a control group that they need not participate D. ecologically valid
D. requesting detailed data from the original study author
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22. In their study of the diagnostic reliability of DSM-IV diagnoses, 31. The term test heterogeneity BEST refers to the extent to which test
Chmielewsi et al. (2015) used the "gold standard" in diagnostic items measure
instruments. The tool they used was the A. different factors.
A. MAST-2. B. the same factor.
B. SCID I/P. C. a unifactorial trait.
C. SCI-5. D. a nonhomogeneous trait.
D. Semi-Structured Diagnostic Interview (SSDI).
32. The more homogeneous a test is, the
23. In classical test theory, an observed score on an ability test is A. less inter-item consistency it can be expected to have.
presumed to represent the testtaker's B. more utility the test has for measuring multifaceted variables.
A. true score. C. more inter-item consistency it can be expected to have.
B. true score less the variance. D. None of these
C. true score combined with extraneous factors.
D. the testtaker's true score and error. 33. Which would NOT be useful in estimating a test's inter-item
consistency?
24. In an illustrative scenario described in Chapter 5 of your text, a A. Cronbach's alpha
group of 12th grade "whiz kids" in math, newly arrived to the United B. the Kuder-Richardson formulas
States from China, perform poorly on a test of 12th grade math. C. the average proportional distance
According to the text, what probably accounted for this? D. a coefficient of equivalence
A. lower standards in China as compared to the US for measuring math
ability. 34. Cronbach's alpha is to similarity of scores on test items as average
B. higher standards in the US as compared to China for earning high proportional distance is to
grades. A. difference in scores on test items.
C. the ability of the Chinese students to read what was required in English. B. inter-item consistency.
D. the reliability of the instrument used to test 12th grade math skills. C. test-retest reliability.
D. parallel forms reliability.
25. Which is TRUE of measurement error?
A. Like error in general, measurement error may be random or systematic. 35. One of the problems associated with classical test theory has to
B. Unlike error in general, measurement error may be random or do with
systematic. A. the notion that there is a "true score" on a test has great intuitive appeal.
C. Measurement error is always random. B. the fact that CTT assumptions are often characterized as "weak."
D. Measurement error is always systematic. C. its assumptions concerning the equivalence of all items on a test.
D. its assumptions allow for its application in most situations.
26. This variety of error has also been referred to as "noise." It is
A. systematic error. 36. Which of the following is NOT an alternative to classical test theory
B. random error. cited in your text?
C. measurement error. A. generalizability theory
D. background error. B. representational theory
C. domain sampling theory
27. A Wall Street Securities firm that is actually located on Wall Street D. latent trait theory
is testing a group of candidates for their aptitude in finance and
business. As the testing begins, an unexpected "Occupy Wall Street" 37. Item response theory is to latent trait theory as observer reliability
sit-in takes place. From a psychometric perspective in the context of is to
this testing, the sit-in is viewed as A. generalizability theory.
A. systematic error. B. domain sampling theory.
B. random error. C. odd-even reliability.
C. test administration error. D. inter-scorer reliability.
D. background error.
38. The multiple-choice test items on this examination (yes, the one
28. A research study entails behavioral observation and rating of front that your taking right at this moment) are all examples of
desk clerks in the hospitality industry to determine whether or not they A. dichotomous test items.
greet guests with a smile. Which type of error is this test most B. latent trait test items.
susceptible to? C. polytomous test items.
A. test administration error D. None of these
B. test construction error
C. examiner-related error 39. A confidence interval is a range or band of test scores that
D. polling error A. has proven test-retest reliability.
B. is calculated using the standard error of the difference.
29. Error in the reporting of spousal abuse may result from C. is likely to contain the true score.
A. one partner simply forgets all of the details of the abuse. D. None of these
B. one partner misunderstands the instructions for reporting.
C. one partner is ashamed to report the abuse. 40. The standard error of measurement is
D. All of these A. used to infer how far an observed score is from the true score.
B. also known as the standard error of a score.
30. Stanley (1971) wrote that in classical test theory, a so-called "true C. is used in the context of classical test theory.
score" is "not the ultimate fact in the book of the recording angel." By D. All of these
this, Stanley meant that
A. it would be imprudent to trust in Divine influence when estimating 41. Reliability, in a broad statistical sense, is synonymous with
variance. A. consistently good.
B. the amount of test variance that is true relative to error may never be B. consistently bad.
known. C. consistency.
C. it is near impossible to separate fact from fiction with regard to "true D. validity.
scores."
D. All of these
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42. A reliability coefficient is 52. Which of the following is TRUE for estimates of alternate- and
A. an index. parallel-forms reliability?
B. a proportion of the total variance attributed to true variance. A. Two test administrations with the same group are required.
C. unaffected by a systematic source of error. B. Test scores may be affected by factors such as motivation, fatigue, or
D. All of these intervening events like practice, learning, or therapy.
C. Item sampling is a source of error variance.
43. Which of the following is true of systematic error? D. All of these
A. It significantly lowers the reliability of a measure.
B. It insignificantly lowers the reliability of a measure. 53. Which of the following is TRUE for parallel forms of a test?
C. It increases the reliability of a measure. A. The means of the observed scores are equal for the two forms.
D. It has no effect on the reliability of a measure. B. The variances of the estimated scores are equal for the two forms.
C. The means and variances of the observed scores are equal for the two
44. As the degree of reliability increases, the proportion of forms.
A. total variance attributed to true variance decreases. D. The means and variances of the estimated scores are equal for the two
B. total variance attributed to true variance increases. forms.
C. total variance attributed to error variance increases.
D. None of these 54. Which source of error variance affects parallel- or alternate-form
reliability estimates but does not affect test-retest estimates?
45. Why might ability test scores among testtakers most typically A. fatigue
vary? B. learning
A. because of the true ability of the testtaker C. practice
B. because of irrelevant, unwanted influences D. item sampling
C. Both because of the true ability of the testtaker and because of irrelevant,
unwanted influences 55. Which of the following types of reliability estimates is the most
D. None of these expensive due to the costs involved in test development?
A. test-retest
46. A source of error variance may take the form of B. parallel-form
A. item sampling. C. internal-consistency
B. testtakers' reactions to environment-related variables such as room D. Spearman's rho
temperature and lighting.
C. testtaker variables such as amount of sleep the night before a test, 56. What term refers to the degree of correlation between all the items
amount of anxiety, or drug effects. on a scale?
D. All of these A. inter-item homogeneity
B. inter-item consistency
47. Computer-scorable items have tended to eliminate error variance C. inter-item heterogeneity
due to D. parallel-form reliability
A. item sampling.
B. scorer differences. 57. Test-retest estimates of reliability are referred to as measures of
C. content sampling. ________, and split-half reliability estimates are referred to as
D. testtakers' reactions to environmental variables. measures of ________.
A. true scores; error scores
48. Which type of reliability estimate is obtained by correlating pairs B. internal consistency; stability
of scores from the same person (or people) on two different C. inter-scorer reliability; consistency
administrations of the same test? D. stability; internal consistency
A. a parallel-forms estimate
B. a split-half estimate 58. Which of the following is usually minimized when using split-half
C. a test-retest estimate estimates of reliability as compared with test-retest or
D. an au-paire estimate parallel/alternate-form estimates of reliability?
A. time and expense
49. Which type of reliability estimate would be appropriate only when B. reliability and validity
evaluating the reliability of a test that measures a trait that is presumed C. reliability only
to be relatively stable over time? D. time spent in scoring and interpretation
A. parallel-forms
B. alternate-forms 59. Which of the following factors may influence a split-half reliability
C. test-retest estimate?
D. split-half A. fatigue
B. anxiety
50. An estimate of test-retest reliability is often referred to as a C. item difficulty
coefficient of stability when the time interval between the test and D. All of these
retest is more than
A. 30 days. 60. Internal-consistency estimates of reliability are inappropriate for
B. 60 days. A. reading achievement tests.
C. 3 months. B. scholastic aptitude/intelligence tests.
D. 6 months. C. word processing tests based on speed.
D. tests purporting to measure a single personality trait.
51. Which of the following might lead to a decrease in test-retest
reliability? 61. The Spearman-Brown formula is used for
A. the passage of time between the two administrations of the test. A. correcting for one half of the test by estimating the reliability of the whole
B. coaching designed to increase test scores between the two test.
administrations of the test. B. determining how many additional items are needed to increase reliability
C. practice with similar test materials between the two administrations of the up to a certain level.
test. C. determining how many items can be eliminated without reducing
D. All of these reliability below a predetermined level.
D. All of these
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62. For a heterogeneous test, measures of internal-consistency 74. Coefficient alpha is an expression of
reliability will tend to be ________ compared with other methods of A. the mean of split-half correlations between odd- and even-numbered
estimating reliability. items.
A. higher C. very similar or higher B. the mean of split-half correlations between first- and second-half items.
B. lower D. more robust C. the mean of all possible split-half correlations.
D. the mean of the best or "alpha" level split-half correlations.
63. Typically, adding items to a test will have what effect on the test's
reliability? 75. A coefficient alpha over .9 may indicate that
A. Reliability will decrease. A. the items in the test are too dissimilar.
B. Reliability will increase. B. the test is not reliable.
C. Reliability will stay the same. C. the items in the test are redundant.
D. Reliability will first increase and then decrease. D. the test is biased against low-ability individuals.
64. Error variance for measures of inter-item consistency comes from 76. Which of the following statements is TRUE about coefficient
A. fatigue. C. a testtaker practice effect. alpha?
B. motivation. D. heterogeneity of the content. A. Kuder thought it to be single best measure of reliability.
B. It was first conceived by Alfalfa Alpha.
65. If items from a test are measuring the same trait, estimates of C. It is a characteristic of a particular set of scores, not of the test itself.
reliability yielded from split-half methods will typically be ________ as D. None of these
compared to estimates from KR-20.
A. higher C. similar 77. A synonym for inter-scorer reliability is
B. lower D. approximately the same A. inter-judge reliability
B. observer reliability
66. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to divide a test C. inter-rater reliability
when using the split-half reliability method? D. All of these
A. Randomly assign items to each half of the test.
B. Assign odd-numbered items to one half and even-numbered items to the 78. Which BEST conveys the meaning of an inter-scorer reliability
other half of the test. estimate of .90?
C. Assign the first-half of the items to one half of the test and the second A. Ninety percent of the scores obtained are reliable.
half of the items to the other half of the test. B. Ninety percent of the variance in the scores assigned by the scorers was
D. Assign easy items to one half of the test and difficult items to the other attributed to true differences and 10% to error.
half of the test. C. Ten percent of the variance in the scores assigned by the scorers was
attributed to true differences and 90% to error.
67. If items on a test are measuring very different traits, estimates of D. Ten percent of the test's items are in need of revision according to the
reliability yielded from split-half methods will typically be ________ as majority of the test's users.
compared with estimates from KR-20.
A. higher C. similar 79. When more than two scorers are used to determine inter-scorer
B. lower D. approximately the same reliability, the statistic of choice is
A. Pearson r.
68. KR-20 is the statistic of choice for tests with which types of items? B. Spearman's rho.
A. multiple-choice C. All of these C. KR-20.
B. true-false D. None of these D. coefficient alpha.
69. The KR-21 reliability estimate was developed 80. For determining the reliability of tests scored using nominal scales
A. to yield greater consistency in reliability coefficients. of measurement, the statistic of choice is
B. to facilitate computation by hand. A. Kendall's Tau.
C. for use with less homogeneous items. B. the Kappa statistic.
D. because Kuder wanted to "one-up" Richardson's 20. C. KR-20.
D. coefficient alpha.
70. Many assumptions must be met when using KR-21 to estimate
reliability. Which is NOT such an assumption? 81. If a test is homogeneous
A. Items should be dichotomous. A. it is functionally uniform throughout.
B. Items should be of equal difficulty. B. it will likely yield a high internal-consistency reliability estimate compared
C. Items should be homogeneous. with a test-retest reliability estimate.
D. Items should be scorable by computer. C. it would be reasonable to expect a high degree of internal consistency.
D. All of these
71. Which of the following is, generally speaking, the preferred
statistic for obtaining a measure of internal-consistency reliability? 82. Which type(s) of reliability estimates would be most appropriate
A. KR-20 C. Kendall's Tau for a measure of heart rate?
B. KR-21 D. coefficient alpha A. test-retest C. parallel form
B. alternate-form D. internist consistency
72. Coefficient alpha is appropriate to use with all of the following test
formats EXCEPT 83. If a time limit is long enough to allow test-takers to attempt all
A. multiple-choice. items, and if some items are so difficult that no test-taker is able to
B. true-false. obtain a perfect score, then the test is referred to as a ________ test.
C. short-answer for which partial credit is awarded. A. speed C. reliable
D. essay exam with no partial credit awarded. B. power D. valid
73. The "20" and "21" in KR-20 and KR-21 represent 84. Typically, speed tests
A. numbers held constant in the denominator. A. contain items of a uniform difficulty level.
B. numbers held constant in the numerator. B. are completed by fewer than 1% of all test-takers.
C. the order in which the formulas were created. C. have low validity coefficients.
D. the age of Fred Kuder's sons when the formulas were developed. D. yield high rates of false positives.
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85. Which type(s) of reliability estimates would be appropriate for a 95. The fact that the length of a test influences the size of the reliability
speed test? coefficient is based on which theory of measurement?
A. test-retest A. classical test theory (CTT)
B. alternate-form B. generalizability theory
C. split-half from two independent testing sessions C. domain sampling theory
D. All of these D. item response theory (IRT)
86. Which of the following would result in the LEAST appropriate 96. Which estimate of reliability is most consistent with the domain
estimate of reliability for a speed test? sampling theory?
A. test-retest A. test-retest
B. alternate-form B. alternate-form
C. split-half from a single administration of the test C. internal-consistency
D. split-half from two independent testing sessions D. interscorer
87. A Kuder-Richardson (KR) or split-half estimate of reliability for a 97. Classical reliability theory estimates the portion of a test score that
speed test would provide an estimate that is is attributed to ________, and domain sampling theory estimates
A. spuriously low. ________.
B. spuriously high. A. specific sources of variation; error
C. insignificant. B. error; specific sources of variation
D. equal to a test-retest method. C. the skills being measured; variation
D. the skills being measured; content knowledge
88. A measure of clerical speed is obtained by a test that has
respondents alphabetize index cards. The manual for this test cites a 98. Item response theory (IRT) focuses on the
split-half reliability coefficient for a single administration of the test of A. circumstances that inspired the development of the test.
.95. What might you conclude? B. test administration variables.
A. The test is highly reliable. C. individual items of a test.
B. The published reliability estimate is spuriously low and would have been D. "how and why" of the Interborough Rapid Transit line.
higher had another estimate been used.
C. The split-half estimate should not have been used in this instance. 99. Generalizability theory focuses on which of the following?
D. Clerical speed is too vague a construct to measure. A. the circumstances under which a test was developed
B. the circumstances under which a test is administered
89. The Spearman-Brown formula can be used for which types of C. the circumstances under which a test is interpreted
tests? D. All of these
A. speed and multiple-choice
B. true-false and multiple-choice 100. The standard deviation of a theoretically normal distribution of
C. speed, true-false, and multiple-choice test scores obtained by one person on equivalent tests is
D. road or driving tests A. the standard error of the difference between means.
B. the standard error of measurement.
90. An estimate of the reliability of a speed test is a measure of C. the standard deviation of the reliability coefficient.
A. the stability of the test. D. the variance.
B. the consistency of the response speed.
C. the homogeneity of the test items. 101. Which of the following is NOT a part of the formula for the
D. All of these standard error of measurement for a particular test?
A. the validity of the test
91. Use of the Spearman-Brown formula would be inappropriate to B. the reliability of the test
A. estimate the effect on reliability of shortening a test. C. the standard deviation of the group of test scores
B. determine the number of items needed in a test to obtain the desired D. Both the reliability of the test and the standard deviation of the group of
level of reliability. test scores
C. estimate the internal consistency of a speed test. 102. "Sixty-eight percent of the scores for a particular test fall
D. All of these between 58 and 61" is a statement regarding
A. the utility of a test.
92. Interpretations of criterion-referenced tests are typically made with B. the reliability of a test.
respect to C. the validity of a test.
A. the total number of items the examinee responded to. D. None of these
B. the material that the examinee evidenced mastery of.
C. a comparison of the examinee's performance with that of others who took 103. The standard error of measurement of a particular test of anxiety
the test. is 8. A student earns a score of 60. What is the confidence interval for
D. a formula that takes into account the total number of items for which no this test score at the 95% level?
response was scorable. A. 52-68
B. 40-68
93. Traditional measures of reliability are inappropriate for criterion- C. 44-76
referenced tests because variability D. 36-84
A. is maximized with criterion-referenced tests.
B. is minimized with criterion-referenced tests. 104. As the confidence interval increases, the range of scores into
C. is variable with criterion-referenced tests. which a single test score falls is likely to
D. cannot be determined with criterion-referenced tests. A. decrease.
B. increase.
94. If traditional measures of reliability are applied to a criterion- C. remain the same.
referenced test, the reliability estimate will likely be D. alternately decrease and increase.
A. spuriously low.
B. spuriously high. 105. As the reliability of a test increases, the standard error of
C. exactly zero. measurement
D. None of these A. increases.
B. decreases.
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C. remains the same. 115. If a device to measure blood pressure consistently overestimated
D. alternately increases, then decreases. every assessee's actual blood pressure by 10 units, which of the
following could reasonably be expected to be TRUE of the reliability
106. If the standard deviations of two tests are identical but the of this measuring device as the years passed?
reliability is lower for Test A as compared to Test B, then the standard A. It would increase.
error of measurement will be ________ for Test A as compared with B. It would decrease.
Test B. C. It would not be affected.
A. higher D. It would alternately decrease and increase.
B. lower
C. the same 116. In general, which of the following is TRUE of the relationship
D. hard to tell between the magnitude of the test-retest reliability estimate and the
length of the interval between test administrations?
107. Which statistic can help the test user determine how large a A. The longer the interval, the lower the reliability coefficient.
difference must exist for scores yielded from two different tests to be B. The longer the interval, the higher the reliability coefficient.
considered statistically different? C. The magnitude of the reliability coefficient is typically not affected by the
A. standard error of measurement between two scores length of the interval between test administrations.
B. standard error of the difference between two scores D. The magnitude of the reliability coefficient is always affected by the
C. observed variance minus error variance length of the interval between test administrations, but one cannot predict
D. standard error of the difference between two means how it is affected.
108. The standard error of the difference between two scores is larger 117. What is the difference between alternate forms and parallel forms
than the standard error of measurement for either score because the of a test?
standard error of the difference between the two scores is affected by A. Alternate forms do not necessarily yield test scores with equal means
A. the true score variance of each score. and variances.
B. the standard deviation of each score summed. B. Alternate forms are designed to be equivalent only with regard to level of
C. the measurement error inherent in both scores. difficulty.
D. All of these C. Alternate forms are different only with respect to how they are
administered.
109. A guidance counselor wishes to determine if a student scored D. There are no differences between alternate and parallel forms of a test.
higher on a mathematics test than on a reading test. What statistic(s)
would be MOST useful? 118. Coefficient alpha is the reliability estimate of choice for tests
A. the standard error of measurement for each test score A. with dichotomous items and binary scoring.
B. the standard error of the difference between two scores B. with homogeneous items.
C. the raw score on each test as well as the mean of each distribution C. that can be scored along a continuum of values.
D. the mean of each distribution and index of test difficulty for each test D. that contain heterogeneous item content and binary scoring.
110. The ________ in generalizability theory is analogous to the 119. In which type(s) of reliability estimates would test construction
reliability coefficient in classical test theory. NOT be a significant source of error variance?
A. universe coefficient A. test-retest
B. coefficient of generalizability B. alternate-form
C. universe score C. split-half
D. universal coefficient D. Kuder-Richardson
111. According to Cronbach et al.'s generalizability theory, "facets" 120. If the variance of either variable is restricted by the sampling
include procedures used, then the magnitude of the coefficient of reliability
A. the number of test items. will be
B. the amount of training the examiners received. A. lowered.
C. the purpose of administering the test. B. raised.
D. All of these C. unaffected.
D. affected only in tests with a true-false format.
112. The universe score in Cronbach et al.'s generalizability theory
analogous to the ________ in classical test theory. 121. For criterion-referenced tests, which of the following reliability
A. coefficient of generalizability estimates is recommended?
B. true score A. test-retest reliability estimates
C. standard deviation B. alternate-form reliability estimates
D. internal-consistency estimate C. split-half reliability estimates
D. None of these
113. In classical test theory, there exists only one true score. In
Cronbach generalizability theory, how many "true scores" exist? 122. Which of the following is TRUE of domain sampling theory?
A. one A. It supports the existence of a "true score" when measuring psychological
B. as many as the number of times the test is administered to the same constructs.
individual B. It can be used to argue against the existence of a "true score" when
C. many, depending on the number of different universes measuring psychological constructs.
D. None of these C. Neither Kuder nor Richardson found it to have any applied value.
D. All of these
114. The term coefficient of generalizability refers to
A. how generalizable scores obtained in one situation are to other 123. If a student received a score of 50 on a math test with a standard
situations. error of measurement of 3, which of the following statements would
B. test-retest reliability estimates with respect to different "universes." be TRUE of the "true score"?
C. split-half reliability estimates with respect to different "universes." A. In 68% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between
D. None of these 44 and 56.
B. In 68% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between
47 and 53.
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C. In 95% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between 132. A test of attention span has a reliability coefficient of .84. The
47 and 53. average score on the test is 10, with a standard deviation of 5.
D. In 95% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between Lawrence received a score of 64 on the test. We can be 95% sure that
44 and 56. Lawrence's "true" attention span score falls between
A. 63 and 65.
124. A psychologist administers a test and the test-taker scores a 52. B. 62 and 66.
If the cut-off score for eligibility for a particular program is 50, what C. 60 and 68.
index will best help the psychologist determine how much confidence D. 54 and 74.
to place in the test-taker's obtained score of 52?
A. the standard error of difference 133. By definition, estimates of reliability can range from _______.
B. the standard error of measurement A. -3.00 to +3.00
C. measures of central tendency: mean, median, or mode B. 1 to10
D. measures of variability such as the standard deviation C. 0 to 1
D. -1 to 1
125. Which of the following is TRUE of both the standard error of
measurement and the standard error of difference? 134. Using estimates of internal consistency, which of the following
A. Both provide confidence levels. tests would likely yield the highest reliability coefficients?
B. Both can be used to compute confidence intervals for short answer tests. A. a test of general intelligence
C. Both can be used to compare performance between two different tests. B. a test of achievement in a basic skill such as mathematics
D. Both are abbreviated by SEM. C. a test of reading comprehension
D. a test of vocational interest
126. The meaning of reliability in the psychometric sense differs from
the meaning of reliability in the "every day" use of that word in that 135. What type of reliability estimate is appropriate for use in a
A. reliability in the "every day sense" is usually "a good thing." comparison of "Form A" to "Form B" of a picture vocabulary test?
B. reliability in the psychometric sense is usually "a good thing." A. test-retest
C. reliability in the psychometric sense has greater implications. B. alternate-forms
D. None of these C. inter-rater
D. internal-consistency
127. A police officer administers a breathalyzer test to a suspected
drunk driver, does not put on his glasses to read the meter, and as a 136. What index of reliability would be BEST use to compare two
result, mistakenly records the blood alcohol level. This is the kind of evaluators' assessments of a group of job applicants?
mistake that is BEST associated with which type of reliability A. KR-20
estimates? B. coefficient alpha
A. test-retest C. the Kappa statistic
B. inter-scorer D. the Spearman-Brown correction
C. internal-consistency
D. situational 137. Which of the following is TRUE of the standard error of
measurement?
128. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the A. The larger the standard error of measurement, the better.
differences between a power test and a speed test? B. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to the standard
A. Power tests involve physical strength; speed tests do not. deviation (that is, when one goes up, the other goes down).
B. In a power test, the testtaker has time to complete all items; in a speed C. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to reliability (that
test, a specific time limit is imposed. is, when one goes up, the other goes down).
C. In a power test, a broad range of knowledge is assessed; in a speed test, D. A low standard error of measurement is indicative of low validity.
a narrower range of knowledge is assessed.
D. Both in a power test, the testtaker has time to complete all items; in a
speed test, a specific time limit is imposed and in a power test, a broad 138. What type of reliability estimate is obtained by correlating pairs
range of knowledge is assessed; in a speed test, a narrower range of of scores from the same person on two different administrations of
knowledge is assessed. the same test?
A. parallel-forms
129. The index that allows a test user to compare two people's scores B. split-half
on a specific test to determine if the true scores are likely to be C. interrater
different is D. test-retest
A. the standard error of the mean.
B. the standard error of the difference. 139. A test containing 100 items is revised by deleting 20 items. What
C. the standard deviation. might be expected to happen to the magnitude of the reliability
D. the correlation coefficient. estimate for that test?
A. It will be expected to increase.
130. Which type of reliability is directly affected by the heterogeneity B. It will be expected to decrease.
of a test? C. It will be expected to stay the same.
A. test-retest D. It cannot be determined based on the information provided.
B. inter-rater
C. internal-consistency 140. In the formula X = T + E, T refers to
D. alternate-forms or parallel-forms A. the true score.
B. the time factor.
131. Generalizability theory is most closely related to C. the average test score.
A. developing norms. D. test-retest reliability.
B. item analysis.
C. test reliability. 141. The greater the proportion of the total variance attributed to true
D. the way things are "in general." variance, the more ____________ the test.
A. scientific
B. variable
C. reliable
D. expensive
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142. A score earned by a testtaker on a psychological test may BEST B. ability to relate to the opposite sex.
be viewed as equal to C. unconscious motivation.
A. the raw score plus the observed score. D. more than one trait.
B. the error score.
C. the true score. 152. "Coefficient alpha 20" is a reference to
D. the true score plus error. A. a variant of the Kuder-Richardson KR-20 formula.
B. the 20th in a series of formulas developed by Cronbach.
143. Which is NOT a possible source of error variance? C. a 20th-century revision of a Galtonian expression.
A. test administration D. None of these
B. test scoring
C. test interpretation 153. With regard to a value found for coefficient alpha,
D. All are possible sources of error variance. A. "bigger is always better."
B. "smaller is always better."
144. A goal of a test developer is to C. "negative is best."
A. maximize error variance. D. None of these
B. minimize true variance.
C. maximize true variance. 154. Most reliability coefficients, regardless of the specific type of
D. minimize stress for testtakers. reliability they are measuring, range in value from
A. -1 to +1.
145. Which of the following is TRUE about systematic and B. 0 to 100.
unsystematic error in the assessment of physical and psychological C. 0 to 1.
abuse? D. negative infinity to positive infinity.
A. Few sources of unsystematic error exist, due to the nature of what is
being assessed. 155. All indices of reliability provide an index that is a characteristic of
B. Few sources of systematic error exist. a particular
C. Gender represents a source of systematic error. A. test.
D. None of these B. group of test scores.
C. trait.
146. In general, approximately what percentage of scores would be D. approach to measurement.
expected to fall within two standard deviations above or below the
standard error of measurement of the "true score" on a test? 156. The precise amount of error inherent in the reliability estimate
A. 85% published in a test manual will vary with
B. 90% A. the purchase price of the test (the more expensive, the less the error).
C. 95% B. the sample of test-takers from which the data were drawn.
D. 99% C. the population of test user actually using a published test.
D. All of these
147. Manuel earns a 90 on a standardized math test. The standard
error of measurement for this test is 5. Approximately 95% of the 157. Different types of reliability coefficients
scores fall between ______________. A. all reflect the same sources of error variance.
A. 85 and 95. B. may reflect different sources of error variance.
B. 80 and 100. C. never reflect the same source of error variance.
C. 80 and 100. D. reflect on error variance during leisure activities.
D. Cannot determine based on the information provided.
158. A test of infant development contains three scales: (1) Cognitive
148. In Chapter 5 of your textbook, you read of the writing surface on Ability, (2) Motor Development, and (3) Behavior Rating. Because
a school desk that was "riddled with heart carvings, the legacy of past these three scales are designed to measure different characteristics
years' students who felt compelled to express their eternal devotion (that is, they are not homogeneous), it would be inappropriate to
to someone now long forgotten." This imagery was designed to combine the three scales in calculating estimates of the test's
graphically illustrate sources of error variance during test A. alternate-forms reliability.
A. development. B. internal-consistency reliability.
B. administration. C. test-retest reliability.
C. scoring. D. interrater reliability.
D. interpretation.
159. The fact that young children develop rapidly and in "growth
149. In the Chapter 5 Meet an Assessment Professional feature, Dr. spurts" is a problem when it comes to the estimation which type of
Bryce B. Reeve noted the necessity for very brief questionnaires in his reliability for an infant development scale?
work due to the fact that many of his clients were: A. internal-consistency reliability
A. young children with very short attention spans. B. alternate-forms reliability
B. seriously ill and would find taking tests burdensome. C. test-retest reliability
C. visually impaired an unable to focus for an extended period of time. D. interrater reliability
D. All of these
160. In the language of psychological testing and assessment,
150. In the Chapter 5 Meet an Assessment Professional feature, Dr. reliability BEST refers to
Bryce B. Reeve cited an experience in which he learned that the A. how well a test measures what it was originally designed to measure.
"Excellent" response category on a test was best translated as B. the complete lack of any systematic error.
meaning ______ in Chinese? C. the proportion of total variance that can be attributed to true variance.
A. "super bad" D. whether or not a test publisher consistently publishes high quality
B. "superlative" instruments.
C. "bad"
D. None of these 161. Because of the unique problems in assessing very young
children, which of the following would be the BEST practice when
151. The items of a personality test are characterized as attempting to estimate the reliability of tests designed to measure
heterogeneous in nature. This tells us that the test measures cognitive and motor abilities in infants?
A. aspects of family history. A. Use relatively short test-retest intervals.
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B. Use relatively long test-retest intervals. 172. Which is TRUE about reliability in the psychometric sense?
C. Do not use the test-retest method for estimating reliability of the test. A. reliability is an all-or-none measurement
D. Use only inter-scorer reliability estimates. B. a test may be reliable in one context and unreliable in another
C. a reliability coefficient may not be derived for personality tests
162. If the variance of either variable in a correlational analysis is D. alternate forms reliability may not be derived for personality tests
restricted by the sampling procedure used, then the resulting
correlation coefficient tends to be 173. According to generalizability theory, a variable such as "number
A. higher. C. unaffected. of items in the test" is a description of one
B. lower. D. unstable. A. facet of the universe.
B. true element of the dominion.
163. If the variance of either variable in a correlational analysis is C. dominion in the domain.
inflated by the sampling procedure used, then the resulting correlation D. None of these
coefficient tends to be
A. higher C. unaffected. 174. In the term latent trait theory, "latent" is a synonym for
B. lower. D. unstable. A. invisible. C. undeveloped.
B. state. D. dormant.
164. The directions for scoring a particular motor ability test instruct
the examiner to "Give credit if the child holds his hands open most of 175. IRT is a term used to refer to
the time." Because what constitutes "most of the time" is not A. a model that has many parameters.
specifically defined, directions such as these could result in lowered B. a parameter that has many models.
reliability estimates for C. a family of models for data analysis.
A. test-retest reliability. C. inter-rater reliability. D. a dysfunctional family of models.
B. alternate-form reliability. D. parallel forms reliability.
176. A polytomous test item is a test item
165. A vice president (VP) of personnel employs a "Corporate A. that has multiple tomous's attached.
Screening Test" in the hiring process. For future testing purposes, the B. that may have more than one choice keyed correct.
VP maintains records of scores achieved by __________ as opposed C. that is exemplified by this test question.
to ___________ in order to avoid restriction-of-range effects. D. None of these
A. job applicants; hired employees 177. The Rasch model
B. hired employees; job applicants A. was developed by a Danish mathematician named Rasch.
C. successful employees; hired employees B. is an IRT model with specific assumptions about the underlying
D. successful employees; other corporate officers distribution.
C. was devised from generalizability theory.
D. Both was developed by a Danish mathematician named Rasch and is an
166. According to generalizability theory, a variable such as "number IRT model with specific assumptions about the underlying distribution.
of items in the test" is a description of one
A. facet of the universe. 178. Why isn't IRT used more by "mom-and-pop" test developers such
B. true element of the dominion. as classroom teachers?
C. dominion in the domain. A. most classroom teachers were trained in generalizability theory
D. None of these B. IRT has no application in classroom tests
C. applying IRT requires statistical sophistication
167. Advocates of generalizability theory prefer the use of which of the D. All of these
following terms as an alternative to the use of the term "reliability"?
A. generalizability C. regularity 179. Who are the primary users of IRT?
B. universality D. dependability A. classroom teachers
B. commercial test developers
168. Which is the BEST example of a dynamic characteristic? C. instructors at universities in Departments of Education
A. the stress level of a trapeze flyer at a circus D. life insurance actuaries
B. the intelligence of a college student during Spring Break
C. the anti-authority attitude of an inmate serving a life term 180. In the context of IRT, the term discrimination best refers to
D. None of these A. the degree to which an item differentiates people with respect to some
cultural variable.
169. As used in Chapter 5 of your text, the term inflation of variance is B. the utility of a test used in personnel selection.
synonymous with C. the degree to which internal consistency compares to selection precision.
A. restriction of variance. D. the degree to which an item differentiates people with respect to a trait
B. restriction of range. being measured.
C. inflation of range.
D. None of these 181. A dichotomous test item is one that
A. presents the testtaker with a dichotomy.
170. Test items with little discriminative ability prompt the test B. is frequently used in Common Core reading subtests.
developer to consider the possibility that C. is exemplified by a True/False item.
A. the content of the item does not match the construct measured by the D. All of these
other items in the scale.
B. the item is poorly worded and needs to be rewritten. 182. Latent trait models differ from classical test theory (CTT) in many
C. the item is too complex for the educational level of the population. key ways including the fact that
D. All of these A. in CTT, no assumptions are made about the frequency distribution of test
scores.
171. The fact that cultural factors may be operating to weaken an B. latent trait models do not presume that test items can carry with them
item's ability to discriminate between groups is evident from different "weight."
A. a general lack of reliability in culture-specific tests. C. latent trait models typically provide for follow-up studies to support the
B. latent trait theory. existence of the presumed trait.
C. Georg Rasch's unauthorized biography, You Can Never Be Too Rich or D. All of these
Too "Rasch."
D. None of these
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Chapter 06  Validity 10. To ensure the CUWQ had acceptable content validity, the items
would need to
1. Ecological validity refers to a judgement regarding how well a test A. adequately sample the variety of characteristics of worry.
measures what it purports to measure B. reflect content specified in Alfred E. Neuman's Elements of Worry.
A. but only in a specified environment. C. total no more than 20 for each of the two variables.
B. but only in a specified environment and within certain frequency limits. D. All of these.
C. at the time and place that the variable being measured is actually
emitted. 11. The initial version of the CUWQ contained __ items, and each of
D. All of these these items was checked to ensure that they were ____ and concise.
A. 80; relatively equal in difficulty
2. A study of the ecological validity of a test is likely to be conducted B. 40; unique
A. by a researcher interested in learning about behavior that occurs at a C. 80; unique
specific time and place. D. 40; relatively equal in difficulty
B. only during the season that the targeted behavior occurs if the targeted
behavior is seasonal in nature. 12. In the development of the CUWQ, after a review of the preliminary
C. in an environment which is similar to that in which the targeted behavior items, a total of ___ items remained in the final form of the test.
will typically occur. A. 40
D. All of these B. 18
C. 16
3. On Twitter, the tweets of die-hard fans of Justin Bieber after a Bieber D. 12
performance can be expected to reflect a ________ error.
A. leniency 13. In the development of the CUWQ, the test authors hypothesized
B. generosity that the tendency to worry _________ would be positively related to
C. both leniency and generosity trait-anxiety.
D. None of these A. excessively
B. frequently
4. Gonsalvez and Crowe (2014) concluded that psychotherapy C. constructively
supervisors' judgments of supervisees' competence is typically D. unconstructively
A. compromised by leniency errors.
B. compromised by severity errors. 14. In the development of the CUWQ, the test authors hypothesized
C. reasonably accurate given subsequent ratings. that the tendency to worry _________ would be negatively related to
D. unreliable in the light of subsequent ratings. one's tendency to be punctual.
A. excessively
5. To further improve raters' judgments of competency, Gonsalvez B. frequently
and Crowe (2014) recommended that C. constructively
A. at least three raters be used. D. unconstructively
B. specific competencies be evaluated.
C. all raters be certified as competent themselves. 15. In the development of the CUWQ, the subjects in one of the
D. All of these preliminary studies were
A. 98 Korean foreign exchange students studying at New York University.
6. Prior to the development of the CUWQ, research on worry had B. 398 convicted felons in the federal prison system.
shown that the act of worrying can lead to C. 698 residents of a South Florida trailer park during hurricane season.
A. positive outcomes. D. 998 Australian residents of wildfire-prone areas.
B. negative outcomes.
C. both positive outcomes and negative outcomes. 16. In the development of the CUWQ, which research tool was used to
D. None of these assist the test developers in selecting the final form of the test?
A. analysis of variance
7. A review of existing measures of individual differences in worry B. regression analysis
suggested to the authors of the CUWQ that none of the measures were C. critical incident analysis
made to distinguish people's tendency to worry D. factor analysis
A. about things with momentous versus trivial consequences.
B. about things coming up in the future versus things one had done in the 17. In the development of the CUWQ, the variable "amount of worry"
past. was quantified using
C. in an ideal-based versus a reality-based fashion. A. the Worry Domains Questionnaire.
D. constructively versus unconstructively. B. the Penn State Worry Questionnaire.
C. trained raters using a 5-point scale.
8. The reason the CUWQ was developed was D. both the Worry Domains Questionnaire and the Penn State Worry
A. knowing how and why someone is worrying has diagnostic and Questionnaire.
therapeutic value.
B. learning about the worrying life-cycle can help minimize or prevent it in 18. In their call for future research on the validity of the CUWQ, the
the future. developers of this test suggested that studies be conducted using
C. both knowing how and why someone is worrying has diagnostic and A. a population of pathological worriers.
therapeutic value and learning about the worrying life-cycle can help B. subjects from varied cultural backgrounds.
minimize or prevent it in the future. C. varied criteria to qualify subjects for participation in the research.
D. None of these D. All of these
9. The first step in developing the CUWQ was 19. Each of the three approaches to validity assessment in the
A. defining the construct to be measured. trinitarian model should BEST be thought of as
B. the creation of an item pool. A. mutually exclusive as evidence of a test's validity with any one source
C. identifying a subject pool of worriers. necessary and sufficient for demonstrating a test's validity.
D. None of these B. one type of evidence that, with others, contributes to a judgment
concerning the validity of a test.
C. insufficient, either by themselves or together with the other two, to
demonstrate the validity of a test.
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D. None of these 30. "How can group differences on cognitive ability tests be reduced
while retaining existing high levels of reliability and criterion-related
20. The validation of a test is a process validity?" According to Gottfredson, the answer to this question
A. that can be carried out by the test author. A. lies in the judicious application of affirmative action strategies.
B. that can be carried out by the test user. B. must be answered by measurement professionals for themselves.
C. of gathering evidence of the test's validity. C. must come from strategies designed to minimize adverse impact.
D. All of these D. will not come from measurement-related research.
21. Comedian Rodney Dangerfield was cited in the text to illustrate a 31. A test is considered valid when the test
point about how which of the following is viewed? A. measures what it purports to measure.
A. test validation B. measures whatever it is that it measures consistently.
B. content validity C. can be administered efficiently and cost-effectively.
C. face validity D. has little or no error associated with it.
D. construct validity
32. Which is NOT a method of evaluating the validity of a test?
22. "It's a measure of validity that arrived at by a comprehensive A. evaluating scores on the test as compared to scores obtained on other
analysis of how scores on the test relate to other test scores." This tests
statement is a reference to: B. evaluating the content of the test
A. face validity. C. evaluating the percentage of passing and failing grades on the test
B. content validity. D. evaluating test scores as they relate to predictions from a particular
C. the trinitarian index. theory
D. construct validity.
33. Predictive and concurrent validity can be subsumed under
23. Messick is to unitarian as __________ is to trinitarian. A. content validity.
A. Cronbach B. criterion-related validity.
B. Lawshe C. face validity.
C. Landy D. true score validity.
D. Dangerfield
34. Relating scores obtained on a test to other test scores or data from
24. In Chapter 6 of your text, Adam Shoemaker, the featured other assessment procedures is typically done in an effort to establish
professional in Meet an Assessment Professional, described the use the __________ validity of a test.
of a test with little criterion validity. Dr. Shoemaker recalled that this A. content-related
test was used for the purpose of B. criterion-related
A. gauging inter-item consistency of another test. C. face
B. gaining "buy-in" from the test users. D. about-face
C. providing a "job preview" of sorts to assessees.
D. hiring candidates for mid-level executive positions. 35. Face validity refers to
A. the most preferred method for determining validity.
25. Criterion-related validity is to predictive validity as criterion- B. another name for content validity.
related validity is to C. the appearance of relevancy of the test items.
A. construct validity. D. validity determined by means of face-to-face interviews.
B. content validity.
C. concurrent validity. 36. Face validity
D. test bias. A. may influence the way the testtaker approaches the situation.
B. relates more to what the test appears to measure than what the test may
26. Test blueprinting is applied in the design of actually measure.
A. an attitude test. C. is given short-shrift as compared to other indices of validity.
B. a personality test. D. All of these
C. an aptitude test.
D. All of these 37. Which assessment technique is the BEST example of a face valid
method?
27. In order to remain consistent with a test's blueprint, a test A. a personality test in which testtakers are asked to describe what they see
administered on a regular basis is likely to require in inkblots
A. item pool management. B. administering a word processing test to a person applying to be a word
B. base rate maintenance. processor
C. predictive validity certification. C. asking testtakers to draw a picture of their family to assess family
D. None of these relationships
D. measuring the height of applicants applying for a semi-pro basketball
28. An expectancy chart is team
A. a graphic representation of an expectancy table.
B. a table illustrating the incremental validity of a test. 38. In an undergraduate measurement course, an instructor
C. a pictorial image of a hit rate versus a miss rate. announces that the first examination will cover the topics of reliability
D. All of these and validity. One student in the class, Jamarr, publicly predicts that
only questions on reliability will be posed. As it turns out, true to
29. "The effect of instituting this remedy for adverse impact is to make Jamarr's prediction, all of the test questions are only on the topic of
equivalent all scores that fall within a particular range." Here, the reliability. Given this background, which of the following is the most
"remedy for adverse impact" is more technically referred to as reasonable conclusion that Jamarr's fellow students could draw?
A. within-group norming. A. The first examination lacked concurrent validity.
B. differential cut-offs. B. The first examination lacked content validity.
C. preference policies. C. The first examination lacked face validity.
D. banding. D. Jamarr should be consulted prior to the second examination.
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39. It has to do with the degree to which an additional predictor D. Both the magnitude of the reliability coefficient that will be considered
explains something about the criterion measure that is not explained significant at the .05 level and the magnitude of the validity coefficient that
by predictors already in use. It is will be considered significant at the .05 level.
A. the false positive rate.
B. evidence of construct validity. 48. Which is an example of a criterion?
C. predictive validity. A. achievement test scores
D. incremental validity. B. success in being able to repair a defective toaster
C. student ratings of teaching effectiveness
40. Before constructing a comprehensive final examination that D. All of these
covers everything you have studied since Day 1 of your course, your
instructor reviews the objectives of the course, the textbook, and all 49. Criterion contamination occurs when
lecture notes. Your instructor is clearly making a diligent effort to A. the criterion measure is influenced by the predictor measure.
maximize the __________ validity of the final examination. B. subjects talk to one another about the test.
A. content C. the characteristic being measured occurs with low frequency in the group
B. criterion-related being studied.
C. predictive D. All of these
D. internal consistency
50. Which BEST represents an unobtrusive measure of marital
41. If a test developer has only a "fuzzy" vision of the construct being adjustment?
measured, then A. the number of years a couple has been married
A. the content validity of the test is likely to suffer. B. self-ratings of marital satisfaction by each spouse
B. the construct validity of the test is likely to suffer. C. ratings of marital satisfaction made by trained observers
C. content irrelevant to the targeted construct may be measured. D. scores on a valid test of marital adjustment
D. All of these
51. According to the text, face validity may ultimately be more of an
42. A team of consumer psychologists is interested in conducting issue regarding __________ than ________.
research to test the palatability of Papa John's Pizza (PJP). A PJP A. social values; psychometric soundness
Palatability Test is developed on the basis of the opinions of a sample B. psychometric soundness; public relations
of death row prison inmates. These same inmates are then used to C. public relations; psychometric soundness
validate a paper-and-pencil "PJP Palatability Survey." What error has D. social values; public perception
been committed by the researchers?
A. The researchers used an inappropriate population to test. 52. An investigation of a test's construct validity may yield evidence
B. The test validation was invalid due to criterion contamination. that
C. Convergent evidence was confused with discriminant evidence. A. the test is measuring a single construct.
D. Serving the inmates PJP was a violation of a Constitutional prohibition B. the test does not correlate significantly with another test purporting to
against cruel and unusual punishment. measure the same construct.
C. test scores increase as a function of age.
43. A standard against which a test or test score is evaluated is known D. All of these
as
A. a facet. 53. What type of validity evidence BEST sheds light on how a shorter
B. a correlation coefficient. and less expensive test compares with a longer and more expensive
C. a validity coefficient. one?
D. a criterion. A. predictive criterion-related validity
B. concurrent criterion-related validity
44. Which of the following is BEST be viewed as varieties of criterion- C. content validity
related validity? D. construct validity
A. concurrent validity and face validity
B. content validity and predictive validity 54. What type of validity evidence BEST sheds light on whether a
C. concurrent validity and predictive validity college admissions test is valid for selecting students who will
D. concurrent validity and content validity complete the program within 4 years?
A. predictive criterion-related validity
45. The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the degree to B. concurrent criterion-related validity
which a test score is correlated with a criterion measure obtained at C. content validity
the same time that the test score was obtained is known as D. construct validity
A. predictive validity.
B. construct validity. 55. Blueprinting is BEST associated with
C. concurrent validity. A. construct validity.
D. content validity. B. content validity.
C. criterion-related validity.
46. The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the degree to D. architectural validity.
which a test score correlates with a criterion measure that was
obtained some time subsequent to the test score is known as 56. The magnitude of a validity coefficient may be affected by
A. predictive validity. A. attrition of the sample.
B. construct validity. B. restriction of range.
C. concurrent validity. C. inflation of range.
D. content validity. D. All of these
47. A key difference between concurrent and predictive validity has to 57. Which magnitude of validity coefficient is typically acceptable to
do with conclude that a test is valid?
A. the time frame during which data on the criterion measure is collected. A. 1.50
B. the magnitude of the reliability coefficient that will be considered B. 1.80
significant at the .05 level. C. above 1.90
C. the magnitude of the validity coefficient that will be considered significant D. None of these
at the .05 level.
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58. A coefficient of correlation is calculated between Henry's score on B. groups of people who differ with respect to the construct will obtain
a test of sociopathy and a clinician's rating of Henry on the variable of similar test scores.
sociopathy. This coefficient of correlation might also be referred to as C. groups of people who obtain similar scores will have similar personalities.
A. an index of reliability. D. None of these
B. an index of sociopathy.
C. a validity coefficient. 69. A significant, positive relationship exists between scores on a new
D. a content-related validity coefficient. test of intelligence and scores on the fourth edition of the Stanford-
Binet intelligence scale. These data may be viewed as supportive of
59. Employment test data suggests that an individual applicant is which type of validity evidence for the new test?
incapable of successfully performing a particular job. However, in A. criterion-related validity
reality, this individual would be very successful at the job. Such a B. content validity
scenario exemplifies what is meant by C. convergent evidence of construct validity
A. a base rate. D. discriminant evidence of construct validity
B. a false positive.
C. a false negative. 70. A statistically insignificant correlation exists between scores on a
D. a false expectancy. new test of depression and a well-established measure of satisfaction
with life. These data may be construed as which type of validity
60. Which is an example of a false positive? evidence with regard to the test of depression?
A. A test identifies a client as schizophrenic when the client is not. A. criterion-related validity
B. A test correctly identifies a client as schizophrenic. B. convergent evidence of construct validity
C. A test correctly identifies a client as not having schizophrenia. C. discriminant evidence of construct validity
D. A test indicates that a client is not schizophrenic when he is. D. None of these because there was an insignificant relationship.
61. If you were a psychologist working in the field of human resources, 71. The names attributed to different factor loadings in a factor
which claim for a new personnel selection test by a test publisher analysis are
would be MOST compelling and persuasive? A. dictated by the factors themselves.
A. The test identifies a large number of false positives. B. subject to change as new analyses occur.
B. The test improves the hit rate. C. thoroughly validated against dictionary definitions.
C. The test identifies a large base rate. D. typically dependent on the researcher's judgment.
D. The test improves the selection ratio.
72. In the context of test bias, a biased test
62. A construct is A. may be used fairly.
A. unobservable. B. may be used unfairly.
B. something that describes behavior. C. may be used either fairly or unfairly.
C. something that is assumed to exist. D. is only used by biased test users.
D. All of these
73. A test is considered to biased if
63. Which qualifies as a construct? A. 50% of the test-takers fail the test.
A. depression B. one group, such as males, consistently performs better than another
B. intelligence group, such as females.
C. mechanical aptitude C. a factor inherent in the test systematically prevents accurate
D. All of these measurement.
D. the test developer was found to harbor prejudice against some group.
64. All validity evidence can be interpreted as ________ validity.
A. content 74. Which is TRUE regarding a rating?
B. criterion-related A. It refers only to a numerical judgment that places a person or an attribute
C. predictive along a continuum.
D. construct B. It refers only to a verbal judgment that places a person or an attribute
along a continuum.
65. Evidence of the homogeneity of a test can be found in the C. It tends not to involve a judgment.
A. correlation between a test and some criterion. D. It refers to either a numerical or a verbal judgment that places a person
B. correlation between test items and total test scores. or an attribute along a continuum.
C. correlation between subtest scores and total scores.
D. Both correlation between test items and total test scores and correlation 75. Which term is used to refer to the tendency of a rater to evaluate
between subtest scores and total scores. ratees higher than they objectively deserve because of the rater's
inability to discriminate between aspects of the ratee's behavior?
66. Which statistic is appropriate for use to estimate the heterogeneity A. halo effect
of a test composed of multiple-choice items? B. random error
A. point-biserial correlation coefficient C. generosity error
B. Pearson-product moment correlation coefficient D. severity error
C. coefficient alpha
D. chi square 76. Rating errors
A. may be unintentional.
67. Test scores may be affected in pre- and post-testing by B. may be intentional.
A. therapy. C. may involve a tendency to be lenient in rating.
B. medication. D. All of these
C. education.
D. All of these 77. A supervisor unintentionally rates his supervisees less favorably
than they really deserve. Which type of error has been made?
68. If a test is a valid measure of a particular construct, we would A. unconscious error
expect that B. severity error
A. groups of people who differ with respect to the construct will obtain C. random error
different test scores. D. vocational error
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78. Which type of error has occurred when a music critic's review of B. Lawyers will urge assessors not to use this test.
Lady GaGa's latest album is more positive than most person on the C. impression management will be less of a factor in the test results.
planet believe was warranted? D. whether defendants are competent will be less of a factor in the test
A. fashion error results.
B. central tendency error
C. severity error 88. Which BEST describes the concept of validity as applied to tests?
D. halo effect A. It refers to how well a test measures what the test authors intend it to
measure.
79. A rater systematically assigns ratings in the middle range, thus B. It refers to whether the same results could have occurred by chance less
avoiding extremely positive and negative ratings. Which type of error than five times in a hundred.
BEST characterizes this rater's ratings? C. It refers to how well a specific sample performs on an administration of a
A. leniency error test.
B. central tendency error D. It refers to whether or not a test is administered under standardized
C. severity error conditions.
D. halo effect
89. A psychologist wants to determine the criterion-related validity of
80. Issues of "fairness" as applied to tests an intelligence test by determining how well it predicts a student's
A. are seldom discussed in the popular media. placement in a special class. If the psychologist used the intelligence
B. may be determined through mathematical procedures. test for both diagnosis and special class placement, that criterion
C. are generally agreed on. would be said to be
D. are rooted in moral and philosophical issues. A. irrelevant.
B. contaminated.
81. Quotas may be viewed as one type of remedy for C. invalid.
A. low reliability of selection tests. D. negatively skewed.
B. previously unfair practices.
C. low validity of selection tests. 90. A test developer compares a student's performance on a newly
D. All of these developed math achievement test to the same student's performance
on a well established math achievement test for the purpose of
82. Which of the following is TRUE of test bias as compared to test exploring the ________ validity of the new test.
fairness? A. content
A. Test bias is dependent on statistical analyses while test fairness relates B. concurrent, criterion-related
to values. C. predictive, criterion-related
B. Test bias is dependent on values while test fairness relates to statistical D. construct
analyses.
C. Whether a test is fair can be answered with certainty while whether a test 91. Comparing SAT scores earned in high school with the first
is biased cannot. semester college GPA of that same student is a process related to
D. None of these statements are true. establishing the ________ validity of the SAT.
A. content
83. Any definition of test fairness as used in a psychometric context B. concurrent criterion-related
would be likely to include reference to C. predictive criterion-related
A. the percent of items answered correctly by members of different groups. D. construct
B. the mean scores earned by various groups on a particular test.
C. the degree to which a test is used in an impartial, just and equitable way. 92. The results of a predictive validity study of a test will likely be
D. All of these affected most by
A. the characteristics of the sample tested, such as attrition and self-
84. If new predictors explain something about a predicted score that selection.
was not already explained by existing predictors, the new predictor B. the number of items on the test, with longer tests demonstrating higher
might be praised for its predictive validity.
A. test-retest reliability. C. the correlation coefficient chosen to measure the validity.
B. incremental validity. D. the administration time required for the test compared with that of the
C. construct validity. criterion test chosen.
D. face validity.
93. Which is an example of convergent evidence for the construct
85. In psychological testing and assessment, bias BEST refers to validity of a test measuring fear of cats?
A. random variation in test performance attributable to covert prejudice on A. a high correlation between the test and an existing validated test
the part of the test developer. measuring fear of cats
B. systematic variation in test performance that is unrelated to the construct B. a high correlation with an existing validated test measuring more-
that the test is intended to be measured. generalized fear
C. a test or testing practice that systematically favors the performance of C. a low correlation between the test and a test to measure fear of dogs
one group of testtakers over another. D. Both a high correlation between the test and an existing validated test
D. All of these measuring fear of cats and a high correlation with an existing validated test
measuring more-generalized fear
86. Which of the following is the BEST way to minimize test bias?
A. create separate norm groups for different groups so that any potential 94. In contrast to a trinitarian view of validity, a unitary view of validity
bias is reduced. takes into account
B. have a panel of experts review the test items at various stages during the A. two of the three elements of the trinitarian view.
test's development. B. none of the elements of the trinitarian view but a new model based on
C. pre-screen examiners to be used in the test administration for any signs consequences of test use.
of bias or prejudice. C. all three elements of the trinitarian view plus additional factors such as
D. employ the multitrait-multimethod matrix to screen items for bias. cultural values.
D. None of these
87. A new test designed to gauge competence to stand trial is found to lack
face validity. Which is the MOST likely consequence of this fact?
A. Judges will urge assessors to use this test.
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95. If a newly developed test designed to measure happiness 104. According to your textbook, factor analysis
correlates with other tests of happiness but not with tests of sadness, A. derives its name from the "factoring" of correlations.
this is referred to as __________________ and _________________ B. is a data reduction technique.
evidence of validity, respectively. C. will typically yield a publishable study for a researcher.
A. convergent; discriminant D. None of these
B. discriminant; convergent
C. homogeneous; concurrent 105. Using a test that measures a low base rate trait
D. concurrent; homogeneous A. will likely result in more correct than incorrect classifications.
B. will likely result in more incorrect than correct classifications.
96. Which is TRUE regarding the concept of test fairness? C. will result in an equal number of correct and incorrect classifications.
A. In contrast to bias, fairness is relatively easy to determine. D. will have results that cannot be determined based on the information
B. Fairness is usually determined statistically. presented.
C. Fairness often involves moral; ethical issues.
D. All of these 106. This Child Abuse Potential (CAP) Inventory boasts an accuracy
rate of approximately 90%. Properly interpreted, this means that
97. Which is TRUE regarding the adjustment of test scores as a A. 90% of the people who score high on the CAP physically abuse children.
function of group membership? B. 90% of the people who score low on the CAP do not physically abuse
A. It is illegal for purposes of making hiring or promotion decisions according children.
to the Civil Rights Act of 1991. C. in groups with a 50% base rate, 90% of those who abuse children are
B. It is viewed as helping guarantee the proportional representation of correctly identified.
various minority groups in the workplace. D. in groups with a 90% base rate, 50% of those who abuse children are
C. It is viewed as allowing the preferential treatment of certain groups. correctly identified.
D. All of these
107. If the rate of a particular disorder occurring in the population is
98. "Unequal levels of difficulty between two groups" characterizes low, what impact does this have on the classification of individuals
the definition of a biased test that would MOST probably be a quote based on the results of a psychological test?
from A. There will be no impact on the accuracy of the classification.
A. any random member of the general public. B. More individuals will be incorrectly classified as not having the disorder.
B. a court. C. More individuals will be incorrectly classified as having the disorder.
C. a psychometrician. D. The impact cannot be determined based on the information provided.
D. All of these
108. Each of the three approaches to validity assessment in the
99. Which of the following is NOT included in the traditional trinitarian model should BEST be thought of as
"trinitarian" conceptualization of validity? A. mutually exclusive as evidence of a test's validity with any one source
A. face validity necessary and sufficient for demonstrating a test's validity.
B. content validity B. one type of evidence that, with others, contributes to a judgment
C. construct validity concerning the validity of a test.
D. criterion-related validity C. insufficient, either by themselves or together with the other two, to
demonstrate the validity of a test.
100. A test reviewer comes to the conclusion that a certain test is "a D. None of these
valid test." This means that the reviewed test has been shown to be
valid for 109. In legal terminology, a valid contract is a contract that
A. a particular use with a particular population for the life of the test. A. measures what it purports to measure.
B. a particular use with a universal population of testtakers for a limited time. B. has been executed with the proper formalities.
C. universal use with all testtakers for the life of the test. C. is well grounded on principles of evidence.
D. a particular use with a particular population at a particular time. D. was designed with all of the needs of the parties.
101. Studies that indicate that Attention Deficit Disorder occurs in 110. As the term is applied to a test, validity is a judgment or estimate
approximately 2% of the population. Here, 2% is the __________ for of how well a test
the disorder. A. measures what it purports to measure.
A. hit rate B. measures what it purports to measure in a particular context.
B. base rate C. satisfies the deductions that could logically be made from inferences
C. miss rate about it.
D. sample D. a test result can be duplicated under the same or similar circumstances.
102. Which of the following is the BEST definition of hit rate?

