Ob One Word 2

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.
SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE
Introduction and Historical Background 1. All the following are organization characteristics except a. No cooperation b. A bounded system c. Structured social interaction d. Authority relationships 2. Which of the following statements is correct about organizational theory and organizational behavior? a. Organizational behavior focuses on organizational design b. Organizational behavior draws from anthropology and social psychology c. Organizational theory draws from political science d. Organizational theory and organizational behavior are independent of each other 3. Each of the following is true about a manager using theories and concepts as a photographer uses camera lenses except a. Using a single theory from a group of theories falls between a wide-angle and telephoto lens b. Using entire motivation theories is the same as using a wide-angle lens c. Using a single concept is the same as using a telephoto lens d. Managers do not switch from one theory or concept (lens) to another theory or concept (lens) while analyzing and solving organizational problems 4. A plant manager uses an efficiency rating to measure a department's performance. Foremen falsify their efficiency reports to get high ratings. This is a a. Latent dysfunctional consequence b. Latent functional consequence c. Manifest dysfunctional consequence d. Manifest functional consequence 5. Which of the following statements is false about scientific management (Taylor)? a. Scientifically select workers and give them standardized tools to do their job b. Scientific management contrasted with most views of management at the time c. Workers should do the planning and the doing of the work d. Managers should make task assignments and set performance goals 6. Each of the following is a basic management idea or concept in the theory of administration (Fayol) except a. Bureaucracy b. Planning c. Unity of command d. Centralization 7. Which of the following is not a feature of bureaucracy (Weber) that made it an efficient organizational form? a. Loosely defined functions b. Hierarchical form c. Technically trained bureaucrats d. Written rules and procedures 8. All the following are early observations on organizations and management by Mary Parker Follett except a. Power-with b. Power-over c. Leaders are tenacious and steady during stormy times d. Delegation of authority 9. Which of the following concepts or statements is false about the views from The Functions of the Executive (Barnard)? a. Contributions and inducements b. People join organizations when their contributions slightly exceed the inducements c. Motivation to perform d. Purposes and limitations
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ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE
10. Which of the following observations is not part of Peter Drucker's work? a. Goals as a source of a manager's self-control b. Management by objectives (MBO) c. Most people like to work d. Forming alliances, partnerships, and joint ventures across national boundaries 11. Which of the following is false about the characteristics of modern organizations? a. Have little global focus b. Face simultaneous pressures for stability and change c. Some employees will find such organizations stressful d. Use the Internet to manage external interactions 12. Each statement below about the Hawthorne Studies is true except a. Secondary analyses of the studies' original data supported using monetary incentives to get higher productivity b. The Hawthorne Studies motivated further understanding of human behavior in organizations c. Empathic management behavior leads to more productivity than directive management behavior d. The studies had strong research designs that allowed solid conclusions 13. One statement below about Theory X or Theory Y (McGregor) is incorrect. a. Theory Y: A person committed to work goals will work toward them without external control b. Theory X: People like to work c. Theory Y: Lack of ambition is not a basic human quality d. Theory X: The average person desires security and avoids responsibility 14. Which of the following is not part of a view (Drucker) of organizational governance and management integrity? a. A board of directors should not review senior management's plans b. Integrity is a critical part of a manager's character c. Effective governance requires a strongly independent and diverse board of directors d. An organization's board of directors should take action in times of crisis The Context of Modern Organizations (Diversity, Quality, Technology, International) 15. Which of the following is not a dimension of workforce diversity? a. Affirmative action b. Religion c. Union status d. Ethnic background 16. Which of the following statements is false? a. Managing diversity does not try to harness the potential of a diverse workforce b. Managing for diversity forces major changes on an organization c. An organization's diverse workforce can give it a competitive advantage d. Valuing diversity means managers actively try to build a diverse workforce 17. Pick the incorrect statement about quality management. a. Quality management is a philosophy of management b. Quality management is a system of management with tools and techniques that help manage for quality c. Quality management builds strong ties with suppliers and customers d. Quality management tries occasionally to improve the quality of an organization's product or service
18. Which of the following is true about quality management? a. Quality management has a short-term focus b. Quality management applies to all types of organizations c. Quality management cares more about cost than continuous quality improvement d. Quality management has its roots in military organizations 19. All the following new and emerging technologies will become part of the context of modern organizations except a. Wave division multiplexing b. Wireless technology on airplanes c. Push-button telephones d. Electronically based measurement systems 20. Each of the following is a future organization and management characteristic except a. Thorough understandng of customer needs and desires b. Compete in globally diverse markets c. Little involvement in Internet commerce d. Growing use of virtual organizations 21. Which of the following statements is false about the global environment of organizations? a. Modern managers must think beyond their domestic environment in ways never before required b. Global markets will have fewer interconnections in the future c. Transnational organizations that see no national boundaries will increasingly emerge in the future d. The entire planet becomes a source of markets, labor, and materials 22. All but one of the following are issues raised by a global management focus. a. Cultural differences exist in people's spatial orientations b. Forming partnerships with local people can help overcome language differences c. Managers face strong issues about the values they want in their globally dispersed operations d. Few cultural differences exist in people's time orientations 23. Which of the following is false about countries that vary in uncertainty avoidance and power distance? a. High uncertainty avoidance and lower power distance countries (Austria, Germany, Israel) like rules to guide behavior and let managers settle exceptional matters b. Low uncertainty avoidance and high power distance countries (China, Malaysia, Singapore) rely on simple organizational forms and direct supervision c. Countries in the middle of the two dimensions (Netherlands, Canada, United States) rely on top management to coordinate activities and specify results d. Low uncertainty avoidance and lower power distance countries (Denmark, Sweden, Republic of Ireland) rely on direct interpersonal interactions for coordination 24. Which of the following organizational policies is not affected by workforce diversity? a. Day care b. Performance goals c. Daily spoken language d. Social activities 25. Each of the following is a quality management tool or technique except a. Quality function deployment b. Checksheet c. Variance analysis d. Cause and effect diagram Ethics and Behavior in Organizations 26. According to an ethic of care, the first stage of individual moral development is a. Principled b. Self-sacrificing c. Reflective understanding d. Self-focused
27. According to an ethic of justice, the most advanced stage of individual moral development is a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Principled d. Reflective understanding 28. Which of the following is false about ethics and modern management? a. Modern managers will feel growing pressure to behave ethically b. There are clear standards for judging ethical and unethical behavior c. Questions of ethics surround many management decisions d. Managers often navigate a moral maze in their decision-making processes 29. Pick the incorrect answer from the following. a. Ethical behavior is right; unethical behavior is wrong b. The judgment of right and wrong comes from the guidelines of a specific ethics theory c. The distinction between subjectively and objectively ethical behaviors can cause confusion and controversy d. Few conflicts can arise between a person who believes he or she behaved ethically and those observing the behavior 30. All the following are part of the utilitarianism theory of ethics except a. Utilitarianism asks a person to examine the effects of the person's actions to decide whether the action is morally correct b. Utilitarianism assumes a person can know and assess all costs and benefits of his or her actions c. Utilitarianism easily works with hard-to-quantify values d. An action is morally right if the total net benefit of the action exceeds the total net benefit of any other action 31. Which of the following is false about a rights-based view of ethics? a. Negative rights allow interfering with another person's rights b. Rights can exist because of an ethical standard c. People have a moral duty to respect the rights of others d. Rights are a moral justification for one's actions 32. _______ is a principle in the theory of distributive justice. a. Egoism b. Net benefits c. Fair equality of opportunity d. Reflective understanding 33. Managing for ethical behavior includes each of the following except a. Peer reporting of unethical behavior (whistle blowing) b. Positive rights c. Ethical performance standards d. Decision procedures 9. Which of the following does not apply to the legal and ethical views in the international context of managing? a. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. Ethical realism c. Cultural relativism d. Egoism 34. Which of the following is false about ethical egoism? a. A universal ethical egoist can consider the interests of others b. Ethical egoism is among the oldest and simplest of Western ethical systems c. An individual ethical egoist always considers other people's interests when assessing the effects of his or her actions d. Some egoists will behave in a way they want other people to behave toward them
35. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about It's good business to do business ethically? a. Ethical businesses develop reputations for concern about the societal effects of their decisions b. Ethical businesses have a short-term view of ethical management c. Ethical businesses can have short-term costs not borne by less ethical competitors d. Ethical businesses likely face few regulatory efforts 36. One statement below about ethical issues in organizational behavior is untrue. a. Ethical issue: managers have no obligation to reduce dysfunctional stress b. The organizational behavior topics in your textbook raise many ethical issues c. Ethical issue: getting a person's free consent to use behavior-shaping processes d. Ethical issue: using behavioral knowledge to affect another person's behavior with their full knowledge of the manager's intent 37. Pick the incorrect statement about ethics and moral philosophy. a. Ethical absolutism holds that an ethics system applies to all people everywhere b. Ethical relativism says that whatever a society or person believes is ethical defines ethical behavior c. Ethics and moral philosophy do not reflect on how actions ought to be done d. Ethics and moral judgments can change over the course of human history 38. Which is the incorrect statement about ethical values of societies? a. The languages of all societies distinguish between good and bad b. Ethical systems have no important functions for a society c. Ethical standards can be unwritten, as in preliterate societies, or written, as in literate societies d. All societies have ethical standards that define the behavior they see as right, desirable, and good Organizational Culture 39. _______ are the most visible parts of an organization's culture. a. Basic assumptions b. Artifacts c. Espoused values d. In-use values 40. Which of the following statements is false? a. Cultures can identify rules for power b. Cultures identify criteria for inclusion in a group c. Cultures define the rewards managers use d. Cultures do not clarify the nature of peer relationships 41. Which of the following is not a dysfunction of organizational culture? a. Culture defines group boundaries b. New technology may create resistance to change c. Culture can lead to resisting strategy change d. Merging incompatible cultures can create conflict 42. An outsider can diagnose an organization's culture using each of the following except a. Photographs b. Organizational stories c. Annual reports d. Magazine articles 43. Which of the following pieces of information is an insider least likely to use to diagnose an organization's culture? a. Stories and anecdotes b. Basis for promotions and raises c. Photographs d. Activities and communication in meetings
44. An organization with a cohesive culture will perform best under environmental circumstances of a. Low complexity, low ambiguity b. Low complexity, high ambiguity c. High complexity, low ambiguity d. High complexity, high ambiguity 45. Which of the following statements is false about some international aspects of organizational culture? a. Local cultures can shape the subcultures of globally dispersed organizations b. Subcultures can form along national lines in multinational organizations c. Managing multinational workforce diversity is not the same as managing domestic workforce diversity d. The cultural synergy view urges managers to view multinational diversity as a resource 46. An organization with formal control processes such as policies and procedures will perform best under circumstances of a. Low complexity, low uncertainty b. High complexity, low ambiguity c. High complexity, high ambiguity d. Low complexity, high ambiguity 47. Pick the incorrect statement about creating an organizational culture. a. Often happens when managers form a new operating unit b. Socialization practices play a key role in developing a culture c. Ideology is a key tool for getting member commitment to an organization's vision d. Inconsistent cultural symbols will not affect creating a culture 48. Which of the following statements is false about developing a moral dimension of organizational culture? a. It has a goal of making managers comfortable with discussing moral issues during decision making b. Managers have the ethical dialogue once only c. It is the dimension that holds values and basic assumptions about including ethical dialogues in decision processes d. It makes ethical dialogues an explicit part of the organization's ideology 49. The plurality organizational culture dimension emphasizes which of the following? a. Power systems b. Interconnections c. Presence of subcultures d. A widely dispersed organizational culture 50. Which of the following statements is not true about perspectives and views of organizational culture? a. The fragmentation perspective emphasizes ambiguity b. The integration perspective emphasizes consensus c. The culture symbolism view emphasizes meanings d. The differentiation perspective emphasizes consistency in values 51. Each statement below about cultural symbolism is true except a. Organization members find cultural symbols inefficient in summarizing meaning for them b. Cultural symbols capture emotional, ethical, and aesthetic meanings c. Symbols are material, verbal, or action symbols d. Cultural symbols bring order to otherwise complex processes and events
52. Which of the following statements about organizational culture is false? a. Organizational culture has the content of what a new employee must learn to become an accepted organizational member b. Organizational cultures typically are uniform, with few subcultures forming within them c. One can think of an organization's culture as similar to a country's culture d. A culture's content develops from the organization's adaptation to its external environment Perception, Attitudes, and Personality 53. Which of the following statements is false about the perceptual process? a. A person's perceptual process does not learn from repeated exposure to stimuli b. The perceptual process includes inputs to the person c. A person selectively attends to inputs d. The perceptual process plays a role in a person's adaptation to a changing environment 54. Self-perception has all the following parts except a. Self-esteem b. Self-presentation c. Self-concept d. Distinctiveness information 55. Which of the following is not a goal of self-presentation? a. Affect other people's impressions b. Increase a person's influence in a situation c. Attribution processes d. Ensure others have an accurate impression of the person 56. Which of the following statements is false about attitudes? a. An attitude is a learned predisposition about an object b. The three parts of an attitude are cognitive, affective, and behavioral intentions c. Attitudes and behavior are not strongly connected d. Only physical objects are the targets of an attitude 57. Which of the following is not true about attitude formation? a. Early family upbringing has little effect on attitude formation b. Negative beliefs about attitude object lead to negative attitudes c. Positive beliefs about attitude object lead to positive attitude d. The amount and type of information a person has affect attitude formation 58. Each of the following is a persuasive communication process except a. The target of attitude change must comprehend the message b. Retention of the message is unimportant in the change process c. The target must accept the message d. The persuasive communication must get the target's attention 59. All but one of the following can change attitudes. a. Cognitive dissonance b. Social group norms c. Multiple cognitions d. Persuasive communication 60. Which of the following statements is false about the major classes of personality theories? a. Operant-learning theory views people as learning behavior because external stimuli reinforce behavior b. Behavior genetics says an individual's unique gene structure affects personality development c. Cognitive social-learning theory sees behavior as largely learned by observation d. Cognitive theory says people develop their thinking patterns as their lives unfold. This class of personality theory sees a child as unwittingly shaped by environmental influences
61. Your organizational behavior textbook offered observations on all but one of the following stereotypes. a. Americans are energetic b. New Mexicans like green chile c. The Swiss are punctual d. Germans are task oriented 62. Which of the following isfalse about perception and ethical behavior? a. Situational and personal attributions likely do not affect an observer's belief about another person's ethical behavior b. Many people may have inaccurate stereotypes about the ethics of people with diverse backgrounds c. Some people deliberately manage their self-presentation to appear ethical d. Attribution errors can affect conclusions about who is responsible for an unethical act 63. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about social perception? a. A perceiver can make attributions and integrate the attributions to form a final impression b. When forming an impression of a person, a perceiver first observes the person, the situation, and the person's behavior c. The perceiver likely will not form a quick impression by making a snap judgment about the observed person d. Social perception is the process by which people come to know and understand other people 64. Pick the incorrect statement about emotions and emotional intelligence. a. Four dimensions define emotional intelligence including self-awareness and social awareness b. Anger, surprise, and disgust are basic human emotions c. Nonverbal communication plays an important role in emotional assessment d. Behavior triggered by emotions happens slowly, with careful thought about why one behaves in a particular way 65. A commercial airline pilot who is secure, relaxed, and calm while flying likely is high in a. Conscientiousness b. Extroversion c. Emotional stability d. Openness to experience 66. A person who pauses to think about where he or she is headed in a career is likely which of the following personality types? a. Type B personality b. Machiavellian c. Type A personality d. External locus of control Organizational Socialization 67. Organizational socialization is a process with all but one of the following features. a. It does not let organizations put their imprint on individual members b. It is the way people learn the content of an organization's culture c. It helps maintain and shape an organization's culture d. People learn the values and norms of an organization's culture through the socialization process 68. Each of the following is a role episode characteristic except a. The focal person perceives the desired role and tries to accurately engage in it b. Role episodes have a role sender and a focal person c. Role episodes repeat until the focal person accepts the desired behavior or leaves the organization d. Role episodes do not communicate pivotal role behaviors
69. Which of the following statements is false? a. Members of an organizational culture feel they should require some degree of conformity to important cultural values b. Differences in values and behaviors among organizational members can increase the potential for conflict c. Organizations should over-specify role behavior d. There is a constant interplay between socialization efforts and a person's desire for individualization 70. Each of the following statements about socialization processes in the anticipatory stage is true except a. The recruitment process gives people a set of expectations about the organization b. Employment interviews do not affect expectations about the organization c. Realistic job previews can give potential employees realistic expectations about the organization d. Screening and selection devices are socialization processes for employees entering an organization or taking a new position 71. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of organizational socialization? a. Entry/encounter metamorphosis anticipatory b. Anticipatory metamorphosis entry/encounter c. Metamorphosis entry/encounter anticipatory d. Anticipatory entry/encounter metamorphosis 72. Which of the following is an incorrect pair of organizational socialization stages and socialization processes? a. Entry/encounter stage, mentoring b. Anticipatory stage, recruitment activities c. Anticipatory stage, indoctrination programs d. Entry/encounter stage, training programs 73. Which of the following statements is false about the results of the metamorphosis socialization stage? a. Content innovation is a form of rebellion and the employee usually leaves the organization b. A custodial response occurs when an employee conforms to all role requirements c. An organization's acceptance of role innovation keeps the innovation in the organization d. A rebellious response features rejecting all socialization demands 74. Each of the following statements about expatriate adjustment is true except a. Employees are selected for overseas assignments based on their performance in the home country b. There are few failures in overseas assignments c. Training for expatriates' spouses can help their adjustment to a foreign assignment d. Some countries are more difficult to adapt to than others 75. Which of the following statements is false about repatriate adjustments? a. Repatriation is often easier if the employee has a mentor in the home office b. Benefits that are a part of international assignments can be dysfunctional c. Almost no multinational organizations offer predeparture training to employees preparing for return to the home office d. Required visits to the home office will not help maintain accurate expectations about the home country
