VISIONIAS

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION
GENERAL STUIDES (P) ABHYAAS TEST-3 – 2881 (2019)

Q 1.B
 The Preamble in its present form reads:
―We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:JUSTICE, Social,
Economic and Political;LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;EQUALITY of status
and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual
and the unity and integrity of the Nation;IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day
of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS
CONSTITUTION‖.
 ‗To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India‘ is a fundamental duty
mentioned under Article 51A.

Q 2.B
 Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: Western disturbances (WD) is an extra-
tropical storm which originates in the Mediterranean region. It travels from the western to the eastern
direction. It is associated with rainfall and snowfall in the north and north-west India. Duststorm is
a meteorological phenomenon common in arid and semi-arid regions. Dust storms arise when a gust
front or other strong wind blows loose sand and dirt from a dry surface. Fine particles are transported by
saltation and suspension, a process that moves soil from one place and deposits it in another. Western
Disturbances carry high-velocity winds that agitate atmosphere and aggravate dust-storm
conditions in North-westen parts of India.
 Statement 3 is not correct: It helps to sustain Himalayan glaciers and the local ecology and provide
nourishment to winter crops. It can also cause strong winds that help disperse suspended pollutants in the
smog-filled cities of the region. Rabi Crops are greatly influenced by the arrival of western disturbances.
It brings cloudiness and precipitation in many parts of north India during rabi season. Rabi crops,
particularly wheat crop, sown under rainfed conditions is greatly benefited by the arrival of WD.

Q 3.B
 Global Forest Watch is a dynamic online forest monitoring and alert system that empowers people
everywhere to better manage forests.
 Global Forest Watch (GFW) is free and simple to use, enabling anyone to create custom maps, analyze
forest trends, subscribe to alerts, or download data for their local area or the entire world. Users can also
contribute to GFW by sharing data and stories from the ground via GFW‘s crowdsourcing tools, blogs,
and discussion groups.
 It is an initiative of the World Resources Institute (WRI), with partners including Google, USAID,
the University of Maryland (UMD), Esri, Vizzuality and many other academic, non-profit, public,
and private organizations.

Q 4.B
 The urban culture of the Bronze Age found in Harappa in Pakistani Punjab was a path-breaking discovery.
Nearly 2800 Harappan sites have so far been identified in the subcontinent. Some of the most important of
the cities were Harappa, Mohen-jodaro, Chanhu-Daro, Lothal, Kalibangan, Banawali, etc. Therefore it is
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 evident that Indus Valley Civilization reached to the level of urbanization. Although agriculture was
known to Rigvedic Aryans still they were predominantly living pastoral life. There are so many
references to the cow and the bull in the Rig Veda that the Rigvedic people can be called a predominantly
pastoral people. Predominantly they were not living in the villages. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
 Mesopotamia was located thousands of miles away from the Harappan heartland. Yet these two
civilizations had some kind of a trade linkage. In Mohenjodaro three cylinder seals of the Mesopotamian
type have been found. The Rig Veda mentions several crafts and artisans but we do not have clear
evidence of the existence of regular trade. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 As the Aryans had no script of their own, the hymns of the Rig Veda were memorized and passed on
orally from one generation to the other before being recorded in written form at a much later stage.
Harappan script: most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs. Although the script
remains undeciphered to date, it was evidently not alphabetical (where each sign stands for a vowel ora
consonant) as it has just too many signs –somewhere between 375 and 400. It is apparent that the script
was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on the left as
if the engraver began working from the right and then ran out of space. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
 Brahmi script was first deciphered by James Princep in 1837. Most of the Brahmi script is found in
Ashokan inscriptions.

Q 5.C
 Tax Expenditures do not relate to the expenditure incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes.
Rather it refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates, or the opportunity cost of
giving exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals credits etc. to the taxpayers. Tax expenditures
indicate how much more revenue could have been collected by the Government if not for such
measures. In other words, it shows the extent of indirect subsidy enjoyed by the tax payers in the
country. Therefore an increase in tax expenditure indicates an increase in indirect subsidy given by
the Government.
 Tax expenditure leads to lesser amount of actual tax collected which may in turn reduce the Tax-to-
GDP ratio. Also, as the government forgoes tax revenue, it may push the government to make more
public borrowings and increase in public debt in order to meet government's expenditure
requirments.
 Additionally, if people are paying less taxes, their personal disposable income may rise as personal
disposable income is calculated by subtracting personal tax and non-tax payments from personal
income. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
 Tax expenditures or the revenue forgone are sanctioned in the tax laws. A statement of the same, (as far as
Federal / Union / Central Government is concerned) is presented to the Parliament at the time of Union
Budget by way of a separate budget document titled ―Statement of Revenue Foregone‖. It lists the
revenue impact of tax incentives or tax subsidies that are part of the tax system of the Central
Government.

Q 6.D
 The ‗8888‘ uprising (or the eighth day of August 1988) is one of Myanmar‘s most important historic
days in the context of the pro-democracy movement. ‗8888‘ was a people‘s movement that challenged
the then ruling Burma Socialist Programme Party‘s grip on political, economic and social affairs which
led the country into extreme poverty. The protests and the bloody crackdown gave rise to the National
League for Democracy (NLD), a political party which paved the way for the current Myanmar State
Counsellor, Aung San Suu Kyi‘s entry into politics and for the pro-democracy movement to continue.
 The objective of ‗8888‘ was two-fold: to push for the transfer of power from the military to a civilian
leadership and a change in the political system from an authoritarian regime to a multi-party democracy.
 About Myanmar:
o It is located in the western portion of mainland Southeast Asia. It is shaped like a kite with a long
tail that runs south along the Malay Peninsula.
o The country is bordered by China to the north and northeast, Laos to the east, Thailand to the
southeast, the Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal to the south and southwest, Bangladesh to the
west, and India to the northwest.
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 o Myanmar slopes from north to south, from an elevation of 19,296 feet (5,881 metres) at Mount
Hkakabo (the country‘s highest peak) in the extreme north to sea level at the Irrawaddy (Ayeyarwady)
and Sittang (Sittoung) river deltas. The mountain ranges generally run from north to south.
o It contains the sources of several of Asia‘s great rivers, including the Irrawaddy, which rises and
flows wholly within Myanmar, and the Salween (Thanlwin), which rises to the north in China.

Q 7.B
 Statement 1 is not correct: Prebiotics are non-digestible food ingredients that beneficially affect the host
by selectively stimulating the growth and activity of one or a limited number of bacteria in the colon.
Probiotics are live bacteria and yeast which beneficially affects the host animals by improving its
intestinal microbial balance.
 Statement 2 is correct: To date, all known prebiotics are carbohydrate compounds and are known to
resist digestion in the human small intestine and reach the colon where they are fermented by the gut
microflora.
 Statement 3 is correct: Live probiotic cultures are part of fermented dairy products. Some fermented
products that contain lactic acid bacteria (LAB) include - vegetables such as pickled vegetables, and dairy
products such as yogurt, kefir and buttermilk.

Q 8.D
 Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920–22, was organized by Mahatma Gandhi. It was one of Gandhi‘s first
organized acts of large-scale satyagraha. The movement was to be nonviolent and to consist of Indians
resigning their titles; boycotting government educational institutions, the courts, government service,
foreign goods, and elections; and, eventually, refusing to pay taxes.
 The dramatic event during the movement was the visit of the Prince of Wales which began on 17
November 1921. The day the Prince landed in Bombay was observed as a day of hartal all over the
country. In Bombay, Gandhiji himself addressed a mammoth meeting in the compound of the
Elphinstone Mill owned by the nationalist Umar Shobhani and lighted a huge bonfire of foreign cloth.
 During the movement in May 1921, the British government had tried, through the Gandhi-Reading talks,
to persuade Gandhiji to ask the Ali brothers to withdraw from their speeches those passages that contained
suggestions of violence; this was an attempt to drive a wedge between the Khilafat leaders and Gandhiji,
but it failed.
 Gandhiji‘s decision to withdraw the non-cooperation movement was due to the violence at Chauri
Chaura.
 Hence all the three events were related to the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Q 9.B
 To ensure that there is no fraudulent or multiple voting, the Election Commission of India uses an
indelible ink (purple coloured) called the voter's ink. It serves as an indication that the voter has already
cast his/her vote.
 It is applied on the left-hand index finger of the voter (It may be noted that in the case of proxy,
marking of the indelible ink under rule 37 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 will be done on the
middle finger of the left hand of the proxy). by the second Polling Officer in a polling booth. Once
applied, the ink cannot be removed by any chemical, detergent, soap or oil for several months. The ink is
used in all elections across the country, including the ongoing Lok Sabha polls. In fact, for this General
Election, the Election Commission ordered 26 lakh bottles of indelible ink ahead of polling at the cost of
Rs 33 crore. In 2014, the election panel bought 21.5 lakh phials — 4.5 lakh fewer than this year's
purchase.
 This ink is supplied by the Mysore Paints and Varnish Limited (MPVL), an undertaking of the
Government of Karnataka. The MPVL specializes in manufacturing and supplying indelible ink. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.
 The ink typically contains silver nitrate which stains the skin on exposure to ultraviolet light (one of the
components of sunlight), leaving a mark that is impossible to wash off and is removed over time as fresh
skin cells replace the dead ones. The concentration of silver nitrate varies from 7 per cent to 25 per cent. It
does not contain copper sulphate. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
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  In 1962, the Election Commission, in collaboration with the law ministry, National Physical Laboratory
and National Research Development Corporation, had made an agreement with Mysore Paints for the
supply of indelible ink for the Lok Sabha and Assembly elections. Since then, it has been supplying the
ink for all elections in India.

Q 10.B
 Statement 2 is not correct: International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor or ITER ("The Way" in
Latin) is one of the most ambitious energy projects in the world today. In southern France, 35 nations
are collaborating to build the world's largest tokamak, a magnetic fusion device that has been designed
to prove the feasibility of fusion as a large-scale and carbon-free source of energy based on the same
principle that powers our Sun and stars. The experimental campaign that will be carried out at ITER is
crucial to advancing fusion science and preparing the way for the fusion power plants of tomorrow.
Thousands of engineers and scientists have contributed to the design of ITER since the idea for an
international joint experiment in fusion was first launched in 1985.
 The ITER Members—China, the European Union, India, Japan, South Korea, Russia and the
United States—are now engaged in a 35-year collaboration to build and operate the ITER experimental
device, and together bring fusion to the point where a demonstration fusion reactor can be
designed. Hence statement 3 is correct.
 The machine has been designed specifically to produce 500 MW of fusion power. The world record
for fusion power is held by the European tokamak JET. In 1997, JET produced 16 MW of fusion power
from a total input heating power of 24 MW (Q=0.67). ITER is designed to produce a ten-fold return on
energy (Q=10), or 500 MW of fusion power from 50 MW of input heating power. ITER will not capture
the energy it produces as electricity, but—as first of all fusion experiments in history to produce net
energy gain—it will prepare the way for the machine that can. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Q 11.B

Q 12.B
 The words ‗council of ministers‘ and ‗cabinet‘ are often used interchangeably though there is a definite
distinction between them. They differ from each other in respects of composition, functions, and role.
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  Cabinet is a smaller body consisting of 15 to 20 ministers. It includes the cabinet ministers only. Thus, it
is a part of the council of ministers. It meets, as a body, frequently and usually once in a week to
deliberate and take decisions regarding the transaction of government business. Thus, it has collective
functions.
 The word Cabinet was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act. Thus, it did not find a place in the original text of the Constitution. Article 352
only defines the cabinet saying that it is ‗the council consisting of the prime minister and other
ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75‘ and does not describe its powers and
functions. In other words, its role in our politico-administrative system is based on the conventions
of parliamentary government as developed in Britain.
 The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not
exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by the 91st
Amendment Act of 2003.
 The fundamental principle underlying the working of the parliamentary system of government is the
principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha
for all their acts of omission and commission.

Q 13.C
 Some major political developments of medieval India are:
o c.1200-1300: Establishment of the Delhi Sultanate (1206)
o c.1300-1400: Establishment of the Vijayanagara Empire;
o Establishment of the Bahmani kingdom (1347); Sultanates in Jaunpur, Kashmir and Madura
o c.1400-1500: Establishment of the Gajapati kingdom of Orissa (1435); Establishment of the
Sultanates of Gujarat and Malwa; Emergence of the Sultanates of Ahmadnagar, Bijapur and Berar
(1490)
o c.1500-1600: Conquest of Goa by the Portuguese (1510); Collapse of the Bahmani
kingdom, Emergence of the Sultanate of Golconda (1518); Establishment of the Mughal empire
by Babur (1526)
 The Bahmani kingdom was a Muslim state (1347–1518) in the Deccan in India. The sultanate was
founded in 1347 by Alā al-Dīn Bahman Shah, who was supported by other military leaders in rebellion
against the sultan of Delhi, Muḥammad bin Tughluq. The Bahmani capital was Aḥsanabad (now
Gulbarga) between 1347 and 1425 and Muḥammadabad (now Bidar) thereafter. Bahmani attained the
peak of its power during the vizierate (1466–81) of Maḥmud Gawan.
 The first part of India to fall to European colonial rule was Goa in 1510. Its conquest was the work of
Portuguese viceroy Afonso de Albuquerque, who recognized that the port-city would make a perfect
permanent base for Portugal‘s navy and commerce in the Indian Ocean. Goa was destined to remain under
colonial rule until 1961; it was the last—as well as the first—European possession in India.
 Quṭb Shahi dynasty, (1518–1687), were Muslim rulers of the kingdom of Golconda in the southeastern
Deccan of India, one of the five successor states of the Bahmanī kingdom. The founder was Quli Quṭb
Shah, a Turkish governor of the Bahmani eastern region, which largely coincided with the preceding
Hindu state of Warangal. Quṭb Shah declared his independence in 1518 and moved his capital to
Golconda. Toward the end of the century, Muḥammad Quli Quṭb Shah built a new capital at Hyderabad, a
few miles away. Golconda took part in the overthrow of Vijayanagar (1565) and thereafter was mainly
concerned with expansion along the coastal Carnatic (Karnakata). In 1687 the Mughal emperor
Aurangzeb annexed the kingdom.
 The first Battle of Panipat was a decisive battle in history as it laid the foundation of Mughal Empire for
coming centuries. This battle was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi on April 21,1526 on the
plains of Panipat. Babur defeated Lodhi, who was killed in the battle.