A. the proportion of people the test correctly identifies as possessing a
particular trait, behavior, characteristic, or attribute
B. the proportion of people in the general population who possess the
C. the proportion of people the test incorrectly identifies as possessing a
D. the degree of validity of a particular test
103. The extent to which a particular factor contributes to a test score

is referred to as a
A. true score.
B. base rate.
C. factor loading.
D. hit rate.
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Chapter 07  Utility D. numbers alone.
1. In Chapter 7's Meet an Assessment Professional, you met Dr. 10. "Will the use of police-worn body cameras reduce use-of-force
Delphine Courvoisier, whose Ph.D. is in _______ and who works as a complaints?" According to the textbook, this question is a question
______. regarding
A. biometrics; research consultant A. reliability.
B. clinical psychology; counselor B. validity.
C. health psychology; psychometrician C. utility.
D. psychometrics; biostatistician D. None of these.
2. In a typical work day, Dr. Delphine Courvoisier might 11. In the Chapter 7 Everyday Psychometrics in your textbook, the
A. help out one team of researchers in conceptualizing initial hypotheses. vignettes at the beginning were used to illustrate the fact that the
B. assist a research team in selecting the most appropriate outcome police can do what they were trained to do and
measure. A. the result will be "win-win."
C. help a research team with data analysis or interpretation. B. the result will be "lose-lose."
D. All of these C. and no one ever has to get hurt.
D. error can still find its way into the situation.
3. According to Dr. Delphine Courvoisier, quality-of-life research for
patients with a chronic disease 12. The Ariel et al. (2015) study of police use of force was conducted
A. is best conducted at the time the disease is first diagnosed. using officers from the police department of
B. is best conducted one-year after onset of the disease. A. San Francisco, California.
C. is of limited applied value five years after the first diagnosis of the B. Rialto, California.
disease. C. Los Angeles, California.
D. may be conducted at different points in time through the course of the D. San Dimas, California.
disease.
13. In the Ariel et al. (2015) study, police officers were assigned to the
4. Which of the following tests was mentioned by name by Dr. Camera or No Camera condition
Delphine Courvoisier as an instrument that she uses in her daily A. by the commander on duty at the time.
work? B. using the Cambridge Randomizer.
A. SFQ C. on the basis of case history data.
B. HAQ D. None of these
C. OPQ-2
D. All of these 14. In the Ariel et al. (2015) study, the research protocol required
officers to
5. Dr. Delphine Courvoisier described her use of one test in health A. wear cameras only during Camera shifts.
outcome research and the proprietary "DAS" it yielded. What did she B. keep cameras on throughout their entire Camera shift.
mean by "DAS" in this context? C. issue verbal warnings during the Camera shifts to advise citizens
A. disease activity score confronted that the interaction was being videotaped by a camera attached
B. drug after-effect score to the officer's uniform.
C. disability adjustment score D. All of these
D. differential ability scaled score
15. The Ariel et al. (2015) study was conducted over the course of
6. According to Dr. Delphine Courvoisier, when a research project A. one year.
demands that subjects respond to a series of telephone calls, it would B. two years.
be instructive to understand how _______ affects the other variables C. three years.
in the study. D. four years.
A. anxiety
B. compliance 16. For the purposes of the Ariel et al. (2015) study, "use of force" was
C. intelligence coded as being present on any occasion that a police verbal
D. distraction confrontation with a citizen escalated to the point of
A. shouting back-and-forth.
7. According to Dr. Delphine Courvoisier, ecological momentary B. any physical contact.
assessment (EMA) is a tool of assessment that researchers can use C. the citizen being restrained by the officer.
to examine behaviors and subjective states in the settings in which D. shots fired.
they naturally occur, and at a frequency that can capture their
A. validity. 17. Ariel et al. (2015) found that police use-of-force rates were ______
B. volume. that in the No Camera shifts as compared to the Camera shifts.
C. variability. A. less than half
D. volatility. B. more than half
C. less than twice
8. According to Dr. Delphine Courvoisier, psychologists who raise D. more than twice
compelling research questions must understand that the road to
satisfactory answers is paved with psychometric essentials such as 18. Ariel et al. (2015) found that body cameras worn by police have
A. a sound research design. utility in reducing use-of-force incidents, as well as use-of-force
B. the use of appropriate measures. complaints by citizens. However, given the procedures used in their
C. accurate analysis and interpretation of findings. study, questions remain regarding whether changes in the
D. All of these. participants' behavior was more a function of the camera or
A. the police officer's verbal warning.
9. According to Dr. Delphine Courvoisier, contrary to what many may B. the ten directives in the experimental protocol.
hold as an intuitive truth, success in the world of psychometrics C. officers attempting to give citizens two or more chances to comply with
cannot be measured by commands.
A. a psychological test. D. All of these
B. zeroes in a bank statement.
C. publication citations.
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19. In Chapter 7 of your textbook, if the illustrative case of the man D. to evaluate whether maintaining a training program is better than not
who complained of leg pain while playing basketball was a story, the having one.
"moral" of the story is BEST captured by:
A. "Never play basketball, or other contact sport, if you are on the wrong 29. Thinking of the illustration of a utility analysis in the Close-up in
side of 30." Chapter 7, what type of error would have been made if a driver who
B. "The utility of playing the game must be weighed against that of not was hired was actually not qualified for the job?
playing." A. a false positive
C. "There are costs associated with testing, and costs associated with not B. a false negative
testing." C. a near outlier
D. "What goes up, eventually comes down." D. none of these
20. As used in utility analyses, the term cost refers to 30. A limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables is that
A. insurance payments. A. the relationship between the test and the rating of performance must be
B. mortgage payments. linear.
C. payments for test protocols. B. the relationship between the predictor and the criterion must be linear.
D. All of these C. criterion score difficulties in differentiating "successful" from "not
successful."
21. As noted by the Hansen et al. study cited in Chapter 7 of your text, D. All of these
the addition of two more x-ray views in addition to the conventional
two is advisable because 31. An index of utility can be distinguished from both an index of
A. it may make a more expensive procedure such as a CAT scan reliability and an index of validity in that an index of utility can tell us
unnecessary. something about
B. the additional radiation exposure was shown to be insignificant. A. how consistently a test measures what it measures in a particular
C. it may be helpful in diagnosing whether physical abuse has occurred. context.
D. the procedure can do "double duty" as a drug screening tool. B. whether a test measures what it purports to measure in a particular
context.
22. In industrial settings, there are many non-economic benefits to be C. the practical value of the information derived from what a test measures.
derived for the company that runs an effective testing program. Which D. None of these
of the following is NOT one such benefit?
A. increase in quality of workers' performance 32. Test validity
B. decrease in time to train workers A. has nothing whatever to do with test utility.
C. reduction of work turnover B. sets a ceiling on test reliability.
D. decrease in worker healthcare benefits C. sets a ceiling on test utility.
D. None of these
23. The selection policies of the admissions office of a university can
be instrumental in 33. Which is the BEST general statement regarding a self-report test
A. building a good reputation for the university. of integrity?
B. developing a good learning environment for students. A. It is a valid test.
C. building high morale for the university's faculty. B. It is a reliable test.
D. All of these C. It is not a psychometrically sound test.
D. It is a test of questionable utility.
24. The tools of assessment used to make clinical judgments
regarding the need for involuntary hospitalization 34. A group of testtakers all fail to follow the directions for taking a
A. benefit society at large. particular test. Which is TRUE?
B. may cause some to be unjustly denied their freedom. A. The test results could still have great utility.
C. include tests, case history data, and interviews. B. The test could still be psychometrically sound.
D. All of these C. The test results could still be valid.
D. The reason for this must have to do with the test and not the testtakers.
25. The textbook authors caution that in addition to formulas, tables,
and other formal methodologies, _____ must also be factored into any 35. High morale on a university campus can be ____________
utility analysis. resulting from a utility analysis of student selection procedures.
A. common sense A. an economic cost
B. physical property B. a non-economic cost
C. intellectual property C. an economic benefit
D. All of these D. a non-economic benefit
26. The textbook defines a utility analysis as 36. This is a tool that can be used to conduct a utility analysis. It is
A. a proprietary technique. A. expectancy tables.
B. a family of techniques. B. Taylor-Russell tables.
C. an exclusionary procedure. C. Naylor-Shine tables.
D. a multidisciplinary effort. D. All of these
27. A utility analysis of a test may BEST be thought of as 37. Generally speaking, the specific objective of a utility analysis will
A. a model for understanding the costs of producing the test. dictate what sort of information will be required, as well as the specific
B. a way of envisioning new uses for the test. A. methods to be used.
C. an evaluation of the costs and benefits of the test. B. expectancy tables to be used.
D. an amalgam of reliability and validity data on the test. C. Naylor-Shine tables to be used.
D. Rise-and-Shine tables to be used.
28. A utility analysis may be undertaken for many different purposes.
Which of the following reasons is LEAST LIKELY to be one of them? 38. The end-point of a utility analysis is typically an educated decision
A. to determine if one test is preferable to another test about
B. to determine if one method of intervention is preferable to another A. limits on monetary expenditures for a new test or testing program.
C. to evaluate the validity of a test publisher's claim B. which of many possible courses of action is optimal.
C. where to fix a cut point on a new test.
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D. how to structure an intervention so that it is most cost efficient. 47. The "Achilles heel" of the Angoff method is
A. incremental validity.
39. In the now classic utility analysis for the Bell system telephone B. test-retest reliability.
company conducted in the 1980s, Cascio and Ramos concluded that C. inter-rater reliability.
A. the use of a particular approach to assessment in selecting managers D. non-economic costs.
could save the company millions of dollars. 48. The television program Dancing With the Stars
B. the use of a new approach to assessment in selecting managers was of A. has a multiple hurdle selection model in place.
little utility and would cost millions of dollars. B. employs an absolute cut score for selection.
C. charging for 411 calls to "Information" could result in millions of dollars in C. uses the known groups method to validate results.
new revenue for the company. D. once encouraged William Angoff to compete.
D. customers would make more calls if they could understand their phone
bills. 49. The known groups method for setting cut scores is also known as
A. the method of contrasting groups.
40. If undertaken for the purpose of evaluating a particular B. an IRT-based method.
intervention, a utility analysis can be helpful in making decisions C. the method of discriminant analysis.
about whether D. the Angoff method.
A. one training program is preferable to another training program.
B. any intervention is better than no intervention. 50. A problem with using the known group method of setting cut
C. one tool of assessment is more practical than another. scores is that
D. All of these A. there is no consistent method of obtaining contrasting groups.
B. strong deterrents to test user acceptance of the data are in place.
41. When the purpose of a utility analysis is to answer some finance- C. no standards are in place for choosing contrasting groups.
related question with a dollars-and-cents answer, the utility analysis D. test users must be personally familiar with each member in the known
will most likely employ group.
A. the Cascio-Ramos formula.
B. the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula. 51. When a cut score is set based on norm-related considerations
C. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20. rather than on the relationship of test scores to a criterion, the cut
D. Taylor-Naylor Formula 1. score is referred to as
A. a relative cut score.
42. The Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula was developed by B. a fixed cut score.
A. the team of Brogden, Cronbach, and Gleser working together. C. an absolute cut score.
B. Brogden, Cronbach, and Gleser, each working independently. D. a referential cut score.
C. the work of Brogden and later, the work of Cronbach and Gleser.
D. the work of Cronbach, and later, the work of Brogden and Gleser. 52. Which is NOT an economic cost typically factored in a test utility
analysis?
43. The term multiple cut scores refers to A. legal costs of doing business
A. the use of two or more cut scores with reference to one predictor for the B. fees paid by testtakers for testing services
purpose of categorizing testtakers. C. computerized test processing services
B. the use of two or more cut scores with reference to a multi-stage D. cost of supplies of blank test protocols
evaluation process that employs several predictors.
C. Both the use of two or more cut scores with reference to one predictor 53. Which of the following is a direct economic cost that could result
for the purpose of categorizing testtakers and the use of two or more cut as a consequence of NOT evaluating personnel for employment
scores with reference to a multi-stage evaluation process that employs positions within a large corporation?
several predictors. A. the cost of public confidence in the corporation
D. None of these B. the cost of accounting services and other routine costs of doing business
C. the cost in terms of lowered morale for employees of the corporation
44. Multiple hurdles as used in a decision-making process regarding D. the cost of lawsuits against the corporation
a selection decision refers to
A. the use of two or more cut scores with reference to one predictor for the 54. A study that explored the utility of diagnostic X-rays in routine
purpose of categorizing testtakers. screening of children at risk for child abuse concluded that there was
B. the multiple stages each applicant must successfully complete in order most utility in
to get to the next stage in the evaluation process. A. a four-view series of X-rays.
C. the obstacles to success placed before each of the raters judging a B. a two-view series of X-rays.
competitive event. C. one X-ray combined with visual examination.
D. All of these D. visual examination only.
45. Decision theory is used to determine a test's utility for hiring 55. In the context of utility analysis, which is NOT a direct economic
employees who need to have high attention to detail to be successful benefit to a company?
on the job. In this context, to what does the term hit rate refer? A. increase in worker morale
A. the proportion of people the test accurately identified as having this B. less product being trashed as waste
characteristic C. increase in international sales
B. the proportion of people the test failed to identify as having this D. higher worker productivity
characteristic
C. the number of people the test incorrectly identified as having this 56. A potential non-economic benefit of a well-run evaluation program
characteristic is
D. the number of people having this characteristic that the test did not A. an increase in quality of workers' on-the-job performance.
identify B. a decrease in time it takes to train new workers.
C. a reduction in the number of workplace accidents.
46. The Angoff method of setting cutting scores relies heavily on D. All of these
A. data and empirical findings.
B. the judgment of experts. 57. Which is an example of a false negative in the context of employee
C. researching the scholarly literature. selection?
D. Both data and empirical findings and researching the scholarly literature. A. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the
employment test and then went on to fail on the job
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B. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the 66. The more complex the job,
employment test and then went on to succeed on the job A. the more people differ on how well they do it.
C. rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the B. the less complex the decision process in hiring.
employment test who would have never gone on to succeed on the job C. the less selective the hiring process.
D. rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the D. the more the need for item-mapping procedures.
employment test who would have succeeded on the job had they been hired
67. When setting a cut score on a predictor,
58. A hospital uses a compensatory model of selection in hiring A. the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser is usually used.
surgeons. In their hiring evaluations, ratings regarding past safety B. the utility of the test must first be quantitatively determined.
record is given more weight than ratings regarding the surgeon's C. the goal of selection must be taken into account.
"bedside manner." From this, one could reasonably conclude that the D. All of these
people who are in charge of hiring surgeons believe that:
A. bedside manner is not very important for surgical staff members. 68. When setting a cut score on a predictor, an objective is to attain
B. surgical safety is an art and a skill that is amenable to training. A. the highest false positive rate.
C. a safe, bedside manner is essential for all staff members. B. the lowest false negative rate.
D. bedside manner is more amenable to training than surgical safety. C. a moderate hit rate.
D. All of these
59. The term item-mapping refers to an IRT-based method of
A. setting cut scores that entails expert judgments based, in part, upon how 69. In Chapter 7 of your textbook, a pedagogical tool was presented to
culturally fair items are deemed to be. help you remember the implications of a low selection ratio. It was:
B. setting cut scores that entails the use of experts rearranging items placed A. "Selection ratio low, more employees to know."
on maps by level of difficulty. B. "Selection ratio high, watch workers wave good-bye."
C. setting cut scores that entails a histographic representation of test items. C. "Selection ratio down, less employees around."
D. test construction that was first used for a high school geography D. "Selection ratio low, long road to hoe."
achievement test.
70. In Chapter 7 of your textbook, a pedagogical tool was presented to
60. The term bookmark method refers to an IRT-based method help you remember the implications of a high selection ratio. It was:
A. of marking items with regard to difficulty in a book of items. A. "Selection ratio up, more coffee in your cup."
B. of setting cut scores based on expert judgment. B. "Selection ratio up, the bigger the cut."
C. with possible drawbacks such as floor or ceiling effects. C. "Selection ratio high, more employees say ‘Goodbye.'"
D. All of these D. "Selection ratio high, more employees say ‘Hi.'"
61. The term bookmark method refers to an IRT-based method 71. Using a cut score of 50 on a predictor test a researcher finds a base
A. of estimating item difficulty using Las Vegas style odds. rate of 1.00. This means that when a cut score of 50 is used,
B. of setting cut scores based on scholarly book reviews. A. 50% of applicants will perform successfully on a criterion measure.
C. derived by researchers on sabbatical in Monte Carlo. B. 100% of applicants will perform successfully on a criterion measure.
D. None of these C. 100% of applicants will fail on a criterion measure.
D. 50% of applicants will fail on a criterion measure.
62. A large corporation scrupulously avoids any possibility of
discrimination and adverse impact in its hiring practices. The 72. Offering permanent positions to only top-performing applicants is
selection procedure it probably has in place with regard to its entry- a strategy that can backfire because
level test is one that entails A. competing companies could offer these same applicants positions.
A. personnel selection based on a cut score. B. these applicants, once hired, might not stay.
B. a top-down selection policy based on test score. C. it may be discriminatory.
C. personnel interviews using translators, if necessary. D. All of these
D. None of these
73. Having a personnel selection policy in place that scrupulously
63. When the selection ratio for new personnel at a corporation goes seeks to avoid the hiring of unqualified personnel, even at the expense
down, of not hiring qualified personnel,
A. top-down selection policy can become discriminatory. A. is patently discriminatory.
B. hiring becomes less selective. B. usually has costs attached to it that tend to outweigh the benefits.
C. competition for the position is likely to increase. C. can be justified if the position is one of great responsibility.
D. Both top-down selection policy can become discriminatory and hiring D. usually has benefits attached to it that tend to outweigh the costs.
becomes less selective.
74. Validity is to ____________ as utility is to ____________.
64. When the selection ratio goes up, A. accuracy; consistency
A. the bookmark procedure has less validity. B. usefulness; consistency
B. hiring becomes less selective. C. usefulness; accuracy
C. hiring becomes more selective. D. accuracy; usefulness
D. hiring is unaffected by the selection ratio.
75. Consider an employment test that is highly accurate (about 98%
65. Which is an example of a false positive in the context of employee correct in classifications), but very costly (about $5,000 per test). For
selection? which of the following positions would use of the test be most
A. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the warranted?
employment test went on to fail on the job A. Translator for the United States Ambassador to the U.N.
B. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the B. Short-order cook for the President of the United States
employment test went on to succeed on the job C. Assistant buyer for Sam's Club
C. rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the D. All of these
employment test were rejected but would have gone on to succeed on the
job had they been given a chance 76. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of utility analysis?
D. rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the A. the value of people and their performance can be estimated.
employment test were rejected but went on to succeed at another, totally B. psychological tests are always preferred over other means of
different job assessment.
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C. the performance of people in organizations can affect organizational 86. If criterion-related validity is .40, and the base rate is .60, the false
viability. positive rate is likely to be highest if the selection ratio is:
D. large amounts of information can be integrated to make good decisions. A. .10.
B. .50.
77. An educational psychologist conducts a utility analysis of a C. .95.
teaching program used to improve the handwriting of very young D. This is impossible to answer based on the data provided.
children. The measure of utility in this analysis will MOST likely be a
variable related to 87. "An empirical standard used to divide a group of data into two or
A. an increase in performance level. more distinct categories" is a formal description of a
B. a decrease in the cost of the program. A. cut score.
C. a reduction in program-related accidents. B. predictive yield.
D. an increase in program-related revenue. C. norm-referenced test.
D. hit rate.
78. An instructor assigns a grade of "A" to all students who earn 900
or more points out of a total of 1000 points during the semester. In this 88. "Multiple predictors may be used so that applicants must meet or
case, 900 points is equal to exceed the cut score for each predictor before moving to the next
A. the cut score for an A. round of the selection process." This BEST describes which of the
B. the success rate. following processes?
C. the selection ratio. A. known-groups selection
D. the base rate of A-level students. B. top down selection
C. compensatory model of selection
79. The term used to describe the proportion of people in a population D. multiple hurdle selection
who are distinctive due to their exhibition of a particular trait is
A. success rate. C. target rate. 89. When minimum levels of several competencies are required, which
B. base rate. D. cut rate. of the following selection strategies is BEST?
A. compensatory selection
80. Over the last year, a personnel manager hired 20 new employees B. multiple hurdle with fixed cut scores
but only 12 of them performed successfully. Here, the base rate of C. the method of predictive yield
successful performance is D. norm-referenced cut scores
A. 0.375.
B. 0.625. 90. "It's a method of setting cut scores that relies heavily on
C. 0.600. judgments made by experts." Which of the following is BEST
D. 0.750. described by this statement?
A. the known groups method
81. What follows are the selection ratios from four different B. the Angoff method
undergraduate programs. Which of these reflects the most selective C. discriminant analysis
program? D. the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser method
A. 0.03
B. 0.50 91. Using the Angoff method as applied to personnel selection,
C. 0.99 ____________ are used to estimate the proportion of minimally
D. 1.00 competent people for the position of interest.
A. focus groups
82. In the context of utility, the hit rate is equivalent to B. known groups
A. the miss rate divided by the selection ratio. C. known experts
B. the base rate divided by the selection ratio. D. disinterested bystanders
C. the success rate divided by the base rate of successful performance.
D. the number of correct classifications divided by the total number of 92. _________ refers to a family of techniques that provides
classifications. information about the costs and benefits of testing.
A. Item response theory
83. Grethela scores very high on a graduate school admission test and B. Compensatory models of selection
is admitted to graduate school, largely on the basis of that test score. C. Utility analysis
But Grethela subsequently flunks out. In retrospect, Grethela's score D. Conjoint analysis
on the admission test is BEST viewed as a
A. false positive. C. true negative. 93. A method of utility analysis method that can yield utility
B. false negative. D. positive hit. information in either monetary or non-monetary terms is the:
A. Taylor-Russell tables.
84. Mahalia applies for a job at a company called "The Denver B. Naylor-Shine tables.
Recreational Marijuana Factory" (DRMF). DRMF routinely administers C. Expectancy tables.
a drug test to prospective employees to screen-out drug users. D. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula.
Despite the fact that Mahalia smokes marijuana almost daily, the
company's test report indicates that she is drug-free. Mahalia is hired. 94. In the context of utility considerations, a direct relationship exists
In this case, the BEST conclusion is that between a cut score and the
A. a false positive was reported. A. base rate.
B. a false negative was reported. B. selection ratio.
C. DRMF drug testing is only for appearances. C. utility of the test being evaluated.
D. the DRMF personnel director needs to be drug tested. D. Both base rate and selection ratio.
85. Which of the following is included in the calculation of a miss 95. Which of the following is synonymous with the term "utility" as
rate? used in Chapter 7 of your text?
A. false positives A. consistency
B. borderline negatives B. truthfulness
C. test utility index C. usefulness
D. All of these D. accuracy
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96. Costs associated with psychological or other testing typically C. Lynn scores in the top 1% of the population on a test of cognitive ability
include all of the following EXCEPT yet flunks out of college within the first year.
A. administrator time. D. Morgan does not get hired as a pharmacy technician after failing a
B. use of test facility. polygraph test and is arrested several months later for drug possession.
C. return on investment.
D. test administrator's time. 107. Which of the following methods of setting cut-scores is NOT data-
driven?
97. Which term BEST describes the ratio of the benefits of testing A. the known groups method
compared to the costs of testing? B. the method of discriminant analysis
A. incremental liquidity C. the Angoff method
B. assessment investment D. the decision-theoretic method
C. practical significance
D. return on investment 108. A Director of Human Resources is setting up a series of tests to
use to select applicants for sales positions. Inherent in the tests, and
98. If scores on a test are attributed with great utility, then it's MOST applied in the model of selection, is the Director's assumption that
probably the case that the scores are high sales ability can make up for limited product knowledge. The
A. reliable. model of selection being applied could BEST be characterized as
B. valid. A. a multiple hurdle model of selection.
C. Both reliable and valid. B. a compensatory model of selection.
D. None of these C. the method of predictive yield in action.
D. the method of contrasting group for selection.
99. __________ are used by organizations in order to assess the
savings associated with different decisions. 109. A problem with the use of the known groups method to set cut
A. Focus groups scores is
B. Discriminant analyses A. the two groups are always indistinguishable at a particular score.
C. Utility analyses B. low scores in one group that compensate for high scores in the other.
D. Taylor-Naylor-Fayva tables C. determining the minimally acceptable level of performance on the
criterion.
100. A test's ____________ rate is equal to the proportion of people a D. the lack of any guidelines or standards for choosing contrasting groups.
test accurately identifies as possessing or not possessing a particular
trait, behavior, characteristic, or attribute. 110. Which of the following researchers (or research teams) is BEST
A. miss associated with presenting utility information in financial terms?
B. base A. Naylor
C. hit B. Taylor & Russell
D. success C. Brogden, Cronbach, & Gleser
D. Goldman, Sachs, Morgan, & Stanley
101. Research suggests that approximately 25% of the U.S. population
are introverts. Accordingly, 25% best corresponds to the 111. In general, the ____________ the misclassification rate, the lower
A. base rate of introversion in the U.S. population. the ____________.
B. hit rate of identifying introversion on tests. A. lower; test's utility
C. success rate for classification of introverts. B. lower; base rate
D. None of these C. higher; test's utility
D. higher; base rate
102. With reference to the graph (below), what is the base rate?
A. 11/25 = 0.44 112. The Admissions Committee at Mount Mayhem Medical School is
B. 13/25 = 0.52 in the process selecting applicants. They use applicant's scores on
C. 15/25 = 0.60 the MCAT (the Medical College Admissions Test) to assess aptitude
D. 19/25 = 0.76 for a career in medicine, scores on an interview to assess
interpersonal skills, and college transcripts to assess past
103. With reference to the graph (below), what is the hit rate? performance. The Admissions Committee set minimum scores on
A. 14/17 = 0.82 each predictor rather than allowing high performance on one predictor
B. 14/30 = 0.47 to compensate for low performance on another predictor. How would
C. 17/30 = 0.57 you describe the selection model in place at Mount Mayhem?
D. 25/30 = 0.83 A. chaotic
B. multiple hurdle
104. With reference to this graph (below) what is the miss rate? C. compensatory
A. 3/10 = 0.30 D. known groups
B. 5/13 = 0.38
C. 5/18 = 0.28 113. Jennifer and Rafael happen to walk in to a large company at the
D. 10/18 = 0.56 same time to apply for an advertised position as an accounting clerk.
The Human Resource (HR) professional responsible for selecting the
105. With reference to the graph (below) what is the selection ratio? best candidate for the position orders an appropriate test of basic
A. 4/5 = 0.80 mathematical skills for each of these applicants. Based on their
B. 4/9 = 0.44 scores, the HR professional chooses Jennifer for the job. The reason
C. 5/20 = 0.25 for this choice is a determination that Jennifer has an 85% chance of
D. 9/20 = 0.45 performing at an acceptable level. By contrast, Rafael's score
indicated that he had only a 50% chance of performing successfully.
106. Which of the following vignettes BEST illustrates a false The tool of assessment used to make this hiring decision MOST
negative? probably was
A. Terry's MCAT scores are too low to be accepted to a U.S. medical school A. the method of predictive yield.
yet Terry goes on to win a Nobel Prize in medicine. B. a Taylor-Russell table.
B. Maurice scores at the top of his class on tests of speed, strength, and C. an expectancy table.
agility and is very successful as a starting player on a college basketball D. a test administered and scored by Rafael's ex.
team.
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114. The administrative office for a large newspaper wants to improve D. a test that is not high in validity may still improve accuracy in employee
accuracy of employees in the copy editing office. A short test of copy selection under some conditions.
editing knowledge is developed and given to 100 existing copy
editors. The current copy editors are divided into two groups: (a) those 122. Of the following list, which place would Taylor-Russell tables be
whose performance was rated as acceptable on the most recent MOST likely to be found?
performance review, and, (b) those whose performance was rated as A. mental hospitals.
unacceptable. Results are presented in graphed form (below). B. school guidance counselors' offices.
C. physicians' offices.
Based on this graph and the information in your text, what score should be D. personnel offices.
chosen as the cut score on the copy editing knowledge test in order to best
predict who will be an acceptable or unacceptable copy editor? 123. A municipal hospital employs various tests in the hiring of its
A. 4 staff. With regard to the hiring of a neurosurgeon and the hiring of a
B. 5 cafeteria worker, which is MOST likely to be TRUE?
C. 6 A. The cut-off score for the neurosurgeon would be set at a level to
D. 7 maximize false negatives as opposed to false positives.
B. The cut-off score for the cafeteria worker would be set to minimize false
115. Which of the following statements regarding cut scores is negatives as opposed to false positives.
FALSE? C. Cut-off scores for each position would be set to equalize false-positive
A. The setting of cut scores impact utility though the accuracy of decisions and false-negative errors for both positions.
made based on test scores. D. None of these
B. In multiple hurdle selection, there will be a cut score for each predictor
used in the selection process. 124. Your textbook listed many frequently raised questions related to
C. An instructor who assigns an "A" to the top 10% of students in a class is test utility. Which is NOT one of those questions?
using a fixed cut score. A. Is the time it takes to administer this test worth it?
D. Absolute cut scores are preferred when applicants must demonstrate a B. What is the practical value of using this test over another?
minimum level of competence. C. Is the cost of using this test worth the cost savings that may result?
D. Does this test measure what it purports to measure?
116. Taylor-Russell tables provide evidence of
A. content validity. 125. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects a test's utility?
B. criterion-related validity. A. the test's validity
C. split-half reliability. B. the test's publisher
D. one attempt to "outshine" Naylor-Shine. C. the cost of the test
D. the benefits of the test
117. Both Taylor-Russell and Naylor-Shine expectancy tables must
include which type of validity coefficient? 126. In comparing one test to another in terms of utility, test users will
A. concurrent criterion-related evaluate whether
B. predictive criterion-related A. no testing is better than testing.
C. construct-related B. one tool of assessment is preferable to another.
D. content-related C. one particular test is preferable to another.
D. All of these
118. A difference between the Naylor-Shine and Taylor-Russell
expectancy tables is that the 127. If undertaken for the purpose of evaluating a training program or
A. Taylor-Russell tables use concurrent validity coefficients; Naylor-Shine intervention, the utility analysis will help make decisions regarding
tables do not. whether
B. Naylor-Shine tables use predictive validity coefficients; Taylor-Russell A. one training program is preferable to another.
tables use concurrent validity coefficients. B. one method of intervention is preferable to another.
C. Naylor-Shine tables do not require that the criterion be dichotomized; the C. no training program is preferable to any training program.
Taylor-Russell tables do. D. All of these
D. Taylor-Russell tables are more useful than the Naylor-Shine tables for
judging the utility of tests.
128. The end point of a utility analysis is typically an educated
decision about which of many possible courses of action is
119. What is the selection ratio for a position that has 1,000 applicants A. optimal.
and 5 openings? B. the "hands down" best.
A. 50 C. the "hands down" worst.
B. 05 D. None of these
C. 005
D. None of these 129. In a now-classic utility analysis, Cascio and Ramos found that the
use of a particular approach to assessment for selecting managers by
120. What factor is perhaps most prominent in keeping decision the telephone company
theory from being widely used in employee hiring? A. was costing the company over two million dollars per year.
A. the validity of the measures typically used B. could save the company more than $13 million over four years.
B. the complexity of the process C. had to remain outdated because modernization was too costly.
C. the lack of demonstrated utility of decision theory D. None of these
D. the expense of the software that must be used
130. A new women's professional basketball team uses a composite
121. Based on experience using Taylor-Russell tables, a test user score on a series of tests to evaluate 100 prospective players. For the
would MOST likely conclude that 25 openings on the team, a process of top-down selection is used to
A. tests must have unquestionably high validity to be useful in employee award team positions. Accordingly,
selection. A. the least qualified player still may be hired.
B. tests must have unquestionably low validity to be rejected for use in B. the lowest scorer is in the first position to be hired.
employee selection. C. the highest scorer is in the first position to be hired.
C. a test with well-documented face validity is more valuable in the D. the tallest scorer is in the first position to be hired.
workplace than a test with well documented construct validity.
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Chapter 08 Test Development 11. Brotto and Yule reported that the development of their measure of
asexuality was developed in four stages. Which best characterizes
1. Human asexuality is generally defined as what they did during Stages 2 and 3?
A. the absence of sexual attraction to anything at all. A. analysis of variance
B. a sexual attraction only to other asexual people. B. regression analysis
C. an unwillingness or inability to experience sexual arousal. C. factor analysis
D. the absence of sexual attraction to anyone at all. D. meta-analysis
2. Estimates suggest that approximately __% of the population might 12. In the course of developing their asexuality measure, Brotto and
be asexual. Yule were able to identify about ____% of self-identified asexual
A. 1 individuals.
B. 2 A. 88
C. 3 B. 93
D. 4 C. 94
D. 97
3. The concept of asexuality was first introduced by
A. William Masters. 13. In order to determine whether their new measure of asexuality was
B. Alfred Kinsey. useful over and above already-available measures of sexual
C. Virginia Johnson. orientation, Brotto and Yule compared it to a previously established
D. William Masters and Virginia Johnson. measure of sexual orientation called the
A. Sexual Desire Inventory.
4. Asexuality B. Solitary Desire subscale of the Sexual Desire Inventory.
A. is a sexual orientation. C. Abernathy Measure of Sexual Orientation.
B. is not a sexual orientation. D. Klein Scale.
C. is considered by some to be a sexual orientation and by others not.
D. was de-listed as a sexual orientation in DSM-5. 14. Brotto and Yule established the discriminant validity of their
measure of asexuality by comparing scores on it with scores on
5. It is an online community of asexual individuals which has become A. the Childhood Trauma Questionnaire.
a source of recruitment of subjects for asexuality research. It is called B. the Short-Form Inventory of Interpersonal Problems-Circumplex scales.
the C. the Big-Five Inventory.
A. Asexuality and Visibility Education Network. D. All of these
B. Friends of Asexuality.
C. League of Asexual and Non-Sexual Individuals. 15. According to Brotto and Yule, their new measure of asexuality
D. American Society of Affiliated Individuals for Asexuality. performed satisfactorily on
A. a measure of incremental validity.
6. A disadvantage of recruiting asexual research subjects from a B. a measure of convergent validity.
single online community is that C. a measure of discriminant validity.
A. the persons belonging to the online community may constitute a unique D. All of these
group within the asexual population.
B. the persons belonging to the online community have already 16. Brotto and Yule expressed their belief that their new measure of
acknowledged their asexuality as an identity. asexuality
C. asexual individuals who do not belong to the community will be A. does not depend on one's self-identification as asexual.
systematically omitted. B. is not capable of identifying the individual who exhibits characteristics of
D. All of these. a lifelong lack of sexual attraction in the absence of personal distress.
C. should be used with caution as a tool of recruitment with members of the
7. In response to the need for an instrument to help identify individuals asexuality population.
who have experienced a lifelong lack of sexual attraction, but who D. All of these
have never heard the term "asexual," Yule et al. (2015) developed a
test called the 17. An analysis of a test's item may take many forms. Thinking of the
A. Asexuality Evaluation Schedule. descriptions cited in your text, which is NOT one of those forms?
B. Asexuality Identification Scale. A. item validity analysis
C. Asexual Research Subject Selector. B. item discrimination analysis
D. None of these C. item tryout analysis
D. item reliability analysis
8. Many asexual individuals refer to themselves as
A. "selfies". 18. As illustrated in the sample item-characteristic curve published in
B. "ace". your textbook, the vertical axis on the graph lists the
C. "lone rangers". A. values of the score on the test ranging from 0 to 100.
D. "gender-neutral". B. values of the characteristic of the items on a scale of 1 to 10.
C. heteroscedasity of the item curve in values ranging from 0 to infinity.
9. The test of asexuality developed by Yule et al. (2015) contains ___ D. probability of correct response in values ranging from 0 to 1.
items.
A. 12 19. Which statement is TRUE regarding test development and
B. 18 testtaker guessing?
C. 36 A. Methods have been designed to detect guessing.
D. 48 B. Methods have been designed to statistically correct for guessing.
C. Methods have been designed to minimize the effects of guessing.
10. Brotto and Yule reported that the development of their measure of D. All of these
asexuality was developed in four stages. Which best characterizes
Stage 1? 20. Item banks
A. literature search for definitions of asexuality A. were once a profit center for the Wells Fargo Company.
B. development of open-ended questions B. originated as a result of investments made by Morgan-Stanley.
C. literature search for correlates of asexuality C. originated as a result of investments made by Morgan Freeman.
D. writing and submission of a research grant request D. None of these
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21. An item bank is 30. Test items that contain alternatives with five points ranging from
A. a computerized system whereby test items "pay dividends" only when "strongly agree" to "strongly disagree" are characterized as using this
used. approach to scaling:
B. the optimum combination of reliability and validity in an item. A. Guttman scaling.
C. a set of items from which a test can be constructed. B. Likert scaling.
D. a statistical "IRA" for data relating to high and low scorers on a test. C. Nielson scaling.
D. Opinion scaling.
22. Item branching refers to
A. administering certain test items on a test depending on the testtakers' 31. Ideally, the first draft of a test should include at least how many
responses to previous test items. items as compared with the final version of the test?
B. the creation of alternate and parallel forms of tests based on a group of A. about twice the number of the final version
testtakers' responses to the original test. B. about half the number of the final version
C. statistical efforts to ensure that items translated into foreign languages C. about three times the number of the final version
are of the same difficulty. D. roughly the same number as the final version
D. re-using items in an original test that were originally developed for use in
a parallel test. 32. The elements of a multiple-choice item include
A. a stem.
23. An anchor protocol is B. a distractor.
A. a previously developed test with known validity that can be used as a C. a foil.
comparison for newly developed tests. D. All of these
B. a statistical procedure in which weights are assigned to each item of a
model test to maximize predictive validity. 33. Which is an example of the selected-response item format?
C. a list of guidelines for a standardized test used to ensure that all A. a multiple-choice item
testtakers are similar in key ways to the population of the original B. a fill-in-the-blank item
standardization sample. C. Both a multiple-choice item and a fill-in-the-blank item
D. a model for scoring and a mechanism for resolving scoring D. None of these
discrepancies.
34. A well-written true-false item
24. Scoring drift refers to A. includes multiple ideas.
A. the tendency of scorers to give higher scores to testtakers with certain B. has a correct response that is either true or false, and not subject to
characteristics (such as age and gender) that is similar to themselves. debate.
B. differences between the typical scoring of an item during standardization C. typically contains irrelevant information as a distracter.
and subsequent, more authoritative scoring of an item. D. Both includes multiple ideas and has a correct response that is either
C. a gradual decline in inter-scorer reliability after 95% of the examinations true or false, and not subject to debate.
have been scored due to scorer fatigue.
D. a flexible method of scoring test items for populations other than that of 35. Multiple-choice items draw primarily on which testtaker ability?
the standardization sample. A. recognition.
B. organization.
25. Item analysis is conducted to evaluate C. planning.
A. item reliability. D. perceptual-motor skills.
B. item validity.
C. item difficulty. 36. An example of a selected-response type of item is
D. All of these A. a multiple-choice item.
B. an essay item.
26. The idea for a new test may come from C. a matching item.
A. social need. D. Both a multiple-choice item and a matching item.
B. review of the available literature.
C. common sense appeal. 37. With regard to the test tryout phase of test development,
D. All of these A. test conditions should be as similar to the actual administration as
possible.
27. According to the text, which statement is TRUE of scaling? B. at least 500 subjects should be included to ensure accurate results.
A. There is only one best approach to scaling and only one best type of C. the sample used must be nationally representative.
scale. D. All of these
B. Ratio scaling leads to the least scoring drift.
C. Ratio scaling was first developed in the Republic of Samoa. 38. According to your textbook, the minimum sample for a test tryout
D. None of these is
A. one-half of the number of testtakers in the standardization sample.
28. Guttman scales B. 25 testtakers.
A. are typically used with nominal categories. C. 50 testtakers.
B. typically are constructed so that agreement with one statement may D. 500 testtakers.
predict agreement with another statement.
C. typically are constructed so that agreement with one statement should 39. An ADVANTAGE of applying item response theory (IRT) in test
not be correlated with agreement with any other statement. development is that
D. were originally developed by a Peace Corps task force. A. the principles underlying IRT make its application easy and appealing.
B. sample sizes used to test the utility of test items can be relatively small.
29. Sorting techniques can be employed to develop C. assumptions underlying IRT usage are weak.
A. nominal scales. D. item statistics are independent of the samples administered the test.
B. ordinal scales.
C. interval scales. 40. If 100 people take a test and 20 of those testtakers answer a
D. All of these particular item correctly, then the p value of the item is
A. .25.
B. .20.
C. .40.
D. .04.
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41. Which statement best describes the relationship between item B. medium scorers' performances with low and high scorers' performances
difficulty and a "good" item? on a particular item.
A. The difficulty level is not a factor in determining a "good" item. C. low scorers' performances with lower scorers' performances on a
B. An item with a high difficulty level is likely to be "good." particular item.
C. An item with a mid-range difficulty level is likely to be "good." D. one group of scorers' performances on the item with any other groups of
D. An item with a low difficulty level is likely to be "good." scorers' performances on the same item.
42. An item-difficulty index can range from 53. Which statement is TRUE regarding an item-discrimination index?
A. 0 to 1. A. It has been used by e-Harmony.com and other dating sites for
B. .10 to .99. matchmaking.
C. .25 to .75. B. There is more than one formula for calculating an item-discrimination
D. 0 to 100. index.
C. Tetrachoric correlation is most frequently used in any formula for an item-
43. An item-difficulty index of 1 occurs when discrimination index.
A. all examinees answer the item incorrectly. D. All of these.
B. all examinees answer the item correctly.
C. examinees are evenly divided between correct and incorrect responses. 54. As a distribution of scores gets flatter, what happens to the optimal
D. None of these boundary line for determining higher- and lower-scoring groups for
item-discrimination indices?
44. The higher the item-difficulty index, the ________ the item. A. the optimal boundary line gets smaller
A. easier B. the optimal boundary line gets larger
B. harder C. the optimal boundary line does not change
C. more robust D. the optimal boundary line ceases to be optimal
D. less robust
55. The greater the magnitude of the item-discrimination index, the
45. An item-endorsement index is most likely to be used in which type more testtakers in the higher-scoring group answered the item
of test? correctly, as compared to testtakers
A. a cognitive test A. who served as the non-test-taking control group.
B. an achievement test B. in the lower-scoring group.
C. a vocational aptitude test C. who participated in the test standardization.
D. a personality test D. None of these
46. In item analysis, the term item endorsement refers to the percent 56. Item-discrimination indexes can range from
of testtakers who A. .001 to 1.00.
A. responded correctly to a particular item. B. -1 to +1.
B. indicate that they agree with a particular item. C. 0% to 100%.
C. passed the item on a pass/fail test of ability. D. 1 to 100.
D. consented to answer an optional item.
57. A negative item-discrimination index results for a particular item
47. The item-validity index is key in determining when
A. construct validity. A. more high scorers than low scorers on a test get the item correct.
B. criterion-related validity. B. more low scorers than high scorers on a test get the item correct.
C. content validity. C. an item is found to be biased and unfair.
D. All of these D. most testtakers do not enter the response keyed correct for the particular
item.
48. It is needed to calculate the item-validity index. It is
A. the point-biserial correlation between the item score and the criterion 58. What is the value of the item-discrimination index for an item that
score. all the students in the higher-scoring group answered correctly but
B. the mean of the item-score distribution. that no one in the lower-scoring group answered correctly?
C. the item-score standard deviation. A. -1
D. All of these B. +1
C. .50
49. An item-reliability index provides a measure of a test's D. .25
A. test-retest reliability.
B. internal consistency. 59. What is the value of the item-discrimination index for an item
C. stability. answered correctly by an equal number of students in the higher- and
D. All of these lower-scoring groups?
A. -1
50. To calculate an item-reliability index, one must have previously B. +1
calculated C. .50
A. the correlation between the item score and the criterion. D. 0
B. the correlation between the item score and the total score.
C. the item-score standard deviation. 60. An item-characteristic curve includes all of the following EXCEPT
D. All of these A. information that can be used to judge item bias.
B. information that can be used to judge item fairness.
51. What is the optimal item-difficulty level for a true-false item? C. item-discrimination information.
A. .500 D. item-difficulty information.
B. .625
C. .755
D. 1.000 61. The best type of item yields an item-characteristic curve that
A. has a positive slope.
52. An item-discrimination index typically compares B. has a negative slope.
A. high scorers' performances with low scorers' performances on a C. is leptokurtic.
particular item. D. has few, if any, outliers.
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62. Which is TRUE with regard to latent-trait models? 73. Co-validation is:
A. The latent trait is multidimensional. A. highly recommended and encouraged by test professionals.
B. The latent trait is unidimensional. B. also referred to as co-norming.
C. The latent trait cannot be measured by traditional models. C. a strategy that can save time and money for the test publisher.
D. The latent trait surfaces before age 12. D. Both also referred to as co-norming and a strategy that can save time
and money for the test publisher.
63. Which statement is TRUE of guessing?
A. It occurs more often on achievement than personality tests. 74. During the norming of a new intelligence test, a test publisher
B. It posts methodological problems for the testtaker. administers to all of the testtakers not only the new intelligence test,
C. Most testtakers guess based on little knowledge of the subject matter. but a vision test using an eye chart. The publisher has engaged in
D. It poses methodological problems for the test developer. A. test conceptualization.
B. cross-validation.
64. Which is TRUE of item-characteristic curves? C. shared validation.
A. They determine which items are fair. D. None of these
B. They may be used as an aid in assessing whether or not items are
biased. 75. Which is TRUE of cross-validation of a test after standardization
C. They determine which items are most reliable under specified conditions. has occurred?
D. They may be used as an aid in determining the kurtosis of a distribution A. Cross-validation creates confusion regarding the meaning of the original
of test scores. standardization data.
B. The cross-validation sample is composed of the same testtakers that
65. All of the following are methods of evaluating item bias EXCEPT participated in the original test standardization.
A. noting differences between the item-characteristic curves. C. Cross-validation often results in validity shrinkage.
B. noting differences in the item-difficulty levels. D. All of these
C. noting differences in item-discrimination indexes.
D. noting differences in validity shrinkage. 76. The term used to describe the decrease in item validities that
typically occurs during cross-validation is
66. In general, what can be said about an item analysis of a speeded A. validity detriment.
test? B. validity decrement.
A. Results are often misleading and difficult to interpret. C. validity shrinkage.
B. Item-difficulty levels are higher toward the end of the test. D. cross-validation devaluation.
C. Item-discrimination levels are higher for later items.
D. All of these 77. A test manual for a commercially prepared test should ideally
include
67. Generous time limits are typically associated with A. a description of the test development procedures used.
A. speeded conditions. B. test-retest reliability data.
B. power conditions. C. internal-consistency reliability data.
C. untimed conditions. D. All of these
D. hazardous conditions.
78. A student raises concern that a professor has given different
68. Ability tests are typically standardized on a sample that is grades to two essay answers that are very similar. From a
representative of the general population and selected on the basis of psychometric perspective, the student is expressing concerns about
variables such as A. criterion-related validity.
A. age. B. rater error.
B. gender. C. test-retest reliability.
C. geographic region. D. parallel forms reliability.
D. All of these
79. A student complains that a midterm examination did not include
69. Ideally, psychological or educational tests are revised items from a particular in-class lecture. From a psychometric
A. every decade. perspective, the students is expressing concern about the midterm's
B. when the test is no longer useful. A. test-retest reliability.
C. as a function of annual test sales. B. internal consistency reliability.
D. None of these C. content validity.
D. cross-validation.
70. Which of the following conditions may lead to the decision to
revise a psychological or educational test? 80. A student makes the following complaint after taking an exam: "I
A. item content, including the vocabulary used in instructions and pictures, spent all night studying Chapter 7 and there wasn't even one test
has become dated question from that chapter!" From a psychometric perspective, this
B. test norms no longer represent the population for which the test is student is concerned about the exam's
designed A. error variance.
C. reliability and validity of a test can be improved by a revision B. test-retest reliability.
D. All of these C. rater error.
D. None of these
71. As part of the test development process, a test revision may entail
A. re-wording, deletion, or development of new items. 81. A professor who asks a colleague to re-grade a set of essay
B. development of a new edition of a test. questions is most likely trying to address or prevent concerns about:
C. the reprinting of a test. A. rater error.
D. Both re-wording, deletion, or development of new items and B. validity shrinkage.
development of a new edition of a test. C. criterion-related validity.
D. test-retest reliability.
72. With regard to the test revision process, it typically
A. takes about one year to complete. 82. Most classroom tests developed by instructors for use in their own
B. includes all of the steps that the initial test development included. classroom are
C. is much less expensive than the original development of a test. A. subjected to formal procedures of psychometric evaluation.
D. All of these B. only evaluated formally for content validity.
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C. evaluated informally for their psychometric properties. 92. Which is a major difference between multiple-choice questions
