Accounting & Finance Exit Exam Practice Questions

COMPETENCIES
KNOWLEDGE ASPECTS
 Describe essential facts, concepts, principles and theories relating to Accounting and Finance;
 Comprehend knowledge of theory, language and tools that are used for specification, design,
implementation, evaluation and management of accounting systems;
 Conceptualize professional, moral and ethical principles in Accounting, Auditing and Finance.
 Describe various Ethiopian tax laws;
SKILL ASPECTS
 Design and implement financial accounting and reporting system in line with both the
international rules and national laws;
 Design and implement an accounting system that would enable to identify, measure, interpret
and communicate cost and managerial accounting information for decision makers in a manner
that helps to determine and control the costs of their goods and services;
 Evaluate the economic/financial viability of investment decisions (both short-term and
longterm investment projects) for all types of organizations;
 Design and run effective internal control systems;
 Audit financial statements and the underlying accounting systems, controls and records, and
express an independent professional opinion as per international standards for auditing (ISA) and
other relevant rules and regulations and take part in preparing audit reports;
 Design and implement effective and efficient accounting systems to account for transactions
and events related to public sector and civil society organizations; prepare and interpret financial
reports for such organizations as per international public sector accounting standards and other
applicable rules and laws;
 Prepare tax returns for the tax payers and conduct tax assessment and manage tax revenue for
the government as per the applicable tax proclamations, regulations and directives.
ATTITUDE ASPECTS
 Be able to work ethically as a member of a professional associations;
 Recognize and be guided by the social, professional, and ethical issues involved in auditing and
preparation of financial statements;
 Judge ethically, think logically, reason critically, and make professional judgments in
Accounting and Finance;
 Value integrity and professional ethics in carrying out assigned activities;
 Internalize an appreciation for the role of ethics in both the profession and the business world;
 Develop time-management, work-planning skills and be prepared for graduate studies,
professional certification and advanced trainings in accounting, auditing, finance and
management
15 major courses that are offered to students of Accounting and Finance at various levels
throughout their stay at university are identified under five major thematic areas based on the
required learning outcomes. The identification of major themes was done by considering the
desired core competencies.
The five major thematic areas on which the exit exam will be based are:
I. Financial Accounting and Reporting
II. Cost and Managerial Accounting
III. Corporate Finance and Financial Institutions
IV. Auditing and Assurance Services
V. Taxation and Public Sector Accounting
I. Financial Accounting and Reporting

 Fundamentals of Accounting I
 Fundamentals of Accounting II
 Intermediate Financial Accounting I
 Intermediate Financial Accounting II
 Advanced Financial Accounting I
 Advanced Financial Accounting II
II. Cost and Managerial Accounting
 Cost and Management Accounting I
 Cost and Management Accounting II
III. Corporate Finance and Financial Institutions
 Financial Management I
 Financial Management II
 Financial Markets and Institutions
IV. Auditing and Assurance Services
 Auditing Principles and Practices I
 Auditing Principles and Practices II
V. Taxation and Public Sector Accounting
 Public Finance and Taxation
 Accounting for Public Sector and Civil Society
FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING I & II
1. Which of the following item is shown in the Receipt and Payment account?
A. Only items of capital nature.
B. Only items of revenue nature which are received during the period of accounts.
C. Only items of revenue nature pertaining to the period of accounts.
D. Both the items of capital and revenue nature which are received during the
Answer» D. Both the items of capital and revenue nature which are received during the
2. Any income arising from special fund will be credited to

A. General fund in the Balance Sheet
B. Receipt and Payment account
C. Income and Expenditure account
D. Special fund in the Balance sheet
Answer» D. Special fund in the Balance sheet
3. There are 100 members each paying an annual subscription of 500. The Receipt and Payment accoun
arrear subscription of 4,500, advance subscriptions 6,000 and current 44,500. How much amount to b
in the Income and Expenditure account?
A. 55,000
B. 49,000
C. 44,500
D. 50,000
Answer» D. 50,000
4. When opening stock 50,000; closing stock 40,000; purchases 1,90,000 profit margin is 16.67% on sale
are:
A. 2,40,000
B. 2,36,000
C. 2,00,000
D. 2,44,000
Answer» A. 2,40,000
5. Goods bought for 25,000 passed through sales day book will result in
A. No effect on gross profit
B. Decrease in gross profit
C. Decrease in net profit
D. Increase in gross profit
Answer» D. Increase in gross profit
6. Which of the following will result in disagreement of Trial Balance?
A. Sales return treated as purchase.
B. Purchase return treated as sales.
C. Ram a/c wrongly credited instead of Sham a/c
D. Under casting cash book by 1,100
Answer» D. Under casting cash book by 1,100
7. In a joint venture X and Y sharing p rofit and loss equally, X purchased goods costing of 40,000 and
goods for 50,000. X is entitled to get 1% commission on purchase and Y is entitled to get 5% commis
sales, the profit will be
A. 7,200
B. 7,100
C. 6,800
D. 7,600
Answer» B. 7,100
8. What is the nature of joint venture with co-venture account?

A. Nominal account
B. Personal account 2
C. Real Account
D. Memorandum Account
Answer» B. Personal account 2
9. Which of the following term is applicable about consignment?

A. Sale of goods
B. Hypothecation of goods
C. Shipment of goods
D. Mortgage of goods
Answer» A. Sale of goods
10. Retirement of bill means

A. sending the bill for collection
B. cancellation of the bill
C. endorsing the bill in favour of third party
D. making payment before the due date.
Answer» D. making payment before the due date.
11. Which one of these documents is not required for bank reconciliation?
A. Bank Column of cash book
B. Bank pass book
C. Previous year’s balance sheet
D. Bank statement
11. Which one of these documents is not required for bank reconciliation?
Answer» C. Previous year’s balance sheet
12. In a overdraft balance as per cash book, a cheque of 1,250 deposited into bank but not recorded in ca
will be
A. deducted by 1,250
B. added by 1,250
C. added by 2,500
D. deducted by 2,500
Answer» A. deducted by 1,250
13. Which of these errors affects only one account?

A. Error of casting
B. Error of posting
C. Error of carry forward
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
14. Which of the following error is an error of principle?

A. 4,000 received from Sham credited to Shamu a/c
B. 5,000 incurred on installation of new plant debited to salary a/c
C. 6,000 paid for wages debited to salary a/c
D. 7,000 being purchase of raw material debited to purchase a/c
Answer» B. 5,000 incurred on installation of new plant debited to salary a/c
15. In case of depreciable assets are revalued, the provision for depreciation is based on
A. Market value of the assets
B. Historical cost of the asset
C. Written down value of the asset
D. the revalued amount over the estimate of the remaining useful life of such asset.
Answer» D. the revalued amount over the estimate of the remaining useful life of such asset.
16. Trade discount is allowed at the time of sale of goods.

A. is recorded in sales book
B. is recorded in cash book
C. is not recorded in books of accounts
D. is recorded in journal
Answer» C. is not recorded in books of accounts
17. A debit note issued to a creditor for goods returned is to be recorded in the
A. Purchase return book
B. Journal Proper
17. A debit note issued to a creditor for goods returned is to be recorded in the
C. Purchase book
D. Bill Receivable book
Answer» A. Purchase return book
18. The determination of expenses for an accounting period is based on the concept of 3
A. Consistency concept
B. Periodicity concept
C. Timelines concept
D. Industry practice
Answer» B. Periodicity concept
19. Decrease in the amount of creditors results in

A. Increase in assets
B. Increase in cash
C. Decrease in cash
D. No change in assets
Answer» C. Decrease in cash
20. Subscription received in advance to be shown in

A. Liability side of the balance sheet
B. Asset side of the balance sheet
C. Income and Expenditure account
D. Journal
Answer» A. Liability side of the balance sheet
21. Which of the following is an accounting equation?

A. Capital = Assets + Liabilities
B. Capital = Assets – Liabilities
C. Assets = Liabilities – Capital
D. Liabilities = Assets + Capital
Answer» B. Capital = Assets – Liabilities
22. AS – 09 deals with

A. Inventory Valuation
B. Depreciation Accounting
C. Revenue Recognition
D. Cash Flow Statement
Answer» C. Revenue Recognition
23. Y-draws a trade bill of 12,000 for 6 months on X. After holding the bill for 2.5 months, Y discount th
bank @ 10% p.a. The amount of discount on bill is
A. 100
B. 350
C. 600
D. 250
Answer» B. 350
24. Bills Receivable books is part of the

A. Journal
B. Ledger
C. Profit & Loss Account
D. Balance Sheet
Answer» A. Journal
25. X of Addis send out certain goods at cost + 25% of cost. Invoice value of goods is 1,20,000. 4/5th of
the goods were sold by consignee at 1,00,000. Commission @ 2% up to invoice value and 10% of any
above invoice. The amount of commission will be
A. 1,920
B. 2,320
C. 1,820
D. 2,020
Answer» B. 2,320
26. If X co-venture takes away of goods under memorandum Joint Venture Method then he will debit th
his books to
A. Sales Account
B. Purchase Account
C. Personal Account
D. Joint Venture Account
Answer» C. Personal Account
27. At the end of the year Bad Debts Recovered Account is

A. Debited to Debtors Account 4
B. Credited to Debtors Account
C. Credited to Profit & Loss Account
D. Debited to Profit & Loss Account
Answer» C. Credited to Profit & Loss Account
28. As regards the accounting treatment, Legacy should be

A. treated as loss
B. Capitalized
C. treated Revenue Expenses
28. As regards the accounting treatment, Legacy should be
D. treated Deferred Revenue
Answer» B. capitalized
29. Sales of 6,570 is recorded in the sales book as 6,750. Such Error is known as
A. Error of Principle
B. Error of Omission
C. Error of Commission
D. Compensating Error
Answer» C. Error of Commission
30. Which of the following is correct?

A. Cost of Goods Sold – Opening Stock + Purchases = Closing Stock
B. Purchase + Cost of Goods Sold – Opening Stock = Closing Stock
C. Cost of Goods Sold + Closing Stock – Opening Stock = Purchase
D. Opening Stock + Closing Stock – Purchase = Cost of Goods sold
Answer» C. Cost of Goods Sold + Closing Stock – Opening Stock = Purchase
31. Provision for bad debt is made as per the

A. Entity concept
B. Conservatism concept
C. Cost concept
D. Going concern concept
Answer» B. Conservatism concept
32. Capital expenditures are shown in the

A. Balance Sheet
B. Profit & Loss a/c
C. Trading a/c
D. Manufacturing a/c
Answer» A. Balance Sheet
33. Import duty of raw material purchased is a

A. Revenue Expenditure
B. Capital Expenditure
C. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Revenue Expenditure
34. Life Insurance Corporation Account is a

A. Nominal Account
B. Artificial Personal Account
34. Life Insurance Corporation Account is a
C. Representative Personal Account
D. Real Account
Answer» B. Artificial Personal Account
35. Goods taken from business for personal use by the proprietor should be credited to
A. Drawing a/c
B. Capital a/c
C. Sales a/c
D. Purchase a/c
Answer» D. Purchase a/c
36. A cash book with discount and bank column is called as

A. Single Column Cash Book
B. Two Column Cash Book
C. Three Column Cash Book
D. Petty Cash Book
Answer» C. Three Column Cash Book
37. The periodical total of Returns Inward Day Book is posted to 5

A. Debit of Sales Account
B. Debit of Sales Return Account
C. Credit of Sales Return Account
D. Debit of Debtors Account
Answer» B. Debit of Sales Return Account
38. The process of transfer of entries from day book to ledger is called as
A. Balancing
B. Journal Posting
C. Transaction
D. Ledger Posting
Answer» D. Ledger Posting
39. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation as – Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s equ
A. Income Statement
B. Statement of Cash Flows
C. Balance Sheet
D. Either (A) or (B)
Answer» C. Balance Sheet
40. The Depreciation Account is closed at the end of the year by transfer to the
A. General Reserve a/c
40. The Depreciation Account is closed at the end of the year by transfer to the
B. Profit and Loss a/c
C. Provision for Depreciation a/c
D. Fixed Asset a/c
Answer» B. Profit and Loss a/c
41. The original cost of the machine is 19,00,000; machine installation charges are 1,00,000; working life
machine is 5 years and residual value is 40,000. If the depreciation is charged on Straight Line basis t
year’s depreciation will be:
A. 3,72,000
B. 4,00,000
C. 3,92,000
D. 3,52,000
Answer» C. 3,92,000
42. Whenever errors are noticed in the accounting records, they should be rectified.
A. at the time of preparation of Trial Balance.
B. without waiting the accounting year to end.
C. after the preparation of final accounts.
D. in the next accounting year.
Answer» B. without waiting the accounting year to end.
43. A purchase of 49,500 from Shiva was recorded in Purchases Book as 59,400, the profit would show
A. an increase of 9,900
B. a decrease of 9,900
C. an increase of 59,400
D. neither an increase nor a decrease
Answer» B. a decrease of 9,900
44. From the following details ascertain the adjusted bank balance as per Cash Book – overdraft as per C
1,60,000; cheque received entered twice in the Cash Book 10,000; credit side of bank column cash sho
1,000; bank charges amounting to 400 entered twice:
A. 1,61,000
B. 1,71,000
C. 1,70,000
D. 1,70,600
Answer» D. 1,70,600
45. When credit balance as per pass book is the starting point of a Bank Reconciliation Statement then b
charges are
A. Subtracted
B. Added
45. When credit balance as per pass book is the starting point of a Bank Reconciliation Statement then b
charges are
C. Either (A) or (B) 6
Answer» B. Added
46. At the time of dishonor of an endorsed bill, which account would be credited by the drawee?
A. Bills Payable Account
B. Drawer’s Account
C. Bank Account
D. Bills Dishonoured Account
Answer» B. Drawer’s Account
47. At the en d of the accounting year bills receivable discounted were 32,000 would be shown
A. on Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
B. on Assets side of the Balance Sheet
C. by way of a note with Balance Sheet
D. Not appeared anywhere
Answer» B. on Assets side of the Balance Sheet
48. X sends out goods to Y, costing 3,60,000. Goods are to be sold at cost plus 25% on sales. The consigno
consignee to pay an advance for an amount equivalent to 60% of sales value. The amount of advance
A. 2,88,000
B. 2,16,000
C. 2,70,000
D. 3,36,000
Answer» A. 2,88,000
Explanation: The sales value of the goods is 3,60,000 / (100 - 25) = 4,80,000.
The advance payment requested by the consignor is equivalent to 60% of the sales value, so the amount of the ad
be 4,80,000 x 60% = 288,000.
49. X sends out certain goods to Y, costing 1,50,000 at cost plus 25% on invoice price. ¾ of the goods wer
at 1,76,000. Commission 5% up to invoice value and 10% of any surplus above invoice value. The am
commission will be
A. 10,100
B. 11,975
C. 10,568.75
D. 9,350
Answer» C. 10,568.75
50. A purchased goods costing 2,60,000 for joint venture with B. B sold a major part of the goods at cost
on cost, for 2,50,000. Balance of goods were taken over by B at cost less 10%. Find out profit/loss on
Venture.
A. (Loss) 10,000
B. 55,250
C. 44,000
D. 50,000
Answer» C. 44,000
51. Which of the following account(s) is (are) maintained in the joint venture when separate set of books
maintained?
A. Joint Bank a/c
B. Joint Venture a/c
C. Co-venturer a/c
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Co-venturer a/c
52. At the time of preparation of financial accounts, balance of Bad Debts Recovered Account will be tra
A. Debtor’s Personal a/c
B. Profit & Loss a/c
C. Bad Debts a/c
D. Profit & Loss Appropriation a/c
Answer» D. Profit & Loss Appropriation a/c
53. In case of not for profit making concern, endowment fund receipt is treated as
A. Capital Receipt
B. Revenue Receipt
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer» B. Revenue Receipt
54. Any donation received for a specific purpose should be credited to

A. Income and Expenditure Account
B. Capital Fund
C. Special Fund
D. Either (A) or (B)
Answer» A. Income and Expenditure Account
55. Income and Expenditure account shows subscription at 2,50,000. Subscriptions accrued in the beginn
year and at the end of the year were 25,000 and 37,500 respectively. The amount of subscriptions rec
appearing in receipts and payments account will be
A. 2,37,500
B. 2,75,000
55. Income and Expenditure account shows subscription at 2,50,000. Subscriptions accrued in the beginn
year and at the end of the year were 25,000 and 37,500 respectively. The amount of subscriptions rec
appearing in receipts and payments account will be
C. 1,87,500
D. 2,62,500
Answer» B. 2,75,000
56. Which of the following transaction is not recorded in cash book?

A. Bad debts recovered
B. Prepaid expenses
C. Trade discount allowed
D. Freight paid for acquiring an asset
Answer» A. Bad debts recovered
57. Credit purchase of fixed asset is recorded in

A. Journal Proper
B. Purchase book
C. Cash book
D. Petty Cash Book
Answer» C. Cash book
58. Expenses paid but not accrued means

Capital exp
A.
Expenses
B. Outstanding expenses
C. Prepaid expenses
D. Cash
Answer» A. Capital expenses
59. Until the discounted bill is paid by the acceptor, it remains as

A. a contingent liability
B. a current liability
C. an asset
D. an expense
Answer» C. an asset
60. The amount of yearly depreciation under written down value method
A. remains same over the years
B. decreases year by year
C. increases year by year
D. Fluctuates
Answer» A. remains same over the years
61. Goods purchased from Mr. A but wrongly entered in the account of Mr. B. The rectification of error
in
A. increase in gross profit
B. decrease in gross profit
C. no effect on gross profit
D. either A or B
Answer» B. decrease in gross profit
62. When cash received for services rendered in the past

A. Owner’s equity increases
B. Current asset increases
C. Profit increases
Answer» C. Profit increases
63. Stock in the hand of the consignee is valued

A. at market price or cost price whichever is less.
B. at selling price.
C. at cost price after inclusion of proportionate non-recurring expenses.
D. at consignment price.
Answer» D. at consignment price.
64. Noting charges are paid by

A. the drawee
B. the drawer
C. the payee
D. the acceptor
Answer» A. the drawee
65. The valuation procedure for stock is cost or net realizable value, whichever is lower. The procedure f
per
A. Historical Cost Concept
B. Going Concern Concept
C. Money Measurement Concept
D. Conservatism Concept
Answer» C. Money Measurement Concept
66. When incomes recognized on cash basis and expenditure recognized on accrual basis, the system term
A. Accrual basis of accounting
B. Cash basis of accounting
C. Mercantile basis of accounting
66. When incomes recognized on cash basis and expenditure recognized on accrual basis, the system term
D. Hybrid basis of accounting
Answer» D. Hybrid basis of accounting
67. Which one is not considered as capital expenditure?

A. Depreciation
B. Architect’s fees
C. Demolition cost
D. Legal cost for buying property
Answer» D. Legal cost for buying property
68. Legal charges paid to defend a suit on firm’s factory site is

A. Capital expenditure
B. Revenue expenditure
C. Deferred revenue expenditure
D. Prepaid expenditure
Answer» C. Deferred revenue expenditure
69. Profit and loss account is prepared for a period of one year by following the concept of
A. Consistency Concept
B. Cost Concept
C. Going Concern Concept
D. Periodicity Concept
Answer» D. Periodicity Concept
70. The trial balance checks

A. Nature of business
B. Valuation of closing stock
C. Correctness of cash in hand
D. Arithmetical accuracy
Answer» D. Arithmetical accuracy
71. Errors in carry forward of closing balances from one year to another which affects
A. Nominal accounts
B. Real accounts
C. Personal accounts
D. Both (B) and (C)
Answer» D. Both (B) and (C)
72. If a bill drawn on 13th July 2018 for 60 days, payment must be made on
A. 15th September, 2018
B. 14th September, 2018
72. If a bill drawn on 13th July 2018 for 60 days, payment must be made on
C. 13th September, 2018
D. 12th September, 2018
Answer» D. 12th September, 2018
73. The manufacturing account is prepared

A. to ascertain the cost of goods manufactured.
B. to ascertain gross profit.
C. to ascertain profit or loss on the goods manufactured
Answer» A. to ascertain the cost of goods manufactured.
74. Which one of the following is not a financial statement?

A. Trial Balance
B. Profit and Loss account
C. Balance Sheet
D. Fund Flow statement
Answer» A. Trial Balance
75. Any revenue expense for which a separate fund is available will be
A. capitalized and shown in the balance sheet.
B. debited to income and expenditure account.
C. debited to the separate fu
Answer» C. debited to the separate fu
76. ________________________is not objective of accounting.
A. Gives accurate information
B. Keeps records in systematic manner
C. Analyses recorded data
D. Ascertain financial position of business
Answer» A. Gives accurate information
77. Which of the following is not a paper transaction?

A. Charge of depreciation
B. Discount received
C. Bad debts written off
D. Cash stolen from office
Answer» A. Charge of depreciation
78. Which of the following is capital expenditure?

A. Repairs of fixed asset
B. Demolition cost
C. Locker rent
78. Which of the following is capital expenditure?
D. Annual subscription
Answer» D. Annual subscription
79. Advertising expenses for launching a new product of the company is____________.
A. Revenue expenditure
B. Capital expenditure
D. Deferred capital expenditure
Answer» C. Deferred revenue expenditure
80. ___________________does fulfill the function of both a journal and a ledger.

A. Purchase book
B. Cash book
C. Sales book
D. Bills Payable book
Answer» B. Cash book
81. Which of the following is artificial personal account?

A. SBI account
B. Wages paid account
C. Discount received account
D. Drawings account
Answer» A. SBI account
82. Accounting cycle ends with preparation of______________.

A. the journal/ledger
B. the trial balance
C. the financial statement
D. the closing entries record
Answer» D. the closing entries record
83. Journal proper uses to record _________________.

A. bad debts recovered
B. all cash purchases of assets other than goods
C. writing of bad debts
D. purchase of goods on credit
Answer» B. all cash purchases of assets other than goods
84. In case of, deposited of cheque into bank but not collected, the balance is less as per ______________
A. Cash book
B. Pass book
84. In case of, deposited of cheque into bank but not collected, the balance is less as per ______________
C. Pass book overdraft
D. Both (A) and (B)
Answer» B. Pass book
85. Accounting does not record non-financial transactions because of

A. Entity concept
B. Accrual concept
C. Cost concept
D. Money measurement concept
Answer» A. Entity concept
86. Narration is given at the end of

A. Final accounts
B. Trial balance
C. Each ledger account
D. Each journal entry
Answer» D. Each journal entry
87. Which one of the following is an example of Personal Account?