76. Which of the following statements about realistic job previews is false? a. They are used as a socialization process during the entry/encounter stage b. They give negative and positive information to job applicants c. They can reduce turnover d. One method of realistic job preview is work site visits 77. Which of the following is not a boundary transition dimension? a. Inclusionary b. Hierarchical c. Metamorphosis d. Functional 78. Which statement pair is incorrect? a. Fire department pivotal role behavior, reporting on time for work duty b. Relevant role behavior, essential behavior for successful organizational membership c. Peripheral role behavior, having stuffed figures of animated film characters in your office d. Role sender, reacts to a focal person's behavior 79. Each of the following socialization situations presents an ethical issue except a. Realistic presentation of self to an organization b. Realistic job preview by an organization c. An organization's socialization process changes a person's values and behavior d. Telling employees about the potential effects of an organization's training program 80. Pick the wrong statement pair. a. High levels of job-related skills, learn job duties quickly b. Strong need for affiliation (social need), influence of workgroup members c. High self-efficacy beliefs, custodial socialization response d. Strong need for achievement (growth need), aggressively pursue new job duties Need Theories 81. Which of the following is false about the assumptions shared by motivation theories? a. The theories explain voluntary behavior b. Behavior has a starting point, direction, and stopping point c. The theories assume behavior is not random d. The theories do not suggest ways managers can affect employee behavior. 82. Which of the following assumptions is false about Murray's theory of human personality? a. People adapt to a changing environment b. Internal factors (needs) do not affect behavior c. External environmental factors affect behavior d. Behavior is both purposeful and goal directed 83. Which of the following statements is true about Murray's theory of human personality? a. Usually a single need decides a person's behavior b. People cannot adapt to a changing environment c. A person's behavior can try to satisfy needs that are opposites of each other d. Needs only cause us to go toward objects we like 84. Which of the following statements is false about the hierarchy of needs theory (Maslow)? a. Chronic frustration of needs has no ill effects b. The next higher-level need can become important, while a lower level is only partially satisfied c. Needs are not the only basis of human behavior d. A satisfied need is no longer a motivator
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85. Each of the following statements about the hierarchy of needs theory (Maslow) is true except a. A satisfied need does not motivate behavior b. People progress through the hierarchy in the same order without exception c. Behavior can focus on satisfying more than one need at a time d. The environment can affect behavior 86. Which of the following is not part of E.R.G. theory? a. The theory says three needs motivate behavior: existence, relatedness, and growth b. The three needs form a hierarchy through which a person progresses c. Relatedness needs are the same as the belongingness and love needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory d. The satisfaction progression movement happens when a need is frustrated 87. Which of the following is false about E.R.G. theory? a. Growth needs include the desire to develop additional capabilities b. A deficiency cycle can occur at the bottom of the hierarchy c. The theory says there is only one form of movement through the hierarchy d. A person who experiences the enrichment cycle wants to continually grow and develop 88. Each of the following statements is true about McClelland's motivation theories except a. Employees high in need for achievement value money as an end in itself b. High need for power people can strongly affect others c. High need for achievement employees want to feel responsible for their performance in challenging jobs d. Employees low in need for achievement value money as an end in itself 89. Which of the following is false about motivator hygiene theory (Herzberg)? a. Motivators include achievement and the work itself b. Empirical research strongly supports the theory c. Dissatisfiers and satisfiers fall on two different continua d. Company policies are a hygiene factor 90. Which of the following pairs of needs and countries is incorrect? a. Security and belongingness and love (social) needs, Latin American countries b. Self-actualization needs, India c. Belongingness and love (social) needs, Singapore d. Security needs, Ireland 91. Which of the following statements about motivation and motivation theories is false? a. Motivation theories give you tools for analyzing an organization's motivation system b. Motivation is a psychological process that causes the arousal, direction, and persistence of voluntary goal-directed behavior c. Motivation theories assume behavior is continuous with no stopping point d. Understanding motivation theories can help managers build effective motivation systems in their organizations 92. Which of the following ethical issues about the need theories of motivation have the most unclear ethical guidelines? a. Creating work environments and work experiences that let people satisfy their needs b. Managing multinational operations according to the needs of people in the host culture c. Managing multinational operations as if they were in their home culture d. Managers affecting people's behavior from knowledge of human motivation without their informed consent
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Motivation: Cognitive and Behavioral Theories and Techniques 93. Which of the following statements about expectancy theory concepts is wrong? a. Valence is the preference people have for outcomes b. Extrinsic outcomes are rewards people receive from someone else c. Blockages have two forms: individual and organizational d. Performance outcome expectancy is the link between a person's effort and a desired performance level 94. When a person's ratio of outputs to inputs is less than the perceived ratio of a comparison other, the person experiences a. Negative inequity b. Positive inequity c. Equity sensitivity d. Equity 95. Which of the following is false about equity theory? a. People try to balance the ratios of inputs to outcomes in an exchange relationship b. Inputs are personal characteristics and behaviors that a person brings to the employment exchange c. Positive inequity happens when a person's ratio is less than the perceived ratio of a comparison other d. A person can compare her or his ratio to an absolute standard of fairness 96. Which of the following statements is false about goal-setting theory? a. Participation in goal setting is unimportant for goal acceptance b. Feedback is not necessary for effective goal setting c. A person must accept the goal for goal setting to be effective d. Specific, difficult goals have a greater effect on performance than fuzzy goals 97. Which of the following is incorrect about goals that lead to high performance as described by goal-setting theory? a. Unclear b. Challenging c. Specific d. Reachable 98. Which of the following is incorrect about some behavior modification concepts? a. Extinction withdraws something the employee values to decrease the frequency of an undesirable behavior b. Positive reinforcement applies a positive event to increase the frequency or strength of desirable behavior c. Negative reinforcement applies a negative event to decrease the frequency of undesirable behavior d. Intermittent reinforcement applies a consequence based on time between behaviors or number of behaviors 99. Each of the following statements is true about punishment except a. Punishment is less potent for shaping behavior than positive reinforcement b. Punishment stops behavior temporarily c. The undesirable behavior can return when the source of punishment is not present d. Punishment does not induce an emotional reaction from the punished person
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100. Which of the following statements is false? a. Muslim managers believe that Allah controls their destiny b. Research evidence suggests that goal-setting theory does not apply across cultural boundaries c. Expectancy theory may apply to some cultures that are less individualistic than the United States d. The motivation theories reflect U.S. values of free will 101. Each statement below is true about the ethical implications of behavior modification except a. The controller and the person being controlled interact with each other b. Knowledge of human motivation can only be used for positive ends c. The issue of who will control people's behavior is an important one d. Critics say that behavior modification is used to control people 102. Which of the following is not a blockage (individual or organizational) to the effort performance expectancy? a. High conflict levels b. Task difficulty c. Self-actualization d. Training 103. Which of the following statements is false? a. Equity sensitives do not react to inequity as equity theory describes b. Entitleds have high inequity thresholds c. Benevolents accept fewer outcomes for their inputs than other people would accept d. Entitleds believe that whatever outcomes they get are their just reward 104. Pick the incorrect statement about the cognitive and behavioral theories of motivation. a. Equity theory describes people's reactions when they feel unfairly treated b. Expectancy theory describes how people choose from different behaviors c. Goal-setting theory emphasizes setting external goals that a person tries to reach d. Behavior modification uses internal psychological processes to explain motivation 105. Pick the incorrect statement below. a. People perceive a connection between effort and a desired performance level b. Expectancies and valences combine multiplicatively when people assess various results of their behavior c. Expectancy theory describes people's choices among behaviors by using only valences d. Multiple outcomes are possible for behavior Intrinsic Rewards and Job Design 106. All statements below about social information processing theory are correct except a. Verbal cues provided by managers do not affect perceptions of job characteristics b. Using the job diagnostic survey before job redesign can sensitize people to certain job characteristics they had not previously noticed c. Coworkers' descriptions of the job may affect the jobholder's perceptions d. Participation in the job design process can produce satisfaction without changing the job 107. Which of the following statements is false about international aspects of job design? a. Changing job characteristics will have different reactions in different cultures b. Scandinavian countries have used mostly group-based approaches to job design c. All cultures view self-actualization derived from the job as important d. The United States has traditionally used mostly individual-based approaches to job design