D. used without modification, year after year, until retirement or death. and essay questions?
A. Essay questions involve primarily recognition, while multiple-choice
83. Who is best associated with the development of the scaling questions involve logical reasoning.
methodology? B. Essay questions are scored more objectively because the examiner is
A. Galton provided with more information from the examinee.
B. Cohen C. Essay questions can test a wider range of material.
C. Spearman D. Essay questions allow for more creativity to be expressed by the
D. Thurstone examinee.
84. Which scaling method entails a process by which measures of 93. An advantage of using a true-false item format over a multiple-
item difficulty are obtained from samples of testtakers who vary in choice item format in a teacher-made test designed for classroom use
ability? is
A. difficulty scaling A. true-false items are applicable to a wider range of subject areas.
B. absolute scaling B. true-false items are easier to write.
C. content scaling C. true-false items reduce the odds of a correct answer as the result of
D. sample-contingent scaling guessing.
D. true-false items will never become dated.
85. The Likert scale is an example of which type of rating scale?
A. categorical 94. In a cumulative model of scoring applied to an ability test
B. paired methods A. the higher the total score, the higher the testtaker is on the ability
C. summative measured by the test.
D. content B. the pattern of responses is critically important when judging the ability of
the testtaker.
86. Which is NOT a typical question that is raised and answered during C. comparisons of the testtaker's performance on tests tapping similar
the test conceptualization stage of test development? abilities may easily be made.
A. What is the objective of the test? D. All of these
B. Is there a need for the test?
C. How valid are the items on the test? 95. In ipsative scoring, a testtaker's scores are compared to
D. What types of responses will be required of the testtaker? A. the scores of other testtakers from the same geographic area who are
similar with regard to key demographic variables.
87. Which is a major difference between comparative scaling and B. his or her other scores on the same test.
categorical scaling? C. the scores of other testtakers from past years who have taken the same
A. Comparative scaling involves sorting stimuli; categorical scaling does test under the same or similar conditions.
not. D. his or her other scores on a parallel form of the same test.
B. Comparative scaling involves making quantitative judgments; categorical
scaling does not. 96. An individually administered designed for use with elementary-
C. Comparative scaling involves putting stimulus cards in a set number of school-age student is in the test tryout stage of test development. For
different piles assigned a certain meaning; categorical scaling does not. the purposes of the tryout, this test should be administered
D. Comparative scaling involves rank-ordering each stimulus individually A. as a group test to as many classes as possible in an elementary school.
against every other stimulus; categorical scaling does not. B. individually to high school students for exploratory purposes.
C. individually to elementary-school-age students in an environment that
88. In Guttman scaling simulates the way that the final version of the test will be administered.
A. testtakers are presented with a forced-choice format. D. to experts in elementary school education to ensure that the items are
B. each item is completely independent of every other item and nothing can appropriate for elementary school-aged children.
be concluded as the result of the endorsement of an item.
C. when one item is endorsed by a testtaker, the less extreme aspects of 97. A decision is made to use only a few subjects per item during the
that item are also endorsed. test tryout phase of a test's construction. This decision is MOST
D. when more than one item tapping a particular content area is endorsed, LIKELY to lead to
the less extreme aspects of those items are also endorsed. A. "phantom factors" during test construction.
B. "phantom factors" during the test administration.
89. Which is TRUE of Thurstone's equal-appearing intervals method C. "phantom factors" during factor analysis.
of scaling? D. "phantom deposits" in the test author's royalty account.
A. It is relatively simple to construct.
B. It demands that the testtaker sort item responses into stacks of similar 98. A DISADVANTAGE of applying classical test theory (CTT) in test
content. development is that
C. It uses judges' ratings to assign values to items. A. the number of testtakers in the sample must be very large.
D. It is typically devised using proprietary software developed by Louis B. all CTT-based statistics are sample-dependent.
Thurstone's grandchildren. C. assumptions underlying CTT use are weak.
D. All of these
90. When writing items for a test, a test developer would be well
advised to incorporate 99. A "good" test item on an ability test is one
A. knowledge acquired from Cohen & Swerdlik (2017). A. to which almost all testtakers respond correctly.
B. knowledge from information supplied in scholarly journals. B. that distinguishes high scorers from low scorers.
C. interviews with experts. C. to which almost all testtakers respond incorrectly.
D. All of these D. in which it is absolutely impossible to guess the correct answer.
91. Which is an example of the use of a completion format on a test? 100. The optimal level of item difficulty is MOST typically
A. true-false items A. .5.
B. matching items B. the midpoint between 1.0 and the chance of success by random
C. short-answer items guessing.
D. multiple-choice item C. .25.
D. the midpoint between 0 and the chance of success by random guessing.
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101. Test developers calculate an item-validity index to: D. The variables being measured by a test are not directly observable and
A. understand why an item is difficult or easy. are assumed to be multidimensional.
B. reduce the likelihood of an examinee's guessing.
C. maximize the criterion-related validity. 111. On a particular test, men and women tend to have the same total
D. determine the internal consistency of the test. score. Men and women do, however, tend to exhibit different response
patterns to specific items. A reasonable conclusion is that the test is:
102. The higher an item-validity index, the greater the __________ A. unreliable. C. biased.
validity. B. invalid. D. patently unfair.
A. construct C. criterion
B. content D. face 112. A sensitivity review typically focuses on which of the following?
A. individual test items
103. The higher the item-reliability index, B. the standardization sample
A. the higher the internal consistency of the test. C. statistics used as part of validity and reliability studies
B. the lower the internal consistency of the test. D. the extent to which latent traits are latent
C. the more likely the testtaker is to miss the item.
D. the more likely the test developer is to eliminate the item. 113. As the result of a sensitivity review, items containing __________
may be eliminated from a test.
104. Factor analysis can help the test developer A. offensive language C. unfair reference to situations
A. to eliminate or revise items that do not load on the predicted factor. B. stereotypes D. All of these
B. to identify whether test items appear to be measuring the same construct.
C. Both to eliminate or revise items that do not load on the predicted factor 114. A sensitivity review panel would most likely be made up of
and to identify whether test items appear to be measuring the same A. only psychologists from the majority group.
construct. B. only psychologists from a particular minority group.
D. None of these C. psychologists representing both minority and majority groups.
D. measurement specialists from all continents known for their sensitivity.
105. An item-discrimination index is used on an ability test
A. to determine whether items are measuring what they are designed to 115. As part of the process of test development, the term test revision
measure. BEST refers to the
B. to measure the difference between how many high scorers and how A. rewording, deletion, or development of new items.
many low scorers answered the item correctly. B. development of a completely new test.
C. to estimate how predictive the item is of the testtaker's future C. reprinting of a test after a previous edition has sold out.
performance. D. Both rewording, deletion, or development of new items and development
D. to measure the difference between how many median scorer and how of a completely new test.
many low scorers answered the item correctly.
116. The think aloud test administration format
106. If an item-discrimination index is negative A. has examinees literally thinking aloud as they respond to each item on a
A. high scorers are more likely to have answered the item correctly than low test.
scorers. B. is a qualitative technique.
B. low scorers are more likely to have answered the item correctly than high C. can help test developers understand how an examinee interprets
scorers. particular items.
C. the alternate form of the test is probably not equivalent. D. All of these
D. the computer scoring is in error because this index is not supposed to be
negative. 117. Expert panels may be used in the process of test development to
A. provide judgments concerning each item's reliability.
107. An analysis of item alternatives for a multiple-choice test can B. serve as expert witnesses in any future litigation.
yield information about C. screen test items for possible bias.
A. the effectiveness of distracter choices. D. All of these
B. which items are in need of revision.
C. testtaker response patterns. 118. Having a large item pool available during test revision is
D. All of these A. a disadvantage due to the great expense of item development.
B. often a waste of time because many of the items are eventually deleted.
108. An item-characteristic curve C. an advantage because poor items can be deleted in favor of the good
A. is the single best index of guessing a test user has. items.
B. plots the reliability and the validity of the item. D. a great perk for test developers who are swimming enthusiasts.
C. Both is the single best index of guessing a test user has and plots the
reliability and the validity of the item. 119. A test developer designs a test for the sole purpose of identifying
D. None of these the most highly skilled individuals among those tested. During the test
109. When an item-characteristic curve of an ability test has an revision stage of test development, the test developer will be
inverted U shape, it usually indicates that particularly interested in
A. testtakers of moderate ability have the highest probability of answering A. item bias. C. item reliability.
the item correctly. B. item discrimination. D. item validity.
B. testtakers of low ability have the highest probability of answering the item
correctly. 120. In creating a test designed to measure personality constructs, the
C. testtakers of high ability have the highest probability of answering the test developer's first step would BEST be to
item correctly. A. determine which items would lead to socially desirable responses.
D. the item is working as well as any item on this test could be expected to B. create a large pool of potential items.
work. C. define the construct or constructs being measured.
D. select a representative sample of testtakers for test tryout.
110. Which is TRUE of the latent-trait model of measurement? 121. The following item appears on an end-of-semester course
A. Most research conducted on this model has been applied to achievement evaluation in a test and measurements course: The most interesting
tests. class I am taking this semester is "Tests and Measurements." The
B. The variables being measured by a test are not directly observable and possible responses are:
are assumed to be unidimensional.
C. This model is applicable to all tests. 1. strongly agree.
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2. agree. A. pilot work. C. pilot research.
3. unsure. B. pilot study. D. All of these
4. disagree.
5. strongly disagree. 132. In his article entitled "A Method of Scaling Psychological and
Educational Tests," L. L. Thurstone introduced absolute scaling which
This item illustrates what approach to scaling? was a
A. nomothetic A. procedure for obtaining a measure of item validity.
B. Likert B. procedure for obtaining a measure of item difficulty.
C. Guttman C. procedure for deriving equal-appearing intervals.
D. ipsative D. procedure for divining item reliability.
122. Which is TRUE of item analysis on speeded tests? 133. As with the use of other rating scales, the use of Likert scales
A. Results of the item analysis are relatively easy to interpret and are clear. typically yields _______-level data.
B. Item-difficulty levels are lower toward the end of the test. A. nominal C. interval
C. Item-discrimination levels are higher toward the end of the test. B. ordinal D. ratio
D. Later items tend to have low item-total correlations.
134. The method of paired comparisons is used to
123. If 50 students were administered a classroom test, how many A. minimize the opportunity of selecting a socially desirable response.
would be included in each group for the purpose of calculating d, the B. maximize the opportunity of selecting a socially desirable response.
item-discrimination index? C. provide testtakers with a sufficient number of pairs of choices to express
A. 25 C. 13 their "true" opinions.
B. 10 D. 17 D. provide testtakers with a limited number of pairs of choices in order to
minimize testing time.
124. The Rokeach values measure involves presenting the subject
with index cards, on each of which a single value is listed. Testtakers 135. Likert scales measure attitudes using continuums. A continuum
are asked to place the cards in order of their own concern about each of items measuring ___________ could be used for a Likert scale.
of the values. This procedure BEST exemplifies A. like it to do not like it
A. multidimensional scaling. C. comparative scaling. B. agree to disagree
B. Likert scaling. D. Murray scaling. C. approve to do not approve
D. All of these
125. When analyzing a particular item's discriminative abilities for an
ability test, the test developer typically compares the responses to the 136. In contrast to scaling methods that employ indirect estimation,
item to scaling methods that employ direct estimation do not require:
A. the highest and lowest scorers on the test. A. writing two sets of items for parallel forms.
B. the highest and middle scorers on the test. B. the use of the method of equal-appearing intervals.
C. the performance on the test of a minority groups to rule out any possible C. transforming testtaker responses into some other scale.
bias. D. indirect methods to interpret testtaker responses.
D. testtakers from predefined age groups to rule out any possible age
discrimination. 137. All of the following are components of a multiple-choice item
EXCEPT
126. In measurement employing latent-trait models A. a foil. C. a stem.
A. the underlying trait is assumed to be unidimensional. B. a correct alternative. D. a branch.
B. all the test items are thought to measure a single trait.
C. the characteristic being measured is not measured directly. 138. As described in the text, all of the following are elements of a
D. All of these matching item EXCEPT:
A. a column listing propositions.
127. Criterion-referenced testing and assessment is most typically B. a column listing responses.
employed in C. a column listing premises.
A. licensing for occupations and professions. D. a place to insert the correct number or letter choice.
B. the diagnosis of reading difficulties.
C. competition for scholarships. 139. The two columns of a matching item may contain different
D. situations where the criteria required for success are vague. number of items because this makes
A. the odds of cheating successfully on this type of item significantly less.
128. Items for an item bank B. it more difficult to achieve a perfect score by guessing.
A. may be taken from existing tests. C. the role of chance a much greater factor than it would be otherwise.
B. are always written especially for the item bank. D. it possible for testtakers to decline to respond to certain items.
C. have never before been administered.
D. earn interest at prime minus one percent. 140. Computer-adaptive testing has been found to
A. reduce by as much half the number of test items administered.
129. You are interested in developing a test for social adjustment in a B. increase the number of test items administered by as much as double.
college fraternity or sorority. You begin by interviewing persons who C. increase measurement error but within tolerable limits.
had graduated from college after having been a member of a fraternity D. increase inter-item consistency by as much as 50%.
or sorority for at least 2 years. Which stage of the test development
process BEST describes the stage that you are in? 141. A strategy for cheating on an examination entails one testtaker
A. the test-tryout stage C. the test construction stage memorizing items and later recalling and reciting them for the benefit
B. the pilot work stage D. None of these of a future testtaker. This cheating strategy may be countered by
A. a computer-tailored test administration to each testtaker.
130. These tests are often used for the purpose of licensing persons B. a computer-randomized presentation of test items.
in professions. The tests referred to here are C. Both a computer-tailored test administration to each testtaker and a
A. pilot tests. C. criterion-referenced tests. computer-randomized presentation of test items.
B. norm-referenced tests. D. Guttman scales. D. None of these
131. It is a term that is used to refer to the preliminary research
surrounding the creation of a prototype of a test. Which of the 142. On a true/false inventory, a respondent selects true for an item
following BEST describes that term? that reads, "I summer in Tehran." The individual scoring the test would
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BEST interpret this response as indicative of the fact that this C. 0 to one million.
respondent D. negative one million to positive one million.
A. is extremely eccentric with respect to choice of time shares.
B. requires more sensation-seeking than Cape Cod has to offer. 151. On the item characteristic curves for a test of ability, a large
C. is responding randomly to test items. number of items biased in favor of male testtakers is found to coexist
D. None of these with the exact same number of items biased in favor of female
testtakers. Based on these findings, it would be reasonable for the test
143. Jana takes a personality test administered by the "True developer to claim that the test
Compatibility Dating Service." According to the personalized, A. measures the same ability in the two groups.
computerized personality profile that results, Jana learns that her B. is a fair test as any observed bias balances out.
need for exhibitionism is much greater than her need for stability. C. demonstrates gender equality for the ability measured.
Since the test analyzes data only with regard to Jane, and no other D. None of these
client of the dating service, it may be assumed that the test was scored
using 152. To ensure consistency in scoring, test developers have
A. a diagnostic model. C. an ipsative model of scoring. employed
B. a cumulative model. D. truly compatible models. A. anchor protocols. C. revolvers.
B. resolvers. D. Both anchor protocols and resolvers.
144. A math test developer is interested in deriving an index of the
difficulty of the average item for his math test. As his consultant on 153. Possible applications of IRT were discussed in your textbook.
test development, you advise him that this index could be obtained Which of the following is NOT one of those possible applications?
by: A. determining measurement equivalence across testtaker populations
A. identifying the item deemed to be average in difficulty and then deriving B. identifying a common metric among several tests measuring the same
an item-difficulty index for that item. construct
B. averaging the item-difficulty indices for all test items and then dividing by C. evaluating existing tests for the purpose of mapping test revisions
the total number of items on the test. D. developing item banks
C. dividing the total number of items on the test by the average item-
difficulty index. 154. To increase the precision of a test, test developers may have to
D. raising that very same question to a more knowledgeable test A. increase the number of items.
development consultant. B. increase the number of response options.
C. Both increase the number of items and increase the number of response
145. A test developer of multiple-choice ability tests reviews data from options.
a recent test administration. She discovers that testtakers who scored D. None of these
very high on the test as a whole, all responded to item 13 with the
same incorrect choice. Accordingly, the test developer 155. When a test is translated from one language in one culture to
A. assumes that members of the high-scoring group are making some sort another language in another culture, ______ can help ensure that the
of unintended interpretation of item 13. original test and the translated test are reasonably equivalent and
B. plans to interview members of the high-scoring group to understand the tapping the same construct.
basis for their choice. A. a translator
C. Both assumes that members of the high-scoring group are making some B. IRT
sort of unintended interpretation of item 13 and plans to interview members C. bi-lingual people who are experts on the two cultures
of the high-scoring group to understand the basis for their choice. D. All of these
D. should remove item 13 from the test and place in its stead a note that
reads: "Go to Item 14." 156. A test item functions differently in one group of testtakers as
compared to another group of testtakers known to have the same level
146. With regard to item-discrimination indices, a d equal to -1 is of an underlying trait. This phenomenon is known as:
A. a test developer's dream. A. dysfunctional item syndrome.
B. a test developer's nightmare. B. DIF.
C. a testtaker's dream. C. DIF item difference.
D. an insomniac's nightmare. D. DIF item incongruity.
147. On an item characteristic curve, the steeper the curve, 157. Instruments that contain items that function differentially
A. the more latent the trait is presumed to be. A. may have reduced validity.
B. the greater the item reliability. B. may have inflated reliability.
C. the less the item discrimination. C. are last to be banked in an item bank.
D. the greater the item discrimination. D. are informally referred to as "DIFFED."
148. The Rasch model offers a way to model the probability that 158. The process of DIF analysis entails
A. a person on the border of passing and failing a test will actually succeed A. scrutinizing item response curves for DIF items.
at a particular criterion measure. B. interviewing people from different cultures.
B. a person with X ability will be able to perform at a level of Y. C. administering tests in different ways.
C. a test with a standard deviation of X will have a mean score of Y. D. Both interviewing people from different cultures and administering tests
D. a test with X reliability will have Y validity. in different ways.
149. The reason latent-trait theory is so-named has to do with the 159. When testing is conducted by means of a computer within a CAT
presumption that context, it means that
A. latent traits exist in males and females to the same degree. A. a testtaker's response to one item may automatically trigger what item
B. whatever the test is measuring is multidimensional in nature. will be presented next.
C. the variable being measured is never directly measurable itself. B. testing may be terminated based on some pre-set number of consecutive
D. None of these item failures.
C. testing may be terminated based on some pre-set, maximum number of
150. Test scores measuring latent traits can, in theory at least, take on items being administered.
values ranging from D. All of these
A. 0 to infinity.
B. negative infinity to positive infinity.
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160. As mentioned in the text, CAT is available on a wide array of D. "Now I am going to have to reconsider a career as a tanning technician!"
platforms including
A. the Internet. C. Playstation. 169. If all raw scores on a test are to be converted to scores that range
B. X-box. D. All of these only from 1 to 9, the resulting scale is referred to as this type of scale:
A. a unidimensional scale. C. a multidimensional scale.
161. Looking at the item-characteristic curve (below), a reasonable B. a stanine scale. D. None of these.
conclusion about the performance of the item illustrated would be that
A. as theta increases, the probability of a response scored correct 170. So-called "smiley face" scales may be used with
increases. A. young children.
B. as theta decreases, the probability of a response scored correct B. adolescents who have limited language skills.
increases. C. adults who have limited language skills.
C. as theta increases, the probability of a response scored correct D. All of these
decreases.
D. None of these 171. Using the method of paired comparisons yields
A. nominal level data. C. interval level data.
162. The inspiration to create a new test may come from many varied B. ordinal level data. D. ratio level data.
sources. Thinking of the illustrative descriptions of inspiration cited
in your text, which of the following is NOT a possible source of 172. Test item writers must keep many considerations in mind. Which
inspiration for the creation of a new test? of the following is NOT typically one of those considerations?
A. an emerging social phenomenon suggests the need for a psychological A. Will the test be administered by an instructor or a teaching assistant?
test B. Which item format or formats should be employed?
B. legislation has been passed ordering the creation of a new psychological C. How many items should be written in total?
test D. What range of content should the items cover?
C. a review of the literature suggests a need for a new psychological test
D. a test developer thinks "there is a need for this sort of test" 173. A test developer is designing a standardized test using a multiple-
choice format. The final form of the test will contain 50 items. It would
163. One of the questions that the developer of a new test must answer be advisable for the first draft of this test to contain, at least, how many
is, "How will the test be administered?" The answer to this question items?
may be A. 50 C. 150
A. the test will be individually administered. B. 100 D. 25
B. the test will be group administered.
C. the test will be individually or group administered. 174. A test item written in a multiple-choice format has three elements.
D. None of these Which of the following is NOT one of those elements?
A. foil C. leaf
164. One of the questions that the developer of a new test must answer B. stem D. correct option
is, "Should more than one form of the test be developed?" In
answering this question, a primary consideration is 175. Consider the following sample True/False item:
A. development costs. C. test reliability.
B. test content. D. item discrimination. "I am going to ace this course in psychological testing and assessment."
Circle TRUE or FALSE according to your own belief.
165. A good item on a norm-referenced achievement test is an item
that This item is an example of an item that
A. demonstrates that the testtaker has met certain pre-specified criteria. A. is referred to in psychometric parlance as trinitarian in nature.
B. high scorers respond to correctly while low scorer respond to incorrectly. B. can only be used when a dichotomous choice can be made without
C. both high and low scorers respond to correctly. qualification.
D. low scorers seek clarification regarding the meaning of the question. C. both is referred to in psychometric parlance as trinitarian in nature and
can only be used when a dichotomous choice can be made without
166. The development of a criterion-referenced test usually entails qualification.
A. exploratory work with a group of testtakers who have mastered the D. None of these
material.
B. exploratory work with a group of testtakers who have not mastered the 176. One of the advantages of computerized adaptive testing (CAT) is
material. that
C. both exploratory work with a group of testtakers who have mastered the A. all test items are administered to all testtakers.
material and exploratory work with a group of testtakers who have not B. floor effects are reduced.
mastered the material. C. the ceiling has been removed.
D. None of these D. the basement has been finished.
167. In the field of psychometrics, pilot work refers to the 177. A test developer has created a pool of 30 items and is ready for a
A. job of someone whose responsibility it is to fly an airplane, jet, or test tryout. At a minimum, how many subjects should the test be
space vehicle. administered to?
B. preliminary research entailed in finalizing the form of a test. A. 60
C. efforts of the lead researcher on a test development team. B. 120
D. preliminary research conducted prior to the stage of test construction. C. 150
D. 180
168. A close friend, who is now a beauty school dropout, is heard to
complain: "I spent all night studying ‘Shampoo' for the final 178. Test developers have at their disposal a number of statistical
examination and there was not a single question on that subject!" As tools that may be applied when selecting items for use on a test. In
a budding expert in testing and assessment you hear that complaint Chapter 8's Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Scott Birkeland
as: made reference to two such techniques. One was a measure of item
A. "I have a problem with that test's content validity!" discrimination, and the other was a measure of item
B. "There was excessive error variance in the test administration A. reliability.
procedures!" B. utility.
C. "The instructor should have paid more attention to the test's construct C. difficulty.
validity!" D. variance.
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Chapter 09  Intelligence and Its Measurement D. adaptive testing.
1. Intelligence may be assessed at various stages in the life span and 12. With reference to intelligence testing, the term ceiling is best
A. the purpose of assessing intelligence is exactly the same at all ages. associated with the
B. the exact same behaviors are assessed at all ages. A. most difficult items of a subtest for an individual testtaker.
C. different behaviors are assessed at different ages. B. level of difficulty beyond which a test is no longer valid.
D. the later in life, the more difficult the assessment. C. data-based judgment of the highest end of a test's confidence interval.
D. element of the test environment that may contain recessed lighting.
2. Tests of intelligence are typically administered to older adults for all
of the following purposes EXCEPT: 13. Ability tests should include questions at the examinee's optimal
A. educational placement. level of difficulty because such questions
B. diagnosis of clinical disorders. A. help maintain the examinee's interest.
C. neuropsychological assessment. B. minimize the potential for examinee fatigue.
D. vocational planning. C. allow the test user to collect the maximum amount of information in the
minimum amount of time.
3. A concept that is characterized in your text as "at the crossroad of D. All of these
intelligence and personality" is
A. sensory discrimination. 14. Convergent thinking refers to
B. reaction time. A. an inductive reasoning process.
C. street efficacy. B. a deductive reasoning process.
D. general intellectual ability. C. a vertical thinking process.
D. a lateral thinking process.
4. The term cross-battery assessment refers to
A. the selective use of subtests from different test batteries. 15. An individual who aspires to a career in the military is MOST likely
B. the use of multiple test batteries in assessment. to take the
C. the use of culturally responsive tools of assessment. A. ASVAB
D. using physical tests in combination with psychological tests. B. OLSAT
C. WAIS-R
5. Kallikaks is to Goddard as Jukes is to D. SB-5
A. Pearson. C. Shockley.
B. Jensen. D. Dugdale. 16. Generally speaking, the use of human figure drawings to measure
intelligence is
6. In discussing the role of personality in the measured intelligence of A. indicated when a need exists to predict cognitive functioning in the
infants, the term _____ is typically substituted for "personality." upcoming school year.
A. "sensory ability" C. "temperament" B. recommended when a need exists for the fastest possible estimate of
B. "mood-related variables" D. "alerting response" intellectual ability.
C. mandatory when the testtaker is from a culture different than that where
7. An assumption in factor analysis is that the assessment is being conducted.
A. correlation does not necessarily imply causation. D. not recommended.
B. a single latent trait exists.
C. things that co-occur tend to have a common cause. 17. Which statement is TRUE about creativity and its measurement?
D. factors must be properly named if the analysis of the data is to be A. Creativity is measured by most intelligence tests.
actionable. B. Measures of creativity may be thought of as tools for assessing aspects
of intellectual functioning.
8. Exploratory factor analysis is used for all of the following EXCEPT: C. Measurement of creativity tends to emphasize convergent thinking skills
A. summarizing large data sets efficiently. in the subtest content.
B. determining the number of dimensions present in the data. D. Measuring creativity is analogous to measuring madness (or
C. determining which items correlate with which dimensions in the data. psychopathology).
D. determining whether one factor causes the appearance of another.
18. Who defined intelligence as "the degree of availability of one's
9. Confirmatory factor analysis differs from exploratory factor experiences for the solution of present problems and the anticipation
analysis in that confirmatory factor analysis of future ones?"
A. cannot be used with large numbers of tests. A. David Wechsler
B. can be used with personality as well as cognitive ability data. B. Robert Sternberg
C. reduces experimenter bias. C. Henry Goddard
D. None of these D. Jean Piaget
10. In her Meet an Assessment Professional essay, Dr. Rebecca 19. Researchers have tried to define intelligence using physical
Anderson noted that in the psychological reports that she writes, she means such as
A. lists resources (such as Internet sites) relative to the child's deficiency. A. cerebral glucose metabolism studies.
B. often omits the summary section in favor of more detailed B. brain physiology studies.
recommendations. C. brain mapping studies.
C. includes the name and degrees of all the people who contributed to the D. All of these
report.
D. provides synopses of student visits to the school guidance counselor 20. "In truth, intelligence has become . . . a word with so many
office. meanings that finally it has none." This is a quote from
A. E. L. Thorndike. C. Francis Galton.
11. A computerized test administration begins with moderately B. E. G. Boring. D. Charles Spearman.
difficult test items. Then, depending on the test-taker's performance,
easier or more difficult items are presented. This method of testing is 21. Neisser (1979) argued that intelligence
termed A. does not exist.
A. personalized testing. B. has no boundary with personality.
B. culture-fair testing. C. cannot be measured.
C. biased testing. D. cannot be explicitly defined.
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22. A lay person asks a psychologist, "What is intelligence" Based on 31. Which of the following tests is used by the U.S. Navy as an
the text, what would be the psychologist's BEST response? admissions test to Officer Candidate School?
A. "A multifaceted construct that is primarily determined by the environment A. the AFQT
and, in general, includes a person's ability to appropriately and effectively B. the Airman Qualifying Exam
care for himself or herself and interact reasonably with others." C. the OLSAT
B. "An unobservable trait whose meaning researchers have failed to agree D. the Officer Qualifying Test
on, and which, consequently, has no relevance to an understanding human
behavior." 32. On a test of intelligence, teaching items are
C. "A multifaceted construct influenced by heredity and environment that, in A. designed to illustrate the task required.
general, is related to verbal, quantitative, social, and problem-solving B. assure the examinee that the examiner knows what he or she is doing.
abilities." C. not formally scored.
D. "I'm sorry, could you repeat the question?" D. Both designed to illustrate the task required and not formally scored.
23. What conclusion concerning intelligence could reasonably be 33. When administering an individual test of intelligence, the examiner
drawn based on the 1921 symposium published in the Journal of is alert to
Educational Psychology A. cues that the examinee is not alert.
A. Experts tend to agree on the basic elements of what intelligence is. B. ways that the examinee copes with frustration.
B. Intelligence is best measured by group rather than individual tests. C. how cooperative the examinee appears to be.
C. Intelligence consists of a general factor and a number of specific factors. D. All of these
D. None of these
34. Which would NOT be considered extra-test behavior on the part of
24. Described in your textbook as an "unsatisfactory, incomplete, and a testtaker?
circular definition," ________ defined intelligence as "what the tests A. dozing-off during a reading comprehension subtest
test." B. pressing down extremely hard on the pencil when writing
A. Francis Galton C. laughing aloud every time an easy item was encountered
B. Jean Piaget D. responding to the examiner's questions
C. Kevin S. McGrew
D. Edwin G. Boring 35. All of the following are examples of extra-test behavior on an
ability test EXCEPT:
25. Which is TRUE of the debate over the definition of intelligence? A. the way that a testtaker appears to cope with frustration.
A. The debate has been ongoing almost since tests of intelligence were B. whether or not a response selected is the correct answer.
devised. C. how fatigued or distractible a testtaker appears to be.
B. A resolution of sorts occurred in 1921 in the wake of the famous D. an indication of cheating while the test is in progress.
Symposium on Intelligence.
C. The debate began in earnest in the 1970s after federal laws requiring the 36. Unusual responses on the part of a testtaker during the "Memory
use of IQ tests were passed. for Sentences" subtest of the SB-5 may cue the examiner to
D. The debate was quelled in the 1990s with the publication of The Bell A. hearing problems on the part of the examinee.
Curve. B. the examiner's own speech or hearing problems.
C. extraneous noise in the test environment affecting the test results.
26. Many questions concerning intelligence are still being debated. In D. None of these
general, however, scholars are MOST likely to agree that
A. the construct of intelligence has proven to be valuable to psychologists 37. David Wechsler
in their efforts to understand and predict human behavior. A. formally retired in 2016.
B. the construct of intelligence has not proven to be useful in helping B. died in 1981.
psychologists understand or predict human behavior. C. celebrated his 90th birthday in 1998.
C. intelligence tests have been shown to be of minimal value in non-clinical D. celebrated the publication of the WISC-R at Denny's.
settings.
D. intelligence tests have proven their utility in political campaigns where 38. The most widely used multiple aptitude test in the United States
they are routinely used to screen candidates. today is
A. the GATB.
27. The ASVAB is B. the ASVAB.
A. administered in schools. C. the AGCT.
B. administered in recruiting stations. D. the DAS.
C. the most widely used multiple-aptitude test in the United States.
D. All of these 39. A ratio IQ is calculated as follows:
A. mental age multiplied by chronological age, divided by 100.
28. A point scale contains items organized B. chronological age divided by mental age, multiplied by 100.
A. by the number of points earned by responding in a way that is keyed C. mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.
correct. D. deviation IQ divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.
B. into subtests by categories.
C. by subtests worth an increasing number of points.
D. into categories worth an increasing number of points. 40. The deviation IQ reflects a comparison of the performance of the
29. Which term does NOT belong with the others? individual with the performance of others
A. adaptive testing A. in the entire standardization sample.
B. tailored testing B. in the same grade in the standardization sample.
C. response-contingent testing C. of the same age in the standardization sample.
D. mastery testing D. in the same grade and of the same age in the standardization sample.
30. The purpose of a routing test is to direct assessees to 41. The Flynn Effect has relevance in discussions of the death penalty,
A. test items at an optimal level of difficulty. especially since the Supreme Court decision in the case of
B. test items that they are most likely to pass. A. Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California.
C. the subtest that will engage them most in the task. B. Jaffee v. Redmond.
D. All of these C. Grutter v. Bollinger.
D. Atkins v. Virginia.
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42. The Flynn effect is characterized by 52. Binet believed that the primary purpose of an intelligence test was
A. an average rise in measured intelligence each year from the year a test to assist the test user in the process of
was normed. A. classification.
B. an average decline in measured intelligence each year from the year that B. measurement.
a test was normed. C. prediction.
C. fluctuating scores in measured intelligence as a presumed function of D. data collection.
different dominant sources of variance.
D. a testtaker's unexpected manipulation of a number 2 pencil as if it was a 53. Who first hypothesized that the proportion of the variance that a
sword. number of tests have in common accounts for a general factor of
intelligence?
43. A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is in A. Pearson
need of special services. Considering the Flynn effect, the B. Piaget
psychologist employs which of the following tests of intelligence to C. Spearman
bolster the case for special services? D. Galton
A. the test with the oldest possible norms available
B. the most recently normed test available 54. All of the following are true of Cattell's two-factor theory of
C. the Flynn Intelligence Test (FIT) intelligence EXCEPT:
D. a Wechsler test designed primarily for use with adults A. The abilities that constitute fluid intelligence are nonverbal and
independent of specific instruction.
44. The magnitude of the Flynn effect typically depends MOST on B. Crystallized intelligence is relatively culture-free.
A. the population on whom the test was normed. C. Crystallized intelligence develops through one's use of fluid intelligence.
B. the model of intelligence employed by the test developers. D. Crystallized intelligence includes acquired skills and knowledge such as
C. when the test was normed. vocabulary.
D. the methods used by the test developers to norm the test.
55. Crystallized intelligence includes
45. Children's intelligence is assessed primarily for A. application of general knowledge.
A. vocational placement and planning. B. nonverbal abilities.
B. academic research and planning. C. sensory abilities.
C. behavioral research and planning. D. All of these
D. educational placement and planning.
56. Logical-mathematical and bodily-kinesthetic are two terms best
46. According to Jean Piaget's developmental theory, the process of associated with the theory of intelligence advanced by
cognitive development occurs solely as a result of A. Guilford.
A. maturation. C. motivation. B. Thurstone.
B. learning. D. None of these C. Gardner.
D. Wechsler.
47. According to Piaget, one of the basic mental operations through
which learning occurs is assimilation, which is defined as 57. The theories of intelligence advanced by Guilford, Thurstone, and
A. organizing new information so that it fits with existing information. Cattell, are all
B. changing existing information so that it fits with existing information. A. single-factor models.
C. changing new information so that it fits with existing information. B. information processing models.
D. rejecting existing information that does not fit with new information. C. factor-analytic models.
D. "runway models."
48. A major thread running through the theories of Binet, Wechsler,
and Piaget is the concept of interactionism. In this context, 58. Horn referred to intellectual abilities that decline with age as
interactionism refers to A. "maintained."
A. interaction between mind and body. B. "vulnerable."
B. members of different professions working together. C. "neuromuscular."
C. interaction between heredity and environment. D. "degenerative."
D. neurochemical interactions that occur during new learning.
59. According to Horn, visual processing abilities
49. It is MOST probable that Binet, Wechsler, and Piaget would all A. exemplify vulnerable abilities.
agree with which of the following statements? B. increase metaphorically with age.
A. "Heredity, not environment, is the determining factor in intelligence." C. can be impaired by reading in dim light.
B. "Environment, not heredity is the determining factor intelligence." D. None of these
C. "Heredity and environment interact to influence the development of
intelligence, although a person has an unlimited genetic potential." 60. Carroll's three-stratum theory of cognitive abilities is referred to as
D. "Heredity and environment interact to influence the development of which type of model of cognitive functioning?
intelligence, but a person may not exceed his or her genetic potential." A. an experimental model
B. an information processing model
50. The concepts of social intelligence, concrete intelligence, and C. a hierarchical model
abstract intelligence are collectively best associated with which D. a stratum-like model
theorist?
A. Thorndike 61. McGrew and Flanagan based their definitions of many of the broad
B. Carroll and narrow abilities on the writings of
C. Cattell A. Thurstone.
D. Horn B. Horn.
C. Cattell.
51. Galton's conception of intelligence focused on D. Carroll.
A. sensory abilities.
B. environmental factors. 62. Which of the following is omitted from the Cattell-Horn-Carroll
C. behavioral assets and deficits. model as modified by McGrew and Flanagan?
D. consistency of the bonds that can be established. A. quantitative ability
B. memory
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C. general intellectual ability 72. According to your text, which is TRUE of the CRUST?
D. eye-hand coordination A. It is a valid measure of intelligence for those in middle- to high-income
groups.
63. McGrew and Flanagan's version of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model B. It was developed as a tongue-in-cheek intelligence test for the culturally
was originally intended for use in advantaged.
A. pediatric rehabilitative applications. C. It can be used with members of minority groups as well as the majority
B. neuropsychological applications. group.
C. comparative psychology applications. D. It was originally devised as a culture-free intelligence test for immigrants
D. psychoeducational applications. from the Czech Republic.
64. The McGrew and Flanagan version of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll 73. Research cited in your textbook told of Zambian and English
model is designed to assess abilities research subjects who were tested on a model reconstruction task
A. by means of one comprehensive and integrative test. using paper, clay, or wire. This research illustrated the importance of
B. through the use a variety of tests from different test batteries. raising questions about
C. with adjunctive use of interviews and the case study method. A. the validity of a test with regard to members of specific cultural
D. primarily by means of behavioral observation. populations.
B. the reliability of a test with regard to members of specific cultural
65. McGrew and Flanagan's version of CHC theory has its greatest populations.
value C. the danger of using specific materials, such as wire, with testtakers who
A. as a theory of cognitive abilities with empirical support. have never manipulated them.
B. from a research perspective. D. the cautions that need to be verbalized prior to any assessment situation.
C. from the standpoint of cost-to-implement.
D. as a theory from which all other theories can be improved. 74. Which of the following tests employed by the Army during World
War I was MOST likely to be as "culture-fair" as possible?
66. The general (g) factor in intelligence refers to A. the Army Alpha Test
A. all that measured in common by varied valid tests of intelligence. B. the Army Beta
B. the specific factors assessed by different intelligence tests. C. the AGCT
C. the iconic influence of Galton on the definition of that construct. D. the ASVAB
D. all of the variance in measured intelligence that is genetic in nature.
75. What is the main difference between the information-processing
67. Which statement would Wechsler and Binet MOST likely agree view and the traditional view of intelligence?
on? A. The information-processing view focuses more on how the brain
A. Intelligence develops primarily through heredity. processes information.
B. Intelligence comprises cognitive abilities that develop through several B. The information-processing view has not yet led researchers to the
invariant stages. development of useful assessment tools.
C. Considerations regarding personality must be included in any C. The information-processing view focuses more on separate and
comprehensive assessment of intelligence. independent intellectual abilities, such as musical and mechanical skills.
D. There is no more important ability to assess than perceptual-motor D. The information-processing view assumes that intelligence is
ability. environmentally determined.
68. Ways of reducing the culture loading of a test include the 76. A school psychologist assesses a child's intelligence. In a
A. use of oral instructions instead of printed instructions. psychological report, the psychologist explains the child's cognitive
B. prohibition of practice items. ability in terms of the manner in which she processes information and
C. employment of computer-adaptive scoring. solves problems. From this report, it would seem that this school
D. All of these psychologist is relying on
A. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences.
69. To root out any possible cultural bias in the development of the B. Spearman's two-factor theory.
WAIS-IV, C. an information-processing approach.
A. experts from 120 cultures were administered a preliminary version of the D. a discrepancy between verbal and performance measures.
test.
B. all test items were specifically reviewed for cultural bias. 77. "VPR" refers to a model of the structure of mental abilities
C. all test items were administered in ethnically diverse communities. A. that was first conceived of by Francis Galton.
D. experts from 120 cultures participated in focus groups to analyze each B. with a g factor that contributes to several abilities.
of the test items. C. that is presumed to have no basis in genetics.
D. built into the operating system of a "smart car."
70. Culture-specific tests of intelligence 78. Howard Gardner's work on "multiple intelligences" is most similar
A. have been empirically demonstrated to be a more valid measure of to whose model of intelligence?
intellectual development of minority group members than conventional A. Binet
tests. B. Galton
B. are most useful for predicting employment success when administered C. Piaget
to prospective job applicants who are members of minority groups. D. Guilford
C. are usually normed exclusively on majority group members.
D. None of these 79. According to a theory of intelligence that emphasizes the centrality
g, a factor analysis of any intelligence test widely viewed as valid
71. In spite of its acronym, which is TRUE of the BITCH? would be expected to yield
A. It is a standardized test used widely by municipal fire departments as an A. one large common factor.
employment screening device. B. three factors of approximately equal size.
B. It was developed as a culture-free measure of intelligence for inner-city C. a large number of small factors, but no large factor.
youth. D. a verbal factor and a performance factor.
C. It has more entertainment value than applied value.
D. It is still in use in some school districts today as a low-budget test of 80. Spearman proposed a two-factor theory of intelligence consisting
choice. of which two factors?
A. general and specific intelligence
B. creative and fixed intelligence
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C. long-term and short-term memory B. contains subtests designed for computer administration.
D. learned and inherited intelligence C. did not load exclusively on a two-factor solution.
D. All of these
81. The fifth edition of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale was based
on which theory of intelligence? 90. Which was NOT a reason used to exclude people from
A. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences participation in the SB-5 standardization sample?
B. the Cattell-Horn theory A. limited proficiency in the English language
C. Spearman's two-factor theory B. severe emotional disturbance
D. the CHC model C. immediate family member also participating
D. cardiac arrest
82. Which is TRUE of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive
abilities? 91. A measured SB-5 IQ in the range of 55 to 69 would place the
A. The model was developed by Cattell. testtaker in the category of
B. The model was developed by Horn. A. low average
C. The model was developed by Carroll. B. borderline impaired or delayed
D. None of these C. mildly impaired or delayed
D. moderately impaired or delayed
83. Which is TRUE of the McGrew-Flanagan CHC model?
A. It features 32 broad stratum abilities. 92. The "Full Scale floor" of the WAIS-IV is
B. It makes no provision for fluid intelligence. A. 40.
C. It makes no provision for a general ability (g) factor. B. 45.
D. It has little heuristic value. C. 50.
D. None of these
84. Which is TRUE of the factor analysts' view of intelligence?
A. Factor analysts agree that intelligence is a general mental ability and that 93. The "Full Scale ceiling" of the WAIS-IV is
it is not possible to separate out individual mental abilities. A. 150.
B. Factor analysts agree that intelligence is composed of several B. 155.
independent abilities that do not influence each other. C. 160.
C. Factor analysts agree that intelligence is composed of a general mental D. 190.
ability factor comprising several separate yet interrelated special abilities.
D. Factor analysts are divided on the issue of whether intelligence is a 94. The WAIS-IV was made more "senior friendly" than previous
general unitary function or a composite of several independent abilities. editions of the WAIS through enlargement of the images contained in
the:
85. What is the main difference between the factor analysts and A. Picture Completion subtest.
traditional theorists with regard to theory derivation? B. the Symbol Search subtest.
A. As compared to factor analysts, traditional theorists derive their theories C. the Coding subtest.
primarily through statistical procedures and empirical data. D. All of these
B. As compared to traditional theorists, factor analysts derive their theories
primarily through statistical procedures and empirical data. 95. The WAIS-IV was made more "senior friendly" through
C. As compared to factor analysts, traditional theorists have not attempted A. encouragement to expand the time taken to establish rapport with
to validate their theories with scientific research. testtakers above age 69.
D. As compared to traditional theorists, factor analysts have not attempted B. a recommendation to reduce the time limits for subtests administered to
to validate their theories with scientific research. testtakers above age 69.
C. directions to administer certain supplemental cognitive tests for
86. Stanford-Binet Full Scale scores are converted into nominal testtakers above age 69.
categories designated by certain cutoff boundaries. For example, an D. a recommendation not to administer certain tests tapping motor speed
SB-5 measured IQ in the range of 110 to 119 falls into the __________ for testtakers above age 69.
category.
A. very gifted 96. The Stanford-Binet-5 differed from previous editions of this test
B. gifted because it
C. superior A. was a scale that Lewis Terman disassociated himself from.
D. high average B. yielded a grade-correlated mental age.
C. was a point scale.
87. For David Wechsler, the term "W-B" had special significance D. did not subscribe to any known theory of intelligence.
because
A. his life's work in the field of intelligence testing was once profiled on a 97. The Otis-Lennon School Ability Test is used primarily to
Romanian television network with those call letters. A. assess neuropsychological deficits.
B. these initials respectively stood for his name and the place where he B. assist in student placement.
served as Chief Psychologist. C. identify future business leaders.
C. Warner Brothers (WB) successfully outbid Paramount to do a (never- D. identify students with special needs.
released) film of Wechsler's life story.
D. None of these 98. Routing tests on the Stanford-Binet-5 are used to
A. determine the optimum level of item difficulty to start the other tests.
88. The ______ was the test that launched the testing movement in the B. determine which course of study is best suited to the child's aptitude.
United States. C. steer test users to supplementary tests that should be administered.
A. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale D. teach children how to perform each type of test item.
B. Stanford-Binet
C. Army-Alpha 99. The Picture Absurdities subtest of the SB-5 was designed to
D. Mooney Problem Checklist measure
A. nonverbal problem solving on matters not culturally bound.
89. The WISC-V is a test of intelligence that is noteworthy because it B. ability to see patterns and relationships and spatial orientation.
was the first Wechsler test that C. sorting of information into short-term or long-term memory.
A. reportedly does not tap general intellectual ability (g) in any of its D. skills and knowledge acquired by formal and informal education.
subtests.
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100. On the Wechsler tests of intelligence, the Full Scale IQ has a mean D. All of these
of ________________ and a standard deviation of _______________.
A. 50; 10 111. Normative information is available in the test's manual for WAIS-
B. 100; 15 IV test-takers
C. 10; 3 A. as young as 11 months.
D. 115; 15 B. as young as 11 years, 11 months.
C. as old as 90 years, 11 months.
101. On the Wechsler tests of intelligence, the subtest scores have a D. as old as 94 years, 11 months.
mean of ____________ and a standard deviation of
__________________. 112. The WAIS-IV General Ability Index (GAI) was described in your
A. 100; 15 textbook as
B. 100; 16 A. a composite of the Working Memory Index, the Perceptual Reasoning
C. 50; 10 Index, and the Processing Speed Index.
D. 10; 3 B. a composite of the former Verbal and Performance indexes.
C. "a composite of three composites."
102. On the Wechsler tests, which of the following subtests BEST D. "a composite of two composites."
reflects and predicts overall intelligence?
A. the Coding subtest 113. The 1937 revision of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
B. the Arithmetic subtest included two equivalent forms labeled "Form L" and "Form M," named
C. the Block Design subtest as such because
D. the Vocabulary subtest A. these were the next two sequential letters in the alphabet that were used
to name forms of the test.
103. The 1916 Stanford-Binet B. Lewis Terman's full name was Lewis Madison Terman and his close
A. was the first American test to contain verbal and performance subtests friends called him "LM."
administered in alternating order. C. these were the initials of Lewis (L) and his associate in the revision,
B. was the first American test to employ the concept of IQ. Maude (M).
C. featured two equivalent forms. D. frequently through test development, Terman snacked on little
D. All of these multicolored, candy-coated chocolates, which in the 1930s were called
"L&Ms."
104. For the purpose of establishing the concurrent validity of the SB-
5, the SB-5 test developers conducted correlational research using the 114. Through 1972, all published editions of the Stanford-Binet tended
SB-5 and to be criticized for
A. the SB-4. A. the lack of acceptable test-retest reliability.
B. the WAIS-III. B. deficiencies with regard to the standardization sample employed.
C. the WISC-III. C. oversights with respect to scoring guidelines.
D. All of these D. "bugs" in the software used for test interpretation.
105. The deviation IQ replaced the ratio IQ in which edition of the 115. The fourth edition of the Stanford-Binet differed from the previous