A. Machinery
B. Rent
C. Cash
D. Creditor
Answer» D. Creditor
88. 5,000 incurred for up gradation of computer by installation of 128 MB Ram is

B. Deferred revenue expenditure
C. Capital expenditure
Answer» C. Capital expenditure
89. Cost of goods purchased for resale is an example of

B. Capital expenditure
Answer» A. Revenue expenditure
90. Insurance claim received on account of machinery damaged completely by fire is

A. Capital receipt
90. Insurance claim received on account of machinery damaged completely by fire is
B. Revenue receipt
C. Capital expenditure
D. Revenue expenditure
Answer» A. Capital receipt
91. An expenditure is capital in nature when

A. The receiver of the amount is going to treat it for the purchase of fixed assets.
B. It increases the quantity of fixed assets.
C. It is paid as interest on loans for the business.
D. It maintains of fixed asset.
Answer» B. It increases the quantity of fixed assets.
92. A withdrawal of cash from business by the proprietor should be credited to

A. Drawing Account
B. Capital Account
C. Cash Account
D. Purchase Account
Answer» C. Cash Account
93. Cash book is a form of

A. Ledger
B. Journal
C. Trial Balance
D. All of the above
Answer» A. Ledger
94. A sale of goods to Laxman for cash should be debited to

A. Laxman A/c
B. Cash A/c
C. Sales A/c
D. Capital A/c
Answer» B. Cash A/c
95. The debts written off earlier as bad, subsequently recovered are
A. Debited to profit and loss A/c
B. Credited to bad debt recovery A/c
C. Credited to trade receivable A/c
D. Credited to debtors A/c
Answer» B. Credited to bad debt recovery A/c
96. Which one of the following is an external cause for depreciation
A. Over use
B. Abnormal occurrence
C. Time element
D. Obsolescence
Answer» D. Obsolescence
97. Original cost of a machine is 1,50,000, residual value 10,000, if depreciation is charged @ 105 per ann
WDV method then depreciation for 3rd year will be
A. 12,240
B. 11,340
C. 12,150
D. 14,000
Answer» C. 12,150
98. On which of the following asset, depreciation is charged on ‘Depletion method’

A. Goodwill
B. Plant and Machinery
C. Land and Building
D. Wasting asset like mine and quarries
Answer» D. Wasting asset like mine and quarries
99. If a sum of 1,500 received from Laxman (debtor) has not been recorded in the books, the
A. Profit would show an increase of 1,500
B. Profit would show a decrease of 1,500
C. Assets would show a decrease of 1,500
Answer» D. None of the above
100. If goods worth 1,750 returned to suppler is wrongly entered in sales returned book as 1,570 then
A. Gross profit will decrease by 3,320
B. Gross profit will decrease by 3,500
C. Gross profit will increase by 3,320
D. Net profit will decrease by 3,140
Answer» A. Gross profit will decrease by 3,320
101. Which of the following errors affects the agreement of a trial balance?
A. Mistake in balancing an account
B. Omitting to record a transaction entirely in the subsidiary books 12
C. Recording of a wrong entry in the subsidiary book
D. Posting an entry on the correct side but in the wrong account
Answer» A. Mistake in balancing an account
102. Difference in Bank Balance as per Pass book and Cash book may arise on account of
A. Cheque issued but not presented
B. Cheque issued but dishonoured
C. Cheque deposited not credited by bank
D. All of the above
103. Which of these items are taken into consideration for preparation of adjusted cash book?
A. Mistake in cash book
B. Mistake in pass book
C. Cheque issued but not presented for payment
D. Cheque deposited but not cleared by bank
Answer» A. Mistake in cash book
104. Kasi draws a bi ll on Shyam for 5,000 and Kasi endorsed it to Ram. Ram endorese it to Rahul. The p
bill will be
A. Kasi
B. Ram
C. Shyam
D. Rahul
Answer» D. Rahul
105. On receipt of goods from the consignor the consignee debits which of these accounts?
A. Purchase account
B. Goods account
C. Consignor account
106. The Consignment Accounting is made on the following basis

A. Cash basis
B. Realisation basis
C. Accrual basis
Answer» C. Accrual basis
107. Joint venture account is of the nature of

A. Personal account
B. Nominal account
C. Real account
D. Suspense account
Answer» B. Nominal account
108. If unsold goods costing 20,000 is taken over by venturer at 15,000, the joint venture account will be c
A. 20,000
B. 15,000
C. 5,000
D. Nil
Answer» B. 15,000
109. Closing stock appearing in the trial balance is shown in

A. Trading A/c and Balance sheet
B. Profit and Loss A/c
C. Balance Sheet only
D. Trading A/c only
Answer» C. Balance Sheet only
110. Which one of the following character is not related to Financial Accounting?
A. Evaluates the financial strength of the whole business.
B. Based on monetary transactions of the enterprise
C. Reports are always subject to statutory audit.
D. Reports are as per requirement of management.
Answer» D. Reports are as per requirement of management.
111. Which one of the following equation is correct?

A. Owner’s Equity = Liability + Asset
B. Owner’s Equity = Asset - Liability
C. Liability = Owner’s Equity + Asset
D. Asset = Owner’s Equity + Liability
Answer» B. Owner’s Equity = Asset - Liability
112. Identify the Personal Account from the following

A. Salary Payable Account
B. Taxes paid account
C. Investment Account
D. Trademark Account
Answer» A. Salary Payable Account
113. Which of the following is a transaction of contra entry?

A. Sale goods to Y 12,500
B. Godown rent 7,000 paid by cheque.
C. Received 12,000 in full settlement of 12,500
D. Cash deposited to bank 9,000.
Answer» D. Cash deposited to bank 9,000.
114. When Trial Balance will not tally/mismatch?
A. Two errors those are compensating each other.
B. A transaction recorded twice.
C. Taking balance to the wrong side in the Trial balance
D. If an entry is totally missed.
Answer» C. Taking balance to the wrong side in the Trial balance
115. An entry of 1,560 has been debited to a Debtor’s Personal Account at 1,650. It is an error of
A. Omission
B. Commission
C. Principle
D. Compensating
Answer» B. Commission
116. Amount set apart to meet loss due to bad debt is a

A. Provision
B. Appropriation
C. Reserve
D. Commission
Answer» A. Provision
117. Reduction in value of asset due to its continuous use is treated as

A. Appreciation
B. Depreciation
C. Loss
D. Profit
Answer» B. Depreciation
118. What happens when a bad debt is recovered?

A. Current asset decreases
B. Debtor’s balance decreases
C. Profit increases
D. Owner’s fund decreases
Answer» C. Profit increases
119. Which balance is not considered for closing entries on t he basis of trial balance for transferring to T
Profit & Loss Account?
A. Salary and Wages
B. Discount Received
C. Commission Paid
D. Cash in Hand
119. Which balance is not considered for closing entries on t he basis of trial balance for transferring to T
Profit & Loss Account?
Answer» D. Cash in Hand
120. Select correct journal entry to rectify an error “An amount of 10,000, withdrawn by owner for perso
debited to Trade Expenses Account”. Debit Credit
A. Drawing Account Trade Expenses a/c
B. Trade Expenses a/c Drawing Account
C. Drawing Account Cash Account
D. Trade Expenses a/c Cash Account
Answer» B. Trade Expenses a/c Drawing Account
121. M/s. A.B. Enterprises has bank balance 8,800 as per cash book and the followings were found: (a) Th
deposited in bank for 5,800 but only one cheque for 2,000 was cleared. (b) Dividend collected by Ban
wrongly entered in cash book as 1,520. What is balance as per pass book?
A. 3,480
B. 4,730
C. 2,730
D. 3,750
Answer» B. 4,730
122. House Building advance of 2.00 lakh paid to employees. It is a/an

A. Asset
B. Revenue Expenditure
C. Capital Expenditure
D. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
Answer» A. Asset
123. Claims against company pending in court case. It is a

A. Current Liability
B. Current Asset
C. Contingent Liability
D. Un-secured Loan
Answer» C. Contingent Liability
124. Which one of the following is not a negotiable instrument?

A. Currency Note
B. Promissory Note
C. Bill of Exchange
D. Crossed Cheque
Answer» A. Currency Note
125. Which one of the following is not the feature of a joint venture business?
A. Co-venture may or may not contribute initial capital.
B. It has limited duration
C. It is done for specific purpose
D. Profit or loss on joint venture is shared as per their capital ratio.
Answer» D. Profit or loss on joint venture is shared as per their capital ratio.
126. There are 250 members in the Srikrishna Club where annual subscription is 500. During 2016-17, su
received 97,500 and subscription receivable is 47,500. What amount of subscription received in advan
2016-17?
A. 20,000
B. 25,000
C. 27,500
D. 50,000
Answer» A. 20,000
127. When goods are purchased for the joint venture, the account to be debited is
A. Purchase account
B. Joint Venture account
C. Venture’s capital account
D. either Purchase account or Joint venture account
Answer» D. either Purchase account or Joint venture account
128. The abnormal loss on consignment is credited to:

A. Profit and Loss Account
B. Consignee’s Account
C. Consignment Account
D. Insurance Company Account
Answer» C. Consignment Account
129. Fixed Assets and Current Assets are categorized as per concept of
A. Separate Entity
B. Going Concern
C. Consistency
D. Time period
Answer» B. Going Concern
130. An expenditure is in capital nature when

A. the receiver of the amount is going to treat it for the purchase of fixed assets.
B. it increase the quantity of fixed assets.
C. it is paid as interests on loans for the business
130. An expenditure is in capital nature when
D. it maintains a fixed assets
Answer» A. the receiver of the amount is going to treat it for the purchase of fixed assets.
131. Cash book is a

A. Subsidiary book
B. Subsidiary book and a Ledger account
C. Ledger account
Answer» B. Subsidiary book and a Ledger account
132. The periodical total of the Sales Return Book is posted to the
A. Debit side of Sales Account
B. Debit side of Sales Return Account
C. Credit side of Sales Return Account
D. Debit side of Debtors Account
Answer» B. Debit side of Sales Return Account
133. Goods sent on consignment account is of the nature of

A. Personal Account
B. Nominal Account
C. Real Account
D. Sales Account
Answer» C. Real Account
134. Which of the following items are shown in the income and expenditure account?
A. Only items of capital nature.
B. Only items of revenue nature which are received during the period of accounts.
C. Only items of revenue nature pertaining to the period of accounts.
D. Both the items of capital and revenue nature.
Answer» C. Only items of revenue nature pertaining to the period of accounts.
135. Income tax of the sole trade paid is shown

A. Debited to P & L Account
B. Debited to Trading Account
C. Debited to his Capital Account
Answer» C. Debited to his Capital Account
136. Narration are given at the end of

A. Final Accounts
B. Each Ledger Account in Trial Balance
136. Narration are given at the end of
C. Each Ledger Account
D. Each Journal Entry
Answer» D. Each Journal Entry
137. Life membership fees received by a club is a

A. Revenue Expenditure
B. Capital Expenditure
C. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
D. Capital Receipt
Answer» D. Capital Receipt
138. A bad debt recovered during the year will be

A. Capital Expenditure
B. Revenue Expenditure
C. Capital Receipt
D. Revenue Receipt
Answer» D. Revenue Receipt
139. Nominal Account represents

A. Profit & Gain
B. Loss / Expenses
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer» C. Both (A) and (B)
140. Prepaid rent is a

A. Nominal Account
B. Representative Personal Account
C. Tangible Assets Account
Answer» B. Representative Personal Account
141. Purchases book is used to record

A. All purchases of goods
B. All credit purchases
C. All credit purchases of goods
D. All credit purchases of assets other than goods
Answer» C. All credit purchases of goods
142. The source document or voucher used for recording entries in Sales Book is
A. invoice received
142. The source document or voucher used for recording entries in Sales Book is
B. invoice sent out
C. credit notes sent out
D. debit notes received
Answer» B. invoice sent out
143. Ledger contains various _______ in it.

A. Transactions
B. Entries
C. Accounts
Answer» C. accounts
144. Purchase price of Machine 8,90,000; Freight and Cartage 7,000; Installation charges 30,000; Insuran
20,000; Residual value is 40,000; estimated useful life 5 years. The amount of annual depreciation un
line method will be
A. 1,77,400
B. 1,81,400
C. 1,97,400
D. 1,77,900
Answer» A. 1,77,400
145. The value of an asset after deducting depreciation from the historical cost is known as
A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Net realizable value
D. Book value
Answer» D. Book value
146. Goods worth 272 returned by Lala passed through the books as 722. In the rectification entry
A. Lala will be debited by 450
B. Lala will be debited by 272
C. Lala will be credited by 722
D. Lala will be credited by 272
Answer» A. Lala will be debited by 450
147. When preparing a bank reconciliation statement, if you start with debit balance as per cash book che
to bank but not collected should be
A. Added
B. Deducted
C. Not required to be adjusted
147. When preparing a bank reconciliation statement, if you start with debit balance as per cash book che
to bank but not collected should be
Answer» B. Deducted
148. Payment of Bills of Exchange is received

A. by drawer
B. by holder in due course of due date
C. by endorsee
D. by bank
Answer» B. by holder in due course of due date
149. Which of these is/are recurring (indirect) expenses?

A. Transit Insurance and Freight
B. Octroi
C. Loading and Unloading
D. Go-down Rent and Insurance
Answer» D. Go-down Rent and Insurance
150. Goods of the invoice value of 2,40,000 sent out to consignee at 20% profit on cost, the loading amoun
A. 40,000
B. 48,000
C. 50,000
Answer» A. 40,000
151. Memorandum joint venture account is

A. Personal Account
B. Real Account
C. Nominal Account
Answer» C. Nominal Account
152. The balance of the Petty Cash is a / an

A. Expense
B. Income
C. Asset
D. Liability
Answer» C. asset
153. Endowment fund receipt is treated as

A. Capital Receipt
B. Revenue Receipt
C. Loss
153. Endowment fund receipt is treated as
D. Expenses
Answer» A. Capital Receipt
154. Purchase book records:

A. All cash purchases
B. All credit purchases
C. Credit purchase of goods in trade
Answer» C. Credit purchase of goods in trade
155. A bank reconciliation statement is prepared to know the causes for the differences between:
A. The balances as per cash column of cash book and the pass book
B. The balances as per bank column of cash book and the pass book
C. The balances as per bank column of cash book and cash column of cash book
Answer» B. The balances as per bank column of cash book and the pass book
156. Which of the following is of capital nature:

A. Purchase of goods
B. Cost of repair
C. Wages paid for installation of machinery
D. Ret of factory
Answer» C. Wages paid for installation of machinery
157. Which account is the odd one:

A. Furniture
B. Materiality
C. Matching
D. Periodicity
Answer» A. Furniture
158. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation “assets = liabilities + owners’ equity”
A. Trading account
B. Profit &loss account
C. Balance sheet
D. Statement of cash flows
Answer» C. Balance sheet
159. “Business unit separate and distinct from the owner of it ”,is based on:
A. Money measurement
B. Going concern concept
159. “Business unit separate and distinct from the owner of it ”,is based on:
C. Business entity concept
D. Dual aspect concept
Answer» C. Business entity concept
160. If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalize together having either the debit or cred
common is known as:
A. Compound journal entry
B. Separate journal entry
C. Posting
D. Journalizing
Answer» A. Compound journal entry
161. A ………………. Is sent to a customer when he returns the goods

A. Debit note
B. Credit note
C. Proforma invoice
D. Bill
Answer» B. Credit note
162. Writing of the transactions in the ledger is called……………………

A. Posting
B. Journalizing
C. Balancing
D. Auditing
Answer» A. Posting
163. A withdrawal of cash from the business by the proprietor should be Credited to:
A. Drawings A/c
B. Capital A/c
C. Cash A/c
D. Current A/c
Answer» A. Drawings A/c
164. Narrations are given at the end of …………………………….

A. Final accounts
B. Trial balance
C. Each ledger accounts
D. Each journal entry
Answer» D. Each journal entry
165. Which of the following lists the balance and the title of accounts in the ledger on a given date?
A. P & L account
B. Balance sheet
C. Income statement
D. Trial balance
Answer» D. Trial balance
166. Which of the following is not a transaction?

A. Goods are purchased on cash basis for Rs.1000
B. Salaries paid for the month of may 2009
C. Land is purchased for Rs.10 lacs
D. An employee is dismissed from the job
Answer» D. An employee is dismissed from the job
167. Payment of personal expenses of the owners of business need to be recorded as:
A. Drawing
B. Liabilities
C. Expenses
D. Gains
Answer» A. Drawing
168. …………………………….. principle requires that the same method should be used from one accoun
to the next .
A. Conservation
B. Business entity
C. Consistency
D. Money measurement
Answer» C. Consistency
169. The petty cashier generally works on ……………………. System

A. Accrual
B. Imprest
C. Balancing
D. None of these
Answer» B. Imprest
170. Difference of totals of both debit and credit side of the trial balance is transferred to:
A. Suspense account
B. Trading account
C. P & L account
D. Current account
Answer» A. Suspense account
171. Carriage inward is debited to :
A. Suspense account
B. Trading account
C. P & L account
D. P & L appropriation account
Answer» B. Trading account
172. Double column cash book records :

A. Only cash transactions
B. All transactions
C. Cash and bank transactions
D. Cash purchase and cash sales transactions
Answer» C. Cash and bank transactions
173. All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is ………
A. Wages account
B. Debtors account
C. Good will
D. Bills payable account
Answer» D. Bills payable account
174. Drawings are deducted from ………………………….

A. Sales
B. Purchases
C. Expenses
D. Capital
Answer» D. Capital
175. ……………………… will generally show a debit balance.
A. Bank loan
B. Bad debt recovered
C. Salary payable
D. Drawings
Answer» D. Drawings
176. Purchase of a fixed asset on credit basis is recorded in …………….

A. Cash book
B. Purchase book
C. Journal proper
D. None of these
Answer» C. Journal proper
177. Which of the following account will have credit balance?
A. Sales return
B. Bills receivable
C. Carriage inward
D. Outstanding wages
Answer» D. Outstanding wages
178. Depreciations arises because of :

A. Fall in the market value of the asset
B. Fall in the value of money
C. Physical wear and tear of asset
D. Inflation in the market
Answer» C. Physical wear and tear of asset
179. Goodwill is ………………………….

A. Current account
B. Fictitious asset
C. Tangible asset
D. Intangible asset
Answer» D. Intangible asset
180. When money is withdrawn from the bank ……….. the account of the customer.
A. Credits
B. Debits
C. Either (a) or (b)
D. None of these
Answer» B. Debits
181. In case of debit balance , the words …………. are written on the debit side.
A. To balance b/d
B. To balance c/d
C. By balance b/d
D. By balance c/d
Answer» A. To balance b/d
182. Bank pass book is also known as …………………………………..

A. Bank book
B. Bank account
C. Bank column
D. Bank statement
Answer» D. Bank statement
183. Capital expenditure are recorded in the ………………..
A. Balance sheet
B. Profit & loss account
C. Trading account
D. Manufacturing account
Answer» A. Balance sheet
184. Accounts receivable normally has ……………………. Balance

A. Credit
B. Debit
C. Favorable
D. Negative
Answer» B. Debit
185. Financial statements are the part of ………………………… .

A. Accounting
B. Book keeping
C. All of the above
Answer» A. Accounting
186. Total of purchase return boo is posted periodically to the credit of ……

A. Purchase return book
B. Cash book
C. Journal proper
D. None of these
Answer» A. Purchase return book
187. In case credit balance , the words ………….. are written on the credit side.
A. To balance b/d
B. To balance c/d
C. By balance b/d
D. By balance c/d
Answer» C. By balance b/d
188. Bank overdraft has a ………………………….. balance

A. Debit
B. Credit
C. Negative
D. Favorable
Answer» B. Credit
189. Journal proper records :
A. Bills receivables
B. Bills payables
C. Cash payments
D. Opening entry
Answer» D. Opening entry
190. Following is not the example of external users

A. Government
B. Management
C. Investors
D. Suppliers and other creditors
Answer» B. Management
191. The trial balance shows closing stock of Rs.30,000 .it will be recorded in ………………..
A. Trading account
B. Profit and loss account
C. Profit and loss appropriation account
D. Balance sheet
Answer» D. Balance sheet
192. Carriage outward is debited to ………………………………..

A. Trading account
B. P/L account
D. Balance sheet
Answer» B. P/L account

A. Capital = Asset – Liabilities
B. Capital = Asset + Liabilities
C. Asset = Liabilities – capital
D. Liabilities = Asset + capital
Answer» A. Capital = Asset – Liabilities
194. In the ledger there are …………………….. columns.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer» C. 8
195. Users of accounting information include ………………………
A. Creditors
B. Lenders
C. Customers
D. All of the above
196. Accounting standards in India are issued by ……………………

A. Central Govt.
B. State Govt.
C. Institute of chartered accountants in India
D. RBI
Answer» C. Institute of chartered accountants in India
197. Book debts normally has ……………………… balance.

A. Credit
B. Debit
C. Unfavorable
D. None of the above.
Answer» B. Debit
198. Capital expenditure provide ………………………… benefits

A. Long period
B. Short period
C. Very short period
Answer» A. Long period
199. Accounts payable normally has ……………………….. balnce.
A. Credit
B. Debit
C. Unfavorable
Answer» A. Credit
200. Interest on drawings is …………………………….. for the business.3

A. Expense
B. Capital
C. Gain
Answer» C. Gain
201. Loss leads to reduction in …………………………………..
A. Liability
B. Capital
C. Income
D. Asset
Answer» B. Capital
202. Petty expenses paid in cash are recorded in:

A. Purchase book
B. Sales book
C. Petty cash book
D. Purchase return book
Answer» C. Petty cash book
203. Current assets does not include :

A. Cash
B. Stock
C. Debtors
D. Furniture
Answer» D. Furniture
204. Stock is ……………………………………….

A. Fixed asset
B. Current asset
C. Investments
D. Intangible asset
Answer» B. Current asset
205. All of the following have debit balance except:

A. 6% debentures
B. Loan to contractor
C. Interest on debentures
D. Audit fees
Answer» A. 6% debentures
206. Salary and wages is debited to:

A. Trading account
B. P/L account
D. Balance sheet
Answer» B. P/L account
207. Wages and salary is debited to:
A. Trading account
B. P/L Account
C. Profit and loss appropriations account
D. Balance sheet
Answer» A. Trading account
208. Journal proper records ……………………………

A. Credit purchase
B. Credit sales
C. Purchase of asset on credit
D. Sales return
Answer» C. Purchase of asset on credit
209. Land & building is a …………………………………

A. Fixed asset
B. Current asset
C. Fictitious asset
D. Intangible asset
Answer» A. Fixed asset
210. Which of the following account will have credit balance?

A. Bank over draft
B. Carriage inwards
C. Prepaid expenses
D. Bills receivable
Answer» A. Bank over draft
212. Three column cash book records …………………………

A. Only cash transactions
B. All transactions
C. Cash bank and discount transactions
D. Cash purchase and cash sales transactions
Answer» C. Cash bank and discount transactions
213. Trial balance is prepared according to :

A. Total method
B. Balance method
C. Total and balance method
D. All the three
Answer» B. Balance method
214. A person who owes money to the business is a …………………………
A. Debtor
B. Creditor
C. Investor
D. Supplier
Answer» A. Debtor
215. A ……………………….. is person to whom business owes money.

A. Debtor
B. Creditor
C. Investor
D. Proprietor
Answer» B. Creditor
216. ………………………….denote goods brought for sale.

A. Sale
B. Expense
C. Purchase
D. Revenue
Answer» C. Purchase
217. Assets acquired for long use in the business are called ………………….
A. Fixed assets
B. Current assets
C. Fictitious asset
D. Liquid asset
Answer» A. Fixed assets
218. …………….. is an example of wasting asset

A. Cash
B. Company man
C. Mines
D. Loan
Answer» C. Mines
219. Assets acquired for short term use in the business are called……………..
A. Fixed assets
B. Current assets
C. Fictitious assets
D. Liquid assets
Answer» B. Current assets
220. ………………….. is the major source of revenue of any business.
A. Investment
B. Advances
C. Loan
D. Sales
Answer» D. Sales
221. ……………….. refers the amount invested by the owner into business.
A. Loan
B. Advance
C. Capital
D. Prepaid expenses
Answer» C. Capital
222. Assets having definite shape and physical existence are called……….
A. Tangible asset
B. Intangible asset
C. Wasting asset
D. Fictitious asset
Answer» A. Tangible asset
223. Assets which get exhausted to the extent of extraction are called ……….
A. Tangible asset
B. Intangible asset
C. Wasting asset
D. Fictitious asset
Answer» C. Wasting asset
224. ……………. are liabilities which become due and payable within a short period.
A. Fixed liabilities
B. Long term liabilities
C. Current liabilities
D. Contingent liabilities
Answer» C. Current liabilities
225. ……………….. is an example for fictitious asset.
A. Machinery
B. Stock
C. Patent
D. Preliminary expenses
Answer» D. Preliminary expenses
226. ……………… is the collection of all accounts.
A. Journal
B. Voucher
C. Invoices
D. Ledger
Answer» D. Ledger
227. …………………… is the book of original entry.