Q 14.C
 Indian Council of Medical research has established ‗Malaria Elimination Research Alliance-India
(MERA-India)‘ which is a conglomeration of partners working on malaria control. The principal
activity of the Alliance is to prioritize, plan, conduct, scale up and translate relevant research in a
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 coordinated and combinatorial way in order to have a tangible impact of this research on the population at
risk for malaria.
 The purpose of MERA India is to identify, articulate, prioritize and respond to the research needs
of the country to eliminate malaria from India by 2030. MERA India will facilitate trans-institutional
coordination and collaboration around a shared research agenda which responds to not only to
programmatic challenges and addresses gaps in available tools but also proactively contribute to targeted
research. MERA India aims to harness and reinforce research in coordinated and combinatorial
ways in order to achieve tangible impact on malaria elimination.
 Malawi government has launch the world‘s first malaria vaccine, named Mosquirix, as pilot
programme. The country is the first of three in Africa in which the vaccine, known as RTS,S, will be
made available to children up to 2 years of age; Ghana and Kenya will introduce the vaccine in near
future.
 Thirty years in the making, RTS,S is the first, and to date the only, vaccine that has demonstrated it can
significantly reduce malaria in children. In clinical trials, the vaccine was found to prevent approximately
4 in 10 malaria cases, including 3 in 10 cases of life-threatening severe malaria.
 Mosquirix, the drug has been developed by British pharmaceutical giant GlaxoSmithKline in partnership
with the PATH Malaria Vaccine Initiative.

Q 15.B
 US secondary sanctions were reimposed against the purchase and Iranian crude oil, petroleum
products, liquefied gases and petrochemicals in November 2018. Eight countries including India
and China were granted waivers called Significant Reduction Exemptions for a limited period.
 In a move that is intended to bring Iran‘s oil exports to zero, denying the Iranian regime its principal
source of revenue, United States has recently decided not to reissue Significant Reduction Exemptions
(SREs).
 India is the second biggest purchaser of Iranian oil after China.

Q 16.B
 Biosphere Reserve (BR) is an international designation by UNESCO for representative parts of
natural and cultural landscapes extending over a large area of terrestrial or coastal/marine
ecosystems or a combination thereof.
 BRs are designated to deal with one of the most important questions of reconciling the conservation of
biodiversity, the quest for economic and social development and maintenance of associated cultural
values. BRs are thus special environments for both people and nature and are living examples of how
human beings and nature can co-exist while respecting each others‘ needs.
 These areas are internationally recognized within the framework of UNESCO‘s Man and Biosphere
(MAB) programme, after receiving the consent of the participating country. The world‘s major
ecosystem types and landscapes are represented in this network.
 Biosphere reserves are required to fulfill three functions as prescribed by UNESCO, namely conservation,
sustainable development and logistic support.
 In order to facilitate cooperation, BRs are admitted into the International network by International
Coordinating Council (ICC) of the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO on the
request of the participating country subject to their fulfillment of prescribed criteria. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
 The BRs remain under the sole sovereignty of the concerned country/state where it is situated, and
participation in World Network is voluntary. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Delisting from international Network is done as an exception on the ground of violation of obligation for
conservation and sustainable development of Biosphere Reserves after consulting the concerned
Government.

Q 17.C
 The premier Chola port was Puhar (also known as Kaveripumpattinam), the major Pandya port
was Korkai, while Tondi and Muchiri were the important ports in the Chera kingdom.
 The advent of the early historical period in South India is generally dated to the 3rd century BC.
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  The early kingdoms of Tamilakam—the land between the Tirupati hills (Vengadam) and the southernmost
tip of the peninsula—emerged in rice-growing areas of rich agricultural potential.
 The principality of the Cholas in the lower Kaveri valley corresponded roughly to modern Tanjore and
Trichinopoly districts of Tamil Nadu, and had its capital at Uraiyur.
 The kingdom of the Pandyas in the valleys of the Tamraparni and Vaigai roughly correspond to modern
Tirunelveli, Madurai, Ramnad districts, and south Travancore and had its capital at Madurai.
 The Cheras on the Kerala coast had their capital at Karuvur, also known as Vanji. All these areas
participated in the flourishing trade networks of the time.
 Puhar(also known as Pumpuhar or Kaverippumpattinam) was the premier Chola port in early historical
times. Classical accounts refer to it as Khaberis or Camara. An entire Sangam collection—
the Pattinappalai—is devoted to a description of this place. There are references to its two bustling
markets laid out between the two sectors of the city, guarded by officers of the king, and to its inhabitants
who spoke different languages.
 Korkai was an important Pandya port, celebrated for its pearls in Sangam poems and Greek accounts.
The Arthashastra also refers to the pearl fisheries of Pandya country. There are reports of
NBPW(Northern Black Polished Ware) sherds from the site, and a radiocarbon date takes the beginning of
the settlement to as early as the 8th century BC. Pearl oysters found at various levels in the excavations
confirm literary references to Korkai as an important centre of pearl fishing.
 Muchiri—the Muziris of classical accounts—was the foremost port in the Chera kingdom. The Periplus
speaks of cargo-laden ships landing here from Arabia and Egypt, and gives long lists of imports and
exports. A 2nd century document known as the Vienna Papyrus records an agreement concerning the
transportation of goods between two merchants—one based in Alexandria, the other in Muchiri.

Q 18.D
 Statement 1 is correct: Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) programme has been
established by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES) by a resolution adopted at the tenth Conference of the Parties in 1997.
 Statement 2 is correct: The overall aim of MIKE is to provide the information needed for elephant range
States and the Parties to CITES to make appropriate management and enforcement decisions and to build
institutional capacity within the range States for the long-term management of their elephant populations.
MIKE aims to help range States improve their ability to monitor elephant populations, detect changes in
levels of illegal killing, and use this information to provide more effective law enforcement and strengthen
any regulatory measures required to support such enforcement.
 Statement 3 is correct: The largest number of MIKE-sites are in India. They are total 10 in number and
some of the major ones include Garo Hills Elephant Reserve, Mysore Elephant Reserve, Nilgiri Elephant
Reserve, Wayanad Elephant Reserve etc. There are currently 28 sites participating in the MIKE
programme in Asia, distributed across 13 countries: India has 10 sites, followed by two sites each in
Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar and Thailand, and one site each in Bangladesh,
Bhutan, China, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Viet Nam.

Q 19.A
 The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) was constituted vide Government of India
Resolution dated 29th August, 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals
(DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to
ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices. It fix/ revise the prices of
controlled bulk drugs and formulations and to enforce prices and availability of the medicines in
the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995.
 The organization is also entrusted with the task of recovering amounts overcharged by manufacturers for
the controlled drugs from the consumers. It also monitors the prices of decontrolled drugs in order to
keep them at reasonable levels. National List of Essential Medicines contains 376 medicines.
Criteria for inclusion into this list includes public health emergency, cost effective medicine etc.
Once a drug or medical device is included in NLEM, its price can be capped by NPPA. Recently,
NPPA capped the prices of knee implants and stents. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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  Statement 2 is not correct: Bulk Drugs or APIs ( active pharmaceutical ingredients) are basically the
active raw materials used in a drug that gives it the therapeutic effect. They are used as raw materials by
the pharmaceutical industry. The Drugs ( Prices Control) Policy, 1995 defines "bulk drug" as: any
pharmaceutical, chemical, biological or plant product including its salts, esters, stereo-isomers and
derivatives, conforming to pharmacopoeial or other standards specified in the Second Schedule to
the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 , and which is used as such or as an ingredient in any
formulation.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under
Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the
National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act,1940 and rules 1945 have
entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for the regulation of drugs & cosmetics. It
envisages uniform implementation of the provisions of the Act & Rules made there under for ensuring the
safety, rights and well being of the patients by regulating the drugs and cosmetics. Under the Drugs and
Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, laying
down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country and
coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice with a
view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
CDSCO serves parallel function to the European Medicines Agency of the European Union, the PMDA
of Japan and the Food and Drug Administration of the United States. Within the CDSCO, the Drug
Controller General of India (DCGI) regulates pharmaceutical and medical devices, under the
gamut of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Q 20.D
 Paris-based Reporters Sans Frontieres (RSF), or Reporters Without Borders, is a non-profit
organization that works to document and combat attacks on journalists around the world. In its 2019
index, RSF finds that hatred of journalists has degenerated into violence, contributing to an increase in
fear around the world.
 The World Press Freedom Index 2019 is released annually by Reporters Without Borders. The
index is topped by Norway, while India has dropped two places on a global press freedom index to be
ranked 140th out of 180 countries in the annual analysis, with violent attacks in India leading to at least
six Indian journalists being killed in the line of their work last year.
Q 21.A
 Akshay Kumar Datta (15 July 1820 - 18 May 1886) was born in Chupi in Bardhaman. At the age of
fourteen he composed the poetry-book Ahangamohan.
 In 1839, he joined the Tattwabodhini Sabha and soon became its assistant secretary. In 1843, he was
appointed a teacher of the Tattwabodhini Pathsala.
 Tattwabodhini Patrika was published as mouthpiece of both the Tattwabodhini Sabha and Brahmo
Samaj. As first editor of the journal, he contributed substantially towards the development of prose
writing in Bengali.
 He was the first Bengali writer to seriously work for the propagation of a modern scientific outlook,
writing books on Physics and Geography in Bengali. He also wrote profusely on astronomy, mathematics
and geology.
 Akshay Kumar Datta was the first person in the Brahmo Samaj to boldly proclaim that the Vedas
were not infallible.
o He succeeded in convincing Debendranath Tagore in this respect and ultimately Brahmo Samaj
adopted the thinking that while it respected all religious scriptures it did not consider any as infallible.
 He did not bother to go by past precedents or religious sanctions in advocating widow remarriage
and opposing polygamy and child-marriage.
 His magnum opus was the two-part Bharatbarshiya Upasak Sampraday.
o Among others, Max Muller, Monier-Williams and Rajendralal Mitra were greatly impressed by his
profound scholarship, though not agreeing on all points.
 Deeply influenced by Francis Bacon, Isaac Newton, John Stuart Mill, Auguste Comte, Charles Darwin,
Thomas Henry Huxley and Ram Mohan Roy, he was among the first few men in modem India who had
presented an empiricist critique of the ancient Indian philosophies.
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Q 22.D
 Article 300 of the Constitution deals with the suits by or against the Government in India. It lays down
that the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and government of a
state may sue or be sued by the name of that state, eg, State of Andhra Pradesh or State of Uttar Pradesh
and so on. Thus, the Union of India and states are legal entities (juristic personalities) for purposes of
suits and proceedings, not the Government of the Union or government of states. Hence option 1 is
correct.
 An idol is considered as a juristic or legal person that is capable of having rights and duties. Besides
the Supreme Court, various high courts had also recognized the fact that a temple deity would be a
legal entity and even a devotee or regular worshipper could move the court on behalf of the
presiding deity. Hence option 2 is correct.
 The corporations or companies are considered as legal entities for judicial and taxation purposes. Hence
option 3 is correct.

Q 23.B
 Qualifications of Judges: A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the
following qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years, or (b) He
should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or (c) He
should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
 From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed minimum age for appointment as
a judge of the Supreme Court.
 Tenure of Judges: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court.
However, it makes the following three provisions in this regard:
o He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined
by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
o He can resign his office by writing to the president.
 Removal of Judges: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the
president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been
presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special
majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and a
majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). The grounds of
removal are two—proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Q 24.D
 The second phase of the FAME India scheme was recently notified by the government. It has an outlay of
Rs 10,000-crore to encourage adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles. The scheme is mainly for
vehicles used for commercial activities and public transport. However, privately owned registered
two wheelers are also covered under the scheme as a mass segment.
 To promote domestic electric vehicle manufacturing, the Indian government is offering incentives to both
ends of the automobile market – the makers and the buyer.
 The scheme is proposed to be implemented over a period of three years, with effect from April 1, 2019,
for faster adoption of electric mobility and development of its manufacturing ecosystem in the country.
 Under the FAME-II scheme following vehicles will be eligible for incentives:
o 10 lakh electric two-wheelers with a maximum ex-factory price of Rs 20,000 each.
o 5 lakh e-rickshaws having ex-factory price of up to Rs 5 lakh with an incentive of Rs 50,000 each.
o Buses with EV technology
o Electric, plug-in hybrid and strong hybrid four wheelers
o Electric three-wheelers including e-rickshaws and electric two-wheelers.
 To meet the qualifying criteria for demand incentives, a hybrid and electric vehicles, including its
variants, should be manufactured in India and have such percentage of localization as may be notified
from time to time.
 Only those vehicles which are registered under Central Motor Vehicles Rules shall be eligible for
the incentive.
 To meet the qualifying criteria for demand incentive, vehicle must be accompanied by atleast 3 year
comprehensive warranty including that of battery and have adequate facilities for after sales service
for the life of vehicle.
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Q 25.D
 About the Kaziranga National Park:
o Kaziranga protected area was established in 1904 and is located on the edge of the Eastern
Himalayan biodiversity hotspot.
o It is a UNESCO world heritage site.
o The park is home to large breeding populations of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer
other than the one-horned rhino.
o Kaziranga is recognized as an ‗Important Bird Area‘ by Birdlife International for the conservation
of avifaunal species.
o There are five ranges in the Eastern Assam Wildlife Division. These are Kaziranga (Kohora), Eastern
Range (Agaratoli), Western Range (Bagori), Burhapahar Range and Northern Range with
headquarters at Biswanath. Of these ranges, four are located on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra,
while the Northern Range is located on the north bank of the river.