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale? three editions in that the fourth edition was
A. the second edition C. the fourth edition A. written in collaboration with David Wechsler.
B. the third edition D. the fifth edition B. recalled within weeks of its initial publication.
C. a point scale.
106. The concept of an alternate item was first introduced in D. an age scale.
A. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale.
B. The Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale. 116. In designing the SB-5, an attempt was made to strike an equal
C. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. balance between tasks requiring _________ and tasks requiring
D. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children. __________.
A. expressive language; receptive language
107. If Shane earns a full-scale IQ of 90 on the WAIS-IV, this means B. expressive and receptive language; minimal language skills
that C. verbal skills; meditative skills
A. ninety percent of the testtakers in Shane's age group scored lower than D. touching and feeling; just touching
Shane on this test.
B. Shane correctly answered 90 questions. 117. The fifth edition of the Stanford-Binet yields _______ Factor Index
C. Shane correctly answered 90% of the questions. scores corresponding to _____________.
D. Shane scored at the low end of the average range. A. 5; 5 factors the test is presumed to measure
B. 5; each of the 5 New York families the test was standardized on
108. The terms basal level, ceiling level, adaptive approach, and C. 3; 3 factors the test is presumed to measure
routing test are collectively BEST associated with the D. 7; 6 of the factors the test is presumed to measure, and 1 validity index
A. SB-5.
B. WISC-IV. 118. For each subtest of the SB-5, there are explicit rules in the test
C. ASVAB. administration manual for the examiner as to where to
D. Mooney Problem Checklist. A. start. C. start and stop.
B. stop. D. start, stop, and reverse.
109. Practice items on the WAIS-IV are referred to as
A. behavioral rehearsal items. 119. For each subtest of the SB-5, there are explicit rules in the test
B. performance items. administration manual for the examiner regarding when to
C. acquisition items. A. provide the testtaker with a verbal prompt.
D. teaching items. B. provide the testtaker with a nonverbal prompt.
C. call for a supervisor.
110. The WAIS-IV is an improvement over its predecessor, the WAIS- D. All of these
III in that the WAIS-IV
A. has a higher ceiling. 120. Most of the test items on the SB-5 are
B. has a lower floor. A. timed. C. culture-free.
C. requires less time to administer. B. not timed. D. best if used before November, 2025.
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121. In scoring the SB-5, the test user will tally scores of individual C. Both assessors with knowledge of whether or not the assessee
items on the SB-5 to obtain understands the task and assessees with feedback regarding whether or
A. a raw score on each of the various subtests. not they are performing in a way that will be keyed correct.
B. a scaled score on each of the various subtests. D. None of these
C. a standard score on each of the various subtests.
D. an index score on each of the subtests. 132. Which is TRUE about short forms of the Stanford-Binet and
Wechsler Scales?
122. When scoring the SB-5, after raw scores for each of the various A. They should never be used.
subtest are calculated, each of these scores are then converted to B. They are almost as accurate as the standard forms.
A. a scaled score. C. a deviation score. C. They are less reliable than the standard forms.
B. a standard score. D. an index score. D. Their use is inadvisable with the deaf.
123. When scoring the SB-5, standard scores are converted to 133. The WASI was created mainly so that
A. scaled scores. C. index scores. A. test users could have a short form of the Wechsler scales with sound
B. deviation scores. D. composite scores. psychometric properties.
B. test users could have a sound measure of emotional intelligence for use
124. The W-B I borrowed from existing tests in with children with handicapping conditions.
A. content not format. C. children from diverse backgrounds could be given language-free
B. format not content. intelligence tests.
C. content and scoring methods. D. the low reliability of the WISC-V could be corrected by a test with
D. format and test administration instructions. approximately twice the number of items.
125. At the time of its publication in 1939, a key difference between the 134. Short forms of intelligence tests
W-B I and the more widely used Stanford-Binet was that that the W-B A. can be more reliable than the long form of the same test.
I was B. are recommended for screening purposes only.
A. an age scale. C. may be short on items, but they are "long" on data provided.
B. independent of IQ. D. All of these
C. a point scale.
D. constructed to be immune to the Flynn effect. 135. Validity of short forms may be reduced because fewer items:
A. means that the test will not be used as often as the longer form.
126. The W-B II was published in 1942 B. lowers test utility which negatively impacts validity.
A. in response to the military's demand for intelligence tests. C. means that the test can only be used for screening purposes.
B. and was more thoroughly standardized than the W-B I. D. lowers test reliability which negatively impacts validity.
C. and contained twice as many subtests as the W-B I.
D. as an alternate form of the W-B I. 136. As cited in the text, the WRIT is
A. a formal order to engage in, or refrain from engaging in, some action.
127. Reference to "the W-B" in the scholarly literature and verbally by B. a short form intelligence test.
psychometricians is typically a reference to C. an essay test of intelligence.
A. the W-B I. D. a reading test that yields an estimate of intelligence.
B. the W-B II.
C. the call letters of a Romanian television network. 137. A primary use for group intelligence tests is
D. None of these A. job placement. C. screening.
B. diagnosis. D. Both job placement and diagnosis.
128. How many people were in the standardization sample for the fifth
edition of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale? 138. The Otis-Lennon School Ability Test yields which of the following
A. 2,400 C. 9,600 composite scores?
B. 4,800 D. 12,600 A. Verbal/Performance Composite
B. Full Scale IQ
129. In 1958, David Wechsler endorsed the use of short forms for C. School Ability Index
screening purposes only. However, 10 years later, Wechsler would D. O-L Composite
advise test users who claimed not to have the time to administer the
full form of the test, 139. Group intelligence tests
A. "find the time." A. are efficient and cost-effective.
B. "do the math." B. can be useful as screening instruments.
C. "Use a short form only with testtakers with a well-documented decreased C. can be useful for research purposes.
attention span." D. All of these
D. "Use a short form in any situation where the benefits of use outweigh the
risks." 140. Which is a DISADVANTAGE of group intelligence tests?
A. The lessened role of the examiner may mean that the examiner has less
130. Judging from David Wechsler's published writings, it could effect on the examinee's score.
reasonably be assumed that the Wechsler test that Wechsler himself B. The examiner has less opportunity to gather behavioral observations of
would LEAST approve of is: examinees during testing.
A. the WISC-III. C. Examinees may become bored or distracted as there tends to be less
B. the WAIS-IV. examiner interaction during test administration.
C. the WASI. D. All other things equal, the reliability of group intelligence tests tends to
D. the WPPSI-III. be significantly less than the reliability of individually-administered tests.
131. Practice items on the WAIS-IV can provide 141. Compared with individually administered intelligence tests,
A. assessors with knowledge of whether or not the assessee understands group intelligence tests
the task. A. are more psychometrically sound.
B. assessees with feedback regarding whether or not they are performing B. have a higher degree of predictive validity.
in a way that will be keyed correct. C. have the advantage in terms of cost efficiency.
D. All of these
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Chapter 10  Assessment for Education 11. According to your textbook, an objection to a standardized testing
program might have merit if the program was
1. In the United States, dubious outcomes with regard to K-12 A. only administered on Tuesdays.
educational systems led to federal legislation known as B. scored and interpreted by computers that were not regularly serviced by
A. Educational Testing and Assessment Act. technicians.
B. Title VII. C. replete with test items widely perceived as age- or grade-inappropriate.
C. National Initiative for the Advancement of Children's Education. D. None of these
D. No Child Left Behind.
12. The Common Core State Standards mandates that nationally, all
2. Critics of federal legislation designed to remedy dubious children perform at grade-level in reading and math. A problem with
educational outcomes have been most vocal about legislative this mandate is that
provisions regarding the necessity for A. it is only a recommendation and does not carry with it the force of law.
A. teacher progress notes for each student. B. the individual states set their own proficiency levels for reading and math.
B. pre-set pass scores on minimal competency exams. C. it provides no curriculum for achieving this mandate.
C. gauging educational progress by standardized tests. D. a student may have successfully completed the mandate in one state,
D. mandatory participation of failing or trailing students in tutoring programs. and then moved to another state and completed it again.
3. If an individual state fails to meet federal guidelines regarding 13. The Common Core State Standards affects the everyday
mandated improvements in students' reading and math scores, then classroom life of some ___ kindergarten-through-12th-grade
A. administrators of the state's Department of Education may be criminally students.
liable. A. 18 million
B. the governor of the state could be held in contempt of Congress. B. 30 million
C. federal funds for education could be withheld. C. 50 million
D. All of these D. 80 million
4. Critics have argued that the net result of federal mandates to 14. The Common Core State Standards
improve students' scores on standardized tests has been that A. set objectives for what K-thru-12 school children should know.
A. teachers "teach to the test." B. provide a curriculum for teaching what K-thru-12 school children should
B. students learn only test-related material. know.
C. the world community remains disappointed in educational outcomes. C. both set objectives for what K-thru-12 school children should know and
D. All of these provide a curriculum for teaching what K-thru-12 school children should
know.
5. According to critics of federal mandates to improve education, if D. None of these
pressure did not exist to meet some federally prescribed level, then
A. more time would be devoted to the design of state education programs. 15. The Common Core State Standards
B. teachers would be able to genuinely improve educational outcomes. A. was first released in 2010.
C. more funds could be allocated to creating innovative audio/visual aids. B. is packaged along with a computer-assisted testing program.
D. None of these C. both was first released in 2010 and is packaged along with a computer-
assisted testing program.
6. Advocates of standardized testing in the schools argue that testing D. None of these
can
A. alert educators to "at risk" children. 16. As an incentive for adapting the Common Core State Standards
B. have important diagnostic implications. (CCSS), the United States Department of Education offered over ____
C. identify areas where a student excels. dollars in grant money to develop tests aligned with the CCSS.
D. All of these A. 50 million
B. 100 million
7. Data derived from standardized educational tests C. 200 million
A. can be used in the service of better allocating school resources. D. 400 million
B. will not prevent teachers from teaching students material that they
already know. 17. Common Core State Standards (CCSS) grant money for test
C. is useful in motivating students to be challenged by new material. development went to two consortia. In this sense, a consortium is
D. None of these A. a group of 15 or more states.
B. a group of 20 or more states.
8. In addition to screening and diagnostic purposes, standardized C. a group of 25 or more states.
educational tests are indispensable for purposes of D. a group of 30 or more states.
A. comparison.
B. security. 18. Common Core State Standards (CCSS) grant money for test
C. uniformity. development went to two consortia. One consortium was the
D. None of these Partnership for the Assessment of Readiness for College and Careers
(PARCC), and the other was called
9. Students learn at different paces and in different ways. In this A. the Three R's Assessment Consortium.
context, educators may use data from tests to B. the Three Amigos Assessment Consortium.
A. evaluate whether specific learning objectives should be pursued. C. the Smarter Balanced Assessment Consortium.
B. decide whether to continue teaching a particular subject matter. D. the Clear Thinking Consortium.
C. discover student preferences in the teaching curriculum.
D. identify what teaching methods work best for which individual student. 19. Why did the U.S. Department of Education (USDE) award grants to
two consortia to write test items for the Common Core State
10. Gerson (2012) made reference to "an ideological opposition to Standards? According to your textbook, two consortia, instead of just
testing as the enemy of educational creativity" in the context of one, may have been chosen in order to
discussing A. hold out incentives to as many states as possible to adopt the Common
A. school administrators who oppose standardized testing. Core State Standards.
B. students who oppose standardized testing. B. ensure that this massive project would be completed on time.
C. teachers who oppose standardized testing. C. allay fears that a national assessment tool was being created.
D. parents who oppose standardized testing. D. implement the longstanding USDE policy: "Two is twice one."
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20. Tests created to assess learning related to the Common Core State C. Standardized tests are the sole CCSS-recommended tool to gauge
Standards must also student progress.
A. be capable of gauging individual student growth. D. All of these
B. provide information about students who perform well above or well below
peers. 29. In your textbook, the term "go figure" is discussed in the context
C. be capable of yielding information that informs instructional decisions. of the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) with reference to what
D. All of these specific aspect of teaching?
A. recreation and hobbies
21. Visitors to the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) website B. gym and physical education
learn that CCSS focuses on developing all of the following EXCEPT C. the curriculum
A. critical thinking skills. D. class demonstrations
B. generative thinking skills.
C. problem-solving skills. 30. Which of the following questions BEST represents an ongoing
D. analytical skills. source of controversy surrounding the Common Core State Standards
(CCSS)?
22. Visitors to the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) website A. How did the CCSS come to be?
learn that CCSS standards establish guidelines for what every B. Why did the CCSS came to be?
kindergarten-thru-12th-grade student _____ C. When the CCSS came to be?
A. should know and be able to do in math and English language arts. D. Who must comply with CCSS provisions?
B. is recommended to know in math and English language arts, among
other academic disciplines. 31. According to published estimates, the Bill and Melinda Gates
C. should demonstrate mastery of as evidenced by computer-assisted, Foundation donated some __________ dollars to help fund the
performance-based tests. Common Core State Standards.
D. in the United States should be able to perform in the areas of math and A. 2.5 million
English language arts. B. 25 million
C. 2.5 billion
23. According to your textbook, the characterization of the Common D. 25 billion
Core State Standards (CCSS) as "a set of standards" is
A. factual. 32. The question of whether the Gates' contribution to the funding of
B. not factual. the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) is more philanthropy or an
C. factual but misleading. investment has been raised because of Bill Gates'
D. not factual and misleading. A. keen interest in, and great focus on education-this despite the fact that
he, himself, was a college drop-out.
24. Not conveyed in the program's title, nor in the website's brief B. purchase of stock options in CCSS-related programs soon after CCSS
description of it, is the extensive ____________ function of the became a reality.
Common Core State Standards (CCSS). C. sale, at a huge profit, of a division of Microsoft charged with the
A. standard-setting responsibility of producing software for CCSS.
B. educational testing D. interest in Microsoft and the CCSS requirement that participating school
C. guideline-setting systems must purchase expensive computer hardware and software.
D. record-keeping
33. Although the federal government did not create the Common Core
25. The Common Core State Standards (CCSS) was presented as a list State Standards (CCSS), the federal government's monetary
of uniform standards. However, as documented in the textbook, the incentives to participating states
CCSS A. is responsible for the majority of states rejecting participation in the
A. represents the expression of a singular vision for what K-through-12 program given the absence of any evidence that it works.
education should be. B. is the reason that the majority of states first accepted, but then ultimately
B. represents a vision of K-through-12 education that is aligned to rejected participation in the program.
standardized tests. C. encouraged buy-in to the program despite the fact that there was
C. both represents the expression of a singular vision for what K-through- absolutely no evidence that the program worked.
12 education should be and represents a vision of K-through-12 education D. led to a widespread, but mistaken crediting of the federal government as
that is aligned to standardized tests. the creator of the program.
D. None of these
34. Constitutionally, responsibility for the education of children
26. According to your textbook, which is true about the Common Core throughout the United States
State Standards (CCSS)? A. is a matter left to the individual states.
A. it's more of a program than a list of standards. B. is the responsibility of the federal government.
B. it not only states what students need to know, but the methods they C. is the responsibility of local counties, cities, and towns.
should use. D. may be public, private, or otherwise, depending on the local school
C. it is designed to culminate in a graduate who has the knowledge and board.
skills envisioned by the creators of the CCSS.
D. All of these 35. Holding out huge sums of federal grant money in exchange for
participation in the program is viewed by critics of the Common Core
27. A teacher conducts a class debate on a current event. According State Standards (CCSS) as
to CCSS guidelines, this activity is A. illegal as out-and-out bribery.
A. consistent with what is required to hone critical thinking skills. B. a perfectly legal way to stimulate trial of a program that is new to the
B. admirable as it represents a creative implementation of a CCSS educational marketplace.
standard. C. a quasi-legal way for the federal government to assume greater control
C. strictly forbidden because it does not appear as a CCSS approved of education.
activity. D. a trivial concern since the states probably would have adopted CCSS
D. None of these anyway.
28. What role do standardized tests play with respect to Common Core
State Standards (CCSS)? 36. Critics of the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) have
A. Standardized tests are the "enforcer" of sorts. contended that the CCSS was
B. Standardized tests are inextricably linked and aligned to the CCSS. A. copyrighted by two Washington lobbyist groups.
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B. not endorsed by James Milgram, the panel's math expert. D. Colorado
C. written by a small group of individuals.
D. All of these 45. The extensive record-keeping and archiving of personal data
required by the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) program has
37. Authorship of the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) is been a matter of concern for
attributed to two Washington lobbying groups including A. privacy advocates.
A. the Council of Chief State School Officers. B. the authors of the CCSS.
B. the Association of Governors for More Uniformly Educated Students. C. the parents of students in CCSS classrooms.
C. both the Council of Chief State School Officers and the Association of D. All of these
Governors for More Uniformly Educated Students.
D. None of these 46. According to your textbook, in China, once a child reaches
elementary school,
38. The Common Core's English expert, Sandra Stotsky, A. the child is tested by a psychologist to see what special talents or abilities
A. refused to give the Common Core a good recommendation. can be cultivated for optimal social benefit.
B. has testified against the Common Core before state legislatures and B. a government official typically reviews with the family various options for
school boards. the child's public or private education.
C. both refused to give the Common Core a good recommendation and has C. the government gives families the option of having psychological
testified against the Common Core before state legislatures and school assessment conducted by a school psychologist or private psychologist.
boards. D. the family strives to provide an environment at home that is conducive
D. None of these for academic success.
39. A criticism of the Common Core State Standards (CCSS) is that it 47. From the view from the East, in an individualist, competitive
contains recommendations for educational practices that are not culture like the one that exists in the United States, students are
widely supported in the scholarly literature. One such practice is expected to
referred to in the CCSS as A. "step up to the plate" and give their personal best to achieve good
A. "pyramidal associations." grades.
B. "cold reading." B. "keep up with the Jones" and get as good or better grades than their
C. "hypothetical expressions." peers.
D. "new math." C. challenge any school placement decision that they believe deprives
children of their "best shot" for academic success.
40. Students in a Common Core classroom are instructed to read and D. All of these
interpret a paragraph from Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet. The
student is provided no background or context regarding the assigned 48. From the view from the East, in an individualist, competitive
passage. According to critics of the Common Core State Standards, culture like the one that exists in the United States, the role of parents,
such an exercise exemplifies how the Common Core State Standards teachers, and others in the community (as well as society-at-large) in
are using the education of the individual, as time goes by ________.
A. iconic works of literature to further a political agenda. A. becomes more varied
B. untested educational methods and practices. B. becomes less segmented
C. educational practices that many experts have deemed ineffective. C. tends to increase
D. All of these D. tends to decrease
41. Critics of the Common Core State Standards have criticized the 49. In collective and cooperative cultures, like the ones that exist in
standards themselves for being China and Japan, various groups of people are expected to share a
A. age-inappropriate good deal of the responsibility for the individual student's learning
B. grade-inappropriate and achievement. Which of the following BEST represents a group
C. ambiguous who is NOT one of those people?
D. All of these A. the student's peers
B. the student's teachers
42. Critics of the Common Core State Standards have criticized the C. the student's family members
test items used as part of the program to gauge student progress. D. the student's healthcare providers
Specifically, some of the test items have been criticized as being
A. age-inappropriate 50. In China, much like other countries that have been deeply
B. grade-inappropriate influenced by Confucius' teachings in human malleability, the
C. both age-inappropriate and grade-inappropriate contribution of natural or innate ability to achievement is
D. None of these A. de-emphasized.
B. emphasized.
43. Critics of the Common Core State Standards have raised questions C. emphasized early on but de-emphasized from around the age of puberty
about the untested nature of the program. More specifically, the forward.
questions has been raised, "Would it have been more reasonable to D. de-emphasized early on but emphasized from around the age of puberty
model a new, large-scale, nationwide undertaking after forward.
A. teaching processes that are known to work?"
B. an existing, well-documented program of standards and test items?" 51. In Eastern culture, the educational system encourages individuals
C. existing standards promulgated by the United States Department of to
Education?" A. forego personal goals in the service of others.
D. Confucian educational standards promulgated by the People's Republic B. relegate personal ambition to a priority that is secondary to the service
of China?" of others.
C. attribute credit for a student's success to others beside the student.
44. In the context of criticism of the untested nature of the Common D. All of these
Core State Standards (CCSS), critics have pointed to the exemplary
educational program in place in the State of __________, which could 52. In China, deficiencies in academic achievement tend to be
have served as a model for the CCSS program. attributed to
A. Washington A. individual differences in innate ability.
B. Arizona B. individual differences in diligence.
C. Massachusetts C. a lingering effect of that country's Great Cultural Revolution.
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D. None of these 62. As re-authorized in 2004, the Individuals with Disabilities
Education Act (IDEA) changed the way that specific learning
53. According to an Eastern perspective, academic success is more disabilities would be diagnosed. The legislation required states to
the product of _________ and less the product of ___________. allow the use of a process based on the child's response to scientific,
A. effort; genetics research-based
B. genetics; effort A. treatment.
C. perseverance; motivation B. intervention.
D. motivation; perseverance C. therapy.
D. instruction.
54. From the view from the East, Western culture is more apt than
Eastern culture to embrace the proposition that 63. A simplified statement of the response to intervention (RtI) model
A. all people are not equal in terms of their genetic preparation for academic is as follows:
achievement. A. 1) intervene, 2) respond to intervention, 3) remediate or intervene as
B. all people are free to follow their dreams and to be all that they can be. needed.
C. accommodations must be made for the academically challenged, but not B. 1) remediate, 2) evaluate, 3) instruct and remediate as needed.
necessarily for the academically gifted. C. 1) evaluate, 2) instruct, 3) evaluate and instruct as needed.
D. All of these D. 1) instruct, 2) evaluate, 3) remediate or instruct as needed.
55. After reviewing the Chinese literature on giftedness, Wu (2005) 64. Response to Intervention (RtI) is said to be "multilevel" in nature
compared Eastern versus Western theoretical assumptions on that because there are at least three levels of intervention. As noted in the
topic and noted that text, these three levels feature instruction administered
A. in the West, there has been a marked evolution towards an Eastern A. 1) by parents, 2) by teachers, and 3) tutors providing individualized
perspective. instruction.
B. as compared to the West, there was a de-emphasis of that topic in China. B. 1) by school officials, 2) by special educators, and 3) by individual tutors.
C. in contrast to the West, giftedness in the East is widely viewed as "prized C. 1) in the regular classroom, 2) in small groups, and 3) individualized
seeds that will bear valued fruit." instruction.
D. in contrast to the West, Eastern culture presumes each citizen should be D. 1) in a special education class, 2) individualized, and 3) at-home by
on a specific "track" to take full advantage of their giftedness. parents.
56. According to the Close-Up in Chapter 10, a scholar from China 65. In implementing RtI, schools may use interventions tailored to
would be most likely to criticize the American educational system for students' individual needs that are selected by a multidisciplinary
A. giving students excessive freedom in choosing career paths. team of school professionals. According to the text, this approach to
B. not properly training instructors in Confucian beliefs. RtI is referred to as
C. "pigeon-holing" students into specific educational tracks. A. the problem-solving model.
D. not following the teachings of the Great Cultural Revolution. B. the general intervention model.
C. the hybrid model.
57. According to the Close-Up in Chapter 10, during the Great Cultural D. None of these
Revolution that began in China in 1978,
A. psychology, as a scientific and professional discipline, was elevated in 66. The term integrative assessment may BEST be interpreted as
status and used, among other ways, to strengthen China's military. referring to
B. special education efforts were stepped-up in an effort to produce A. the integration of findings from a variety of instruments into one report.
independent citizens capable of contributing to the common good. B. the integration of findings from a variety of sources into one report.
C. all programs for the gifted were suspended as they were perceived as C. the integration of findings from unobtrusive measures into the report.
elitist in most areas of the People's Republic of China. D. integrating a statement of fees for professional services into the report.
D. psychology, as a scientific and professional discipline, was completely
eliminated from mainland China. 67. In the excerpt of her Meet an Assessment Professional published
in the text, school psychologist Eliane Hack recalled advice she was
58. Ideally, an entire testing session with a preschooler should be given as an undergraduate intern in school psychology. Her advisor
A. 1 hour or less. told her that the most important skill of a school psychologist was the
B. 90 minutes or less. ability to
C. 2 hours or less. A. listen and understand.
D. 30 minutes or less. B. genuinely be empathic.
C. see the obvious.
59. A dual-easel format in test administration refers to D. perceive what was not obvious.
A. response sheets used alternately for the right and left hands.
B. a stand that can be used simultaneously by both the examiner and the 68. An approach to discovering a student's learning potential based
examinee. on a model of testing-intervention-retesting is referred to as
C. two canvasses for a test of artistic abilities. A. integrative assessment.
D. a book that can be folded and placed on a desk. B. dynamic assessment.
C. authentic assessment.
60. The definition of learning disability given in your textbook D. biopsychosocial assessment.
A. is based on wording from a 1952 federal law.
B. relates only to academic and not to social or behavioral difficulties.
C. applies only to academic problems that are cultural in origin. 69. Achievement testing for education-related purposes is done to
D. None of these answer various questions. Which of the following is NOT one of those
questions?
61. As re-authorized in 2004, the Individuals with Disabilities A. How much of this course material have you actually learned?
Education Act (IDEA) B. What is causing problems in learning this course material?
A. changed the way that specific learning abilities would be diagnosed. C. Are you a candidate for the program you would like to enroll in?
B. provided for curriculum-based measurement. D. Is sufficient shredded wheat being consumed to support concentration?
C. encouraged the use of conceptual versus fact-based items on
achievement tests. 70. Achievement tests may be administered in school settings for
D. All of these many reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of those reasons?
A. To gauge student progress towards instructional objectives.
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B. To survey interests in various occupations and professions. 80. Which of the following would BEST serve the purpose of helping
C. To compare an individual student's performance to peers. to diagnose math difficulties in a nine-year-old child?
D. To help determine what instruction might best assist students. A. the WRMT-III
B. the SDMT-IV
71. The age limit for the WIAT-III is C. the MCAT
A. 21. D. peer appraisal
B. 50.
C. 70. 81. Which of the following is NOT a variable assessed as part of an
D. 89. APGAR evaluation?
A. muscle tone
72. As noted in the text, when selecting a nationally standardized test, B. cognitive ability
there are certain "musts" and certain "desirables." Which of the C. color
following variables was NOT listed among the list of "desirables"? D. All of these variables ARE assessed as part of an APGAR evaluation.
A. ease of administration
B. psychometric soundness 82. Preschool tests predict performance on
C. ease of scoring A. adult tests of creativity.
D. relevance to testtakers B. vocational tests administered to the testtaker as a young adult.
C. vocational tests administered to the testtaker as a middle-aged adult.
73. Concern about content used in standardized achievement tests as D. other child and adult tests when preschool test scores were extreme.
opposed to what is actually being taught in the local schools has
fostered interest in 83. An informant marks test items indicating how often a particular
A. non-standardized measurement (NSM). behavior occurs. This informant is MOST likely completing a
B. extra-academic exposure (EAE). A. rating scale.
C. school-based learning (SBL). B. structured interview.
D. curriculum-based assessment (CBA). C. projective inventory.
D. structured settlement.
74. The difference between whether an achievement test item is said
to be fact-based or conceptual has to do in large part with the extent 84. An informant marks items describing the presence or absence of
to which specified behaviors, thoughts, events or circumstances. The
A. the content of the item is indeed factual or merely opinion-based. informant is MOST likely completing a
B. concepts referred to in the test item are presented clearly. A. rating scale.
C. rote memory alone can be used to access the correct response. B. structured interview.
D. the testtaker believes that the content has a true basis in fact. C. checklist.
D. structured projective inventory.
75. "Understanding what students have already mastered can help
school authorities better anticipate what content and skills they are 85. Checklists and rating scales are ideally used primarily for
ready to learn." This sentence from the text can be used to support A. making a diagnosis.
the argument that B. designing an intervention.
A. aptitude tests are achievement tests in disguise. C. screening purposes.
B. achievement tests are projective tests in disguise. D. revising other checklists and rating scales.
C. achievement tests are dynamic tests in disguise.
D. aptitude tests are prognostic tests. 86. An instrument used to identify which children should receive a
more comprehensive evaluation is, MOST likely, a ______ instrument.
76. In what year was attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) A. screening
officially added to the list of disabling condition that can qualify a child B. diagnostic
for special services? C. multi-use
A. 1986 D. weak psychometric
B. 1999
C. 2006 87. Checklists and rating scales are used with
D. 2011 A. infants and preschoolers.
B. school-age children.
77. As reported in the text, one study critical of the SAT observed C. adults.
differential item functioning on that college admission test as a D. All of these
function of
A. the grade-point averages of the testtakers. 88. Children deemed to be at risk are MOST typically
B. the measured intelligence of the testtakers. A. preschool children who may not be ready for school.
C. the gender of the testtakers. B. preschool children with documented difficulties in one or more
D. the effects of daylight savings time. psychological, social, and academic areas requiring intervention.
C. from families where their parents or guardians have not yet purchased
78. Tests such as the SAT and ACT have been criticized for not term life insurance.
including measures of creativity. Interestingly, one 2011 study of the D. Both preschool children who may not be ready for school and preschool
ACT found that it children with documented difficulties in one or more psychological, social,
A. was predictive of creativity as well as academic success. and academic areas requiring intervention.
B. contained more items to measure creativity than previously thought. 89. Psychoeducational test batteries are designed to measure
C. contained more items to measure creativity than the SAT. A. ability and achievement.
D. was predictive of innovation in a group of new inventions. B. scholastic aptitude.
C. adjustment and personality.
79. The WRMT-III D. academic motivation.
A. is available in computer-administered form.
B. has been modified to include biofeedback input. 90. The intra-individual comparison of psychoeducational test scores
C. is a paper-and-pencil administered test. is used MOST for
D. All of these A. job placement.
B. grade-level placement.
C. clinical intervention.
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D. educational intervention. D. applies knowledge gained from years of education and professional
training.
91. The K-ABC was designed to measure
A. achievement. 101. Measures of interest, attitudes, and study habits are all BEST
B. intelligence. characterized as measures of
C. both achievement and intelligence. A. perceptual motor ability.
D. general aptitude. B. academic achievement.
C. motivation.
92. Which of the following is a psychoeducational test battery? D. creativity.
A. Stanford-Binet 5
B. Woodcock-Johnson III 102. Which of the following contributes to academic performance?
C. Hilton PTB A. study habits C. attitudes
D. K-ABC B. interests D. All of these
93. Which includes both an aptitude and an achievement component 103. A possible limitation of using portfolios to measure academic
as part of the test battery? achievement is that portfolios
A. SB5 A. have little relevance to learning in real-world setting.
B. K-ABC B. have yet to be successfully used in academic settings.
C. WISC-IV C. require motivation, not skill to assemble.
D. The CHC D. may tap prior knowledge, not current learning.
94. Which of the following aptitude tests is cited in your textbook as 104. The Woodcock-Johnson III is based MOST on which theory of
being most cost-effective in terms of predicting success in graduate cognitive abilities?
school? A. Cattell-Horn
A. the GRE B. Gardener
B. the SAT C. Woodcock and Johnson
C. the MAT D. Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC)
D. the Mooney Problem Checklist
105. The Woodcock-Johnson III includes tests of
95. A high rate of attrition among students studying to become A. vocational aptitude. C. psychopathology.
physicians in the 1920s led to the development of the B. achievement. D. All of these
A. MCAT.
B. SAT. 106. The Woodcock-Johnson III is appropriate for administration to
C. MAT. testtakers age 2 through age ___.
D. GRE. A. 12 C. 65
B. 18 D. 90
96. To a great extent, whether a test is referred to as an "achievement
test" or an "aptitude test" tends to depend on 107. For which of the following is The Woodcock-Johnson III
A. the face validity of the test for a specific purpose. recommended for use as?
B. whether it can be shown that aptitude plays no factor in an achievement A. a screening tool
test score. B. a diagnostic tool
C. whether it can be shown that achievement plays no factor in an aptitude C. a tool for educational placement
test score. D. All of these
D. the use to which the test is put.
108. Achievement batteries
97. According to the authors of your textbook, successful preparation A. apply to one grade or span many grades.
for the GRE subject test in Psychology will entail B. may be concurrently normed with aptitude tests.
A. purchase of a commercially available review book. C. may be norm-referenced or criterion-referenced.
B. visiting the Educational Testing Service Web site. D. All of these
C. reading an introductory psychology text, cover-to-cover.
D. All of these 109. Academicians may argue about what achievement tests actually
measure, but it seems reasonable to conclude that most such tests
98. Binet and Simon used the term mental orthopedics to advance measure
their argument that A. accomplishment. C. ability.
A. tests of intelligence could be used in the workplace. B. intelligence. D. potential.
B. intelligence testing could have diagnostic implications.
C. the definition of intelligence included motivation to work. 110. To determine if a high school graduate should receive college
D. staff in mental institutions should be provided orthopedic shoes. credit for extra work in high school, which test should be
administered?
99. On a psychoeducational test battery, an intra-individual A. the ASVAB C. the MAT
comparison may be made to evaluate a testtaker's B. the CLEP D. the WJ-III
A. relative strengths and weaknesses.
B. performance relative to other testtakers of the same age. 111. Which academic subject area is most assessed at the elementary
C. performance relative to other testtakers at the same grade level. school level?
D. social skills relative to others of the same age. A. reading C. social studies
B. science D. arithmetic
100. An advantage of using peer appraisal techniques as part of a
classroom assessment is that peer appraisal 112. Aptitude tests are typically designed to assess
A. relies heavily on teacher interviews that tend to have well-documented A. learning that has occurred at school or by other formal means of
validity. instruction.
B. results in data that tends to be highly stable over time. B. innate learning potential.
C. allows for the identification of difficulties that teachers may be unaware C. informal learning.
of. D. Both innate learning potential and informal learning.
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113. To determine if a child is ready for kindergarten, a school B. CBM is a type of CBA.
psychologist might administer C. CBA is a better measure of aptitude.
A. the Metropolitan Readiness Test. D. CBM is a better measure of aptitude.
B. the CLEP.
C. the Iowa Tests of Basic Skills. 125. A graphic representation of peer appraisal is referred to as
D. the Mooney Problem Checklist. A. a peer picture. C. a friendship tree.
B. a sociogram. D. an appraze-o-graph.
114. Which is TRUE of the computerized Graduate Record Exam?
A. It can be taken online at home. 126. The "Guess who?" method is used
B. Previous versions of it are available on disk or online. A. in lieu of group tests for intelligence.
C. Test results are available about 30 days after taking it. B. to screen new employees.
D. None of these C. for purposes of peer appraisal.
D. at Congressional hearings featuring high-level administrators of the CIA
115. A school district desires to purchase an achievement test that will and the FBI.
be administered annually to the students in that district for the
purpose of monitoring progress. It is your job is to select a test. Your 127. A researcher uses the peer appraisal method to evaluate a group
test selection strategy is to of students. The researcher may obtain assessment data by
A. choose the test that is annually re-normed so that the it is most up-to- consulting
date. A. the student being evaluated, since this is a self-report measure.
B. choose the test with the largest normative sample. B. the teacher, the parent, and family members of the student.
C. choose the test with content that best matches the district's educational C. individuals with whom the student attends classes.
objectives D. Both the teacher, the parent, and family members of the student and
D. hire a consultant who knows what they are doing and can do a better job. individuals with whom the student attends classes.
116. Predictive validity studies have evaluated the relationship 128. The Study Habits Checklist is designed to assess
between scores obtained on the Law School Admission Test (LSAT) A. study habits. C. attitudes.
and grade-point-average of first-year law students. As reported in your B. interests. D. All of these
textbook, such studies have tended to show
A. high positive correlations. C. low correlations. 129. The greatest value of preschool tests is their
B. negative correlations. D. zero correlations. A. use in identifying children who are in the low range of functioning and in
need of intervention.
117. The primary objective of the SAT is to B. use in decision-making regarding which teacher will best address the
A. assess high school achievement. needs of which child.
B. predict college performance. C. well-documented ability to predict future level of academic achievement.
C. assess college achievement. D. well-documented ability to predict vocational success.
D. guarantee competent professionals.
130. A pre-school child who is said to be "at risk" is a pre-school child
118. The Miller Analogies Test (MAT) consists of multiple-choice who may be
analogy items that assess A. diagnosed with a disability.
A. vocabulary. C. ability to perceive relationships. B. evidencing a developmental lag.
B. academic learning. D. All of these C. in need of specialized interventions.
D. All of these
119. The test known as the MCAT is a test used for admission to
A. the Merchant Marine Academy. 131. Achievement batteries tend to be __________________
B. monasteries. instruments, whereas measures of achievement in specific subject
C. medical school. areas tend to be _________________ instruments.
D. the military. A. criterion-referenced; norm-referenced
B. teacher-made; standardized
120. Diagnostic tests C. group-administered; individually-administered
A. divide a skill into its components. D. standardized; teacher-made
B. are administered to students who have already demonstrated difficulty.
C. pinpoint areas of deficiency or weakness. 132. Tests of achievement typically measure
D. All of these A. innate potential.
B. informal learning based on life experiences.
121. A teacher wishes to administer an individual psychoeducational C. learning that has occurred in formal and structured settings.
battery. Which would you recommend? D. a combination of innate potential and learning that has occurred through
A. the WJ-III everyday life experiences.
B. the K-ABC
C. the DAS 133. What is a difference between achievement and aptitude tests?
D. None of these unless the teacher was a licensed psychologist. A. Aptitude tests are more limited in scope than achievement tests.
B. Aptitude tests draw on a broader fund of knowledge than achievement
122. The KeyMath3 is used with testtakers in the age range of 3-years- tests.
old to C. Aptitude tests are not used to make predictions about future
A. 12-years-old. C. 21-years-old. performance, whereas achievement tests are used for this purpose.
B. 18-years-old. D. None of these. D. Aptitude tests require skills that are formally taught in school, and
123. The acronym for an achievement test designed for use with achievement tests require skills that are learned informally.
testtakers age 17 and over who have not completed eight years of
formalized schooling is the 134. Aptitude tests measure
A. ABLE. C. CLEP. A. the cognitive abilities that intelligence tests measure.
B. ABPP. D. SCHLEP. B. learning that has occurred as a result of exposure to a relatively defined
learning experience.
124. With regard to the relationship between curriculum-based C. learning that has occurred informally through life experiences.
assessment (CBA) and curriculum-based measurement (CBM), D. learning that has occurred through formal structured input.
A. CBA is a type of CBM.
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135. Which is an example of an aptitude test that can be used at the 146. In order to determine whether or not a learning disability exists, a
elementary school level? psychologist may evaluate
A. Scholastic Aptitude Test A. cognitive ability and academic achievement.
B. Metropolitan Readiness Test B. vision and hearing.
C. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children C. socioeconomic background.
D. KeyMath3 D. All of these
136. For admission to college, you may be required to take a test 147. The BEST approach to diagnosing a specific learning ability
published by the American College Testing Program (ACT). The ACT would be for the examiner to
is what type of test? A. administer a psychoeducational test.
A. a test of proficiency B. conduct a parent interview.
B. a test of minimal competency C. review past assessments and interventions.
C. an aptitude test D. All of these
D. a general achievement test
148. The Wechsler Individual Achievement Test, Third Edition (WIAT-
137. Students who plan to attend graduate school will MOST likely III) is appropriate for which age range?
take which test? A. preschool only
A. Scholastic Aptitude Test B. school age only
B. Graduate Record Exam C. preschool through adult ages
C. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test D. preschool and school age
D. KeyMath3
149. Which of the following is TRUE of the achievement areas tapped
138. A primary reason for administering an aptitude test is on the Wechsler Individual Achievement Test, Third Edition (WIAT-
A. to predict future performance. III)?
B. to provide an estimate of cognitive/intellectual ability. A. It is limited to assessing all skills related to reading.
C. to pinpoint an area of weaknesses or deficiency. B. It is limited to assessing all skills related to math.
D. to diagnose a learning disability. C. It has a component designed to assess skill in listening.
D. None of these
139. As used in schools, diagnostic tests are designed to
A. diagnose learning disabilities. 150. According to your text, the preschool period is
B. pinpoint the biological or medical basis for a specific learning problem. A. that period of time prior to starting school.
C. pinpoint where a student is having difficulty in a particular academic skill. B. synonymous with the first 5 years of life.
D. determine which academic area a child is best suited to major in. C. the period of time when developmental disabilities are most likely to
develop.
140. The term mental orthopedics refers to the use of intelligence test D. the time from birth through age four.
data to improve
A. intelligence. C. flexibility in study habits. 151. A nationally standardized test of achievement
B. learning. D. both physical and mental health. A. may not meet the assessment needs of a local test user.
B. may have outdated items due to the time it took to develop the test.
141. A college sends out an acceptance letter to an applicant. In this C. is typically standardized on a large, nationally representative sample of
example, the college has made students.
A. a diagnostic decision. C. an evaluative decision. D. All of these
B. a screening decision. D. an executive decision.
152. The "evaluation of one's work samples" is the hallmark of
142. Using data from individually-administered tests, a school A. culture-free assessment.
psychologist determines that a student has a significant problem with B. culture-specific assessment.
word identification skills. The student is then placed in an intensive C. culture-fair assessment.
phonics program. In this scenario, the decision to place the student in D. None of these
such a program would BEST be referred to as:
A. a diagnostic decision. C. an evaluative decision. 153. A shortcoming of portfolio assessment in the schools is that
B. a screening decision. D. an executive decision. portfolios
A. can be difficult and time-consuming to evaluate.
143. Diagnostic tests are MOST typically used to B. are too childish to use in high school.
A. make a placement decision within highly technical employment settings. C. require too little effort on the part of students.
B. determine what specific areas of academic difficulty require intervention. D. None of these
C. make a screening decision in the military.
D. None of these. 154. Evaluating reading skills by asking a college student to read an
article in a scholarly journal is an example of
144. The Advanced Placement program developed by the College A. portfolio assessment.
Entrance Examination Board provides qualified high school students B. authentic assessment.
with the opportunity to earn college credit while still in high school. C. realistic assessment.
Such credits are earned by means of D. culture-fair assessment.
A. aptitude tests.
B. measures of specific achievement. 155. A student works in a convenience store as a clerk where cash is
C. measures of general achievement. still handled by hand, not a cash register. The store owner assesses
D. criterion scores on the ACT. the student's arithmetic skills by watching the student handle
transactions. The type of evaluation that is being conducted may
145. Curriculum-based assessment refers to the assessment of BEST be characterized as
A. material that is taught in the classroom. A. criterion-referenced assessment.
B. knowledge as applied to the "real world." B. portfolio assessment.
C. knowledge transferred from one area to another. C. authentic assessment.
D. government-mandated topic areas. D. culture-fair assessment.
156. Public Law 105-17
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A. provided that infants and toddlers with disabilities must receive services 167. According to the text, the use of portfolio assessment in the
in the home. schools
B. placed greater emphasis than ever before on the impact of diversity in A. has been strongly encouraged by teachers.
evaluation for special education programs. B. is limited by law by many states.
C. expanded the scope of Public Law 99-457. C. tends to be less demanding than more traditional measures.
D. All of these D. may penalize students who are not creative.
157. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) was officially 168. From the perspective of one charged with the task of assessing
added to the federal list of disabling conditions that can qualify a child students, the evaluation of portfolios
for special services in A. can be more time-consuming than test evaluation.
A. 1997. C. 2003 B. is the most practical means of assessment for large lecture classes.
B. 1999. D. 2012. C. is much more enjoyable than grading essays.
. D. None of these
158. Research on the CBCL analyzed parent ratings of over 58,000
teenagers. The data 169. Authentic assessment is also known as
A. confirmed that the CBCL was particularly well suited for monitoring A. true-to-life assessment.
ADHD treatment. B. reality-based assessment.
B. suggested that teenage drug experimentation was more widespread C. performance-based assessment.
than previously hypothesized. D. real-life assessment.
C. supported the eight-syndrome structure of the instrument.
D. was inconclusive due to the subjects' preoccupation with Pokemon-Go! 170. Which LEAST represents an example of authentic assessment as
applied to reading skills?
159. Perhaps the greatest value of preschool tests lies in their use for A. Reading a manual on how to assemble a chair.
identifying children who are B. Reading a paragraph prepared for the SAT.
A. in a very low range of functioning and in need of intervention. C. Reading an article in U.S. News & World Reports.
B. in a very high range of functioning and in need of intervention. D. Reading an online restaurant review before going to that restaurant for
C. Both in a very low range of functioning and in need of intervention and in lunch.
a very high range of functioning and in need of intervention.
D. None of these 171. According to the text, a potential drawback of authentic
160. The CRS-R is particularly well suited for assessment in the schools is that
A. diagnosing depression. A. few instructors have the time to administer authentic assessments.
B. screening for suicidal tendencies. B. questions have been raised regarding how "authentic" authentic
C. Both diagnosing depression and screening for suicidal tendencies. assessment really is.
D. monitoring ADHD treatment. C. some assessments have proven too authentic and jarring for some
testtakers.
161. A study comparing the ACT with the SAT found D. skills learned somewhere other than the classroom may really be what
A. little correlation between the tests. is being assessed.
B. both tests were highly correlated with general intelligence.
C. both tests were satisfactory predictors of grade-point-average in the first 172. Peer appraisals are useful to teachers
year of college. A. in calling attention to individuals who are experiencing some sort of
D. None of these difficulty that the teacher has not observed.
B. because they allow the teacher to view their students from an entirely
162. Both the SAT and the ACT are used to different perspective.
A. preserve an institution's reputation for selectivity. C. because they supply information about group dynamics.
B. enhance diversity on campus. D. All of these
C. assist universities in student job placement.
D. None of these 173. Peer appraisals are used in
A. academic settings.
163. Undergraduate admissions criteria such as motivation and B. work settings.
interest can best be judged by: C. military settings.
A. score on SAT Subject Area tests. D. All of these
B. ACT Interest Area tests.
C. letters written by candidates themselves. 174. In a test administered to a fifth-grade class, one of the items
D. letters written by candidates' parole officers. reads, "The student who is the most fun in the playground." The test
being administered is most likely
164. A now classic measure of musical aptitude was developed by A. one of the "Guess Who?" variety.
A. Horn. B. a supplementary test on the WISC-V.
B. Drum. C. one that entails authentic assessment.
C. Seashell. D. a measure of sociability aptitude.
D. Seashore.
175. Members of an elite, police SWAT (Special Weapons and Tactics)
165. A performance test typically are asked on a test, Who would you most like as your partner for your
A. contains items that demand the test-taker to perform. next tour of duty? The test is most likely
B. taps certain knowledge or skills expected of the test-taker. A. one of the "Guess Who?" variety.
C. requires that correct responses be pantomimed. B. a nominating test.
D. None of these C. one that entails authentic assessment.
D. a portfolio evaluation.
166. Which of the following BEST exemplifies a performance task that
could be used on a licensing test for school psychologists? 176. Which of the following would be MOST useful in assessing the
A. "Write an essay on how Alfred Binet developed a test for schools in relative popularity of each member of a group of contestants on a
Paris." reality television program such as Survivor
B. "Self-administer the following behavioral checklist." A. a portfolio evaluation
C. "Interpret the following set of psychoeducational test data." B. an aptitude test
D. "Parallel park a school bus in the staff parking area." C. a nominating test
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D. The Mooney Problem Checklist D. has a special status in that it may only treated by a medication program
that is supervised by a qualified school psychiatrist.
177. In the acronym presented in text for remembering what each of
the variables in the APGAR measures, the letter G in APGAR stands 188. Public Law 99-457 mandated that beginning with the school year
for 1990-1991, all disabled children from ages 3 to 5
A. good muscle tone. A. must be formally diagnosed as such and placed in appropriate
B. genetic inheritance. institutions.
C. glucose. B. must be formally diagnosed as such and placed in special classes
D. grimace. expressly designed to address their disability.
C. shall have the option to go to regular schools and be "mainstreamed," or
178. The best score an infant can earn on an APGAR evaluation is go to private schools that will be more focused on addressing their special
A. 10. C. 1. needs.
B. 5. D. 100. D. be provided with a free, appropriate education.
179. Which acronym is BEST associated with the work of Feuerstein? 189. Public Law 105-17 mandated that infants and toddlers with
A. LAPD disabilities must receive services
B. DPLA A. in the home.
C. LPAD B. in preschool settings.
D. PLAID C. from a state-certified physician.
D. Both in the home and in preschool settings.
180. Which name is BEST associated with the term zone of proximal
development? 190. The Achenbach CBCL is designed for use with children
A. Vygotsky A. as young as 1.5 years old.
B. Feuerstein B. as young as 2.5 years old.
C. Budoff C. as young as 3 years old.
D. Luria D. who characteristically cause parents to utter the words, "My aching
back!"
181. According to the text, the research of which of the following