A. Journal
B. Voucher
C. Invoices
D. Ledger
Answer» A. Journal
228. The process of ascertaining the balance of a particular account on a given date is :
A. Posting
B. Journalizing
C. Balancing
D. Accounting
Answer» C. Balancing
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
1. All the transactions measurable in the terms of money are recorded in accounts is according to
A. business entity concept
B. going concern concept
C. money measurement concept
D. accounting period concept
Answer» C. money measurement concept
2. Dividing the expenditure into capital and revenue is according to

D. accounting period concept
Answer» D. accounting period concept
3. While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is recorded not the c
price or current market value. This is known as
B. Conservatism
C. cost concept
3. While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is recorded not the c
price or current market value. This is known as
D. money measurement concept
Answer» B. conservatism
4. Co-operative societies is an example of

A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal account
D. representative personal account
Answer» A. personal account
5. Outstanding salary account is a

A. natural personal account
B. artificial personal account
C. representative personal account
D. real account
Answer» C. representative personal account
6. Interest earned is a
A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal account
Answer» C. nominal account
7. Commission paid is a
A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal account
8. Trading account is a
A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal account
9. Profit and loss account is a

A. personal account
9. Profit and loss account is a
B. real account
C. nominal account
10. All revenue incomes are credited to

A. manufacturing account
B. trading account
C. profit and loss account
D. balance sheet
Answer» C. profit and loss account
11. In profit and loss account, if credit is more than the debit, the difference is
A. net profit
B. net loss
C. gross profit
D. gross loss
Answer» A. net profit
12. The process of recording financial data up to trial balance is

A. book keeping
B. Classifying
C. Summarizing
D. Analyzing
Answer» A. book keeping
13. In income measurement & recognition of assets & liabilities which of the following concepts goes toge
A. periodicity, accrual, matching
B. cost, accrual, matching
C. going concern, cost, realization
D. going concern, periodicity, reliability
Answer» A. periodicity, accrual, matching
14. Interpretation means

A. explanation of meaning and significance of the data in financial statements.
B. concerned with preparation and presentation of classified data
C. systematic analysis of recorded data
D. methodical classification of data given in financial statements.
Answer» A. explanation of meaning and significance of the data in financial statements.
15. Which of the following is wrong?
A. all real and personal accounts are transferred to balance sheet
B. nominal accounts are transferred to p & l account
C. each account is opened separately in ledger
D. rent is a personal account, outstanding rent is nominal account
Answer» D. rent is a personal account, outstanding rent is nominal account
16. _______ is root cause for financial accounting

A. stewardship accounting
B. social accounting
C. management accounting
D. human resource accounting
Answer» A. stewardship accounting
17. The proprietor of the business is treated as creditor for the capital introduced by him due to_____ co
A. money measurement
B. Cost
C. Entity
D. dual aspect
Answer» C. entity
18. Fixed assets are held by business for _____

A. converting into cash
B. generating revenue
C. Resale
D. none of the above
Answer» B. generating revenue
19. Which accounting concept specifies the practice of crediting closing stock to the trading account?
A. Cost
B. Realization
C. going concern
D. Matching
Answer» D. matching
20. Amount spent to increasing the earning capacity is a ______ expenditure

A. Capital
B. Revenue
C. deferred revenue
D. capital loss
Answer» A. capital
21. Human resources will not appear in the balance sheet according to ______ concept.
A. Accrual
B. going concern
D. None
Answer» C. money measurement concept
22. Provision for discount on debtors is calculated on the amount of debtors.

A. before deducting provision for doubtful debts.
B. after deducting provision for doubtful debts.
C. before deducting actual debts and provision for doubtful debts.
D. after adding actual bad and doubtful debts.
Answer» B. after deducting provision for doubtful debts.
23. Which of the following is not a Real Account?

A. cash a/c
B. investments a/c
C. outstanding rent a/c
D. purchases a/c
Answer» C. outstanding rent a/c
24. Value of goods withdrawn by the proprietor for his personal use should be credited to ____
A. capital a/c
B. sales a/c
C. drawings a/c
D. purchases a/c
Answer» D. purchases a/c
25. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. good will – intangible asset
B. sundry debtors – current asset
C. loose tools - tangible fixed asset
D. outstanding expenses – current asset
Answer» D. outstanding expenses – current asset
26. M/s Stationery Mart will debit the purchase of stationery to _______
A. purchases a/c
B. general expenses a/c
C. stationery a/c
D. None
Answer» A. purchases a/c
27. Small items like, pencils, pens, files, etc. are written off within a year according to ___ concept.
A. Materiality
B. Consistency
C. Conservatism
D. Realization
Answer» A. materiality
28. Business enterprise is separate from its owner according to _____ concept.
A. money measurement concept
B. matching concept
C. entity concept
D. dual aspect concept
Answer» C. entity concept
29. The policy of anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses arise due to the concept of _____
A. Consistency
B. Disclosure
C. Conservatism
D. Matching
Answer» C. conservatism
30. According to which concept, the proprietor pays interest on drawings

A. accrual concept
B. conservatism concept
C. entity concept
31. Cost concept basically recognizes ____

A. fair market value
B. historical cost
C. realizable value
D. replacement cost
Answer» B. historical cost
32. If the Market value of closing Inventory is less than its cost price, inventory will he shown at ____
A. marketable value
B. fair market value
C. Both
D. None
Answer» A. marketable value
33. The Market price of good declined than the cost price. Then the concept that plays a key role is ____
A. Materiality
C. Realization
D. Consistency
Answer» C. realization
34. Fixed assets are double the current assets and half the capital. The current assets are Rs.3,00,000 and
investments are Rs.4,00,000. Then the current liabilities recorded in balance sheet will be
A. 2,00,000
B. 1,00,000
C. 3,00,000
D. 4,00,000
Answer» B. 1,00,000
35. Which of the following provide frame work and accounting policies so that the financial statements o
enterprises become comparable.
A. business standards
B. accounting standards
C. market standards
D. None
Answer» B. accounting standards
36. Which of the following factor is not considered while selecting accounting policies?
A. Prudence
B. substance over form
C. Accountancy
D. Materiality
Answer» C. accountancy
37. Debit the receiver & credit the giver is _____ account
A. Personal
B. Real
C. Nominal
D. all the above
Answer» A. personal
38. Cash a/c is a ______

A. real a/c
B. Nominal
C. Personal
D. None
38. Cash a/c is a ______
Answer» A. real a/c
39. As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true

A. revenue – expenditure = profit
B. revenue – profit = expenditure
C. sales + gross profit = revenue
D. revenue = profit + expenditure
Answer» C. sales + gross profit = revenue
40. Mr. X sold goods to Mr. Y ask Mr. X to keep the goods with him for some time
A. symbolic delivery
B. actual delivery
C. constructive delivery
D. none of these
Answer» A. symbolic delivery
41. If nothing is written about the accounting assumption to be followed it is presumed that
A. they have been followed
B. they have not been followed
C. they are followed to some extent
D. none of these
Answer» B. they have not been followed
42. Capital A/c is a _______ A/c.

A. Personal
B. Real
C. Nominal
D. None
Answer» A. personal
43. Cash A/c is a ________ A/c.

A. Personal
B. Real
C. Nominal
D. None
Answer» B. real
44. The principle “Debit the receiver and credit the giver” is related to_____
A. personal a/c
B. real a/c
C. nominal a/c
44. The principle “Debit the receiver and credit the giver” is related to_____
D. None
Answer» A. personal a/c
45. Which of the following is a Real A/c?

A. building a/c
B. capital a/c
C. shyam a/c
D. rent a/c
Answer» A. building a/c
46. Valuation of stock in accounting follows the principle of cost price or ____ whichever is lower.
A. market price
B. average price
C. net realizable value
D. none of these.
Answer» C. net realizable value
47. Which of the following is not a nominal Account?

A. outstanding salaries account
B. salaries account
C. interest paid
D. commission received
Answer» A. outstanding salaries account
48. For every debit there will be an equal credit according to

A. matching concept
B. cost concept
Answer» D. dual aspect concept
49. Historical cost concept requires the valuation of an asset at

A. original cost
B. replacement value
C. net realizable value
D. market value
Answer» A. original cost
50. The comparison of financial statement of one year with that of another is possible only when _______
followed
A. going concern
50. The comparison of financial statement of one year with that of another is possible only when _______
followed
B. Accrual
C. Consistency
D. Materiality
Answer» C. consistency
51. Profit and loss is calculated at the stage of
A. Recording
B. Posting
C. Classifying
D. Summarizing
Answer» D. summarizing
52. Which of the following is not the main objective of accounting?

A. systematic recording of transactions
B. ascertaining profit or loss
C. ascertainment of financial position
D. solving tax disputes with tax authorities
Answer» D. solving tax disputes with tax authorities
53. The rule debit all expenses and losses and credit all income and gains relates to
A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal accounts
D. All
Answer» C. nominal accounts
54. Matching concept means

A. assets = capital + liabilities
B. transactions recorded at accrual concept
C. anticipate no profit but recognize all losses
D. expenses should be matched with the revenue of the period. branch accounts
Answer» D. expenses should be matched with the revenue of the period. branch accounts
55. When Branch pays expenses for H.O. the following account is debited in the books of the branch ___
A. expenses is debited
B. h.o. a/c is debited
C. branch is debited
D. None
Answer» B. h.o. a/c is debited
56. Under the stock and debtor system, Branch A/c is treated as ______
A. joint a/c
B. nominal a/c
C. personal a/c
D. real a/c
Answer» D. real a/c
57. Goods are sent to branch at cost plus 20%. If closing stock of the branch is Rs 60,000 at invoice price
will be credited to stock reserve a/c.
A. rs 10000
B. rs 12000
C. rs 6000
D. rs 12600
Answer» A. rs 10000
58. HO sends goods to branch at 20% profit on invoice price, therefore the percentage of profit on cost c
______
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 33.33%
D. 20%
Answer» B. 25%
59. HO sends goods to branch at invoice price after adding 25% on cost price, so profit would be ___ %
price
A. 33.33%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer» C. 20%
60. For finding the amount of sundry expenses paid by the branch, the following a/c should be prepared.
A. computer a/c
B. Creditors
C. petty cash a/c
D. Debtors
Answer» C. petty cash a/c
61. If the opening balance of petty cash is Rs 1000, closing balance is Rs 500 and the petty cash received f
Rs 700, then what will be the amount of sundry expenses _____
A. rs 1200
B. rs 800
61. If the opening balance of petty cash is Rs 1000, closing balance is Rs 500 and the petty cash received f
Rs 700, then what will be the amount of sundry expenses _____
C. rs 700
D. rs 500
Answer» A. rs 1200
62. H.O. sent Rs 5000 as petty cash to branch during the year. Opening and closing balances of petty cas
1400 and Rs 400 respectively. Then petty expenses of the branch during the year will be ______
A. rs 5000
B. rs 6400
C. rs 4600
D. rs 6000
Answer» D. rs 6000
63. Which of the following branches, taking into consideration the scope of authority and responsibility,
own independent final accounts?
A. independent branch
B. foreign branch
C. dependent branch
D. independent and foreign branch both
Answer» A. independent branch
64. Opening balance of debtors a/c is Rs 1,40,000. Credit sales is Rs 10,74,000 and closing balance of Deb
Rs 1,90,000. What is the amount of cash collection from the debtors?
A. rs 10,24,000
B. rs 8,84,000
C. rs 11, 52,000
D. rs 8,42,000
Answer» A. rs 10,24,000
65. Goods in transit are shown in the balance sheet at ______

A. head office
B. Branch
C. Both
D. none of above
Answer» A. head office
66. H.O. has sent goods on invoice price worth Rs 2,40,000 which are 25% above cost price. What is the
element?
A. rs 60000
B. rs 240000
C. rs 48000
66. H.O. has sent goods on invoice price worth Rs 2,40,000 which are 25% above cost price. What is the
element?
D. rs 160000
Answer» C. rs 48000
67. The adjusting entry for difference between the invoice price and cost price of goods are shown in ___
A. balance sheet
B. p & l a/c
C. branch adjustment a/c
D. none of above
Answer» C. branch adjustment a/c
68. Stock and debtors system is generally used when goods are sent to the branch at _____
A. cost price
B. invoice price
C. Both
D. None
Answer» B. invoice price
69. H.O. sent goods to branch at invoice price 50% plus on original price. How many percentage of profi
Invoice price?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 33.33%
D. 16.67%
Answer» C. 33.33%
70. Goods sent by HO but not received by branch before the end of the year, by debiting it to goods in tr
account should be credited?
A. cash a/c
B. h.o. a/c
C. trading a/c
D. branch a/c
Answer» D. branch a/c
71. If the opening balance of debtors is Rs 16,000 and closing balance is Rs 80,000, cash received from de
35,000 and bad debts is Rs 1,000, then what will be the amount of credit sales?
A. rs 95000
B. rs 105000
C. rs 100000
D. rs 110000
Answer» C. rs 100000
72. The system of keeping accounts generally adopted by small size branches are:
A. debtors system
B. stock & debtors system
C. wholesale branch system
D. final account system
Answer» A. debtors system
73. Goods are supplied by the head office to dependent branches are at:
A. cost price
B. invoice price
C. market price
D. cost or invoice price
Answer» D. cost or invoice price
74. Under debtors system which account is prepared by head office to calculate profit or loss of each bra
A. capital account
B. debtors account
C. branch account
D. branch adjustment account
Answer» C. branch account
75. Under debtors system depreciation on fixed asset is ________

A. credited to branch a/c
B. debited to branch a/c
C. not shown in branch a/c
D. shown in debtors a/c
Answer» C. not shown in branch a/c
76. Branch Trading &Profit & Loss A/c is only a _________ account not forming part of the full account
A. Single
B. Memorandum
C. Capital
D. Double
Answer» B. memorandum
77. In final account system, Branch Trading and Profit & Loss A/c is prepared at ________
A. invoice price
B. cost price
C. cost & invoice price
D. market price
Answer» C. cost & invoice price
78. Under Final A/c system, the profit or loss made by the branch is determined by preparing
A. branch stock a/c
B. branch debtors a/c
C. branch adjustment a/c
D. branch trading & profit &loss a/c
Answer» D. branch trading & profit &loss a/c
79. The Branch Account prepared under Final Account System is the nature of:
A. nominal account
B. real account
C. personal account
D. general account
Answer» A. nominal account
80. Dependent branch makes:

A. cash sales only
B. credit sales only
C. cash & credit sales
D. instalment sales
Answer» C. cash & credit sales
81. All branch expenses such as rent, salary are paid by H.O in case of:
A. independent branch
B. local branch
C. dependent branch
D. foreign branch
82. Branch Trading & Profit & Loss A/c is prepared to incorporate all _____
A. revenue items
B. capital items
C. asset items
D. past items
Answer» A. revenue items
83. The difference between goods sent by H.O. and received by branch is known as _______
A. goods in transit
B. goods in warehouse
C. goods in production
D. goods in go-down
Answer» A. goods in transit
84. The stock reserve for unrealized profit will be ________ to the H.O profit & Loss A/C
A. Debited
B. Credited
C. first credited then debited
D. not shown
Answer» D. not shown
85. ____________ account is prepared to adjust the loads included in the value of opening stock and clos
A. branch stock
B. branch adjustment
C. stock reserve
D. branch p&l
Answer» B. branch adjustment
86. ____________ account shows the shortage or surplus of stock.

A. branch adjustment
B. branch stock
C. goods sent to branch
D. branch p&l
Answer» B. branch stock
87. The profit included in surplus or shortage of stock is transferred to ______ account
A. branch stock
B. branch expenses
C. branch adjustment
D. branch p&l
Answer» C. branch adjustment
88. The balance of branch adjustment account is transferred to _________ account

A. branch stock
B. branch p&l
C. branch debtors
D. branch expenses
Answer» B. branch p&l
89. An ordinary partnership business can have:

A. not more than 50 partners
B. not more than 20 partners.
C. any number of partners.
D. any number than 2 partners.
Answer» B. not more than 20 partners.
90. In the absence of an agreement profit and loss are divided by partners in the ratio of:
A. Capital
B. Equally
C. time devoted by each partners
D. none of these.
Answer» B. equally
91. In the absence of an agreement, Interest on loan advanced by the partner to the firm is allowed at the
A. 6%
B. 5%
C. 12%
D. 9%
Answer» A. 6%
92. Current accounts of the partners should be opened when the capitals are:
A. Fluctuating
B. Fixed
C. either fixed or fluctuating
D. none of these
Answer» B. fixed
93. Investment in partnership is made by introducing:

A. Cash
B. none – cash assets
C. cash or non – cash assets
D. none of these.
Answer» C. cash or non – cash assets
94. Partnership is formed by the partners by:

A. written agreement
B. oral agreement
C. written or oral
D. none of these
Answer» C. written or oral
95. Any partner who investments in the business but does not take active part in the business is:
A. secret partner
B. sleeping partner
C. active partner
D. nominal partner
Answer» B. sleeping partner
96. The written agreement of partnership is called:
A. partnership deed
B. articles of association
C. memorandum of association
D. certificate of incorporation
Answer» A. partnership deed
97. Under fixed capital methods, profit will be credited to:

A. capital account
B. Drawings
C. current a/c
D. profit & loss
Answer» C. current a/c
98. The members of partnership firm are individually called as:

A. Director
B. Investor
C. Partner
D. Manager
Answer» C. partner
99. Liability of partners in a partnership business is:

A. Limited
B. un-limited
C. limited & unlimited
D. none of these
Answer» B. un-limited
100. Capital of the partners are maintained by:

A. fixed capital method
B. fluctuating capital methods
C. by any two above methods
D. none of them.
Answer» C. by any two above methods
101. Drawings of the partners are:

A. debited to profit & loss a/c
B. credited to profit & loss a/c
C. credited to capital a/c
D. debited to capital a/c
Answer» D. debited to capital a/c
102. A partners has to pay interest on drawings what is the entry in the personal A/c of the partner?
A. credit partners capital a/c
B. credit partners current a/c
C. debit the partners current a/c
D. debit partners current a/c
Answer» D. debit partners current a/c
103. Salary paid to partner should be:
A. debited to his current a/c
B. credited to his current a/c
C. credited to profit & loss appropriation a/c
D. none of above
Answer» D. none of above
104. Interest on capital Account:

A. debited to profit & loss a/c
B. credit to profit & loss a/c
C. debit to profit & loss and credited to partners capital a/c
D. only credited to partners capital a/c
Answer» C. debit to profit & loss and credited to partners capital a/c
105. At the time of admission of a new partner the firm is:

A. Dissolved
B. Continued
C. not effected
D. re-organized
Answer» A. dissolved
106. At the time of admission an incoming partner contributes as goodwill:

A. in cash
B. does not pay cash
C. may or may not pay cash for goodwill
D. none of these.
Answer» C. may or may not pay cash for goodwill
107. Goodwill is valued as two years purchase of the average profits of three previous years are Rs. 15000
of goodwill be:
A. rs. 15000
B. rs. 30000
C. rs. 20000
D. rs. 50000
Answer» B. rs. 30000
108. Value of goodwill agreed upon Rs. 30000 on C, S admission and allowing him ¼ share of total profit G
brought in cash, the amount of goodwill be as:
A. rs. 30000
B. rs. 7500
C. rs. 150000
D. rs. 120000
Answer» B. rs. 7500
109. Goodwill of the firm is valued Rs. 30000. C an incoming partner purchase ¼ share of total profit Goo
raised in the books.
A. rs. 30000
B. rs. 7500
C. rs. 120000
D. rs. 7000
Answer» A. rs. 30000
110. An incoming partner pays his share of goodwill in cash, and profit sharing ration of old partner is ch
Goodwill be distributed among old partners:
A. as their old profit ratio
B. according to new ration
C. according to sacrifice ratio
D. none of these
Answer» C. according to sacrifice ratio
111. At the time of admission of a new partner, general reserve is:

A. debited to capital of old partners
B. credited to capital of old partners
C. allowed to remain is balance sheet
D. debited to current account
Answer» B. credited to capital of old partners
112. A new partner may be admitted to a partnership:

A. with the consent of all partners
B. with the consent of two third of old partners
C. with the consent of any one of the partners
D. without consent of old partners
Answer» A. with the consent of all partners
113. At the time of a new partner Goodwill:

A. belongs to all partners, new and old
B. belongs only to the new partners who is going to be admitted
C. belongs only to the old partner who have credited it
113. At the time of a new partner Goodwill:
D. none of the above.
Answer» C. belongs only to the old partner who have credited it
114. In the revaluation account a decrease in the value of plant and machinery:
A. appears on the debit side
B. appears on the credit side
C. appears on the debit side of good will account
D. does not appear at all
Answer» A. appears on the debit side
115. In the revaluation account an increase in the value of land and building:
A. appears on the debit side
B. appears on the credit side
C. appears on the credit side of good will account
D. does not appear at all
Answer» B. appears on the credit side
116. The partnership may come to an end due to the:

A. death of a partner
B. insolvency of partner
C. by giving notice
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
117. In case of retirement of a partner full good will is credited to the accounts of:
A. all partners
B. only retiring partner
C. only remaining partner
Answer» A. all partners
118. Revaluation account is operated to find out gain or loss at the time of:
A. admission of a partner
B. retirement of a partner
C. death of a partner
D. all of above
Answer» D. all of above
119. Partners equity is effected due to:

A. retirement of a partner
B. admission of a partner
119. Partners equity is effected due to:
C. death of a partner
D. all of above
120. The accounting procedure at the retirement of partner is valued:

A. revaluation of assets and liabilities
B. ascertaining his share of goodwill
C. finding the amount due to him
D. all of above
121. If the remaining partner want to continue the business, after the retirement of a partner, a new partn
agreement:
A. Necessary
B. not necessary
C. Optioned
D. none of above
Answer» A. necessary
122. An account operated to ascertain the loss or gain at the death of a partner is called:
A. realization account
B. revaluation account
C. execution account
D. deceased partner a/c
Answer» B. revaluation account
123. Amount due to outgoing partner is shown in the balance sheet as his:
A. Liability
B. Asset
C. Capital
D. Loan
Answer» D. loan
124. The loss or gain an account of revaluation at the time of retirement of a partner is shared by:
A. remaining partners
B. retiring partner
C. all partners
D. none of above
Answer» C. all partners
125. On the retirement of a partner any reserve being should be transferred to the capital account of:
A. all partners in the old profit sharing ratio
B. remaining partners in the new profit sharing ratio
C. neither the retiring partner, nor the remaining partner
D. none of above
Answer» A. all partners in the old profit sharing ratio
126. Retirement or death of a partner.
A. is dissolution of partnership agreement
B. is dissolution of a firm
C. may or may not be a dissolution of partnership agreement
D. none of above
Answer» A. is dissolution of partnership agreement
127. If all the partners, but one are insolvent it is:

A. dissolution of an agreement
B. dissolution of firm
C. may or may not cause dissolution
D. none of above
Answer» B. dissolution of firm
128. If all the partners, but one, are solvent it is:

A. dissolution of partnership agreement
B. dissolution of firm
C. may or may not cause dissolution
D. none of above
Answer» B. dissolution of firm
129. At the time of dissolution:

A. all the assets are transferred to realization a/c
B. only current assets are transferred to realization a/c
C. non cash assets are transferred to realization a/c
D. only liquid and current asset are transferred to realization a/c
Answer» C. non cash assets are transferred to realization a/c
130. At the time of dissolution non – cash assets are credited with:
A. market value
B. book value
C. as the agreed amount among the partners
D. cost or market whichever is low
Answer» B. book value
131. If a partner takes over an asset of the firm, his capital account:
A. will be debited with the amount as agreed
B. will be credited with the market value of the asset
C. will be debited with book value of the asset
D. none of above
Answer» A. will be debited with the amount as agreed
132. Loss on realization is distributed among partners:

A. according to profit and loss ratio
B. according to capital ratio
C. as decided among them
D. none of above
Answer» A. according to profit and loss ratio
133. Loss on realization is:

A. debited to partners capital a/c
B. credited to partners capital a/c
C. debited to realization a/c
D. credited to realization a/c
Answer» A. debited to partners capital a/c
134. When all partners are insolvent creditors will be:

A. paid fully
B. paid rate ably
C. taken over by the partners
D. paid by government
Answer» B. paid rate ably
135. The persons who have entered into a partnership business are individually called:
A. realization a/c
B. partners capital a/c
C. sundry debtors
D. provision for bad debts a/c
Answer» A. realization a/c
136. The persons who have entered into a partnership business are individually called:
A. Vender
B. Agents
C. Partners
D. a firm
Answer» C. partners
137. If no provision is made in agreement regarding the duration of the partnership:
A. limited partnership
B. partnership at will
C. None
D. particular partnership
Answer» B. partnership at will
138. A person who receives a share of profits from one of the regular partner is called:
A. secret partner
B. Quasi
C. partner in profit only
D. sub – partner
Answer» D. sub – partner
139. The agreement among partners which set out the terms on which they had agreed to form a partners
called:
A. partnership deed
B. partnership at will
C. none of these
D. arbitration clause
Answer» A. partnership deed
140. Every partner has a right to be consulted in all matters affecting the business of:
A. sole-tradership
B. Partnership
C. Jsc
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer» B. partnership
141. For the firm interest on drawing is:

A. Expense
B. Income
C. Liability
D. None
Answer» B. income
142. A credit balance on a partner’s current A/c is.

A. fixed capital
B. part of capital
C. a current asset
D. long – term liability
142. A credit balance on a partner’s current A/c is.
Answer» B. part of capital
143. Old profit sharing ratio minus new profit sharing ration is equal to:
A. sacrificing ratio
B. ratio of gain
C. capital ratio
D. None
Answer» A. sacrificing ratio
144. A is drawing Rs. 500 regularly on the 16th of every month, he will have to pay interest in a year on R
the total period of @ given rate of interest):
A. 5 months
B. 6 months
C. 7 months
D. 12 months
Answer» B. 6 months
145. For any decrease in the value of liability, revolution A/c is to be:
A. Debited
B. Credited
C. both (cr.) & (dr.)
D. neither (dr.) & (cr.)
Answer» B. credited
146. Revolution A/c is a:

A. real a/c
B. personal a/c
C. cash a/c
D. nominal a/c
Answer» D. nominal a/c
147. When good will is brought in cash by new partner, method is known as:
A. premium method
B. revolution method
C. memorandum revolution method
D. None
Answer» A. premium method
148. Section 37 of partnership act provided interest on the amount left by retiring or decreased partner at
A. 5%
B. 10%
148. Section 37 of partnership act provided interest on the amount left by retiring or decreased partner at
C. 6%
D. bank rate
Answer» C. 6%
149. When a partner dies, firm will receive the:

A. 1/2 amount of policy
B. 1/4 amount of policy
C. 3/4 amount of policy
D. full amount of policy
Answer» D. full amount of policy
150. At the time of dissolution all the assets of firm are transferred to the realization A/c:
A. market value
B. book value
C. cost value
D. bale value
Answer» B. book value
151. Balance of realization A/c is transferred to the capital A/c of the partners in:
A. capital ratio
B. profit sharing ratio
C. interest ratio
D. Equally
Answer» B. profit sharing ratio
152. When an asset is acquired on hire purchase system, the asset account is debited with _______ of the a
books of the hire purchaser.
A. hire purchase price
B. cash price
C. instalment price
D. none of these
Answer» B. cash price
153. If the firm stops making repayments and the goods or assets are taken away from them as a result, th
as:
A. Cancellation
B. Forfeiture
C. Repossession
D. Annulment
Answer» C. repossession
154. On the balance sheet of a company, the value of the asset bought through hire purchase will appear a
A. cost less depreciation to date less amount owing on hire purchase less interest owing
B. cost less amounts owing on hire purchase
C. cost less depreciation to date less amount owing on hire purchase
D. cost less depreciation to date
Answer» D. cost less depreciation to date
155. The depreciation on an asset purchased through hire purchase should be:
A. should be straight line only
B. based on the cost price of the asset only
C. based on the total cost including interest
D. no depreciation should be provide until the final payment is made
Answer» B. based on the cost price of the asset only
156. The interest charged on the hire purchase should appear in the profit and loss account in what mann
A. the total interest levied should be divided equally over the total period the for purchase agreement
B. the interest charged in that period only should be included
C. interest should instead be capitalised on the balance sheet
D. interest should be apportioned in proportion to the repayment totals
Answer» B. the interest charged in that period only should be included
157. Ownership of goods under hire purchase agreement is transferred at the time of:
A. payment of down payment
B. payment of first instalment
C. payment of last instalment
Answer» C. payment of last instalment
158. Which of the following does not give a difference between a hire purchase and a normal purchase?
A. timing of payment for asset
B. legal ownership of asset
C. quality of asset purchased
D. total cost of asset.
Answer» C. quality of asset purchased
159. The act of buying an asset without having to make full payment in the immediate future is known as:
A. hire purchase
B. finance lease
C. operating lease
D. sale and leaseback
Answer» A. hire purchase
160. The amount of interest is credited by the buyer to ________
A. hire purchase account
B. hire vendor account
C. interest account
D. cash account
Answer» B. hire vendor account
161. The depreciation in the books of buyer is charged on _________

B. market price
C. total instalment amount
D. cash price
Answer» D. cash price
162. Hirer charges depreciation on:

B. cash price
C. lower of the two
D. none of these
Answer» B. cash price
163. What is transferred to Hirer under hire purchase system:

A. ownership of assets
B. possession of asset
C. ownership and possession of asset
D. none of these
Answer» B. possession of asset
164. Hire Purchase Act is passed in the year

A. 1932
B. 1956
C. 1972
D. 1872
Answer» C. 1972
165. The Sale of Goods Act is applicable in:

A. credit purchases
B. cash purchases
C. cash sales
D. none of these
Answer» A. credit purchases
166. Under which system, ownership is transferred on payment of final installment
A. installment system
B. credit system
C. hire purchase system
D. cash system
Answer» A. installment system
167. Under hire purchase system the buyer is called _________

A. Buyer
B. Hirer
C. hire vendor
D. debtor.
Answer» C. hire vendor
168. Under hire purchase system who has the right of sell __________
A. Buyer
B. Hirer
C. hire vendor
D. Debtor
Answer» C. hire vendor
169. Under hire purchase system, the agreement can be _________

A. Renewed
B. Registered
C. Terminated
D. endorsed.
Answer» C. terminated
170. Installment system is governed by _______

A. hire purchase act
B. sale of goods act
C. installment act
D. properties registration act
Answer» B. sale of goods act
171. Under hire purchase system, the retail price of the articles is called ________
A. Mrp
B. wholesale price
C. retail price
D. cash price
Answer» C. retail price
172. The advance amount under hire purchase system is called __________
A. cash price
B. retail price
C. Interest
D. down payment
Answer» D. down payment
173. Under hire purchase system, interest is calculated on _______

A. cash price
B. hire purchase price
C. Mrp
D. outstanding balance.
Answer» D. outstanding balance.
174. If the hire purchaser fails to make payment of any installment, it is called _______
A. Default
B. Repossession
C. Sale
D. Purchase
Answer» A. default
175. If the hire vendor may take away all the goods on which there is default of installment it is called____
A. Repossession
B. partial repossession
C. complete repossession
D. purchase.
Answer» C. complete repossession
176. The hire vendor takes away only a portion of the goods on which there is default of Installments it is
_________
A. Repossession
B. partial repossession
C. complete repossession
D. Purchase
Answer» B. partial repossession
177. In the books of hirer, for payment of installment hire vendor account will be ________
A. Debited
B. Credited
C. Rectified
D. Reversed
Answer» A. debited
178. In the books of hirer, for interest due at the end of the year hire vendor account will be _______
A. Debited
B. Credited
C. Rectified
D. Reversed
Answer» B. credited
179. In the books of Hirer, the interest and depreciation account will be transferred to ______.
A. trading account
B. p & l account
C. p & l appropriation account
D. balance sheet
Answer» B. p & l account
180. Nature of hire purchase agreement is __________.

A. agreement of sale
B. option to transfer
C. option to buy
D. option to sell
Answer» C. option to buy
181. In case of Hire-Purchase the total sum payable by the hire-purchaser as per terms in order to comple
transactions is
A. net cash price
B. net hire-purchase charges
C. hire-purchase price
D. cash price instalment
Answer» C. hire-purchase price
182. Under ______ system the buyer does not get ownership of goods immediately
A. Installment
B. Hp
C. installment and hp
D. none of these
Answer» B. hp
183. ________ means the price at which the goods can be purchased by the hirer for ready cash.
A. hp price
B. installment price
C. cash price
D. down payment
Answer» C. cash price
184. ________ is the initial payment made at the time of signing the hire purchase agreement
A. hp price
B. installment price
C. cash price
D. down payment
Answer» D. down payment
185. The difference between hire purchase price and the cash price is called ______
A. hire charges
B. cost of the asset
C. installment price
D. cash price
Answer» A. hire charges
186. In order to deal with the re possession the hire vendor operates an account called _______
A. asset account
B. goods account
C. goods repossessed account
D. none of these
Answer» C. goods repossessed account
187. Hire Purchase price =

A. cash price + down payment
B. cash price + total interest
C. cash price
D. sum of total instalments
Answer» B. cash price + total interest
188. Cash Price =

A. hire purchase price – total interest
B. down payment in cash
C. down payment + interest
Answer» A. hire purchase price – total interest
189. Which of the following statement is false:

A. a company is a legal entity quite distinct from its members
B. a company can buy its own share
C. a shareholder is the agent of the company
D. same person can agent and creditor of the company
Answer» C. a shareholder is the agent of the company
190. Which of the following are the characteristics of a company
A. liability of the members is limited up to the face value of shares held by them
B. it is a voluntary association of persons
C. a company is a separate body can sue and be sued in its own name
D. perpetual succession
Answer» C. a company is a separate body can sue and be sued in its own name
191. Share application and allotment account is a:

A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal account
Answer» A. personal account
192. Securities premium account is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet under the head:
A. share capital
B. reserves and surplus
C. current liabilities
D. non-current liabilities
Answer» B. reserves and surplus
193. The portion of the authorized capital which can be called-up only on the liquidation of the company i
A. authorized capital
B. reserve capital
C. issued capital
D. called up capital
Answer» B. reserve capital

A. buy back must be authorized by articles of company
B. a special resolution must be passed for buy back
C. shares can be partly paid up
D. the ratio of debt owed by the company is not more than twice the capital and its
Answer» C. shares can be partly paid up
195. If shares are bought back out of free reserves then a sum equal to nominal value of the shares so bou
transferred to:
A. capital reserve account
B. capital redemption reserve account (crr)
C. general reserve account
195. If shares are bought back out of free reserves then a sum equal to nominal value of the shares so bou
transferred to:
D. statutory reserve account
Answer» B. capital redemption reserve account (crr)
196. Maximum buy back limit in any year is ______ of total paid up equity capital and free reserves.
A. 25%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. no limit
Answer» A. 25%

A. bonus issue is made out of free reserves or securities premium collected in cash only
B. bonus shares can be issued out revaluation profit
C. no bonus issue shall be made within 12 months of any public or right issue
D. company can issue bonus shares in any ratio.
Answer» B. bonus shares can be issued out revaluation profit
COST AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING

1. Basic objectives of cost accounting is
A. tax compliance.
B. financial audit.
C. cost ascertainment.
D. profit analysis.
Answer» C. cost ascertainment.
2. Direct cost incurred can be identified with

A. each department.
B. each unit of output.
C. each month.
D. each executive.
Answer» B. each unit of output.

3. Overhead cost is the total of .
A. all indirect costs.
B. all direct costs.
C. indirect and direct costs.
D. all specific costs.
Answer» A. all indirect costs.
4. Imputed cost is a .
A. notional cost.
B. real cost.
C. normal cost.
D. variable cost.
Answer» A. notional cost.
5. Operating costing is suitable for .

A. job order business.
B. contractors.
C. sugar industries.
D. service industries.
Answer» D. service industries.
6. Process costing is suitable for .

A. hospitals.
B. oil reefing firms.
C. transport firms.
D. brick laying firms.
Answer» B. oil reefing firms.

6. Process costing is suitable for .
7. Cost classification can be done in .

A. two ways.
B. three ways.
C. four ways.
D. several ways.
Answer» D. several ways.
8. Costing refers to the techniques and processes of

A. ascertainment of costs.
B. allocation of costs.
C. apportion of costs.
D. distribution of costs.
Answer» A. ascertainment of costs.
9. Cost accounting was developed because of the .

A. limitations of the financial accounting.
B. limitations of the management accounting.
C. limitations of the human resource accounting.
D. limitations of the double entry accounting.
Answer» A. limitations of the financial accounting.
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for
ascertainment of cost by.
A. the same firm.
B. the several firms.
C. the same industry.

10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing methods for
ascertainment of cost by.
D. the several industries.
Answer» A. the same firm.
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production activities can be termed
as.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
Answer» A. direct cost.
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit is closed is a.
A. imputed cost.
B. historical cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. Shutdown cost.
Answer» D. Shutdown cost.
13. Classification of cost is useful

A. to find gross profit.
B. to find net profit.
C. to identify costs.
D. to identify efficiency.
Answer» C. to identify costs.

14. Elements of costs are.
A. three types.
B. four types.
C. five types.
D. seven types.
Answer» A. three types.
15. Direct expenses are also called

A. major expenses.
B. chargeable expenses.
C. overhead expenses.
D. sundry expenses.
Answer» B. chargeable expenses.
16. Indirect material used in production is classified as.

A. office overhead.
B. selling overhead.
C. distribution overhead.
D. production overhead.
Answer» D. production overhead.
17. Warehouse rent is a part of

A. prime cost.
B. factory cost.
C. distribution cost.
D. production cost.
Answer» C. distribution cost.

18. Indirect material scrap is adjusted along with .
A. prime cost.
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
Answer» B. factory cost.
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation of cost sheet?
A. Factory cost.
B. Goodwill written off.
C. Selling cost.
D. Labour cost.
Answer» B. Goodwill written off.
20. Sale of defectives is reduced from .

A. prime cost.
B. works cost.
C. cost of production.
D. cost of sales.
Answer» C. cost of production.
21. Tender is an.

A. estimation of profit.
B. estimation of cost.
C. estimation of selling price.
D. estimation of units.
Answer» C. estimation of selling price.

22. Cost of sales plus profit is .
A. Selling price.
B. value of finished product.
C. value of goods produced.
D. value of stocks.
Answer» A. Selling price.
23. Prime cost includes.

A. Direct materials, direct wages and indirect expenses.
B. Indirect materials and indirect labour and indirect expenses.
C. Direct materials, direct wages and direct expenses.
D. Direct materials, indirect wages and indirect expenses.
Answer» C. Direct materials, direct wages and direct expenses.
24. Total of all direct costs is termed as

A. prime cost.
B. works cost.
C. cost of sales.
D. cost of production.
Answer» A. prime cost.
25. Depreciation of plant and machinery is a part of

A. factory overhead.
D. administration overhead.
Answer» A. factory overhead.

25. Depreciation of plant and machinery is a part of
26. Audit fess is a part of
A. works on cost.
Answer» D. administration overhead.
27. Counting house salary is part of

A. factory overhead.
Answer» D. administration overhead.
28. Factory overhead can be charged on the basis of -.

A. material cost.
B. labour cost.
C. prime cost.
D. direct expenses
Answer» A. material cost.
29. Office and administrative expenses can be charged on the basis of

A. material cost.
B. labour cost.
C. prime cost.
D. factory cost.
Answer» C. prime cost.

29. Office and administrative expenses can be charged on the basis of
30. Selling and distribution expenses can be charged on the basis of

A. material cost.
B. labour cost.
C. prime cost.
D. factory cost.
Answer» C. prime cost.
31. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is.
A. turnover ratios
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
Answer» A. turnover ratios
32. The ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
Answer» B. profitability ratios.
33. Return on investment is a

A. turnover ratios.
B. short term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratios.
33. Return on investment is a
Answer» C. profitability ratios.
34. Net profit ratio is a

A. turnover ratio.
B. long term solvency ratio.
C. short term solvency ratio
D. profitability ratio.
Answer» D. profitability ratio.
35. Stock turnover ratio is a

A. turnover ratio.
B. profitability ratio.
Answer» A. turnover ratio.
36. Current ratio is a

A. short-term solvency ratio.
B. long-term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratio.
D. turnover ratio.
Answer» A. short-term solvency ratio.
37. Proprietary ratio is a .

37. Proprietary ratio is a .
D. turnover ratio.
Answer» B. long-term solvency ratio.
38. Fixed assets ratio is a

D. turnover ratio.
Answer» B. long-term solvency ratio.
39. Fixed assets turnover ratio is a

D. turnover ratio.
Answer» D. turnover ratio.
40. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
Answer» A. return on investment.

41. The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholder’s point of view is
A. return on investment.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
Answer» C. return on shareholders funds.
42. Return on equity is also called

A. . return on investment.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
Answer» D. return on net worth.
43. Prepaid expenses is an example of

A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. current liabilities.
Answer» B. current assets.
44. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is
A. return on equity.
B. return on shareholders’ funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders’ funds.
Answer» C. return on total assets.

45. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the
current year’s profits is
A. Retained earnings ratio.
B. payout ratio
C. Earnings per share.
D. Price earnings ratio.
Answer» A. Retained earnings ratio.
46. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by the market price is
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
Answer» D. price earnings ratio.
47. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before interest and tax and fixed
interest charges is.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
Answer» A. interest cover ratio.
48. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of profit available for
shareholders is
Answer» B. fixed dividend cover ratio.

49. The dividend is related to the market value of shares in
50. Turnover ratio is also known as

A. activity ratios.
B. solvency ratios.
C. liquidity ratios.
D. profitability ratios.
Answer» A. activity ratios.
51.
Inventory or stock turnover ratio is also called
A. stock velocity ratio.
B. . debtors velocity ratio.
C. . creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
Answer» A. stock velocity ratio.
52.
Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of
inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
A. stock velocity ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.

52.
Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of
inventory management in terms of capital
investment?
Answer» A. stock velocity ratio.
53.
The ratio which measures the relationship between
the cost of goods sold and the amount of average
inventory is
A. Stock turnover ratio.
Answer» A. Stock turnover ratio.
54.
Sales – Gross Profit =
A. net profit.
B. administrative expenses.
C. cost of production.
Answer» D. cost of goods sold.
55.
Opening stock + purchases + direct expenses – closing
stock =
A. net profit.
B. cost of production
C. administrative expenses.

55.
Opening stock + purchases + direct expenses – closing
stock =
Answer» D. cost of goods sold.
56.
Which ratio measures the number of times the
receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales?
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
Answer» B. debtors turnover ratio.
57.
Debtors turnover ratio is also called
D. working capital turnover ratio
Answer» B. debtors velocity ratio.
58.
Creditors turnover ratio is also called
C. . accounts payables ratio.
Answer» C. . accounts payables ratio.

59.
The indicates the number of times the payables rotate
in a year is
B. stock turnover ratio.
Answer» C. creditors velocity ratio.
60.
Funds flow statement is based on the
A. working capital concept of funds.
B. cash concept of funds.
C. fixed assets concept of funds.
D. long term funds.
Answer» A. working capital concept of funds.
61.
All those assets which are converted into cash in the
normal course of business within one year are known
as .
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
Answer» B. current assets.
62. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a
period of one year are called
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
62. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a
period of one year are called
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
Answer» D. current liabilities.
63. Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not affect
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
Answer» B. funds.
64. Any transaction between a non-current account and another non-current account does
not affect
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
Answer» B. funds.
65. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current asset
A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital.
C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital.
Answer» A. increases working capital.

66. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement - Decrease in current asset
Answer» B. decreases working capital.
67. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Increase in current liability
Answer» B. decreases working capital.
68. Principle’ for preparation of working capital statement -Decrease in current liability
C. decrease fixed capital
Answer» A. increases working capital.
69. Depreciation on fixed assets is

A. non operating income.
B. operating expense.
C. operating income.
D. non operating expense.
Answer» D. non operating expense.

70. Production cost under marginal costing includes
A. prime cost only .
B. prime cost and fixed overhead .
C. . prime cost and variable overhead.
D. prime cost, variable overhead and fixed overhead.
Answer» C. . prime cost and variable overhead.
71. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and absorption costing
regarding the treatment of .
A. prime cost .
B. fixed overheads.
C. variable overheads .
D. direct materials.
Answer» B. fixed overheads.
72. Absorption costing differs from marginal costing is the

A. fact that standard costs can be used with absorption costing but not with marginal costing .
B. amount of costs assigned to individual units of products .
C. kind of activities for which each can be used .
D. amount of fixed costs that will be incurred.
Answer» B. amount of costs assigned to individual units of products
73. Contribution margin is also known as

A. marginal income .
B. gross profit.
C. net profit.
D. net loss.
Answer» A. marginal income .

74. Period costs are
A. overhead costs .
B. prime cost.
C. variable cost.
D. fixed costs.
Answer» D. fixed costs.
75. Contribution margin is equal to

A. fixed cost - loss .
B. profit + variable cost.
C. sales — fixed cost- profit .
D. sales – profit.
Answer» A. fixed cost - loss
76. P/V Ratio is an indicator of

A. the rate at which goods are sold .
B. the volume of sales
C. the volume of profit.
D. the rate of profit.
Answer» D. the rate of profit.
77. Margin of Safety is the difference between

A. planned sales and planned profit .
B. actual sales and break-even sales.
C. planned sales and actual sales
D. planned sales and planned expenses.
Answer» B. actual sales and break-even sales.

78. An increase in variable costs
A. increases p/v ratio .
B. increases the profit.
C. reduces contribution .
D. increase margin of safety.
Answer» C. reduces contribution .
79. An increase in selling price

A. increases the break-even point.
B. decreases the break-even point.
C. does not affect the break-even point.
D. optimize the break even point.
Answer» B. decreases the break-even point.
80. A large Margin of Safety indicates

A. over production.
B. over capitalization .
C. the soundness of the business.
D. under capitalization.
Answer» C. the soundness of the business.
81. Angie of incidence is

A. the angle between the sales line and the total cost line.
B. the angle between the sales line and the y-axis.
C. the angle between the sales line and the x-axis.
D. the angle between the sales line and the total profit line.
Answer» A. the angle between the sales line and the total cost line.
81. Angie of incidence is
82. CVP analysis is most important for the determination of .

A. sales revenue necessary to equal fixed costs .
B. relationship between revenues and costs at various levels of operations .
C. variable revenues necessary to equal fixed costs .
D. volume of operations necessary to Break—even.
Answer» A. sales revenue necessary to equal fixed costs .
83. The conventional Break-even analysis does not assume that

A. selling price per unit will remain fixed .
B. total fixed costs remain the same.
C. variable cost per unit will vary .
D. productivity per worker will remain unchanged.
Answer» B. total fixed costs remain the same.
84. 1f` fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit remains constant, the new B.E.P in
relation to the old B.E.P will be
A. lower .
B. higher.
C. unchanged .
D. indeterminate.
Answer» B. higher.
85. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new
contribution margin in relation to the old contribution margin will be
A. lower .
85. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit remains constant, the new
contribution margin in relation to the old contribution margin will be
B. unchanged .
C. higher.
D. indeterminate.
Answer» B. unchanged .
86. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-
even production in units
A. 10,000.
B. 16,300.
C. 2,000.
D. 2,500.
Answer» D. 2,500.
87. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs. 5,000; Break-even sales in value
A. Rs. 7,936.
B. Rs. 7,353.
C. Rs. 8,333.
D. Rs. 9,090.
Answer» B. Rs. 7,353.
88. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit; Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit;
turnover required for a profit target of Rs. 60,000.
A. Rs. 1,75,000.
B. Rs. 1,17,400.
C. Rs. 1.57,000.
D. Rs. 1,86,667.
Answer» A. Rs. 1,75,000.

89. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs .4,000; P/V Ratio is
A. 40% .
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 30%.
Answer» A. 40% .
90. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs. 6,000; fixed cost is .
A. Rs. 10,000.
B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
C. Rs. 12,000.
D. Rs. 8,000.
Answer» B. b. Rs. l4,000 .
91. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000; Margin of Safety in percentage
is _.
A. 33.33%.
B. 66.67%
C. 37.5% .
D. 76.33%.
Answer» C. 37.5% .
92. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
A. Rs. 50 .
B. Rs. 40.
C. Rs. 30 .
D. Rs. 55.
92. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling price is .
Answer» A. Rs. 50 .
93. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%; the amount of' profit is .
A. Rs. 50,000.
B. Rs. 40,000 .
C. Rs. 35,000 .
D. Rs. 45,000 .
Answer» B. Rs. 40,000 .
94. P/V Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs; 3,00,000, the amount of profit is
A. Rs. 1,00,000.
B. Rs. 80,000.
C. Rs. 75,000.
D. . Rs. 60,000.
Answer» C. Rs. 75,000.
95. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V Ratio 40%; Break-even
capacity in percentage is .
A. 40% .
B. 60% .
C. 50% .
D. 45%.
Answer» C. 50% .
96. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
A. 40% .
96. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin of safety will be .
B. 60% .
C. 80% .
D. 85% .
Answer» B. 60% .
97. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal
cost of the product would be .
A. Rs.18.75 .
B. Rs.16 .
C. Rs. 15 .
D. Rs.20 .
Answer» A. Rs.18.75 .
98. Absorption costing is also known as

A. historical costing.
B. real costing.
C. marginal costing.
D. real costing .
Answer» A. historical costing.
99. Under marginal costing stock are valued at

A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. variable cost.
D. market price.
Answer» C. variable cost.

