EBD_7201

DPP - Daily Practice Problems

Chapter-wise Sheets
Date : Start Time : End Time :

CB29
SYLLABUS : Evolution

Max. Marks : 180 Marking Scheme : + 4 for correct & (–1) for incorrect Time : 60 min.

INSTRUCTIONS : This Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 45 MCQs. For each question only one option is correct.
Darken the correct circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

1. Genetic drift operates only in tion?

(a) smaller populations (a) Development of transgenic animals.
(b) larger populations (b) Production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning.
(c) mendelian populations (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistance insects.
(d) island populations (d) Development of organs from 'stem cells' for organ
2. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between transplantation.
(a) Reptiles and birds 5. What is the correct arrangement of periods of palaeozoic
(b) Reptiles and mammals era in ascending order in geological time scale?
(c) Fishes and reptiles (a) Cambrian Devonian Ordovician Silurian
(d) Chordates and nonchordates Carboniferous Permian
3. Which of the following is true? (b) Cambrian Ordovician Silurian Devonian
(a) Wings of birds and insects are homologous organs. Carboniferous Permian
(b) Human hands and bird's wings are analogous (c) Cambrian Ordovician Devonian Silurian
organs. Carboniferous Permian
(c) Human hands and bat's wings are analogous organs. (d) Silurian Devonian Cambrian Ordovician
(d) Flipper of seal and wing of birds are homologous Permian Carboniferous
organs. 6. The brain capacity of Homo erectus was about
4. Which one of the following phenomena supports (a) 650 cc (b) 900 cc
Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolu- (c) 1500 cc (d) 1400 cc

RESPONSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
GRID 6.
Space for Rough Work
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7. Following is the digrammatic representation of the (a) sibling species (b) sympatric species
operation of natural selection on different traits. Which of (c) allopatric species (d) polytypic species
the following options correctly identifies all the three 12. At a particular locus, frequency of allele A is 0.6 and that
graphs A, B and C. of allele a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of het-
erozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.16
(c) 0.24 (d) 0.48
Frequency

Mean 13. On the primitive earth, polymers such as proteins and

nucleic acids in aqueous suspension formed the spherical
aggregates. These are called
(a) primitosomes (b) liposomes
(c) primitogens (d) coacervates
14. Which of the following evidences does not favour the
Phenotype (e.g., height) Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
(a) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
(b) Melanization in peppered moth
(c) Absence of limbs in snakes
(d) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds.
15. Genetic drift is change of
A B C (a) gene frequency in same generation
A B C (b) appearance of recessive genes
(a) Directional Stabilizing Disruptive (c) gene frequency from one generation to next
(b) Stabilizing Directional Disruptive (d) None of these
(c) Disruptive Stabilizing Directional 16. The Miller-Urey abiotic synthesis experiment (and other
(d) Directional Disruptive Stabilizing subsequent, similar experiments) showed that...
8. First life form on earth was a (a) simple organic molecules can form spontaneously
(a) cyanobacterium (b) chemoheterotroph under conditions like those thought to prevail early in
(c) autotroph (d) photoautotroph the earth’s history.
(b) the earliest life forms introduced large amounts of
9. The cranial capacity was largest among the
oxygen to the atmosphere.
(a) Peking man (b) Java ape man
(c) life can be created in a test tube.
(c) African man (d) Neanderthal man
(d) long chains of DNA can form under abiotic conditions.
10. The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if 17. In evolutionary terms, an organism's fitness is measured by its
(a) the population is very large (a) health
(b) frequent mutations occur in the population (b) contribution to the gene pool of the next generation
(c) the population has no chance of interaction with (c) mutation rate
other populations (d) genetic variability
(d) free interbreeding occurs among all members of the 18. Frequency of a character or a mutant gene in a population is
population expected to increase if the phenotype or its gene is.
11. The different forms of interbreeding species that live in (a) dominant (b) favourably selected
different geographical regions are called (c) recessive (d) sex linked

7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
RESPONSE
12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
GRID
17. 18.
Space for Rough Work
 EBD_7201
DPP/ CB29 B-115