theorists is BEST associated with dynamic assessment?
A. Carroll C. Luria
B. Budoff D. Woodcock
182. As compared to more traditional assessment procedures, the

assessor conducting a dynamic assessment typically
A. exhibits "more personality."
B. is not neutral.
C. is also an educator.
D. All of these
183. Variations introduced in the assessment procedure during the

course of dynamic assessment:
A. contribute to the problem of judging the validity of the approach.
B. may take the form of prompts delivered by verbal means.
C. may take the form of clues delivered by nonverbal means.
D. All of these
184. According to the text, the chief concern expressed in many

critical reviews of the KABC-II had to do with the test's
A. reliability.
B. validity.
C. dual theoretical model.
D. cultural fairness.
185. Some achievement test batteries contain locator tests that

A. may otherwise be called router tests.
B. assist in examiners in locating grade-appropriate stimulus materials.
C. are used to determine what is most appropriate for administration.
D. Both may otherwise be called router tests and are used to determine
what is most appropriate for administration.
186. According to the text, a revision of the Individuals with

Disabilities Education Act specifically states that
A. an aptitude test must be valid for the purpose for which it used.
B. only a licensed psychologist may make a diagnosis of SLD.
C. no single measure may be used to diagnose SLDs.
D. no single measure may be used to diagnose STDs.
187. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A. is a disabling condition that can qualify a child for special services.
B. was specifically excluded by law in 1999 as being a disabling condition
that can qualify a child for special services.
C. can qualify a child for special services only if another more severe
disability is also diagnosed at the same time.
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Chapter 11  Personality Assessment: An Overview A. has demonstrated an "inappropriate direction of interest" towards a
public figure
1. According to the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), threat B. has attempted to communicate directly with a public figure by telephone,
assessment may be defined as a process of identifying or evaluating mail, or e-mail
entities, actions, or occurrences, whether natural or man-made, that C. physically approached a public figure in an inappropriate way
A. the DHS has deemed to be life-threatening or otherwise potentially D. All of these
harmful.
B. Interpol has determined poses an imminent danger to persons or 10. When gauging the level of threat, postings on social media are
organizational entities. evaluated. Of particular concern to assessors are communications
C. have or indicate the potential to harm life, information, operations and/or that contain each of the following EXCEPT
property. A. an outright or direct threat made to the public figure.
D. All of these B. an inappropriate plea for help addressed to the public figure.
C. an unsolicited request to the public figure for employment.
2. Colonel Rick Malone is an active duty military forensic psychiatrist, D. an angry complaint about, or addressed to, the public figure.
currently serving as a behavioral science officer with the U.S. Army
Criminal Investigation Command. His duties include all of the 11. After a threat has been perceived, what is done in response?
following EXCEPT According to Dr. Rick Malone, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A. conducting medical fitness-for-duty evaluations for U.S. Army personnel. A. In some cases, due to relatively limited resources, not very much is done.
B. consulting with his agency's agents on investigations. B. Threat assessors will prioritize communications in terms of which warrant
C. behavioral analysis of crime scene evidence. a response and what the level of that response should be.
D. conducting psychological autopsies. C. For starters, a brief assessment will be conducted to estimate the level
of concern that the threat warrants.
3. For Colonel Rick Malone, the practice of threat assessment entails, D. A formal investigation consisting of examination of public records will be
among other things, the gathering of intelligence designed to protect launched.
senior Department of Defense officials who are referred to as
"principals". 12. Meloy's (2000) biopsychosocial (BPS) model identifies
A. dignitaries C. principals individual/psychological factors, social/situational factors, and
B. protectees D. VIPs biological factors that have been shown to be associated with
A. successful execution of a threat made.
4. The tool of assessment that Dr. Rick Malone tends to rely on most B. higher rates of interpersonal violence.
is what Dr. Malone refers to C. analogue models of attempted threats.
A. a threat assessment protocol. D. computer models of copycat crimes.
B. sequential threat evaluation.
C. qualitative sequential assessment. 13. According to Dr. Rick Malone, which is true about Meloy's (2000)
D. structured professional judgment. biopsychosocial (BPS) model?
A. It assigns numerical scores to threat levels.
5. Unstructured approaches to threat assessment based solely on B. It does not assign ranges for threat levels.
clinical judgement are vulnerable to criticism regarding C. It was specifically created to asses threats against public figures.
A. the reliability of the judgments. D. All of these
B. the validity of the judgements.
C. the accountability of the assessor. 14. According to Dr. Rick Malone, the best source of data for making
D. All of these inferences as to how dangerous persons of interest actually are may
be
6. According to Dr. Rick Malone, the disadvantages of a strictly A. publicly available information about the person of interest such as arrest
actuarial approach to threat assessment include the fact that such records.
approaches typically B. electronic postings that were posted about the person of interest by
A. prohibit the assessor from considering unique, unusual, or context- friends and family.
specific variables. C. communications created by those person themselves, such as postings
B. provide the assessor with excessive leeway to consider unique, unusual, on social media.
or context-specific variables. D. publicly available information about the person of interest such as arrest
C. deny the assessor unrestricted access to critical information due to records and electronic postings that were posted about the person of
HIPPA or related laws regarding confidentiality or privilege. interest by friends and family.
D. None of these
15. A person of interest's postings on social media can be revealing
7. Structured professional judgment is an approach to threat with respect to all of the following EXCEPT
assessment that A. an individual's daily activities.
A. attempts to bridge the gap between actuarial and unstructured clinical B. an individual's financial resources.
approaches. C. an individual's interests.
B. relies on evidence-based guidelines that are directly informed by the D. an individual's delusional beliefs.
scientific and professional literature.
C. allows assessors discretion in their interpretations of clinical data. 16. When conducting a threat assessment using Meloy's
D. All of these biopsychosocial model, information derived from public records will
be evaluated for evidence of ________ behavior, according to that
8. The word "structured" in the term structured professional model.
judgement A. high threat C. high risk
A. refers to a minimum set of factors that should be considered in a threat B. warning D. condition red
assessment.
B. is controversial since the approach does not restrict the ways that risk 17. Dr. Rick Malone's threat management team decides whether to
factors may be measured. proceed with an investigation and/or take steps to mitigate the threat
C. is a reference to guidelines for combining risk factors according to an based on
applicable algorithm. A. Interpol's evaluation of the level of the existing threat.
D. None of these B. the amount and quality of information in hand, as well as the team's level
9. According to Dr. Rick Malone, a circumstance where a threat of concern.
assessment will be launched occurs when one individual _________.
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C. how imminent the threat is in terms of communications made by the C. typically observed in pre-adolescent humans.
person of interest. D. first identified in the 1960s and 1970s.
D. All of these
27. The primary question of interest for the researchers of the
18. Dr. Rick Malone's threat management team is tasked with Karisoke Research Center could be summed-up as,
balancing personal and public safety needs against all citizens' A. "What traits make a gorilla a good leader?"
A. right to privacy. B. "How do gorilla traits differ from human traits?"
B. right of free speech. C. "What similarities exist between human and gorilla leaders?"
C. right not to be falsely imprisoned. D. "What makes for a ‘good personality' among gorillas?"
D. All of these
28. The test used in the study of gorilla personality by the researchers
19. Dr. Rick Malone mentioned all of the following possible in Karisoke contained how many items?
consequences of threat assessment investigative activities EXCEPT: A. 14 C. 34
A. The investigation can have a significant negative impact on the person B. 24 D. 54
of interest's life due to the revelation of questionable behavior to friends,
family, and business associates. 29. In the Karisoke study of the personality of gorillas, an item such
B. The investigation may inadvertently expand the nature of the threat, as "Subject may express high status by decisively intervening in
causing friends, family, business associates or others to become objects of social interactions" was a measure of the personality trait of
the threat. A. sociability.
C. The investigation may "tip-off" the person of interest, causing that person B. aggression.
to immediately cease any threat-related activities. C. dominance.
D. The investigation may "tip-off" the person of interest, causing that person D. resourcefulness.
to immediately escalate any threat-related activities.
30. The personality test used in the Karisoke study of the personality
20. Effective assessment and mitigation of threat requires the ability of gorillas was prepared in both English and French because
to work as part of a multidisciplinary team with a diverse group of A. the gorillas had been spoken to only in French by the field guides.
professionals. Which of the following groups was NOT cited by Dr. B. the test had originally been developed by a French-speaking
Rick Malone as being a member of the threat assessment team? anthropologist.
A. mental health professionals C. some of the tests were administered by researchers from the Sorbonne
B. prosecutors in Paris, and Oxford University in England.
C. judges D. None of these
D. corporate security experts
31. In the Karisoke study of the personality of gorillas, raters were
21. According to Dr. Rick Malone, students who are drawn to threat instructed to score gorillas on each trait using a _____ scale ranging
assessment work should make sure that they have a solid grounding from (1) "either total absence or negligible amounts" to (7) "extremely
in _____ psychology. large amounts."
A. personality C. forensic A. ratio
B. clinical D. All of these B. Likert
C. semantic differential
22. When he turned __-years-old, a mountain gorilla named Cantsbee D. folivorous
took over the leadership of what was to become the largest, ever-
observed gorilla group. 32. Because the gorillas studied in the Karisoke personality project
A. 12 live in stable and predictable environments with limited food
B. 17 competition and little vulnerability to stressors, the researchers
C. 21 hypothesized that the subjects would be rated low on
D. 24 A. sociability.
B. dominance.
23. According to Eckardt and Weiss, one of the longest-existing C. neuroticism.
primate research field sites, with almost 50 years of mountain gorilla D. self-control.
monitoring, is a research center located in
A. near Atlanta in the United States. 33. In general, the researchers' hypotheses in the Karisoke study of
B. Botswana. gorilla personality were _____.
C. Kenya. A. confirmed by the resulting data
D. Rwanda. B. not confirmed by the resulting data
C. left for future research to be unequivocally confirmed or disconfirmed
24. According to Eckardt and Weiss, Cantsbee got his name owing to D. deemed to be incomplete, given the loss of the French data
the fact that Dian Fossey had
A. imported his parents from a city with that name. 34. Data analysis for the Karisoke gorilla personality research entailed
B. thought his mother was a male. evaluation of correlations between scores on personality trait
C. once had a beloved pet of the same name. dimensions and corresponding
D. could not believe what an exemplary leaders his father was. A. field ratings recorded within one week of the ratings on the personality
dimensions.
B. codings on specially devised behavior rating scale.
25. The researchers studying gorilla personality at the Karisoke C. historical behavior of the subjects as noted in archival records.
Research Center used which personality test? D. All of these
A. California Personality Inventory
B. Personality Inventory for Children 35. Cantsbee was found to be exemplary in terms of what constitutes
C. 16-PF a good gorilla leader. Which of the following is NOT true about
D. Hominoid Personality Questionnaire Cantsbee?
A. Cantsbee scored high on dominance.
26. According to Eckardt and Weiss, the personality test used with the B. Cantsbee was approached and groomed by other gorillas.
gorillas at the Karisoke research center yielded data on traits C. Cantsbee tended to stare at other gorillas in the group.
A. unique to mountain gorillas. D. Cantsbee mediated social conflicts between gorillas in the group.
B. reminiscent of human "Big 5" traits.
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36. What is the significance of the Karisoke gorilla personality B. were responsible for all of the "heavy lifting."
research? C. might take command of the task at any time.
A. Insights about the evolution of personality traits can be gleaned by D. did more to frustrate efforts than help.
comparing the personality of humans with those of our closest, non-human
relatives. 45. Pre-production legal work on the film The Three Faces of Eve
B. The study of great apes holds the promise of learning how assorted entailed getting Eve White, Eve Black, and Jane to sign contracts with
variables (such as differences in ecology, social systems, and life history) the producer. The patient was asked to elicit these three different
may act to shape personality. personalities and then sign a contract. The signatures on the three
C. both insights about the evolution of personality traits can be gleaned by contracts were determined to be
comparing the personality of humans with those of our closest, non-human A. completely different as a function of the personality.
relatives and the study of great apes holds the promise of learning how B. all pretty much the same according to a graphologist.
assorted variables (such as differences in ecology, social systems, and life C. all consistent with a fourth personality elicited by the patient.
history) may act to shape personality. D. valid but only because the patient signed each contract with an "X."
D. None of these
46. A key definitional difference between the terms personality trait
37. In the Karisoke study of gorilla personality, inter-rater reliability and personality state has to do with
was found to be ____ among the ____ raters. A. the extent to which personality is viewed as a physical attribute.
A. satisfactory; 4 B. how stable over time the characteristic is exhibited.
B. satisfactory; 8 C. whether or not the characteristic is subject to a halo effect.
C. unsatisfactory; 8 D. the motivation of the person or persons doing the rating.
D. unsatisfactory; 2
47. Bushman and Wells had high school hockey players complete a
38. Which BEST describes a tool used to construct personality test pre-season, self-report measure of aggressiveness. The pre-season
items by means of logic? measure of aggressiveness was shown to
A. clinical information A. predict the number of penalty minutes served.
B. endorsement of items by members of a particular clinical group B. be negatively related to the number of penalty minutes served.
C. creation of items by means of factor analysis C. predict the total number of goals scored.
D. All of these D. None of these
39. Type A Personality and Type B Personality are two terms closely 48. Gosling's cross-species work in personality assessment has
associated with suggested that differences in the personality of dogs exist and can be
A. the Self-Directed Search. A. reliably measured.
B. the Jenkins Activity Survey. B. distinguished by breed.
C. MMPI-2. C. inherited from one generation to the next.
D. contestants on Let's Make a Deal. D. All of these
40. Consider the list of terms that follows: 49. Which test would be appropriate for use with a seven-year-old
happy child?
sad A. The BYI-II Depression Inventory
smart B. The BYI-II Self-Concept Inventory
challenged C. The BYI-II Anxiety Inventory
assertive D. All of these
A list like this one is BEST associated with which type of test of 50. According to the findings of Donahue et al., people with low levels
personality? of self-concept differentiation
A. a free-choice test A. tend to be less healthy physically.
B. a sentence completion test B. tend to be healthier psychologically.
C. an adjective checklist C. tend to have a less unified sense of self.
D. a true-false test D. None of these
41. Psychologist John Holland was BEST known for 51. A measure of anxiety contains 100 statements written in an
A. a research program that led to the development of the Big 5. agree/disagree format. Maxime indicates disagreement with each one
B. a controversy regarding the primacy of states versus traits. of the statements. From this limited amount of information, it seems
C. a theory that occupational choice depends on personality. reasonable to say that
D. a tunnel linking New York and New Jersey, named in his honor. A. Maxime may be trying to present himself in a favorable light.
B. Maxime may be exhibiting a non-acquiescent response tendency.
42. Relatively few personality tests seek to distinguish traits from C. Maxime may be exhibiting a response set characterized by deviance.
states. One test that does make this distinction is D. Maxime may be responding in a socially desirable manner.
A. the MMPI-2-RF.
B. the STAI. 52. A clinician has her clients rate every therapy session on a seven-
C. the Self-Directed Search. point rating scale with "helpful" on one end, and "not helpful" on the
D. the CPI. other. This clinician is using a method of assessment called
A. the semantic differential.
43. Takumi completes a self-report inventory of personality. B. forced-choice format.
Generalizing from what you read in Chapter 11, the best person to ask C. adjective checklist format.
to complete that same inventory to learn about Takumi would be D. None of these
A. a close family member of Takumi.
B. a classmate or fellow employee of Takumi. 53. In Chapter 11 of your textbook, reference was made to a study that
C. someone who was just introduced to Takumi. entailed the measurement of attachment security in
D. None of these A. elementary school children using the BYI-II.
B. blue-fronted Amazon parakeets using speech recognition patterns.
44. In the OSS blown bridge evaluation, assistants of the candidate C. high school students using the Self-Directed Search.
being evaluated D. rhesus monkeys using Q-sort methodology.
A. were responsible for getting the necessary parts.
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54. "Certain personality traits exist in all people to varying degrees. 65. The research of Gosling et al. (2003) can be summarized by stating
The assessor's task is to determine what the strength of each of these simply that
traits are in the assessee." We would be MOST likely to hear this A. rhesus monkeys exhibit motivated behavior.
statement from one who B. dogs have personality.
A. has never taken a course in psychological testing and assessment. C. differences in personality are inherited in mice.
B. views testing and assessment from a nomothetic viewpoint. D. personality is multifaceted in parrots.
C. views testing and assessment from an idiographic viewpoint.
D. views testing and assessment from an ipsative perspective. 66. What is a likely consequence if a rating checklist consistently
elicits a wide-ranging variety of opinions from various raters?
55. Which test BEST exemplifies a tool of assessment developed on A. The test will have little utility.
the basis of logic and reason? B. The test will have high internal consistency.
A. the MMPI C. The test will have lower inter-rater reliability.
B. the CPI D. All of these
C. the Blacky Pictures Test
D. the Personal Data Sheet 67. An advantage of a personality test that is atheoretical in nature is
that
56. Psychologists have embraced "the Big 5" big time, and a number A. test users can interpret the test according to their own theoretical
of tests have been developed to measure the Big 5. Which of the preferences.
following is NOT a test that was developed to measure the Big 5? B. the test will, in all likelihood, be more valid than a theory-based test.
A. the NEO-PI-R C. the test is much more likely to be "culture-specific" as well.
B. the Big Five Inventory (BFI) D. the test is much more likely to be "culture-fair" as well.
C. the Ten Item Personality Inventory (TIPI)
D. the 16-PF 68. On a test, an assessee chooses how to end an incomplete
sentence by writing-in the end of the sentence. The format of the test
57. The MMPI was originally developed by Starke R. Hathaway and could BEST be described as
A. Robert Sessions Woodworth. A. sentence completion.
B. John Charnley McKinley. B. fill-in-the-blank.
C. James C. Lingoes. C. free-choice.
D. R. E. Harris. D. All of these
58. FBS with regard to the MMPI 69. Which BEST describes what is typically measured in personality
A. stands for "Faking Bad Scale" and it is used to detect malingerers. assessment?
B. was a validity scale proposed by Lees-Haley, et al. A. social and communication skills
C. was criticized by MMPI author James Butcher. B. traits and states
D. All of these C. charisma
D. creativity and motivation
59. "The unique way people interpret and make sense of their
perceptions as a consequence of their learning experiences, cultural 70. A personality trait
background, and related variables." This is a definition of which of the A. is relatively enduring.
following terms? B. is distinguishable.
A. instrumental values C. varies within and between individuals.
B. terminal values D. All of these
C. worldview
D. acculturation 71. A lack of cross-situational consistency in traits has been
demonstrated to exist with respect to
60. In the title of the test known as the MMPI-A, the "A" stands for A. honesty.
A. Adult. C. Form "A". B. attitudes toward authority.
B. Adolescent. D. Alternate Form. C. introversion-extraversion.
D. All of these
61. An implication of terms such as self-concept differentiation is that
A. personality traits can be fragmented. 72. Research on psychological traits reveals
B. the more unified one's self-perception, the better. A. strong cross-situational consistency in traits such as honesty.
C. traits are context dependent. B. a lack of cross-situational consistency in traits such as honesty.
D. None of these C. clear evidence that traits physically exist in the brain.
D. None of these
73. The assumption that a constellation of traits and states may be
62. People characterized as "highly differentiated" are likely to used to identify a particular category of personality is inherent in
A. experience self-perception disorders. A. a taxonomy of personality.
B. be extremely thin. B. a personality typology.
C. see themselves much the same way most of the time. C. a personality disposition.
D. None of these D. an astrological sign.
63. A homeless person who prefers the environs of the street to a 74. The Self-Directed Search Tests are based on six personality
shelter or mental hospital may attempt to A. moods.
A. fake bad on a test of psychopathology. B. states.
B. fake good on a test of psychopathology. C. types.
C. respond as candidly as possible on a test of psychopathology. D. dispositions.
D. be cooperative with the test administrator.
75. On the Self-Directed Search, terms such as Artistic, Enterprising,
64. According to Roberts and DelVecchio (2000), trait consistency and Investigative are examples of
tends to increase until one is between _________ years of age, at A. personality types.
which time it peaks. B. personality states.
A. 10 and 20 C. 40 and 50 C. inclinations.
B. 30 and 40 D. 50 and 60 D. careers.
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76. A personality profile based on psychological test results typically 86. An example of a personality test that employed empirical criterion
represents the extent to which a person has provided evidence of the keying in its development is the
existence of certain personality A. 16 PF.
A. traits. B. NEO-PI-R.
B. states. C. Rorschach.
C. tendencies. D. MMPI.
D. Both traits and states.
87. In one approach to the construction of a test to measure a
77. The history of personality types dates at least as far back as the personality trait, the test is administered to at least two groups, where
days of members of one of the groups is known to be high in the trait that the
A. Hippocrates. test was designed to measure. This approach is referred to as the
B. Jung. ________ approach to test construction.
C. Freud. A. logical
D. Thorndike. B. factor-analytic
C. theoretical
78. Which of the following is TRUE of personality traits? D. empirical criterion keying
A. They tend to stabilize in adulthood after age 40.
B. They decrease in consistency after age 30. 88. Which test includes a Lie scale?
C. Consistency first begins at 18. A. the MMPI-2
D. None of these B. the NEO-PI-R
C. the Harris-Goodenough
79. The lower test-retest reliability coefficients found to exist for state D. the Harris-Seemingly-Goodenough
anxiety when compared with higher test-retest reliability coefficients
obtained for trait anxiety support which premise? 89. The MOST frequently used and MOST researched personality test
A. Traits are more enduring personality characteristics than states. is the
B. States are more enduring personality characteristics than traits. A. Mooney Problem Checklist.
C. Exhibition of anxiety is very situation-dependent. B. Rorschach.
D. None of these C. 16 PF.
D. MMPI-2.
80. Asking testtakers to indicate how they feel "at this moment"
versus how they feel "in general" is an attempt to 90. Criticisms of the MMPI-2 include all of the following EXCEPT
A. obtain as much information about the testtakers as possible. A. there is questionable comparability of the MMPI and MMPI-2 scores.
B. distinguish between various traits and states. B. there was a lack of minority group members in the standardization
C. determine if the testtakers are responding truthfully. sample.
D. evaluate certain topic areas listed in the classic song, Feelings. C. there was a lack of validity of the content scales.
D. the utility of the instrument has been repeatedly questioned.
81. In which test are the subjects alternately instructed to indicate how
they feel "right now" and how they feel "generally"? 91. The MMPI-2 is appropriate for which age range?
A. the ASVAB A. 6 to 60
B. the MMPI B. 14 and older
C. the WISC-V C. 18 and older
D. the STAI D. 21 to 60
82. Personality assessment data are used in which settings? 92. Self-report personality assessment can entail
A. offices of independent practitioners A. written responses to a test.
B. educational settings B. writing entries into a diary.
C. vocational settings C. oral report of dreams.
83. Personality tests are used for 93. Self-concept includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. evaluating influences on health. A. beliefs regarding oneself.
B. planning psychotherapeutic interventions. B. opinions regarding oneself.
C. evaluating influences on academic performance. C. beliefs about others.
D. All of these D. beliefs about how one is thought of by others.
84. A personality test contains items that were constructed by means 94. A problem inherent in assessing personality by means of self-
such as consulting textbooks, reviewing clinical records, and report is that respondents may
consulting with experts in the field. Which approach to test A. have little knowledge of their own unconscious motives and needs.
construction BEST describes the approach of this test author? B. respond in ways to manage specific impressions.
A. the criterion groups approach C. be unaccustomed to thinking about their own personality.
B. the factor analytic approach D. be uncomfortable with self-reflection.
C. the experiential approach
D. the content-oriented approach 95. Days before the party he is having in his home, DJ DJay purchases
a number of wine magazines to leave around his living room. He does
85. In empirical criterion keying, test items are administered to two this in an effort to lead his guests to the conclusion that he is a
groups: one comprises people known to exhibit the trait, and the other sophisticated wine connoisseur. In reality, DJ DJay is a devotee of
is a control group. What is the purpose of this method? value brand beer. DJ DJay's behavior could BEST be characterized as
A. to increase the size of the sample of test-takers A. acquiescence.
B. to make certain that a matched standardization group is used B. faking good.
C. to retain items that discriminate between the two groups C. disingenuous responding.
D. to make certain that people with multiple personality disorder are D. impression management.
represented in the normative sample
96. An individual who is relatively free of psychopathology is accused
of a crime. This individual makes a conscious decision that he would
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prefer to spend time in a mental hospital rather than a prison. D. Conduct online research for the purpose of finding additional insights
Accordingly, this individual attempts to _______ when administered a relative to the reason the assessment was undertaken.
personality test by a court-appointed psychologist.
A. fake good 107. Which of the following item formats were illustrated in the
B. fake bad Chapter 11 Everyday Psychometrics entitled "Some Common Item
C. exhibit the Barnum effect Formats"?
D. "take the fifth" A. true-false
B. two-choice item
97. Citing or endorsing only positive attributes in a self-report C. semantic differential
measure of personality is a phenomenon referred to as D. All of these
A. putting on the Barnum.
B. amplifying. 108. Which BEST describes the types of items presented to testtakers
C. self-deception. on the Edwards Personal Preference Schedule?
D. socially desirable responding. A. true/false
B. forced-choice
98. The terms response style and response set as typically used in C. semantic differential
personality assessment encompass D. extremely personal
A. responding affirmatively to all items.
B. responding randomly to all items. 109. Consider the following test item:
C. responding in a bizarre fashion to all items.
D. All of these How I feel when I go on a date:
Tense ____: _____: _______: ______: _______: ______: ______ Relaxed
99. An example of a type of response style or response set is
A. deviance. This item may BEST be described as
B. acquiescence. A. an embedded item.
C. extremeness. B. a range-of-choice item.
D. All of these. C. a forced-choice item.
D. a semantic differential item.
100. Rating scales may be used to
A. classify. 110. They are built into a personality test to assist in determining how
B. de-classify. honest testtakers have been in their responses. They are referred to
C. predict effectiveness. as
D. All of these A. reliability scales.
B. validity scales.
101. The semantic differential rating technique consists of C. honesty scales.
A. a 7-point numerical scale with numbers keyed to descriptors. D. UB scales. (otherwise known as "you're busted" scales)
B. bipolar adjectives and a 7-point rating scale.
C. an alphabetical 7-point rating scale with letters keyed to descriptors. 111. Validity scales assist the test user in making judgments related
D. a forced-choice format. to whether or not a testtaker
A. lied when responding to a particular set of items.
102. Which statement is TRUE regarding the definition of personality? B. understood the items.
A. Freud's definition of personality is universally accepted. C. misunderstood the items.
B. Hall and Lindzey's definition of personality is universally accepted. D. All of these
C. The definition of Cohen, Swerdlik, and Sturma is universally accepted.
D. There is no universal definition of personality. 112. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the use of validity
scales in personality assessment?
103. Which BEST describes a personality type? A. There is widespread consensus that validity scales must be a part of any
A. a distinguishable behavior of an individual self-report personality assessment measure.
B. context-specific behavior B. There is no widespread consensus that validity scales must be a part of
C. an identified pattern of traits and states any self-report personality assessment measure.
D. an inherited characteristic of a person C. Validity scales were once a part of personality assessment tools in the
past, but they are no longer seen as valid.
104. Which statement is TRUE regarding state anxiety as compared to D. Validity scales are primarily used for tests containing sentence
trait anxiety? completion type items.
A. State anxiety is a more enduring characteristic than trait anxiety.
B. Trait anxiety is a more enduring characteristic than state anxiety. 113. Which of the following represents the BEST alternative to the use
C. Neither state anxiety nor trait anxiety is an enduring characteristic. of validity scales?
D. State anxiety and trait anxiety are equally enduring characteristics. A. test directions that stress the importance of being honest when
responding.
105. Which BEST exemplifies the exhibition of a personality state? B. including duplicate items throughout the test.
A. Sam, who experiences fear and apprehension while watching a scary C. using multiple sources of information to draw conclusions including third-
movie. party information.
B. Stacey, who has, ever since she can remember, a profound fear of cats. D. having testtakers review their responses and then sign a statement
C. Bill, who has always been defiant and aggressive toward his parents. attesting to the truthfulness of the responses.
D. Amy, who was viewed by the court and all her previous cell mates as
violent. 114. The BEST method for identifying a rater's possible bias in scoring
subjective content would entail having the rater
106. To ensure that a child's responses on a self-report personality A. comment on the scoring of other raters.
measure are an accurate representation of the child, which of the B. read each scoring instruction aloud and comment on each.
following would be the BEST course of action for a clinician? C. verbalize thought processes associated with scoring each item.
A. Ask the child's parents and teachers to complete rating scales. D. over for brunch and casually ease the conversation towards scoring
B. Consult with a personality researcher about the results. practices.
C. Recheck the scores both by hand and by computer.
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115. Factor analysis is a statistical procedure designed to identify C. the MMPI-2-RF normed for adolescents.
A. the minimum number of variables accounting for the intercorrelations D. a version of the MMPI for adolescents.
between the phenomena.
B. the maximum number of variables accounting for the intercorrelations 124. Self-report measures have been criticized because
between the phenomena. A. respondents can present themselves in a way that meets their needs.
C. the median number of variables accounting for the intercorrelations B. Results are less reliable than other measures.
between the phenomena. C. Results are less valid than reports from others.
D. all potential variables accounting for the intercorrelations between the D. Self-report measures usually require a great deal of explanation.
phenomena.
125. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF) contains 16
116. The 16 PF is a personality measure that assesses 16 different factors developed through factor analysis. There is, however,
personality controversy about the number of factors that are "really" evident in
A. states. this test. According to your textbook, most theorists who argue that
B. traits. there are not 16 factors on the 16 PF believe that
C. types. A. there are fewer than 16 factors.
D. defects. B. there are more than 16 factors.
C. the test is dated and fails to take account for contemporary factors.
117. A limitation of the MMPI that contributed to the need for D. the O'Reilly factor has seen better days.
developing the MMPI-2 was
A. the sample size and representativeness of the normative sample of the 126. Controversy surrounds the Sixteen Personality Factor
MMPI were limited. Questionnaire (16 PF). Which is the BEST summary statement of what
B. the MMPI could not be scored with sufficient reliability by graduate this controversy about?
students in psychology. A. the quality of the normative sample
C. the MMPI could not be used with non-English-speaking populations. B. the translation of the test into another language
D. the MMPI evidenced great inconsistency in the clinical scales. C. the number of factors the test is measuring
D. the internal consistency of the test
118. Which of the following is a validity scale first developed for use
with the MMPI-2? 127. According to an author of the Sixteen Personality Factor
A. the Lie Scale Questionnaire (16 PF), the test contains __________ primary and
B. the Consistent Credibility Scale ____________ second-order factors.
C. the Moody Machiavellianism Scale A. 16; 5
D. the Variable Response Inconsistency Scale B. 5; 11
C. 5; 16
119. Why were MMPI-2 content subscales developed? D. 11; 5
A. to increase the reliability of the test
B. to group items measuring the same traits or attitudes 128. Who of the following has done the MOST in terms of initiating
C. to decrease the number of clinical scales necessary academic interest in factor analysis as a way of understanding and
D. to increase the length of the computerized narrative reports measuring personality?
A. Wundt
120. Although the MMPI-2 had a larger standardization sample than B. Eysenck
the original MMPI, the norm sample remained one of the primary C. Cattell
criticisms of this revised test. Why? D. Butcher
A. The MMPI-2 sample had the effect of further elevating an already
elevated T score. 129. The most widely used five-factor measure of personality was
B. The MMPI-2 sample was made up of mostly non-White individuals. developed by
C. The MMPI-2 sample was biased toward low SES people. A. Cattell.
D. The MMPI-2 sample was biased toward highly educated people. B. Eysenck.
C. Hathaway.
121. As a result of the normalization of the standard scores on the D. McCrae and Costa.
MMPI-2, which statement is TRUE regarding a T score of 70 on the
Depression Scale and a T score of 70 on Hypomania Scale? 130. Neuroticism, Extraversion, Openness, Agreeableness, and
A. The two T scores equal the same level of clinical elevation. Conscientiousness. These variables are all measured by which tool of
B. The scores can be significantly different depending on the gender of the personality assessment?
testtaker. A. MMPI-II-RF
C. The two scores result in different percentile ranks for each scale. B. NEO-PI R
D. All of these C. Rorschach
D. Self-Directed Search
122. Which statement is TRUE regarding the reliability of the MMPI-2?
A. It has low test-retest reliability, acceptable internal consistency for the 131. Which of the following BEST sums up the reason why the MMPI-
clinical and validity scales, and acceptable internal consistency for the 2-RF was developed?
content scales. A. The MMPI-2 had too many overlapping items.
B. It has acceptable test-retest reliability, low internal consistency for the B. There were too many test items on the MMPI-2.
clinical and validity scales, and low internal consistency for the content C. The MMPI-2 validity scales lacked validity.
scales. D. All of these
C. It has acceptable test-retest reliability, low internal consistency for the
clinical and validity scales, and acceptable internal consistency for the 132. The F, K, TRIN, and VRIN Scales on the MMPI-2 are all examples
content scales. of
D. It has low test-retest reliability, acceptable internal consistency for the A. supplementary scales.
clinical and validity scales, and low internal consistency for the content B. clinical scales.
scales. C. validity scales.
D. content scales.
123. The MMPI-A is
A. the original MMPI-2 normed for adolescents.
B. the MMPI-2 normed for adolescents.
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133. On the MMPI-2, there are content scales and clinical scales 143. If you believe your score on this test depends on how much effort
designed to address similar concepts. Which statement BEST you put into studying, then a psychologist might characterize you as
describes the relationship between these two types of scales? representative of people with
A. The content scales and the clinical scales have a high, positive A. an external locus of control.
correlation. B. a low level of differentiation.
B. The content scales and the clinical scales have a high, negative C. an internal locus of control.
correlation. D. a high level of differentiation.
C. Some of the correlations between the two scales are strong and others
are weak. 144. Forced-choice item formats are typically employed to control
D. The correlation between the two scales is zero, as originally intended. which of the following?
A. the reliability of respondent's response patterns
134. The acronym "MMPI-A" is a reference to B. test-takers' tendency toward impression management
A. the MMPI for adolescents. C. interviewers' tendency to stray from the points of focus
B. the MMPI for average individuals. D. None of these
C. the abridged MMPI.
D. the MMPI for people with alternative lifestyles. 145. Consider the following sample item on a personality test:
Instructions: Which statement describes you better?
135. If someone tells you that they took a test and received scores on (A) I am unhappy too much of the time.
scales called School Problems, Conduct Problems, and Immaturity, it (B) I am nervous too much of the time.
is a good bet that this person was administered
A. the MMPI-2-RF. This item is an example of which type of item format?
B. the MMPI-A. A. essay
C. the School Problems Checklist. B. adjective checklist
D. the NEO-PI-R. C. forced-choice
D. free-choice
136. Which of the following BEST represents your textbook authors'
definition of personality? 146. The "blown bridge" exercise is an example of which tool of
A. all of individual's thinking, feeling, and behavior personality assessment?
B. an individual's phenomenal field A. situational performance measure
C. an individual's unique constellation of psychological traits and states B. forced-choice measure
D. an individual's behavior in all of its detail C. sentence completion measure
D. structured interview
137. In recent years, which of the following has received the LEAST
attention in the scholarly literature? 147. The task of sorting statement cards from least descriptive to most
A. personality traits descriptive is MOST characteristic of which type of assessment
B. personality states method?
C. personality types A. Q-sort
D. patterns of individual states and traits B. T-sort
C. Likert-sort
138. Who typically serves as the informant when the Personality D. Sorta-Like
Inventory for Children II (PIC-II) is administered?
A. the child 148. Comparing a testtaker's responses to their own responses (as
B. the teacher opposed to the responses of other testtakers) is an example of which
C. the parent type of approach to personality test interpretation?
D. All of these A. nomothetic
B. idiographic
139. This term refers to the degree to which a person has different self- C. ipsative
concepts in different roles. The term is D. normative
A. self-concept differentiation.
B. self-concept individualization. 149. From the discussion in the text, which of the following terms
C. self-image differentiation. BEST go together?
D. role differentiation. A. idiographic-ipsative
B. nomothetic-ipsative
140. A woman who states as a fact that she "wears too many hats" in C. nomothetic-idiographic
her daily life might BEST be characterized as D. highly differentiated/high internal locus of control
A. highly individuated.
B. highly differentiated. 150. The 16 PF exemplifies which approach to assessment?
C. highly endomorphic. A. nomothetic
D. a member of the Royal family. B. idiographic
C. projective
141. When considering the appropriateness of administering a D. impressionistic
particular personality test to members of a particular cultural group, it
is important to keep in mind 151. "A successful life" is an example of
A. how the test was developed. A. an instrumental value.
B. how the test is administered. B. a terminal value.
C. how the test is interpreted. C. a normative value.
D. All of these D. vocational value.
142. A tendency to respond to a test item in a characteristic manner 152. A data reduction method used in personality test development is
irrespective of the content of the item is known as A. regression analysis.
A. a response prevention. B. factor analysis.
B. a response style. C. final analysis.
C. an impression management effort. D. shrink analysis.
D. a halo effect. 153. A rating may be affected by
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A. the rater's background and experience. 164. The Q-sort technique may not yield useful results if
B. the rater's willingness to expend time and effort. A. respondents are unwilling to reveal accurate information about
C. the rater's personal reaction to the subject. themselves.
D. All of these B. it is used outside of a humanistically-oriented clinical setting.
C. it is used by someone other than a licensed psychologist or psychiatrist.
154. Attempts at controlling rater bias have included all of the D. All of these
following EXCEPT
A. improving the content validity of the instrument being used. 165. Q-sort refers to a method of personality assessment in which the
B. clarifying terminology to increase reliability. subject typically
C. providing practice sessions in observing and rating others. A. projects onto ambiguous stimuli.
D. comparing ratings of new raters with those of more experienced raters. B. arranges cards with printed statements on them.
155. Which of the following is TRUE of Cattell's 16 PF? C. completes sentence stems on cards and arranges them in rank order.
A. There were actually two Cattells involved in its development. D. responds to a series of numbered questions (q's) printed on cards.
B. The test was developed using the technique of factor analysis.
C. 14 of the 16 factors are significantly correlated with each other. 166. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of the MMPI-2
D. As modified by Baskin and Robbins, the test yielded 31 factors. with Chicano clients?
A. The MMPI-2 is as culturally sensitive as the MMPI.
156. "What do you call yourself when asked about your ethnicity?" is B. The MMPI-2 overpathologizes Chicano clients.
an interview question designed to tap information about C. Conflicting evidence exists regarding whether the test is culturally
A. an instrumental value. sensitive or overpathologizes Chicano clients.
B. a terminal value. D. The use of the test with Chicano clients was supported on the basis of
C. personal identity. research conducted in the Mexican Baja.
D. anger and hostility.
157. In which type of scoring approach to personality assessment can 167. Achenbach's research on evaluation suggested that evaluators
two people with the same score on the same trait differ in terms of the agree more about
magnitude of the trait or characteristic being measured? A. the problems of younger as compared to older children.
A. nomothetic B. the problems of majority as compared to minority children.
B. empirical criterion keying C. the problems of psychologists as compared to clients of psychologists.
C. ipsative D. Both the problems of younger as compared to older children and the
D. forced-choice problems of majority as compared to minority children.
158. One would LEAST expect the Q-sort technique to be used 168. The NEO-PI-R measures which of the following?
A. as a tool in basic personality research. A. states
B. to identify cognitive strengths and weaknesses. B. traits
C. to identify leadership potential in military settings. C. states and traits
D. to determine occupational preference of the testtaker. D. instincts
159. As discussed in the text, cultural competence refers to 169. A major criticism of the MMPI-2 was that it lacked
A. developing tests that reflect cultural values. A. minority group members in the standardization sample.
B. knowledge of a particular culture through academic study, life B. a geographically desirable standardization sample.
experience, or both. C. a contemporary, nationally representative clinical sample.
C. the ability of test users to be fair and balanced in administering tests and D. sophistication in item content.
interpreting test data with testtakers from all cultures.
D. expertise in the psychological tests written in a language that is foreign 170. At what age does acculturation begin?
to the test administrator. A. at birth
B. when one enters elementary school (approximately 5 years old)
160. When administering a personality test with the services of a C. when one enters high school (approximately 14 years old)
translator, caution is in order because D. when one becomes independent of one's family (whenever)
A. there is a shortage of capable translators.
B. one never knows what the translator is really saying. 171. The MMPI-A may be criticized for its lack of
C. words do not always retain their original meaning in translation. A. minority group membership in the standardization sample.
D. All of these B. a contemporary and representative standardization sample.
C. a contemporary clinical sample.
161. It has become customary to refer to MMPI-2 clinical scales by D. a geographically representative clinical sample.
number rather than by name because
A. translators have been unable to accurately translate some of the names. 172. The MMPI-2 includes which types of scales?
B. that is the way that Starke Hathaway always referred to them. A. content
C. the scale names are outdated. B. validity
D. the scale names are too revealing. C. clinical
D. All of these
162. What conclusion did Achenbach reach after investigating
differences between respondents who evaluate children? 173. Truthfulness, persistence, and ambition are examples of
A. Parents are more accurate than teachers in evaluating children. _______________ values.
B. Teachers are more honest than parents in their evaluations. A. instrumental
C. Physicians are less accurate than either parents or teachers. B. terminal
D. None of these C. political
D. vocational
163. A culturally sensitive psychological assessment includes
sensitivity to which of the following? 174. Which of the following influence acculturation?
A. acculturation and language A. books C. parents
B. values and worldview B. films D. All of these
C. personal identity 175. The validity scales of the MMPI, MMPI-2, and MMPI-2-RF
D. All of these
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A. have all been heavily criticized as self-serving since they presume to Chapter 12  Personality Assessment Methods
measure the test's own validity.
B. measure only the validity of the test but do not measure the test's 1. In one study of 105 Vietnam War veterans with chronic PTSD, the
reliability or utility. subjects were asked to keep a sleep diary over the course of six
C. provide a gauge of testtaker response sets and patterns. weeks. According to your text, the researchers found that shorter
D. All of these duration of sleep was correlated with
A. length of service in Vietnam.
176. The term psychasthenia, as used in the 1930s when the MMPI was B. degree of post-service adjustment.
developed, was MOST closely related in meaning to what is now C. depth of co-morbid depression.
known as D. severity of PTSD.
A. paranoid schizophrenia.
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 2. In order to calculate the number of cigarettes the number of
C. suicidal tendencies. cigarettes that the subjects in a stop-smoking study are smoking, the
D. borderline personality disorder. most practical method typically entails
A. behavioral observation.
177. Items on the F (Frequency) scale of all forms of the MMPI B. self-report by individual subjects.
A. are infrequently endorsed by members of nonpsychiatric populations. C. experimenter diary-keeping.
B. are more likely to be endorsed by people thought to be "eccentric" by D. analogue recall.
family and friends.
C. do not fit into any known pattern of deviance. 3. Although phallometric data have increasingly been introduced into
D. All of these evidence in American and Canadian courts, concerns have been
raised about the ___ of such data.
178. The person MOST likely to have a highly elevated F (Frequency) A. reliability and validity
score on the MMPI (any form) would be someone who is B. utility
A. really not qualified for a job they are trying to get. C. reliability and validity and utility
B. attempting to commit insurance fraud. D. None of these
C. taking the MMPI as part of the Minnesota application process for
governor of that state. 4. Although widely acknowledged to be of value in monitoring the
D. a named defendant scheduled for trial on The People's Court television progress in treatment of sex offenders, the value of phallometric data
program. in criminal proceedings is
A. less straightforward.
179. The BEST explanation of the name given to the "Back-Page B. far more well-documented.
Infrequency" scale of the MMPI-2 would make reference to C. undisputed by experts.
A. the last 10 items on the last page of the MMPI-2. D. only accepted into evidence in the Dominican Republic.
B. the degree of pathology that tends to emerge near the end of the test.
C. the diligence and care with which a testtaker took the test. 5. An inherent problem with phallometric methods is that the
D. Bob Dylan's classic song, My Back Pages. defendant's self-interest co-exists with a well-documented ability of
the assessee to
180. Consider the following two MMPI-2-like, true/false items, and A. "fake good."
imagine they are both on the same personality inventory: B. do the best they can on the task.
(x) I prefer cereal to eggs for breakfast. C. purposely fail the task.
(y) I prefer eggs to cereal for breakfast. D. be first to finish the task.
An individual who responds true to both of these items is 6. The lack of standardization in phallometrics is due in part to
representative of people who have MMPI profiles with which of the A. a plethora of scoring systems.
following scales elevated? B. a plethora of methodologies.
A. the TRIN scale C. both a plethora of scoring systems and a plethora of methodologies.
B. the L scale D. None of these
C. the K scale
D. the Special K scale 7. Woods and Anderson (2016) are among those researchers working
to find common ground between behavioral conceptualizations of
181. How many scales are there in the MMPI-2-RF? psychopathology and ____ conceptualizations.
A. 20 A. DSM-5
B. 30 B. biopsychosocial
C. 40 C. medical-modeled
D. 50 D. person-centered
182. When the MMPI-2-RF was published, the test's publisher, the 8. The research of Carla Sharp and her colleagues suggest that there
University of Minnesota Press, announced may come a day when clinicians discuss general (g) and specific (s)
A. plans to phase out the MMPI-2 by 2025. factors in personality disorders in a way that is analogous to current
B. plans to routinely administer the test to applicants for positions with the discussions of g and s with respect to
U.S. Post Office. A. biopsychosocial aspects of depression.
C. plans for a "brand extension" of the MMPI known as "M" tests for B. neuropsychological disorders.
members of specific populations. C. intelligence.
D. None of these D. personality in general.
9. According to Sheets & Craighead (2007) what is the short answer to