99. Under marginal costing stock are valued at
100. The budget is a
A. a post-mortem analysis .
B. a substitute of management
C. an aid to management
D. calculation .
Answer» C. an aid to management
101. One of the most important tools of cost planning is
A. budget.
B. direct cost.
C. unit cost.
D. cost sheet.
Answer» A. budget.
102. Sales budget is a

A. Functional budget.
B. Expenditure budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget.
Answer» A. Functional budget.
103. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and
balance sheet is known as
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
103. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and
balance sheet is known as
D. Purchase budget.
Answer» B. Master budget.
104. Which of the following is usually a long-term budget?
A. .Fixed budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Sales budget
D. Capital expenditure budget.
Answer» D. Capital expenditure budget.
105. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
Answer» D. Flexible budget .
106. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity within a range under flexible
budgeting is
A. Formula method.
B. Multi-activity method.
C. Budget cost allowance method.
D. Proportionate method.
Answer» B. Multi-activity method.
107. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices,
etc.?
A. Master budget.
107. What type of budget is designed to take into account forecast change in costs, prices,
etc.?
B. Rolling budget.
C. Flexible budget .
D. Functional budget.
Answer» B. Rolling budget.
108. Operation budgets normally cover a period of
A. one to ten years.
B. one to two years.
C. one to five years.
D. one year or less.
Answer» D. one year or less.
109. The entire process of preparing the budgets is known as
A. Planning.
B. Organizing.
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
Answer» C. Budgeting.
110. Budgetary control starts with
A. Planning.
B. Organizing.
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
Answer» C. Budgeting.
111. Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity attained is called
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
Answer» A. Fixed budget.
112. Long-term budgets are prepared for
A. 1 year.
B. 1-3 years.
C. 1-5 years.
D. 5-10 years.
Answer» D. 5-10 years.
113. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a
specific period is
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
Answer» D. Production budget
114. Material consumption budget is prepared on the basis of
A. Production budget.
B. Sales budget.
C. Fixed budget.
D. Flexible budget.
Answer» A. Production budget.

115. Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another is
A. Material purchase budget.
B. Material sales budget.
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
Answer» A. Material purchase budget.
116. Materials purchase budget is prepared on the basis of
A. Material sales budget.
B. Material consumption budget.
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
Answer» B. Material consumption budget.
117. Labour budget is a part of
A. Fixed budget.
B. Sales budget.
C. Production budget.
D. Flexible budget.
Answer» C. Production budget.
118. Labour budget is prepared by
A. Personnel department.
B. Sales department.
C. Purchase department.
D. Accounts department.
Answer» A. Personnel department.

119. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages, indirect material and indirect
expenses in the factory is
A. Production overhead budget.
B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
D. Master budget.
Answer» A. Production overhead budget.
120. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be incurred for planning,
organizing, direction and control function of the management is
D. Master budget.
Answer» B. Administration overhead budget.
121. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred to sell the product and its
distribution is
D. Master budget
Answer» C. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
122. The budget prepared to estimate the research and development expenditure to be
incurred during a specific period is
D. Research and development budget.
Answer» D. Research and development budget.

123. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed assets is known as.
A. Capital expenditure budget
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
Answer» A. Capital expenditure budget
124. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of production facilities,
adoption of new technologies etc. is
A. Capital expenditure budget.
B. Production overhead budget.
C. Administration overhead budget.
D. Selling and distribution overhead budget.
Answer» A. Capital expenditure budget.
125. A fixed budget is prepared for only
A. One level of activity.
B. Range of activity.
C. Two level of activity.
D. Three level of activity.
Answer» A. One level of activity.
126. A flexible budget is prepared for a
A. One level of activity.
B. Range of activity.
C. Two level of activity.
D. Three level of activity.
Answer» B. Range of activity.

127. The budget starts without any base is
A. Master budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Zero base budgeting.
D. Fixed budget.
Answer» C. Zero base budgeting.
128. ABC analysis is

A. At Best Control.
B. Always Better Control.
C. Average better Control.
D. All best control.
Answer» B. Always Better Control.
129. JIT inventory system is
A. . Just In Time.
B. Just Inventory Time.
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
Answer» A. . Just In Time.
130. Perpetual inventory system involves
A. bincard and stores ledger.
B. bill of material and material requisition.
C. purchase requisition and purchase order.
D. inward and outward invoices.
Answer» A. bincard and stores ledger.

131. FIFO is
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
Answer» B. First In First Out.
132. LIFO method of pricing of materials is more suitable when.
A. material prices are rising.
B. material prices are falling.
C. material prices are constant.
D. material prices are fluctuating.
Answer» A. material prices are rising.
133. Average method of pricing the material issues is useful when
A. material prices are rising.
B. material prices are falling.
C. material prices are constant.
D. material prices are fluctuating.
Answer» D. material prices are fluctuating.
134. Scrap is
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
Answer» A. residue of material.

135. Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
Answer» A. material requisition.
136. EOQ stands for

A. Economic Order Quantity.
B. Essential Order Quantity.
C. Economic Output Quantity.
D. Essential Output Quantity.
Answer» A. Economic Order Quantity.
137. The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
Answer» B. goods received note.
138. The budget which reviews a program or project from ‘scratch’ is
A. Master budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Zero base budgeting.
D. Fixed budget.
Answer» C. Zero base budgeting.

139. The budget said as ‘resource planning’ and ‘redeployment process’ is
A. Zero base budgeting.
B. Master budget.
C. Flexible budget.
D. Fixed budget.
Answer» A. Zero base budgeting.
140. Expected sales + desired closing stock – estimated opening stock =
A. Expected production.
B. Expected sales.
C. Expected purchase.
D. Expected loss.
Answer» A. Expected production.
141. In production budget closing stock is added with
A. expense.
B. sales.
C. purchase.
D. material.
Answer» B. sales.
142. In production budget opening stock is deducted with
A. expense.
B. sales.
C. purchase.
D. material.
Answer» B. sales.
143. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw material is Rs. 50,000 and
Closing stock of raw material is Rs. 25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased?
A. Rs. 4,50,000.
B. Rs. 4,75,000.
C. Rs. 5,25,000.
D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
Answer» B. Rs. 4,75,000.
144. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then what is the percentage of profit
on cast?
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 33.33%.
D. 35%.
Answer» B. 25%.
145. Material control involves
A. consumption of material
B. issue of material.
C. purchase of material.
D. purchase, storage and issue of material.
Answer» C. purchase of material.
146. Material requisition is meant for
A. purchase of material.
B. supply of material from stores.
C. sale of material.
D. storage of material.
Answer» B. supply of material from stores.

147. Stock control through stock levels and EOQ is called
A. demand and supply method.
B. perpetual inventory system.
C. control by important and exception.
D. automatic order method.
Answer» B. perpetual inventory system.
Financial Management
1. All businesses need to have which fundamental essential element
A. human resources
B. balance sheet
C. labour team
D. Strategy
Answer» D. strategy
2. Which of the following variable is not known in IRR?

A. discount rate
B. terminal inflows
C. life of the project
D. initial cash flows
Answer» A. discount rate
3. According to the traditional approach what is the effect of increase in degree of leverage
on the valuation of the firm
A. remains unaffected
B. increase first and then decreases
C. Decreases
3. According to the traditional approach what is the effect of increase in degree of leverage
on the valuation of the firm
D. Increases
Answer» B. increase first and then decreases
4. The maximum expenses that an equity scheme charge to an investor is ____________

A. 0.025
B. 0.0225
C. 0.0175
D. 0.02
Answer» A. 0.025
5. The bonds with shorter maturity will have ______ duration

A. Moderate
B. Higher
C. Lower
D. Average
Answer» C. lower
6. Relaxed or liberal credit implies -credit to customers

A. Higher
B. both a and b
C. Lower
D. neither a nor b
Answer» A. higher
7. Objectives of financial planning are

A. determining capital structure
B. framing loan policies

7. Objectives of financial planning are
C. determining cash requirement
D. determining finance ratio
Answer» A. determining capital structure
8. PI of project is the ratio of present value of inflows to-

A. total outflows
B. initial cost
C. pv of outflows
D. total cash inflows
Answer» C. pv of outflows
9. Bird in hand - argument is given by

A. residuals theory
B. walter model
C. mm model
D. gordon\s model
Answer» D. gordon\s model
10. When the required rate of return is less than the coupon rate the premium on the bond-
A. remains same
B. Variable
C. Declines
D. Increases
Answer» C. declines
11. Evaluation of firms credit policy can be done by computing expected ___________ from
it
A. net benefit
B. net loss
C. net profit
D. net cost
Answer» A. net benefit
12. All listed and traded securities are valued at _______

A. book value
B. Cost
C. cost+ profit
D. closing market price
Answer» D. closing market price
13. Financial manager would not supervise on the following area

A. cost analyst
B. working capital advisor
C. financial accounting and auditing
D. cash flow advisor
Answer» C. financial accounting and auditing
14. In case of risky projects the required rate of return would generally be-
A. Neutral
B. Lower
C. Moderate
D. Higher
Answer» D. higher
15. Residuals theory argues that dividend is as -
A. passive decision
B. irrelevant decision
C. active decision
D. relevant decision
Answer» A. passive decision
16. Investors subscriptions are accounted as _____________

A. Cash
B. Deposits
C. liabilities
D. unit capital
Answer» D. unit capital
17. Face value is the value stated on the face of the bond and is known as-
A. redemption value
B. per value
C. intrinsic value
D. market value
Answer» B. per value
18. _________Policy refers to the procedure follow to collect accounts receivable after the
expiry of the credit period
A. Risk
B. Collection
C. Profit
D. Management
Answer» B. collection
19. Financial manager would play the role of __________ in area of finance
A. budget analyst
B. cash analyst
C. cash flow examiners
D. personal financial advisors
Answer» A. budget analyst
20. Accounting rate of return is based on _____________

A. life of the project
B. average expected profit
C. average cash profit
D. average past profit
Answer» B. average expected profit
21. MM model of dividend irrelevance uses arbitrage between-

A. dividend and capital issue
B. dividend and bonus
C. profit and investment
Answer» A. dividend and capital issue
22. __________ can be traded throughout the trading day at market prices
A. Mmmf
B. debt fund
C. Etf
D. equity fund
Answer» C. etf
23. Intrinsic value of a bond is ______________ value of the all future cash flows
A. Past
B. Present
C. estimated
D. Future
Answer» B. present
24. ______ means the basic criteria for the extension of credit to customers
A. credit standards
B. financial position
C. cash standards
D. living standards
Answer» A. credit standards
25. The Presence of Taxes in capital budgeting analysis will cause ___________
A. the arr to remain same
B. the npv to increase
C. the irr to decrease
D. all of the above
Answer» C. the irr to decrease
26. _____________ refers to the price at which an asset can be traded in the market
A. past value
B. face value
C. market value
D. future value
Answer» C. market value

27. __________ is a blending of two or more existing undertaking into one undertaking
A. partnership
B. joint stock company
C. joint venture
D. Amalgamation
Answer» D. amalgamation
28. _____________ means the action of an organization or government selling or liquidating

an asset or subsidiary
A. sale out
B. Disinvestment
C. lock out
D. wind up
Answer» B. disinvestment
29. _________The lessee and the owner of the equipment are two different entities
A. direct lease
B. financial lease
C. operating lease
D. net lease
Answer» A. direct lease
30. ___________ is the primary institutional source of working capital finance in India
A. Debtors
B. loan from friend
C. bank credit
D. creditors
Answer» C. bank credit

31. __________ means reputation of a firm which is in existence for a number of year in
market
A. goodwill
B. bad debts
C. copy rights
D. royalties
Answer» A. goodwill
32. ___________ involves mergers and acquisition of firm belonging to different countries of
the world.
A. credit merger
B. group merger
C. cross border merger
D. synergy merger
Answer» C. cross border merger
33. _______________is a entity formed by two or more companies to undertake financial

activity together.
A. partnership firm
B. acquisition
C. joint venture
D. Merger
Answer» C. joint venture
34. In a __________ transaction the goods are let on hire the purchase price is to be paid in
installment and hirer is allowed an option to purchase the goods by paying all the
installment
A. hire purchase
B. credit purchase
C. lease purchase
D. installment purchase
Answer» A. hire purchase

34. In a __________ transaction the goods are let on hire the purchase price is to be paid in
installment and hirer is allowed an option to purchase the goods by paying all the
installment
35. The arrangement in which entire amount of borrowing is credited to the current account
of the borrower or realized in cash is called as_________
A. letter of credit
B. bank overdraft
C. Loan
D. bill discounting
Answer» C. loan
36. Book value (Net assets) = Total Assets - _______________

A. total liability
B. current asset
C. long term debt
D. current liability
Answer» C. long term debt
37. ____________ synergy refers to increase in the value of the firm that occurs to the
combined firm from financial factors.
A. Group
B. Vertical
C. Financial
D. operating
Answer» C. financial
38. The kind of takeover which is done through negotiations between two groups is
called_________
A. horizontal merger
B. hostile take over

38. The kind of takeover which is done through negotiations between two groups is
called_________
C. friendly take over
D. vertical synergy
Answer» C. friendly take over
39. From the point of view lessee, a lease is a_________

A. financing decision
B. buy or make decision
C. working capital decision
D. investment decision
Answer» A. financing decision
40. ____________ indirect form of working capital financing and bank assume only the risk
the credit being provided by the supplier himself
A. mortgage loan
B. letter of credit
C. bank overdraft
D. cash credit
Answer» B. letter of credit
41. EVA= ___________ - (Equity capital x % of cost of equity capital

A. earning after tax
B. net operating profit after tax
C. Npat
D. Npbt
Answer» B. net operating profit after tax

42. ___________ is the ratio of the number of shares of the acquiring firm and the selling
firm's share
A. dividend payout ratio
B. debt- equity ratio
C. exchange ratio
D. current ratio
Answer» C. exchange ratio
43. Which of the following is not a usual method of calculation of share swap ratio?
A. sales turnover
B. economic value added
C. dividend after tax
D. tax benefit
Answer» B. economic value added
44. Sale and lease back and ____________ are types of finance lease
A. operating lease
B. finance lease
C. leverage lease
D. net lease
Answer» C. leverage lease
45. ________ are taken as an additional security for working capital credit by banks
A. hypothecations
B. Pledge
C. mortgage
D. cash credit
Answer» C. mortgage
46. ___________ value is used when an investor wants true or real value on basis of analysis
of fundamentals without considering the prevailing price in the market
A. Intrinsic
B. Social
C. Current
D. Average
Answer» A. intrinsic
47. EPS = ___________ / Total number of shares

A. profit after tax
B. net profit after interest and tax
C. Npbt
D. Ebt
Answer» B. net profit after interest and tax
48. _________ classifies merger as vertical and horizontal

A. as14
B. as20
C. as 9
D. as 12
Answer» A. as14
49. Treatment of _______ in AS 19 is almost same as required by tax laws in India

A. operating lease
B. net lease
C. financial lease
D. hire purchase
Answer» A. operating lease

50. _____________ has suggested three methods of working out of the maximum amount
that unit may expect from the bank (MPBF)
A. tondon committee
B. chore committee
C. walters committee
D. gordon\s committee
Answer» A. tondon committee
51. The appropriate objective of an enterprise is;

A. Maximization of sale
B. Maximization of owner’s wealth.
C. Maximization of profits.
D. None of these.
Answer» B. Maximization of owner’s wealth.
52. The job of a finance manager is confined to

A. Raising funds
B. Management of cash
C. Raising of funds and their effective utilization.
D. None of these.
Answer» C. Raising of funds and their effective utilization.
53. Financial decision involve;

A. Investment ,financing and dividend decision
B. Investment ,financing and sales decision
C. Financing , dividend and cash decision
D. None of these.
Answer» A. Investment ,financing and dividend decision

54. Net Profit Ratio Signifies:
A. Operational Profitability
B. Liquidity Position
C. Solvency
D. Profit
Answer» A. Operational Profitability
55. Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with:
A. Fixed Assets
B. Sales
C. Purchases
D. Stock.
Answer» A. Fixed Assets
56. Dividend Payout Ratio is:

A. PAT Capital
B. DPS ÷ EPS
C. Pref. Dividend ÷ PAT
D. Pref. Dividend ÷ Equity Dividend
Answer» B. DPS ÷ EPS
57. Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:

A. Average Sales
B. Cost of Goods Sold
C. Total Purchases
D. Total Assets
Answer» B. Cost of Goods Sold

58. The term 'EVA' is used for:
A. Extra Value Analysis
B. Economic Value Added
C. Expected Value Analysis
D. Engineering Value Analysis
Answer» B. Economic Value Added
59. Return on Investment may be improved by:

A. Increasing Turnover
B. Reducing Expenses
C. Increasing Capital Utilization
D. All of the above
60. In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with:

A. Current Profit
B. Current Liabilities
C. Fixed Assets
D. Equity Share Capital
Answer» B. Current Liabilities
61. There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What
does it refer to?
A. That the Capital Employed has reduced,
B. That the Profitability has gone up,
C. That debtors collection period has increased,
D. That Sales has decreased.
Answer» C. That debtors collection period has increased,

62. Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by:
A. Borrowing More
B. Issue of Debentures
C. Issue of Equity Shares
D. Redemption of Debt.
Answer» D. Redemption of Debt.
63. Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:

A. Price Earnings Ratio
B. Net Profit Ratio,
C. Earnings per Share
D. Dividend per Share.
Answer» C. Earnings per Share
64. A Current Ratio of Less than One means:

A. Current Liabilities < Current Assets
B. Fixed Assets > Current Assets
C. Current Assets < Current Liabilities
D. Share Capital > Current Assets
Answer» C. Current Assets < Current Liabilities
65. A firm has Capital of 10,00,000; Sales of 5,00,000; Gross Profit of . 2,00,000 and
Expenses of . 1,00,000. What is the Net Profit Ratio?
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 10%
D. 40%
Answer» A. 20%
66. Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in
A. Profitability Position
B. Liquidity Position
C. Market Share Position
D. Debt Position
Answer» B. Liquidity Position
67. Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm?

A. Current Ratio
B. Acid Test Ratio
C. Interest Coverage Ratio
D. Debtors Turnover
Answer» C. Interest Coverage Ratio
68. Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing.
The reason for such behavior could be:
A. Increase in Costs of Goods Sold
B. If Increase in Expense
C. Increase in Dividend
D. Decrease in Sales.
Answer» B. If Increase in Expense
69. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
B. Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
C. Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
D. Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.
Answer» D. Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

70. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity would be:
A. 0.80
B. 0.25
C. 1.00
D. 0.75
Answer» B. 0.25
71. Which of the following helps analyzing return to equity Shareholders?

A. Return on Assets
B. Earnings Per Share
C. Net Profit Ratio
D. Return on Investment.
Answer» B. Earnings Per Share
72. In Inventory Turnover calculation, what is taken in the numerator?

A. Sales
B. Cost of Goods Sold,
C. Opening Stock
D. Closing Stock.
Answer» B. Cost of Goods Sold,
73. Financial Planning deals with:

A. Preparation of Financial Statements
B. Planning for a Capital Issue
C. Preparing Budgets
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Preparing Budgets

74. Financial planning starts with the preparation of:
A. Master Budget
B. Cash Budget
C. Balance Sheet
Answer» D. None of the above.
75. Process of Financial Planning ends with:

A. Preparation of Projected Statements
B. Preparation of Actual Statements
C. Comparison of Actual with Projected
D. Ordering the employees that projected figures m come true.
Answer» C. Comparison of Actual with Projected
76. Capital Budgeting is a part of:

A. Investment Decision
B. Working Capital Management
C. Marketing Management
D. Capital Structure
Answer» A. Investment Decision
77. Capital Budgeting deals with:

A. Long-term Decisions
B. Short-term Decisions
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer» A. Long-term Decisions

78. Which of the following is not used in Capital Budgeting?
A. Time Value of Money
B. Sensitivity Analysis
C. Net Assets Method
D. Cash Flows.
Answer» C. Net Assets Method
79. Capital Budgeting Decisions are:

A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Unimportant
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Irreversible
80. Which of the following is not incorporated in Capital Budgeting?

A. Tax-Effect
B. Time Value of Money
C. Required Rate of Return
D. Rate of Cash Discount
Answer» D. Rate of Cash Discount
81. Which of the following is not a capital budgeting decision?

A. Expansion Programme
B. Merger
C. Replacement of an Asset
D. Inventory Level
Answer» D. Inventory Level

82. A sound Capital Budgeting technique is based on:
A. Cash Flows
B. Accounting Profit
C. Interest Rate on Borrowings
D. Last Dividend Paid
Answer» B. Accounting Profit
83. Which of the following is not a relevant cost in Capital Budgeting?

A. Sunk Cost
B. Opportunity Cost
C. Allocated Overheads
D. Both (a) and (c) above.
Answer» D. Both (a) and (c) above.
84. Capital Budgeting Decisions are based on:

A. Incremental Profit
B. Incremental Cash Flows
C. Incremental Assets
D. Incremental Capital
Answer» B. Incremental Cash Flows
85. Which of the following does not affect cash flows proposal?
A. Salvage Value
B. Depreciation Amount
C. Tax Rate Change
D. Method of Project Financing
Answer» D. Method of Project Financing

86. Cash Inflows from a project include:
A. Tax Shield of Depreciation
B. After-tax Operating Profits
C. Raising of Funds
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer» D. Both (a) and (b)
87. Which of the following is not true with reference capital budgeting?
A. Capital budgeting is related to asset replacement decisions,
B. Cost of capital is equal to minimum required return,
C. Existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost,
D. Timing of cash flows is relevant.
Answer» C. Existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost,
88. Which of the following is not followed in capital budgeting?

A. Cash flows Principle
B. Interest Exclusion Principle
C. Accrual Principle
D. Post-tax Principle
Answer» C. Accrual Principle
89. Depreciation is incorporated in cash flows because it:

A. Is unavoidable cost
B. Is a cash flow
C. Reduces Tax liability
D. Involves an outflow
Answer» C. Reduces Tax liability

90. Which of the following is not true for capital budgeting?
A. Sunk costs are ignored,
B. Opportunity costs are excluded,
C. Incremental cash flows are considered,
D. Relevant cash flows are considered
Answer» B. Opportunity costs are excluded,
91. Which of the following is not applied in capital budgeting?

A. Cash flows be calculated in incremental terms
B. All costs and benefits are measured on cash basis,
C. All accrued costs and revenues be incorporated,
D. All benefits are measured on after-tax basis.
Answer» C. All accrued costs and revenues be incorporated,
92. Evaluation of Capital Budgeting Proposals is based on Cash Flows because:

A. Cash Flows are easy to calculate
B. Cash Flows are suggested by SEBI
C. Cash is more important than profit
Answer» C. Cash is more important than profit
93. Which of the following is not included in incremental A flows?