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108. All the following statements about contextual factors in job design are true except a. Flexible manufacturing techniques increase the skill variety for people with those types of jobs b. Mass-production technical processes usually have jobs with low motivating potential c. Group-based manufacturing technologies need jobs designed for groups, not individuals d. Just-in-time inventory management builds little feedback into the job itself 109. Which of the following is false about a self-managing workgroup? a. Group members control the group's tasks and interpersonal processes b. Managers only need to design the group's task, not some aspects of the group c. The group produces a defined service, decision, or product d. It is an intact group with interdependence among its members 110. Which of the following is false about diagnosing and redesigning jobs? a. The first step is to gather information about jobs using multiple measurement methods b. Norms are not available for comparison to job diagnostic survey results c. A theoretical orientation, such as the job characteristics theory of work motivation, guides the job redesign effort d. Employees who provide the data should see the results to verify their accuracy 111. Which of the following is a critical psychological state in the job characteristics theory of work motivation? a. Meaningfulness of the work b. Growth need strength c. Internal work motivation d. Growth satisfaction 112. Which of the following is not a moderator that affects relationships among parts of the job characteristics theory of work motivation? a. Experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work b. Quality of supervision c. Growth need strength d. Knowledge and skill 113. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the core job characteristics? a. Feedback from the job itself: the degree to which a person learns about the quality of his or her job performance while doing the task b. Skill variety: the degree to which the job has many different activities using several skills and abilities c. Autonomy: the degree to which a person does a whole piece of work d. Task significance: the degree to which the person doing the job perceives it as important to others 114. Which of the following statements is true about the job characteristics theory of work motivation? a. Objective job characteristics lead to three critical psychological states b. Affective outcomes lead to the critical psychological states c. Growth need strength, knowledge and skill, and context satisfaction are moderator variables in the theory d. Behavioral outcomes produce the affective outcomes of growth satisfaction and internal work motivation 115. Motivating potential combines the effects of all but which of the following? a. Skill variety b. Autonomy c. Task identity d. Internal work motivation
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116. Pick the incorrect statement about intrinsic and extrinsic rewards and a manager's role in job design. a. Conditions differ for experiencing intrinsic and extrinsic rewards b. Managers indirectly control intrinsic rewards c. Managers use extrinsic rewards directly d. Managers do not affect an employee's work experiences that can lead to intrinsic rewards 117. The job characteristics theory of work motivation predicts several relationships. One statement below incorrectly describes those relationships. Which one is it? a. Jobs low in motivating potential produce less internal work motivation than jobs high in motivating potential b. People with strong growth needs should respond less positively to jobs high in motivating potential than people with weak growth needs c. A person's knowledge and skill combine with a job's high motivating potential to produce high internal work motivation d. A positive work context helps a person experience a job's motivating qualities 118. Several ethical issues surround job design, intrinsic rewards, and self-managing groups. Which of the following statements is false about such ethical issues? a. Should managers in multinational or transnational organizations honor the host country culture or keep to their home country culture when considering decentralized decision making in self-managing workgroups? b. Ethical issue: Should involvement in self-managing workgroups be voluntary for employees? c. Ethical issue: Should a company inform job applicants of their likely involvement in selfmanaging workgroups if they join the firm? d. People around the world vary so little in the needs that are central to their personalities that managers of transnational organizations face few ethical issues in their approaches to job design 119. Pick the incorrect statement. a. Job rotation advocates believed that workers would become less bored by doing many different activities b. Job enlargement combined duties, tasks, and jobs that usually were at the same level c. The universal, positive, linear response in worker attitudes assumed by early job redesign approaches has held true d. All early job redesign approaches tried to improve work satisfaction and decrease boredom Groups and Intergroup Processes 120. Which of the following statements is false about groups in organizations? a. Group norms include the performance levels expected of group members b. Informal groups form within and across formal groups c. Personal acceptance means group members conform because their values are congruent with group norms d. Cohesive groups tend to perform better than noncohesive groups, especially if the groups are large 121. Which of the following is true about factors affecting cohesive group formation? a. Free time at work limits social interaction b. High noise levels help social interaction c. Low absence rates in the group increase social interaction d. Complete job descriptions help social interaction
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122. All the following pairs are true about the stages of group development and typical behaviors in each stage except a. Task orientation stage: energy focuses on defining the group's work b. Group cohesion stage: the group has defined its roles and relationships among the roles c. Intragroup conflict stage: members discuss social roles within the group d. Group formation stage: first meeting of group members; learn about task and each other 123. Which of the following is false about the model of cohesive group formation? a. Bases of attraction include factors such as age, gender, and ethnic background b. Interaction refers to face-to-face social interaction between two or more people c. Activities include job duties and responsibilities d. Sentiments are attitudes and beliefs about a person or persons with whom an individual interacts 124. Each of the following statements about typical roles found in groups is true except a. Elaborator role: tries to show the expected results of the group's efforts b. Aggressor role: tries to get group members to work together c. Gatekeeper role: tries to keep communication open with people outside the group d. Joker: engages in horseplay 125. Which of the following statements is false about the effects of workforce diversity on group development and functioning? a. Diverse groups develop more ideas than homogeneous groups b. Diversity can lead to distrust among members c. Diverse groups can take longer than homogeneous groups to become cohesive d. Diversity in workgroups has little conflict potential 126. Which of the following statements is true as group size increases? a. People in large groups find it easy to learn about each other b. Large groups have fewer resources for doing the group's task c. The strength of bonds among group members increases as group size increases d. Reaching agreement about a group's activities is more difficult in large groups than in small groups 127. Which of the following is not a dysfunctional consequence of groups? a. Groups can take more time than individuals to do some tasks b. Social loafing can develop when a person perceives her or his effort as unimportant c. Cohesive groups are self-policing and can stamp out deviant behavior d. A cohesive group pressures its members to conform to its norms, exerting strong control over group member behavior 128. Which of the following statements is true about self-managing teams? a. Some people want to work independently, so they should not be part of self-managing teams b. Leadership does not rotate among team members c. A self-managing team is a group of people working on independent tasks d. Managers typically do not appoint team leaders
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129. Which of the following is true about ethical issues raised by groups in organizations? a. Managers do not have an ethical duty to screen people for membership based on the strength of their social needs b. Managers have an ethical duty to screen people for group membership based on their level of conflict tolerance c. Managers should not make membership of self-managing teams voluntary d. Managers are not required to inform recruits about all cohesive groups in the organization 130. Which of the following is false about virtual groups? a. Virtual group members rely only on the Internet to link them together b. Virtual groups can form from members at scattered locations anywhere in the world c. Some physical interaction can happen when a virtual group meets in a single room d. Software supports problem-solving and decision-making groups 131. Which of the following statements is true about majority and minority (deviant) influences in groups? a. Minority members bring alternative views to a decision faced by a group b. Minority members loosely hold to their positions c. Minority members usually are not confident about their positions d. Majority members do not have negative views of minority members 132. Pick the incorrect statement about international aspects of groups in organizations. a. Norwegian, French, and Swedish groups reject deviates with high intensity b. Self-managing teams fit high individualistic cultures with low power distance such as the United States and Australia c. Collectivistic cultures welcome conflict during intergroup interactions d. Collectivistic cultures that emphasize social status (high power distance) likely will resist the self-managing feature of self-managing teams 133. Which of the following statements is false about groups and their dynamics? a. A group is a collection of people who perceive themselves as interdependent with each other b. Groups can powerfully affect people's behavior c. Group members typically do not interact with each other regularly d. Managers can maximize the positive value of groups with knowledge of groups and their dynamics 135. Each statement below about the functional effects of groups in organizations is true except a. Cooperative behavior among cohesive group members helps them complete interdependent tasks b. Control over individual behavior in cohesive groups is less immediate than control by managers c. Cohesive groups are self-policing and can have close control of member behavior d. Cohesive groups often produce innovations of value to the organization 136. Pick the incorrect statement about factors that affect group effectiveness. a. Group goals have little effect on group performance b. Groups with physical boundaries can become more cohesive than groups with blurred boundaries c. Group tasks requiring variations in people's performance call for differences in member characteristics d. People in large groups have difficulty learning about each other