the question? "How useful is a DSM diagnosis?"
A. "Not very."
B. "Pretty good."
C. "Very good."
D. "Nothing better."
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10. With regard to a DSM diagnosis of a personality disorder, Widiger 19. On the basis of their factor-analytic study, Sharp et al. (2015)
& Trull (2007) opined that such disorders may more usefully be concluded that the nine criteria for borderline personality loaded most
conceived and diagnosed strongly, and virtually exclusively, on the
A. as psychopathology on a continuum. A. general (g) factor, with little trace of s (the specific factor) to be found.
B. as a dimension of psychopathology. B. specific (s) factor, with little trace of g (the general factor) to be found.
C. both as psychopathology on a continuum and as a dimension of C. error (e) factor, with roughly equivalent traces of the general (g) and
psychopathology. specific (s) factors.
D. in a way that de-pathologize it. D. specific (s) factor, with roughly equivalent traces of the general (g) and
error (e) factors.
11. The relatively high co-morbidity rates that have been observed
between different varieties of personality disorders, and between 20. Sharp et al. (2015) interpreted their findings as suggesting that
personality disorders and other psychiatric disorders, has raised borderline personality disorder
questions regarding A. is in many ways analogous to the specific (s) factor in conceptualizations
A. the utility of the DSM. of intelligence.
B. the utility of the medical model as applied to personality disorders. B. represents the core features of personality pathology in general.
C. the reality of a DSM-based diagnosis of a personality disorder. C. is a much less severe disorder than previously thought.
D. All of these D. has elemental features unique from other personality disorders.
12. Proposed improvements to the way that personality disorders are 21. The limitations of the Sharp et al. (2015) study that were cited in
diagnosed have included your textbook included the fact that
A. sharpening the specificity of existing diagnostic categorizations. A. It focused exclusively on the six personality disorders that are described
B. re-conceptualizing existing diagnostic categorizations. in Section II of the DSM.
C. ordering diagnoses along some dimension, such as severity of B. It did not focus on the ten personality disorders described in Section II of
impairment. the DSM.
D. All of these C. It used an inpatient sample of subject, thus limiting the generalizability of
the findings.
13. The "all-or-none error" as applied to the DSM diagnostic system D. All of these
for diagnosing personality disorders refers to the fact that according
to that system, 22. In 2011, the Rorschach Performance Assessment System (R-PAS)
A. one either has or has not a personality disorder. was published. The R-PAS was characterized by its authors as
B. either all of the diagnostic elements of a personality disorder exist, or A. "a means of systematically observing and measuring personality in
none do. action."
C. a personality disorder diagnosis is either valid or not. B. "a new conceptualization of a proven projective method."
D. a personality disorder diagnosis is either reliable or not. C. "a method for developing novel clinical hypotheses."
D. "a combination of evidence-based insights applied to an iconic projective
14. A study by Carla Sharp and colleagues (2015) study focused on method."
the six most frequently diagnosed categories of personality disorder.
Which was NOT a category of personality disorder studied by Sharp 23. All of the following are true about the Rorschach Performance
et al.? Assessment System (R-PAS) EXCEPT
A. schizotypal personality disorder A. According to its authors, it was created to compete with Exner's
B. avoidant personality disorder Comprehensive System.
C. narcissistic personality disorder B. According to its authors, it is supplemented by an online scoring program
D. unspecified personality disorder that calculates summary scores.
C. The R-PAS manual contains detailed instructions for administering the
15. According to DSM-5, there are 9 criteria for borderline personality Rorschach.
disorder. Which is NOT one of them? D. The R-PAS manual contains detailed instructions for coding Rorschach
A. chronic feelings of emptiness responses.
B. paranoid ideation and dissociation
C. sleep disturbances 24. Monica Webb Hooper, the professional featured in Chapter 12's
D. abandonment fears Meet an Assessment Professional, holds a Ph.D. in _____ psychology,
with a specialization in health psychology.
16. In the Sharp et al. (2015) study, in order to determine if a subject A. social C. clinical
met the criteria for borderline personality disorder, a clinician would B. developmental D. organizational
interview the patient and determine that ____ of the 9 diagnostic
criteria had been met. 25. Various research studies conducted by Dr. Monica Webb Hooper
A. at least 5 touch on all of the following EXCEPT
B. at least 6 A. social psychology.
C. no more than 8 B. public health.
D. all 9 C. psychoanalytic psychology.
D. biobehavioral oncology.
17. In the Sharp et al. (2015) study, in order for a patient to meet the
criteria for borderline personality disorder, the symptoms must 26. According to Dr. Monica Webb Hooper, assessment is a critical
A. have been present in a variety of settings. component of research because it
B. have been present for at least two years. A. is a common thread in past and present research, as well as research
C. not have been better explained by any other disorder. yet to be devised.
D. All of these B. is only through rigorous measurement that variables targeted in research
may be operationalized, quantified, and ultimately, evaluated meaningfully.
18. How many patients constituted the sample in the Sharp et al. (2015) C. is only through rigorous measurement that changes in specified
study? behaviors can be meaningfully gauged.
A. nearly 100 D. All of these
B. nearly 500
C. nearly 1,000 27. According to Dr. Monica Webb Hooper, which behavior is "grossly
D. nearly 1,500 underestimated in terms of its threat to good health"?
A. unprotected sex
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B. overeating 37. An element of a Rorschach administration is termed the inquiry.
C. smoking This term BEST refers to
D. physical inactivity A. all questions asked by the examiner.
B. the investigative process of the examiner.
28. Dr. Monica Webb Hooper offered four recommendations to C. the process of clarifying the original response.
students interested in a career as a research psychologist. Which is D. the process of asking and then re-raising questions.
NOT one of those recommendations?
A. Practice communicating assessment and research results to fellow 38. Which of the following is NOT a category mentioned in the text by
professionals and the public. which a Rorschach response could be scored?
B. Learn about test administration, scoring, and interpretation. A. Color C. Content
C. Submit a research article to a journal and pay close attention to the B. Popularity D. Clarity
feedback.
D. Strive to understand the scientific basis for reliable and valid 39. John E. Exner, Jr.
assessments. A. was the founding curator of the Hermann Rorschach Museum and
Archives.
29. Which of the following groups of researchers would be MOST B. created a Rorschach scoring system that he called "the comprehensive
likely to make use of phallometric data? system."
A. researchers studying voting preferences C. authored a book that reviewed several Rorschach scoring systems.
B. researchers studying pedophilia D. All of these
C. researchers studying agoraphobia
D. researchers studying the validity of projective methods 40. In an effort to address longstanding criticisms related to the
psychometric soundness of the Rorschach test, ________ created
30. In your textbook, a distinction is made between a sign and a another inkblot test.
sample approach to assessment. The approach where test responses A. Wayne Holtzman C. Carl Jung
are treated as clues to the testtaker's underlying personality or B. David Rapaport D. Hans Behn-Eschenburg
abilities is the
A. sign approach. 41. Complete this Arthur Jensen quote: "The rate of scientific
B. sample approach. progress in clinical psychology might well be measured by the speed
C. projective approach. and thoroughness with which _____
D. None of these A. it accepts tests like the Rorschach."
B. it rejects projective techniques as unreliable and invalid."
31. A 100-item true/false test of extraversion is constructed so that C. it gets over the Rorschach."
every True response is indicative of extraversion, and every False D. it understands the need for normed projective measures."
response is indicative of introversion. Mei Ling answers True to every
item on the test. What can the test user conclude? 42. In 1907, an early study using pictures as projective stimuli for
A. Mei Ling is extremely extraverted. storytelling found differences as a function of
B. Mei Ling has well documented tendencies toward extraversion. A. religion.
C. Mei Ling may be extraverted. B. gender.
D. Mei Ling is clearly not introverted. C. age.
D. race.
32. Objective tests of personality have in common with many objective
tests of achievement the fact that items on the test 43. The packaged set of TAT cards is published with _____ cards in
A. typically contain only one correct answer. the set.
B. can be scored by machine, by computer, or online. A. 18
C. have a sound grounding in theory. B. 23
D. All of these C. 31
D. 42
33. As concluded in Chapter 12, the semantic distinction between
objective and projective tests 44. With regard to scoring the TAT,
A. is meaningful, especially as it relates to the content of the items. A. most examiners use the scoring manual packaged with the test.
B. should be abandoned because there is really no difference between B. most examiners use the scoring manual written by Christiana Morgan.
them. C. most examiners use independent, online scoring services.
C. is only meaningful to the extent that each relies heavily on self-report. D. None of these
D. has meaning insofar as the mechanisms typically used for scoring.
45. Some have said that different TAT cards have different "stimulus
34. An early projective test used _____ as projective stimuli. pulls." By this it is meant that different TAT cards have different
A. clouds C. spilled milk A. form demands.
B. water D. symbols for astrological signs B. latent stimulus demands.
C. variations on the same theme.
35. Projective instruments were originally developed in a spirit of D. frequent plots.
rebellion against norm-referenced instruments. Today, projective
instruments 46. Which test does NOT belong because it is a different type of test?
A. remain independent of norms. A. The Kent-Rosanoff Free Association Test
B. are either developed or converted to be norm-referenced. B. The Blacky Pictures Test
C. are rebelling yet again, this time from the constraints of cultural C. TEMAS
sensitivity. D. The School Apperception Method
D. are the clinician's first choice to evaluate rebelliousness.
47. In this test, the testtaker's task is filling-in what the people in a
36. Hermann Rorschach developed a test he called cartoon-like stimulus might be saying or thinking.
A. the Rorschach Inkblot Test. A. The Children's Apperception Test-Human
B. the Object Discrimination Exercise. B. The Roberts Apperception Test for Children
C. the Form Interpretation Test. C. The Rosenzweig Picture-Frustration Study
D. Psychodiagnostics. D. None of these
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48. The Word Association Test was developed at the Menninger Clinic C. Bellak and Hersen argued that reliability and validity were both relevant.
by David Rapaport and colleagues. Rapaport's inspiration for D. All of these
developing this test came from word association experiments initially
conducted by 59. According to Emanuel Hammer, people project their self-image or
A. Sigmund Freud. self-concept in
B. Carl Jung. A. figure drawings.
C. Karen Horney. B. paintings.
D. Sandor Ferenczi. C. dreams.
D. All of these.
49. Each item of the Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank is scored on
a 7-point scale with points ranging from 60. The oracle-like, clinical orientation has been characterized as the
A. "typical" to "atypical." third ear approach. According to your textbook, this orientation has
B. "in harmony with the world" to "danger to oneself and others." been replaced by what might be termed
C. "need for therapy" to "extremely good adjustment." A. the El Greco approach.
D. None of these B. the van Gogh approach.
C. the Monet approach.
50. A device that could be characterized as "auditory inkblots" was D. the Pablo Picasso approach.
developed by
A. Carl Rogers. 61. Why is it surprising that B. F. Skinner developed the first auditory
B. B. F. Skinner. projective test?
C. Harry Stack Sullivan. A. As a behaviorist, B. F. Skinner did not believe that mentalistic terms such
D. Wayne Holtzman. as projection are scientifically useful.
B. The development of this test was an accidental product of a behavioral
51. According to Karen Machover on the interpretation of data derived assessment for hearing that B. F. Skinner had been working on.
from a Draw-A-Person test, the person drawn represents the person C. B. F. Skinner did not believe in projective instruments but nonetheless
doing the drawing. Additionally, the paper on which the figure is drawn believed there was a great market for this test at the time.
represents D. Most of B. F. Skinner's career was in the era before sound could be
A. the environment. recorded and this test was one of his final accomplishments.
B. the individual's superego.
C. the individual's dreams and aspirations. 62. Why did projective tests using ambiguous sounds eventually
D. reality demands. become unpopular with clinicians?
A. Advocates for the disabled argued convincingly that these tests were
52. Scott Lilienfeld and Bernard Murstein biased against people with disabilities.
A. have both argued in favor of projective techniques. B. The sounds were considered offensive by some cultural groups.
B. have both written critiques of projective techniques. C. Insurance companies refused to reimburse clinicians for administering
C. are on opposing sides when it comes to projective techniques. them.
D. served as consultants in the development of the TAT. D. The tests did not distinguish between clinical and nonclinical groups.
53. Questioning the utility of the projective/objective distinction, 63. Controversy surrounding Exner's norms for the Comprehensive
Weiner proposed that the dichotomy be changed to one labeled System for the Rorschach stemmed from the claim that
A. personally invested versus personally distanced. A. Exner took great liberties when developing the norms making their
B. transparent versus obscured. validity questionable.
C. ambiguous versus unambiguous. B. the graduate students collecting the data were poorly trained.
D. structured versus unstructured. C. the normative sample from Detroit was not representative.
D. the norms over-pathologized nonclinical groups.
54. Sign is to sample, as traditional is to
A. objective. 64. The internal consistency of TAT scores tends to be low.
B. projective. Proponents of the TAT respond to this criticism by noting that
C. behavioral. A. internal consistency seldom has any bearing on validity.
D. None of these B. certain combinations of components of a score may usefully predict
outcomes even if those components are uncorrelated.
55. Timeline-followback procedure is to ecological momentary C. in the arena of clinical judgment and the use of projective instruments,
assessment, as past is to statistics are a sideshow.
A. present. D. "foolish consistency is the hobgoblin of little minds."
B. antecedent.
C. consequence. 65. Behavioral assessment has many advantages over other forms of
D. the "there and then." assessment. Which is NOT one of those advantages?
A. Behavioral assessment can provide adequate explanations for
56. The timeline-followback procedure is essentially a behavioral apparently contradictory dynamics in motivation.
record B. Behavioral assessment can provide behavioral baseline data.
A. of the "here and now." C. Behavioral assessment can provide a record of the assessee's
B. that gauges duration. behavioral strengths and weaknesses across a variety of situations.
C. of the past. D. Behavioral assessment can be used to pinpoint environmental
D. that is future-oriented. conditions that are acting to trigger, maintain, or extinguish certain
57. Ecological momentary assessment is essentially a behavioral record behaviors.
A. of the "here and now."
B. that gauges duration. 66. Self-monitoring differs from self-report because in self-monitoring
C. that entails verbal input. A. it is up to the assessee to decide what to report.
D. that is future-oriented. B. behaviors are recorded at the time and place in which they occur.
C. the responses are not recorded.
58. To what extent are traditional psychometric standards applicable D. the assessee records all the relevant behaviors but reports to the
to behavioral assessment? According to your textbook, evaluator only selectively.
A. Cone argued that reliability and validity were both relevant.
B. Cone argued that reliability and validity were both not relevant. 67. Self-monitoring can be both a method of data collection and
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A. a type of projective instrument. 76. The development of projective tests
B. an intervention itself. A. was virtually ignored by legitimate test publishers for the last 25 years.
C. a means of watching oneself on closed circuit television. B. represented a reaction to attempts to assess personality using normative
D. a method of increasing the generalizability of findings. approaches.
C. was heralded by those employing actuarial prediction as a breakthrough
68. Differences between traditional and behavioral approaches to in assessment techniques.
psychological assessment include the fact that D. All of these
A. in traditional approaches to assessment, data is typically used to
diagnose and classify, while in behavioral approaches, assessment data is 77. The use of projective tests minimizes
used to describe targeted behaviors and maintaining conditions, usually for A. an assessee's attempt to fake good or fake bad.
the purpose of selecting specific therapeutic techniques and then tracking B. the necessity for examinees to have a working knowledge of English.
response to therapeutic intervention. C. cross-cultural bias.
B. traditional approaches to assessment are more likely to evaluate the D. the need for payment by third parties such as insurers.
traits and states of the individual (collectively referred to as "personality"),
while behavioral assessment is more likely to focus attention on the 78. The Rorschach Inkblot Test
conditions in the environment that were instrumental in establishing a A. was originally developed with highly structured and comprehensive
targeted behavior, as well as the environmental conditions that are currently administration and scoring instructions.
maintaining the behavior. B. can be purchased as either a black-and-white or a multicolored set of
C. rather than drawing inferences about personality from samples of cards.
behavior (as in traditional approaches to assessment), behavioral C. is used widely by behavioral psychologists.
approaches to assessment focus on the meaning (in the sense of purpose, D. None of these
utility, or consequences) of the behavior itself.
D. All of these 79. When administering the Rorschach Inkblot Test
A. an inquiry may be undertaken after the first administration in an attempt
69. Projective tests are BEST characterized as _____ methods of to clarify what was reported being seen.
personality assessment. B. spontaneous statements that the testtaker makes that are irrelevant to
A. indirect C. objective the card presented are not considered in the interpretation.
B. futile D. behavioral C. "testing the limits" and asking specific questions of the examinee may
invalidate the findings.
70. Projective tests D. care must be taken to make certain examinees blacken the grids fully,
A. are direct methods of personality assessment. and only with #2 pencils.
B. place great verbal demands on the test-taker.
C. are relatively unstructured techniques. 80. The stimulus cards of the Rorschach test are
D. All of these A. all achromatic. C. all black, white, and red.
B. all multicolored. D. None of these
71. Projective drawing expert Emanuel Hammer identified certain
commonalities in the features of figure drawings rendered by persons 81. The purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the
from certain diagnostic groups. For example, Hammer noted that in Rorschach test is to
the figure drawings of males who had raped women, commonalities A. encourage subjects to change responses that are unacceptable.
included B. obtain additional information about stimuli that played a role in
A. simian-like arms. C. an inflated chest. formulating the percept.
B. exaggerated shoulders. D. All of these C. to give the examiner the opportunity for verbal interaction with the
subject.
72. In your textbook, prominent differences can be observed between D. to provide extended time for observing the subject under the stress of
the example of a figure drawing produced by a rapist and the one having to recall initial responses.
produced by a pedophile. The most prominent difference was in the
A. size of the figure. 82. When the Rorschach test is scored,
B. details of the rendering of the genitalia. A. it is important to note whether the individual responds to part of the inkblot
C. documented comments made by the offender during the test or to the entire card.
administration. B. the content of the response is of greater diagnostic value than the
D. the number of additional people introduced into the drawing. location cited in forming the perception.
C. only subjective clinical judgment is utilized, since no scoring or
73. For projective drawing expert Emanuel Hammer, a prominent interpretive guidelines are available.
feature of the figure drawings of male pedophiles is D. the creativity of the assessee's responses will be a key determinant of
A. the introduction of a second person in the drawing. the test user's vocational recommendations.
B. the powerful arms exhibited by the person drawn. 83. Which statement is TRUE regarding the reliability of the Rorschach
C. an overall sense of inadequacy or immaturity. test?
D. comments made by the offender while drawing. A. The split-half method appears to be a more feasible method for
assessing reliability than test-retest procedures.
74. In recent years, projective tests have B. The Journal of Personality Assessment has published numerous studies
A. increasingly been criticized for being culturally loaded. attesting to the high split-half reliability of the Rorschach.
B. increasingly become norm-referenced. C. Published data demonstrate the potential reliability of Rorschach scoring
C. attempted to tap less and less unconscious content. but do not assure that Rorschach protocols are always reliably scored.
D. None of these D. Inter-scorer reliability has been shown to be much higher among expert
Rorschach users who also have access to background information on the
75. The assumption that individuals provide structure to unstructured examinee.
stimuli in a manner consistent with their individual needs, conflicts,
and impulses is known as 84. With respect to inter-scorer agreement on the Rorschach, which
A. the psychoanalytic concept of repression. statement is TRUE?
B. the stimulus-response hypothesis. A. Unacceptably low levels of inter-scorer reliability on basic scoring
C. the defense mechanism of denial. categories among trained scorers has been observed, even for specific
D. the projective hypothesis. scoring systems.
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B. Inter-scorer reliability with respect to final interpretations made from B. may be photos, paintings, drawings, or etchings.
Rorschach protocols tend to be significantly higher than inter-scorer C. must depict human beings in some situation.
reliabilities for individual scoring categories. D. All of these
C. The highest degree of inter-scorer agreement generally occurs for the
determinants of form and movement. 94. The Children's Apperception Test (CAT) depicts ________ in its
D. Agreement with respect to how specific responses should be scored pictures.
according to a certain scoring system does not necessarily imply agreement A. insects C. cats
on the interpretation of a Rorschach protocol. B. animals D. lions and tigers
85. Assessing the reliability of the Rorschach using the split-half 95. When administering the TAT
method is inappropriate because A. all stimulus cards are presented to all subjects.
A. there are too few inkblots to enable interpretation through the split-half B. a minimum of ten cards must be presented.
method. C. a maximum of twenty cards is presented.
B. stimulus cards are presented twice and possibly three times. D. the number of cards presented is left to examiner discretion.
C. responses by subjects may be too lengthy to adapt to split-half
procedures. 96. Word association tests such as that developed by Jung
D. each inkblot is considered to have a unique stimulus quality. A. are usually based on cognitive theories of personality.
B. are based on the premise that certain key words represent areas of
86. Debate over the validity of the Rorschach has stemmed from conflict.
inconclusive results of research examining C. utilize only "traumatic" stimulus words, in an attempt to diagnose
A. the predictive validity of the Rorschach. associative disturbances.
B. the effectiveness of the Rorschach in differentiating between clinical D. employ normative databases with samples matched to U.S. census data.
groups.
C. the interpretation of Rorschach responses. 97. The earliest attempt at investigating associations subjects made
D. All of these to unrelated stimulus words is attributed to
A. Kraepelin. C. Galton.
87. The Rorschach test B. Wundt. D. Jung.
A. continues to be a widely used clinical tool, despite its questionable
validity. 98. The use of words as projective stimuli is based on which
B. is taught in graduate psychology programs but is seldom used in assumption?
professional practice. A. Words are inherently emotionally charged and therefore a good source
C. is neither widely taught in graduate psychology programs nor widely of psychological data.
used in professional practice. B. Associations to words are chance happenings.
D. ceased to be published in 2011. C. Word associations are the result of the individual's life experiences and
personality.
88. Exner's Comprehensive System for scoring the Rorschach test D. Word associations exhibit high test-retest reliability.
A. was the system endorsed by Hermann Rorschach himself.
B. was extensively studied and found to be unreliable. 99. Sentence completion tests
C. is the product of a joint collaboration by psychologists from around the A. are based predominantly on cognitive theories of personality.
world. B. usually have a high degree of face validity.
D. is an attempt to integrate the best features of various scoring systems. C. are not vulnerable to "faking."
D. All of these
89. Exner's Comprehensive System for scoring the Rorschach test
A. results in some scoring categories that are deemed unreliable, but only 100. Figure-drawing tests
because these categories are sensitive to the present state of the A. provide little opportunity for respondents to verbalize what they think of
respondent. the drawings.
B. has been found to be more reliable for research use than for use with B. may be affected by the drawing ability of the testtaker.
clinical populations of multicultural origin. C. are not scored by means of any formal scoring system.
C. has been heavily criticized for being standardized only on populations D. None of these
with psychiatric disorders that have a low prevalence.
D. was initially conceived as part of an all-consuming, "last ditch effort" to 101. When interpretations about personality are derived from analysis
keep the Exner's from having members of the Myers-Briggs clan as in-laws. of figure drawings
A. emphasis is placed on the artistic skill of the drawer.
90. Of the following projective tests, which is the MOST widely used? B. the most critical variable is the length of time required to complete the
A. the Draw-A-Person Test C. the Thematic Apperception Test drawing.
B. the Holtzman Inkblot Test D. the Rorschach Inkblot Test C. nationally representative standardization samples are frequently used.
D. None of these
91. Of the following projective picture-story telling tests, which is the
MOST widely used? 102. Different testtakers may evidence similarities in response themes
A. The Thematic Apperception Test. to the same projective stimuli. This fact has been used by critics of
B. The Make-a-Picture Story Method. projective techniques to support which argument?
C. The Children's Apperception Test. A. There is a commonality of response to projective material.
D. The Roberts Apperception Test. B. Responses to projective material are the result of stimulus-response
models of behavior.
92. An assumption inherent in the clinical use of TAT is that C. Projective material is not as ambiguous as proponents claim.
assessees D. Multiple-choice tests must be used with projective methods if accurate
A. are unaware of the significance of their responses. interpretations are to result.
B. are aware of the significance of their responses.
C. are aware of the significance of their responses and have a desire to 103. Murstein questioned which of the following assumptions
manage a favorable impression. concerning projective methods?
D. are unaware of the purpose of administering the test. A. The more ambiguous the stimuli, the more the subject reveals.
B. Subjects are unaware of what they are disclosing.
93. Pictures as projective stimuli C. There is a parallel between behavior obtained on a projective test and
A. are considered to be the earliest form of personality assessment. behavior displayed in social situations.
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D. All of these B. Inter-rater reliability based on coding categories is low.
C. Test-retest reliability is high.
104. Critics have attacked projective tests for all of the reasons listed D. Inter-rater reliability based on coding categories is high.
below EXCEPT which of these?
A. the assumptions inherent in the use of projective tests. 114. Which of the following words is MOST likely to be considered
B. the situational variables that affect projective test results. "traumatic" on a word association test?
C. the low reliability of projective tests. A. dance C. water
D. difficulties in administering projective tests. B. stomach D. mother
105. Which statement is TRUE regarding projective techniques in 115. In evaluating a child who is described by a referral source as
general? "fidgety, restless, and impulsive," what type of drawing on the
A. There is a direct and positive correlation between the ambiguity of the Machover Draw-A-Person Test could that child reasonably be
stimuli and the amount of information the subject reveals about his or her expected to produce?
personality. A. a large person extending of the page
B. Projective techniques continue to enjoy widespread clinical acceptance B. a small person drawn in the left-hand corner of the page
despite their questionable psychometric soundness. C. a person of average size drawn in the middle of the page
C. Projection has been shown to be greater for stimulus material that is D. a person drawn in an "x-ray" perspective
familiar to the subject.
D. Projection on a grand scale has been referred to by clinicians as "IMAX 116. On the Machover Draw-A-Person Test, a testtaker draws a person
projection." with extremely large ears. One hypothesis the test user might
reasonably entertain on the basis of this drawing is that this testtaker
106. The assumption that individuals will supply structure to is MOST probably
unstructured stimuli in a manner consistent with their own conscious A. impulsive. C. paranoid.
and unconscious concerns underlies the B. depressed. D. anxious.
A. projectile hypothesis. C. projective hypothesis.
B. subjective hypothesis. D. Skinnerian hypothesis 117. ______ served as the curator of the Hermann Rorschach Museum
and Archives in Bern, Switzerland.
107. When interpreting a person's response to an inkblot test, it is A. Klopfer C. Beck
important to interpret B. Piotrowski D. None of these
A. only what the individual perceives in the blot.
B. what the individual perceives in the blot and how he or she perceives it. 118. Objective methods of personality assessment may include which
C. whether or not the test user would have responded in the same way. of the following item formats?
D. All of these A. multiple-choice C. matching
B. true-false D. All of these
108. Scoring criteria for the Rorschach include
A. accuracy, content, determinants, form, and popularity. 119. Exner characterized the Rorschach as
B. accuracy, polarity, reliability, and validity. A. a projective tool. C. an artistic potpourri.
C. content, form, reliability, and validity. B. an objective test. D. None of these
D. content, determinants, form, location, and popularity.
120. Which of the following is the most widely used and widely taught
109. The strongest psychometric aspect of the Rorschach is its scoring system for the Rorschach?
A. inter-rater reliability with respect to interpretations. A. Rorschach's own Psychodiagnostics system
B. inter-rater reliability with respect to scoring categories. B. the Piotrowski system
C. test-retest reliability over a short period of time. C. the Klopfer system
D. internal consistency split-half reliability for odd and even items. D. the Exner system
110. The Comprehensive System for interpreting the Rorschach was 121. Based on several review articles cited in the text, what conclusion
developed can reasonably be made about the Rorschach test and its contribution
A. to create a system that incorporated all of the best features of other to psychological assessment?
systems. A. Rorschach-based interpretations represent the essence of "scientifically
B. to increase the validity of the test by determining common responses. informed psychological assessment."
C. to increase the number of responses given by examinees to each blot by B. Rorschach-based interpretations have little reliability and even less
expanding the inquiry period. validity.
D. All of these C. There exists a mixture of favorable and unfavorable reviews of the
Rorschach's contributions to psychological assessment.
111. Scoring of Rorschach responses based on the Comprehensive D. No single tool of psychological assessment has undermined the
System is probably credibility of behavioral science more than Hermann Rorschach's test.
A. less psychometrically sound than those based on other systems.
B. just as psychometrically sound as those based on other systems. 122. A total of how many Rorschach cards are initially presented to
C. more psychometrically sound than those based on other systems. the testtaker?
D. more demanding than other systems since a knowledge of all other A. 5 C. 15
systems is required. B. 10 D. 18
112. A principle underlying interpretation of TAT responses is 123. Which of the following is TRUE of the reliability of the Rorschach
A. assessees will identify with someone in the story and indirectly express using the Exner scoring system?
their own needs. A. It has a high degree of internal consistency reliability.
B. assessees will display their level of creativity while composing a story. B. It has a high degree of test-retest reliability.
C. the protagonist in the story will express the exact same personality traits C. It has a high degree of inter-scorer reliability.
as the person telling the story. D. None of these are true; all types of reliability is low.
D. the protagonist in the story will have the exact same personality type as
the person telling the story. 124. Of the following, the projective technique that is MOST frequently
taught in counseling psychology programs is the
113. How is the TAT similar to the Rorschach? A. Mooney Inkblots. C. Sentence Completion Test.
A. Inter-rater reliability based on interpretation is high. B. Rorschach. D. Word Association Test.
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125. Which of the following groups could most probably be expected 135. Which of the following is TRUE of polygraph tests?
to hold the LEAST favorable view of the Rorschach? A. They are physically painful to the testtaker.
A. clinical psychology graduate students B. They yield valid data that are admissible in most jurisdictions in the
B. clinicians United States.
C. academicians C. They typically yield more false positives than false negatives.
D. the Justin Bieber Official Fan Club D. All of these
126. Which of the following is TRUE of the reliability of the TAT? 136. Which of the following is a step toward a solution to the problem
A. Inter-rater reliability has ranged from adequate to very high. of contrast effects in ratings?
B. Split-half reliability has been found to be adequate. A. use of modified rating scales C. use of same gender raters
C. Test-retest reliability has been found to be adequate. B. use of a composite judge D. All of these
D. Inter-item consistency has ranged from moderately acceptable to
acceptable. 137. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for determining the
psychometric soundness of behavioral assessment?
127. Which of the following types of reliability estimates is appropriate A. classical test theory
for use with the TAT? B. generalizability theory
A. inter-scorer C. empirical methods
B. internal consistency D. the experimental analysis of behavior
C. test-retest
D. split-half 138. Situational performance measures
A. take place in the actual environment being evaluated or in a simulated
128. Which of the following personality tests was cited in your environment.
textbook as LEAST recommended by training directors of APA- B. are limited to a small range of variables that may be targeted for
approved programs in clinical psychology? assessment or intervention.
A. the MMPI-2 C. are ineffective in measuring elusive personality traits such as honesty or
B. the TAT altruism.
C. the Rorschach D. have been used extensively to research the psychological aftermath of a
D. the Word Association Test "mosh pit" experience at rock concerts.
129. Which of the following tests feature custom-created cartoons as 139. A situational stress test differs from other situational measures
its projective stimuli? in that
A. the Thematic Apperception Test A. a problem must be solved.
B. the Roberts Apperception Test B. performance is observed and evaluated.
C. the Rosenzweig Picture Frustration Study C. the tasks presented are typically different.
D. the Hand Test D. frustrating obstacles are introduced.
130. An actuarial approach to personality assessment relies on 140. A psychologist counts the number of aggressive acts committed
A. norms. by a child in class and on the playground. Which assessment
B. standardization. approach is the psychologist MOST likely to be using?
C. pre-set, uniformly applied rules and procedures. A. projective C. sign
D. All of these B. behavioral D. unobtrusive
131. The major advantage of clinical prediction is its 141. A problem associated with behavioral observation as a tool of
A. adaptability to computer usage. assessment is
B. reliance on correlational research. A. reactivity. C. equipment bias.
C. applicability to research settings. B. observer bias. D. All of these
D. flexibility and potential for using novel data.
142. The type of research that attempts to replicate a real-world
132. The integration of data from statistical procedures, empirical problem in a research or clinical setting is called
methods, and formal rules to formulate descriptions and make A. unobtrusive research. C. sign research.
predictions is referred to as B. case history research. D. analogue research.
A. actuarial prediction.
B. clinical prediction. 143. Which of the following is a problem associated with self-
C. empirical prediction. monitoring?
D. formal prediction. A. The person who is self-monitoring must be competent, consistent, and
well motivated.
133. Comparing the TAT and the Apperceptive Personality Test (APT), B. The phenomenon of reactivity may confound the outcomes.
which of the following is TRUE? C. Both the person who is self-monitoring must be competent, consistent,
A. The emotional tone of the cards of both tests is negative. and well motivated and the phenomenon of reactivity may confound the
B. The APT cards require more reasoning. outcomes.
C. The APT has an objective scoring system. D. None of these
D. Both tests have high split-half reliabilities.
144. Which of the following is TRUE of self-monitoring?
134. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the evaluation of the A. It is a tool of psychological assessment.
psychometric adequacy of behavioral assessment methods? B. It is a tool for intervention.
A. Traditional psychometric standards related to reliability and validity C. It has limited reliability and validity.
should be applied to behavioral assessment methods. D. Both it is a tool of psychological assessment and it is a tool for
B. Traditional psychometric standards such as reliability and validity do not intervention.
apply to behavioral assessment methods.
C. Although controversial, most experts argue against the use of traditional 145. As a result of self-monitoring her food intake a former client of
psychometric standards to evaluate behavioral assessment methods. Weight Watchers finds that her food intake habits have improved. This
D. Although controversial, most experts support the use of traditional phenomenon could BEST be cited as an example of
psychometric standards to evaluate behavioral assessment methods. A. impression management. C. reactivity.
B. dissonance reduction. D. transference.
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146. A student improves her ability to attend to her instructor's lecture 156. The procedure whereby a written record of multiple physiological
as a result of a counselor's behavioral observation and recording of changes is obtained in response to a specially devised interview is
the student's attentiveness in the class room. This improvement could BEST associated with which of the following instruments?
BEST be cited as an example of the effectiveness of self-monitoring A. a blood pressure biofeedback device
as B. a plethysmograph
A. a tool of psychological assessment. C. a gauge of pupillary response
B. a tool for intervention. D. a polygraph
C. a technique for remediation. 157. B. F. Skinner devised an auditory projective test that he called
D. a diagnostic methodology. A. the tautophone. C. the instrumental responder.
B. the verbal summator. D. the audioblot.
147. A difference between self-monitoring and self-report is that
A. self-report assesses the behavior at a time other than when it is occurring 158. Which of the following exemplifies an unobtrusive measure?
while self-monitoring assesses the behavior at the time of occurrence. A. the amount of sweat there is on one's hands
B. self-monitoring assesses the behavior at a time other than when it is B. self-report verbalizations of anxiety
occurring while self-report assesses the behavior at the time of occurrence. C. a diary of one's thoughts and feelings
C. Self-monitoring is subject to more problems than self-report. D. a story told in response to a TAT card
D. Self-report is subject to more problems than self-monitoring.
159. The problem with role playing as a diagnostic technique is that
148. Which of the following is NOT a situational performance A. it is expensive and not highly flexible in most situations.
measure? B. it is inconvenient and time-consuming.
A. a typing test for a secretarial position C. the desired behavior may not be reliably elicited in the actual situation.
B. an IQ test for the position of CEO in a major corporation D. few assessees come to the assessment situation with sufficient training
C. a road test for a driver's license and experience in theatre arts.
D. a rocket simulation test in a laboratory mock-up for a would-be astronaut
160. Role-play can be used
149. Behavioral assessment tends to focus on A. for diagnostic purposes.
A. the individual. C. large groups. B. for evaluating the effectiveness of therapy.
B. small groups. D. Both the individual and large groups. C. to prepare candidates for debates.
D. All of these
150. Which of the following is TRUE of behavioral assessment?
A. Groups of people are generally observed in order to obtain normative 161. A researcher notes that "behavior X" is emitted by a subject in
data. the woods. The researcher wonders if "behavior X" would also be
B. More traditional psychological tests are routinely administered before emitted in the laboratory if the laboratory environment was modified
and after behavioral assessment. to be like the woods in key respects. What this researcher wishes to
C. The frequency, intensity, or duration of the behavior is typically specified. explore can BEST be summed up by the term
D. Assessments are preceded by in-depth interviews designed to explore A. reactivity. C. generalizability.
relevant aspects of motivation. B. contrast effects. D. unobtrusive measures.
151. Which is NOT a quantifiable definition of a target behavior? 162. Determining a musician's popularity by assessing the length of
A. the number of times Achmed is aggressive toward his peers during time it takes to sell all of that artist's concert tickets is an example of
recess. A. an unobtrusive measure. C. an aesthetic measure.
B. the number of seconds Hostelita spends out of her seat during class. B. a reactive measure. D. an obtrusive behavioral measure.
C. the number of seconds Johnny spends daydreaming during math class.
D. the number of times Mary Jo raises her hand during social studies class. 163. Which of the followings groups of people is the one with whom
plethysmography has been used extensively for purposes of
152. A behaviorally-oriented clinician might use a variety of diagnosis and treatment?
instruments in a clinical assessment. Which of the following is such a A. members of the armed forces suffering from post-traumatic stress
clinician LEAST likely to use? syndrome.
A. case study material. C. a standardized checklist. B. children who have been sexually abused.
B. observation. D. a projective technique. C. outpatients with a diagnosis of depression.
D. None of these
153. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the behavioral
approach to assessment? 164. Which of the following is NOT an unobtrusive measure?
A. It seeks to identify traits or motives that can be inferred from behavior. A. the number of slashes on a depressed person's arm
B. It seeks to reveal underlying motivations regarding personality. B. the numbers of dry cracks in the hands of a person who is a compulsive
C. It focuses on what a person actually does in certain situations. handwasher
D. It focuses primarily on what a person actually thinks while engaging in C. the redness of the eyes of an insomniac
specific behaviors. D. the number of times a hyperactive student stands up in class
154. The phenomenon of reactivity can BEST be reduced in behavioral 165. Measuring a runner's level of ability by having the runner run a
observation by mile is an example of
A. having one or more observers observe all of the action from many A. a general performance measure.
different vantage points. B. a situational performance measure.
B. having several video cameras record all of the action from many different C. a cross-sectional performance measure.
vantage points. D. a cross-country performance measure.
C. having an adaptation period in which the person being observed is given
some time to adjust to the situation. 166. Situational performance measures make it difficult to
D. using physiological techniques such as the polygraph to supplement A. fake bad. C. fake good or bad.
more traditional methods. B. fake good. D. perform.
155. The plethysmograph is MOST useful in the assessment and 67. A teacher reports that a fifth-grader has been misbehaving in
treatment of class. The school principal comes into the class to observe and the
A. people with severe headaches. C. mania. child behaves "like a model student." The effect of the principal's
B. sexual offenders. D. depression. presence is BEST associated with
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A. the term, "observer bias." B. more pathology was observed in the non-offending control group.
B. the word, "analogue." C. the offenders clearly exhibited higher distortion in thinking styles.
C. the word, "reactivity." D. the results were inconclusive due to a flawed experimental design.
D. the question, "Do you want to be held back and next year again be, a
fifth-grader?" 179. The utility of self-reports and self-monitoring is to some extent
dependent on
168. Identification of the antecedents and consequences of behavior A. the reporter's diagnosis.
is a routine part of B. the clinician's time.
A. an analogue analysis. C. a psychic analysis. C. the reporter's honesty.
B. a functional analysis. D. behavioral determination. D. All of these
169. A criticism of analogue research is that 180. Henry Murray's concept of press refers to determinants of
A. one cannot re-create problematic situations in a counseling setting. behavior arising from
B. one cannot re-create problematic situations in a research setting. A. the interaction of personal and environmental needs.
C. reactions identical to those in behavioral laboratories cannot be assumed B. within the environment.
to occur in the real world. C. within the individual.
D. analogue research is unethical or illegal in most jurisdictions. D. the publication of a thought-provoking article in a newspaper or
magazine.
170. A person capable of using a hands-off approach to leadership
along with a directive management style is referred to as 181. Responses to the Rosenzweig Picture-Frustration Study are
A. a partial leader. C. an unleader. scored in terms of the type of reaction elicited and the direction of
B. a leaderless person. D. a nonleader. A. aggression expressed.
B. frustration in evidence.
171. Acting a particular role in a simulated but therapeutic situation is C. the nature of the story told.
referred to as D. the eye gaze of the testtaker.
A. self-report. C. behavioral observation.
B. self-monitoring. D. role-playing. 182. Of the following tests, which is the BEST example of a semi-
structured test?
172. During a therapy session, Kim's therapist asks Kim to A. the Rorschach C. the CAT-H
demonstrate exactly how she would respond if she was in a restaurant B. the TAT D. the Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank
and the waiter delivered a bloody red rare steak—this after Kim had
specifically ordered a well-done steak. The therapist will act like the 183. Of the following behavioral scientists, which one is credited with
waiter and Kim will reprise the role of the unfortunate customer. In this being the first to investigate associations to words?
example, Kim's therapist is using __________ to better understand A. Jung C. Galton
and treat Kim. B. Kraeplin D. Cattell
A. performance-based assessment
B. behavioral observation 184. Both the Rorschach and Rapaport et al.'s Word Association Test
C. role-play have in common
D. systematic desensitization A. an inquiry stage in the test administration.
B. a category labeled Determinants for scoring responses.
173. The polygraph C. a testing-the-limits procedure.
A. provides therapeutically helpful feedback to the testtaker. D. Mark Cuban as an investor and majority shareholder.
B. provides results that must be interpreted by a professional.
C. produces a chart that will clearly demonstrate guilt or innocence. 185. In a study that employed Rapaport et al.'s Word Association Test,
D. is capable of detecting deception with as little as one question. the researchers found that to the stimulus word mouth, 19% of a
schizophrenic sample responded with the word
174. Biofeedback relevant to muscle tension is employed A. teeth. C. lips.
A. to assist in athletic training. B. tongue. D. dentures.
B. to assist in locating strained muscles.
C. to assist in relaxation. 186. Each response on the Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank is
D. All of these evaluated on a 7-point scale that ranges from
A. extremely deviant to model of mental health.
175. The sample approach to assessment focuses on B. idiosyncratic to popular.
A. global traits. C. diagnoses. C. need for therapy to extremely good adjustment.
B. unconscious needs. D. behavior. D. highly negative to highly positive.
176. Weiss et al. (2008) believed that one of the MOST compelling 187. Henry Murray is perhaps best known for developing the TAT.
reasons to use the Rorschach as a tool in pre-employment screening Little known, however, is Murray's work in developing a projective
of police officers was that the Rorschach instrument that involved response to spoken paragraphs. This little-
A. rendered results accepted by courts throughout the United States. known instrument was called the
B. rendered ineffective any efforts to fake good. A. Auditory Apperception Test.
C. had greater validity compared to prior methods used. B. Auditory Sound Association Test.
D. All of these C. Azzageddi Test.
D. TAT-RF.
177. A false positive on a polygraph indicates that
A. a non-deceptive person is identified as deceptive. 188. According to Emanuel Hammer, people project their self-image or
B. a guilty person is identified as innocent. self-concept in
C. the assessee misunderstood a question. A. figure drawings
D. the polygrapher is being deceptive. B. paintings
C. dreams
178. In research cited in your textbook that compared Rorschach D. All of these
responses of sex-offending Roman Catholic clergy to a control group
of non-offending clergy,
A. no significant differences between the groups emerged.
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Chapter 13 Clinical and Counseling Assessment 11. The DSM-5 is more culturally sensitive than any of its
predecessors. Which is NOT a reason why?
1. Like the DSM-5, the _____ is a diagnostic classification system. A. the DSM-5 contains a discussion of cultural formulation.
A. DMI-5 B. the DSM-5 suggests that a Cultural Formulation Interview be conducted
B. ICD-10 with clients.
C. PSY-7 C. the DSM-5 contains an 18-item Cultural Competence Test.
D. DCM-12 D. the DSM-5 contains a section which lists cultural concepts of distress.
2. The DSM-5 contains a listing of 12. DSM-5 departed from the tradition set by previous versions of the
A. disorders not officially named. diagnostic manual because it
B. treatment options for most disorders. A. expanded the criteria for a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.
C. disorders common to ethnic groups. B. used Arabic numbers not Roman numerals to designate its version
D. state-sponsored treatment resources. number.
C. employed committees of psychiatric social workers to contribute to its
3. To a seasoned clinician, a patient's DSM-5 diagnosis instantly development.
conveys information about D. added to the manual a new disorder called binge-consumption disorder.
A. an individual's behavior, cognition, and emotion.
B. how problematic a psychiatric disorder may be. 13. Which psychometric concept is cited in Chapter 13 of your
C. how responsive to intervention the disorder is likely to be. textbook to emphasize that two diagnosticians using the same
D. All of these. diagnostic manual and procedures should come to the same
diagnosis when presented with the same patient?
4. Applying the definition in your textbook, which of the following is a A. inter-rater reliability C. concurrent validity
statement regarding incidence? B. inter-rater validity D. internal consistency reliability
A. the proportion of people diagnosed with depression who are also
diagnosed with a physical illness. 14. Dr. Neil Aggarwal was cited in Chapter 13 of your textbook because
B. the proportion of people diagnosed with a physical illness who will he
develop depression. A. was a co-author of the CFI.
C. the annual occurrence of suicide among people diagnosed with B. is a user of the CFI.
depression. C. questioned the reliability of the CFI.
D. the number of clinical trials needed for a specific intervention to show D. introduced the CFI to the World Health Organization.
efficacy.
15. Controversial changes in the DSM-5 included
5. Osborn et al. (2016) researched the ____ of anxiety in patients who A. the de-listing of schizophrenia as a mental disorder.
had suffered traumatic brain injury. B. the listing of grief from loss as a mental disorder.
A. incidence C. the inclusion of cultural and sub-cultural terminology.
B. prevalence D. All of these.
C. occurrence
D. severity 16. Charges of elder abuse and elder neglect are typically levied
against
6. Knowledge of the incidence and prevalence of certain disorders A. the spouse of the abused or neglected person.
can B. one who has something to gain from the further disabling of the abused
A. influence the priorities of researchers or neglected person.
B. inform policies of health insurance companies C. life insurance salespeople and investment counselors.
C. guide the plans of pharmaceutical manufacturers D. one who stands in a position of trust with respect to the abused or
D. all of these neglected person.
7. It is a fact that 17. Which is not a form of elder abuse mentioned in your textbook?
A. there has been no controversy about DSM-5. A. sexual abuse
B. there has been no shortage of controversy about DSM-5. B. financial abuse
C. the greatest controversy to date concerns the blueprinting of DSM-5.1. C. online abuse
D. the Chair of the Planning Committee for DSM-5.1 resigned in protest. D. Neither sexual abuse nor financial abuse are mentioned in the textbook.
8. "A culturally informed understanding of what is and is not abnormal 18. Which of the following should raise a red flag regarding the
can have profound consequences for society-at-large." This existence of elder abuse?
statement from the textbook was elaborated on with reference to A. an unexpected change in physical health or appearance
A. varieties of bereavement. B. a change in communication habits
B. the CFI. C. suspicious discrepancies in accounts given by elders and their
C. homosexuality. caregivers
D. biopsychosocial assessment. D. All of these.
9. In _____, the American Psychiatric Association de-listed 19. Dr. Ronald Jay Cohen's vignette about the Bellevue outpatient who
homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder. took prescription medication during a therapy session was presented
A. 1970 as a cautionary tale regarding
B. 1971 A. suicide. C. drug abuse.
C. 1972 B. homicide. D. patient insight.
D. 1973
20. Which is true about the vignette Dr. Ronald Jay Cohen presented
10. The American Psychiatric Association's de-listing of about the Bellevue outpatient who took prescription medication
homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder was the result of during a therapy session?
A. political lobbying. A. Dr. Cohen turned out to be right in the end.
B. new scientific evidence. B. the supervisor turned out to be right in the end.
C. the formulation of new theory. C. the patient turned out to be right in the end.
D. All of these D. the patient's wife turned out to be right in the end.
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21. According to statistics cited from the World Health Organization, 32. A classic work by Cleckley profiled 15 psychopaths. Cleckley's
approximately ______ people, worldwide, die annually from suicide. profiles have since been re-evaluated by Crego and Widiger (2016) in
A. 200,000 C. 800,000 an effort to
B. 400,000 D. 1,600,000 A. formulate an updated model of psychopathy.
B. disprove Cleckley's basic thesis regarding psychopathy.
22. Which of the following is not a sign of possible suicidal intent on C. redefine psychopathy in a culturally competent way.
the part of a patient? D. contrast Cleckley's work with that of contemporary researchers in the
A. the patient talks about committing suicide. field of criminal justice.
B. the patient has a detailed plan for committing suicide.
C. the patient has attempted suicide in the past. 33. According to Dr. Stephen Finn's description of how tools of
D. the patient's family member committed suicide. assessment are selected for use in the process of therapeutic
assessment,
23. Interpretation of interview, test, or other suicidal assessment data A. clients are tested on a standard battery first and then decisions are made.
by a clinician may result B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
A. the signing of a "no suicide" agreement by the patient. C. the selection of tests is made in consultation with the therapist of the
B. the initiation of therapy that is focused on reducing and eliminating the clients.
risk of suicide. D. only specially developed Center for Therapeutic Assessment tests are
C. the immediate placement of the patient in an inpatient therapeutic facility. used.
D. All of these.
34. Dr. Stephen Finn characterized psychological tests as "empathy
24. An estimated _________ of military veterans and serving military magnifiers," meaning that
personnel are expected to experience posttraumatic stress injuries A. test enlarge the "world of psychology" for clients.
either immediately after, or even years after, their deployment. B. test data place clients' focus on bigger problems.
A. 12 to 20% C. test data can make "molehills out of mountains."
B. 6 to 11% D. tests allow evaluators to "get into their clients' shoes."
C. 18 to 24%
D. 9 to 18% 35. In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen
Finn characterized clients as
25. Novel diagnostic and therapeutic insights relevant to post- A. "co-experimenters." C. "co-assessment professionals."
traumatic stress disorder in returning vets may be obtained from the B. "co-therapists." D. All of these
study of military
A. recruiting. C. culture. 36. In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen
B. deployments. D. groups. Finn cited different tools used in therapeutic assessment including
"performance-based personality tests" such as
26. Historically, training for military service entails a kind of re- A. the MMPI.
socialization process wherein traditional masculine gender norms of B. situational stress tests.
behavior are traded-in for what might be termed C. the Rorschach.
A. "male warrior norms." D. All of these
B. "new Centurion norms."
C. c"hyper-masculine gender norms." 37. In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen
D. "Spartan-reminiscent role norms." Finn described how tools of assessment are selected for use in the
process of therapeutic assessment. He said that
27. According to the Close-Up in Chapter 13, veterans diagnosed with A. clients are tested on a standard battery first and then decisions are made.
PTSD may see themselves as going from ________ in fairly short B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
order. C. the selection of tests is made in consultation with the therapist of the
A. "hero to zero" C. "friend to foe" clients.
B. "zero to sixty" D. "winner to loser" D. tests and procedures specially developed by the Center for Therapeutic
Assessment tests are used.
28. Which is not a type of competency mentioned in the textbook?
A. competency to consent to surgery 38. According to Dr. Stephen Finn, therapeutic assessment typically
B. competency to make a will ends
C. competency to stand trial A. with the termination of the client from therapy.
D. competency to choose homelessness B. when the client has achieved a "modicum of insight."
C. with a discussion of test scores and "next steps."
29. __________ is defined as "the capability of people to make D. when the client can no longer afford it.
reasonably sound decisions regarding day-to-day money matters as
well as more global aspects of their personal finances." 39. Tools of assessment used by profilers include
A. Monetary competency A. tests. C. the case study.
B. Real world competency B. the interview. D. Both the interview and the case study.
C. Financial competency
D. Wealth management competency 40. Most of the highly publicized crimes for which profilers have been
employed have been solved
30. Working in the country of ________, Liliana Sousa and her A. with the aid of forensic psychologists as profilers.
colleagues developed a measure of financial competency. B. by persons from a law enforcement background.
A. Columbia C. Brazil C. as the result of a perpetrator "slip-up."
B. Portugal D. Puerto Rico D. as the result of the FBI "Top 10 Most Wanted" List.
31. Many variables may be considered when conducting an 41. The psychiatrist and philosopher Karl Jaspers wrote that "there is
examination of an individual's financial competency. Which is not a no sharp line to be drawn between different types, nor between what
variable mentioned in the textbook? is healthy and what is not." This quote was a reference to a potential
A. the assessee's pre-morbid functioning problem with
B. the assessee's past values and preferences A. a dimensional approach to personality disorder.
C. the complexity of the finance-related decisions that need to be made B. overlapping criteria for the diagnosis of schizophrenia.
D. the presence of legal challenges to the individual's financial competency C. a proposed Personality Disorder Trait Specified diagnosis.
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D. a categorical approach to personality disorder. A. hypnotic interview.
B. elaborative interview.
42. An interview procedure similar to a hypnotic interview but without C. structured interview.
the hypnotic induction is D. collaborative interview.
A. the mental status examination.
B. the stress interview. 53. Biopsychosocial assessment was likened by your textbook
C. the cognitive interview. authors to
D. None of these A. the great paradigm shift in disability research.
B. being the prized "Snagglepuss" pokemon in Pokemon GO.
43. An interview technique that is similar to the hypnotic interview C. closing the barn door after the cows have left.
entails D. broadcasting in widescreen.
A. focused meditation.
B. collaborative evaluation. 54. Who is the person credited with having coined the term Barnum
C. insightful recollection. effect?
D. None of these A. Tallent C. P. T. Barnum himself
B. Patterson D. Meehl
44. As discussed in Chapter 13 of your text, case history data was
used to support the view that 55. The biopsychosocial approach to assessment could BEST be
A. a rhesus monkey is capable of experiencing anxiety disorder and described as
depression. A. multicultural. C. psychoanalytic.
B. racial intolerance can lead to a number of debilitating psychosomatic B. multidisciplinary. D. All of these
conditions.
C. exposure to Christian Science predisposed one patient to an obsessive 56. A culturally sensitive psychological assessment includes
disorder. sensitivity to
D. All of these A. acculturation and language. C. personal identity.
B. values and worldview. D. All of these
45. The most widely used test to measure the severity of depression
is 57. Culturally sensitive psychological assessment
A. the MMPI. C. the MCMI-III. A. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues.
B. the BDI-II. D. the SADS. B. includes consideration of cultural issues when evaluating suicidal
potential.
46. The MAC was a scale derived from the MMPI that was constructed C. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues and
to aid in differentiating includes consideration of cultural issues when evaluating suicidal potential.
A. appetite-disordered from non-appetite disordered patients. D. None of these
B. marijuana-abusing from non-marijuana-abusing patients.
C. alcoholic from non-alcoholic patients. 58. A mental status examination may be administered to
D. so-called "foodies" from "fast foodies." A. screen for intellectual, emotional, and neurological deficits.
B. assess thought content and thought processes.
47. The legal term mens rea refers to one's C. assess whether an individual is oriented "times three."
A. "lack of awareness." D. All of these
B. "clean slate."
C. "pureness of motives." 59. Which of the following would NOT typically be assessed in a
D. "guilty mind." routine mental status examination?
A. short-term memory
48. Competence to stand trial has largely to do with understanding the B. memory for one's own name
charges against the defendant and being able to assist in one's own C. memory for who is currently serving as President of the United States
defense. The "understand and assist" requirement is an extension of D. All of these would typically be assessed.
the constitutional prohibition against trial
A. a posteriori. 60. The current version of the DSM is a diagnostic system that is used
B. nolo contendere. by psychologists and other mental health professionals
C. in absentia. A. to diagnose patients.
D. mens rea. B. for insurance reimbursement purposes.
C. for research purposes.
49. Many measures may be used to evaluate competency to stand trial. D. All of these
Which of the following is NOT such a measure?
A. the RCRAS 61. The outcome of the debate on what constitutes a disorder is
B. the ECST-R important because it will influence
C. the MacCAT-CA A. research. C. public policy.
D. the FIT B. treatment. D. All of these
50. What is commonly referred to as profiling is referred to by the FBI 62. A case history
as A. is not appropriate for children under age 8.
A. criminal psychological analysis. B. may be found in hospital records.
B. criminal psychoanalysis. C. is more important in clinical than counseling psychology.
C. criminal investigative analysis. D. is rarely utilized by behavioral psychologists.
D. investigative psychological analysis.
63. Which measures are typically included as part of a standard
51. At the core of profiling is the assumption that perpetrators of serial battery?
crimes leave at their crime scenes A. measures of intelligence and personality
A. physical evidence. C. philosophical evidence. B. measures of intelligence, personality, and neurological intactness
B. psychological evidence. D. business cards C. measures of intelligence, personality, neurological intactness, and case
history data
52. A type of interview in which the interviewee is given wide latitude D. a measure of intelligence, a measure of neurological intactness, and the
to interact with the interviewer is called a Mooney Problem Checklist
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64. A problem with self-report measures of depression, such as the 73. A compromise between the two extreme positions in the clinical
Beck Depression Inventory, is that versus mechanical prediction controversy has it that clinical
A. testtakers can fake depression or fake the absence of depression. information developed by clinicians be
B. they are highly unreliable and based solely on what happened to the A. put to optimal use by computers using decision rules.
testtaker during the previous day or so. B. reviewed and modified by other clinicians before submission for
C. they do not gauge the severity of depression, only its presence or processing by computer.
absence. C. checked by computer before submission to a panel of "second opinion"
D. the theory on which they are based has been shown to be severely clinicians for action.
flawed. D. sent to the main frame supercomputer at the National Institutes of Health
for processing using that organization's own data base.
65. Forensic psychological assessment entails evaluation in matters
involving 74. Which question might a mental health professional be MOST likely
A. whether a parent should retain custody of a child. to be asked during the course of a civil proceeding?
B. whether an individual is competent to stand trial. A. Is this individual competent to stand trial?
C. whether an individual is guilty by reason of insanity. B. Was this individual sane at the time the crime was committed?
D. All of these C. To what extent did this individual suffer emotional distress?
D. All of these
66. Forensic psychology is different from clinical psychology because
in forensic psychology: 75. In determining parental custody
A. the clinician's client may not be the assessee. A. one impartial mental health professional is always used to assess both
B. when the assessee is in an adversarial relationship with the assessor, parents.
the assessee may not be truthful. B. tests of intelligence or personality may be necessary in addition to
C. the clinician may be called on to offer recommendations that run counter interviews.
to the stated interests of the assessee. C. the child's parental preference will not be taken into account by the court.
67. An assessor determines that Farley is incompetent to stand trial. 76. One problem in confirming a diagnosis of child abuse is that
This means that Farley A. no legal definition of this term exists.
A. is unable to understand the charges against him and is unable to assist B. signs of abuse may also be symptoms of other conditions.
in his defense. C. definitions of this term vary from state to state.
B. is mentally retarded or psychotic. D. professionals who wrongfully report abuse or neglect, even in good faith,
C. may have been under the influence of alcohol or some controlled are subject to fines, imprisonment, or both.
substance at the time the alleged offense was committed.
D. All of these 77. Which tools of psychological assessment are used to assess child
abuse and neglect?
68. Psychologists who are called on by the courts to render an opinion A. psychological tests
regarding a person's sanity must be prepared to B. interviews
A. explain all the ramifications of the fact that "sanity" and "insanity" are C. anatomically correct dolls
psychological, and not legal terms. D. All of these
B. deal with all the ramifications of the fact that the determination of "sanity"
and "insanity" are ultimately left to a judge or a jury to decide. 78. The Barnum effect in psychological report writing refers to
C. be sued by the patient if their opinions regarding the sanity of the patient A. very technical jargon that is too difficult for lay readers to understand.
are at odds with the determination of the court. B. conflicting statements about the assessee within the same report.
D. undergo an examination evaluating their own mental status prior to being C. statements that are by their very nature tend to be prejudicial.
admitted to the courtroom. D. vague, general statements that could be applied to most people.
69. A convict's readiness for parole or probation
A. can be predicted by the "Readiness for Parole Checklist." 79. In the child custody evaluation conducted by your textbook's
B. is determined solely on the basis of self-report testimony from the author, the child expressed a preference for
convict. A. leaving Earth with E.T. and his father.
C. is a decision often made on the basis of Rorschach protocols. B. leaving Earth with E.T. and his mother.
D. None of these C. leaving Earth with E.T. only.
D. not leaving Earth with any extra-terrestrial but staying at home with his
70. "If a person is judged to be mentally retarded, psychotic, or parents.
suffering from a debilitating neurological disorder, that person is
automatically judged to be incompetent to stand trial." This statement 80. Which of the following statements from a hypothetical
is psychological report BEST exemplifies the Barnum effect in report
A. true. writing?
B. false. A. "Herb exhibits significant indicators of a specific learning disability in the
C. true if two or more of the listed criteria are met. visual channel of learning."
D. true if the defendant was a minor at the time of the alleged offense. B. "At times, Betty's unconscious hostile urges become evident in the form
of expressed anger."
71. Which of the following tools of psychological assessment is MOST C. "Patty's mild mental retardation indicates that she may need close
likely to be used in order to evaluate a patient's level of premorbid supervision in a job setting."
functioning? D. "Tom reports frequent auditory hallucinations commanding him to take
A. role-play out the garbage."
B. behavioral observation
C. the case history 81. Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST frequently
D. All of these used by clinicians in their daily work?
A. an interview
72. Computer-based test interpretation B. a rating scale
A. is always actuarial in nature. C. a picture-story projective test
B. may be actuarial in nature. D. reports from others
C. has nothing to do with actuarial assessment.
D. is synonymous with mechanical prediction.
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82. A physical examination is to a physician as a _______ is to a C. both parents desperately want custody of the child.
clinician. D. All of these
A. psychological examination
B. neuropsychological examination 93. The definition of the term child abuse
C. mental status examination A. was developed by the federal government.
D. differential diagnosis B. varies from state to state.
C. requires the direct observation of abusive behavior by a professional.
83. A clinician's note that a person is "oriented 3." This means that D. does not include sexual offenses against the child.
the person is oriented to
A. person, place, and thing. 94. Under law, the failure to provide a child with adequate food and
B. person, place, and time. shelter is considered
C. who, what, and where. A. abuse.
D. when, where, and how. B. neglect.
C. malnourishment.
84. A stress interview is most similar in nature to D. abandonment.
A. an analogue study.
B. a mental status examination. 95. Which of the following physical signs are MOST suggestive of
C. a structured interview. child abuse?
D. watching back-to-back episodes of Dancing with the Stars. A. crying.
B. a bruise on the knee.
85. According to your textbook, who was known for encouraging the C. poor hygiene.
use of a test battery rather than the use of a single psychological test? D. grab marks.
A. Thurstone C. Exner
B. Thorndike D. Rapaport 96. If a psychologist strongly suspects that a child has been abused
or neglected, the psychologist
86. A group of personality tests administered to a client is referred to A. is required to tell the parents.
as a B. is mandated by law to report the suspected abuse to authorities.
A. personality test battery. C. personality re-mix. C. must discuss the suspected abuse with colleagues before taking any
B. personality mix. D. specific battery. further action.
D. must contact the American Psychological Association's Office of Child
87. The most commonly used measure of depression is Abuse.
A. the MMPI-II.
B. the Beck Depression Inventory. 97. The Parenting Stress Index is MOST appropriately used as
C. the Draw-A-Person. A. evidence in court.
D. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). B. a predictor of child abuse.
C. a tool of prevention.
88. Amy is a teenager with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. She D. a diagnostic instrument.
understands that she is being charged with assaulting her parents,
and she is able to assist her attorney in her defense. Amy will MOST 98. A psychological report is BEST written with
probably be found by the court A. the diagnosis in mind.
A. competent to stand trial. B. the goal of the assessment in mind.
B. incompetent to stand trial. C. the tools of assessment that were employed at hand.
C. competent but not mentally able to stand trial. D. the best interest of the referral source in mind.
D. competent but not physically able to stand trial.
99. When it comes to the matter of writing a psychological report
89. A psychotic individual who has broken the law and has been A. there exists no one acceptable style or form.
apprehended would MOST likely be B. most contain a section describing the credentials of the examiner.
A. found competent to stand trial. C. a detailed, physical description of the testtaker is typically presented in
B. screened to determine if she or he meets the "understand and assist" the Recommendations section of the report.
requirement. D. All of these
C. found not guilty by reason of insanity regardless of the specific facts of
the case. 100. Which is MOST likely to engender a Barnum-like effect in its
D. found guilty but insane under Rule Number 76015 of the Federal Rules reader?
of Evidence. A. the headlines of a tabloid newspaper
B. a crossword puzzle in a book of puzzles
90. Research on the Psychopathy Checklist suggests that it is useful C. a birthday card on the rack of a store
in D. a horoscope published in a newspaper
A. predicting crimes committed by inmates.
B. identifying a psychotic disorder. 101. The Parenting Stress Index (PSI) was designed to measure
C. identifying criminal recidivists. A. risk for child abuse.
D. predicting violence within prisons. B. difficulties in parenting resulting from particular parenting styles.
C. parent competency to testify in court.
91. A person with few inhibitions and little regard for others is MOST D. how well a parent is doing from the perspective of a child or adolescent.
likely to be found to be
A. a recidivist. 102. Data from the Child Abuse Potential Inventory (CAP) is MOST
B. a psychopath. likely to be used
C. severely depressed. A. by police when responding to domestic disputes.
D. a dentist. B. to provide evidence of child abuse in a court of law.
C. to compel abusive parents to take a risk-reduction class.
92. It is important for clinicians who conduct child custody D. to prioritize families for social services.
evaluations to understand that
A. there may be many reasons for a custody battle, some not involving the 103. Making diagnostic criteria specific and listing specific areas to be
child. addressed in an interview are ways of ____ the Barnum effect in the
B. the parents' intentions are always in the best interest of the child. resulting psychological report.
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A. decreasing D. More similarities than differences exist between the two specialties.
B. increasing
C. maximizing 113. Which of the following is TRUE of the cognitive interview?
D. eliminating A. It is typically used for the assessment of mental retardation.
B. It is a viable alternative to a hypnotic interview.
104. One way in which the description of disorders has changed in C. It tends to include more closed than open-ended questions.
successive editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental D. It has been found to have application in the evaluation and treatment of
Disorders (DSM) is that greater relationship to ________ is in evidence sleep disorders.
with regard to the descriptions of the various disorders.
A. psychoanalytic theory 114. The Beck Depression Inventory-II measures testtakers' feelings
B. behavioral measures over what period of time?
C. cognitive-behavioral measures A. 1 week C. 3 weeks
D. None of these B. 2 weeks D. the last month
105. Dr. Marks wishes to conduct a research study that has to do with 115. Which of the following is the BEST predictor of violence on the
the private lives and thoughts of substance abusers. Which ethical part of an assessee?
issue is MOST relevant for Dr. Marks to keep in mind? A. the assessee reports having written a threatening letter to someone.
A. the issue of "First, do no harm" B. the assessee's case history is replete with acts of violence.
B. the issue of informed consent C. the assessee contemplates the commission of a violent act aloud.
C. the issue of right to treatment D. the assessee agrees to appear as a guest on an episode of Jerry
D. the issue of cultural sensitivity Springer that deals with a love triangle.
106. An experiment is conducted wherein college student subjects 116. Instruments used to screen for depression are
play the role of party-goers who are thinking aloud as they are being A. routinely administered to prospective contestants on Match Game.
asked to participate in illicit drug use. What tool of assessment is B. valuable only in detecting manic-depressive disorder.
being used? C. exclusively validated on introductory psychology students.
A. case study D. None of these
B. behavioral analogue
C. the MAC-R 117. Which type of interview is MOST likely to be used in a criminal
D. drug paraphernalia investigation?
A. stress interview C. nonverbal interview
107. Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST likely to be B. cognitive interview D. good cop/bad cop interview
administered to a new civilian employees of the United States
Department of Defense? 118. Which of the following tools is MOST useful in identifying factors
A. the Rorschach related to an individual's potential for violence against public official?
B. the MMPI-2-RF A. objective personality tests C. the case study
C. the Addiction Potential Scale B. projective personality tests D. analysis of dreams
D. a urine test for drugs
119. In which type of interview would the interviewee most likely be
108. Which of the following is MOST typically used early in encouraged to shift his or her perspective and describe events from
independent practice settings to help devise a therapeutic contract? the viewpoint of the person who committed a crime?
A. behavioral observation A. stress C. hypnotic
B. case history data B. mental status D. cognitive
C. an interview
D. an attorney 120. Why might a clinician interview a culturally different client about
cultural aspects of his or her life?
109. Of the following tests, which one is the MOST commonly used in A. to develop hypotheses about the intelligence and personality of the
evaluating substance abuse? interviewee
A. MacAndrew Alcohol Scale-Revised B. to distinguish psychopathological behavior from that which is more
B. The Addiction Potential Scale typical of the culture of the interviewee
C. Addiction Severity Index C. to differentiate between what constitutes psychopathology in the majority
D. Addiction Acknowledgment Scale culture from what constitutes psychopathology in the client's culture
D. to sample new foods
110. One difference between the MacAndrew Alcohol Scale-Revised
(MAC-R) and The Addiction Acknowledgment Scale (AAS) is that the 121. Compared to an unstructured interview, a structured interview
A. AAS requires hand-scoring by the examiner, the MAC-R does not. A. has questions that are all prepared in advance.
B. MAC-R was validated with college students, the AAS was not. B. involves interviewers asking questions in areas that they believe are
C. AAS has more face validity than the MAC-R. important.
D. MAC-R is a self-report measure and the AAS is not. C. tends not to be useful as a pre-or post-measures of outcome.
D. is the method of choice for homicide investigators.
111. Compared with clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists
are more likely to be 122. The Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia is an
A. practicing in independent practice. example of
B. concerned with more forms of psychopathology. A. an unstructured clinical interview.
C. involved in providing vocational guidance. B. a structured clinical interview.
D. users of the MMPI-2-RF. C. a projective test.
D. an objective personality test.
112. Which of the following is generally TRUE regarding the
similarities and differences between the specialties of clinical and 123. Which of the following is the most common reason for psychiatric
counseling psychology? hospitalization?
A. Clinical psychologists tend to be more involved in consumer issues. A. anxiety
B. Counseling psychologists tend to be more involved in psychoanalysis. B. depression
C. Clinical psychologists are more involved with career and vocational C. attention deficit disorder
assessment. D. schizophrenia
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124. In an evaluation to determine dangerousness, information 133. During the course of a mental status examination, the examiner
pertinent to ______________ is typically gathered. asks the examinee, "What is the meaning of the proverb, ‘A stitch in
A. the availability of a weapon time saves nine?'" By doing this, the examiner is MOST likely trying
B. the type of weapon to be used to assess the examinee's
C. the specificity of the plan A. aptitude for a position as a tailor.
D. All of these B. intellectual resources.
C. patience.
125. If a psychologist determines that a client is a danger to others, D. stress level.
that psychologist has a legal obligation to
A. share this information with a colleague before taking any action. 134. During the course of a mental status examination, the examiner
B. seek a legal opinion from an attorney. asks the examinee, "Do you know why we are here and why I am
C. warn the person who is in danger. interviewing you today?" By raising these questions, the examiner is
D. keep the information privileged. MOST likely trying to assess the examinee's
A. verbal abilities. C. insight.
126. It is recommended that the BDI-II be used with other tests such B. intellectual resources. D. orientation.
as the MMPI-2-RF because
A. the BDI-II items are now dated and the MMPI-2-RF was published in 135. Which of the following is NOT case history data?
2008. A. hospital records C. a letter from current employer
B. the poor discriminant validity of the BDI-II makes use with another scale B. school records D. All of these are case history data
advisable.
C. the BDI-II items are easily faked and there are no validity scales on the 136. When it comes to child custody, the courts have recognized that
test. the best interest of the child is typically best served by awarding
D. the BDI-II items lack cultural sensitivity. custody to
A. the mother. C. the mother or the father.
127. Which of the following is TRUE of the use of the MMPI-2 with B. the father. D. Angelina Jolie.
Chicano clients?
A. The MMPI-2 is as culturally sensitive as the MMPI. 137. A controversial issue with regard to profiling is whether or not
B. The MMPI-2 overpathologizes Chicano clients. A. profiling should be done by psychologists or criminologists.
C. Conflicting evidence exists regarding whether the MMPI-2 is culturally B. profiling is indeed a profession or an "ill-formed forensic discipline."
sensitive or overpathologizes Chicano clients. C. profiling has a sound theoretical and methodological base.
D. The MMPI-2 was shown to be more culturally sensitive than the MMPI- D. All of these
2-RF.
138. Which of the following is the BEST example of a factual item from
128. According to your textbook, which is TRUE of cultural the Georgetown Criteria for Competency to Stand Trial?
competence? A. the defendant's ability to identify and locate witnesses
A. The term refers to developing tests that reflect particular values. B. the defendant's ability to make decisions after advice
B. The term refers to knowledge of a particular culture through academic C. the defendant's ability to tolerate stress while awaiting trial or at the trial
study, life experience, or both. D. the defendant's ability to refrain from irrational behavior during trial
C. The textbook authors recommend it not only for psychologists but many
other groups such as sales people. 139. The FBI refers to it as criminal investigative analysis but most
D. All of these other people would know it as
A. forensic assessment. C. examining.
129. Caution is urged with the use of translators in assessment B. legal evaluation. D. profiling.
situations because
A. there is a shortage of translators who are truly "culturally competent." 140. According to your textbook, a key assumption in criminal
B. managed care and other third-party payers do not reimburse translation profiling is that perpetrators of serial crimes
fees. A. can be identified from profiles gathered on the Psychopathy Checklist.
C. words do not always retain their original meaning in translation. B. can be identified by psychologists.
D. few translators are qualified to develop, administer, or interpret C. leave more than physical evidence at a crime scene.
psychological tests. D. are unable to control themselves from repeat offenses.
130. A journal article entitled "Socially Reinforced Obsessing" was 141. Hypotheses typically made by profilers regarding crime scene
cited in Chapter 13 of your textbook. That article is an account of how evidence usually relates to the perpetrators'
exposure to A. organizational skills.
A. an obsessive-compulsive parent can result in an obsessive-compulsive B. planning ability.
child. C. degree of risk.
B. an obsessive-compulsive teacher can result in an obsessive-compulsive D. All of these
child.
C. a particular religious ideology led to obsessive-compulsive behavior on
the part of an adult.
D. a socialist political orientation contributed to obsessive-compulsive
symptomatology.
131. Which of the following would NOT be properly characterized as