A. Opportunity Costs
B. Sunk Costs
C. Change in Working Capital
D. Inflation effect
Answer» B. Sunk Costs

94. A proposal is not a Capital Budgeting proposal if it:
A. is related to Fixed Assets
B. brings long-term benefits
C. brings short-term benefits only
D. has very large investment.
Answer» C. brings short-term benefits only
95. In Capital Budgeting, Sunk cost is excluded because it is:

A. of small amount
B. not incremental
C. not reversible
D. All of the above
Answer» B. not incremental
96. Savings in respect of a cost is treated in capital budgeting as:

A. An Inflow
B. An Outflow
C. Nil
Answer» A. An Inflow
97. In capital budgeting, the term Capital Rationing implies:

A. That no retained earnings available
B. That limited funds are available for investment
C. That no external funds can be raised,
D. That no fresh investment is required in current year
Answer» B. That limited funds are available for investment

98. Feasibility Set Approach to Capital Rationing can be applied in:
A. Accept-Reject Situations
B. Divisible Projects
C. Mutually Exclusive Projects
Answer» A. Accept-Reject Situations
99. In case of divisible projects, which of the following can be used to attain maximum NPV?
A. Feasibility Set Approach
B. Internal Rate of Return
C. Profitability Index Approach
D. Any of the above
Answer» C. Profitability Index Approach
100. In case of the indivisible projects, which of the following may not give the optimum
result?
A. Internal Rate of Return
B. Profitability Index
C. Feasibility Set Approach
D. All of the above
101. Profitability Index, when applied to Divisible Projects, impliedly assumes that:
A. Project cannot be taken in parts
B. NPV is linearly proportionate to part of the project taken up
C. NPV is additive in nature
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer» D. Both (b) and (c)
102. If there is no inflation during a period, then the Money Cash flow would be equal to:
A. Present Value
102. If there is no inflation during a period, then the Money Cash flow would be equal to:
B. Real Cash flow
C. Real Cash flow + Present Value
D. Real Cash flow - Present Value
Answer» B. Real Cash flow
103. The Real Cash flows must be discounted to get the present value at a rate equal to:
A. Money Discount Rate
B. Inflation Rate
C. Real Discount Rate
D. Risk free rate of interest
Answer» C. Real Discount Rate
104. Real rate of return is equal to:
A. Nominal Rate × Inflation Rate
B. Nominal Rate ÷ Inflation Rate
C. Nominal Rate - Inflation Rate
D. Nominal Rate + Inflation Rate
Answer» B. Nominal Rate ÷ Inflation Rate
105. If the Real rate of return is 10% and Inflation s Money Discount Rate is:
A. 14.4%
B. 2.5%
C. 25%
D. 14%
Answer» A. 14.4%
106. If the Money Discount Rate is 19% and Inflation Rate is 12%, then the Real Discount
Rate is:
A. 7%
B. 5%
C. 5.70%
D. 6.25%
Answer» D. 6.25%
107. Money Discount Rate if equal to:
A. (1 + Inflation Rate) (1 + Real Rate)-1
B. (1 + Inflation Rate) 4- (1 + Real Rate)-1
C. (1 + Real Rate) 4- (1 + Inflation Rate)-1
D. (1 + Real Rate) + (1 + Inflation Rate)-1
Answer» A. (1 + Inflation Rate) (1 + Real Rate)-1
108. Real Discount Rate is equal to:

A. (1 + Inf. Rate) (1 + Money D Rate)-1
B. (1 + Money D Rate) + (1 + Inf. Rate)-1
C. (1 + Money D Rate) 4- (1 + Inf. Rate)-1
D. (1 + Money D Rate) - (1 + Inf. Rate)-1
Answer» C. (1 + Money D Rate) 4- (1 + Inf. Rate)-1
109. Two mutually exclusive projects with different economic lives can be compared on the
basis of
A. Internal Rate of Return
B. Profitability Index
C. Net Present Value
D. Equivalent Annuity Value
Answer» D. Equivalent Annuity Value

110. Risk in Capital budgeting implies that the decision-maker knows___________of the cash
flows.
A. Variability
B. Probability
C. Certainty
Answer» B. Probability
111. In Certainty-equivalent approach, adjusted cash flows are discounted at:
A. Accounting Rate of Return
B. Internal Rate of Return
C. Hurdle Rate
D. Risk-free Rate
Answer» D. Risk-free Rate
112. Risk in Capital budgeting is same as:
A. Uncertainty of Cash flows
B. Probability of Cash flows
C. Certainty of Cash flows
D. Variability of Cash flows
Answer» D. Variability of Cash flows
113. Which of the following is a risk factor in capital budgeting?
A. Industry specific risk factors
B. Competition risk factors
C. Project specific risk factors
D. All of the above

113. Which of the following is a risk factor in capital budgeting?
114. In Risk-Adjusted Discount Rate method, the normal rate of discount is:
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged
Answer» A. Increased
115. In Risk-Adjusted Discount Rate method, which one is adjusted?
A. Cash flows
B. Life of the proposal
C. Rate of discount
D. Salvage value
Answer» C. Rate of discount
116. NPV of a proposal, as calculated by RADR real CE Approach will be:
A. Same
B. Unequal
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of (a) and (b)
Answer» B. Unequal
117. Risk of a Capital budgeting can be incorporated
A. Adjusting the Cash flows
B. Adjusting the Discount Rate
C. Adjusting the life

117. Risk of a Capital budgeting can be incorporated
D. All of the above
118. Which element of the basic NPV equation is adjusted by the RADR?
A. Denominator
B. Numerator
C. Both
D. None
Answer» A. Denominator
119. Cost of Capital refers to:
A. Flotation Cost
B. Dividend
C. Required Rate of Return
Answer» B. Dividend
120. Which of the following sources of funds has an Implicit Cost of Capital?
A. Equity Share Capital
B. Preference Share Capital
C. Debentures
D. Retained earnings
Answer» D. Retained earnings
121. Which of the following has the highest cost of capital?
A. Equity shares
121. Which of the following has the highest cost of capital?
B. Loans
C. Bonds
D. Preference shares
Answer» A. Equity shares
122. Cost of Capital for Government securities is also known as:
A. Risk-free Rate of Interest
B. Maximum Rate of Return
C. Rate of Interest on Fixed Deposits
Answer» A. Risk-free Rate of Interest
123. Cost of Capital for Bonds and Debentures is calculated on:
A. Before Tax basis
B. After Tax basis
C. Risk-free Rate of Interest basis
Answer» B. After Tax basis
124. Weighted Average Cost of Capital is generally denoted by:
A. kA
B. Kw
C. k0
D. Kc
Answer» C. k0
125. Which of the following cost of capital require tax adjustment?
A. Cost of Equity Shares
B. Cost of Preference Shares
C. Cost of Debentures
D. Cost of Retained Earnings.
Answer» C. Cost of Debentures
126. Which is the most expensive source of funds?
A. New Equity Shares
B. New Preference Shares
C. New Debts
D. Retained Earnings
Answer» A. New Equity Shares
127. Marginal cost of capital is the cost of:
A. Additional Sales
B. Additional Funds
C. Additional Interests
Answer» B. Additional Funds
128. In case the firm is all-equity financed, WACC would be equal to
A. Cost of Debt
B. Cost of Equity
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer» B. Cost of Equity

129. In case of partially debt-financed firm, k0 is less
A. Kd
B. Ke
C. Both (a) and (b)
Answer» B. Ke
130. In order to calculate Weighted Average Cost of weights may be based on:
A. Market Values
B. Target Values
C. Book Values
D. All of the above
131. Firm's Cost of Capital is the average cost of:
A. All sources
B. All borrowings
C. Share capital
D. Share Bonds & Debentures
Answer» A. All sources
132. An implicit cost of increasing proportion of debt is:
A. Tax should would not be available on new debt
B. P.E. Ratio would increase
C. Equity shareholders would demand higher return
D. Rate of Return of the company would decrease
Answer» C. Equity shareholders would demand higher return

133. Cost of Redeemable Preference Share Capital is:
A. Rate of Dividend
B. After Tax Rate of Dividend
C. Discount Rate that equates PV of inflows and out-flows relating to capital
Answer» C. Discount Rate that equates PV of inflows and out-flows relating to capital
134. Which of the following is true?
A. Retained earnings are cost free
B. External Equity is cheaper than Internal Equity
C. Retained Earnings are cheaper than External Equity
D. Retained Earnings are costlier than External Equity
Answer» C. Retained Earnings are cheaper than External Equity
135. Cost of capital may be defined as:
A. Weighted Average cost of all debts
B. Rate of Return expected by Equity Shareholders
C. Average IRR of the Projects of the firm
D. Minimum Rate of Return that the firm should earn
Answer» D. Minimum Rate of Return that the firm should earn
136. Minimum Rate of Return that a firm must earn in order to satisfy its investors, is also
known as:
A. Average Return on Investment
B. Weighted Average Cost of Capital
C. Net Profit Ratio
D. Average Cost of borrowing
Answer» B. Weighted Average Cost of Capital

137. Cost Capital for Equity Share Capital does not imply that:
A. Market Price is equal to Book Value of share,
B. Shareholders are ready to subscribe to right issue,
C. .Market Price is more than Issue Price,
D. AC of the three above.
Answer» D. AC of the three above.
138. In order to calculate the proportion of equity financing used by the company, the
following should be used:
A. Authorized Share Capital,
B. Equity Share Capital plus Reserves and Surplus,
C. Equity Share Capital plus Preference Share Capital,
D. Equity Share Capital plus Long-term Debt.
Answer» B. Equity Share Capital plus Reserves and Surplus,
139. The term capital structure denotes:
A. Total of Liability side of Balance Sheet,
B. Equity Funds, Preference Capital and Long term Debt
C. Total Shareholders Equity,
D. Types of Capital Issued by a Company.
Answer» B. Equity Funds, Preference Capital and Long term Debt
140. Debt Financing is a cheaper source of finance because of:
A. Time Value of Money
B. Rate of Interest,
C. Tax-deductibility of Interest
D. Dividends not Payable to lenders.
Answer» C. Tax-deductibility of Interest

141. In order to find out cost of equity capital under CAPM, which of the following is not
required:
A. Beta Factor
B. Market Rate of Return,
C. Market Price of Equity Share
D. Risk-free Rate of Interest.
Answer» C. Market Price of Equity Share
142. Tax-rate is relevant and important for calculation of specific cost of capital of:
A. Equity Share Capital
B. Preference Share Capital
C. Debentures
D. (a) and (b) above.
Answer» C. Debentures
143. Advantage of Debt financing is
A. Interest is tax-deductible
B. It reduces WACC
C. Does not dilute owners control
D. All of the above.
Answer» D. All of the above.
144. Cost of issuing new shares to the public is known as:
A. Cost of Equity
B. Cost of Capital
C. Flotation Cost
D. Marginal Cost of Capital.
Answer» C. Flotation Cost

145. Cost of Equity Share Capital is more than cost of debt because:
A. Face value of debentures is more than face value of shares,
B. Equity shares have higher risk than debt,
C. Equity shares are easily saleable
D. All of the three above.
Answer» B. Equity shares have higher risk than debt,
146. Which of the following is not a generally accepted approach for Calculation of Cost of
Equity?
A. CAPM
B. Dividend Discount Model
C. Rate of Pref. Dividend Plus Risk
D. Price-Earnings Ratio
Answer» C. Rate of Pref. Dividend Plus Risk
147. Operating leverage helps in analysis of:
A. Business Risk
B. Financing Risk
C. Production Risk
D. Credit Risk
Answer» A. Business Risk
148. Which of the following is studied with the help of financial leverage?
A. Marketing Risk
B. Interest Rate Risk
C. Foreign Exchange Risk
D. Financing risk
Answer» D. Financing risk

149. Combined Leverage is obtained from OL and FL by their:
A. Addition
B. Subtraction
C. Multiplication
D. Any of these
Answer» C. Multiplication
150. High degree of financial leverage means:
A. High debt proportion
B. Lower debt proportion
C. Equal debt and equity
D. No debt
Answer» A. High debt proportion
151. Operating leverage arises because of:
A. Fixed Cost of Production
B. Fixed Interest Cost
C. Variable Cost
Answer» A. Fixed Cost of Production
152. Financial Leverage arises because of:
A. Fixed cost of production
B. Variable Cost
C. Interest Cost
Answer» C. Interest Cost

153. Operating Leverage is calculated as:
A. Contribution ÷ EBIT
B. EBIT÷PBT
C. EBIT ÷Interest
D. EBIT ÷Tax
Answer» A. Contribution ÷ EBIT
154. Financial Leverage is calculated as:
A. EBIT÷ Contribution
B. EBIT÷ PBT
C. EBIT÷ Sales
D. EBIT ÷ Variable Cost
Answer» B. EBIT÷ PBT
155. Which combination is generally good for firms
A. High OL, High FL
B. Low OL, Low FL
C. High OL, Low FL
D. None of these
Answer» C. High OL, Low FL
156. Combined leverage can be used to measure the relationship between:
A. EBIT and EPS
B. PAT and EPS,
C. Sales and EPS,
D. Sales and EBIT
Answer» C. Sales and EPS,

157. FL is zero if:
A. EBIT = Interest
B. EBIT = Zero,
C. EBIT = Fixed Cost,
D. EBIT = Pref. Dividend
Answer» B. EBIT = Zero,
158. Business risk can be measured by:
A. Financial leverage
B. Operating leverage
C. Combined leverage
Answer» B. Operating leverage
159. Financial Leverage measures relationship between
A. EBIT and PBT
B. EBIT and EPS
C. Sales and PBT
D. Sales and EPS
Answer» B. EBIT and EPS
160. Use of Preference Share Capital in Capital structure
A. Increases OL
B. Increases FL
C. Decreases OL
D. Decreases FL
Answer» B. Increases FL
161. Relationship between change in sales and change m is measured by:
A. Financial leverage
B. Combined leverage
C. Operating leverage
Answer» B. Combined leverage
162. Operating leverage works when:
A. Sales Increases
B. Sales Decreases
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of (a) and (b)
Answer» C. Both (a) and (b)
A. CL= OL + FL
B. CL=OL-FL
C. OL= OL × FL
D. OL=OL÷FL
Answer» C. OL= OL × FL
164. If the fixed cost of production is zero, which one of the following is correct?
A. OL is zero
B. FL is zero
C. CL is zero

165. If a firm has no debt, which one is correct?
A. OL is one
B. FL is one
C. OL is zero
D. FL is zero
Answer» B. FL is one
166. If a company issues new share capital to redeem debentures, then:
A. OL will increase
B. FL will increase
C. OL will decrease
D. FL will decrease
Answer» D. FL will decrease
167. If a firm has a DOL of 2.8, it means:
A. If sales increase by 2.8%, the EBIT will increase by 1%,
B. If EBIT increase by 2.896, the EPS will increase by 1 %,
C. If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 2.8%,
Answer» C. If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 2.8%,
168. Higher OL is related to the use of higher:
A. Debt
B. Equity
C. Fixed Cost
D. Variable Cost
Answer» C. Fixed Cost

169. Higher FL is related the use of:
A. Higher Equity
B. Higher Debt
C. Lower Debt
Answer» B. Higher Debt
170. In order to calculate EPS, Profit after Tax and Preference Dividend is divided by:
A. MP of Equity Shares
B. Number of Equity Shares
C. Face Value of Equity Shares
Answer» B. Number of Equity Shares
171. Trading on Equity is
A. Always beneficial
B. May be beneficial
C. Never beneficial
Answer» B. May be beneficial
172. Benefit of 'Trading on Equity' is available only if:
A. Rate of Interest < Rate of Return
B. Rate of Interest > Rate of Return
C. Both (a) and (b)
Answer» A. Rate of Interest < Rate of Return

173. Indifference Level of EBIT is one at which:
A. EPS is zero
B. EPS is Minimum
C. EPS is highest
D. None of these
Answer» D. None of these
174. Financial Break-even level of EBIT is one at which:
A. EPS is one
B. EPS is zero
C. EPS is Infinite
D. EPS is Negative
Answer» B. EPS is zero
175. Relationship between change in Sales and d Operating Profit is known as:
A. Financial Leverage
B. Operating Leverage
C. Net Profit Ratio
D. Gross Profit Ratio
Answer» B. Operating Leverage
176. If a firm has no Preference share capital, Financial Break-even level is defined as equal
to -
A. EBIT
B. Interest liability
C. Equity Dividend
D. Tax Liability
Answer» B. Interest liability

177. At Indifference level of EBIT, different capital have
A. Same EBIT
B. Same EPS
C. Same PAT
D. Same PBT
Answer» B. Same EPS
178. Which of the following is not a relevant factor m EPS Analysis of capital structure?
A. Rate of Interest on Debt
B. Tax Rate
C. Amount of Preference Share Capital
D. Dividend paid last year
Answer» D. Dividend paid last year
179. For a constant EBIT, if the debt level is further increased then
A. EPS will always increase
B. EPS may increase
C. EPS will never increase
Answer» B. EPS may increase
180. Between two capital plans, if expected EBIT is more than indifference level of EBIT,
then
A. Both plans be rejected
B. Both plans are good
C. One is better than other
Answer» C. One is better than other

181. Financial break-even level of EBIT is:
A. Intercept at Y-axis,
B. Intercept at X-axis
C. Slope of EBIT-EPS line
Answer» B. Intercept at X-axis
182. In case of Net Income Approach, the Cost of equity is:
A. Constant
B. Increasing
C. Decreasing
Answer» A. Constant
183. In case of Net Income Approach, when the debt proportion is increased, the cost of debt:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
Answer» C. Constant
184. Which of the following is true of Net Income Approach?
A. VF = VE+VD
B. VE = VF+VD
C. VD = VF+VE
D. VF = VE-VE
Answer» A. VF = VE+VD
185. Net Operating Income Approach, which one of the lowing is constant?
A. Cost of Equity
B. Cost of Debt
C. WACC & kd
D. Ke and Kd
Answer» C. WACC & kd
186. NOI Approach advocates that the degree of debt financing is:
A. Relevant
B. May be relevant
C. Irrelevant
D. May be irrelevant
Answer» C. Irrelevant
187. 'Judicious use of leverage' is suggested by:
A. Net Income Approach
B. Net Operating Income Approach
C. Traditional Approach
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Traditional Approach
188. Which one is true for Net Operating Income Approach?
A. VD = VF - VE
B. VE = VF + VD
C. VE = VF - VD
D. VD = VF + VE
Answer» C. VE = VF - VD
189. In the Traditional Approach, which one of the following remains constant?
A. Cost of Equity
B. Cost of Debt
C. WACC
190. In MM-Model, irrelevance of capital structure is based on:
A. Cost of Debt and Equity
B. Arbitrage Process
C. Decreasing k0
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Arbitrage Process
191. 'That there is no corporate tax' is assumed by:
B. Net Operating Income Approach,
D. All of these
Answer» D. All of these
192. 'That personal leverage can replace corporate leverage' is assumed by:
A. Traditional Approach
B. MM Model
C. Net Income Approach
D. Net Operating Income Approach.
Answer» B. MM Model
193. Which of the following argues that the value of levered firm is higher than that of the
unlevered firm?
C. MM Model with taxes
D. Both (a) and (c)
Answer» D. Both (a) and (c)
194. In Traditional Approach, which one is correct?
A. ke rises constantly
B. kd decreases constantly
C. k0 decreases constantly
195. Which of the following assumes constant kd and ke?
D. MM Model.
Answer» A. Net Income Approach
196. Which of the following is true?
A. Under Traditional Approach, overall cost of capital remains same,
B. Under NI Approach, overall cost of capital remains same,
C. Under NOI Approach, overall cost of capital remains same,
Answer» C. Under NOI Approach, overall cost of capital remains same,

197. The Traditional Approach to Value of the firm m that:
A. There is no optimal capital structure,
B. Value can be increased by judicious use of leverage
C. Cost of Capital and Capital structure are m dent,
D. Risk of the firm is independent of capital structure
Answer» B. Value can be increased by judicious use of leverage
198. A firm has EBIT of . 50,000. Market value of debt is . 80,000 and overall capitalization
rate is 20%. Market value of firm under NOI Approach is:
A. 2,50,000
B. 1,70,000
C. 30,000
D. 1,30,000.
Answer» B. 1,70,000
199. Which of the following is incorrect for NOI?
A. k0 is constant
B. kd is constant
C. ke is constant
D. kd & k0 are constant
Answer» C. ke is constant
200. Which of the following is incorrect for value of the firm?
A. In the initial preposition, MM Model argues that value is independent of the financing mix.
B. Total value of levered and unlevered firms is otherwise arbitrage will take place.
C. Total value incorporates borrowings by firm but excludes personal borrowing.
D. Total value does not change because underlying does not change with financing mix.
Answer» D. Total value does not change because underlying does not change with financing mix.
200. Which of the following is incorrect for value of the firm?
FINANCIAL MARKETS AND INSTITUTIONS
1. Every financial market has the following characteristic:
A. It determines the level of interest rates.
B. It allows common stock to be traded.
C. It allows loans to be made.
D. It channels funds from lenders-savers to borrowers spenders.
Answer» D. It channels funds from lenders-savers to borrowers spenders.
2. Financial markets have the basic function of

A. bringing together people with funds to lend and people who want to borrow funds.
assuring that the swings in the business cycle are less pronounced. assuring that governments
B.
need never resort to printing money.
C. both (A) and (B) of the above.
D. both (B) and (C) of the above.
Answer» A. bringing together people with funds to lend and people who want to borrow funds.
3. Which of the following can be described as involving direct finance?

A. A corporation’s stock is traded in an over-the-counter market.
B. People buy shares in a mutual fund.
C. A pension fund manager buys commercial paper in the secondary market.
Answer» D. None of the above.

A. A corporation’s stock is traded in an over-the-counter market.
B. A corporation buys commercial paper issued by another corporation.
C. A pension fund manager buys commercial paper from the issuing corporation.
D. Both (B) and (C) of the above.
Answer» D. Both (B) and (C) of the above.
5. Which of the following can be described as involving indirect finance?

A. A corporation takes out loans from a bank.
B. People buy shares in a mutual fund.
C. A corporation buys commercial paper in a secondary market.
D. All of the above.
Answer» D. All of the above.
6. Which of the following can be described as involving indirect finance?

A. A bank buys a U.S. Treasury bill from one of its depositors.
B. A corporation buys commercial paper issued by another corporation.
C. A pension fund manager buys commercial paper in the primary market.
D. Both (B) and (C) of the above.
Answer» A. A bank buys a U.S. Treasury bill from one of its depositors.
7. Financial markets improve economic welfare because

they allow funds to move from those without productive investment opportunities to those
A.
who have such opportunities.
B. they allow consumers to time their purchases better.
C. they weed out inefficient firms.
D. they do (A) and (B) of the above.
Answer» D. they do (A) and (B) of the above.

8. Which of the following are securities?
A. A certificate of deposit
B. A share of Texaco common stock
C. A Treasury bill
D. All of the above
9. Which of the following statements about the characteristics of debt and equity are true?
A. They can both be long-term financial instruments.
B. They both involve a claim on the issuer’s income.
C. They both enable a corporation to raise funds.
D. All of the above
10. Which of the following are long-term financial instruments?

A. A negotiable certificate of deposit
B. A banker’s acceptance
C. A U.S. Treasury bond
D. A U.S. Treasury bill
Answer» C. A U.S. Treasury bond
11. Which of the following are short-term financial instruments?

A. A negotiable certificate of deposit
B. A banker’s acceptance
C. A U.S. Treasury bond
D. Both (A) and (B) of the above
Answer» D. Both (A) and (B) of the above

12. Which of the following are short-term financial instruments?
A. A banker’s acceptance
B. A share of Walt Disney Corporation stock
C. A Treasury note with a maturity of 4 years
D. All of the above
Answer» A. A banker’s acceptance
13. Which of the following are primary markets?

A. The New York Stock Exchange
B. The U.S. government bond market
C. The over-the-counter stock market
14. Which of the following are secondary markets?

A. The New York Stock Exchange
B. The U.S. government bond market
C. The over-the-counter stock markets
D. All of the above
15. A corporation acquires new funds only when its securities are sold
A. in the secondary market by an investment bank.
B. in the primary market by an investment bank.
C. in the secondary market by a stock exchange broker.
D. in the secondary market by a commercial bank.
Answer» B. in the primary market by an investment bank.