Q 26.C
 The Union Territory of Puducherry comprises of four coastal regions namely Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe
and Yanam. Puducherry and Karaikal are situated on the East Coast of Tamil Nadu, Yanam in Andhra
Pradesh and Mahe on the West Coast in Kerala.
 The city of Puducherry is the Capital of this Union Territory. It lies on the east coast about 162 kms south
of Chennai (Madras) located on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal. There are no hills or forests
in this region. The major soil types found here are red ferralitic, black clay and coastal alluvial.

Q 27.B
 Insectivorous plants (Carnivorous plants) are those plants that derive some or most of their nutrients from
trapping and consuming animals or protozoans, typically insects and other arthropods.
 One of the most critical plant nutrients is nitrogen which is usually taken up by plants as nitrates. Nitrogen
is a nutrient that is easily leached out of soils. For this reason, the plants that live in these soils have
evolved into carnivorous plants that capture and digest insects as a means of obtaining nitrates. These
plants are usually associated with leached, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-
drained. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
 Five basic trapping mechanisms are found in carnivorous plants.
o Pitfall traps (pitcher plants) trap prey in a rolled leaf that contains a pool of digestive enzymes or
bacteria.
o Flypaper traps use a sticky mucilage.
o Snap traps utilize rapid leaf movements.

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 o Bladder traps suck in prey with a bladder that generates an internal vacuum.
o Lobster-pot traps force prey to move towards a digestive organ with inward pointing hairs.

Q 28.D
 Statement 1 is not correct: A water molecule contains two Hydrogen atoms and an Oxygen atom.
Hydrogen has three isotopes; protium (99.98%), deuterium and tritium. Protium has one electron and one
proton. Deuterium has a neutron in the nucleus in addition to the electron and the proton. Deuterium is as
twice as heavier than the most abundant Hydrogen atom. Heavy water contains a large proportion of
deuterium atoms than the usual Hydrogen atom. Therefore, its molecular weight and the density is
higher than the normal water.
 The hard water contains more minerals, especially Magnesium (Mg) and Calcium (Ca) than the normal
water.
 Statement 2 is not correct: Heavy water is not radioactive. It is an oxide of deuterium (D2O) which is
a stable isotope of hydrogen. The hardness of the hard water is greater than the hardness of the normal
water. Hard water does not cause any harmful effect on human health, but it causes so many additional
problems such as leaving white coloured deposits in cooking or boiling equipment, bathroom floors and in
water pipes.
 Statement 3 is not correct: Moderator is required in a thermal reactor to slow down the neutrons
produced in the fission reaction to 0.025 EV (thermal reaction) so that the chain reaction can be
sustained. A good moderator should have excellent slowing down power and low absorption cross-
section for neutrons. Different moderators normally in use are Heavy Water, Graphite, Beryllium and
Light water. Heavy Water is an excellent moderator and is used in Pressurized heavy-water reactor. Water
quality has a major effect on the integrity of piping in boiling water reactors (BWRs) and steam
generators in pressurized water reactors (PWRs). Hard water is not used in a nuclear power plant. The
reason is that any mineral impurities will become very radioactive and contaminate plant systems making
maintenance more expensive. Also, in BWRs, the mineral impurities would concentrate on the reactor
vessel and create huge (thousands of pounds) mineral deposits.The purest water possible, i.e. deionized
reactor grade water, is used in PWRs and BWRs.
 Tritium the third isotope of Hydrogen which is very rare is radioactive ( it has two neutrons and one
proton).

Q 29.D
 Increasing the CRR and SLR means that banks are required to park a greater amount of their assets with
the Central Bank. This reduces the bank's ability to lend to the clients. Thus, overall money supply in the
economy reduces.
 Reducing the fiscal deficit may signify that consumption expenditure has been reduced by the
government.
 Reverse Repo rate effect on inflation: If RBI increases Reverse Repo rate, it means RBI wants to
contraction of credit. When RBI gets loan from banks at high rate of interest, more and more banks will
supply to central bank because it is safe and earning is more. Supply of money in financial market will
decrease. Due to decrease in the supply of credit in the market, inflation rate will decrease. Therefore,
reducing the Reverse Repo Rate will have the opposite effect and lead to lesser money given to Central
bank and increased money supply in the economy. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 30.B
 Mahavira, (Sanskrit: ―Great Hero‖) also known as Vardhamana, (born c. 599 BCE traditional dating,
Kshatriyakundagrama, India—died 527 traditional dating, Pavapuri), Epithet of Vardhamana, was the last
of the 24 Tirthankaras (―Ford-makers,‖ i.e., saviours who promulgated Jainism), and the reformer of the
Jain monastic community. Mahavir was not the founder of Jainism. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
 The world, for the Jaina, is not created, maintained or destroyed by a personal deity, but functions only
according to universal law. The universe is eternal. Its existence is divided into an infinite number of
cycles, each consisting of a period of improvement ( utsarpini ) and one of decline (avasarpini ). Hence
statement 2 is correct.

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  Time, according to the Jains, is eternal and formless. It is understood as a wheel with 12 spokes (ara), the
equivalent of ages, six of which form an ascending arc and six a descending one. In the ascending arc
(utsarpini) humans progress in knowledge, age, stature, and happiness, while in the descending arc
(avasarpini) they deteriorate. The two cycles joined together make one rotation of the wheel of time,
which is called a Kalpa. These kalpas repeat themselves without beginning or end.

Q 31.D
 Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature
of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government. The parliamentary system
of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and
acts. The presidential system of government, on the other hand, is one in which the executive is not
responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts, and is constitutionally independent of the
legislature in respect of its term of office.
 The President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years (in American
Presidential system). He cannot be removed by the Congress except by impeachment for a grave
unconstitutional act. In most Presidential systems, the president has a fixed term of office. Elections are
held at regular times and cannot be triggered by a vote of confidence. In most Parliamentary systems,
the election is not held directly for the post of the head of the government. In India, the political party
which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed
as the Prime Minister by the President.
 The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation
of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok
Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means that the executive enjoys the right
to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system. In the American Presidential system, on the
other hand, the President cannot dissolve the House of Representatives—the lower house of the
Congress.

Q 32.D
 Though Securities and Exchange Board of India was established as an executive body, but on April 12,
1992, in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, it
became a statutory authority. The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance
with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 As per the SEBI Act, 1992, it shall be the duty of the Board to protect the interests of the investors in
securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market, by such measures as it
thinks fit".
 The Reserve Bank of India performs the supervisory function under the guidance of the Board for
Financial Supervision (BFS). The Board was constituted in November 1994 as a committee of the
Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India under the Reserve Bank of India (Board
for Financial Supervision) Regulations, 1994. The primary objective of BFS is to undertake
consolidated supervision of the financial sector comprising Scheduled Commercial and Co-
operative Banks, All India Financial Institutions, Local Area Banks, Small Finance Banks,
Payments Banks, Credit Information Companies, Non-Banking Finance Companies and Primary
Dealers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 According to the RBI Act, 1934, no Non-banking Financial company can commence or carry on business
of a non-banking financial institution without obtaining a certificate of registration from the RBI.
However, in terms of the powers given to the RBI, to obviate dual regulation, certain categories of NBFCs
which are regulated by other regulators are exempted from the requirement of registration with RBI viz.
Venture Capital Fund/Merchant Banking companies/Stock broking companies registered with
SEBI. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 33.B
 Global Energy Transition Index is released by World Economic Forum (WEF).In the latest published
index, India has moved up two places to rank 76th out of 115 economies.

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  It ranks economies on how well they are able to balance energy security and access with environmental
sustainability and affordability. The WEF index considers both the current state of the countries‘ energy
system and their structural readiness to adapt to future energy needs.
 The ‗transition readiness‘ component of the index has taken into account six individual indicators:
o capital and investment
o regulation and political commitment
o institutions and governance
o institutions and innovative business environment
o human capital and consumer participation
o energy system structure
 India‘s Performance- India is amongst the countries with high pollution levels and has a relatively high
CO2 intensity in its energy system.India has made significant strides to improve energy access in recent
years, and currently scores well in the area of regulation and political commitment towards energy
transition.However, India is the only amongst the five economies to improve its rank since last year.
 Global Rankings: Sweden remains on the top on this annual list and is followed by Switzerland and
Norway in the top three.

Q 34.B
 About Otter: They are carnivorous mammals and adapt to a variety of habitats ranging from marine to
freshwater environments. India is home to 3 of the 13 species of otters found worldwide. These are
o Eurasian Otter (Lutra lutra): IUCN: Near Threatened; CITES Appendix I; Wildlife (Protection) Act
Schedule II.
o Smooth-coated Otter (Lutra perspicillata): IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES Appendix II; Wildlife
(Protection) Act Schedule II.
o Small-clawed otter (Aonyx cinereus): IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES Appendix II; Wildlife (Protection)
Act Schedule II.
 Recently scientist confirmed the presence of Eurasian otter in Western Ghats. Though the Eurasian
otter has been recorded historically from the Western Ghats (Coorg in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu‘s
Nilgiri and Palani hill ranges), this is the first photographic and genetic confirmation of its presence
here. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
 For the first time, Uttar Pradesh is taking a census of otters in its protected areas. The exercise that began
in the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR).

Q 35.D
 To get Indian cooperation in the war effort, the viceroy announced the August Offer(August 1940). Its
main proposals were:
o The Congress rejected the August Offer.
o Dominion status as the objective for India.
o Expansion of viceroy's executive council.
o Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war.
o Indians would decide the constitution according to their social, economic and political conceptions,
subject to fulfillment of the obligation of the Government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties
with states, all India services.
o No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities.
 To secure the active cooperation of Indians in the Second World War, the British Government sent to
India a mission headed by a Cabinet minister Stafford Cripps in 1942. The main proposals of the
mission were as follows:
o An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations
with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international
bodies.
o After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.
Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional
representation and partly nominated by the princes.
o The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: any province not
willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and the new

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 constitution- making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of
power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities. In the meantime, defence of India would
remain in British hands and the governor-general‘s powers would remain intact.
 Nehru Report (1928): As an answer to Lord Birkenhead's challenge, an All Parties Conference met in
February 1928 and appointed a subcommittee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a
constitution. This was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the
country. The committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru, Subhash Bose, M.S.Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Imam,
Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The report was finalised by August 1928. The
recommendations of the Nehru Committee were unanimous except in one respect—while the majority
favoured the "dominion status" as the basis of the Constitution, a section of it wanted "complete
independence" as the basis, with the majority section giving the latter section liberty of action. Its major
recommendations were:
o Dominion status
o no separate electorates, but joint electorates with reserved seats for minorities.
o linguistic provinces.
o 19 fundamental rights including universal adult franchise and equal rights for women
o responsible government at centre and in provinces.
o the future link-up of British India with the princely states on a federal basis.
o the central government to be headed by a governor-general, appointed by the British Government but
paid out of Indian revenues, who would act on the advice of the central executive council responsible
to the Parliament.
o Complete dissociation of state from religion • Full protection to cultural and religious interests of
Muslims
Q 36.C
 Statement 1 is not correct: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(MGNREGA), also known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(MNREGS) is Indian legislation enacted on August 25, 2005. The MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee
for one hundred days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household
willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage. In the context
provided, Hari's brother meets all the criteria for eligibility.
 Statement 2 is not correct: The Central Government launched the ―Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao‖ scheme in
January 2015 with the aim of bringing about an overall positive change in the mindsets of the people and
to end discrimination against the girl child. Through this scheme, the government would sensitise the
citizens of this country towards the concerns of the girl child and women, thereby leading to the larger
goal of gender equality. Along with the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme, the government also
launched the ―Sukanya Samriddhi Account‖ programme.
 Despite being a small savings scheme, the Sukanya Samriddhi Account has the potential to have a
phenomenal impact on the lives and self esteem of young girls in the country. The scheme aims to ensure
a bright future for the girl children by facilitating their education and marriage expenses. Under the
scheme, a parent or legal guardian can open an account in the name of the girl child until she
attains the age of ten years. As per the government notification on the Scheme, the account can be
opened in any post office branch and designated public sector banks.
 Statement 3 is correct: The MSP is announced by the Government of India for 25 crops currently at the
beginning of each season viz. Rabi and Kharif. Following are the 25 crops:
o Rabi Crops: 1. Paddy 2. Jowar 3. Bajra 4.Maize 5.Ragi 6.Arhar (Tur) 7. Moong 8.Urad 9.Cotton
10.Groundnut 11. Sunflower seed 12.Soyabean 13. Sesamum 14.Nigerseed
o Kharif Crops: 15. Wheat 16.Barley 17. Gram 18. Masur 19.Rapeseed/Mustard 20.Safflower 21,Toria
o Other crops: 22. Copra 23.De-husked Coconut 24. Jute 25.Sugarcane

Q 37.C
 Lithium is a much sought rare metal for airplanes and batteries and its demand is expected to climb as
stricter emission rules compel the world to migrate from fossil fuel to battery-powered electric cars. With
big plans to converting all its vehicles to an electric platform by 2030, India is reaching out to the
`Lithium Triangle‘ in South America- Argentina, Bolivia and Chile seeking the rare metal Lithium to

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 realise its goal. Lithium is used in making batteries not only for the vehicles but is also required for
laptops, and mobile phones.
 Lithium Triangle is made up of South America‘s 3 largest lithium producers: Argentina, Chile and
Bolivia. The lithium triangle possesses 54% of the world‘s lightest metal. Almost a quarter of the
world‘s lithium can be found in Bolivia. It is also investing heavily in exploration and mining operations.
However, production lags behind both Argentina and Chile.