demographic data?
A. religion C. telephone number
B. occupation D. medical history
132. Which of the following is NOT a category listed in your textbook

in the description of a mental status examination?
A. sensorium C. memory
B. socioeconomic status D. appearance
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Chapter 14  Neuropsychological Assessment 10. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for
dementia, neuropsychological assessment has value in differentially
1. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, in an outpatient setting, the person diagnosing dementia of the
coming for an evaluation of dementia typically A. Alzheimer's type.
A. is accompanied by a significant other or caregiver. B. vascular type.
B. complains of forgetfulness. C. frontotemporal type.
C. has word-finding difficulties. D. All of these
D. All of these.
11. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for
2. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a neurologist's in-office evaluation for dementia, the neurologist may order technologically sophisticated
dementia will typically begin with observation and an interview medical tests to provide information critical to making a differential
question like, diagnosis. In this context, Dr. Kramer made reference to a relatively
A. "What is your name?". new procedure that
B. "Who referred you to this office?". A. attempts to identify a particular protein accruing in the blood vessels and
C. "Where are you right now?". nerve cells.
D. "Why are you seeking help at this time?". B. provides an image of the plaque and tangles thought to be causal in
dementia.
3. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, it is during the initial interview that C. yields a working map of the thyroid gland and its possible contribution to
A. the patient's ability to comprehend communication and to express dementia-like symptoms.
thought is assessed. D. scans for the amount of dopamine the brain has available for its use.
B. tests such as the trail-making test are administered.
C. the social skills of the caregiver are informally evaluated. 12. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for
D. All of these dementia, a neurologist may order both an EEG and an MRI for the
patient so that
4. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, red flags for the presence of dementia A. the neurologist has data from both a static structural and dynamic
include functional evaluation.
A. receipt of a number of late payment notices. B. the neurologist can compare brain pathology images at different critical
B. a recent accident or incident while driving—uncharacteristic of the patient points in time.
in the past. C. the neurologist can better evaluate the extent of current damage that has
C. a sudden feeling of being lost in an otherwise familiar locale while driving been done.
or being driven. D. the neurologist's billing department is satisfied that every possible test
D. All of these that can be ordered has been ordered.
5. Which test was specifically cited by Dr. Eric Kramer as one typically 13. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a particular protein deposit in the
administered in an in-office evaluation for dementia? blood vessels or the nerve cells that may act as a marker for senile
A. the UCLA Memory Test dementia of the Alzheimer's type is called
B. the Montreal Cognitive Assessment A. a suetoxin.
C. the Mini-Mental-Status-Examination B. an edithalid.
D. All of these C. a jentinen.
D. an amyloid.
6. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for
dementia, prior behavioral and medical records as compared to more 14. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a diagnosis of dementia, or senile
current information may be particularly useful in identifying a dementia Alzheimer's type, is made
potentially reversible cause of the observed cognitive dysfunction. A. on the basis of three or more instance of forgetting in a week.
Here, the category of "reversible causes" includes pathology related B. if senile dementia or Alzheimer's type markers are present in urine
to specimens.
A. metabolic disturbances. C. using various psychological and biological tools of assessment.
B. inflammatory conditions. D. All of these
C. infectious conditions.
D. All of these 15. The largest referral source for neuropsychologists is
A. psychologists.
7. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for B. neurologists.
dementia, the possibility of the existence of dementia-like symptoms C. pediatricians.
must be ruled out. One such test for that purpose measures D. attorneys.
A. the amount of kale one has consumed.
B. the number of steps one has taken. 16. ________ is an example of a neurological condition that is most
C. the amount of Vitamin B-12 in the body. typically diagnosed on the basis of presenting signs and symptoms
D. the amount of free uric acid in the bloodstream. rather than any formal test.
A. Diabetic neuropathy
8. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, the existence of dementia-like B. Brain tumor
symptoms is a state called C. Microcephaly
A. pseudo-dementia D. Parkinson's disease
B. petite-folie
C. memory-lapsis 17. It is second only to dementia as the most common neurological
D. None of these disorder in the world.
A. ALS
9. According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for B. Multiple sclerosis
dementia, it may be useful to determine if the patient has a prior C. Microcephaly
history of D. Parkinson's disease
A. a gluten-free diet.
B. a syphillitic infection. 18. Being able to call for help and supply first responders with
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder. emergency-relevant information is referred to in the text as an
D. playing Pokemon Go. A. executive function.
B. emergency capability.
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C. urgent capacity. 31. Initially, Parkinson's disease may present as a
D. ability to multi-task. A. puzzling loss of perceptual-motor ability.
B. subtle loss of ability to focus attention.
19. A performance-based test which is abbreviated as the ______ is C. clear problem in standing from a sitting position.
used to help in the assessment of one's capacity for independent D. barely noticeable tremor in the finger.
living.
A. AAFR 32. The most common variety of Parkinson's disease is called
B. SOS-1 idiopathic Parkinson's disease. Here, the adjective idiopathic may
C. TEFE best be defined as
D. 911-FR A. familial.
B. unpredictable.
20. A second edition of the Bender-Gestalt was published ____ years C. of non-genetic origin.
after the original. D. of unknown origin.
A. 8
B. 13 33. As Parkinson's Disease progresses, patients typically complain of
C. 18 A. unwanted nerve sensations.
D. 65 B. loss of normal arm swing when walking.
C. difficulties associated with balance.
21. Larrabee (2015) described a valid flexible battery that required D. All of these.
about ____ hours of administration time including administration time
for the MMPI-2. 34. Possible problems reported by Parkinson's patients include
A. 5 A. stiffness in the limbs or facial muscles.
B. 7 B. issues with swallowing and salivation.
C. 9 C. excessive, unexplained sweating.
D. 11 D. All of these
22. Of the following, who is considered the "founding father of 35. Parkinson's disease
neuropsychology"? A. may be cured through regular dopamine infusions.
A. L. L. Thurstone C. Ward Halstead B. may be cured through deep brain stimulation.
B. Ralph Reitan D. Mehmet Oz C. both may be cured through regular dopamine infusions and may be
cured through deep brain stimulation.
23. Ralph Reitan shied away from writing textbooks because he felt D. None of these.
that
A. students had no basis of comparing his "readable" writing from other, 36. Many of the medications available to treat Parkinson's Disease
difficult-to-get-through books. elicit their own problems, such as dyskinesias. Dyskinesias are
B. his writing style was better suited to publication in scholarly journals. A. slowness in standing from a seated position.
C. he could do more good by personally presenting at scientific meetings. B. involuntary, jerking-type movements.
D. writing textbooks should be reserved for the end of one's career. C. tremors spreading from one side of the body to the other.
D. muscular problems affecting the production of speech.
24. Parkinson's disease is a neurological disorder characterized by
A. tremors. C. problems with balance. 37. The elevation in certain chemicals that naturally occurs during
B. slowness of movement. D. All of these. exercise may
A. serve a protective function against dopamine depletion.
25. Non-motor symptoms typically associated with Parkinson's B. mimic the effects of certain anti-oxidants.
disease include C. reduce depression in patients with Parkinson's disease.
A. depression. C. compulsions. D. All of these.
B. indigestion. D. All of these.
38. A number of conditions can present like, and be misdiagnosed as
26. In 1817, a British physician named _____________ authored a Parkinson's disease. Which is NOT such a condition?
journal article entitled "An Essay on the Shaking Palsy." A. tremors induced by certain medications
A. James Parkinson C. Cecil Parkinson B. serotonin deficiency syndrome
B. William Constable D. Samuel Goldwyn C. a neurological disorder called essential tremor
D. Lewy body dementia
27. Parkinson's disease was first referred to as such by
A. Mesmer. C. Rush. 39. Psychologists who suspect that a patient may have undiagnosed
B. Charcot. D. None of these. Parkinson's disease should refer the patient for
A. a neurological battery to confirm the diagnosis.
28. Parkinson's disease results from cell loss in an area of the brain B. a DaTscan to rule out the diagnosis.
called the C. an evaluation by a medical doctor.
A. cingulate gyrus. C. substantia nigra. D. an evaluation by a neurologist who specializes in movement disorders.
B. superior colliculous. D. None of these
40. A DaTscan entails the use of high-tech imaging equipment to
29. Parkinson's disease results from a deficiency in the brain of gauge
A. glutamate. C. acetylcholine. A. whether or not a brain tumor has changed in size.
B. dopamine. D. serotonin. B. approximately how damaged the brain is by plaque.
C. the amount of dopamine that is present in the brain.
30. Legendary boxers like Muhammed Ali are thought to have D. approximately how damaged the brain is by tangles.
contracted a form of Parkinson's disease called _________ as a result
of repeated head trauma. 41. Which is true about Parkinson's Disease?
A. pugilistic Parkinson's A. There is no cure.
B. traumatic Parkinson's B. There is no way to slow its progression.
C. concussive Parkinson's C. It is best treated by a team of multi-discipline professionals.
D. Rocky Parkinson's D. All of these
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42. The dominant brain hemisphere takes the lead in all of the 56. Which of the following is NOT a research question raised in an fMRI
following EXCEPT study cited in Chapter 14 of your textbook?
A. spatial recognition. C. writing. A. How does traumatic brain injury impact the brain network that mediates
B. arithmetic calculations. D. reading. memory?
B. How does depression moderate reward anticipation?
43. These brain lobes contain areas for visual reception: C. How does watching aggression on the tv show Cops affect the brain?
A. temporal lobes. C. parietal lobes. D. How does one's favorite song activate brain circuitry?
B. occipital lobes. D. frontal lobes.
57. According to your textbook, which of the following is BEST
44. These brain lobes contain areas for auditory reception: completed while the individual is blindfolded?
A. temporal lobes. C. parietal lobes. A. the Seashore Test of Musical Talent
B. occipital lobes. D. frontal lobes. B. the Piers-Harris Children's Self-Concept Scale
C. the Seguin-Goddard Formboard
45. This term refers to a deficit in writing ability: D. getting dressed to attend the Grammy Awards
A. acopia. C. agraphia.
B. agnosia. D. aphasia. 58. According to your textbook, so-called "unconscious memory" is
thought to be accessible only by means of
46. This term refers to a deficit in the sense of smell: A. hypnosis.
A. amusia. C. ataxia. B. meditation.
B. anolfactoria. D. anosmia. C. indirect measures.
D. direct measures.
47. Cranial nerve damage as evidenced by neuroimaging is
A. a hard sign of neurological deficit. 59. A test discussed in Chapter 14 of your textbook features a three-
B. a soft sign of neurological deficit. dimensional matrix. The test was designed to evaluate nonverbal
C. indicative of a verbal-performance discrepancy. reasoning primarily through the testtaker's
D. All of these A. visual sense.
B. olfactory sense.
48. If you did not have a copy of the UPSIT and had to improvise, which C. kinesthetic sense.
of the following would you be MOST LIKELY to employ in your D. haptic sense.
evaluation of a patient?
A. water C. a wire hanger 60. Soft sign is to hard sign as
B. a whisper D. perfume A. functional is to organic.
B. inborn is to acquired.
49. At what age does a child typically reach the developmental C. probable is to definite.
milestone of being able to say "mama" and "da-da"? D. Robert Downey Jr. is to Iron Man.
A. 6 months C. 12 months
B. 9 months D. 18 months 61. Which of these is likely to be a hard sign of neurological damage?
A. headaches
50. In 2010, the second edition of the MMSE was published. Which is B. abnormal reflex responses
TRUE of the MMSE-2? C. poor attention
A. It was also published in a brief version. D. consistent difficulty sleeping
B. It was also published in an expanded version.
C. It should be used for screening, not diagnosis. 62. Problems with one's sense of touch are MOST likely related to
D. All of these injury to (or lesions in)
A. the frontal lobe. C. the occipital lobe.
51. The Romberg test is also referred to as the B. the temporal lobe. D. the parietal lobe.
A. standing still test. C. finger wiggle test.
B. nose-finger-nose test. D. walking-running-skipping test. 63. A neuropsychologist blindfolds a patient and then moves the
patient's arms and legs in various positions. The patient is unable to
52. As reported by Dr. Jeanne Ryan in Chapter 14's Meet an identify where his limbs are located. The neuropsychologist would
Assessment Professional feature, every athlete in the public school MOST likely suspect that the patient has suffered some sort of damage
system of New York State must have on file a baseline to the
neuropsychological assessment on file. Data from this assessment A. frontal lobe. C. parietal lobe.
A. is compiled for research on sports-related neurological injuries. B. temporal lobe. D. occipital lobe.
B. is used in the event that the athlete suffers a concussion.
C. has been helpful in designing treatment programs for athlete injuries. 64. The thalamus acts as
D. All of these A. an executive controller for volitional motor movements that are
transmitted from the brain to the muscles.
53. As used in Chapter 14, the term pattern analysis refers to B. a communications relay station for sensory information being transmitted
A. a tool for evaluating eye-to-brain visual perception ability. to the cerebral cortex.
B. a pattern of test responses indicative of neuropsychological deficit. C. visual-spatial sequencer for perceiving complex patterns of movement
C. a neuropsychological tool of assessment that entails feeling textures. from the cingular gyrus.
D. None of these D. a kind of brake on emotional impulses that exerts a calming influence
54. "It's an ill wind that blows nobody good." One would MOST likely when one becomes too angry.
find this proverb on a neuropsychological test designed to measure
A. aptitude for meteorology. C. perceptual-motor ability. 65. The hypothalamus
B. episodic memory. D. the ability to abstract. A. inhibits the emotional impulses generated by the thalamus with
hormones.
55. MRI is to fMRI as B. regulates basic bodily functions such as eating, drinking, and body
A. photo is to video. temperature.
B. wrist is to arm. C. makes smooth movements possible for complex motor and tactile
C. standard definition is to high definition. sequences.
D. two-dimensional is to three-dimensional. D. is primarily involved in the perception and recognition of complex visual
patterns.
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66. Neurology is to neuropsychology as 76. Focal brain lesions
A. brains is to beauty. A. are diffusely scattered throughout the brain.
B. psychiatry is to psychology. B. may have broad ramifications with regard to behavioral deficits.
C. prince is to pauper. C. may result in paralysis unless they are surgically addressed within 30
D. neuron is to neutron. days of formation.
D. rarely have serious consequences.
67. A brain-injured patient appears impulsive and inattentive. She
tends to make tactless comments in conversation, and seems unable 77. A neuropsychological examination by an experienced
to anticipate the consequences of her actions. Based on these facts, neuropsychologist
a neuropsychologist would suspect damage to which area of the A. varies as a function of the referral question.
brain? B. consists of a standard battery of tests.
A. the frontal lobe C. the occipital lobe C. is usually initiated only if "hard signs" are found in screening.
B. the temporal lobe D. the parietal lobe D. is usually initiated only if "hard signs" are suspected.
68. Symptoms of a neurological deficit may become evident 78. A client complains of memory loss, headaches, and hand tremors.
A. during an intake interview. Which test or assessment technique is LEAST likely to be used by a
B. during the administration of psychological tests. neuropsychologist?
C. as the result of the administration of a psychological test. A. a case history
D. All of these B. a mental status examination
C. a measure of self-concept
69. Neuropsychologists D. a measure of intelligence
A. are trained to screen for signs and symptoms of neurological deficit.
B. make use of case-study information in the evaluation process. 79. A 16-year-old male suspected of drug abuse is referred for
C. may administer a test such as "Trail Making" in the evaluation process. neuropsychological evaluation. Which tool of assessment is LEAST
D. All of these likely to be used?
A. case history data
70. The phenomenon of ________ operates when an injury to the right B. familial medical history data
side of the brain results in sensory or motor deficit on the left side of C. referral for blood and urine tests
the body. D. a measure of creative thinking
A. diffuse organicity
B. contralateral control 80. Neuropsychologists
C. bilateral functioning A. do not conduct physical examinations of an individual, since that is the
D. reticular formulation sole responsibility of the neurologist.
B. perform many of the noninvasive procedures that a neurologist might
71. If a patient reports having severe visual deficits while attempting perform as part of a physical examination.
to read a Facebook page, a neuropsychologist would suspect damage C. are trained in the use of equipment such as CT scans and PET scans.
to the D. are legally entitled to do everything a neurologist can do with a patient in
A. occipital lobes. C. frontal lobes. most states.
B. limbic system. D. Facebook server.
81. A typical neuropsychological evaluation includes
72. If a patient suddenly begins to experience extremes in mood A. a medical history of the patient.
ranging from blunted affect to emotional outbursts, a B. a psychosocial history of the patient.
neuropsychologist would suspect damage to the C. a history regarding developmental milestones.
A. limbic system. D. All of these
B. cerebellum.
C. occipital lobes. 82. A mental status examination conducted during the course of a
D. spinal cord. neuropsychological evaluation may yield data regarding
A. the examinee's motor abilities.
73. If a patient exhibits disturbances in sound discrimination, voice B. the examinee's estimated intellectual functioning.
recognition, and auditory memory, a neuropsychologist would C. the examinee's sensory perception.
suspect damage to D. All of these
A. the cerebellum.
B. the temporal lobe. 83. The mental status examination used as part of the
C. the occipital lobe. neuropsychological evaluation
D. the parietal lobe. A. is exactly the same as a mental status examination used during a clinical
or counseling assessment.
74. The terms organicity and neurological damage B. will typically delve into specific areas related to the referral more
A. both refer to damage to the brain, the spinal cord, and the peripheral extensively than the one used routinely as part of a clinical or counseling
nervous system. assessment.
B. are basically the same diagnostic entities and are unitary in nature. C. typically includes the administration of an intelligence test.
C. were generally used interchangeably from about the time of World War I D. typically includes the administration of a neuropsychological adjective
to the 1950s. checklist.
D. both refer to the fact that most brain-damaged children share a similar
pattern of cognitive, behavioral, and motor deficits. 84. As part of a mental status examination during a
neuropsychological evaluation, a neuropsychologist would be LEAST
75. A patient exhibits deficits in word recall, vocabulary, and finding likely to routinely evaluate
words to name things. A neuropsychologist would be MOST likely to A. consciousness. C. physical appearance.
consider diagnosing this patient with B. thought content. D. socioeconomic status.
A. akinesia.
B. apraxia. 85. Each of the following might be performed by a neuropsychologist
C. anomia. in his or her office during the course of a routine neuropsychological
D. alcoholism. evaluation EXCEPT
A. testing of reflexes.
B. the taking of an MRI.
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C. physical examination of muscle tone. 96. Neuropsychological tests are LEAST likely to be used as
D. asking the assessee to skip from one end of the room to the other. A. an adjunct to medical examinations.
B. an aid in assessing a person's ability to stand trial.
86. The 7-Minute Screen and the Mini-Mental State Examination both C. an aid in identifying intellectual giftedness.
measure D. a measure of outcome in rehabilitation research.
A. cognitive ability. C. memory.
B. language. D. All of these 97. Poor performance on a Wechsler Block Design subtest indicates
A. that the testtaker has a pre-senile dementia.
87. The 7-Minute Screen was developed to identify symptoms B. that the testtaker is suffering from Alzheimer's Disease.
associated with which of the following? C. that severe head trauma has occurred.
A. personality disorders D. None of these
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. seizure disorders 98. If a patient performs poorly on a task entailing interpretation of
D. All of these well-known proverbs, a neuropsychologist would further investigate
the patient's
88. Which of the following is TRUE of the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test- A. ability to abstract.
64 Card Version? B. possible deficits in organizational skills.
A. The test is primarily used to screen for seizure disorders, psychotic C. ability to be "oriented time three."
disorders, and personality disorders. D. financial resources to pay for the consultation.
B. Test results may suggest neurological impairment when in reality the
testtaker is mentally ill. 99. Asking a patient to explain the meaning of proverbs such as "The
C. The test was developed by a Wisconsin neuropsychologist best known early bird catches the worm" may assist a neuropsychologist in
for conducting taste-tests with 64 varieties of muenster cheese. assessing a cognitive deficit in which area?
D. None of these A. planning
B. vocabulary
89. The Tower of Hanoi is used C. abstraction
A. as a measure of various aspects of executive functioning. D. orientation
B. as a measure of planning ability.
C. as a measure of cognitive flexibility. 100. Patients suffering from aphasia exhibit a loss of the ability to
D. All of these A. perceive smells.
B. perceive sounds lower in volume than a "dollar watch."
90. The Porteus Maze Test is NOT C. express themselves orally or in writing.
A. a measure of executive functioning. D. hold their hands steady.
B. to be used with children under the age of 8.
C. used to study personality traits of testtakers. 101. A person who performs very poorly in reproducing abstract
D. a measure used by neuropsychologists. geometric forms on a paper-and-pencil task is most likely to have a
deficit in which area of functioning?
91. The Tower of Hanoi is appealing A. visual scanning ability
A. to testtakers because it is a puzzle-like task. B. visual response speed
B. to testtakers because they receive instantaneous feedback on their C. visual sequential memory
performance. D. visual-motor integration
C. to test users because it requires little more than paper-and-pencil to
administer. 102. The Bender-Visual Motor Gestalt Test
D. All of these A. requires a considerable amount of time and special equipment to
administer.
92. The Trail Making Tests are part of which neuropsychological test B. relies solely on qualitative clinical judgment because no normative data
battery? are available.
A. Halstead-Reitan C. was re-standardized using year 2000 census data.
B. Kaufman Assessment Battery D. was designed to assess perceptual maturation and neurological
C. Woodcock-Johnson III impairment.
D. None of these
103. Which is TRUE of a flexible battery in neuropsychological
93. A testtaker is shown a sample item and then must scan a group of assessment?
items to find one that matches the sample. Which test is this testtaker A. A flexible battery of tests is typically preferable to a standard or
taking? prepackaged battery because it is more tailored to the assessee's
A. Trail Making Test presenting problem.
B. Field of Search B. Tests administered in a flexible battery frequently overlap with some of
C. Porteus Tests the functions typically assessed in a standard battery, although both should
D. The Mooney Problem Checklist always be administered.
C. All tests in a flexible battery have usually been normed on similar
94. Which of the following neuropsychological tests BEST taps skills populations.
known to be important in both piloting aircraft and monitoring air D. Tests administered in a flexible battery are less time-consuming than
traffic control? those in a standard battery.
A. Trail Making Test
B. Field of Search 104. Most neuropsychologists prefer which of the following when
C. Tower of Hanoi conducting a neuropsychological evaluation?
D. Boston Naming Test A. a prepackaged neuropsychological battery
B. a flexible neuropsychological battery
95. Which of the following is NOT true of picture absurdity items? C. the Halstead-Reitan
A. They are included as items on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. D. the Luria-Nebraska
B. They are uncommon on contemporary cognitive ability tests and
batteries.
C. They are used as a measure of neuropsychological functioning.
D. They tap skills known to be important in piloting aircraft.
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105. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a fixed, prepackaged 115. The study of neuropsychology is BEST characterized as the
neuropsychological test battery? study of
A. Great care is taken by the neuropsychologist in pre-selecting the tests to A. nervous system/cognition relationships.
be administered. B. brain/behavior relationships.
B. Scoring guidelines are frequently vague and require subjective clinical C. stimulus/response relationships.
judgment. D. physical/platonic relationships.
C. Each test in the battery is designed to measure only one
neuropsychological variable. 116. A patient had documented damage to the left hemisphere of the brain.
D. It is most likely to be used by a novice rather than an experienced Given this, a neuropsychologist would suspect that this patient would have
neuropsychologist. difficulty moving
A. the left arm.
106. Which is TRUE of a fixed, prepackaged neuropsychological test B. both arms.
battery? C. the left leg.
A. All of the tests in the battery are standardized. D. the right leg.
B. All of the tests were developed based on one particular battery.
C. The tests can be administered in a flexible fashion. 117. If damage from an infection was limited to a deficit in the sense
D. Each test in the battery is designed to measure only one of smell, this deficit could BEST be attributed to a
neuropsychological variable. A. contralateral defect.
B. diffuse lesion.
107. The NEPSY is to the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery C. focal lesion.
as the D. cerebral hemorrhage.
A. Trail Making Test is to the Porteus Maze Test.
B. WISC is to the WAIS. 118. In general, contemporary researchers consider organicity to be
C. Tower of Hanoi is to the Bender. A. a shared pattern of behaviors among persons with brain damage.
D. Halstead-Reitan is to the Luria-Nebraska. B. a descriptor of human anatomy.
C. a singular diagnostic entity for the brain injured.
108. As compared to the Halstead-Reitan, the Luria-Nebraska D. None of these
A. typically takes much longer to administer.
B. requires greater verbal ability. 119. A ____________ is typically administered during the course of a
C. is the more appropriate test for patients with aphagia. neuropsychological examination.
D. is not for use by inexperienced clinicians. A. personality measure
B. measure of intellectual functioning
109. The Luria-Nebraska is C. specific neuropsychological test
A. a personality assessment battery. D. All of these
B. a flexible neuropsychological test battery.
C. a fixed neuropsychological test battery. 120. A neuropsychological evaluation
D. the only psychological test battery that Mutual of Omaha offers A. will vary as a function of the referral question.
reimbursement for. B. typically begins with specific neuropsychological tests.
C. will vary depending upon the assessee's insurance.
110. An administration of the Montreal Neuropsychological Institute D. typically begins with the administration of the Bender-Gestalt.
Battery entails the administration of
A. the Wechsler Intelligence Test. 121. Which information is typically LEAST important in a
B. the Mooney Faces Test. neuropsychological examination and history-taking?
C. the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test. A. the age at which the patient was able to tie his or her shoelaces
D. All of these B. the patient's estimated IQ
C. the patient's social values
111. The Severe Impairment Battery D. the medical history of the patient's parents
A. entails an administration of the Tower of Hanoi.
B. reliably and validly assesses aphasia. 122. The physical exam of a person suspected of brain injury as
C. is used to assess the more severely impaired. conducted by a neuropsychologist
D. Both entails an administration of the Tower of Hanoi and is used to A. typically includes invasive procedures if the neuropsychologist was
assess the more severely impaired. trained in them.
B. typically does not include invasive procedures.
112. The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery C. will answer most medical questions except these pertaining to the exact
A. is relatively easy to administer and can be administered by location of a lesion.
paraprofessionals. D. Both typically does not include invasive procedures and will answer most
B. is useful in assessing perceptual, cognitive, and motor deficits. medical questions except these pertaining to the exact location of a lesion.
C. can be administered in under two hours by a well-trained and
experienced examiner. 123. Noninvasive diagnostic procedures include all of the following
D. Both is useful in assessing perceptual, cognitive, and motor deficits and EXCEPT
can be administered in under two hours by a well-trained and experienced A. the testing of reflexes.
examiner. B. the walking and skipping test.
C. an angiogram.
113. Which is NOT a subtest of the Halstead-Reitan Battery? D. an electroencephalogram.
A. Category C. Tactual performance
B. Coding D. Finger-tapping 124. A self-report rating scale of neurological impairment is
A. the Patient's Assessment of Own Functioning Scale.
114. Medical diagnostic procedures, such as PET scans and CT scans, B. the Short Portable Mental Status Questionnaire.
are LEAST likely to be used to diagnose C. the Neuropsychological Impairment Scale.
A. epilepsy. D. the Seashore Rating Scale.
B. brain lesions.
C. brain tumors.
D. depression.
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125. The phrase "Birds of a feather flock together" would MOST likely 136. According to your textbook, the increasing ability of physicians
be recited by a neuropsychologist for the purpose of evaluating a to identify brain damage with scans and other medical technology will
patient's MOST likely
A. memory. A. lessen the importance of neuropsychological testing and assessment.
B. abstract reasoning. B. prompt neuropsychologists to develop better assessment techniques for
C. social skills. understanding cognitive strengths and weaknesses.
D. knowledge of ornithology. C. make neuropsychological testing and assessment shift its focus from
diagnosis to remediation.
126. Aphasia refers to a D. encourage neuropsychologists to return to school, this time for an M.D.
A. deficit in motor ability. C. memory deficit. degree.
B. deficit in writing. D. communication deficit.
137. The case study approach is extremely valuable in
127. The Controlled Word Association Test is used primarily to neuropsychological assessments, especially with regard to
A. evaluate pre-senile dementia. determinations concerning a patient's
B. measure cognitive functioning. A. level of compliance during testing and assessment.
C. assess verbal fluency. B. level of premorbid functioning.
D. diagnose Alzheimer's disease. C. need for medication and other such medical intervention.
D. ability to pay for services on a sliding scale fee basis.
128. A prepackaged battery of neuropsychological tests allows a
clinician to 138. The Seguin-Goddard Formboard was originally developed to
A. pick and choose from a variety of tests in the battery. measure
B. choose tests based on the specific referral questions. A. auditory memory.
C. choose a complete battery that is individually tailored to the referral B. visuopractic ability.
question. C. olfactory memory.
D. administer a variety of tests that sample commonly evaluated areas. D. Both auditory memory and olfactory memory.
129. The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is an example 139. The Wechsler Memory Scale-III taps primarily which type of
of memory?
A. a flexible battery. A. procedural
B. a routing battery. B. semantic
C. an atheoretical battery. C. declarative episodic
D. a battery that keeps going and going. D. non-declarative procedural
130. The precise location of a brain tumor could BEST be identified by 140. Neuropsychological deficits in organizing and planning can
means of BEST be assessed by which of the following?
A. a CT scan. C. an electromyograph (EMG). A. the Wechsler Similarities Test
B. an X ray. D. a spinal tap. B. a proverb interpretation test
C. the Porteus Maze Test
131. Which is LEAST helpful in detecting brain lesions? D. an object sorting test
A. an X ray C. a PET scan
B. a blood test D. an echoencephalograph 141. All of the following are used to assess the ability to abstract
EXCEPT
132. Research on the Wechsler Memory Scale has pointed to A. the Wechsler Similarities subtest.
A. distinctive verbal and visual memory factors. B. the Object Sorting Test.
B. a general memory factor. C. the Porteus Maze Test.
C. verbal and performance memory factors. D. proverb interpretation.
D. memory that is organized by sensory input.
142. Neuropsychologists use the Wechsler Scales
133. Studies with the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) indicate A. only as a gauge of current intellectual functioning.
that high scores indicative of neurological impairment are obtained by B. to help identify neuropsychological impairment.
people with neurological difficulties. High scores indicative of C. as a stand-alone measure of neurological impairment.
neurological impairment have also been found for people with mental D. to establish rapport prior to administering the Halstead-Reitan battery.
disorders, with no neurological impairment. This latter finding is
indicative of which type of problem with regard to WCST scores? 143. A first-grader is able to recite the complete alphabet in his
A. false positives C. true negatives kindergarten class but not at home. This BEST exemplifies
B. false negatives D. true positives A. nondeclarative procedural short-term memory.
B. declarative-episodic long-term memory.
134. If a testtaker is asked to name familiar objects, write familiar C. context-dependent long-term memory.
words, and follow verbal instructions on a test that takes 15 minutes D. procedural short-term memory.
or less, the test that the testtaker would most likely be taking is
A. the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test. 144. Your ability to remember all of the different types of reliability
B. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery. discussed in your textbook is an example of __________ memory.
C. the Wechsler Memory Scale. A. procedural C. short-term
D. the Aphasia Screening Test. B. declarative D. focused
135. Children with chronic middle-ear infections often have low scores 145. Getting dressed in the morning puts to use which kind of long-
on the Sequenced Inventory of Communication Development (SICD). term memory?
This finding is construed as evidence of the SICD's A. procedural C. episodic
A. susceptibility to false positives. B. declarative D. context-dependent
B. deficient pre-screening of testtakers.
C. construct validity. 146. Which of the following is TRUE of short-term memory, according
D. None of these to the model presented in your textbook?
A. Passive and active components of short-term memory are included.
B. Only active components are included.
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C. Only passive components are included. C. most of these tests feature special norms for neurologically impaired
D. All information in short-term memory is encoded into long-term memory. populations
D. All of these
147. Individuals who lack awareness, insight, and the ability to
recognize problems are referred to as 157. Which is the BEST example of pattern analysis by an examiner
A. agnostic. C. amnesiac. who administers Wechsler tests?
B. anosognostic. D. anhedonics. A. An examiner takes note of a familiar melody in the voice of the testtaker
as the testtaker repeats the digits recited during the Digit Backwards
148. Factor-analytic research with the Wechsler Memory Scale-III subtest.
suggests that B. An examiner takes note of the fact that a testtaker arranges the blocks in
A. different factor solutions emerge as a function of age. a Block Design subtest in ways that appear to be designed to spell out
B. g emerges in adulthood but not old age. certain words.
C. no one factor can be used to explain test performance. C. An examiner notes extremely poor performance on tests that tap
D. the memory of the examiner is a factor that accounts for the majority of nonverbal abstraction ability and superior performance on tests that tap
the variance in pathology findings. verbal abstraction ability.
D. An examiner notes a pattern of responses that consistently alternates
149. Attention, concentration, and related factors play what role in the between true and false for all responses that can be answered with a true
model of memory that was presented in your textbook? or false response.
A. They play a role only in episodic and procedural memory.
B. They enhance memory to the extent that they are operating normally. 158. When a neuropsychologist uses the word "concrete," the
C. They determine which input becomes conscious. neuropsychologist is typically making reference to the variable of
D. They inhibit memory when operative under extreme conditions. A. level of intelligence. C. strength of will.
B. level of abstraction. D. strength of character.
150. Preliminary tests administered to a patient as part of a
neuropsychological examination might evaluate the patient's visual 159. Which of the following is the BEST measure of executive
and auditory abilities. The purpose of these tests is to evaluate function?
A. how cooperative the patient is actually going to be before proceeding. A. a Field-of-Search test
B. sensory input capabilities before proceeding with more specialized tests. B. a Digits Forward and Digits Backward test
C. whether or not the patient will be able to assist in the conduct of the C. the Tower of Hanoi
examination. D. the Isihara
D. the adequacy of the patient's health before proceeding.
160. Confrontation naming is a type of task presented on a test that
151. Tests such as the University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification entails
Test (UPSIT) are capable of providing evidence that the testtaker is A. a name-calling exchange with a spouse or other family member for a
suffering from given period of time.
A. AIDS C. Alzheimer's disease B. confronting a testtaker with a list of names—negative or positive—that
B. Parkinson's disease D. All of these the assessor feels aptly describe the testtaker.
C. naming items one is confronted with.
152. A man has a stroke on Monday and is recovering in the hospital D. re-naming items one is confronted with.
on the following Tuesday. On Wednesday morning, the family of the
patient asks a neuropsychologist to test the patient to determine how 161. Which is a test to measure colorblindness?
extensive the damage was from the stroke. In accordance with BEST A. the Benton C. the Wepman
practices, the neuropsychologist replies that he plans to test the B. the Isihara D. the Bruininks-Oseretsky
patient
A. later that afternoon. 162. The "Gestalt" in Bender-Gestalt comes from
B. later that evening. A. Lauretta Bender's homage to Max Gestalt.
C. first thing in the morning on Thursday. B. the German word gestalten meaning "configurational wholes."
D. in about a month or so. C. the Romanian term, nisht gessen allis meaning "don't guess at all."
D. None of these
153. The term pseudodementia refers to
A. a malingerer pretending to be demented. 163. A quantitative scoring system for the Bender-Gestalt was
B. a condition that presents clinically like dementia. published by
C. a clinical presentation on the subject of dementia. A. Bender.
D. efforts to avoid dementia through diet and nutrition. B. Koppitz.
C. Pascal and Suttell.
154. Members of populations at risk for neurological impairment D. Both Koppitz and Pascal and Suttell.
include all of the following EXCEPT
A. psychiatric patients. C. war veterans. 164. Max Hutt believed that perceptual-motor behavior
B. the elderly. D. alcoholics. A. rapidly declined after age 60.
B. could reveal personality conflicts.
155. Which of the following statements about reflexes is NOT true? C. began to decline in the late teen years.
A. their existence can be tested for by a neuropsychologist during the D. was not adequately sampled by the Bender-Gestalt test.
course of a neuropsychological examination
B. the mastication or chewing reflex is elicited by stroking the normal infant's 165. In the Controlled Word Association Test, the examiner
tongue or lips A. controls stimulus words presented on a computer monitor to the test-
C. they are defined as voluntary motor responses to stimuli taker and the testtaker must type in an association to that word.
D. many of them have survival value for infants B. keeps a record of the number of seconds it takes to respond to "neutral"
and "emotional" stimulus words.
156. Why are Wechsler tests so popular with neuropsychologists for C. Both controls stimulus words presented on a computer monitor to the
use in neuropsychological evaluations? test-taker and the testtaker must type in an association to that word and
A. the varied nature of the tasks on these tests make them appealing keeps a record of the number of seconds it takes to respond to "neutral"
B. the culture-fairness of the materials make them appropriate for and "emotional" stimulus words.
administration to a wide variety of people D. says a letter of the alphabet and the testtaker's task is to say as many as
words as possible that begin with that letter.
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166. In the model of memory presented in Chapter 14 of your textbook, Chapter 15  Assessment, Careers, and Business
information stored in long-term memory is available for retrieval. After
this information is retrieved and used, it is returned to long-term 1. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the first intelligence service in
memory. How does this return to long-term memory happen? the United States was created under President
A. The information is first processed in short-term memory. A. Theodore Roosevelt.
B. The information is restored directly to long-term memory. B. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
C. After the passage of about 3 months without further use, the information C. Dwight D. Eisenhower.
is restored to long-term memory. D. John F. Kennedy.
D. It is a matter of debate how this happens and neither the information is
first processed in short-term memory, the information is restored directly to 2. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the Office of Strategic Services
long-term memory, or after the passage of about 3 months without further (OSS) is viewed today as the forerunner to
use, the information is restored to long-term memory can be stated with A. the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
certainty. B. the US Army Special Forces.
C. both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special
167. The Wechsler Memory Scale-III (WMS-III) is the successor to the Forces.
test known as D. None of these.
A. the WMS-II. C. the WMS-la Deuxieme Partie.
B. the WMS-R. D. the WMS. 3. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, one of the major turning points
in the history of psychological assessment came as the result of the
168. The type of task measured in the test referred to simply as "the forward-thinking action of a U.S. Army General named
Boston" is A. James "Big Jim" Thornton.
A. controlled word association. C. visual memory. B. Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
B. figure copying. D. confrontation naming. C. Samuel "Secret Sammy" Sanders.
D. William "Wild Bill" Donovan.
169. In the jargon of neuropsychology, reference to a "CDT" by a
neuropsychologist MOST probably refers to: 4. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the team of psychologists that
A. central daylight saving time. was assembled to create the novel assessment program for personnel
B. click-down tap-time. selection for the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) could be
C. clock-drawing test. characterized as
D. court-determined test. A. "junior varsity."
B. "recently licensed."
170. The Wechsler Memory Scale-III is appropriate for ages C. "all over the map."
A. 3-21. C. 16-74. D. "all-star."
B. 5-18. D. 6-74.
5. All of the following were objectives of America's first intelligence
171. Behavioral neurology is a specialty area within service EXCEPT
A. neuropsychology. A. gathering information about the intentions and activities of this country's
B. neurology. adversaries.
C. neuroscience. B. executing operations aimed at disrupting foreign enemy actions.
D. neuroanatomy. C. identifying domestic groups that represented a threat to the United
States.
172. Why must the neuropsychologist have a working knowledge of D. sabotaging foreign enemy assets.
the effects of prescription medication taken by assessees?
A. the prescription medication can mask certain neurobehavioral 6. Candidates for the OSS would have to be all of the following
symptoms. EXCEPT
B. the prescription medication can cause certain neurobehavioral problems. A. resourceful.
C. the prescription medication can be unnecessary for the patient to take. B. contemplative.
D. Both the prescription medication can mask certain neurobehavioral C. emotionally resilient.
symptoms and the prescription medication can cause certain D. creative.
neurobehavioral problems.
173. Of the following, which tool of assessment is BEST for 7. Identifying candidates for OSS positions represented a "real-world"
determining if behavior exhibited by a patient is the result of dementia problem that would ultimately be addressed by means of
or pseudodemtia? A. a thoughtfully-devised psychological assessment program.
A. an interview B. a highly incentivized recruiting program.
B. a case history C. an imaginative but cost-effective advertising program.
C. the Bender D. All of these
D. a confrontation naming task
8. The model of assessment and personnel selection devised by OSS
174. One variety of memory thought to exist beyond conscious control personnel was
is referred to as A. generally consistent with the then-current practices.
A. reflexive memory. B. unreliable as a result of then-existing time pressures.
B. iterative memory. C. revolutionary for its time and still in use today.
C. illicit memory. D. has remained classified to the present day.
D. implicit memory.
9. The varied responsibilities of the OSS raised many questions for the
175. Which is NOT a subspecialty of neuropsychology? OSS team of assessor psychologists. According to Mark F.
A. forensic neuropsychology. Lenzenweger, the "bottom line" question for the assessors could
B. school neuropsychology. BEST be phrased as,
C. vocational neuropsychology. A. "What defines ‘usefulness to the organization'?"
D. geriatric neuropsychology. B. "What psychological attributes can we reasonably assess in the space of
a relatively short visit to the assessment facility?"
C. "How do we select candidates who are a good fit with the varied
demands required of OSS intelligence officers?"
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D. "What specific aspects of personality should be the focus of our C. senior Department of the Army officials.
assessments?" D. Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
10. A number of factors conspired to make the task of the OSS one of 20. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the legacy of the OSS
the most complicated behavioral prediction challenges ever assessment program
encountered in the history clinical psychology. These factors A. is tied to its compelling demonstration of the utility of psychological
included testing and assessment.
A. identifying psychological attributes that corresponded to OSS duties. B. lives on in the modern day use of assessment centers for personnel
B. the novelty of the OSS function. selection in corporate America.
C. the variability of job requirements for OSS intelligence agents to be C. is very much a part of assessment centers conducted by today's
recruited. governmental agencies.
11. As an alternative to analyzing OSS jobs into their component 21. The image in Chapter 15 of your textbook of Steve Martin as a
psychological attributes, the OSS Assessment Staff set what they dentist in Little Shop of Horrors was used to illustrate a point about
characterized as ______ assessment as their objective. occupational choice and
A. orgasmic C. orthogonal A. burnout. C. productivity
B. organismic D. None of these B. interests. D. workplace drug testing.
.
12. Ultimately, psychologists evaluated OSS candidates on the basis 22. Although not identified as such at the time of hire, there are
of data derived from employees who turn out to be "poor-fits" for their job or work place.
A. the full range of assessments, considered as a whole. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, such individuals may
B. a series of individual tests, each measuring a required ability. A. have been easily screened out by basic self-report measures and never
C. a single test with scales for each of the required abilities. hired.
D. a complex weighting of case history data and cognitive/behavioral tasks. B. be well-versed in impression management techniques, which is how they
got the job.
13. Candidates for OSS training arrived at the OSS instructional C. have served time in prison for forging work credentials in the past.
facility for assessment and training from D. All of these
A. their homes throughout the United States.
B. specially designated hotels in Roanoke, Virginia where they had been 23. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, potential problems may arise with
instructed to assemble. employees who misrepresented their credentials to gain employment.
C. United States military bases. These employees may
D. All of these A. try to bend the rules of the workplace.
B. down-play or disregard supervisory feedback.
14. OSS assessment and training was conducted at a location that was C. be inappropriately competitive with co-workers.
code-named _____, but was informally referred to as ____. D. All of these
A. the homestead; the farm
B. Farm 44; the station 24. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, in the workplace, the problems of one
C. Station S; the farm individual, such as chronic lateness or chronic moodiness, are likely
D. Dulles; the airport to negatively impact the focus and productivity of
A. that individual.
15. Once at the OSS training and assessment facility, the candidates B. other workers.
A. were interviewed by psychologists, completed questionnaires, and sat C. both that individual and other workers.