16. Intermediaries who are agents of investors and match buyers with sellers of securities
are called
A. investment bankers.
B. traders
C. brokers
D. dealers.
Answer» D. dealers.
17. Intermediaries who link buyers and sellers by buying and selling securities at stated
prices are called
A. investment bankers.
B. traders
C. brokers
D. dealers
Answer» D. dealers
18. An important financial institution that assists in the initial sale of securities in the
primary market is the
A. investment bank
B. commercial bank.
C. stock exchange.
D. brokerage house
Answer» A. investment bank
19. Which of the following statements about financial markets and securities are true?
Most common stocks are traded over-the-counter, although the largest corporations have their
A.
shares traded at organized stock exchanges such as the
B. New York Stock Exchange.
C. A corporation acquires new funds only when its securities are sold in the primary market.
Money market securities are usually more widely traded than longer-term securities and so
D.
tend to be more liquid.
Answer» D. Money market securities are usually more widely traded than longer-term securities and
so tend to be more liquid.
20. The lending ability of commercial bank increases when

A. Reserve ratio is increased
B. RBI credit is reduced
C. RBI sells government securities
21. RBI issues currency noted under

A. Minimum reserve system
B. Proportional reserve system
C. Maximum issue system
Answer» A. Minimum reserve system
22. Which of the following markets is sometimes organized as an over-the-counter market?

A. The stock markets
B. The bond markets
C. The foreign exchange markets
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following instruments is not traded in a money market?

A. Banker’s acceptances
B. U.S. Treasury Bills

C. Eurodollars

A. Banker’s acceptances
B. U.S. Treasury Bills
C. Eurodollars
D. Residential mortgages
Answer» D. Residential mortgages
25. Which of the following instruments are traded in a capital market?

A. U.S. government agency securities
B. Negotiable bank CDs
C. Repurchase agreements
D. Eurodollars
Answer» A. U.S. government agency securities
26. Which of the following instruments are traded in a capital market?

A. Corporate bonds
B. U.S. Treasury bills
C. Banker’s acceptances
D. Repurchase agreements
Answer» A. Corporate bonds
27. Bonds that are sold in a foreign country and are denominated in that country’s
currency are known as
A. Foreign bonds.
B. Eurobonds.
27. Bonds that are sold in a foreign country and are denominated in that country’s
currency are known as
C. Eurocurrencies.
D. Eurodollars.
Answer» A. Foreign bonds.
28. Bonds that are sold in a foreign country and are denominated in a currency other
than that of the country in which they are sold are known as
A. foreign bonds.
B. Eurobonds.
C. Euro-currencies.
D. Eurodollars.
Answer» B. Eurobonds.
29. Financial intermediaries

A. exist because there are substantial information and transaction costs in the economy.
B. improve the lot of the small saver.
C. are involved in the process of indirect finance.
D. do all of the above.
Answer» D. do all of the above.
30. The main sources of financing for businesses, in order of importance, are
A. financial intermediaries, issuing bonds, issuing stocks.
B. issuing bonds, issuing stocks, financial intermediaries.
C. issuing stocks, issuing bonds, financial intermediaries.
D. issuing stocks, financial intermediaries, issuing bonds.
Answer» A. financial intermediaries, issuing bonds, issuing stocks.

31. In primary markets, the first time issued shares to be publicly traded in stock
markets is considered as
A. traded offering
B. public markets
C. issuance offering
D. initial public offering
Answer» D. initial public offering
32. The transaction cost of trading of financial instruments in centralized market is

classified as
A. flexible costs
B. low transaction costs
C. high transaction costs
D. constant costs
Answer» B. low transaction costs
33. The stocks or shares that are sold to investors without transacting through financial
institutions are classified as
A. direct transfer
B. indirect transfer
C. global transfer
D. pension transfer
Answer» A. direct transfer
34. The type of financial security which have linked payoff to another issued security is
classified as.
A. linked security
B. derivative security
C. payable security
D. non- issuing security
Answer» B. derivative security

35. In primary markets, the property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued
security is considered as
A. increased liquidity
B. decreased liquidity
C. money flow
D. large funds
Answer» A. increased liquidity
36. The depository institutions such as thrifts includes

A. savings associations
B. savings banks
C. credit unions
D. all of above
37. The money market where debt and stocks are traded and maturity period is more
than a year is classified as
A. shorter term markets
B. capital markets
C. counter markets
D. Long-term markets
Answer» B. capital markets
38. The example of derivative securities includes

A. swap contract
B. option contract
C. futures contract
D. all of above
38. The example of derivative securities includes
39. In foreign financial markets, the growth is represented by the factors such as
A. savings in foreign countries
B. investment opportunities
C. accessible information
D. all of above
40. The authority which intervenes directly or indirectly in foreign exchange markets
by altering the interest rates is considered as
A. centralized instruments
B. centralized stocks
C. central government
D. central corporations
Answer» C. central government
41. Which of the following are functions of a financial system? 1. The operation of a
payments system. 2. Providing the means of portfolio adjustment. 3. Helping to
reduce unemployment. 4. Channelling funds between lenders and borrowers. 5.
Helping speculators to bet on price movements.
A. 1 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2 to 5
Answer» C. 1, 2 and 4
42. The regulation of the banking industry is of particular importance in modern

economies because:
A. banks are large and very profitable.
42. The regulation of the banking industry is of particular importance in modern
economies because:
B. everyone in the economy has a bank account.
C. banks employ many people.
D. banks provide the principal means of payment for the economy.
Answer» D. banks provide the principal means of payment for the economy.
43. Statutory regulation is likely to create larger compliance costs than self-regulation
because:
A. self-regulation does not involve lawyers and the courts.
B. consumers are better able to assess risk under self-regulation.
C. statutory regulators are often over-cautious.
D. statutory regulation is controlled by consumers.
Answer» C. statutory regulators are often over-cautious.
44. Moral hazard caused by regulation can only be removed from financial transactions
if:
regulations are regularly revised to keep pace with the changing circumstances of the
A.
market.
B. the regulations prevent agency capture.
C. all regulation is self-regulation.
D. participants in the finance industry do not feel protected by the regulations.
Answer» D. participants in the finance industry do not feel protected by the regulations.
45. The public debt of a country is not necessarily a burden on the economy to the
extent that:
A. it grows less rapidly than GDP.
B. people receive good public services.
C. people are happy to hold government bonds.
D. it can be financed without adding to inflation.
Answer» A. it grows less rapidly than GDP.

46. If the public debt can be financed without adding to inflation or causing interest
rates to rise, it is said to be:
A. only a burden on future generations.
B. following the golden rule of the public finances.
C. in primary balance.
D. sustainable
Answer» D. sustainable
47. Interest rate expectations have been thought to be an important influence on bond
sales because:
A. government bond-holders are, by and large, are income risk averse.
B. interest rates have always been very unstable.
C. the bond market is dominated by people interested mainly in capital gains.
D. government bond-holders hold extrapolative expectations.
Answer» C. the bond market is dominated by people interested mainly in capital gains.
48. The sale of government bonds overseas:

A. causes a fall in the domestic money supply.
B. causes a deficit in the balance of payments.
causes a smaller increase in interest rates than the sale of bonds to the domestic banking
C.
sector.
causes a smaller increase in interest rates than the sale of bonds to the domestic private
D.
sector.
Answer» D. causes a smaller increase in interest rates than the sale of bonds to the domestic
private sector.
49. In indirect finance:

A. lenders loan to borrowers.
B. an institution borrows from the lender and provides funds to the borrower.
C. occurs between a borrower and lender, with or without an intermediary.
D. the borrower is required to have collateral.

49. In indirect finance:
Answer» B. an institution borrows from the lender and provides funds to the borrower.
50. A loan:
A. is an asset for both the lender and the borrower.
B. is an asset for the lender and a liability for the borrower.
C. is a liability for the lender and an asset for the borrower
D. is a liability for both the lender and the borrower.
Answer» B. is an asset for the lender and a liability for the borrower.
Chapter: Unit 2
1. The liquidity status of certificate of deposit which is more negotiable is considered as
A. certified liquidity
B. term liquidity
C. more liquid
D. less liquid
Answer» A. certified liquidity
A bond is a long-term security that promises to make periodic payments called dividends to
A.
the firm’s residual claimants.
B. A debt instrument is intermediate term if its maturity is less than one year.
C. A debt instrument is long term if its maturity is ten years or longer.
D. The maturity of a debt instrument is the time (term) to that instrument’s expiration date.
Answer» C. A debt instrument is long term if its maturity is ten years or longer.
A. Few common stocks are traded over-the-counter, although the over-the-counter markets have
grown in recent years.
B. A corporation acquires new funds only when its securities are sold in the primary market.
Capital market securities are usually more widely traded than longer term securities and so
C.
tend to be more liqu
Answer» A. Few common stocks are traded over-the-counter, although the over-the-counter markets
have grown in recent years.
6. Exchange banks specialize in:

A. Financing foreign trade
B. Promoting foreign investment
C. Financing domestic trade
D. All the above
Answer» A. Financing foreign trade
8. The declining profits made banks to undertake the business of:

A. Merchant banking
B. Mutual funds
C. Venture capital
D. all of the above
9. Retail banking means granting loans for:

A. Construction of houses
B. Purchases of consumer durables
C. Educational purposes
D. All of these
Answer» D. All of these

10. Investment banking was developed by
A. Japan
B. England
C. USA
Answer» B. England
11. The presence of transaction costs in financial markets explains, in part, why
A. financial intermediaries and indirect finance play such an important role in financial markets.
B. equity and bond financing play such an important role in financial markets.
corporations get more funds through equity financing than they get from financial
C.
intermediaries.
D. direct financing is more important than indirect financing as a source of funds.
Answer» A. financial intermediaries and indirect finance play such an important role in financial
markets.
12. Financial intermediaries can substantially reduce transaction costs per dollar of
transactions because their large size allows them to take advantage of
A. poorly informed consumers.
B. standardization.
C. economies of scale.
D. their market power.
Answer» C. economies of scale.
13. The presence of in financial markets leads to adverse selection and moral hazard
problems that interfere with the efficient functioning of financial markets.
A. Non-collateralized risk
B. free-riding
C. asymmetric information
D. costly state verification

14. When the lender and the borrower have different amounts of information regarding a
transaction,__________
A. asymmetric information
B. adverse selection
C. moral hazard
D. fraud
Answer» A. asymmetric information
15. When the potential borrowers who are the most likely to default are the ones most
actively seeking a loan, _ is said to exist.
C. moral hazard
D. fraud
Answer» B. adverse selection
16. When the borrower engages in activities that make it less likely that the loan will be
repaid, is said to exist.
C. moral hazard
D. fraud
Answer» C. moral hazard
17. The concept of adverse selection helps to explain

which firms are more likely to obtain funds from banks and other financial intermediaries,
A.
rather than from the securities markets.
B. why indirect finance is more important than direct finance as a source of business finance.
C. why direct finance is more important than indirect finance as a source of business finance.
D. only (A) and (B) of the above.

17. The concept of adverse selection helps to explain
Answer» D. only (A) and (B) of the above.
18. Adverse selection is a problem associated with equity and debt contracts arising from
the lender’s relative lack of information about the borrower’s potential returns and risks of his
A.
investment activities.
the lender’s inability to legally require sufficient collateral to cover a 100 percent loss if the
B.
borrower defaults.
C. the borrower’s lack of incentive to seek a loan for highly risky investments.
Answer» A. the lender’s relative lack of information about the borrower’s potential returns and risks
of his investment activities.
19. When the least desirable credit risks are the ones most likely to seek loans, lenders are
subject to the
A. moral hazard problem.
B. adverse selection problem.
C. shirking problem.
D. free-rider problem.
Answer» B. adverse selection problem.
20. Financial institutions expect that

moral hazard will occur, as the least desirable credit risks will be the ones most likely to seek
A.
out loans.
opportunistic behavior will occur, as the least desirable credit risks will be the ones most
B.
likely to seek out loans.
borrowers will commit moral hazard by taking on too much risk, and this is what drives
C.
financial institutions to take steps to limit moral haza
Answer» B. opportunistic behavior will occur, as the least desirable credit risks will be the ones
most likely to seek out loans.
21. Successful financial intermediaries have higher earnings on their investments because
they are better equipped than individuals to screen out good from bad risks, thereby
reducing losses due to
A. moral hazard.
B. adverse selection.
C. bad luck.
D. financial panics.
Answer» B. adverse selection.
22. In financial markets, lenders typically have inferior information about potential returns
and risks associated with any investment project. This difference in information is called
A. comparative informational disadvantage.
B. asymmetric information
C. variant information.
D. Caveat venditor.
Answer» B. asymmetric information
23. The largest depository institution at the end of 2001 was

A. life insurance companies.
B. pension funds.
C. state retirement funds.
Answer» D. none of the above.
24. The value of assets held by commercial banks in 2001 was $6.7 trillion dollars, making
commercial banks the
A. second most important sector of financial intermediaries after mutual funds.
B. second most important sector of financial intermediaries after lifeinsurance companies.
C. second most important sector of financial intermediaries after privatepension funds.
D. largest sector of financial intermediaries.
Answer» D. largest sector of financial intermediaries.

24. The value of assets held by commercial banks in 2001 was $6.7 trillion dollars, making
commercial banks the
25. Which of the following financial intermediaries are depository institutions?

A. A savings and loan association
B. A commercial bank
C. A credit union
D. All of the above
26. Which of the following is a contractual savings institution?

A. A life insurance company
B. A credit union
C. A savings and loan association
D. A mutual fund
Answer» A. A life insurance company
27. Which of the following are not investment intermediaries?

A. A life insurance company
B. A pension fund
C. A mutual fund
D. Only (A) and (B) of the above
Answer» D. Only (A) and (B) of the above
28. The government regulates financial markets for three main reasons:
to ensure soundness of the financial system, to improve control of monetary policy, and to
A.
increase the information available to investors.
to improve control of monetary policy, to ensure that financial intermediaries earn a normal
B.
rate of return, and to increase the information available to investors.
28. The government regulates financial markets for three main reasons:
to ensure that financial intermediaries do not earn more than the normal rate of return, to
C.
ensure soundness of the financial system, and to improve control of monetary policy.
to ensure soundness of financial intermediaries, to increase the information available to

D. investors, and to prevent financial intermediaries from earning less than the normal rate of
return.
Answer» A. to ensure soundness of the financial system, to improve control of monetary policy, and
to increase the information available to investors.
29. Asymmetric information can lead to widespread collapse of financial intermediaries,

referred to as a
A. bank holiday.
B. financial panic.
C. financial disintermediation.
D. financial collapse.
Answer» B. financial panic.
30. The market value size of outstanding instruments of capital markets depends on factors
A. primary cash flows
B. number of issued securities
C. market prices of securities
D. both b and c
Answer» D. both b and c
31. When maturities of liabilities and assets are mismatched and risk incurred by financial
intermediaries then this risk is classified as
A. interest rate risk
B. channel rate risk
C. economic risk
D. issuance risk
Answer» A. interest rate risk

32. The depository institutions includes
A. mutual funds
B. commercial banks and thrifts
C. savings banks
D. credit unions
Answer» B. commercial banks and thrifts
33. The major liabilities of the commercial banks are

A. junk bonds
B. deposits
C. loans
D. swap bonds
Answer» B. deposits
34. The money market where securities are issued by governments to obtain funds for short
term is classified as
A. money market instruments
B. capital market instruments
C. counter instruments
D. long term instruments
Answer» A. money market instruments
35. The federal funds, bankers acceptance, commercial paper and repurchase agreements
are classified as
A. counter instruments
B. long term instruments
C. money market instruments
D. capital market instruments

35. The federal funds, bankers acceptance, commercial paper and repurchase agreements
are classified as
Answer» C. money market instruments
36. In financial transactions, the risk that there will be no profit in selling of this asset is
classified as
A. price risk
B. profit risk
C. selling risk
D. financial risk
Answer» A. price risk
37. The type of risk in which the value of liabilities and assets is affected by the exchange
rate is classified a
A. economic rates
B. foreign exchange risk
C. selling rate
D. buying rates
Answer» B. foreign exchange risk
38. In commercial banks, the subordinate debentures and subordinate notes are considered
as
A. stated rates
B. banks debentures
C. banks liabilities
D. banks deposits
Answer» C. banks liabilities
39. The type of financial security having payoffs which are connected to some securities
Issued some time back is classified as
A. linked security
B. previous security
39. The type of financial security having payoffs which are connected to some securities
Issued some time back is classified as
C. payoff security
D. derivative security
Answer» D. derivative security
40. A bond whose coupon rate is below the current market rate of interest will have a price:
A. more than its maturity value of Rs.100.
B. less than its maturity value.
C. equal to its maturity value
D. none
Answer» C. equal to its maturity value
41. A widening of the difference between the return on corporate bonds and on government
bonds might suggest which of the following?
A. The economy is on the brink of recession.
B. Interest rates are going to rise in future.
C. Government bonds are becoming more risky compared to corporate bonds.
D. Investors should avoid government bonds.
Answer» A. The economy is on the brink of recession.
42. In a situation where share prices are generally depressed because long-term interest
rates are expected to rise in future, a large firm looking for long-term finance would
normally consider:
A. issuing long-dated bonds.
B. making a new share issue.
C. borrowing from its bank on overdraft.
D. borrowing in the interbank market.
Answer» A. issuing long-dated bonds.

43. Using a supply and demand framework, what is likely to happen to share prices in
general if the central bank unexpectedly raises interest rates?
A. The demand curve shifts to the left.
B. The supply curve shifts to the left.
C. Both curves shift outward
Answer» A. The demand curve shifts to the left.
44. Using a supply and demand framework, what is likely to happen to share prices in
general if the central bank raises interest rates in response to a fall in the exchange rate?
A. The supply curve shifts to the left.
B. No changes.
C. Both curves shift inwards
Answer» B. No changes.
45. Which of the following actions might you expect lenders to take during periods of
variable and unpredictable inflation?
A. Reduce the amount of lending they are prepared to do.
B. Increase the average length of loans they are willing to make.
C. Increase the amount of lending they are prepared to do.
D. Reduce the average length of loans they are willing to make.
Answer» D. Reduce the average length of loans they are willing to make.
46. In the 'walking stick' hypothesis, the yield curve slopes:

A. down and then up
B. down
C. up
D. up and then down
Answer» D. up and then down

47. Secondary markets
A. engage in buying and selling that is out of the public view.
B. are where governments go to finance ongoing operations.
include centralized exchanges, over-the-counter markets, and electronic communication

C.
networks.
D. include all of the above.
Answer» C. include centralized exchanges, over-the-counter markets, and electronic communication

networks.
48. Financial institutions:

A. provide access to the financial markets.
B. are also known as financial intermediaries.
C. include banks, insurance companies, securities firms, and pension funds.
D. include all of the above.
Answer» B. are also known as financial intermediaries.
49. Debt markets:

A. are markets for money.
B. are markets for bonds, loans, and mortgages.
C. are markets for stocks.
D. are markets for either stocks or bonds.
Answer» B. are markets for bonds, loans, and mortgages.
50. Centralized exchanges:

A. are electronic systems that bring buyers and sellers together for electronic execution.
B. are markets where claims based on an underlying asset are traded for payment at a later date.
C. are markets where financial claims are bought and sold for immediate cash payment.
D. are secondary markets where buyers and sellers meet in the same location.
Answer» D. are secondary markets where buyers and sellers meet in the same location.
50. Centralized exchanges:
Chapter/Unit 3
1. In primary markets, first time issued shares to be publicly traded in stock markets is
considered as
A. traded offering
B. public markets
C. issuance offering
D. initial public offering
Answer» D. initial public offering
2. Transaction cost of trading of financial instruments in centralized market is classified as

A. flexible costs
B. low transaction costs
C. high transaction costs
D. constant costs
Answer» B. low transaction costs
3. Stocks or shares that are sold to investors without transacting through financial
institutions are classified as
A. direct transfer
B. indirect transfer
C. global transfer
D. pension transfer
Answer» A. direct transfer
4. Type of financial security which have linked payoff to another issued security is
classified as
A. linked security
B. derivative security
4. Type of financial security which have linked payoff to another issued security is
classified as
C. payable security
D. non-issuing security
Answer» B. derivative security
5. In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security
is considered as
A. increased liquidity
B. decreased liquidity
C. money flow
D. large funds
Answer» A. increased liquidity
6. Liquidity status of certificate of deposit which is more negotiable is considered as

A. certified liquidity
B. term liquidity
C. more liquid
D. less liquid
Answer» C. more liquid
7. Commercial paper issued with low interest rate thus commercial paper are categorized
as
A. payables rating
B. commercial rating
C. poor credit rating
D. better credit rating
Answer» D. better credit rating

8. Maximum maturity days of holding commercial paper are
A. 170 days
B. 270 days
C. 120 days
D. 5 days
Answer» B. 270 days
9. In borrowing and lending of federal funds, federal funds rate is result of function
between
A. assets and liability
B. cost and marketing
C. supply and demand
D. income and expense
Answer» C. supply and demand
10. A "hybrid" fund is one that:

A. invests in both bonds and stocks
B. started as a closed-end investment company, but changed to a mutual fund
C. has different "loads" for different classes of investors in the fund
D. can serve as an investment vehicle, but also provides check-writing privileges.
Answer» C. has different "loads" for different classes of investors in the fund
11. The first mutual fund was established in the:

A. 1890s
B. 1920s
C. 1940s
D. 1960s
Answer» D. 1960s
12. A mutual fund that invests solely in stocks would be categorized as a/an:
A. bond fund
B. fixed income fund
C. money market fund
D. equity fund
Answer» B. fixed income fund
13. A large number (about 25%) of long-term mutual funds are _____________ funds,
buying securities in proportions similar to those of a major stock index.
A. small cap
B. large cap
C. fixed income
D. Index
Answer» D. index
14. The bulk of the nation's money supply is created within the private banking system and
is sometimes called:
A. inside money
B. net money
C. base money
D. outside money
Answer» B. net money
15. A type of bank account designed to compete with money market mutual funds, and
having limited check-writing services, is known as:
A. wholesale CDs
B. demand deposit
C. repurchase agreement
D. NOW account
Answer» A. wholesale CDs

16. __________would encompass fees received by the bank, but not revenues coming from
interest charges on loans.
A. Net interest margin
B. Spread
C. Non interest income
D. Non interest expense
Answer» B. Spread
17. Another name used for a bank income statement is:

A. report of income
B. statement of retained earnings
C. overhead efficiency report
D. report of condition
Answer» D. report of condition
18. Which of the following is an advantage to investors of an open-end mutual fund?

A. Once all the shares have been sold, the investor does not have to put in more money.
B. The investors can sell their shares in the over-the-counter market with low transaction fees.
C. The fund agrees to redeem shares at any time.
The market value of the fund’s shares may be higher than the value of the assets held by the
D.
fund.
Answer» C. The fund agrees to redeem shares at any time.
19. In --------------- Securities share bond debentures are offered to the public for
subscription for raising capital or fund.
A. Prime Securities
B. Public Securities
C. Preferred Securities
D. Primary Securities
19. In --------------- Securities share bond debentures are offered to the public for
subscription for raising capital or fund.
Answer» A. Prime Securities
20. ADR Stands for:

A. Asset Depository Receipt
B. Asian Depository Receipt
C. American Depository Receipt
D. Adjustable Depository Receipt
Answer» C. American Depository Receipt
Chapter/ Unit 4
1. The largest industry group receiving venture capital funding is
A. computer software.
B. medical/health.
C. computer hardware.
Answer» D. none of the above.
2. The source of venture capital funding has

A. shifted from wealthy individuals to pension funds and corporations.
B. shifted from pension funds and corporations to wealthy individuals.
C. decreased since 1990.
Answer» A. shifted from wealthy individuals to pension funds and corporations.
3. A typical venture capital firm has a ______ number of investors who each contribute a
______ amount of money to the fund.
A. large; small
B. small; large
3. A typical venture capital firm has a ______ number of investors who each contribute a
______ amount of money to the fund.
C. large; large
D. small; small
Answer» B. small; large
4. Most automobile financing is provided by

A. commercial banks.
B. thrifts.
C. finance companies owned by automobile companies.
D. finance companies owned by real estate brokers.
Answer» C. finance companies owned by automobile companies.
5. Business finance companies provide specialized forms of credit to businesses by making

loans and purchasing accounts receivable at a discount; this provision of credit is called
A. discounting.
B. factoring.
C. Refinancing
D. sparking.
Answer» B. factoring.
6. Which one of the following is a regarded as classic venture capital?