Q 38.C
 The term "Irish Backstop" is in news in the context of BREXIT.
 In 1998, Britain and Ireland made the Good Friday Agreement to end 30 years of violence over whether
Northern Ireland should stay with British or join the Irish Republic. With both states in the EU, that ended
checks along a 500-km (300-mile) land border. But Britain leaving the EU single market and customs
union would, in principle, mean checkpoints that would be targets for militants.
 Ireland and the rest of the EU want a ―backstop‖ insurance policy. It says that the UK will follow many
EU rules ―unless and until‖ ―alternative arrangements‖ ensure no hard border. The backstop is a position
of last resort, to maintain an open border on the island of Ireland in the event that the UK leaves
the EU without securing an all-encompassing deal. At present, goods and services are traded between
the two jurisdictions on the island of Ireland with few restrictions. The UK and Ireland are currently part
of the EU single market and customs union, so products do not need to be inspected for customs and
standards. But, after Brexit, all that could change - the two parts of Ireland could be in different customs
and regulatory regimes, which could mean products being checked at the border. The UK government
does not want this to happen. The EU has also said it does not want any hardening of the border.

Q 39.A
 Statement 1 is correct: Himalayas are a mountain system and comprise a series of ranges running more
or less parallel to one another. Himalayas are supposed to have emerged out of the Himalayan geosyncline
i.e. the Tethys Sea in three different phases following one after the another.
 Statement 2 is not correct: The Main Central Thrust (MCT) Zone separates the Higher Himalayas in the
north from lesser Himalayas in the south. The Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) Zone is a reverse fault of
great dimensions which extends all the way from Assam to Punjab and serves to separate the outer
Himalayas from the lesser Himalayas. The Main Frontal Fault/Thrust is a series of reverse faults that
demarcates the boundary of the Shivalik from the alluvial expanse of the Indo-Gangetic plains. Indus-
Yarlung Tsangpo suture is a tectonic suture in southern Tibet and across the north margin of the
Himalayas resulting from the collision between the Indian plate and the Eurasian plate.
 Statement 3 is not correct: An antecedent stream is a stream that maintains its original course and
pattern despite the changes in underlying rock topography. Himalayan rivers are antecedent in nature and
hence, Indus and Sutlej rivers form antecedent drainage in Himalaya.

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Q 40.B
 The Constitution lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is
so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs
disqualification under the defection law:
o if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the
House;
o if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party
o if any independently elected member joins any political party and if any nominated member joins any
political party after the expiry of six months.
 Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding
officer of the House. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Originally, the tenth schedule provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be
questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this
provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court and the high courts. It held that the presiding officer while deciding a question under the Tenth
Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal is subject to judicial
review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc. But, the court rejected the contention that the vesting
of adjudicatory powers in the presiding officer is by itself invalid on the ground of political bias.
 A member of either House of a parliament/state legislature belonging to any political party who is
disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister
(Article 75(1)(b)/Article 164). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Q 41.B
 The National Social Assistance Programme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Government of
India that provides financial assistance to the elderly, widows and persons with disabilities in the
form of social pensions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 It is a welfare programme being administered by the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence statement
2 is not correct.
 This programme is being implemented in rural areas as well as urban areas. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
 NSAP represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles of State
Policy enshrined in the Constitution of India which enjoins upon the State to undertake within its means a
number of welfare measures. In particular, Article 41 of the Constitution of India directs the State to
provide public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in
other cases of undeserved want within the limit of its economic capacity and development. It is in
accordance with these noble principles that the Government of India started NSAP.

Q 42.B
 Asia-Pacific Forest Invasive Species Network (APFISN) is a cooperative alliance of the 34 member
countries in the Asia- Pacific Forestry Commission (APFC) - a statutory body of the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
 It has been established as a response to the immense costs and dangers posed by invasive species to the
sustainable management of forests in the Asia-Pacific region.
 It has the following objectives:
o Raises awareness of forest invasive species (FIS) throughout the Asia-Pacific region. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
o Exchanges and shares information on FIS among member countries
o Facilitates access to technical expertise, research results and training and education opportunities
o Strengthens capacities of member countries to conduct research, manage FIS and prevent new
incursions
o Develop strategies for regional cooperation and collaboration in combating threats posed by FIS
 Asia-Pacific Forestry Commission (APFC)Asia-Pacific Forestry Commission (APFC), created in 1949, is
one of the six FAO Regional Forestry Commissions. APFC is a forum for advising and taking action on

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 key forestry issues in a region of diversity and rapid change. The Commission meets every two years to
review progress, discuss problems and set new agendas.
 Among 34 countries, most of the members are from the Asia Pacific Region including India. Besides,
there are members beyond the Asia Pacific Region such as France. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 43.B
 An important landmark in the cultural history of medieval India was the silent revolution in society
brought about by a galaxy of socio-religious reformers, a revolution known as the Bhakti Movement.
 The movement in Maharashtra witnessed mass participation by different social groups.
o The Varkari Maratha saints developed a new method of religious instruction, i.e. Kirtan and
the Nirupana.
o The Maratha movement contributed to the flowering of Marathi literature. These saints used popular
dialect which paved the way for transformation of Marathi into a literary language.
o The literature of the Varkari school gives some idea about the plebeian character of the movement. It
addressed itself to the problems of the Kunbis (farmers), Vanis (traders) and the artisans, etc.
o M.G. Ranade points out that this movement led to the development of vernacular literature and
upliftment of lower castes, etc.
 The Gaudia Vaishnav movement and the Chaitanya movement (neo-Vaishnav movement) which derived
its inspiration from the life and teachings of Sri Chaitanya had a tremendous impact on the social,
religious and cultural life of the people of Assam, Bengal and Orissa. The people were not only
influenced by his message but began to regard him as an incarnation of God.
 The two important currents of Bhakti that impacted the lives of a very large section of society in
medieval Karnataka have been the Virasaiva and the Haridasa movement.
o The Haridasas were of Vaishnavite persuasion.
o They presented two groups Vyasakuta, who were required to be proficient in the Vedas, Upanishads
and other Darshanas, and the Dasakuta, which merely conveyed the message of Madhvacharya
through Kannada language to the people.

Q 44.A
 Quick Response code, often abbreviated as QR code, is much similar to a barcode. In fact, it‘s a type of
barcode. Like a barcode, it also contains machine-readable information concerning the item to which it is
attached. But, unlike a regular barcode, a QR code is two-dimensional, i.e. it contains information both in
vertical and horizontal directions. While a barcode only holds information in the horizontal direction due
to this, a QR code can hold 10 or sometimes even 100 times more information than a barcode. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
 The most desirable advantage of QR codes above traditional barcodes is that QR codes come with an error
margin that ranges from 7-30%.In simple words, even if the packaging of the concerned product or the
printed code is damaged or dirty, the QR code will still work. Hence statement 2 is not correct. This
feature is smartly exploited by companies and businesses. Because of the error-correction feature, they
can (and do) put a small logo or a picture within the code to make it more associable to the business in
question.
Advantages of the QR codes:
 The design has much more flexibility.
 It can store 100+ characters and not just numbers
 Email addresses, names, details of the products etc. in small strings of characters can be saved in the
QR codes.
 The QR codes have different images to be included so the chances of uniqueness is increased.
 Smartphones having camera facilities (and an app) can read the QR codes, as well as barcodes in most
cases.
 The codes can be generated by any custom generator app as well and there is no need to go to GS1
US.
 Even though the QR code may be damaged, information still can be taken out of it.
 QR Codes can be scanned at any position, barcodes can not

17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 45.C
 The arecanut palm is the source of common chewing nut, popularly known as betel nut or
Supari. In India it is extensively used by large sections of people and is very much linked with religious
practices. India is the largest producer of arecanut and at the same time largest consumer also. Major
states cultivating this crop are Karnataka (40%), Kerala (25%), Assam (20%), Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya
and West Bengal.
 The cultivation of arecanut is mostly confined to 28 degrees north and south of the equator. It grows well
within the temperature range of 14C and 36C and is adversely affected by temperatures below 10ºC and
above 40ºC. Extremes of temperature and wide diurnal variations are not conducive for the healthy
growth of the palms. Arecanut can be grown in areas receiving annual rainfall of 750 mm in Maidan parts
of Karnataka to 4,500 mm in Malnad areas of Karnataka.
 The largest area under the crop is found in gravelly laterite soils of red clay type. It can also be grown on
fertile clay loam soils. Sticky clay, sandy, alluvial, brackish and calcareous soils are not suitable for
arecanut cultivation.
 Recently ‗Sirsi Supari‘, an areca nut grown in Sirsi, Siddpaur and Yellapur taluks of Uttara
Kannada district in Karnataka has been granted Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
 Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 46.C
 Equalisation Levy was introduced in India in 2016, with the intention of taxing the digital
transactions i.e. the income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India. It is aimed at
taxing business to business transactions.
 Equalisation Levy is a direct tax, which is withheld at the time of payment by the service recipient. The
two conditions to be met to be liable to equalization levy, which are
o The payment should be made to a non-resident service provider.
o The annual payment made to one service provider exceeds Rs.1,00,000 in one financial year.

Q 47.C
 In India, The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., the matters which are not
enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. In the US, only the powers of the Federal
Government are enumerated in the Constitution and the residuary powers are left to the states. Hence
option d is not correct.
 In India, both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President
while in the USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of
President. Hence option a is not correct.
 In India, the Union government can destroy the states whereas the state governments cannot destroy
the Union. In the USA, on the other hand, the territorial integrity or continued existence of a state is
guaranteed by the Constitution. The American Federal government cannot form new states or alter
the borders of existing states without the consent of the states concerned. That is why the USA is
described as ‗an indestructible union of indestructible states.‘ Hence option c is correct.
 Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for
only single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. In countries like the USA, on the other hand, each
person is not only a citizen of the USA but also a citizen of the particular state to which he belongs. Thus,
he owes allegiance to both and enjoys dual sets of rights—one conferred by the National government and
another by the state government. Hence option b is not correct.
Q 48.A
 The buildings in the Deccan region are hybridized style, which contains both elements from Nagara and
Dravida architectural styles and is known in some ancient texts as the Vesara style (not all temples of
Deccan are the vesara type). The vesara style became popular after the mid 7th century under the later
Chalukyan rulers. Examples: Ravan Phadi cave, Aihole, Karnataka, Lad Khan Temple at Aihole,
Karnataka, Durga Temple at Aihole, Karnataka, Temples at Pattadakkal, Karnataka.
 Lakshman temple, Khajuraho is an example of Nagara style.
 Dashavatara temple, Deogarh is the earliest known Panchayatan Temple in north India. It is of Nagara
style.
18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 49.C
 Skills Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE) project
 It is a World Bank assisted-Government of India project.
 It has the objective of improving the relevance and efficiency of skills training provided through
Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and apprenticeships.
 It is a Central Sector Scheme (CSS) with a budget outlay of INR 2200 Crore covering the following 4
result areas:
o Improved performance of ITI.
o Increased Capacities of State Governments to support ITIs and Apprenticeship Training
o Improved Teaching and Learning.
o Improved and Broadened Apprenticeship Training.
 The project aims at creating awareness through industry clusters/ geographical chambers that would
address the challenge of involvement of Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (SMEs).
 The Project would also aim at integrating and enhancing the delivery quality of ITIs.
 There would be competitive selection among ITIs for upgradation under the scheme.
o A total of 500 ITIs will be covered under the project (which include 400 government and 100 private
ITIs).
o The 400 government ITIs are allocated across the states/UTs by taking into account the number of
government ITIs in each state/UT.
o The government(public) ITIs will be selected competitively at State level.
o However, there is no fixed state-wise allocation for 100 Private ITIs. Private ITIs will be selected
basis competition among the Private ITIs across the country (i.e. National level).
Q 50.A
 The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and
the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the
assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House
(assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and
the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.
 Manner of Election: Of the total number of members of a legislative council:
o 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.,
o 1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,
o 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary
school,
o 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are
not members of the assembly, and
o the remainder is nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have special knowledge or
practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.
 Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are
nominated by the governor.
 The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a
single transferable vote. The bonafide or propriety of the governor‘s nomination, in any case, cannot be
challenged in the courts.