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137. Which of the following statements is true about intergroup processes in organizations? a. Intergroup processes do not occur when people from different groups interact with each other b. Members of different groups usually have the same goals c. Conflict rarely occurs within intergroup processes d. Stereotyping of diverse members of different groups can affect the quality of intergroup behavior 138. Pick the incorrect statement about workgroup socialization. a. A newcomer develops an image of participation in the group during the anticipation phase of workgroup socialization b. The workgroup successfully adapts to a new member during the adjustment phase of workgroup socialization c. A new group member learns her or his role in the group during the encounter phase of workgroup socialization d. Mutual adjustment and adaptation between the workgroup and a new member do not occur during workgroup socialization Conflict in Organizations 139. Each statement below is true about conflict and conflict management in organizations except a. Conflict management includes both increasing and decreasing conflict b. Conflict is necessary for organizational survival c. Conflict management is not a basic management responsibility d. Conflict includes interactions in which one party opposes another party 140. Which of the following statements is false about functional and dysfunctional conflict in organizations? a. Conflict is dysfunctional when it is lower than a group requires for reaching its goals b. Conflict management does not involve maintaining conflict at functional levels c. Conflict that is functional in one group can be dysfunctional in another group d. Dysfunctionally high conflict can reduce trust 141. All but one of the following statements accurately describe aspects of levels and types of conflict in organizations. Which statement does not? a. Intraorganization conflict includes all types of conflict between organizations. b. Interpersonal conflict is conflict between two or more people. c. Intergroup conflict is conflict between two or more groups. d. Intrapersonal conflict is conflict that occurs within a person. 142. Which of the following definitions of conflict episode concepts is incorrect? a. Manifest conflict is the actual conflict behavior b. The conflict aftermath often holds the latent conflict that starts another episode c. Felt conflict occurs when a party to the conflict episode notices that he or she is in conflict with someone else d. Latent conflict starts a conflict episode when the right conditions occur 145. Pick the incorrect statement about conflict frames. a. A task emphasis focuses on the material aspects of an episode b. A relationship emphasis focuses on the party's interpersonal relationship c. An intellectual emphasis focuses on feelings in the episode d. A party with a winning focus wants to maximize personal gain
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146. Which of the following statements is false about latent conflict? a. Reward systems that encourage incompatible behavior can create conflict b. Ambiguous jurisdictions are a source of conflict c. Scarce resources can lead to conflict d. Conflict does not develop when cohesive groups interact with each other 147. Each statement below is true about conflict management except a. Innovative products or services require a higher desired conflict level than more routine products or services b. If conflict in a work unit is dysfunctionally low, the manager tries to increase conflict c. A manager's tolerance for conflict can affect the manager's perception of desired conflict levels in a workgroup d. Desired conflict levels do not vary from one group to another and for the same group over time 148. Which of the following is false about reducing conflict? a. Compromise uses negotiation to reduce conflict. It splits the differences between the parties in conflict b. Problem solving usually does not find a conflict episode's root causes c. Avoidance prevents a person from facing a conflict episode d. A superordinate goal is a goal desired by all parties to the conflict but not reachable by any party alone 149. Which of the following does not increase conflict in organizations? a. Superordinate goal b. Devil's advocate c. Heterogeneous groups d. Organizational culture 150. Which of the following is false about ethical issues in conflict in organizations? a. Variation in optimum conflict levels among countries b. Subtle methods of increasing conflict c. Intrapersonal conflict from requests for immoral acts d. Conflict higher than a person's tolerance level 151. Pick the incorrect pair describing some international aspects of conflict in organizations. a. Individualistic cultures, positively value conflict b. Collaborative cultures, negatively value conflict c. Competitive cultures, positively value conflict d. Cooperative cultures, felt conflict occurs publicly 152. Which of the following lets a person selectively focus on many conflicts that can occur in an organization? a. Perceived conflict b. Latent conflict c. Felt conflict d. Manifest conflict 13. Which of the following pairs shows the correct link between conflict episodes? a. Perceived conflict felt conflict b. Conflict aftermath latent conflict c. Latent conflict manifest conflict d. Felt conflict perceived conflict Leadership and Management 153. Which of the following is a leadership trait? a. Dominance b. Energy c. Cognitive ability d. All responses are leadership traits
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154. Which of the following statements is false about the behavioral theories of leadership? a. Consideration is a people-oriented dimension of leadership behavior b. Production-centered leader behavior focuses on tasks and has little concern for people c. Leaders high in initiating structure do not set deadlines or make individual task assignments d. Employee-centered leader behavior focuses on people and the quality of the social system 155. Which of the following is not a concept in Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership? a. The desire to lead b. Task-oriented leaders c. Leader member relations d. Task structure 156. Each statement below is true about concepts in House's path goal theory of leadership except a. Personal factors include a subordinate's perception of ability b. Supportive leader behavior focuses on tasks c. Participative leader behavior includes consultation with subordinates d. Achievement-oriented leader behavior emphasizes excellence in subordinate performance 157. Which of the following statements is false about personal factors in House's path goal theory? a. Subordinates high in authoritarianism will accept directive leader behavior b. Subordinates with an internal locus of control will accept directive leader behavior c. Subordinates with low ability to do the task will accept directive leader behavior d. Subordinates low in authoritarianism will accept participative leader behavior 158. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the leadership mystique? a. A capacity for power is the ability to get and use power to pursue a mission b. A leader has a will to persevere against a discourteous, unbelieving world of sometimes total opposition c. Leaders tend to describe their mission with little passion d. A sense of mission a vision of some future state for the organization 159. Which of the following statements is false about the leadership categorization process? a. A leadership exemplar is a specific person people regard as a leader b. A leadership prototype is a person's cognitive image of leadership characteristics c. People do not compare their observations of another person to a cognitive category describing a leader d. Human perceptual processes underlie a person's observations of leader traits and behaviors 159. Each statement below is true about leadership style differences of women and men except a. Empirical research shows major, consistent differences in leadership behavior of men and women b. Women share power and information. They also encourage their subordinates self-worth c. Women behave more democratically and participatively than men d. Men use their position authority and rely on rewards and punishments to shape subordinates behavior 160. Which of the following statements is false about some international aspects of leadership? a. Managers who tie rewards to people's performance get positive results across cultures b. Workers in countries with authoritarian values expect their managers to behave autocratically c. People in countries that value hierarchical relationships prefer directive approaches to leadership d. The socialization practices of some multinationals do not produce consistent leader behavior from country to country
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161. Which of the following is not a role behavior of managers and supervisors external to a selfmanaging team? a. Team development b. Resource support c. Day-to-day direction d. Political support 11. Pick the incorrect pair. a. Enhancers, organizational policies b. Neutralizers, rules and procedures c. Neutralizers, group norms d. Substitutes, routine task 162. Which of the following is not a likely leadership exemplar? a. Oprah Winfrey b. Colin Powell c. Jack Welch, General Electric's former CEO d. Homer Simpson 163. Which of the following statements is false about leadership in organizations? a. The formal qualities of a person's position play no role in leadership b. Emergent leaders often appear within informal and formal groups in an organization c. An individual's personal characteristics contribute to leadership d. Leaders can hold formal organizational positions 164. Each of the following statements about management and leadership in organizations is true except a. An organization's leadership requirements rarely change b. Managers follow an organization's present vision; leaders create a vision c. Leaders take risks when they perceive high payoffs from a course of action d. Leaders use power for influence not punishment 165. Which of the following statement pairs about the alternative views of leadership is false? a. Transformational leadership, intellectual stimulation b. The leadership mystique, lack of perseverance c. Charismatic leadership, creating inspirational vision d. Transformational leadership, charisma 166. Pick the incorrect pair about ethical issues in leadership and management. a. Ethical issue in leadership and management: affecting other people's behavior without their awareness of the effect b. Ethical issue in leadership and management: brainwashing-like effects on people c. Ethical issue in leadership and management: changing a person's attitudes, values, and beliefs with their consent d. Ethical issue in leadership and management: leader confronts moral dilemmas Communication Processes 167. Organizational communication processes include each of the following except a. Communication flows in all directions b. Communication happens over a pathway called a network c. Communication typically does not affect behavior in organizations d. The network includes formal organizational positions and informal relationships 168. Which of the following is not true of the basic communication process? a. The sender interprets the receiver's response and acts accordingly b. A receiver decodes a message and interprets its meaning c. A sender encodes a message and sends it to a receiver d. International diversity adds little noise to the communication process