19. In a population of bears, which would be considered the 26. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly
fittest? matched with the theory put forth by him?
(a) The biggest bear (a) Weismann - Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(b) The bear having the largest number of mutations (b) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters
(c) The bear that blends in with its environment the best (c) De Vries - Natural selection
(d) The bear that leaves the most descendants (d) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
20. Presence of temporary gill pouches in embryos of snakes. 27. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns
birds and mammals indicates that of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an
(a) these embryos need the pouches for breathing example of:
(b) common ancestor of these animals had gill pouches (a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent
(c) lungs evolved from gills evolution.
(d) fluid medium in which these embryos develop has (b) Analogous organ s th at h ave evolved due to
abundant convergent evolution.
21. Which of the following statements is correct? (c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent
(a) Present apes are ancestors of man anatomically evolution.
(b) Proconsul was perhaps the common ancestor of apes (d) Homologous organs th at have evolved due to
and man convergent evolution.
(c) Proconsul was the ancestor of man and not of apes
28. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur
(d) None of these
by chance rather than by natural section. The is referred to
22. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
as:
(a) Thick subcutaneous fat
(a) genetic drift
(b) Convergent evolution
(b) random mating
(c) Homoiothermy
(d) Seasonal migration (c) genetic load
23. One of the important consequences of geographical (d) genetic flow
isolation is: 29. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped
(a) preventing speciation according to their food sources. Which of the following is
(b) speciation through reproductive isolation not a finch food?
(c) random creation of new species (a) Seeds (b) Carrion
(d) no change in the isolated fauna (c) Insects (d) Tree buds
24. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian 30. Evolution is
ancestry? (a) progressive development of a race
(a) Scales on their hind limbs (b) history and development of a race alongwith variations
(b) Eggs with a calcareous shell (c) history of a race
(c) Four-chambered heart (d) development of a race
(d) Both (a) and (b) 31. Homologous organs are
25. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by: (a) Wings of Insects and Bat
(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles (b) Gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared (c) Pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of Horse
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared (d) Wings of Grasshopper and Crow
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds
appeared
19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
RESPONSE
24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
GRID
29. 30. 31.
Space for Rough Work
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32. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by (d) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
(a) Wallace (b) Lamarck 39. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern
(c) Darwin (d) De Vries man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?
33. The kind of evolution in which two species of different (a) Upright posture
geneology come to resemble one another closely, is termed (b) Shortening of jaws
as (c) Binocular vision
(a) progressive evolution (d) Increasing brain capacity
(b) convergent evolution 40. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not
(c) parallel evolution present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(d) retrogressive evolution (a) Methane (b) Oxygen
34. The presence of gill slits in the embryos of all vertebrates, (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
supports the theory of 41. There is no life on moon due to the absence of
(a) biogenesis (a) O2 (b) water
(b) recapitulation (c) light (d) temperature
(c) metamorphosis
(d) organic evolution 42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
35. The change of the light-coloured variety of peppered moth (a) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) (b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
is due to (c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(a) mutation (b) regeneration (d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
(c) genetic isolation (d) temporal isolation 43. Atmosphere of earth just before the origin of life consisted
36. Which of the following primate is the closest relative of of
humans? (a) water vapours, CH4, NH3 and oxygen.
(a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan (b) CO2, NH3, and CH2
(c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon (c) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours.
37. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate (d) CH4, O3, O2 and water vapours.
method for dating of fossils? 44. The extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and hunted
(a) Radio-carbon method with stone weapons was
(b) Potassium-argon method (a) Ramapithecus (b) Australopithecus
(c) Electron-spin resonance method (c) Dryopithecus (d) Homo habilis
(d) Uranium-lead method 45. Tasmanian Wolf is a marsupial while Wolf is a placental
38. Adaptive radiation refers to mammal. This shows
(a) evolution of different species from a common ancestor (a) convergent evolution
(b) migration of members of a species to different (b) divergent evolution
geographical areas (c) inheritance of acquired characters
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of (d) None of these
environments

32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

RESPONSE
37. 38. 39. 40. 41.
GRID
42. 43. 44. 45.
Space for Rough Work

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM DPP

Space CHAPTERWISE
for Rough Work 29 - BIOLOGY
Total Questions 45 Total Marks 180
Attempted Correct
Incorrect Net Score
Cut-off Score 45 Qualifying Score 60
Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score
Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)