Q 51.C
 Statement 1 is correct: There is a strict procedure to determine a list of tropical cyclone/hurricane names
in an ocean basin(s) by the Tropical Cyclone Regional Body responsible for that basin(s) at its
annual/biennial meeting. This process of naming cyclones involves several countries in the region and is
done under the aegis of the World Meteorological Organization. There are five tropical cyclone regional
bodies, i.e. ESCAP/WMO Typhoon Committee, WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones, RA I
Tropical Cyclone Committee, RA IV Hurricane Committee, and RA V Tropical Cyclone Committee. For
instance, Hurricane Committee . The pre-designated list of hurricane names are proposed by its members
that include National Meteorological and Hydrological Services in the North/Central America and the
Caribbean. Naming procedures in other regions are almost the same as in the Caribbean. In general,
tropical cyclones are named according to the rules at a regional level.
19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
  Statement 2 is not correct: There is no universal rule for naming of Tropical Cyclone/Hurricane. For e.g.
for North Atlantic Ocean six lists are used in rotation. Thus, the 2008 list will be used again in 2014. For
the eastern north Pacific Ocean the lists are also re-cycled every six years (the 2008 list will be used again
in 2014). For central north Pacific Ocean the names are used one after the other. When the bottom of one
list is reached, the next name is the top of the next list. For the North Indian Ocean, the Regional
Specialised Meteorological Centre Tropical Cyclones, New Delhi gives a Tropical Cyclone an
identification name from a list. The identification system covers both the Arabian Sea and the Bay of
Bengal. These lists are used sequentially, and they are not rotated every few years as are the Atlantic and
Eastern Pacific lists. As a general rule, names of some storms that cause widespread damage and deaths
are usually retired and are not brought back or reused later, at least for 10 years. These names are then
replaced with new names.
 Statement 3 is correct: The main purpose of naming a tropical cyclone/hurricane is basically for people
easily to understand and remember the tropical cyclone/hurricane in a region, thus to facilitate tropical
cyclone/hurricane disaster risk awareness, preparedness, management and reduction.
Q 52.D
 Some key events during Mahatma Gandhi's life are:
o 1893: Arrives in Durban and is kicked off the train in Pietermaritzburg after refusing to move
out of the first-class carriage because he is a "non-white" passenger.
o 1894: Becomes first honorary secretary of the newly formed Natal Indian Congress.
o 1899: Leaves for the front with Ambulance Corps during the Boer war.
o 1903: Starts a law practice in Johannesburg and is enrolled as an attorney of the supreme court of the
Transvaal.
o 1903: Founds the newspaper Indian Opinion.
o 1904: Assists with the nursing of patients during the outbreak of bubonic plague in the "Coolie
Location".
o 1906: Takes a vow of brahmacharya (celibacy and poverty) for life.
o 1906: Starts Satyagraha at a mass meeting on 11 September.
o 1908: Burns registration certificates outside the Hamidia mosque together with 3,000 other
Satyagrahis on 16 August and again on 23 August.
o 1910: Establishment of the Tolstoy farm outside Johannesburg.
o 1912: Gives up European dress and restricts himself to a diet of fresh and dried fruit.
o 1913: Imprisoned for the fourth time and sentenced to nine months hard labour but released early by
General Smuts.
o 1914: Sails for England en route to India in July, leaving South Africa for the last time.
o 1916: Gives Speech at the laying of the foundation stone of the Banaras Hindu University, at the
invitation of Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya.
o 1919: First issue of ‗Young India‘ under Gandhiji‘s Editorship comes out.
 Note: Gandhiji felt an irresistible attraction to a life of simplicity, manual labour, and austerity. In 1904—
after reading John Ruskin‘s Unto This Last, a critique of capitalism—he set up a farm at Phoenix near
Durban where he and his friends could live by the sweat of their brow. Six years later another colony grew
up under Gandhi‘s fostering care near Johannesburg; it was named Tolstoy Farm for the Russian writer
and moralist, whom Gandhi admired and corresponded with. Those two settlements were the precursors of
the more famous ashrams in India, at Sabarmati near Ahmedabad and at Sevagram near Wardha.
 Note: In 1919, the publication of The Bombay Chronicle was suspended for political reasons. Two of its
directors Umar Sobani and Shankarlal Bankar who were running Young India invited Gandhiji to be its
editor. This English weekly, on his advice, was converted into a biweekly. Besides Young India, Gandhiji
looked after ‗Navajivan‘ the Gujarati monthly, which was converted into a weekly. These two papers
together were the organs of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q 53.B
 A Critically Endangered Species is one that has been categorized by the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) as facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. It is one of the
highest risk category assigned by the IUCN for wild species. Critically endangered species means a
species numbers have decreased or will decrease by 80% within three generations.
20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
  There are Six schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 which give varying degrees of protection.
Out of the six schedules, Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection and offenses
under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
 Option 1 is correct: Pygmy Hog is listed under Schedule I of WPA, 1972 and as Critically Endangered
species in IUCN Red list.
 Option 2 is not correct: Great Indian hornbill is listed under Schedule I of WPA, 1972 and as Vulnerable
species in IUCN Red list.
 Option 3 is correct: Gangetic Shark is listed under Schedule I of WPA, 1972 and as Critically
Endangered species in IUCN Red list.

Q 54.A
 ECOPHENE
o These are otherwise called ecads or morphologically-changed forms. When a species is transported to
a new environment, it‘s first response is to develop abilities to survive there. For example, a species of
grass called Euphorbia hirta has two different ecophenes; one that has adapted to grow in dry, hard
soils and the other that grows in places that have been heavily trampled.
o These differences among ecophenes and not permanent. They are just temporary variations to survive
the new conditions. The body of the organism assumes that it is going to be in these new conditions
for a short while only. Therefore, ecophenes from different habitats, when brought together, become
similar.
 ECOTYPE
o However, if two of these ecophenes were to remain in their new habitat for too long, these
morphological (physical) changes will start becoming permanent.
o Likewise, the grass Euphorbia hirta has two ecotypes as well. One that has permanently adapted to
surviving in moist conditions, and the other adapted to surviving in dry conditions.
o This permanence in the adaptations arise due to changes in genes.
 Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 55.B
 Some terms related to Mughal architecture are as follows:
o Naubat Khana, or Naqqar Khana, refers to a drum house from where ceremonial music was
played which was usually situated over the gate. It was a popular feature in Mughal palace
complexes.
 For example, in the Red Fort, the Naubat Khana or Naqqar Khana originally housed the music
gallery and was the main entrance to the Diwan-e-Aam(Hall of Public Audiences).
 Musicians at the Naubat Khana would play drums throughout the day on special occasions like
the emperor‘s birthday. On other days, drums would be played five times a day if the emperor
was in residence, thrice if he was traveling.
 Mimbar refers to a stepped pulpit in the Jama Masjid or Friday mosque from where
the Khutba was read.
 Hamam refers to a Turkish public bath for massage and sauna.
 Dargah refers to the Shrine of a Sufi saint, where the saint‘s grave called mazar is located.

Q 56.C
 According to Article 310, members of the defence services, the civil services of the Centre and the
all-India services or persons holding military posts or civil posts under the Centre, hold office
during the pleasure of the president. Similarly, members of the civil services of a state or persons
holding civil posts under a state, hold office during the pleasure of the governor of the state.
 However, there is an exception to this general rule of dismissal at pleasure. The president or the governor
may (in order to secure the services of a person having special qualifications) provide for the payment of
compensation to him in two cases: (i) if the post is abolished before the expiration of the contractual
period, or (ii) if he is required to vacate that post for reasons not connected with misconduct on his part.

21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 Notably, such a contract can be made only with a new entrant, that is, a person who is not already a
member of a defence service, a civil service of the Centre, an all-India service or a civil service of a state.
 Article 311 places two restriction on the above ‗doctrine of pleasure‘. In other words, it provides two
safeguards to civil servants against any arbitrary dismissal from their posts:
o A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was
appointed.
o A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in
which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of
being heard in respect of those charges.
 The above two safeguards are available only to the members of the civil services of the Centre, the all-
India services, the civil services of a state or to persons holding civil posts under the Centre or a state and
not to the members of defence services or persons holding military posts. However, the second safeguard
(holding inquiry) is not available in the following three cases:
o Where a civil servant is dismissed or removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has
led to his conviction on a criminal charge; or
o Where the authority empowered to dismiss or remove a civil servant or to reduce him in rank is
satisfied that for some reason (to be recorded in writing), it is not reasonably practicable to hold such
inquiry; or
o Where the President or the Governor is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the state, it is not
expedient to hold such inquiry.

Q 57.D
 Viruses are acellular entities that can usually only be seen with an electron microscope. Viruses
consist of a nucleic-acid core surrounded by a protein capsid with or without an outer lipid
envelope. Hence it is difficult to kill virus because they lack cellular structure.Their genomes contain
either DNA or RNA, and they replicate using the replication proteins of a host cell. Viruses are
diverse, infecting archaea, bacteria, fungi, plants, and animals.
 Hence, both statements are correct.

Q 58.C
 Blue-chip companies or "blue-chips" are the mature companies in the stock market that represent
the stalwarts of industry—safe, stable, profitable, and long-lasting companies that represent
relatively safe, low volatility investments.
 The term "blue-chip" originates with the game of high-stakes poker. In poker, gambling chips represent
differing dollar values based on their color. The color blue signifies the chip that has the highest value on
the table.
 A blue-chip company is well-known, well-established, and well-capitalized. Such a company is
considered to be a leading company in its sector and produces dominant goods or services. Generally, a
blue-chip company is seen as relatively impervious to economic downturns, which contributes to its
qualities of generating consistent revenues and stable growth over time. It is also often considered a
household name. A blue-chip stock is the stock of a blue-chip company.
Q 59.A
 Filing of nominations by candidates contesting in Lok Sabha elections involves submitting two forms -
form 2A (nomination paper) and form 26 (affidavit). In form 2A, candidates provide details whether they
are from registered political party or independents and the authorization from the parties for contesting the
election. In addition, the contestants have to submit the details of 10 voters who nominate them from the
constituency in which they are contesting. In the affidavit (form 26), contestants have to furnish details of
assets, liabilities and criminal cases, both convicted and pending. The ECI has also asked candidates to
submit IT returns for five years as on March 30, 2019.
 A candidate in an election is required to file an affidavit called Form 26 that furnishes information on
her assets, liabilities, educational qualifications, criminal antecedents (convictions and all pending
cases) and public dues if any. The form also requires the candidates to declare their "offshore
assets" which includes, details of all deposits or investments in Foreign banks and any other body

22 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 or institution abroad, and details of all assets and liabilities in foreign countries'. The affidavit has to
be filed along with the nomination papers and should be sworn before an Oath Commissioner or
Magistrate of the First Class or before a Notary Public.
 The Election Commission of India (ECI) has made changes in form 26, an affidavit filed along with
nomination papers so as to register social media accounts of candidates. Three rows provided in form
26 in which candidates have to mention details of social media handles - Facebook, Twitter,
YouTube, and Instagram. All information in the affidavit has to be certified by a notary public.

Q 60.A
 Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was initiated in 2007 as an umbrella scheme for ensuring holistic
development of agriculture and allied sectors by allowing states to choose their own agriculture and allied
sector development activities as per the district/state agriculture plan.
 Based on feedback received from States, experiences garnered during implementation in the 12th Plan and
inputs provided by stakeholders, RKVY guidelines have been revamped as RKVY – RAFTAAR –
Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied sector Rejuvenation to enhance efficiency, efficacy
and inclusiveness of the programme for the remaining period of the Fourteenth Finance Commission.
 RKVY-RAFTAAR is a unique centrally sponsored scheme where states choose their own agriculture
and allied sector development activities. (Hence, statement 1 is not correct)
The main objectives of the scheme are-
o To strengthen the farmers‘ efforts through creation of required pre and post-harvest agri-
infrastructure that increases access to quality inputs, storage, market facilities etc. and enables
farmers to make informed choices. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
o To provide autonomy, flexibility to States to plan and execute schemes as per local/farmers‟ needs.
o To promote value chain addition linked production models that will help farmers increase their
income as well as encourage production/productivity
o To mitigate risk of farmers with focus on additional income generation activities – like integrated
farming, mushroom cultivation, bee keeping, aromatic plant cultivation, floriculture etc.
o To attend national priorities through several sub-schemes.
o To empower youth through skill development, innovation and agri-entrepreneurship based
agribusiness models that attract them to agriculture
 Planning & Implementation of RKVY-RAFTAAR: Agriculture Department of the State shall be
the nodal department for the implementation of the scheme. For administrative convenience and ease
of implementation, State governments may identify, or create an exclusive agency for implementing
the scheme on a fast-track basis. Even where such an Agency is created/designated, the entire
responsibility of ensuring proper implementation of RKVY-RAFTAAR rests with the Agriculture
Department of the State. (Hence, statement 3 is not correct)

Q 61.A
 The UN General Assembly adopted a historic Arms Trade Treaty (ATT) on 2 April 2013. This is the
first-ever global treaty to establish international norms aiming to prevent conventional weapons
from being used for war crimes and human rights abuses, or being diverted for illegal use by
criminals. The Treaty will help foster peace and security by stemming the flow of destabilizing arms to
conflict regions. The Treaty opened for signature on 3 June 2013 and reached its 50th ratification on 25
September 2014, triggering its entry into force on 24 December 2014. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 India is not signatory to the treaty. The draft treaty that is annexed to the resolution is weak on
terrorism and non-state actors and these concerns find no mention in the specific prohibitions of the
Treaty. Further, India cannot accept that the Treaty be used as an instrument in the hands of exporting
states to take unilateral force majeure measures against importing states parties without
consequences. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 62.B
 Colourful Revolution is associated with Macedonia. In April 2016, protests began in the Republic of
Macedonia against the incumbent President Gjorgje Ivanov and the government led by the interim Prime
Minister Emil Dimitriev from the ruling VMRO-DPMNE party. Referred to by some as the Colorful
Revolution, the protests have started after the controversial decision by President Gjorgje Ivanov to stop

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 the investigation against former Prime Minister Nikola Gruevski and dozens of politicians who were
allegedly involved in a wiretapping scandal. The demonstrations were organized to demand that the
government resigns for the formation of a technical government and that the parliamentary
elections planned for 5 June 2016 are cancelled, on the grounds that the conditions for free and transparent
elections are not in place.
 Umbrella Revolution also known as Occupy Central is associated with Hongkong. When Britain gave
the reigns of Hongkong back to China in 1997, Beijing had given certain assurances. Under what was
termed as One Country Two Systems, Hongkong was allowed to keep its common law system and was
assured of greater rights than those prevalent in mainland China. The residents of Hongkong had hoped
that by 2017 they would be free to elect their own Chief executive to run the HK special administrative
region. But now, China is saying that there would be no open nominations and only those names cleared
by the Chinese Communist party would be able to contest. These demonstrations have been turned into
the biggest protests in the region since Chinese rule. Under the existing system, political control in
Hongkong is vested with China. This protest marks a revision of promises. China had earlier promised to
provide universal suffrage in elections. But China is willing to conduct controlled elections rather than
free elections. No free choice has been provided to choose candidates in Hong Kong.
 The 2018 Armenian revolution (most commonly known in Armenia as #MerzhirSerzhin meaning
"#RejectSerzh" or Velvet Revolution) was a series of anti-government protests in Armenia from
April to May 2018 staged by various political and civil groups led by member of parliament Nikol
Pashinyan (head of the Civil Contract party). Protests and marches took place initially in response to
Serzh Sargsyan's third consecutive term as the most powerful figure in the government of the Armenia
and later against the Republican Party-controlled government in general.