for paper-and-pencil tests. D. all workers in that industry.
B. had their performance evaluated on a highly stressful, but mock
interrogation. 25. The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)
C. were challenged to build a small wooden structure using "assistants" who A. is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists.
deliberately frustrated the candidates' efforts. B. was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
D. All of these C. taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
D. Both is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists and was
16. While at the OSS assessment and training facility, the candidates developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
A. were not allowed to verbally interact with each other.
B. were encouraged to view Survivor re-runs on VHS. 26. The process of selection based on an evaluation of certain minimal
C. would inevitably have a physical altercation with either "Buster" or criteria is referred to as
"Kippy." A. classification. C. screening.
D. None of these B. directed search. D. interviewing.
17. OSS candidates were formally and informally assessed at the OSS 27. When hiring new personnel, the term that BEST describes the
assessment and training facility over the course of a total of ____. process by which applicants are accepted or rejected is
A. 3 days C. one week A. selection. C. classification.
B. 5 days D. 10 days B. placement. D. directed search.
18. The OSS assessments resulted in mounds of notes and other data 28. Application forms used in employment settings
about the candidates' suitability for intelligence work. All of this A. are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
information was B. have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous
A. analyzed in triple-blind fashion by a panel of three psychologists. research studies.
B. sent to OSS headquarters in Washington, D.C. for a preliminary C. are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that
recommendation. can be later obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other
C. reviewed and debated at a staff conference. sources.
D. All of these D. Both have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous
research studies and are frequently unnecessary, since they usually
19. The final decision regarding the status of an OSS was made by duplicate information that can be later obtained through interviews, tests,
A. senior OSS staff officials. Linked-In, and other sources.
B. psychologists on-site at the training and assessment facility.
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29. Letters of recommendation used in employment settings 38. Computer simulations and video games have earned a place as a
A. are generally not very useful since they are all typically favorable. tool of vocational assessment—so much so, that they are sometimes
B. are generally useful in the preliminary screening of applicants. even referred to as
C. have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools for employee A. portfolio evaluations.
selection. B. performance tests.
D. are more useful if they are open-ended rather than structured. C. online interviews.
D. cyberselection tools.
30. Vocational assessment that entails performance samples
A. may take the form of a leaderless group situation. 39. Which of the following does NOT belong?
B. generally take the form of paper-and-pencil tasks. A. an "in-basket" task
C. have been heavily criticized for their use in measuring problem solving B. a computerized jet fighter simulation
and decision making. C. a word processing test
D. are used extensively in the hiring of valets. D. a polygraph test
31. In the evaluation of worker productivity 40. The practice of adjusting test scores to reflect an individual's level
A. final course grades in job training classes are highly predictive of future of performance within a racial group is referred to as
worker production and job tenure. A. racial bias.
B. peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent. B. discrimination.
C. peer ratings tend to be lower and more critical than ratings by superiors. C. race-norming.
D. the leniency effect and the halo effect rarely result in rating errors. D. intercept bias.
32. In the context of business settings, which of the following BEST 41. In the late 1980s, there was a nationwide controversy regarding the
exemplifies a process related to validity generalization? race-norming of the
A. validating a projective personality technique for use in determining A. Mooney Faces Test.
leadership ability and integrity B. General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
B. selecting standardized instruments that include validity scales for use in C. MMPI-2.
recruiting new trainees for a local police department D. Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
C. determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for
secretarial work can be meaningfully applied to the work of a truck driver 42. Criterion validity of the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)
D. creating situational performance samples that more closely simulate tends to be low, probably because of
actual job requirements of clerical and assembly-line workers A. the low test-retest reliability of the GATB.
B. the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
33. Race-norming entails C. a limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables.
A. including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test. D. scoring that is based in part on the race of the test-taker.
B. adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing
in his or her own racial group. 43. Race-norming of the General Aptitude Test (GATB) was viewed as
C. Both including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test and appropriate by the National Academy of Sciences because
adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in A. the criterion-related validity of the test for African-Americans and
his or her own racial group. Caucasians is represented by different regression lines.
D. None of these B. the various groups for which data exists are being held to the same
standards.
34. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in pre- C. African-Americans are more likely than Caucasians to come from
employment screening of job applicants for unskilled positions in a disadvantaged backgrounds, and race-norming the test compensates to
large corporation? some degree for that disadvantage.
A. application blanks C. interviews D. so few minority group members take the test that the net effect of the
B. letters of recommendation D. aptitude measures race-norming would not yield the desired consequence.
35. Which LEAST represents a benefit of portfolio assessment in the 44. The question of whether the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)
workplace? should be race-normed was resolved when
A. It can yield insights into how employees or prospective employees think A. the National Academy of Sciences issued a report on the test.
about work-related things. B. the Department of Labor stopped offering the test for employers.
B. The prospective employer can view samples of the applicant's work C. Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
product. D. there was a public outcry against the continued use of the GATB.
C. It potentially allows the employer entry into a side of the employee's world
that would otherwise be private. 45. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General
D. Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically Aptitude Test Battery
depressed areas carries with it federal tax benefits. A. must no longer be administered.
B. must produce equal mean scores for all races.
36. A "real time, live action" approach to assessment that requires C. could no longer be race-normed.
assessees to demonstrate abilities that typically are characteristic of D. violated the civil rights of minority groups.
those they might encounter on-the-job is referred to as:
A. portfolio assessment. 46. Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?
B. performance assessment. A. Myers C. Bray
C. curriculum-based assessment. B. Strong D. Briggs
D. authentic assessment.
47. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the Strong Interest
37. Performance assessments Inventory as the use of this test relates to respondents from diverse
A. provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their cultural backgrounds?
strengths and weaknesses. A. The evidence supports the use of Strong with college-educated
B. involve a thorough background check with previous employers. respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds.
C. provide a job-related sample of behavior. B. The evidence does NOT support the use of Strong with respondents from
D. are usually not standardized. diverse backgrounds.
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C. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse 58. A false-positive drug test result is BEST associated with which of
backgrounds has only begun to be investigated and no findings have yet the following conclusions about the testtaker?
been reported. A. The testtaker is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually
D. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse left the person's system.
backgrounds is moot as the test publisher has made highly specific B. An impaired testtaker who has gone undetected by the test.
recommendations regarding which testtakers from which cultures the test is C. The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
appropriate for use with. D. None of these
48. The Strong Interest Inventory measures 59. A false-negative drug test is BEST associated with which of the
A. vocational aptitudes. following conclusions about the testtaker?
B. vocational interests. A. The testtaker is taking depression medication.
C. vocational interests and aptitudes. B. The testtaker consumed something with poppy-seeds in them recently.
D. vocational interests and general mental ability. C. The testtaker is probably impaired but the test does not indicate this.
D. None of these
49. Items such as "I get along well with others" and "I enjoy math" are
representative of the types of items presented on which of the 60. Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been
following vocational assessment instruments? proposed as a more acceptable way of measuring impairment than
A. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator drug testing. The use of video games in such a way would BEST be
B. the General Aptitude Test Battery characterized by assessment psychologists as
C. the Minnesota Clerical Test A. drug testing.
D. the Strong Interest Inventory B. authentic assessment.
C. performance assessment.
50. Bizot and Goldman (1993) examined the predictive criterion D. aptitude testing.
validity of interest inventories and ability tests in relation to future job
performance and job satisfaction. They concluded that 61. Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been
A. interest is predictive of job performance. proposed as a more acceptable way than drug testing to detect
B. aptitude is predictive of job performance. impairment. Which is an advantage of the use of video games in this
C. interest is predictive of job satisfaction. way?
D. All of these A. immediate feedback concerning impairment
B. improved employee satisfaction
51. Bizot and Goldman (1993) found that ________________ scores in C. demonstrated effectiveness in reducing accidents
high school are predictive of _______________ in adulthood. D. All of these
A. interest test; job satisfaction C. ability test; job satisfaction
B. interest test; job performance D. ability test; job performance 62. According to your textbook, a ___________ is defined as "a task,
an undertaking, or an activity performed for pay."
52. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) was based on the A. career
theoretical writings of B. occupation
A. Sigmund Freud. C. Carl Jung. C. job
B. B. F. Skinner. D. Holland Opus. D. vocation
53. The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess 63. Résumés and application forms are BEST classified as ________
A. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. instruments.
B. ability to work with people and ability to work alone. A. placement
C. interest in intellectually demanding work as opposed to routine, non- B. screening
demanding work. C. hiring
D. active managerial style as distinct from passive managerial style. D. classification
54. The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess two 64. How do application forms differ from résumés?
characteristics. Factor analysis indicates that two factors are in fact A. Application forms are often used for screening purposes; résumés are
present on the test and correspond to the two types of motivation used for selection.
postulated by the test developers. Given these facts, it seems B. Application forms offer relevant background information regarding
reasonable to conclude that the test has documented evidence of its education and employment history; résumés typically do not.
A. internal consistency. C. face validity. C. Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
B. construct validity. D. test-retest reliability. D. Application forms are often used as a basis for later interviewing;
résumés are not.
55. It has been estimated that drug testing is used by approximately
________% of companies in the United States. 65. According to your textbook, the most complete picture of a job
A. 5 C. 30 applicant's actual abilities can BEST be obtained from a
B. 15 D. 45 A. portfolio assessment.
B. personal interview.
56. One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is C. detailed résumé.
A. a new employee in a large company. D. letter of recommendation.
B. a current employee in a small service organization.
C. completing military service. 66. According to your textbook, the typical objective of a performance
D. a current employee in a large company. test is to
A. compare an employee's performance with that of other employees.
57. Employees who are subjected to drug testing have expressed B. assess the speed of an employee in completing a job-related task.
concerns about C. determine the accuracy of an employee's performance under stressful
A. the accuracy of the drug testing. conditions.
B. unconstitutional search and seizure. D. obtain a job-related performance sample.
C. violation of privacy rights.
D. All of these 67. Which is NOT true of the Minnesota Clerical Test (MCT)?
A. It is often used as a screening tool.
B. It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
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C. It measures both speed and accuracy. D. Personality tests are playing less and less of a role in business and
D. It can be administered and scored quickly. organizational settings with every passing year.
68. The 1956 Management Progress Study (MPS) at American 76. Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be
Telephone and Telegraph (AT&T) A. invalid due to factors such as jealousy.
A. represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an B. more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
industrial setting. C. predictive of future job performance.
B. was a longitudinal study with assessments of both management and non- D. poorly correlated with self-ratings.
management employees.
C. was headed by Donald Super who was later honored by the NFL when 77. Which is NOT a key component of organizational commitment?
it re-named its championship "Bowl" game in his honor. A. loyalty and involvement in the organization
D. was sponsored by IBM and a dozen or so other companies known by B. a value system consistent with that of the organization
three-letter acronyms. C. length of time with the organization
D. the amount of special effort one would exert on behalf of the organization
69. An assessment center is
A. a specific place in an organization staffed by the industrial/organizational 78. Which of the following is TRUE of the Organizational Commitment
psychologist. Questionnaire (OCQ)?
B. a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques. A. The OCQ was developed in China.
C. a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and B. The OCQ has not demonstrated construct validity but this may be an
promotion. artifact of the variables measured.
D. Both a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment C. The OCQ is a 15-item Guttman scale.
techniques and a method of assessment used for selection, classification, D. An early draft of the OCQ was field-tested on 100 social workers.
and promotion.
79. Tests designed to evaluate commitment to an organization include
70. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate use of a physical measures of
measure for the purpose of employee screening? A. loyalty. C. Both loyalty and attendance.
A. testing an industrial worker's hearing B. attendance. D. None of these.
B. testing a police officer's speed and agility
C. measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator 80. Which of the following are typically variables reviewed when
D. using a polygraph test to assess a cashier's integrity and honesty evaluating organizational commitment?
A. absenteeism
71. How are aptitude tests different from achievement tests? B. supervisory complaints regarding work ethic or other ethics-related
A. Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning. issues
B. Aptitude tests are typically more limited and focused in the content of the C. quality of work
presented. D. All of these
C. Aptitude tests measure prior learning; achievement tests measure
present learning. 81. Which of the following is NOT a reflection of organizational
D. Most aptitude tests are administered by means of paper and pencil while culture?
most achievement tests are computer-administered. A. the role of a manager in the organization
B. a parking spot close to the building awarded to the "employee of the
72. The Hand-Tool Dexterity Test and the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity month"
Test would most likely be used by an employer interested in C. the annual holiday party
A. understanding a worker's motivation to respond quickly with accuracy. D. All of these are reflections of organizational culture
B. evaluating a worker's ability to physically manipulate materials.
C. finding the best employee for a position on an assembly line. 82. Which statement BEST describes the current status of
D. increasing profit margins by increasing the utility of the selection tools. organizational culture measures?
A. There is no shortage of highly reliable and valid instruments that measure
73. According to your text, an assumption underlying the development organizational culture.
of the Strong Interest Inventory was B. There are very few instruments with demonstrated reliability and validity.
A. if an assessee has many outside interests, he or she will experience less C. Instruments to measure organizational culture are difficult to develop,
on-the-job stress. given the differences that exist between large organizations.
B. if an assessee's interests match those of people already in the field, the D. The term "organizational culture" is an elusive concept with many
assessee may be well suited for the job. meanings so it has been difficult for test developers to come up with
C. all people in a particular field will work well together if they share similar acceptable tests.
interests.
D. the more interests an assessee has, the more adaptable he or she will 83. The term organizational culture refers to
be to various job-related situations. A. a company's physical work setting.
B. the types of people who work at the company.
74. The longitudinal study by Bizot and Goldman showed that 8 years C. the formal and informal ceremonies and privileges within the
after their completion, interest inventories administered in high school organization.
had predicted D. All of these
A. job performance.
B. job satisfaction. 84. Which of the following tools of assessment is useful when
C. neither job performance nor job satisfaction. assessing corporate and organizational culture?
D. the administrative level achieved. A. a stress interview C. a focus group
B. a polygraph D. videos of the office holiday party
75. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the role of
personality measures in business and organizational settings? 85. Scores on the Strong Interest Inventory provide information about
A. The same personality test may not be equally suited for use in screening a testtaker's interests relative to
applicants for every variety of employment. A. the skills required for a particular job.
B. The distinction between task-related and people-related aspects of a job B. the educational level required for a particular job.
is irrelevant to personality measurement. C. the probability of success at a particular job based on academic
C. The MMPI-2-RF has quickly become the most widely used measure of achievement.
personality in business and organizational settings. D. the interests of people actually employed in various occupations.
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86. An employee's level of organizational commitment is MOST B. rater bias.
closely tied to C. low predictive efficiency.
A. how the organization represents itself to the public at large. D. None of these
B. the physical setting in which the employee works.
C. the values held by the organization. 97. Which of the following is the BEST example of intrinsic
D. the special privileges offered to employees. motivation?
A. a bonus for making a specified quota
87. Which is TRUE of drug testing in work settings? B. recognition by one's peers in the form of an award
A. Large companies are more likely to test than small companies. C. one's satisfaction with one's own work products
B. Random drug testing is commonplace in private, service-oriented D. a short-order cook actually winning an episode of Iron Chef
companies.
C. Companies involved in the manufacture and distribution of 98. According to Vroom's expectancy theory of motivation, employees
pharmaceuticals do the least testing. will expend energy
D. Small companies typically test more than large ones because of the A. to achieve an outcome they desire.
higher stake they have in each employee. B. to experience feelings of accomplishment.
C. to satisfy a higher category of need.
88. Which is NOT a criticism of drug testing in the work place? D. to receive recognition for performance.
A. It may violate the constitutional rights of employees.
B. False positives and false negatives are always a possibility. 99. In addition to measuring feeling states, measures of job
C. Any benefits of drug testing tend to be outweighed by the costliness of satisfaction usually measure
the procedure. A. knowledge necessary for successful job performance.
D. The most commonly used methods do not yield specifics about when the B. strength of one's loyalty to the organization.
drug was taken or how much impairment occurred. C. perception of one's role in the organization.
D. All of these
89. With regard to the validity of integrity tests,
A. existing integrity tests have not been shown to be valid and should not 100. The term used to represent the strength of one's loyalty to an
be used in the workplace. organization is
B. the integrity of the developers of the most widely used integrity tests has A. attitudinal fortitude.
been called into question. B. motivational alliance.
C. professionally developed tests have the best chance of meeting C. organizational commitment.
acceptable validity standards. D. job satisfaction.
D. only the integrity test used to screen prospective hostesses of home
Tupperware parties has been shown to be valid. 101. Which of the following BEST reflects a performance test
administered by the Food Network in its search for a new host for a show
90. Rating on the basis of one, sole criterion is referred to as called Bizarre Foods?
A. classification. C. screening. A. Have the applicant fill out an application blank.
B. placement. D. selection. B. Have the applicant solicit letters of reference.
C. Review the applicant's video portfolio.
91. Employers use the résumé and the cover letter to assess all the D. Offer the applicant a breaded and fried grasshopper to eat.
following EXCEPT
A. the appropriateness of career objectives. 102. Random drug testing is LEAST employed in
B. perceived sincerity. A. government agencies.
C. work-related thought processes. B. large companies.
D. prior job-related experience. C. the military.
D. the music industry.
92. A useful, quick-screening method that provides a biographical
sketch of a job applicant is the 103. Which is TRUE of the immunoassay method for detecting drug
A. focus group. C. application blank. use?
B. portfolio. D. home visit. A. It determines the degree of impairment that occurred as a consequence
of the drug use.
93. Letters of recommendation MOST typically provide detailed B. It determines the precise amount of the drug that was ingested.
information about a job applicant's C. It determines which drug in a particular category was taken.
A. educational credentials. C. past performance. D. It determines the approximate hour of the day that the drug was taken.
B. fantasy life. D. food preferences.
104. As a result of legislation, which of the following tools of
94. An aptitude test that includes both psychomotor and paper-and- assessment may NOT be used in most employment settings?
pencil tasks is the A. drug tests
A. Bennet Mechanical Comprehension Test. B. personality-based measures
B. General Aptitude Test Battery. C. physical tests
C. Minnesota Clerical Test. D. lie detectors
D. O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test.
105. According to White, a higher norm of stealing by employees
95. The NAS report regarding correction of test bias in the General sometimes results from the use of
Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) concluded that A. random drug testing.
A. more effort would be necessary to completely eliminate the halo effect in B. pre-employment honesty testing.
test scoring. C. job satisfaction tests.
B. raw scores had to be converted into interpretable standard scores. D. Kelly Clarkson recordings as background music in retail environments.
C. test coefficients were too low to be acceptable criterion-related validity
evidence. 106. Maslow's hierarchical theory as it relates to worker motivation
D. nothing had to be changed in the practice of scoring the tests. would suggest that
A. employees expend energy in ways designed to achieve the outcome they
96. A limitation of using ratings to measure productivity is the desire.
possibility of B. the more money a worker earns, the more money the worker strives to
A. irresponsibility in rating. earn.
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C. once workers feel secure in their positions and accepted by their co- 118. The Goal Instability Scale, The Life Satisfaction Index, and the
workers, they strive to earn recognition for their accomplishments. Interpersonal Support Evaluations List are all used by counselors for
D. an extremely high-risk situation may not lead to feelings of the purpose of
accomplishment because of a high probability of failure. A. job selection.
B. job assignment.
107. At what age are students' interests thought to be sufficiently C. retirement planning.
formed to be useful in course and career planning? D. substance abuse counseling.
A. 10 years old C. 7 years old
B. 15 years old D. 13 years old 119. A person has just been evaluated by a prospective employer and
may now either be accepted or rejected for a position at the company.
108. Which of the following is TRUE of the Myers-Briggs Type This person has just gone through a __________ process.
Indicator (MBTI)? A. screening C. classification
A. Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular. B. selection D. None of these
B. The test is really not a measure of type in the strict sense of that word.
C. The test has strong validity. 120. Which of the following interest inventories has MOST to do with
D. The test is widely used as an adjunct to random drug testing. occupations that require 4 or more years of college or graduate
school?
109. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is used MOST by A. the Strong Interest Inventory
A. computer-match dating services. B. the Career Interest Inventory
B. private hospitals. C. the Campbell Interest and Skill Survey
C. employers. D. the Jackson Vocational Interest Survey
D. municipally administered health clinics.
121. Which of the following is TRUE of qualitative research?
110. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills measures A. It always involves large numbers of subjects.
A. personal living skills. C. employment skills. B. It allows the psychologist to use statistical analyses of the data obtained.
B. community-related living skills. D. All of these C. It can lead to the development of new hypotheses.
D. All of these
111. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is appropriate for
A. children from ages 2 to 10. 122. Motivation research includes
B. children and adolescents from ages 2 to 19. A. focus groups.
C. young adults and adults from ages 16 and up. B. individual interviews.
D. children and adults. C. Both focus groups and individual interviews.
D. None of these
112. On the Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills, for an assessee to be
judged as "independent," he or she must perform the task with good 123. Engineering psychologists were probably at work in the design
quality at least __________% of the time, when needed, without of
reminder. A. airplane cockpits. C. child car seats.
A. 50 C. 90 B. computer keyboards. D. All of these
B. 75 D. 99
124. In consumer assessment, survey research can be accomplished
113. Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced sense of by
personal accomplishment are all symptoms of A. face-to-face interviews.
A. personality disorder. B. telephone interviews.
B. burnout. C. mail questionnaires.
C. underemployment. D. All of these
D. watching Stephen Colbert's Late Night television show.
125. Perhaps the most widely used form of survey research is
114. After successfully completing basic training, a U.S. Marine Corps A. the face-to-face personal interview.
recruit is assigned responsibility for maintenance of copy machines B. the telephone interview.
in the Corps' offices in Quantico, Virginia. Which term best describes C. the mail questionnaire.
this assignment? D. the fax questionnaire.
A. selection C. screening
B. placement D. classification 126. Which type of survey research provides the opportunity to collect
the largest amount of data in the most economical fashion?
115. The Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory is MOST useful for A. the mail survey
measuring B. the telephone survey
A. ability to adapt to extreme climate changes for extended periods of time. C. the personal interview
B. readiness to be relocated for employment purposes in another country. D. the mall intercept
C. aptitude for mastering a foreign language.
D. social skills and cultural competence regarding worldwide labor 127. "Locate products within the framework of an attribute space
negotiations. based on consumer perceptions of similarities and differences among
products." Which approach to scaling is made reference to in this
116. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is quote?
A. a norm-referenced test. A. Likert scaling
B. a criterion-referenced test. B. Guttman scaling
C. an objective test. C. Multidimensional scaling
D. a performance-based test. D. Aggregate scaling
117. Which of the following is NOT measured by the Cross-Cultural 128. Which attitude research method involves repeated judgments of
Adaptability Inventory? a concept against a series of descriptive bipolar adjectives on a 7-
A. emotional resilience C. personal autonomy point scale?
B. flexibility/openness D. receptive communication A. semantic differential
B. multidimensional scaling
C. aggregate scaling
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D. word association 137. A consumer in an auto parts store is asked to complete a survey
with regard to a particular brand of motor oil. The scale used in the
129. The following item appears on a paper-and-pencil questionnaire survey looks like this:
administered at the mall:
Which type of scaling method is being used by this researcher?
Just another facial tissue___/___/__/___/____/___/A very special facial A. Likert scaling
tissue. B. Guttman scaling
C. Osgood Semantic Differential
The item exemplifies which type of scale? D. multidimensional scaling
A. Likert
B. Guttman 138. The Likert and Guttman scales are examples of which methods of
C. Osgood semantic differential attitude research?
D. word association A. aggregate scaling methods
B. multidimensional scaling methods
130. A consumer psychologist creates a survey that includes C. the semantic differential technique
questions that can only be answered yes or no (such as "Do you like D. disaggregate scaling
the new packaging for Wild Berry Cereal?"). The survey this
psychologist has developed could BEST be described as a 139. One of the significant ways in which the traditional model of
A. Likert survey. attitudes differs from the Fishbein model is that
B. poll. A. the two models define basic terms such as cognition, affect, and overt
C. semantic differential survey. behavior differently.
D. word association survey. B. the traditional model treats attitudes as being composed of only one
component (affect) whereas the Fishbein model conceptualizes attitudes as
131. A consumer psychologist is working for a drug company that has having three components (cognition, affect, and behavior).
developed a new contraception device for men. To assess men's C. the Fishbein model explicitly recognizes that attitudes may have multiple
attitudes towards this device, which method of data gathering would attributes, while the traditional model assumes that attitudes have only one
the psychologist be LEAST likely to employ? attribute.
A. mail surveys D. the traditional model is more culturally universal than the Fishbein model.
B. home visit and family discussion
C. online discussion forum 140. Which theory of attitudes makes a clear distinction between
D. focus group with males in the target age range "intentions" and "overt behavior"?
A. traditional
132. Which of the following types of survey holds the greatest B. Fishbein
potential for immediate feedback? C. functional
A. mail D. All of these
B. face-to-face
C. online 141. Which of the following is TRUE of the Fishbein model?
D. telephone A. "Intentions" mediate between attitudes and overt behavior.
B. "Intentions" are not measured.
133. Online and telephone surveys have which of the following C. There is little relationship between "attitude" and "intentions" at the global
characteristics in common as compared to surveys conducted face- level.
to-face? D. "Intentions" and "attitude" are the same.
A. Online and telephone have higher reliability and validity than surveys
conducted face-to-face. 142. A major advantage of individual interviews with consumers is that
B. Online and telephone are less cost effective than surveys conducted they
face-to-face. A. have potential for verbal as well as nonverbal information.
C. Online and telephone surveys lack identity verification while those B. are inexpensive.
administered face-to-face do not. C. can be conducted quickly.
D. All of these represent characteristics that online and telephone surveys D. are usually completed within five minutes or less.
have in common as compared to face-to-face interviews.
143. In which of the following scaling methods are statements ordered
134. A consumer psychologist must write a report on how young according to their relative importance?
children influence purchase choices of breakfast cereals geared to A. Guttman scaling
young children. What method of information-gathering would most B. Likert scaling
probably be BEST to learn about this influence process? C. multidimensional scaling
A. a mail survey D. semantic differential scaling
B. a telephone interview with both parents and children
C. a mall intercept study 144. Which of the following is the fastest, least expensive, and most
D. behavioral observation in a supermarket cereal aisle efficient method of survey research?
A. the door-to-door approach
135. Which type of survey research is MOST susceptible to non- B. the telephone interview
response? C. the focus group
A. the mail survey D. the mail questionnaire
B. the telephone survey
C. the personal interview 145. To monitor what really prompts consumers to purchase a
D. the mall intercept particular product at the "point of choice," the market researcher
should use which of the following?
136. Which type of survey would most probably be BEST for obtaining A. direct observation C. in-depth interviews
consumers' responses to a product demonstration? B. focus groups D. phone interviews
A. the mail survey
B. the telephone survey 146. Which of the following research methods is best in terms of
C. the mall intercept survey providing information useful in making inferences about cause-and-
D. the fax survey effect relationships in consumer psychology?
A. a focus group
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B. an experimental design 158. On the GATB, about one-half of the items can be characterized
C. behavioral observation as
D. brain wave research A. psychomotor in nature.
B. pencil-and-paper in nature.
147. Focus groups usually consist of how many participants? C. analogue in nature.
A. 2 to 5 C. 13 to 20 D. Both psychomotor in nature and pencil-and-paper in nature.
B. 6 to 12 D. 21 to 30
159. The GATB differs from the SATB in that the SATB
148. Consumer psychologists often choose surveys and polls over A. contains more science-oriented items.
other measurement methods because B. contains more items tapping arithmetic skills.
A. they can analyze motives with respect to consumer behavior and C. is used to measure aptitude for a specific line of work.
attitudes. D. Both contains more science-oriented items and contains more items
B. they can determine whether a rise in sales is due to effective advertising. tapping arithmetic skills.
C. they can examine in depth a group of consumer reactions.
D. they can gain information about opinions of large numbers of people. 160. The forced distribution technique is
A. a marketing strategy devised by consumer psychologists.
149. Which of the following is TRUE of a focus group? B. a way of ranking employees in a workplace.
A. The participants are randomly selected. C. a method designed to make scores more culture-fair.
B. A free-flowing discussion is avoided. D. None of these
C. The group consists of 20-25 participants.
D. A trained moderator leads the group. 161. A new worker has just completed Day 1 on the job. When will
monthly supervisory ratings BEST reflect this worker's performance?
150. The concept of the "BASIC IDS" applies to A. 1 month from now
A. experimental research investigating clinical mental health issues. B. 2 months from now
B. dimensional qualitative research. C. 3 months from now
C. non-dimensional qualitative research. D. about 29 days from now
D. experimental research investigating consumer behavior.
162. A difference between Maslow's theory of motivation and
151. A disadvantage of focus groups as compared to other tools in the Alderfer's theory of motivation is that in Alderfer's theory
assessment of consumer behavior is the A. needs are not hierarchical in nature.
A. lower reliability of focus groups. B. once a need is satisfied, the organism may strive to satisfy it to an even
B. limited applicability of focus groups in consumer research. greater degree.
C. open-ended nature of focus groups. C. frustrating one need may lead to channeling of energy into the
D. lack of in-depth information that results from focus groups. satisfaction of another need at another level.
152. An interview that involves considerable probing of an individual D. All of these
consumer's beliefs and attitudes is called:
A. a depth interview. 163. Researchers evaluating the validity of the Implicit Attitude Test
B. an attitude survey. (IAT) find, using the IAT, that members of the Lindsey Lohan Fan Club
C. a face-to-face interview. have more favorable attitudes toward her than nonmembers of the fan
D. a focal interview. club. This type of research design is BEST referred to as
A. a Latin Squares design.
153. A consumer psychologist may choose to use a one-on-one B. a Thurstone-type design.
interview because C. an equal intervals design.
A. it produces data that are quantifiable. D. a known groups design.
B. it provides a detailed source of information.
C. it is the most time- and cost-effective approach. 164. The BEST shorthand description of the term implicit attitude is
D. it consists of only structured questions. A. a conscious disposition to act in a particular way.
B. an association in memory that is not conscious.
154. The term "RIASEC" is BEST associated with the C. a feeling or intuition that one gets occasionally.
A. Strong. C. Holland. D. a reaction to frustration.
B. Wonderlic. D. Dutch.
165. The Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) could BEST be described as a
155. The Dean of the DeSade School of Dentistry has called you for a series of
consultation. The Dean wants to know which individually administered A. measures of physiological arousal.
tests should be administered to candidates for a seat at the school. Of B. memory tasks that uses flash cards.
the following tests, which is BEST for use in screening prospective C. computerized sorting tasks.
dental students? D. word association stimuli.
A. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. the in-basket technique 166. A film producer seeks to hire an experienced special effects
C. Champagne's Study of Values director. Which variety of assessment would most likely best suit this
D. the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test purpose?
A. authentic assessment C. portfolio assessment
156. The test we now refer to as the "Strong Interest Inventory" was, B. actuarial assessment D. dynamic assessment
in its original edition, known as the
A. Strong Volitional Interest Bank. 167. Ideally, a resume should
B. Strong Vocational Interest Blank. A. be constructed in APA style.
C. Strong Vocational Interest Inventory. B. contain a listing of references.
D. Mighty Interest Inventory. C. be as unique as its writer.
D. include mention of shortcomings.
157. Who can take the GATB?
A. most anyone of working age who is contemplating military service 168. "RIASEC" is an abbreviation for
B. most anyone of working age who is contemplating government service A. the Big 6. C. Dr. Sec's consulting firm.
C. most anyone of working age who is looking for a job B. a popular integrity measure. D. a type of corporate culture.
D. most anyone with a documented disability who is seeking employment
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169. A difference between selection and classification is that in C. motivational research methods.
classification, personnel are D. techniques employed to measure burnout.
A. accepted or rejected. C. subjected to screening.
B. pigeon-holed. D. stereotyped. 180. In October, 2011, the scholarly journal Psychology & Marketing
devoted a special issue to the topic of
170. In the book, Choosing the Right Stuff: The Psychological A. implicit measures.
Selection of Astronauts and Cosmonauts, the author B. portfolio assessment.
A. recounted the mistakes made in selecting Lisa Nowack for the astronaut C. personality and work performance.
program. D. dimensional qualitative research.
B. presented research on new MMPI scales that could be used to select
astronauts. 181. The photo in Chapter 15 of your textbook that featured a group of
C. argued that NASA should give more weight to psychological factors in psychologists using Tinkertoy parts was an illustration of
selection. A. authentic assessment.
D. urged NASA to consider using more mental health professionals as B. performance assessment.
astronauts. C. virtual assessment.
D. curriculum-based measurement.
171. The AT&T Management Progress Study was the first large scale
study to use which of the following? 182. In the original Management Progress Study, the dimensions
A. drug testing C. assessment center referred to as tolerance for uncertainty and resistance to stress were
B. implicit measures D. dimensional qualitative research grouped under
A. administrative skills. C. stability of performance.
172. The GCMS B. cognitive skills. D. career orientation.
A. is used to test for drugs in the urine.
B. was first employed in the AT&T Management Progress Study. 183. Used together, the terms Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social,
C. was developed by Heshy Goodenough. Enterprising, and Conventional are perhaps BEST known as the
D. All of these A. big six.
B. golden rules of employee selection.
173. A large corporation wishes to measure the productivity of its C. six steps of corporate advancement.
employees. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used? D. magnificent seven less one.
A. semantic differential technique. C. critical incidents technique.
B. forced distribution technique. D. peer appraisal technique. 184. Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and
Conventional are categories of personality types that are measured by
174. Juan chooses a career as an elementary school teacher because the
he wants to play a meaningful role in the lives of developing children. A. NEO-PI-R.
Esmerelda chooses a career as an elementary school teacher because B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
of the good pay and the fact that she has her summer off. Which is C. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs Inventory.
MOST likely TRUE? D. Self-Directed Search.
A. Juan exhibited extrinsic motivation and Esmerelda exhibited intrinsic
motivation. 185. From the perspective of an employer, psychological assessment
B. Esmerelda exhibited extrinsic motivation, and Juan exhibited intrinsic tools can provide assistance in
motivation. A. personnel selection.
C. The deciding factor in both decisions was probably the actual location of B. placement of employees in job assignments.
the school to which they were assigned. C. screening of new applicants for positions.
D. Juan will most likely experience burnout before Esmerelda does. D. All of these
175. Burnout has been shown to be

A. predictive of the frequency and duration of sick leave.
B. significantly evident in postal workers on the job for ten years or more.
C. negatively correlated with insomnia.
D. All of these
176. A widely used measure of organizational commitment is the

Organizational Commitment Questionnaire. But as noted in your
textbook, questions have been raised regarding this instrument's
A. test-retest reliability. C. face validity.
B. construct validity. D. split-half reliability.
177. Mention was made in Chapter 15 of a burgeoning number of

studies involving the measurement of implicit attitudes, including one
such study that had as its subject
A. Anthony Weiner. C. Benedict Arnold.
B. Lindsay Lohan. D. Barack Obama.
178. Research has suggested that online survey methods may be

particularly useful for learning about health-related behaviors that are
known to
A. negatively impact on one's personal health.
B. positively impact on one's personal health.
C. increase health insurance premiums.
D. decrease health insurance premiums.
179. Individual interviews and focus groups are two examples of

A. productivity evaluation methods.
B. methods used to increase diversity in the workplace.
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ANSWER KEY 41-50 CDDBC DBCCD 21-30 DCDDA ADBDA 111-120 CADDA CDDDD
51-60 DDCDB BDADC 31-40 DDDDB ABBCC 121-130 CBCBC AABCD
CHAPTER 1 61-70 DBBDB DACBD 41-50 DABCD DACDA 131-140 DACDC BBADB
1-10 DCDBC DCBDA 71-80 DDCCC CDBDB 51-60 AACBA CCBAC 141-150 DDCDC BABAC
11-20 DACBB BCDCC 81-90 DABAD CBCCB 61-70 DCDBB ACABD 151-160 CDCCB DBACD
21-30 DCABD BDCBD 91-100 CBBBA CBCDB 71-80 CBABA CBDAA 161-170 CADDB BCBCC
31-40 DCBAD CBBCB 101-110 ADCBB ABCBB 81-90 DDCDB DBBBC 171-180 DCBCD BACCB
41-50 DCDDC DACCD 111-120 DBCAC AACAA 91-100 CACDD CBADB 181-188 ADCAA CCD
51-60 CDADB BCDBB 121-130 DBBBC ABBBC 101-110 DDBDB ADADD
61-70 DBDBC CBCBD 131-140 CDCCB CCDBA 111-120 CDCBC BADAB CHAPTER 13
71-80 ADBDC DCBBD 141-150 CDDCC CB/CBBD 121-130 ABDBC DABAC 1-10 BADCB DBCDA
81-90 CCBAA ABADD 151-160 DADCB BBBCC 131-141 CCABD BCCDBC 11-20 CBABB DCDAB
91-101 BDBDD ACDCAB 161-170 ABACA AAACD 21-30 CDDAC CAACB
171-180 DBAAC CDCBD CHAPTER 10 31-40 DABDA CBCDB
CHAPTER 2 181-182 CA 1-10 DCCAB DAADC 41-50 DCACB CDCAC
1-10 BADDC CDBCC 11-20 CBCAC DACCD 51-60 BDDBB DCDDD
11-20 CDBAD DABDA CHAPTER 6 21-30 BACDC DDDCA 61-70 DBBAD DABDB
21-30 BABCC ACABC 1-10 CCCAB CDABA 31-40 CDCAC DACBB 71-80 CBACB BDDBB
31-40 DCBAC ACCBA 11-20 BBDDD DDABD 41-50 DCACA DADDA 81-90 ACBAD ABABC
41-50 BCBBB DCABA 21-30 CDCCC DAADD 51-60 DBAAB CDADD 91-100 BABBD BCBAD
51-60 CCADC CACDB 31-40 ACBBC DBBDA 61-70 ABDCA BCBDB 101-110 ADADB BDCCC
61-70 BDDDC DCCDC 41-50 DBDCC AADAA 71-80 BBDCA BDACB 111-120 CDBBB DBCDB
71-80 ADDCB BDCCD 51-60 CDBAB DDCCA 81-90 BDACC ADDAD 121-130 ABBDC CCBCC
81-90 ACDBD DCBDD 61-70 BDDDD CDACC 91-100 CBBCA DDBAC 131-141 DBBCD CDADCD
91-100 BDABB DDCDC 71-80 DCCDA DBDBD 101-110 CDDDB DDDAB
101-110 DDBBC BABCB 81-90 BACBB BCABB 111-120 ADADC CBDCD CHAPTER 14
111-121 ADCDB DBBDCC 91-100 CADCA CDBAD 121-130 DCABB CCDAD 1-10 DDADC DCABD
101-110 BACBB CCBBB 131-140 DCBCB CBACB 11-20 AADCB DDACD
CHAPTER 3 141-150 CABBA DDCCB 21-30 ABDDA ABCBA
1-10 CCCAB BACCD CHAPTER 7 151-160 DDABC DBCAD 31-40 DDDDD BABDC
11-20 DCAAA ACDCC 1-10 DDDBA BCDDC 161-170 BACDB CDACB 41-50 DABAC DADCD
21-30 BBBBC ADBCA 11-20 BBBDA BDACD 171-180 DDDAB CDACA 51-60 ABBDA CCCDC
31-40 BACCB BABCB 21-30 CDDDA BCCAD 181-190 BBDCD CADDA 61-70 BDCBB BDDDB
41-50 CAADD AABBA 31-40 CDDBD DABAB 71-80 AABCC BACDB
51-60 ADBDA BADAA 41-50 BCCBA BCAAC CHAPTER 11 81-90 DDBDB DBBDB
61-70 DBBDB AACCD 51-60 ABDAA DDDCD 1-10 CACDD ADADC 91-100 AABBD CDACC
71-80 CBACA ABDBB 61-70 DACBA ACBCD 11-20 DBBCB BBDBC 101-110 DDABD ABBCD
81-90 AABCB BAACD 71-80 BCCDA BAABC 21-30 CBDBD BADCD 111-120 CBBDB DCDDA
91-100 DBCAB BCBCD 81-90 ADABA CADBB 31-40 BCACC CBABC 121-130 CBCCB DCDCA
101-110 BBBBD DCDAB 91-100 CCDBC CDCCC 41-50 CBADA BAADB 131-140 BBADC BBBCC
111-120 CBAAA ABBBC 101-110 ACDCC ACBDC 51-60 BADBD DBDCB 141-150 CBCBA ABACB
121-130 DCCBD CDCBB 111-120 CBCBC BACCB 61-70 CDBDB CAABD 151-160 DDBCC ACBCC
131-140 DCADA DCDAB 121-130 DDADB DDABC 71-80 DBBCA DADAB 161-170 BBDBD DBDCC
141-150 CCDCD BABDB 81-90 DDDDC DDADB 171-175 BDBDC
151-160 ACAAD ACDAC CHAPTER 8 91-100 CDCBD BDDDD
161-170 BAAAB CBDDB 1-10 DABCA DBBAB 101-110 BDCBA ADBDB CHAPTER 15
171-173 ADC 11-20 CBDDD ACDDD 111-120 DBCCA BADBD 1-10 BCDDC BACCD
21-30 CADBD DDBDB 121-130 ACDAA CACDB 11-20 BACCD DACAD
CHAPTER 4 31-40 ADABA DACDB 131-140 ACCAB CCCAB 21-30 BBDCC CAABA
1-10 ABBCA DCBCA 41-50 CABAD BBDBD 141-150 DBCBC AACAA 31-40 BCBDD BCBDC
11-20 DBDDB AACBD 51-60 BABBB BBBDB 151-160 BBDAB CCBBC 41-50 BBACC BABDB
21-30 ACBDA ADBCB 61-70 ABDBD DBDBD 161-170 CDDAB CABCA 51-60 DCABD BDCCC
31-40 ACDCC DBCBC 71-80 DBDDC CDBCD 171-180 DDADC BDBCA 61-70 DCBCA DBADC
41-50 BADBB DDDCD 81-90 ACDBC CDCCD 181-182 DD 71-80 ABBCA CCCCD
51-60 BDDCC CBABB 91-100 CDBAB CCBBB 81-90 DBDCD CACCC
61-70 CDBDB ACDDC 101-110 DCACB BDBAB CHAPTER 12 91-100 CCCBD BCACC
71-80 AABDB CBADB 111-120 CADCA DCCBC 1-10 DBAAA CACAC 101-110 DDCDB CBACD
81-90 DCABC DAACA 121-130 BCCCA DAABC 11-20 CDADC ADCAB 111-120 DBBBB BDCBC
91-100 BBACA BCCBC 131-140 DBBAD CDABA 21-30 DAACC DCCBA 121-130 CCDDB ACACB
101-110 ADDDC BADCA 141-150 CCCBC BDBCB 31-40 CBDAB CCDDA 131-140 BCCDA CAACB
111-118 BAABA DBD 151-160 DDBCD BAADA 41-50 CBCDB ACBCB 141-150 AAABA BBDDB
161-170 ABCAB CDABD 51-60 ABDCA CADDB 151-160 AABCD BDCCB
CHAPTER 5 171-178 BABCB BCC 61-70 ADDBA BBDAC 161-170 CDDBC CCABC
1-10 BDCCC DADBA 71-80 DACBD BADAD 171-180 CAABA BDACD
11-20 BBADB BBCDA CHAPTER 9 81-90 BACDD DADAD 181-185 BCADD
21-30 DBDCA BBCDB 1-10 CACAD CCDDA 91-100 AABBD BCCBB
31-40 ACDAC BDCCD 11-20 DADBA DBCDD 101-110 DCDDB CBDBA
Special thanks to @kasjoberg for helping me out on this one!!

Forever grateful to you, mamhie! <33 119

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PA - TEST BANK - Psych Assessment Test Bank

Bs Psychology (Ateneo de Manila University)

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Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

10. As reported in your textbook by Dr. Joni Mihura, a 1952 study

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Psychological Testing and Assessment

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Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

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166. A key advantage of meta-analysis over simply reporting a range

167. A meta-analytic study of the Asch line judgment paradigm

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Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

111. National anchor norms for a test taken by university students

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Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

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Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment

Psychological Testing and Assessment