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169. Which of the following statements is false about oral communication? a. Oral communication can include radio and television communication b. Nonverbal communication has no effect on oral communication c. Oral communication usually has the immediate attention of the receiver d. Oral communication leaves no permanent, retrievable record of the message 170. Which of the following statements is false about physical aspects of the person as nonverbal behavior? a. Moving closer to the receiver can imply a positive attitude toward the receiver b. Senders who look away from the receiver imply uncertainty about the message c. Senders who increase their rate and volume of speech can persuade a receiver to accept a message d. A receiver may perceive deceit when the sender speaks quickly 171. Each statement below is true about the functions of organizational communication except a. Persuasion plays a large part in organizational change b. Communication processes help organizations share information with employees c. Communication's emotional function inhibits employees from expressing their feelings d. An organization's communication process helps integrate an organization's diverse functions 172. Which of the following statements is false about some dysfunctions of organizational communication? a. Different sender and receiver frames of reference do not negatively affect communication b. People may react to information overload by ignoring some information c. Senders can filter message content unintentionally d. Jargon may be a source of communication dysfunction 173. Which of the following is not true about active listening? a. Only the speaker is responsible for the message's meaning b. A listener asks questions or rephrases a message to clarify a speaker's intent c. Active listening involves accurately hearing the facts in a message d. Message meaning includes both its content and the sender's feelings 174. Which of the following is not an ethical issue in organizational communication? a. Should an organization reveal negative information about its plans to employees? b. The positive and negative effects of nonverbal communication have important ethical implications for organizations c. Do people's rights to privacy extend to computer surveillance of employee e-mail? d. Should an organization tell its suppliers how it chooses among them? 9. Which of the following statements is false about improving communication effectiveness? a. Getting training in oral and written communication b. Long, complex messages are usually better than short, simple messages c. Understanding the background and culture of the receiver d. Receivers perceive high-contrast messages more readily than low-contrast messages 175. Each of the following statements is true about communication roles in organizations except a. Initiators start and send more messages than they receive b. Isolates are outside the communication process. They send, receive, and relay only a few messages c. Terminators infrequently send messages to others in the organization d. A liaison is a member of each part of an organization he or she connects
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176. Pick the incorrect statement about technology and communication. a. Multimedia personal computers: large audience communication b. Digital communication technologies: flexibility and mobility of future communication c. Desktop videoconferencing: local communication only d. Distributed computing: communication within and between organizations 177. Which of the following statements about communication networks is false? a. Decentralized communication networks feature a central or controlling role b. Large audience communication gets a message from one person to many people c. Pair-wise communication involves two people in some form of written or oral communication d. A single person can have a key role in a centralized communication network 178. Each item or statement below is correct about international aspects of organizational communication except a. Distance between people while communicating b. International issues only apply to written or spoken language c. Meaning of time d. Future orientation 179. Pick the incorrect statement about listening. a. Interpersonal activity in listening: A person receives a message from another person b. Intrapersonal activity in listening: The person who receives a message tries to interpret it c. Interpersonal activity: The person who receives the message responds to the other person to show the meaning given to the message d. Listening and hearing are the same process Decision-Making and Problem-Solving Processes 180. Which of the following paired statements is incorrect about decision strategies? a. Programmed decision strategy; unusual events b. Unprogrammed decision strategy; nonrecurring decisions c. Unprogrammed decision strategy; unpredictable decisions d. Dimensions defining each strategy; routine nonroutine, recurring nonrecurring, certainty uncertainty 181. Which of the following statements is false about the decision-making process? a. Decision makers can restart the decision-making process at an earlier phase b. Decision makers can stop for some time at one phase of the decision-making process c. Decision makers do not repeat the decision-making process d. Decision makers can move in any direction in the decision-making sequence 182. Each of the following is characteristic of satisficing except a. Decision makers pick an alternative that is good enough to reach the goal b. Decision makers can change the goal of the decision problem c. Decision makers may not choose an alternative to maximize a goal d. Satisficing behavior occurs in political models of decision making 183. Which of the following statements is not true about group decision making? a. Assets include increased information and job satisfaction b. Participation in a decision-making group decreases satisfaction and acceptance of a decision c. Liabilities of group decision making include a favored alternative and a dominant person in the group d. Group decision making can help the personal development of those who participate
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184. As the social processes for decision making go from authoritative ("A") to group ("G") approaches, each of the following occurs except a. Conflict potential increases in the group b. Social processes for decision making become more complex c. Social interaction decreases between the decision maker and others involved in the decision d. Group members have increased commitment to the decision 186. Which of the following statements is false about escalation of commitment? a. Factors that contribute to escalation of commitment include ego protection and pressures for decision behavior consistency b. Past decisions have little effect on present decisions c. Decision makers affected by escalation of commitment acknowledge and emphasize past or sunk costs in their decision making d. Escalation of commitment often arises in decision processes involving important organizational decisions 187. Pick the incorrect statement about ways a group leader can avoid groupthink. a. Form homogeneous decision-making groups b. Invite outsiders to analyze and comment on the group's deliberations c. Stimulate conflict during group meetings d. Assign the role of devil's advocate to a member 188. Which of the following is not a method of improving decision making in organizations? a. Delphi method b. E-mail system c. Brainstorming d. Decision support systems 189. Which of the following statements is false about international aspects of decision making and problem solving? a. U.S. decision makers usually use a serial decision-making process b. Decision makers in Japan and China usually consider all alternatives before choosing c. Decision making moves more quickly in U.S. organizations than in Egyptian organizations d. Malaysian, Thai, and Indonesian decision makers attack and solve problems 190. Which of the following statements is incorrect about ethical issues in decision making? a. Decision makers who face ethical issues apply a decision rule with a minimum cutoff for some ethical criterion b. Moral decision makers are not deceptive during discussions c. An ethical decision maker has no responsibility to give information freely d. Ethical questions can arise in all phases of the decision-making process 191. Which of the following statements is false about judgment biases? a. Heuristics are guidelines that simplify information processing during decision making b. People are not always aware that they use heuristics c. Framing effects are a form of judgment bias d. Heuristics typically do not introduce bias in decision making 192. Each of the following statements is true about decision-making and problem-solving processes except a. Problem solving tries to find root causes of a problem b. Group decision making works well with ill-defined problems c. Decision making focuses on choice and reaching a goal d. Only an organization's managers make decisions
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193. Pick the incorrect pair below that applies to the different decision-making models. a. Political models, pursue organizational interests and goals b. Unstructured decision-making models, ambiguous problems c. Rational model, chooses an alternative that maximizes a goal d. Garbage can model, choice opportunity streams 194. Pick the incorrect statement about the Vroom Yetton Model of decision making. a. A decision maker assesses a decision problem's characteristics by asking some diagnostic questions b. The Vroom Yetton Model is a normative model of decision making that guides a person's choices among some alternative social processes for decision making c. The Vroom Yetton Model does not try to protect a decision's acceptance and quality d. The model guides the decision maker to the model's recommended approach for a decision problem 195. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about judgment biases? a. Ease of recall bias: recalling vivid, recent events more easily than other events b. Confirmation trap bias: avoiding uncomfortable and disconfirming information c. Managers can make good decisions despite the quality of the heuristics they use d. Overconfidence bias: inaccurate judgments when answering questions about which the person has little knowledge Power and Political Behavior 196. Which of the following statements is false about power in organizations? a. Power is a person's ability to get something done the way the person wants it done b. Power is essential to leadership and management functions c. Power typically has negative effects on organizations d. Powerful managers and leaders get more resources for their subordinates 197. Pick the incorrect definition. a. The relational dimension is the social interaction part of power b. The dependence dimension views power as coming from one party's reliance on another party c. The sanctioning dimension refers to a power relationship based on rewards and punishments d. Potential power refers to a person having and using power 198. Which of the following statements is false about the bases of power? a. Reward power comes from a manager's use of positive outcomes for a subordinate's performance b. Expert power derives from the manager's technical knowledge c. Information power comes from the control and distribution of information in an organization d. Personal bases of power flow from one's organizational position 199. Each of the following statements is true about power and leadership except a. Those with little power use close supervision b. Those with power take few risks in organizations c. Powerful leaders can get resources and information for subordinates d. Powerful leaders delegate decision authority to subordinates 200. Which of the following statements is wrong about building power in an organization? a. Enhancing one's reputation builds power in an organization b. A person's work activities are not a source of power c. Creating a perception of dependence builds power d. A work unit with unique functions builds power for the manager