Q 63.A
 In the history of Indian Buddhism, the period c. 200 BC–300 AD is associated with the emergence
of Mahayana. It is also referred to as the Greater Vehicle while Hinayana is referred to as the Lesser
Vehicle.
 The idea of the bodhisattva assumed greater importance in Mahayana. The bodhisattva refers to one who
has attained great wisdom, but decides to refrain from taking the final step into nibbana(the dying out or
extinction of desire), choosing to actively engage with the world for aeons on end in order to help others
achieve this goal. Great compassion (maha-karuna) for others is a key element in the Mahayana ideal of
the bodhisattva.
 The conduct and practices that formed part of the path leading to Buddhahood were not very different
from those recommended in the earlier tradition of Buddhism. The several stages along
the bodhisattva path involved the attainment of a number of perfections known as paramitas. These
were originally listed as six and later expanded to ten.
o They consisted of generosity (dana), good conduct (shila), patient forbearance (kshanti), mental
strength (virya), meditation (dhyana), wisdom (prajna), skilfulness in means (upaya-kaushalya),
determination (pranidhana), power (bala), and knowledge (jnana).
Q 64.A
 OCR is technology to recognize text inside images, such as scanned documents and photos
 Principle :
o Optical character recognition schemes involve first separating (or segmenting) the document into text
and non-text.
o The text is then segmented into paragraphs, sentences words and letters.
o Each letter has to be recognized as a character in some recognizable format such as ASCII or
Unicode.
o The letter has various components such as the basic consonant, consonant modifiers, vowels, etc.
 Recent Developments:
o A team at IIT Madras has, over the last decade, developed a unified script for nine Indian languages,
named the Bharati script.
o The team has now gone a step further:
 It has developed a method for reading documents in Bharati script using a multi-lingual optical
character recognition (OCR) scheme.

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  Hence OCR technology is not only limited to the English language but with innovation, it can be
used for recognizing the text of other languages as well.

Q 65.C
 Tamil literature has various epics:
o Silappadhikaram (the story of the anklet), written by Ilango-Adigal
o Manimekalai (the story of Manimekalai) by Chattanar. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
 It broke new grounds by describing the teachings of Lord Buddha for the 1st time in Tamil.
 In Manimekalai there is an elaborate exposition of the doctrines of Buddhism. Hence statement 2
is correct.
 They were written sometimes in A.D. 200-300 and give vivid accounts of Tamil society during that
period. These are valuable storehouses and epics of dignity and sublimity, laying stress on the cardinal
virtues of life.
o He has described the prevailing five religions in Tamil land along with the logic and the practice of
the Buddha's faith in the various cantons of the poem; a few centuries before the Chinese travelers Fa
Hien and Huang Tsang.
 In spite of his realistic allusions to the Vedic religion, Chattanar (Sathanar) disapproves the caste system
and rituals like cow sacrifice prevailing at that time. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 66.B
About the Committee of Privileges:
 It is a standing committee constituted in each house of the Parliament/state legislature.
 Lok Sabha committee has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members nominated
by the Speaker in Lok Sabha and Chairman in Rajya Sabha respectively.
 Its function is to investigate the cases of breach of privilege and recommend appropriate action to the
Speaker/Chairperson.
 Hence only statement 1 is not correct.

Q 67.D
 Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Dharwar System derives its name from the rocks first studied in the
Dharwar district of Karnataka. It belongs to the Archaean Rock System and includes some of the highly
metamorphosed rocks of both sedimentary and igneous origin. The Dharwars are economically the most
important rocks because they possess valuable minerals like high-grade iron-ore, manganese, copper, lead,
gold, mica etc.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Dharwar system is well developed in Karnataka. It also occurs in Jharkhand,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and in the Aravallis between Jaipur and Palanpur.

Q 68.A
 Recently, the Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) at Mandi and Guwahati, and the Indian Institute
of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, under Department of Science and Technology, coordinated with State
authorities in Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh,
Sikkim, the hill districts of West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Jammu and
Kashmir, to evolve a common methodology, and determine how districts there are equipped to deal
with the vagaries of climate change.
 The researchers prepared a ‗vulnerability index‘ of each of these States based on district-level
data. The vulnerability would be a measure of the inherent risks a district faces, primarily by virtue of its
geography and socio-economic situation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 The scientists conducted workshops with the States and identified eight key parameters on the basis of
which a vulnerability score could be generated. They included: percentage of area in districts under
forests, yield variability of food grain, population density, female literacy rate, infant mortality rate,
percentage of population below poverty line (BPL), average man-days under MGNREGA (Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act), and the area under slope > 30%.
 On a scale ranging 0-1, 1 indicating the highest possible level of vulnerability, at the top of the scale
were Assam with a score of 0.72 and Mizoram at 0.71, whereas Sikkim, with an index score of 0.42
was relatively less vulnerable. Based on this assessment, the vulnerability index is found to be

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 the highest for Assam (0.72) and Mizoram (0.71), followed by Jammu and Kashmir (0.62), Manipur
(0.59), Meghalaya and West Bengal (both 0.58), Nagaland (0.57), Himachal Pradesh and Tripura (0.51
both), Arunachal Pradesh (0.47) and Uttarakhand (0.45). Sikkim is the least vulnerable state with the
index being 0.42. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 69.A
 It was during Bardoli Satyagraha that an internal intelligence wing was created to gather
information about future moves of government, and to shadow fellow peasants who were indecisive
in not paying their dues.
 The leadership of the movement was undertaken by Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, who divided the taluq into
thirteen workers camps or chhavanis each under the charge of an experienced leader. The movement was
launched against the irrational revised revenue assessment of the land by the government in the bardoli
region.
Q 70.A
 Hiuen Tsang who travelled in India between 628 A.D.and 645 A.D. during the reign of
Harshavardhana, the last great Hindu Emperor of North India (A.D. 606-647).
 Hiuen Tsang gave many prominent accounts on administration and society of that time:
o The socio-cultural life of North India was also characterized by downhill trends. Harsha‘s age was
marked by great rigidity in social life. The social mobility had disappeared. The status of women
declined sharply during this period due to the popularity of child marriage and prohibition of widow
remarriage.
o He described that the kingdom was well-governed; it was- free from revolts; there were a few cases of
law-breaking; offenders were given physical punishments and tortured as well to extract the truth
from them while the traitors were given death sentence or turned out of the kingdom. The burden of
taxation was not heavy on the subjects; they were free from the oppression of the government servants
and were, thus, happy. The state used to record its every activity. He, however, described that
travelling was not very much safe at that time.
o The main source of income of the state was land-revenue.
o He took note of untouchables as scavengers, executioners etc. According to him, they lived outside
the villages and consumed garlic and onion. The Untouchables announced their entry into the town or
village by shouting loudly, so that the people might keep away from them.

Q 71.C
 The Smart Food initiative is founded by the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-
Arid-Tropics (ICRISAT) started in 2013, aims to build food systems where the food is good for you
(highly nutritious), good for the planet and good for the smallholder farmer. This initiative is led by Africa
and Asia with the executive council comprised of the :Asia-Pacific Association of Agricultural Research
Institutions (APAARI); Forum for Agricultural Research in Africa (FARA), West and Central African
Council for Agricultural Research and Development (CORAF), Food Agriculture and Natural Resources
Policy Analysis Network (FANRPAN), along with the International Crops Research Institute for the
Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) which set in motion the Smart Food initiative in 2013. In India, Smart
Food is co-led by ICAR(Indian Council of Agricultural Research)-IIMR (Indian Institute of Millet
Research).
 The SF initiative would be able to achieve a major impact globally by promoting the demand for
millets and sorghum and strengthen the value chains while ensuring that smallholder farmers
benefit.
 Recently Smart Food (SF) initiative has been selected as one of the winning innovations of 2017 by
LAUNCH Food programme. The recognition by LAUNCH Food would provide the Smart Food
programme not only global recognition but also mentorship support.
 LAUNCH Food is a global competition where 11 innovations are selected each year for mentoring and
linked with high-level experts and organizations to accelerate innovation. LAUNCH was founded in 2009
by NASA, the U.S. Agency for International Development, the U.S. Department of State and NIKE Inc.,
to identify, showcase and support innovative approaches to sustainability challenges. LAUNCH Food is
also supported by the Australian Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade.

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Q 72.C
 Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: The idea of establishing a convention to fight
desertification has its origin in chapter 10 and 12 of Agenda 21. Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan of
the United Nations with regard to sustainable development and a product of the Earth Summit (UN
Conference on Environment and Development), 1992. United Nations Convention to Combat
Desertification (UNCCD) was established in 1994. It is the sole legally binding international agreement
linking environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention addresses
specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most
vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Global Mechanism (GM) was established under Article 21 of the United
Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) to assist countries in the mobilization of
financial resources to implement the Convention and address desertification, land degradation and
drought.

Q 73.A
 The Chakshesang Shawls became the latest and third goods from Nagaland to be granted the
Geographical Indication (GI) Registration after the Naga Mircha and Naga Tree Tomato.While the
‗Chakhesang Shawl‘ is listed under the category of ‗Handicrafts,‘ the other two is registered under
‗Agricultural‘ product under Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999.
 The hand-crafted stone sculptures of Mahabalipuram have got GI tag. Sculptures
from Mahabalipuram are carved in stone with characteristics of intricate designing chiselled finely. They
are carved inspirit of surrounding Pallava art and architecture. The description includes cave architecture,
rock architecture, open sculptures, structural temples, relief sculptures etc.
 Telangana can celebrate as two more craft forms that are unique to the state were granted the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the GI registry in Chennai. Adilabad Dokra, an ancient metal craft
that is popular in the state‘s tribal regions, and Warangal durries or rugs, which are woven in handloom
clusters in Warangal and Pochampally among other areas, have now been declared unique to the
region. In this style of durries, weavers create beautiful patterns and dye them using vegetable colours,
which are washed in flowing water after the printing process.
 As many as 344 products such as Kancheepuram silk saree, Alphonso Mango, Nagpur Orange
and Kolhapuri Chappal have been registered as geographical indications (GI) so far, according to
government data. Kolhapuri chappals are Indian hand-crafted leather slippers that are locally tanned using
vegetable dyes. Kolhapuri Chappals or Kolhapuri s as they are commonly referred to are a style of open-
toed, T-strap sandal which originated from Kolhapur, a southern district in the state of Maharashtra.
 Banarasi paan is famous but till now it has not got a GI tag.
Q 74.B
 The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article 226) can issue the writs of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto. Further, the Parliament (under Article
32) can empower any other court to issue these writs. Since no such provision has been made so far, only
the Supreme Court and the high courts can issue the writs and not any other court.
 The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court differs from that of a high court in three respects:
o The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a high
court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other
purpose. The expression ‗for any other purpose‘ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right.
Thus, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in this respect, is narrower than that of the high
court.
o Imposing pre-censorship on a newspaper is a violation of the fundamental right under Article
19. However, Right to property and Right to vote are constitutional rights under Article 300A
and Article 326 respectively. Since they are not fundamental rights, they fall outside the writ
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
o The Supreme Court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the territory of India
whereas a high court can issue writs against a person residing or against a government or authority
located within its territorial jurisdiction only or outside its territorial jurisdiction only if the cause of
action arises within its territorial jurisdiction. Thus, the territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a high court.

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 o A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court may not
refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is discretionary
and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Article 32 does not merely confer
power on the Supreme Court as Article 226 does on a high court to issue writs for the enforcement of
fundamental rights or other rights as part of its general jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is thus
constituted as a defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights.