A. MBO finance
B. Early stage
C. Institutional
D. Corporate
Answer» B. Early stage
7. Markets in which derivatives are traded are classified as

A. assets backed market
7. Markets in which derivatives are traded are classified as
B. cash flow backed markets
C. mortgage backed markets
D. derivative securities markets
Answer» D. derivative securities markets
8. Consider buying of put option, probability that a buyer would have negative payoff
increases with the
A. increase in stock price
B. decrease in stock price
C. increase in maturity duration
D. decrease in maturity duration
Answer» A. increase in stock price
9. Price of an option is subtracted form time value of option to calculate

A. book value index
B. market index
C. intrinsic value
D. extrinsic value
Answer» C. intrinsic value
10. If intrinsic value of an option is $450 and price of an option is $560 then time value of an
option is
A. $110
B. $1,010
C. $450.00
D. $560
Answer» A. $110
11. Type of swaps in which fixed payments of interest are exchanged by two counterparties
for floating payments of interest are called
A. float-fixed swaps
B. interest rate swaps
C. indexed swaps
D. counter party swaps
Answer» B. interest rate swaps
12. Type of bonds that pay coupon interest are classified as

A. forward bond
B. payment bonds
C. coupon bond
D. interest bonds
Answer» C. coupon bond
13. For given change in interest rates, percentage change in present value of bond is
classified as
A. price sensitivity
B. yield sensitivity
C. maturity sensitivity
D. premium sensitivity
Answer» A. price sensitivity
14. Type of bond whose present value is lesser than that of its face value is classified as
A. discount bond
B. premium bond
C. coupon bond
D. interest bonds
Answer» A. discount bond

14. Type of bond whose present value is lesser than that of its face value is classified as
15. For an investment, weighted average time to maturity is considered as

A. premium time
B. standard time
C. mean time
D. Duration
Answer» D. duration
16. Bonds that does not pay any interest rate are considered as
A. interest free bond
B. zero coupon bond
C. price less coupon bond
D. useless price bonds
Answer» B. zero coupon bond
17. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of venture capital firms?
A. Funding just one or a small number of firms.
B. Holding equity in the firms that are funded.
C. Having a long-term investment horizon.
D. Providing advice and assistance to the firms that are funded.
Answer» A. Funding just one or a small number of firms.
18. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of venture capital firms?

A. Developing a portfolio of companies.
B. Holding debt in the firms that are funded.
C. Allowing firms to use the funds as they see fit.

18. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of venture capital firms?
D. Having a short-term investment horizon.
Answer» A. Developing a portfolio of companies.
AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICES

1. Goods purchased but not recorded in the purchase register is ________________
A. an error of omission
B. to reduce profits
C. an error of commission
D. affect on agreement of trial balance
Answer» A. an error of omission
2. Working papers are the property of the ________________

A. client and auditor
B. auditor
C. client
D. equity shareholders
Answer» B. auditor
3. Which of the following documents is not relevant for vouching of sales

________________
A. daily cash sales summary
B. credit memos
C. delivery challans
D. sales department attendance record
Answer» D. sales department attendance record

4. The main object of an Audit is ________________
A. to ensure that final accounts are prepared
B. expression of an opinion on true and fair view of accounts
C. to ensure the future viability of the enterprise
D. detection and prevention of frauds and errors
Answer» B. expression of an opinion on true and fair view of accounts
5. An Audit Programme must be prepared ________________

A. before commencement of an audit
B. after completion of an audit
C. after submission of an audit report
D. during the conduct of an audit
Answer» A. before commencement of an audit
6. Analytical Review is ________________

A. an audit technique
B. audit in depth
C. a compliance procedure
D. reporting requirement
Answer» A. an audit technique
7. Audit in Depth means ________________

A. none of the above
B. detailed examination of all transactions
C. investigation of all transactions
D. detailed examination of selected transactions
Answer» D. detailed examination of selected transactions

8. Audit programme should be ________________
A. flexible
B. rigid
C. oral and flexible
D. oral
Answer» A. flexible
9. ________________ incorporates both Accounting and Administrative Controls.

A. internal control
B. internal check
C. statutory audit
D. internal audit
Answer» A. internal control
10. Debtors are valued at ________________

A. realizable value
B. as per articles of association
C. book value
D. decided by the customer
Answer» C. book value
11. The main objective of Window Dressing is ________________

A. increase liability
B. to mislead investors
C. to reduce tax liability
D. to understate profits
Answer» B. to mislead investors

12. ________________ document is not relevant for vouching cash purchases
A. purchase order
B. goods inward register
C. purchase invoice
D. attendance record of cashier
Answer» D. attendance record of cashier
13. To select a sample for Audit, the auditor should consider ________________
A. all the above
B. the size of the sample
C. the volume of transactions
D. adequacy of internal control system
Answer» A. all the above
14. Secret reserves are shown on ________________

A. assets side of balance sheet
B. none of the above
C. liabilities side of balance sheet
D. credit side of trading account
Answer» B. none of the above
15. Stock of goods on consignment should be valued at ________________

A. none of the above
B. invoice price
C. cost of realizable value whichever is lower
D. cost price
Answer» C. cost of realizable value whichever is lower

16. ________________ is not an error of Commission
A. mathematical error
B. compensating error
C. posting error
Answer» B. compensating error
17. Telephone charges should be examine on the basis of ________________

A. cash memo
B. telephone bill
C. all the above
D. agreement with telephone department
Answer» B. telephone bill
18. The Auditor examines Bill of Lading in order to vouch ________________

A. sales within the state
B. all the above
C. sales outside the state
D. sales outside the country
Answer» D. sales outside the country
19. ________________ Asset, which is not subject to physical verification

A. stock
B. cash
C. furniture
D. debtors
Answer» D. debtors
20. Goods sold but not recorded in Sales Register is ________________
A. compensating error
B. an error of commission
C. an error of omission
Answer» B. an error of commission
21. Audit plan should be best on knowledge of the ________________

A. client\s reputation
B. client\s family
C. client\s share capital
D. client\s business
Answer» D. client\s business
22. Confirmation is ________________

A. a compliance procedure
B. an audit technique
C. a principle of audit
Answer» B. an audit technique
23. ________________ should be checked by the Auditor in verification of Machinery

A. all the above
B. charge/line
C. the possession
D. ownership
Answer» A. all the above

24. Closing stock with the consignee is to be shown as the Asset of ________________
A. consignee
B. customer
C. all the above
D. consignor
Answer» D. consignor
26.
An auditor is like a
A. Blood haunt
B. Watch dog
C. May both according to situation
D. None of these
Answer» B. Watch dog
27. The term ‘Audit’ is derived from a Latin word “audire” which means;
A. To inspect
B. To examine
C. To hear
D. To investigate
Answer» C. To hear
28. Process of verifying the documentary evidences of transactions are known as:
A. Auditing
B. Testing
C. Vouching
D. Verification
Answer» C. Vouching
29. Auditing is compulsory for
A. Small scale business
B. Partnership firms
C. Joint stock Companies
D. Proprietary Concerns
Answer» C. Joint stock Companies
30. The main object of an audit is ___

A. Expression of expert opinion
B. Detection and Prevention of fraud and error
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Depends on the type of audit.
Answer» D. Depends on the type of audit.
31. Concealment of shortage by delaying the recording of cash receipts is known as

A. Embezzlement
B. Misappropriation
C. Lapping
D. None of these
Answer» C. Lapping
33. Lapping is also known as:

A. Teeming and lading
B. Embezzlement
C. Looping
D. Hacking
33. Lapping is also known as:
Answer» A. Teeming and lading
34. Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?
A. The auditor should express an opinion on financial statements.
B. His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
C. He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements
D. He should examine whether recognised accounting principle have been consistently
Answer» C. He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial
statements
35. A sale of Rs. 25,000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of _

A. Error of omission
B. Error of commission
C. Compensating error
D. Error of principle
Answer» B. Error of commission
36. ‘Goods sent on approval basis’ have been recorded as ‘Credit sales’. This is an example
of _
A. Error of principle
B. Error of commission
C. Error of omission
D. Error of duplication
Answer» A. Error of principle
37. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Management fraud is more difficult to detect than employee fraud
B. Internal control system reduces the possibility of occurrence of employee fraud and
37. Which of the following statements is not true?
management fraud
C. The auditor’s responsibility for detection and prevention of errors and frauds is similar.
D. All statements are correct.
Answer» B. Internal control system reduces the possibility of occurrence of employee fraud and
management fraud
38. As per AAS4, if auditor detects an error then –

A. He should inform the management.
B. He should communicate it to the management if it is material
C. The auditor should ensure financial statements are adjusted for detected errors.
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer» D. Both (b) and (c)
39. Which of the following is not a limitation of audit as per AAS4?

A. Objectivity of auditor’s judgment
B. Selective testing
C. Persuasiveness of evidence
D. Limitations of internal control system.
Answer» A. Objectivity of auditor’s judgment
40. Internal audit is undertaken

A. By independent auditor
B. Statutorily appointed auditor
C. By a person appointed by the management
D. By a government auditor
Answer» C. By a person appointed by the management

41. The scope of internal audit is decided by the :
A. Shareholders
B. Management
C. Government
D. Law
Answer» B. Management
42. Audit of banks is an example of –

A. Statutory audit
B. Balance sheet audit
C. Concurrent audit
D. All of the above
43. Concurrent audit is a part of

A. Internal check system
B. Continuous audit
C. Internal audit system
D. None
Answer» C. Internal audit system
45. Audit in depth is synonymous for

A. Complete audit
B. Completed audit
C. Final audit
D. Detailed audit
Answer» D. Detailed audit

47. Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?
A. It is conducted at regular interval
B. It may be carried out on daily basis
C. It is needed when the organization has a good internal control system
D. It is expensive
Answer» C. It is needed when the organization has a good internal control system
48. Internal check is carried on by

A. Staff specially appointed for the purpose
B. Internal auditor
C. Supervisor of the staff
D. Members of the staff
Answer» D. Members of the staff
49. Errors of Omission are

A. Technical errors
B. Errors of principle
C. Compensating errors
Answer» A. Technical errors
50. Window dressing implies:

A. Curtailment of expenses
B. Checking of Wastages
C. Under valuation of assets
D. Over Valuation of assets
Answer» D. Over Valuation of assets

50. Window dressing implies:
51.
Test Checking refers to
A. Testing of accounts and records
B. Checking of selected number of transactions
C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries
D. Checking of all transactions recorded
Answer» B. Checking of selected number of transactions
52. Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

A. Materiality is a relative concept
B. Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments
Auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of

C.
an informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements
D. At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only
Answer» D. At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level
only
53. …...the audit risks… the materiality and ……the audit effort
A. Lower, Higher, Lower
B. Lower, Lower, Higher
C. Higher, Lower, Lower
D. Lower, Higher, Higher
Answer» A. Lower, Higher, Lower
54. When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should
be satisfied that the
A. Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers
B. Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level
C. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level

54. When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should
be satisfied that the
D. Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
Answer» C. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level
55. In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?
A. Prior year’s errors
B. The auditor’s remuneration
C. Adjusted interim financial statements
D. Prior year’s financial statements
Answer» B. The auditor’s remuneration
56. Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally

A. Helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
B. Directs attention to potential risk areas
C. Indicates important aspects of business
D. All of the above
57. Which of the following statements is most closely associated with analytical procedure
applied at substantive stage?
A. It helps to study relationship among balance sheet accounts
B. It helps to discover material misstatements in the financial statements
C. It helps to identify possible oversights
D. It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance
Answer» D. It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance
58. For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with AAS14, the use of
analytical procedures is at the discretion of the auditor in which stage?
A. Substantive testing
58. For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with AAS14, the use of
analytical procedures is at the discretion of the auditor in which stage?
B. Planning stage
C. Overall review stage
D. All of the above
Answer» A. Substantive testing
59. Verification refers to:

A. Examining the physical existence and valuation of assets.
B. Examining the journal and ledger
C. Examination of vouchers related to assets.
Answer» A. Examining the physical existence and valuation of assets.
60. Stock should be valued at

A. Cost
B. Market price
C. Cost or Market price whichever is lower.
D. Cost less depreciation.
Answer» C. Cost or Market price whichever is lower.
61. ‘Auditor is not a valuer’, was stated in

A. Kingston Cotton Mills case
B. London Oil Storage Co. Case
C. London and General Bank case
Answer» A. Kingston Cotton Mills case

62. Floating assets are valued at
A. Cost
B. Market price
C. Cost or market price whichever is lower
D. Cost less depreciation
Answer» C. Cost or market price whichever is lower
63. Goods sold on the basis of ‘sales or return’ should

A. Be included in the stock
B. Not be included in the stock
C. Not be checked by auditor
Answer» A. Be included in the stock
64. Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?
A. Bank statements obtained from the client
B. Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly.
C. Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor
D. Computations made by the auditor
Answer» C. Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor
65. Which of the following statements is, generally, correct about the reliability of audit
evidence?
A. To be reliable, evidence should conclusive rather than persuasive
B. Effective internal control system provides reliable audit evidence
C. Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client
D. All are correct.
Answer» B. Effective internal control system provides reliable audit evidence

66. In an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that __
A. May be eliminated for an account balance under certain conditions
B. Are designed to discover significant subsequent events
C. Will increase proportionately when the auditor decreases the assessed level of control risk
D. May be test of transactions, test of balance and analytical procedures
Answer» D. May be test of transactions, test of balance and analytical procedures
67. The nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures is related to assessed level of
control risk
A. Randomly
B. Disproportionately
C. Directly
D. Inversely
Answer» C. Directly
68. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the appropriations of
audit evidence?
A. The reliability of audit evidence and its relevance in meeting the audit objective
B. The objectivity and integrity of the auditor
C. The quantity of audit evidence
D. The independence of the source of evidence
Answer» A. The reliability of audit evidence and its relevance in meeting the audit objective
69. When is evidential matter, generally, considered sufficient?

A. When it constitutes entire population
B. When it is enough to provide a basis for giving reasonable assurance regarding truthfulness
C. When it is objective and relevant
D. When auditor collects and evaluates it independently
Answer» B. When it is enough to provide a basis for giving reasonable assurance regarding
69. When is evidential matter, generally, considered sufficient?
truthfulness
70. Which of the following is not corroborative evidence?

A. Minutes of meetings
B. Confirmations from debtors
C. Information gathered by auditor through observation
D. Worksheet supporting consolidated financial statements
Answer» D. Worksheet supporting consolidated financial statements
71. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to management
representations obtained as per AAS11?
Authenticated copy of relevant minutes of meetings may be regarded as management
A.
representation
B. It should always be in working
C. It may be dated prior to the report date
D. It should be addressed to the auditor
Answer» B. It should always be in working
72. What would most appropriately describe the risk of incorrect rejection in terms of
substantive testing?
A. The auditor concludes balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B. The auditor concludes that the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact it not
C. The auditor has rejected an item for sample which was material
Answer» B. The auditor concludes that the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact it not
73. Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?

A. Risk of over reliance
B. Risk of incorrect rejection

73. Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?
C. Risk of incorrect acceptance
D. Both (a) and (c)
Answer» D. Both (a) and (c)
74. What would most effectively describe the risk of incorrect acceptance in terms of
substantive audit testing?
A. The auditor has ascertained that the balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B. The auditor concludes the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact is not
The auditor has rejected an item from sample which was not supported by documentary
C.
evidence
D. He applies random sampling on data which is inaccurate and inconsistent
Answer» A. The auditor has ascertained that the balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is
not
75. Which of the following Auditing Assurance Standard deals with Audit Planning?
A. AAS7
B. AAS8
C. AAS9
D. AAS3
Answer» B. AAS8
76. Audit programme is prepared by

A. The auditor
B. The client
C. The audit assistants
D. The auditor and his audit assistants
Answer» D. The auditor and his audit assistants
77. The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are: _
A. Evidence for audit conclusions
77. The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are: _
B. Owned by the client
C. Owned by the auditor
D. Retained in auditor’s office until a change in auditors
Answer» C. Owned by the auditor
78. The quantity of audit working papers complied on engagement would most be affected
by
A. Management’s integrity
B. Auditor’s experience and professional judgment
C. Auditor’s qualification
D. Control risk
Answer» B. Auditor’s experience and professional judgment
79. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programme
preparation?
A. To detect errors or fraud.
B. To comply with GAAP
C. To gather sufficient appropriate evidence
D. To assess audit risk
Answer» C. To gather sufficient appropriate evidence
80. Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?
A. To provide a basis for review of audit work
B. To provide a basis for subsequent audits
C. To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme
D. To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues
Answer» D. To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues

81. The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include
A. Extracts from client’s bank statements
B. Past year’s financial statements
C. Attorney’s letters
D. Debt agreements
Answer» A. Extracts from client’s bank statements
82. For what minimum period should audit working papers be retained by audit firm?
A. For the time period the entity remains a client of the audit firm.
B. For a period of ten years
C. For a period auditor opines them to be useful in servicing the client
D. For the period the audit firm is in existence.
Answer» C. For a period auditor opines them to be useful in servicing the client
83. Which of the following factors would least likely affect the quantity and content of an
auditor’s working papers
A. The assessed level of control risk
B. The possibility of peer review
C. The nature of auditor’s report
D. The content of management representation letter
Answer» D. The content of management representation letter
84. Which of the following statement is true regarding an auditor’s working papers?
A. They document the level of independence maintained by the auditor
B. They should be considered as the principle support for the auditor’s report
C. They should not contain details regarding weaknesses in the internal control system
D. They help the auditor to monitor the effectiveness of the audit firm’s quality control
Answer» B. They should be considered as the principle support for the auditor’s report
84. Which of the following statement is true regarding an auditor’s working papers?
85. Which of the following statement best describes the understanding with respect to
ownership and custody of working papers prepared by an auditor?
The working papers may be obtained by third parties when they appear to be relevant to issues
A.
raised in litigation
B. The safe custody of working papers is the responsibility of client, if kept at his premises
C. The working papers must be retained by an audit firm for a period of 10 years
Successor auditors may have access to working papers of the predecessor auditors. The
D.
approval of client is not required.
Answer» A. The working papers may be obtained by third parties when they appear to be relevant to
issues raised in litigation
86. The current file of the auditor’s working papers, generally, should include
A. A flowchart of the internal controls
B. Organisation charts
C. A copy of financial statements
D. Copies of bond and debentures
Answer» C. A copy of financial statements
87. Knowledge of the entity’s business does not help the auditor to
A. Reduce inherent risk
B. Identify problem areas
C. Evaluate reasonableness of estimates
D. Evaluate appropriates of GAAP.
Answer» A. Reduce inherent risk
88. Payment for wage should be vouched with the help of

A. Piece Work Statement.
88. Payment for wage should be vouched with the help of
B. Wage sheets
C. Minutes book
D. Bank pass book.
Answer» B. Wage sheets
89. Payment for building purchased should be vouched with the help of
A. Title Deed
B. Correspondence with the brokers
C. Building Account
D. Cash book
Answer» A. Title Deed
90. Purchase returns should be vouched with the help of

A. Bought notes
B. Credit notes
C. Goods inward book
D. Cash book
Answer» B. Credit notes
91. Receipts from sale of investments should be vouched with the help of
A. Brokers bought notes
B. Brokers Sold notes
C. Minutes book
D. Inventory of investment
Answer» B. Brokers Sold notes

92. Which of the following expenses should not be treated as capital expenditure?
A. Expenses paid on installation of a plant.
B. Cost of dismantling a building in case a new building is to be constructed on the land
C. Legal expenses incurred to defend a suit related to title of patent. The suit has been lost
D. The fees paid to engineer who constructed the plant.
Answer» C. Legal expenses incurred to defend a suit related to title of patent. The suit has been lost
93. Which of the following is not a revenue expense?

A. Cost of raising a loan
B. Cost of accessories of motor vehicles spent at the time of purchase
C. Expenses incurred for laying of sewers on land purchased
D. Insurance premium paid at the time of registration of the ship
Answer» B. Cost of accessories of motor vehicles spent at the time of purchase
94. Depreciation does not arise form _______

A. Effluxion of time
B. Use
C. Obsolescence through technology be market changes
D. Remarket expectation
Answer» D. Remarket expectation
95. Which of the following Schedule of the Companies Act, 1956 deals with depreciations?
A. Schedule XIV
B. Schedule V
C. Schedule XIII
D. Schedule X
Answer» A. Schedule XIV

96. Schedule XIV has prescribed rates of depreciation for double shift and triple shift
working for which one of the following assets?
A. Building
B. Plant and Machinery
C. Furniture and fittings
D. Ships
Answer» B. Plant and Machinery
97. A company has bought patents. Which of the following methods is most suitable for
providing depreciation on them?
A. SLM
B. WDV
C. Sum of year digits
D. Any of the above
Answer» A. SLM
98. Which of the following is a revenue reserve?

A. Capital redemption reserve
B. Security premium account
C. Debenture redemption reserve
D. Capital reserve
Answer» C. Debenture redemption reserve
99. Which of the following will not lead to creation of secret reserve?
A. Undervaluation of closing stock
B. Charging capital expenditure to revenue
C. Goods sent on consignment being shown as actual sales
D. Charging higher rates of depreciation on fixed assets than actually required
Answer» C. Goods sent on consignment being shown as actual sales

100. Who is responsible for the appointment of statutory auditor of a limited company?
A. Directors of the company
B. Members of the company
C. The Central Government
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Members of the company

Accounting & Finance Exit Exam Practice Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Accounting & Finance Exit Exam Practice Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Accounting & Finance Exit Exam Practice Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

COMPETENCIES

I. Financial Accounting and Reporting

2. Any income arising from special fund will be credited to

8. What is the nature of joint venture with co-venture account?

9. Which of the following term is applicable about consignment?

10. Retirement of bill means

13. Which of these errors affects only one account?

14. Which of the following error is an error of principle?

16. Trade discount is allowed at the time of sale of goods.

19. Decrease in the amount of creditors results in

20. Subscription received in advance to be shown in

21. Which of the following is an accounting equation?

22. AS – 09 deals with

24. Bills Receivable books is part of the

27. At the end of the year Bad Debts Recovered Account is

28. As regards the accounting treatment, Legacy should be

30. Which of the following is correct?

31. Provision for bad debt is made as per the

32. Capital expenditures are shown in the

33. Import duty of raw material purchased is a

34. Life Insurance Corporation Account is a

36. A cash book with discount and bank column is called as

37. The periodical total of Returns Inward Day Book is posted to 5

54. Any donation received for a specific purpose should be credited to

56. Which of the following transaction is not recorded in cash book?

57. Credit purchase of fixed asset is recorded in

58. Expenses paid but not accrued means

59. Until the discounted bill is paid by the acceptor, it remains as

62. When cash received for services rendered in the past

63. Stock in the hand of the consignee is valued

64. Noting charges are paid by

67. Which one is not considered as capital expenditure?

68. Legal charges paid to defend a suit on firm’s factory site is

70. The trial balance checks

73. The manufacturing account is prepared

74. Which one of the following is not a financial statement?

77. Which of the following is not a paper transaction?

78. Which of the following is capital expenditure?

80. ___________________does fulfill the function of both a journal and a ledger.

81. Which of the following is artificial personal account?

82. Accounting cycle ends with preparation of______________.

83. Journal proper uses to record _________________.

85. Accounting does not record non-financial transactions because of

86. Narration is given at the end of

87. Which one of the following is an example of Personal Account?

88. 5,000 incurred for up gradation of computer by installation of 128 MB Ram is

89. Cost of goods purchased for resale is an example of

90. Insurance claim received on account of machinery damaged completely by fire is

91. An expenditure is capital in nature when

92. A withdrawal of cash from business by the proprietor should be credited to

93. Cash book is a form of

94. A sale of goods to Laxman for cash should be debited to

98. On which of the following asset, depreciation is charged on ‘Depletion method’

106. The Consignment Accounting is made on the following basis

107. Joint venture account is of the nature of

109. Closing stock appearing in the trial balance is shown in

111. Which one of the following equation is correct?

112. Identify the Personal Account from the following

113. Which of the following is a transaction of contra entry?