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201. Which of the following is not a factor that can lead to attributions of power? a. A low status position b. Membership in important informal coalitions c. Membership in a powerful project d. High technical knowledge 202. Which of the following statements is false about political strategies? a. Political strategies are not created for decisions about resource allocations or pay increases b. Political strategies may or may not be written c. Political strategies recognize that political events do not always unfold as planned d. Performance appraisal is an area where political strategies have appeared 203. Each statement below is true about political behavior except a. Political behavior can lead to the institutionalization of the current power holders b. A key aspect of political behavior is power and influence c. Political behavior is unimportant in managing lateral relationships d. Behavior that uses power is political 204. Which of the following statements is false about a political diagnosis? a. One assesses each person's skills in using a power base b. One can use archival information such as reports and meeting minutes c. The diagnosis of networks depends on knowledge from informants and experience in the organization d. A person's power base is weak if the person has discretion in using important resources 205. Each of the following describes ethical political behavior except a. The administration of the organization's policies and procedures allows fair treatment of all affected b. People are influenced by another party but have not given their free consent to be influenced c. Individuals the political actor tries to influence clearly know his or her intent d. While the political behavior unfolds, all those affected have the right of due process within the organization 11. Each statement below is true about political tactics except a. Decision-making processes typically lack a political dimension b. Building coalitions helps create a power base c. Impression management involves controlling the image a person projects to another person d. Some influence tactics include upward appeal and ingratiation 206. Pick the incorrect statement pair about the dark side of organizational politics. a. Lying: A liar does not try to mislead another party b. Intimidation: A manager transfers an organizational reformer to a low visibility position c. Deception: An executive emphasizes a successor's abilities while choosing a person loyal to the executive's ideas d. Machiavellian personality: A personality type that is well adapted to the dark side of organizational politics 207. Each statement below about international aspects of political behavior in organizations is true except a. Workers in many South American countries value the directive use of power b. Workers in Mexico perceive a manager who involves them in a decision process as weak c. Political processes in organizations in different cultures likely mirror the culture's power orientation d. Scandinavian workers typically view a directive manager as having high power
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208. Pick the incorrect statement. a. Social astuteness: has high self-awareness, accurately perceives varying social situations b. Networking ability: deliberately gains positions in alliances and coalitions c. People cannot develop their political skill through coaching and management training d. Apparent sincerity: leaves an impression of openness and honesty (or the person is open and honest) Stress in Organizations 209. Each statement below is true about stress in modern living except a. The results of dysfunctional stress in organizations include high turnover and absenteeism b. Stress can occur when a person's environment presents excessive demands c. Stress occurs when something blocks a person's efforts to reach a goal d. Potential stressors are present only in people's work environments 210. Which of the following is not true about the general adaptation syndrome? a. Resistance is the stage at which the body tries to return to a normal state by adapting to the stressor b. Alarm is the stage at which the person prepares to fight or adjust to the stressor c. Only distress results from exposure to a stressor d. Exhaustion results after a person repeatedly experiences a stressor 211. Which of the following statements is false about the stress response? a. The physiological response differs from person to person b. Psychological responses to stressors can be positive or negative c. The physiological reaction to a stressor happens quickly d. Physiological changes prepare the body to face the stressor 212. Which of the following statements is not true about the physiological and psychological stress response? a. Breathing rate increases as the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system ready the body to face the stressor b. The psychological stress response raises the heart rate and blood pressure c. The general psychological response includes increased alertness and apprehension d. The physiological stress response secretes hormones that increase fatty acid and glucose levels in the bloodstream 213. Each statement below is true about some personality types included in the integrated model of stress except a. Type B personalities feel a sense of time urgency b. High hardiness personalities assess stressors optimistically c. Type A personalities are aggressive and can quickly become hostile d. Low hardiness personalities view stressful events as unchangeable disruptions to normal behavior 214. Which of the following statements is false? a. A person experienced with a stressor will have less distress than a person without such experience b. A physically fit person is less likely to feel the harmful effects of distress than a person who is less fit c. A low-sodium, low-fat diet cannot help a person's response to stressors d. Family medical histories of hypertension increase the chance of experiencing the ill effects of stress
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215. Burnout has all the following characteristics except a. Organizational results of burnout include negative work attitudes and increased absenteeism b. Burnout usually affects people in jobs with high levels of interpersonal interaction c. Burnout usually affects people in jobs that require helping others d. Those most affected by burnout derive a major part of their self-esteem from their nonwork activities 216. Pick the incorrect statement about stress management strategies. a. Stress recuperation strategies help a person bounce back from stress with methods that are not physically harmful b. Regular aerobic exercise helps a person recover from stressful life events c. Avoiding stressors, such as a crowded shopping mall, is a form of stress reduction d. Relaxation training is a stress resilience strategy 217. Which of the following is false about working in another country? a. Culture shock can be particularly stressful for spouses of expatriates b. Repatriates do not experience stress upon returning home c. The longer the stay in another country, the more stressful d. Relocation of the entire family contributes to the stress of an overseas assignment 218. Ethical issues about stress in organizations include each of the following except a. Managers are not required to prepare employees for stressful organizational change b. Organizations may consider offering career counseling as a means of stress management if there is poor person environment fit c. Organizations can give accurate information about the organization before hiring potential employees d. The physical environment can present many stressors 219. Pick the incorrect statement pair about stress management. a. Individual stress resilience strategy; weight control, diet, and physical exercise b. Organizational stress recuperation strategy; exercise center available to employees at their workplace c. Individual stress recuperation strategy; avoiding events that cause distress d. Organizational stress reduction strategies; training to improve employees job-related skills 220. Pick the incorrect statement about stressors. a. Work stressors: deadlines, work overload, shift work, job security, and the physical environment b. Nonwork stressors: financial problems, relocation, and dual careers c. Different people perceive the same objects or events as stressors d. Life transition stressors: death of a loved one, divorce, or children leaving home 221. Pick the incorrect statement. a. Removing the stressor is a behavioral response b. Stressful situations usually give people much time to choose among the behavioral responses in the integrated model of stress c. Changing the stressor is a behavioral response d. Leaving the stressor is a behavioral response
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222. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about distress and eustress results in the integrated model of stress? a. Behavioral results of distress: high levels of smoking, drug use, appetite disorders, proneness to accidents, and violence, and decreased job performance b. People do not differ in sources of eustress and distress c. Medical results of distress: increases in smoking and drug use can cause heart problems or a stroke d. Behavioral result of eustress: personal growth and development from a promotion at work 223. Pick the incorrect statement about the psychological demands and decision latitude model. a. Job decision latitude includes job skills and decision authority b. Job demands include the amount of work and the pace of work c. Keeping up the work pace and getting work done on time produce little anxiety in people d. Stress results when a job is low in decision latitude and high in demands Organizational Design 224. Which of the following is incorrect about organizational design? a. Organizational design is the way managers structure their organization to reach its goals b. A goal of organizational design is to get information to the right places for effective decision making c. Organizational charts show all aspects of the formal and informal design of an organization d. Organizational design includes the different ways organizations divide their work and allocate duties and tasks 225. Which of the following statements is false about the contingency factors of organizational design? a. The technical process is the system an organization uses to produce its services and products b. Strategies describe organizational goals and ways of reaching them c. The external environment of an organization includes customers, suppliers, and government regulators d. Most modern organizations are closed systems 226. Pick the incorrect statement about an organization's external environment. a. We can describe an organization's external environment with two dimensions: simple to complex and static to dynamic b. The dimensions of simple to complex and static to dynamic imply the degree of environmental uncertainty facing the organization c. A dynamic external environment features many changing events d. A simple static external environment presents high uncertainty to an organization 227. Which of the following statements is false about organization size? a. Small organizations have a narrower span of control than large organizations b. Large organizations have more structured work activities than small organizations c. Large organizations have fewer management levels than small organizations d. Large organizations can have more diverse activities that require more coordination than small organizations