Q 75.A
 ISRO has successfully developed ISROSENE, which is a rocket grade version of kerosene as an
alternative to conventional hydrazine rocket fuel.
 It is a move towards environment-friendly and green propellants with the acceptance of Liquid Oxygen
(LOX)/Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) and LOX/Kerosene based propulsion systems for launch vehicles, and use
of electric propulsion for spacecraft.
 The LOX/LH2 combination is already being used in the cryogenic upper stages of GSLV and GSLV Mk-
III launch vehicles. ISRO has successfully developed ISROSENE, which is a rocket grade version of
kerosene as an alternative to conventional hydrazine rocket fuel. ISRO has successfully demonstrated
electric propulsion system for station keeping operations in the South Asia Satellite, launched on May 5,
2017.
Q 76.C
 Kanjli Wetland is a man-made Wetland created in 1870 by constructing the head works across the Bien
River, a tributary of the Beas River to provide irrigation. The wetland subsumes the Kanjli Lake and is
located in the Kapurthala district of Punjab. Given its rich biodiversity, the wetland was recognized as a
Ramsar Wetlands Site in 2002.
 Spread over 183 hectares, the wetland has religious importance as it is a part of the Kali Bein, a holy
rivulet associated with Guru Nanak Dev. Recently the Punjab government has approved the declaration of
Kanjli Wetland as a Wildlife conservation reserve. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
 Hokera Wetland is designated as Ramsar convention on November 2005. Located at the northwest
Himalayan biogeopgraphic province of Kashmir India, back of the snow-draped Pir Panchal, Hokera
wetland is only 10 km from scenic paradise of Srinagar. A natural perennial wetland contiguous to the
Jhelum basin
 Keoladeo was declared a National Park in 1982 and then later listed as a World Heritage Site by
UNESCO in 1985. It was also known as the breeding ground for the rare and elusive to spot Siberian
crane. The park was the only known wintering site of the central population of the critically endangered
Siberian Crane, and also serves as a wintering area for other globally threatened species such as the
Greater Spotted Eagle and Imperial Eagle. It is also a Ramsar Wetland site located in Rajasthan.
 Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary consists primarily of a 120.82-square-kilometer (46.65 sq mi) lake and
ambient marshes, is situated about 64 km to the west of Ahmedabad near Sanand Village, in the Gujarat
state of India. Mainly inhabited by migratory birds in winter and spring, it is the largest wetland bird
sanctuary in Gujarat, and one of the largest in India. It was declared a bird sanctuary in April 1969.

Q 77.A
 Insulin and Glucagon are the two hormones that together regulate the glucose level in the blood.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
 The role of insulin in keeping the blood glucose level within the narrow limit is an example of this
function. Insulin is released in response to the rapid rise in blood glucose level.
 On the other hand hormone, glucagon tends to increase the glucose level in the blood.
 Both insulin and glucagon are produced naturally within the body, as well as can be administered
through external sources. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 78.D
 Chief Electoral Officer (CEO): The Chief Electoral Officer of a state/ Union Territory is authorised to
supervise the election work in the state/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction
and control of the Election Commission. The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an

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 Officer of the Government of the state / Union Territory as the Chief Electoral Officer in consultation
with that State Government / Union Territory Administration.
 Returning Officer (RO): The Returning Officer of a Parliamentary or assembly constituency is
responsible for the conduct of elections in the Parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned. The
Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the Government or a local authority
as the Returning Officer for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with
the State Government / Union Territory Administration. In addition, the Election Commission of India
also appoints one or more Assistant Returning Officers for each of the assembly and Parliamentary
constituencies to assist the Returning Officer in the performance of his functions in connection with the
conduct of elections.
 By convention, the Secretary General, Lok Sabha or the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha is
appointed as the Returning Officer, by rotation. Two other senior officers of the Lok Sabha/ Rajya
Sabha Secretariat and the Secretaries and one more senior officer of Legislative Assemblies of all States
including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are also appointed as the Assistant Returning
Officers. The Election Commission of India makes such appointments.[For the Presidential Election, 2017
the Secretary General Lok Sabha is the Returning Officer]

Q 79.B
 Friction is a force that opposes relative motion between systems in contact. Friction tends to oppose any
relative motion between objects, acting at the surfaces in contact. If there is relative motion, the frictional
force is the kinetic force of friction. If there is no relative motion, the frictional force is the static force of
friction.
 When you are walking on a surface, the frictional force acting is static friction as your feet does not slip
on the floor. Many people think this friction force is directed opposite to the way you are walking, but the
force of static friction is actually directed the way you are going. To determine the direction of the
force of static friction, think about the motion that would result if there was no friction. To start walking,
you push back with your foot on the floor. Without friction, your foot would slide back, moving back
relative to the floor. Static friction opposes this motion, the motion that would occur if there was no
friction, and thus static friction is directed forward. Hence option (b) is correct.

Q 80.A
 Xeriscape landscaping or, simply, "Xeriscaping," by definition, is landscaping designed specifically
for areas that are susceptible to drought, or for properties where water conservation is practiced.
 A common element in Xeriscape landscaping is the reduction of lawn grass areas since lawn grass is often
one of the worst offenders against water conservation. Another widespread tactic is the deployment of
native plants since they are adapted to the local climate and consequently require less human-supplied
water. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 81.B
 Guru Nanak (1469-1539), the founder of the Sikh religion, was born at village Talwandi, now known as
Nankana Sahib in Pakistan.
 Guru Nanak‘s three important precepts are contemplation of One God (nam-japna); earning one‘s
livelihood (kirat karna); and sharing one‘s earnings with others (vand chhakna).
 Guru Nanak repudiated the orthodox practices and rituals of Hinduism and Islam and stressed on the
practice of truthful living. To demolish caste- system he insisted on common kitchen and built the
first dharamsala or chapel of the Sikhs at Kartarpur.
 Guru Nanak‘s message can be summarized as a doctrine of salvation through disciplined
meditation on the divine name.
o Salvation is understood in terms of escape from the transmigratory round of death and rebirth to a
mystical union with God.
o The divine name signifies the total manifestation of God, a single Being, immanent both in the created
world and within the human spirit.
o Meditation must be strictly inward, and all external aids such as idols, temples, mosques, scriptures,
and set prayers are explicitly rejected.
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  The actual year of Guru Nanak‘s death is disputed, tradition being divided between 1538 and 1539. Of
these two possibilities, the latter appears to be the more likely. One of his disciples, Angad, was chosen
by Guru Nanak as his spiritual successor, and following Guru Nanak‘s death he assumed the
leadership of the young Sikh community as Guru Angad.
 The Mughal emperor Akbar lived from 1542-1605 and, hence, was not a contemporary of Guru
Nanak.

Q 82.B
 Most metals are good conductors of heat and they are solids at room temperature. Mercury is the only one
in liquid state at room temperature. Mercury is a poor conductor of heat. It's used in thermometers
because it has high coefficient of expansion. Hence, the slightest change in temperature is notable when
it's used in a thermometer. It also has a high boiling point which makes it very suitable to measure higher
temperatures. Also, it has a shiny appearance and doesn't stick to the surface of the glass. Hence option b
is correct.

Q 83.C
 It was the Indian Independence Act that made India and Pakistan to come into existence as two
sovereign States. The following are some of the salient features of the Indian Independence Act, 1947:
o Clause I of the Act provided for the creation of two independent Dominions, namely, India and
Pakistan from 15th August 1947;
o Clause II of the Act defined the territories of the two Dominions adjustable after the award of the
Boundary Commission. The territories of Indian Dominion were to consist of all Indian Provinces
except those that comprised Pakistan. The territories of Pakistan were to include the areas covered by
the Provinces of East Bengal, West Bengal, West Punjab, Sind, Baluchistan and the N.W.F. P. ;
o Both the Dominions were to have Governor Generals appointed by His Majesty to represent him for
the purposes of the Governments of the Dominion. The Act also provided for one common General if
both the Dominions so agreed;
o The Indian States were free to accede to either of the two new Dominions;
o The Legislature of each dominion was empowered to frame the laws for the governance of the
Dominion. No law made by that Dominion would be treated as null and void on the ground that it
conflicted with any law of England or any provision of any existing or future Act of Parliament of the
United Kingdom nor order in council shall extend to the New Dominions;
o From the 15th day of August 1947, the Government of the U.K shall have no responsibility in respect
of the government of any of the territories which immediately before that date were included in
British India;
o The suzerainty of His Majesty over the Indian States shall lapse and with it all treaties and
agreements in force at the date of passing of the Act between His Majesty and the rulers of the
Indian States;
o The Constituent Assembly of each Dominion shall exercise all powers exercised by the Legislature of
the Dominion;
o The office of the Secretary of State for India and his advisors was abolished and affairs relating
to the Dominion of India and Pakistan were to be conducted in future by the Secretary of the
Commonwealth Relations Department; and
o Those persons who had been appointed by the Secretary of State or Secretary of State-in-
Council to Civil Service and the Crown of India before August 15,1947 would continue in this
service after independence and were to enjoy the same privileges and rights in respect of leave,
remuneration, pension and conditions of service as enjoyed by them before independence.

Q 84.B
 Statement 1 is not correct: International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW) is a global non-profit
organization that protects animals and their habitat. It was founded in 1969. It has provided years of
global leadership, innovation and hands-on assistance to animals and communities in need. It saves
animals in need all around the world. With projects in more than 40 countries, it is involved in rescuing

30 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 individual animals, campaigning to prevent animal cruelty and advocating for the protection of wildlife
and habitats.
 Statement 2 is correct: IFAW was accepted as a member into the International Union for Conservation
of Nature (IUCN) in May, 2018. IUCN provides public, private and non-governmental organizations with
the knowledge and tools that enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation.

Q 85.B
 King Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagar Empire constructed Mahanavami Dibba in commemoration
on the victory over Udaygiri (now in Orissa). Archeologists believe that this platform had undergone
systematic enhancements by successive kings who came into power. The greenish schist stone additions
in the front portions stands out from the rest and vouch this theory.
 Rituals associated with the structure coincided with Mahanavami (literally, the great ninth day) of
the ten-day Hindu festival during the autumn months of September and October, known variously as
Dussehra (northern India), Durga Puja (in Bengal) and Navaratri or Mahanavami (in peninsular India).
The Vijayanagara kings displayed their prestige, power and suzerainty on this occasion. The ceremonies
performed on the occasion included worship of the image, worship of the state horse, and the sacrifice of
buffaloes and other animals. Dances, wrestling matches, and processions of caparisoned horses, elephants
and chariots and soldiers, as well as ritual presentations before the king and his guests by the chief
nayakas and subordinate kings marked the occasion.

Q 86.D
 Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: The GHG Platform India is a collective civil-society initiative
providing an independent estimation and analysis of India‘s greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions across key
sectors such as energy, waste, industry, agriculture, livestock, forestry, and land-use and land-use change
sectors.
 The platform currently hosts national estimates for GHG emissions from 2007-2012 by accounting
CO2, CH4 and N2O gases. Going forward, the platform proposes to provide sub-national GHG emission
estimates while simultaneously expanding the time-series for the national estimates. The platform will
also undertake relevant analytical assessments to inform policy design and evaluation. The database
produced and maintained by the platform is available in the public domain to enable third-party use,
which is actively encouraged.
 The alliance will also seek to complement existing efforts of the Indian government, such as the process
of submitting National Communications to the UNFCCC, by helping address existing data gaps and data
accessibility issues, extending beyond the scope of national inventories, and increasing the volume of
analytics and policy dialogue on India‘s GHG emissions sources, profile, and related policies.
 The platform includes notable institutions such as CEEW, C-STEP, ICLEI SA, Vasudha Foundation, and
WRI India in addition to a few sectoral experts in their individual capacity. The platform was jointly
conceptualized by Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation and Vasudha Foundation. Vasudha foundation
also acts as the Secretariat of the Platform.
Q 87.C
 The executive power has been divided between the Centre and the states on the lines of the distribution of
legislative powers, except in few cases. Thus, the executive power of the Centre extends to the whole of
India:
o to the matters on which the Parliament has exclusive power of legislation (i.e., the subjects
enumerated in the Union List); and
o to the exercise of rights, authority and jurisdiction conferred on it by any treaty or agreement.
 Similarly, the executive power of a state extends to its territory in respect of matters on which the state
legislature has exclusive power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the State List).
 The Constitution has placed two restrictions on the executive power of the states in order to give ample
scope to the Centre for exercising its executive power in an unrestricted manner. Thus, the executive
power of every state is to be exercised in such a way:
o as to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament and any existing law which apply in
the state; and

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 o as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of executive power of the Centre in the state. While the
former lays down a general obligation upon the state, the latter imposes a specific obligation on the
state not to hamper the executive power of the Centre.
 In both the cases, the executive power of the Centre extends to giving of such directions to the state as are
necessary for the purpose. The sanction behind these directions of the Centre is coercive in nature. Thus,
Article 365 says that where any state has failed to comply with (or to give effect to) any directions
given by the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which
the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution. It means that, in such a situation, the President‘s rule can be imposed in the state
under Article 356.
 The President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the
executive functions of the Centre. Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the
Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. This
mutual delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional. The Constitution also
makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the
consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president. Thus, a
law made by the Parliament on a subject of the Union List can confer powers and impose duties on a state,
or authorize the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state (irrespective of
the consent of the state concerned). Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature. From
the above, it is clear that the mutual delegation of functions between the Centre and the state can take
place either under an agreement or by legislation. While the Centre can use both the methods, a state can
use only the first method.