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228. An organization designed by function has all the following characteristics except a. The strategy is to produce a few products for a well-defined market b. It has many competitors c. The external environment is stable with little uncertainty d. Because of standardized products or services, an organization design by function applies its technical process repeatedly, according to standard procedures 229. Which of the following statements is false about the specific forms of organizational design? a. A hybrid organizational design combines division and matrix forms b. An organizational design based on divisions decentralizes around products, services, or customers c. An organizational design by function groups tasks according to their activities, such as accounting, finance, manufacturing, and the like d. Organizations use a matrix design when two environmental sectors demand management attention 230. Each of the following statements is true about self-managing work teams except a. Organizations often become more nimble and responsive when they use self-managing teams b. Self-managing work teams let managers flatten their organizations by removing management levels c. Teams do not use functional differences in thinking to get more creative solutions to problems d. Building self-managing teams uses decentralization to move decision making to the teams 231. Which of the following statements is false about virtual organizations? a. There is high interdependence among network members b. The number of elements in a virtual organization is defined by skills and resources needed to reach the goal of the network c. A company that lacks a particular resource enters an agreement with a company that has that resource d. Virtual organizations feature permanent networks 232. Each statement below is true about some international aspects of organizational design except a. Matrix organizations are acceptable in countries that avoid ambiguity b. The international context increases an organization's environmental complexity because of differences in labor law, consumer preferences, economics, and the like c. Computer technology lets a virtual organization have network members in almost any country of the world d. Functional and divisional organizational designs are consistent with the cultural values of countries that want to avoid uncertainty and accept hierarchical differences in power 233. Which of the following is not an ethical issue related to organizational form that managers must face? a. Matrix organizations often produce conflict and ambiguity b. Managers can affect their external environment through lobbying efforts c. The amount of change required by moving to some organizational forms can induce stress in employees d. Changes to the technical process can also induce stress
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234. Which of the following statements is true about the generic forms of organizational design? a. Defender organizations work well in changing environments b. Analyzer organizations have features that distinctly differ from those of defender and prospector organizations c. Reactor organizations have a well-balanced configuration of strategy and external environment d. Organic organizations work well in uncertain environments 235. Each of the following statements about technical process as a contingency factor of organizational design is true except a. Technical processes vary in degree of interdependence within the process b. Modern manufacturing technologies let managers move decision authority to low organizational levels c. An organization's technical process does not affect inputs to the organization d. Routine technologies usually have centralized decision-making processes 236. Pick the incorrect observation about strategy as a contingency factor of organizational design. a. Strategy follows structure: Managers create strategy within the environment of an organization's design b. An organization's strategy specifies only short-term goals c. Structure follows strategy: Managers create strategy from their assessment of many forces and then change the organization's design d. Structure follows strategy: An organization's design helps managers carry out the strategy 237. Pick the incorrect statement about organizational design by division. a. Organizations rarely evolve from a functional design to a divisional form b. Strength: easily adapts to differences in products, services, and clients c. Weakness: loss of economies of scale because of duplication of functions such as accounting and purchasing d. Strength: high visibility of products, services, and customers in a divisional structure 238. Pick the incorrect observation on the hybrid form of organizational design. a. Weakness: high administrative overhead if the staff at corporate headquarters expands without control b. Strength: economies of scale are possible in some functional areas c. The hybrid form of organizational design keeps all the weaknesses of the functional and divisional designs d. The centralized functions often are the costly ones for the organization 239. All but one of the following observations on matrix organizational design are correct. Which is the incorrect one? a. Condition for choosing a matrix organizational design: high uncertainty within multiple external environmental sectors b. Weakness: ambiguity caused by dual authority relationships c. Matrix organizations feature low conflict potential d. Strength: responsive and flexible; efficiently uses costly resources
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Organizational Change and Development 240. Which of the following statements is false about organizational change? a. Pressures for organizational change will drop in the future b. Organizational change involves movement from the organization's present state to a target future state c. Managers need to know how to manage change and how to deliberately change an organization d. People and organizations often resist organizational change 241. Which of the following statement pairs is incorrect about forces for and against organizational change? a. Internal force, employees b. External force, threat of acquisition c. External force, slow decision processes d. Internal force, felt conflict or stress 242. Which of the following statements is false about unplanned and planned organizational change? a. Unplanned change happens when pressures for change overwhelm an organization b. Planned change is a systematic effort to move a subsystem or an entire organization to a new state c. A change agent guides the change process, helping managers with planned organizational change d. Planned change typically moves forward smoothly 243. Each statement below is true about the evolutionary model of organizational change except a. Evolutionary change features gradual adaptation of an organization to changes in its external environment b. Organizational change moves through the phases of change without repeating an earlier phase c. Organizational change happens in phases: developing a need for change, moving the organization to the new state, and stabilizing the change d. Each phase blends into the next phase; the phases have no distinct boundaries 244. Pick the incorrect statement about aspects of the revolutionary model of organizational change. a. During equilibrium periods, an organization moves steadily toward its goals b. Deep structures are temporary features of an organization's design c. Revolutionary periods feature feverish change activities d. Dissatisfaction with an organization's performance can trigger a revolutionary period 245. Which of the following statements is false about resistance to change? a. Coercive approaches quickly reduce resistance b. Employees can resist change because they have a low tolerance for change c. Managers can use resistance to change as a reason to get more information d. Employees can resist change because they distrust the change agent 246. Which of the following is not true of organizational development? a. Organizational development is a short-term, systematic, and prescriptive approach to organizational change b. Organizational development builds mechanisms that let members get feedback about the state of the organization c. Feedback about the state of the organization encourages all members to focus on continuous improvement d. Organizational development tries to create a flexible organization
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247. All the following characterize the feedback phase of organizational development except a. The consultant offers a preliminary diagnosis of the client system b. Discussions during the feedback meeting only focus on the consultant's preliminary diagnosis c. The consultant and organization members collaboratively arrive at a diagnosis d. There typically are a limited number of feedback meetings 248. Which of the following statements is incorrect about organizational development interventions? a. Human process interventions focus on processes such as communication, decision making, and conflict in organizations b. Structural and technological interventions focus on organizational design and bringing new technology into the organization c. Strategy interventions focus on maintaining the organization's existing strategy d. Human resource interventions target the personnel practices of the organization 249. Which of the following is not true about ethical dilemmas in organizational development? a. Organizational development consultants may misrepresent their capabilities and skills when helping the client system solve its problems b. Ethical dilemmas in organizational development have little negative effect on programs and interventions c. Managers in the client system may misrepresent themselves and the nature of their problems d. All data collected must be treated confidentially 250. Which of the following statements is false about leadership and organizational change? a. A vision offers a view of the future b. An effective vision is future oriented and compelling c. A person with the leadership mystique can build a power base for organizational change d. Managers change organizations 251. Each of the following statements is true about international aspects of organizational change and development except a. Russian managers prefer having a clear plan to which everyone can commit b. People in Scandinavian countries accept more uncertainty than people in southern Europe c. French managers view organizational change as directly following from leadership and influence, not from a manipulative perspective d. The assumptions and values of organizational development consultants likely reflect the cultural values of the intellectual roots of organizational development (United States, UK, northern Europe, Scandinavia)
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ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

ORGANAISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR BY S.SUNDARESAN/AP(SRG)/TXT/KCT/CBE

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