Q 88.B
 United Nation Environment has awarded Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India with Asia Environment Enforcement
Awards, 2018 for excellent work done by the Bureau in combating transboundary environmental
crime.
 WCCB has been conferred this award in the Innovation category. WCCB has adopted innovative
enforcement techniques that have dramatically increased enforcement of transboundary environmental
crimes in India. Notably, it has developed an online Wildlife Crime Database Management System to get
real-time data in order to help analyze trends in crime and devise effective measures to prevent and detect
wildlife crimes across India.
 This system has been successfully used to analyze trends, helping put in preventive measures as well as
for successfully carrying out operations such as Operation SAVE KURMA, THUNDERBIRD,
WILDNET, LESKNOW, BIRBIL, THUNDERSTORM, LESKNOW-IIalong with other enforcement
agencies resulting in the arrest of 350 wildlife criminals and huge seizures of Tiger/Leopard Skin/bones
and other trophies, Rhino Horn, Elephant Ivory, turtles/tortoises, Mongoose raw hairs as well as
Mongoose hair brushes, protected birds, Marine products, live Pangolin as well as its scales, deer antlers
etc. across all the states.
Q 89.C
 Mahi is one of the major interstate west flowing rivers of India. It originates from the northern slopes
of Vindhyas at an altitude of 500 m near village Bhopawar, Sardarpur tehsil in Dhar district of Madhya
Pradesh. The total length of Mahi is 583 km.
 The Som is its principal tributary which joins from right, and the Anas and the Panam joins the river from
left. It drains into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.
 Other tributaries include: Bhadar is right bank tributary. Kun and Goma are left bank tributaries of Mahi
river. There is Bhadar dam on river Bhadar.
 It is the river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows
towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time.
 Hence both the statements are correct.

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Q 90.C
 Statement 1 is correct: The Cool Coalition is a global effort led by UN Environment, the Climate and
Clean Air Coalition, the Kigali Cooling Efficiency Program, and Sustainable Energy for All (SEforALL).
 As global temperatures rise and the growing energy demands of air conditioning threaten to emit more
greenhouse gases, over 20 leaders committed to a new global effort on clean and efficient cooling, which
can make a huge positive impact on climate change, help achieve sustainable development and save
money.
 Statement 2 is correct: Launched at the First Global Conference on Synergies between the 2030 Agenda
and Paris Agreement in April 2019, the Cool Coalition aims to inspire ambition and accelerate action on
the transition to clean and efficient cooling.
 The Cool Coalition will complement and build upon ongoing successful programs to advance clean and
efficient cooling, including, the Cooling for All Secretariat, the Climate and Clean Air Coalition, the
Kigali Cooling Efficiency Programme, private sector action like the Global Cooling Prize, and other
initiatives.

Q 91.B
 In 1830s William Adam, a Scottish missionary was given the charge by the company to tour the district of
Bengal and Bihar. He was asked to report on the progress of education in local schools. Adam found
that there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar. These were small institutions with no more
than 20 students each. But the total number of children being taught in these pathshalas was considerable
– over 20 lakh.
 These institutions were set up by wealthy people, or the local community. At times they were started by a
teacher (guru). Adam found that the system of education in the local schools, known as pathshala, was
flexible. There were no fixed fees, no benches or chair, no system of separate classes, no annual
examination. In some places classes were held under a banyan tree, in other places in the corner of a
village‘s shop or temple, or at the teacher‘s home. Teaching was oral and the teacher decide what to teach.
Adam discovered that this flexible system was suited to local needs. For instance, classes were not held
during harvest time when rural children often worked in the fields. The pathshala started once again when
the crops had been cut and stored. This meant that even children of peasant families could study.

Q 92.C
 The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National
Commission for Women Act, 1990. The Chairperson and members of the Commission are appointed by
Central Government. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
 National Human Rights Commission of India (NHRC) has four ex-officio members—the chairmen of the
National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the National Commission for STs
and the National Commission for Women. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 The major functions of the NCW Include: Investigate and examine all matters relating to the safeguards
provided for women under the Constitution; Present reports to the central government on work done
towards these safeguards; Make recommendations for effective implementation of such safeguards to
Union or state governments etc.

Q 93.A
 A street canyon is a place where the street is flanked by buildings on both sides creating a canyon-like
environment. Classic examples of these human-built canyons are made when streets separate dense blocks
of structures, especially skyscrapers. Most high traffic density zones have a lot of buildings in the
neighborhood leading to restricted flow of air or what is technically called ―Street Canyon‖ effect.
The street canyon model is a model of air pollution on the streets, flanked by columns of high rise
buildings (what we increasingly see in urban areas).
 Because the street canyon affects the temperature, wind speed, and wind direction within the
canyon, it consequently affects the air quality within the street canyon. For instance, it has been found
that street-level pollution through contributions by vehicle exhaust is higher at the leeward side as
compared to the windward side. Street canyons also affect the type of wind flow and hence air quality.

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 Consequently, emissions coming from vehicle tail pipes do not get diluted and road dust remains
suspended in the air. This is known as Street canyon effect.

Q 94.B
 In 1938, Subhash Chandra Bose was elected president of the Indian National Congress and formed a
national planning committee, which formulated a policy of broad industrialization.
 However, this did not harmonize with Gandhian economic thought, which clung to the notion of cottage
industries and benefiting from the use of the country‘s own resources.
 Bose, in 1939, defeated a Gandhian rival for reelection. However, Bose felt bound to resign because of the
lack of Gandhiji‘s support. He founded the Forward Bloc, hoping to rally radical elements.
 Subhash Chandra Bose had founded the Bengal Volunteer Corps, of which he was the General
Officer Commanding(G.O.C.), prior to the Calcutta Congress session of 1928.
o For the Congress and the national exhibition connected with it, a large body of volunteers had been
necessary and Bose had been entrusted by the Congress authorities with the organization and training
of the Corps.
o Though the Corps was a peaceful and unarmed body, military discipline and training in the military
drill was imparted to the volunteers and they were also given a semi-military uniform.
o It consisted largely of Mukti Sangha workers, which was founded as a revolutionary organization by
Hem Chandra Ghosh in Dacca in 1905.
 The first revolutionary groups had been started round about 1902 in Midnapur (by Jnanendranath Basu)
and Calcutta (the Anushilan Samiti, founded by Promotha Mitter and Aurobindo's emissaries from
Baroda, Jatindranath Banerji and Barindrakumar Ghosh), but their activities had been confined initially to
physical and moral training of members and were not particularly significant till 1907 or 1908. Terrorism
of a more efficient variety was meanwhile developing in East Bengal, spearheaded by the much more
tightly organized Dacca Anushilan of Pulin Das, with the Barrah dacoity (2 June 1908) as its first major
venture. Dhaka Anushilan Samiti was not founded by Subhash Chandra Bose.

Q 95.A
 In 2017, India initiated the process of preparing its Sixth National Report (6NR) to the Convention on
Biological Diversity (CBD). The submission of the national report is a mandatory obligation on
parties to international treaties, including CBD. India submitted it recently in December 2018. The
NR6 provides an update on the progress in the achievement of 12 National Biodiversity Targets (NBT)
developed under the convention process, in line with the 20 global Aichi biodiversity targets.
 The report highlights that while India has exceeded or overachieved two of the NBTs, it is on track to
achieve eight NBTs and in respect of the remaining two NBTs also, India is striving to meet the targets by
the stipulated time of 2020.
 Key findings from the report are:
o While globally, biodiversity is facing increasing pressure on the account of habitat fragmentation and
destruction, invasive alien species, pollution, climate change and overuse of resources, India is one of
the few countries where forest cover is on the rise, with its forests teeming with wildlife.
o India is also on track to achieve the biodiversity targets at the national level and is also contributing
significantly towards the achievement of the global biodiversity targets.
o With well over 20 percent of its total geographical area under biodiversity conservation, India has
exceeded the terrestrial component of 17 percent of Aichi target 11 and 20 percent of corresponding
NBT relating to areas under biodiversity management.
o India has also made noteworthy achievement towards NBT relating to access and benefit sharing
(ABS) by operationalising the Nagoya Protocol on ABS.

Q 96.B
 A biorefinery is a facility that integrates biomass conversion processes and equipment to produce fuels,
power, and value-added chemicals from biomass. Biorefinery is analogous to today‘s petroleum
refinery, which produces multiple fuels and products from petroleum. By producing several products, a
biorefinery takes advantage of the various components in biomass and their intermediates,

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 therefore maximizing the value derived from the biomass feedstock and not petroleum. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
 A biorefinery could, for example, produce one or several low-volume, but high-value, chemical
products and a low-value, but high-volume liquid transportation fuel such as biodiesel or
bioethanol. At the same time, it can generate electricity and process heat, through Combined Heat and
Power technology. Ethanol can be derived from corn and sugarcane, and biodiesel from soy, rapeseed,
and oil palm. Recently, the government of Odisha has inaugurated a bio-refinery for production of
bioethanol from rice straws. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Burning biomass does release CO2, but what's put out is more or less balanced by the carbon dioxide the
plant took in over its lifetime. The burning of fossil fuels releases CO2 that has been out trapped for
millions of years, altering the general balance of the global atmosphere. The most common route from
plant matter to power is burning it in a direct-fired system: the resulting steam turns turbines, generating
electricity. Although it's not derived from a plant per se (it's a byproduct of decaying organic
matter), methane gas can be used in biofuel production. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 97.C
 NEC was established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 as an apex level body for securing
balanced and coordinated development and facilitating coordination with the States. Subsequent to the
Amendment of 2002, NEC has been mandated to function as a regional planning body for the North
Eastern Area and while formulating a regional plan for this area, shall give priority to the schemes and
projects benefiting two or more states provided that in the case of Sikkim, the Council shall formulate
specific projects and schemes for that State.
 The Union Cabinet recently approved the proposal of Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
(DoNER) for the nomination of the Union Home Minister as ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern
Council (NEC) - a statutory body with Governors and Chief Ministers of all the eight North Eastern
States as its Member. The Cabinet also approved that Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry
of DoNER would serve as Vice Chairman of the Council.
 NEC implements various projects through the State and Central agencies. Under the new arrangement
with Home Minister as Chairman and Minister of DoNER as Vice Chairman, NEC and all the Governors
and Chief Ministers of North Eastern States as Member would provide a forum for discussing inter-state
matters more comprehensively and also consider common approaches to be taken in future.
 NEC can now also perform the tasks undertaken by the various Zonal Councils to discuss such inter-State
issues as drug trafficking, smuggling of arms and ammunition, boundary disputes etc.

Q 98.D
 Statement 1 is correct: International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialized agency of the United
Nations. In 1948 an international conference in Geneva adopted a convention formally establishing IMO
(the original name was the Inter-Governmental Maritime Consultative Organization or IMCO, but the
name was changed in 1982 to IMO). The IMO Convention entered into force in 1958 and the new
Organization met for the first time the following year.
 Statement 3 is correct: India joined the IMO in 1959 while IMO was formed in 1958.
 Statement 2 is correct: IMO is the global standard-setting authority for the safety, security and
environmental performance of international shipping. Its main role is to create a regulatory framework for
the shipping industry that is fair and effective, universally adopted and universally implemented. In other
words, its role is to create a level playing field so that ship operators cannot address their financial issues
by simply cutting corners and compromising on safety, security and environmental performance. This
approach also encourages innovation and efficiency.

Q 99.B
 Statement 2 is correct: To promote further growth of the Indian Skills sector overall, new measures have
been initiated by the Government of India to establish state of the art training institutions called Indian
Institutes of Skill (IISs) in Mumbai, Ahmedabad and Kanpur on Not-for-profit Public Private Partnership
(N-PPP) basis.

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  Statement 1 is not correct: The IISs are conceptualized with an objective to provide advanced skills in
highly specialized areas – for example defence, aerospace, oil & gas and other emerging business
domains to name a few – to develop highly skilled technical manpower to meet the demands of
organizations that are currently operating and are likely to set up their production/manufacturing &
business facilities in India.
 They are expected to emerge as premier training institutions in the country and make vocational training
aspirational for the youth.

Q 100.A
 Under the revamped Khelo India proposal, there is an exclusive component called ―Promotion of Rural,
Indigenous and Tribal Games‖ for promotion and development of traditional sports. Sports Authority of
India is promoting Indigenous Games and Martial Arts (IGMA) in nine disciplines under its National
Sports Talent Contest (NSTC) scheme where talented children are selected in the age group of 8-14 years.
 Disciplines that fall under IGMA:
o Kalaripayatu, Kerala: It is a martial art, which originated as a style in Kerala. It was originally
practiced in northern and central parts of Kerala and southern parts of Tamil Nadu.
o Silambam, Tamil Nadu: It is a weapon-based Martial Art. It originated from Tamil Nadu and is
primarily played with a bamboo staff.
o Kabaddi, Telangana: The sport is played widely in India, especially in parts of Telangana, Andhra
Pradesh and Maharashtra.
o Archery, Jharkhand: It is the sport of using a bow to propel arrows. Historically, archery has been
used for hunting and combat, but now is seen as a recreational activity. It is a skill which was widely
adopted across the world, especially in India.
o Malkhamb, Maharashtra: It is a traditional Indian sport in which a gymnast performs aerial yoga
postures and wrestling grips in concert with a vertical wooden pole. More than 20 states of India have
notified Malkhamb as state sport.
o Mukna, Manipur: It is a form of folk wrestling from the north-east Indian state of Manipur. It is
popular in Imphal, Thoubal and Bishnupur. Matches begin with the competitors holding each other‘s
belts called ningri. The object is to pin the opponent with their back touching the ground.
o Thangta, Manipur: Thangta is a martial art form from Manipur. Its traditional name is Huyel Langlon.
The primary weapons are the thang (sword) and ta (spear).
o Khomlainai, Assam: It is a form of Wrestling, practiced mainly by people of the Bodo community in
Assam.
o Gatka, Punjab: It is a traditional South Asian form of combat-training in which wooden sticks are
used to simulate swords in sparring matches.

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